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Botany - Section A
3. In a dihybrid cross, AaBb X AaBb, assuming
independent assortment, what proportion of
1. Match each item in Column I with one in progeny are expected to express either of the
Column II and select the correct match from the dominant phenotype?
codes given: 1. 3/16 2. 6/16
COLUMN I COLUMN II 3. 9/16 4. 1/16
A Groundnut P Lack endosperm
Endosperm persists in mature
B Coconut Q 4. Consider the two statements:
seeds
Endosperm is completely Baculoviruses are considered a safe option
I:
C Orchids R consumed by developing for use in research applications.
embryo They have a broad range of organisms that
II:
can act as their hosts.
Codes
A B C 1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
1. P Q R Both I and II are correct but II does not
2.
2. R Q P explain I
3. R P Q 3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. P R Q 4. I is incorrect but II is correct

2. Match the Mendel’s Laws given in Column I 5. If plants convert about 1% of the sunlight
with their correct definition in COLUMN II and they receive into chemical energy, the total
select the correct match from the codes given: energy originally present in the incident
COLUMN I COLUMN II sunlight that is finally embodied in a tertiary
consumer is about:
During gamete formation,
1. 0.1%
the alleles for each gene
2. 0.01%
Law of segregate from each other
A. P. 3. 0.001%
dominance so that each gamete carries
4. 0.0001%
only one allele for each
gene.
6. The genus Citrus has a number of species
In a heterozygote, one trait that undergo polyembryony, where alongside
Law of will conceal the presence sexually-derived embryos:
B. Q.
segregation of another trait for the
1. multiple nucellar-cell-derived embryos exist
same characteristic.
2. multiple integument derived embryos exist
Genes of different traits
Law of 3. only one nucellar-cell-derived embryo exists
can segregate
C. independent R. multiple antipodal-cell-derived embryos
independently during the 4.
assortment exist
formation of gametes.
Codes:
A B C
1. Q R P
2. Q P R
3. P Q R
4. R Q P

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7. In the given diagram, identify A, B, C and D: 10. Match each item in Column I with the one in
Column II and select the correct match from the
codes given:
COLUMN I COLUMN II
[Kingdom] [Cell wall]
A Monera P Absent
B Fungi Q Chitinous
A B C D C Plantae R Polysaccharide + amino acid
1. Terminator Promoter Template Coding D Animalia S Cellulosic
Strand Strand Codes:
2. Promoter Terminator Template Coding A B C D
Strand Strand 1. R S Q P
3. Promoter Terminator Coding Template 2. R Q S P
Strand Strand
3. Q S R P
4. Terminator Promoter Coding Template
Strand Strand 4. P Q R S

8. Currently. what is the most important cause 11. Apomixis is:

that is driving animals and plants to extinction? 1. the development of fruit without fertilization
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation 2. production of seeds without fertilization
2. Alien species invasion 3. unfertilized eggs developing into males
3. Over-exploitation 4. unfertilized eggs developing into females
4. Co-extinction
12. To form a nucleoside a nitrogenous base is
9. linked to the OH of:
Cyclosporin A has been 1. 1' C pentose sugar through an O-glycosidic
Assertion linkage
commercialized as a blood-
(A): 2. 1' C pentose sugar through an N-glycosidic
cholesterol lowering agent
linkage
Cyclosporin A is a competitive
Reason 3. 5' C pentose sugar through an N-glycosidic
inhibitor of an enzyme responsible
(R): linkage
for the biosynthesis of cholesterol
4. 5' C pentose sugar through an O-glycosidic
linkage
Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of the (A) 13. You start with 15N15N (heavy) DNA of
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not E.coli. After TWO generations in the 14N
2.
the correct explanation of the (A) medium, you expect E. coli cells will contain:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 25% 15N15N DNA, 50% 15N14N DNA, and
1.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False 25% 14N14N DNA.
2. 50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.
3. 50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 15N14N DNA.
4. 50% 15N14N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.

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14. Name the scientist who conducted long- 19. Match each item in Column I with one in
term ecosystem experiments to understand Column II and select the correct match from the
correlation between species richness with codes given:
ecosystem stability: COLUMN I COLUMN II
1. Paul Ehlrich Companion
2. David Tilman A P Absent in most monocots
cells
3. Robert May
Albuminous
4. MacArthur B Q Lacking in gymnosperms
cells
15. Which PGR promotes flowering in C Phloem R
Generally absent in
pineapples, induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes parenchyma primary phloem
and also used as herbicides? Parenchyma cell adjacent
1. Auxins 2. Cytokinins D Phloem fibers S to the sieve cell in
gymnosperm wood
3. Gibberellins 4. Ethylene
Codes:
A B C D
16. You do not expect to see in a plant cell: 1. Q S P R
1. A tonoplast 2. S Q R P
2. An elaioplast 3. P R Q S
3. 80 S ribosomes 4. R P S Q
4. A centrosome

17. Consider the given statements: 20. An intervening dikaryophase is seen during
In flowers of guava and cucumber, the the sexual reproduction in members of the
I:
flower is epigynous and the ovary is inferior fungal class:
In flowers of mustard, the flower is 1. Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes
II:
hypogynous and the ovary is superior 2. Ascomycytes and Basidiomycetes
1. Only I is correct 3. Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes
2. Only II is correct 4. Phycomycetes and Deuteromycetes
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect 21. Which of the following is/are a correct
match?
18. Regarding bacteria: Fabaceae Solanaceae
1. The rod shaped are called as coccus Monocarpellary
2. Majority are photosynthetic autotrophs I. Ovary Inferior
unilocular
3. As a group show the maximum metabolic
II. Fruit Endospermous Non-endospermic
diversity
4. All are pathogenic to humans
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

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22. Which of the following is/are a correct 26. Select the option where the given characters
match? are correct match for members of
large, bubble-shaped epidermal Rhodophyceae:
Bulliform cells that occur in groups on the Major Stored
I: Cell wall Flagella
cells upper surface of the leaves of pigments food
many monocots. Cellulose,
Chlorophyll a, 2-8,
a porous tissue consisting of cells Mannitol. pectin,
1. d; equal,
with large intercellular spaces in Laminarin polysulphate
phycoerythrin apical
the periderm of the secondarily esters
II: Lenticells
thickened organs and the bark of Cellulose,
woody stems and roots of Chlorophyll a,
Floridean pectin,
dicotyledonous flowering plants 2. d; Absent
starch polysulphate
phycoerythrin
1. Only I esters
2. Only II Chlorophyll a, 2,
3. Both I and II Mannitol. Cellulose
3. c; unequal,
4. Neither I nor II Laminarin and algin
Fucoxanthin lateral
2-8,
23. The reducing power used in Calvin cycle for 4. Chlorophyll a, Starch Cellulose equal,
reduction of carbon dioxide is: b;
apical
1. NADH 2. NADPH
3. ATP 4. Water
27. During the formation of the female
gametophyte in angiosperms, cell walls are laid
24. During glycolysis in plant cells, the enzyme when the developing female gametophyte
hexokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of: reaches:
I. Glucose 1. 2 nucleate stage
II. Fructose 2. 4 nucleate stage
1. Only I 2. Only II 3. 6 nucleate stage
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II 4. 8 nucleate stage

28. Select the correct statements with respect to

25. The strength of linkage between two genes pleiotropism
will be: A gene is said to be pleiotropy if it affects
(a)
1. higher if the genes are farther from each more than one trait
other Phenylketonuria is an example of
(b)
2. higher if the genes are closer to each other pleiotropy
3. higher if gametic coupling is present A condition where one gene has several
4. higher if gametic repulsion is present (c)
alleles is referred to as pleiotropism
A trait is said to be pleiotropic if several
(d)
genes control it

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a) and (d) only
3. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) only

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29. The largest tiger reserve in India is:

33. Each restriction endonuclease:
1. Valmiki binds to the DNA after identifying its
2. Nagarjunsagar - Srisailam I:
specific recognition sequence
3. Periyar cuts one of the two strands of the double
4. Nagarhole II: helix at random points in their sugar-
phosphate backbones
30. Which of the following has maximum 1. Only I is correct
genetic diversity in India? 2. Only II is correct
1. Mango 3. Both I and II are correct
2. Wheat 4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. Groundnut
4. Rice 34. Consider the two statements:
31. In angiosperms: Statement Current availability of CO2 levels
I: is limiting to the C3 plants.
the seed is the final product of sexual
I:
reproduction. Statement C3 plants show saturation at
the seed is often described as a fertilised II: about 360 μlL−1
II:
ovule.
III: seeds are formed inside fruits. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
correct
Only I and II are Only I and III are Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
1. 2. 2.
correct correct correct
Only II and III are I, II and III are Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. 4. 3.
correct correct incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect
32. Consider the given two statements:
Pollen is one part of the plant that
Assertion
is more likely to be preserved as 35. Consider the given two statements:
(A):
fossil. The number of trophic levels in
Assertion
Pollen intine is made of the grazing food chain is
(A):
Reason sporopollenin, one of the most restricted.
(R): chemically inert biological Based on the source of their
polymers. nutrition or food, organisms
Reason
occupy a specific
(R):
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the place in the food chain that is
1.
correct explanation of (A). known as their trophic level.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. explains the (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4.
correctly explain the (A).

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Botany - Section B 39. In a test cross AaBb X aabb [assuming

independent assortment], the ratio of progeny
36. The embryo of grass seed is enclosed with genotypes AaBb and aabb will be:
within: 1. 1 : 1 2. 3 : 1
1. a single protective sheath: the coleoptile 3. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 4. 9 : 1
2. a single protective sheath: the coleorrhiza
two protective sheaths: a coleoptile covering
3. the young shoot and the coleorrhiza 40. Given below are two statements: one is
covering the young root labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
two protective sheaths: a coleoptile covering labelled as Reason (R):
4. the young root and the coleorrhiza covering Alternaria, Colletotrichum and
the young shoot Assertion (A): Trichoderma are kept in the
fungal class- Deuteromycetes.
Asexual and vegetative phases
37. Consider the given two statements: Reason (R): in the life cycle of these fungi
In a test cross, the allele the individual in are not known.
question [one that expresses the dominant In the light of the above statements choose the
I: correct answer from the options given below:
phenotype] passes on, determines the
phenotype of the offspring. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
The homozygous recessive individual can correct explanation of (A).
II:
only pass on recessive alleles. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both I and II are correct but II does not 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.
explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct 41. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
photosynthetic pigments in higher plants:
Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated
1.
38. Identify the correctly matched pair: with photosynthesis.
I. Binding of N-glycosidic bond In the chromatogram, carotenoids appear
2.
nitrogenous bases to at C1 of the pentose yellow to yellow-orange.
a pentose sugar to sugar Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll a
3.
form a nucleoside from photo-oxidation.
II. Binding of phosphate Ester bond at C5 of The maximum absorption of chlorophyll a is
4.
to a nucleoside to the pentose sugar in blue and green wavelength region of light.
form a nucleotide
III. Joining of two 5’-3’ phosphodiester
nucleotides to form a bond 42. Gynoecium is situated in the centre and
dinucleotide other parts of the flower are located on the rim
1. Only I and II of the thalamus almost at the same level in:
2. Only I and III 1. Mustard
3. Only II and III 2. China rose
4. I, II and III 3. Plum
4. Guava

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43. Krebs cycle takes place in the part labeled: 47. Match the alga with the type of life cycle
and select the correct match from the codes
given:
Alga Type of life cycle
A Spirogyra P Haplontic
B Fucus Q Diplontic
C Polysiphonia R Haplo-diplontic

Codes:
A B C
1. 1 2. 2 1. P Q R
3. 3 4. 4 2. P R Q
3. Q P R
4. R Q P
44. During oxidation within a cell, all the
energy contained in respiratory substrates:
1. is released free into the cell 48. RNA interference involves silencing of a
2. is released in a single step specific mRNA which essentially means:
3. is released in a series of slow stepwise the transcription of mRNA is stopped by
reactions 1.
inactivating the promoter
4. gets converted to usable energy the hnRNA is not allowed to undergo post-
2.
transcriptional modification
45. Bundle sheath cells, part of Kranz anatomy
the mRNA cannot cross the nuclear pore
in a C4 plant, are not characterized by: 3.
complex
1. May form several layers around the vascular
translation of the mRNA molecule is
bundle 4.
prevented
2. Have large number of chloroplasts
3. Have thick walls impervious to gaseous
exchange
49. In PS I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has
4. Large intercellular spaces are seen
an absorption peak at:
46. Identify the incorrect statement: 1. 660 nm 2. 680 nm
1. Insulin is a polymer of fructose. 3. 700 nm 4. 730 nm
2. Cellulose is a homopolymer
3. Starch is a homopolymer
4. Chitin is nitrogen containing complex 50. Formation of interfascicular cambium and
polysaccharide cork cambium in certain plants is an example
of:
1. Differentiation 2. De-differentiation
3. Re-differentiation 4. Anti-differentiation

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Zoology - Section A 55. According to the MTP [Amendment] Act

2017, the gestational age till which MTP can be
51. Consider the given two statements: performed is a maximum of:
I: Secondary oocyte is fertilized by the sperm. 1. 12 weeks 2. 16 weeks
At fertilization, the secondary oocyte 3. 20 weeks 4. 24 weeks
II:
completes Meiosis-II
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct 56. Study the given diagram and select the
3. Both I and II are correct correct option:
4. Both I and II are incorrect

52. The mean annual precipitation is the most

variable in:
1. Tropical forest 2. Desert
3. Grassland 4. Arctic tundra

53.
Transgenic animals can be
specifically designed to allow the
study of how genes are regulated, The karyotype is of an individual suffering
Assertion and how they affect the normal 1.
from Down’s syndrome
(A): functions of the body and its 2. The number of autosomes seen is 43
development, e.g., study of complex
The genetic sex of this individual must be
factors involved in growth such as 3.
female
insulin-like growth factor.
The fertility will be maintained in this
By introducing genes from other 4.
individual
species that alter the formation of
this factor and studying the
Reason
biological effects that result,
(R): 57. An environment eliminates individuals at
information is obtained about the
the extremes of a population. This type of
biological role of the factor in the
natural selection will be called as:
body.
1. Stabilizing
2. Directional
Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the 3. Disruptive
1.
correct explanation of the (A) 4. Dispersive
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not
2.
the correct explanation of the (A) 58. When a retrovirus infects an animal cell:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 1. c DNA is introduced into cell
4. Both (A) and (R) are False Viral RNA is produced by reverse
2.
transcription
3. Viral RNA incorporates into host genomes
54. In the absence of fertilization: Infected cell can survive while viruses are
1. the zona pellucid gets hardened 4.
being replicated and released
2. the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II
3. the corpus luteum degenerates
4. menstruation does not occur

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59. Match each item in Column I with the one in 62. To maintain the pH and ionic balance of the
column II and select the correct match from the body fluids, the proximal convoluted tubule
codes given: selectively secretes all the following into the
Column I Column II filtrate except:
A Cephalochordata P Swim bladder 1. Hydrogen ion 2. Potassium ion
B Cyclostomata Q Notochord – head to tail 3. Ammonia 4. Bicarbonate ion
Males bear claspers on
C Chondrichthyes R
pelvic fins
Marine but migrate to 63. A person has the following values of
D Osteichthyes S respiratory volumes:
freshwater for spawning
Codes: Tidal Volume 400 ml
A B C D Expiratory reserve volume 1000 ml
1. S Q P R Inspiratory reserve volume 2500 ml
2. P Q R S Residual volume 1000 ml
3. Q S R P
His functional residual capacity and vital
4. R P S Q
capacity respectively are:
1. 2000 ml and 3900 ml 2. 2000 ml and 4900 ml
60. Given below are two statements: one is 3. 1400 ml and 3900 ml 4. 1400 ml and 4900 ml
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R):
64. Identify the incorrect statement:
Meiosis conserves specific PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in
1.
chromosome number of each suspected AIDS patients.
Assertion (A): species across PCR is being used to detect mutations in
2.
generations in sexually genes in suspected cancer patients.
reproducing organisms. ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-
3.
Meiosis, per se, results in antibody interaction.
Reason (R): reduction of chromosome ELISA does not detect antibodies and can
4.
number by half. detect only antigens.

In the light of the above statements choose the

correct answer from the options given below: 65. Identify the correct statement:
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is able to
1.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the transform large number of monocot plants.
1.
correct explanation of (A). Micro-injection is the only way to transform
2.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the animal cells.
2.
correct explanation of (A). Competence in bacterial cells can be induced
3.
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. by trivalent anions like phosphates.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. Biolistics or gene gun is a suitable method to
4.
transform plant cells.

61. Aldosterone acts mainly at renal tubules

and stimulates the:
1. Reabsorption of Na+ and K+
2. Excretion of Na+ and K+
3. Excretion of K+ and phosphate ions
4. Reabsorption of Na+ and phosphate ions

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66. If we compare percentage weight of 71. Match each item in Column I with one in
elements present in Earth’s crust and the Column II and select the best match from the
Human body, which of the following would be codes given:
present in the largest percentage in both? COLUMN I COLUMN II
1. Carbon A Comb plates P Cnidaria
2. Oxygen
B Metagenesis Q Mollusca
3. Hydrogen
4. Nitrogen C Canal system R Sponges
D Radula S Ctenophora
67. Which of the following values will not be Codes:
normal for a healthy person? A B C D
1. 10 gms of haemoglobin per 100 ml of blood 1. S P R Q
2. 5 million RBC per mm 3
2. P S R Q
3. 7000 WBC per mm 3
3. P S Q R
4. 200000 platelets per mm 3
4. S P Q R

68. Identify the gland that is not matched

correctly to its location in the body: 72. What type of chromosomes will not have a
1. Thymus Dorsal side of aorta short and a long arm?
2. Parathyroid Back side of thyroid 1. Acrocentric
3. Pineal Dorsal side of forebrain 2. Metacentric
4. Adrenal Superior pole of kidney 3. Sub-metacentric
4. Both 1 and 2

69. The total number of bones in the skeleton of 73. Inspiration during breathing occurs when
girdles in adult humans is: the pressure in lungs is:
1. Zero
1. 2 2. 4
2. Negative with respect to atmospheric
3. 6 4. 12 pressure
3. Equal to atmospheric pressure
4. Positive with respect to atmospheric pressure
70. Which biomolecule makes up maximum
percent of the total cellular mass in an average 74. What is incorrect regarding human heart?
cell? 1. It is neurogenic
1. Proteins 2. It is derived from embryonic mesoderm
2. Carbohydrates 3. It is a muscular pump
3. Lipids 4. It is located in thorax between the lungs
4. Nucleic acids
75. Nephrons closest to the renal medulla are
called:
1. Cortical
2. Medullary
3. Juxta-medullary
4. Proto-nephridia

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76. Karl Ernst von Baer: 81. Consider the two statements:
conducted a control experiment to disprove Carbon dioxide (CO2) diffuses
1.
spontaneous generation Assertion (A): faster than oxygen (O2) across
proposed the concept of pangenesis as the the respiratory membrane.
2.
physical basis of heredity CO2 is 20–25 times more soluble
disapproved the proposal of Ernst Haeckel Reason (R): in blood and alveolar fluids
3.
[Biogenetic law] than O2.
was one of the rediscoverers of Mendel’s
4.
laws
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1.
correctly explain the (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
77. The strain of Escherechia coli from which
the restriction enzyme EcoR I has been isolated Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
3.
is: explains the (A).
1. DH5α 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. RY 13
3. NC101
4. K1 82. A patient suffering from
hyperparathyroidism may have:
78. Identify the incorrect statement: I: increased bone deposition
Both AIDS and Hepatitis B can be II: increased risk of fractures
1. transmitted through sexual contact or 1. Only I 2. Only II
infected blood. 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II
Chronic use of alcohol can lead to cirrhosis
2.
of liver.
Nicotine stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete 83. Deaf-mutism and mental retardation is seen
3.
corticosteroids. in the deficiency of:
Morphine is a very effective sedative and 1. Iron 2. Calcium
4.
painkiller. 3. B12 4. Iodine

79. If a molecule that can act as a genetic 84. Aldosterone causes:

material should be able to generate its replica, Reabsorption of sodium ions by the distal
which of the following molecules can act as a I: parts of the tubules.
genetic material?
Secretion of potassium ions by the distal
I. Proteins II. DNA III. RNA II:
parts of the tubules.

1. Only I and II 2. Only I and III 1. Only I 2. Only II

3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

80. The number of cranial nerves in frogs are: 85. If N is the population density at time t, then
1. 8 pairs 2. 10 pairs its density at time t +1 is [B is births; I is
3. 12 pairs 4. 31 pairs immigration;
D is deaths; E is emigration]:
1. Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
2. Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) + (D + E)]
3. Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) (D + E)]
4. Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) / (D + E)]

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Zoology - Section B
91. The mammary ampulla in the given
diagram is shown by:
86. The part of the human respiratory tract that
is not included in the conducting zone is the:
1. Pharynx
2. Bronchi
3. Larynx
4. Respiratory bronchiole

87. The regulation of GFR involves hormonal

feedback mechanisms involving all the
following except:
1. Heart
2. Lungs 1. 1 2. 2
3. Hypothalamus 3. 3 4. 4
4. Kidney

88. All the following are related to the limbic 92. Vasectomy:
system in the human brain except:
is the most effective permanent form of
1. Amygdala 2. Hippocampus I:
contraception available to men.
3. Olfactory bulb 4. Corpus callosum protects against sexually transmitted
II:
infections.

89. Which of the following hormones is not a

1. Both I and II are correct
steroid and yet does not act on the target cells
through a second messenger? 2. Only I is correct
1. Corticotropin 3. Only II is correct
2. Cortisol 4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. Iodothyronines
4. Estrogen
93. PCR does not require:
90. Consider the given two statements: 1. A thermostable DNA polymerase
The presence or absence of hymen is not a 2. Dideoxy-dNTPs (ddNTPs)
I: reliable indicator of virginity or sexual 3. Template DNA
experience. 4. Primers
It is a membrane that often covers the
II: 94.
opening of vagina partially.
Assertion VNTRs are the basis of DNA
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I (A): fingerprinting by RFLP
Both I and II are correct and II does not VNTRs are polymorphic and are
2. Reason (R):
explain I inherited
3. I is correct and II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of the (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not
2.
the correct explanation of the (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is false
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

95. 98. Given below are two statements: one is

The genetic sex of an individual labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion labelled as Reason (R):
with Klinefelter's syndrome is
(A):
female Post-menopausal women are at
Reason Only X-chromosome is present in Assertion (A): higher risk to develop
(R): their genotype osteoporosis.
Level of oestrogen in post-
Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the Reason (R): menopausal women is
1. decreased.
correct explanation of the (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not In the light of the above statements choose the
2. correct answer from the options given below:
the correct explanation of the (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
96. Match each item in Column I with the one in 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Column II and select the correct match from the 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
codes given:
Column I Column II
A Plasma P 45 % of blood 99. Nicotine:
B. Formed elements Q 55 % of blood is a CNS depressant and can cause
1.
respiratory depression
C Neutrophils R 60-65 % of total WBCs
commonly leads to development of cirrhosis
D Lymphocytes S 20-25 % of total WBCs 2.
of liver
Codes
stimulates adrenal gland to release
A B C D 3.
adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
1. P Q R S
4. is very effective analgesic and sedative
2. Q P S R
3. Q P R S
4. P Q S R 100. Droplets can be the mode of transmission
of pathogens causing all the following diseases
except:
97. At a place where a ‘diffusion boundary’ is 1. Ascariasis
present in the human body, you are most likely 2. Pneumonia
to find 3. Common cold
1. Simple squamous epithelium 4. Covid-19
2. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
3. Columnar ciliated epithelium
4. Compound epithelium Chemistry - Section
A
101. The oxidation of benzene by V2O5 in the
presence of air produces:
1. Benzoic anhydride 2. Maleic anhydride
3. Benzoic acid 4. Benzaldehyde

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

102. The correct order for capturing polarity 106. Case Study Question:
among the following is: The relative location of the bond pair and the
1. NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S lone pair is decided by Bent's rule. The
2. H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF rule states that the more electronegative atom
3. H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF prefers to stay in the orbital having less s
character while the lone pair prefers to stay in
4. HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S
the orbital having more s character. In
molecules with trigonal bipyramidal (TBP)
103. CH3 CH2 CH Cl2 upon reaction with
geometry, more electronegative atom prefers
N aN H2 gives:
axial position while the lone pais prefers
equatorial position.
1. 2.
The hybridised state of Br in CsBr3 and shape
−
of Br
3
are, respectively:
3. 4. 1. sp3d and Linear
2. No hybridisation and Linear
3. sp3d and Trigonal bipyramidal
4. No hybridisation and Trigonal bipyramidal
104. Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer
of α − D glucose units in which chain is 107. Acetic acid dimerises in benzene . The
formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage while value of Van't Hoff factor (i) for the
branching occurs by dimerisation of acetic acid is 0.7. The percetage
1. C2-C5 glycosidic linkage dimerisation of acetic acid will be-
2. C1-C5 gycosidic linkage 1. 30%
3. C1-C6 glycosidic linkage 2. 60%
4. C2-C6 glycosidic linkage 3. 70%
4. 90%
105. Generally water soluble vitamins i.e. B and
C cannot be stored in our body except which of 108. The standard reduction potential of
the following vitamins: Zn2+/Zn and Cu2+/Cu is -0.76 and +0.34 V
1. Vitamin B1 respectively. The oxidising agent and reducing
2. Vitamin B6 agent, respectively, are
3. Vitamin B12 1. Cu & Zn2+ 2. Zn & Cu
4. Vitamic C 3. Cu2+ & Zn2+ 4. Cu2+ & Zn

109. When PCl3 is hydrolyzed then oxyacid of

phosphorous is formed. The basicity of oxyacid
of phosphorous is
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

110. MnO2 when fused with KOH and oxidized 114.

in the air gives a dark green compound X. In an
acidic solution, X undergoes disproportionation
to give an intense purple compound Y and
MnO2. The compound 'C' is
The compounds X and Y, respectively are:
1. Mn2O7 and KMnO4
1. 2.
2. K2MnO4 and KMnO4
3. KMnO4 and K2MnO4
4. KMnO4 and Mn2O7
3. 4.
111. The oxidising ability of the given anions
follows the order
2− − 3− 4−
1. CrO < MnO < VO < T iO
4 4 4 4

− 2− 3− 4−
2. MnO
4
< CrO
4
< VO
4
< TiO
4
115. [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is a blue soluble complex.
3. TiO
4−
< VO
3−
< CrO
2−
< MnO
− The blue colour of this complex is due to the
4 4 4 4
presence of
4− 3−
1. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
− 2−
4.TiO < VO < Mn O < CrO
4 4 4 4

2. Cu2+
112. The number of hydrate isomers of
3. SO4
2−

CoCl3.6H2O is/are:
1. 1 4. [Cu(NH3)6]2+
2. 2
3. 3 116. The radioactive lanthanoid among the
4. 4 following is:
1. Ce(58)
113. Which alcohol is most reactive in an 2. Nd(60)
esterification reaction? 3. Pm(61)
4. Eu(63)
1. CH3OH 2. CH3CH2OH
117. ψ3,2,0 is the representation of the orbital:
CH3
(CH3)3C- 1. 3px
3. | 4. 2. 3dxy
OH
CH3 − CH − CH2 − OH 3. 3dz2
4. 3dx2-y2

118. On adding inert gas at constant volume,

equilibrium shifts in the forward direction will
take place in -

1. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2N H3 (g)

2. P Cl5 (g) ⇌ P Cl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
3. H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2H I (g)
4. None of the above.

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

119. 2-Butyne is hydrogenated in presence of 126. Heat at constant volume and heat at
Lindlar's catalyst, The major product formed constant pressure, respectively, are
will be 1. ΔG and ΔH
1. Cis-but-2-ene 2. ΔH and ΔE
2. Trans-but-2-ene 3. ΔE and ΔH
3. 1-Butyne 4. ΔE and ΔG
4. Butane
127. The hybridised state of boron in diborane
120. In ClO4 , three π bonds are present. The (B2 H6 ) is
−

types of all the three π bonds are 1. sp

1. 3 dπ − pπ 2. sp2
2. 2 dπ − pπ and 1 pπ − pπ 3. sp3
3. 1 dπ − pπ and 2 pπ − pπ 4. sp2 as well as sp3
4. 3 pπ − pπ
128. When aqueous solution of N aCl is
121. Which of the following compounds does electrolyzed using inert electrodes then the ion
not act as an oxidising agent? discharged at cathode and anode, respectively,
1. SO2 are
2. H Cl 1. N a+ and OH −
3. KM nO4 2. H + and OH −
4. M nO2 3. H + and Cl−
4. N a+ and Cl−
122. The compound among the following has
the highest pKa. 129. In thin layer chromatography, which of the
1. CH3 COOH following is not used to visualise the separated
2. H COOH layer?
3. C6 H5 COOH
4. (CH3 )2 CH COOH 1. Visualisation agent in the mobile phase
2. Spraying of suitable reagent
123. Which has the highest mass? 3. UV light
1. 2.24 l SO2 gas at NTP 4. I2 solid
2. 0.4 mole N O2 gas
3. 3.01×1022 molecules of CO2 gas
4. 5 gm F e 130.
SeCl4 does not have a
124. Inversion of cane sugar is an example of Assertion (A):
tetrahedral structure.
1. Unimolecular reaction
2. Pseudounimolecular reaction Reason (R): Se has two lone pairs in SeCl4 .
3. Bimolecular reaction
4. Second order reaction Both (A) and (R) are True, and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
125. Formaldehyde is reacted with ethyl Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the
magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis. 2.
correct explanation of (A).
The product formed will be 3. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
1. Methanol
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
2. Ethanol
3. Propanol
4. Propan-2-ol

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

131. Select the correct option based on 134. The incorrect statement among the
statements below: following is:
Ionic bonds are non-directional, while
1.
The metal carbon bond in metal covalent bonds are directional.
Assertion (A): carbonyls possesses both σ and The formation of π- bond shortens the
π character.
2.
distance between the two concerned atoms.
The ligand to metal bond is a π An ionic bond is possible between similar
Reason (R): bond and metal to ligand bond 3.
and dissimilar atoms.
is a σ bond. Linear overlapping of atomic p-orbitals leads
4.
to a sigma bond.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 135. The electrolytes (A) and (B) in the below
2.
correct explanation of (A). graph, respectively, may be:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

132. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect related to Molecular Orbital Theory?
The π ∗ antibonding molecular orbital has a
1.
node between the nuclei.
In the formation of a bonding molecular
2. orbital, the two electron waves of the
1. A = KCl; B = ​NH4OH
bonding atoms reinforce each other.
2. A = NH4OH; B = CH3COOH
Molecular orbitals obtained from 2Px and
3. A = CH3COOH; B= CH3COONa
3. 2Py orbitals are symmetrical around the
bond axis. 4. A = NH4OH; B = NaCl
A π−bonding molecular orbital has larger
4. electron density above and below the
internuclear axis.
Chemistry - Section
B
133. When two liquids A and B mix together, 136. The boiling point of 1M Urea solution is
the boiling point of solution is found higher 101oC. At the same temperature, the boiling
than that of the individual liquids. The nature point of 1M KCl solution will be
of the solution is: 1. 101oC
1. Ideal solution. 2. 102oC
2. Positive deviation with a non-ideal solution. 3. 202oC
3. Negative deviation with a non-ideal solution. 4. Cannot be predicted (Insufficient Data)
4. Normal solution.
137. When CuSO4 solution using copper
electrodes is electrolyzed then the incorrect
statement amongst the following is
1. Weight of cathode increases
2. O2 gas is evolved at the anode
3. Weight of anode decreases
4. pH of the solution remains same

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

138. The molar conductivity of 0.05 M NH4Cl is 144. The total number of structural isomers of
20 S cm2 mol-1. The molar conductivities of the molecular formula C4 H8 are:
and Cl− ions at infinite dilution are 74 S 1. 3
+
NH
4
2. 4
cm2 mol-1 and 26 S cm2 mol-1, respectively. The 3. 5
dissociation constant of NH4Cl will be: 4. 6
1. 2.5 × 10
−3

2. 2 × 10
−3
145. The most acidic compound amongst the
3. 2.5 × 10
−4 following is
4. 2 × 10
−4 1. o-cresol
2. m-cresol
139. A catalyst accelerates a reaction primarily 3. p-cresol
by stabilizing the 4. o-xylene
1. Substrate
2. Product 146. In which of the following cases, value of
3. Intermediate the Van't Hoff factor (i) is the highest?
4. Transition state 1. N aCl (dissociation = 90%)
2. CaF2 (dissociation = 80%)
140. Based on the hyperconjugation effect 3. K4 [F e(CN )6 ] (dissociation = 50%)
described above: 4. AlCl3 (dissociation = 70%)
In which of the following compounds is the
double bond longest? 147. The correct order of spin-only magnetic
1. CH3- CH = CH - CH3 moment for the given complexes is:
2. (CH3)3 C-CH = CH2 1.
2+ 3− 3−
3. CH3-CH = CH-CH(CH3)2 [Co(H2 O)6 ] > [M nCl6 ] > [F e(CN )6 ]

4. CH2 = CH- CH2 -CH3 2.

3− 2+ 3−
[F e(CN )6 ] > [Co(H2 O)6 ] > [M nCl6 ]

141. Which, of the following solutions has the 3.

3− 3− 2+
highest freezing point? [M nCl6 ] > [F e(CN )6 ] > [Co(H2 O)6 ]

1. 1 M Urea solution 4.
2. 1 M KCl solution [M nCl6 ]
3−
> [Co(H2 O6 ]
2+
> [F e(CN )6 ]
3−

3. 1 M MgCl2 solution
4. All have the same freezing point

142. If equal volumes of pH=8 and pH=13

solutions are mixed together, then the pH of the
resulting solution will be:
1. 8.3
2. 9.3
3. 10.3
4. 12.7

143. In graphite, the hybridized state of carbon

and nature of graphite, respectively, are
1. sp3 and aromatic
2. sp2 and nonaromatic
3. sp2 and aromatic
4. sp3 and nonaromatic

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section A
148. The molar conductance of an electrolyte
increases with dilution according to the
equation: 151. Given below are two statements:
∘
Λm = Λm − A √ c
(Newton's 1st Law of Motion)
Consider the following four statements: Every body continues in its state
This equation applies to both strong and of rest or of uniform motion in a
A:
weak electrolytes. Statement I: straight line except in so far as it
The value of the constant A depends upon be compelled by an externally
B: impressed force to act
the nature of the solvent.
The value of constant A is the same for both otherwise.
C: It is observed that when a car
BaCl2 and M gSO4

The value of constant A is the same for both Statement II: brakes suddenly, the passengers
D: are thrown forward.
BaCl2 and M g(OH )2

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. (A) and (B) only Statement I is true, Statement II is
2. (A), (B), and (C) only 1. true, and Statement I is the correct
3. (B) and (C) only explanation of Statement II.
4. (B) and (D) only Statement I is true, Statement II is
2. true, and Statement I is not the correct
149. The coloured ion among the following is : explanation of Statement II.
1. Cu
+
3. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
2. Cu
2+
4. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
3. Ti
4+

5+
4. V
152. A beaker containing water is placed in an
150. elevator and the absolute pressure is measured
at a depth of 10 cm below the water level.
Column I Column II (Ionic Size)
If the elevator accelerates up, the pressure
(p) Mg2+ (I) 1.19 Å 1.
decreases.
(Q) O 2−
(II) 0.72 Å If the elevator moves up with uniform
2.
(R) Na +
(III) 1.16 Å velocity, the pressure decreases.
(S) F− (IV) 1.26 Å If the elevator accelerates down, the
3.
Identify the option capturing the correct match pressure decreases.
of information given in Column I and Column II 4. If the elevator moves down with uniform
above: velocity, pressure increases.
P Q R S
1. III I II IV
153. The ice-point reading on a thermometer
2. II IV I III ∘
scale is found to be 20 , while the steam point
3. II IV III I ∘
is found to be 70 . When this thermometer
4. IV II III I ∘
reads 100 , the actual temperature is:
∘
1. 80 C
∘
2. 130 C
∘
3. 160 C
∘
4. 200 C

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

154. 156. A parallel plate capacitor (C) is charged

by connecting it to a battery (emf E ). A
dielectric slab is inserted into the space
between the plates.
(I) The charge on the plates increases.
The energy stored in the capacitor
(II)
increases.
Work is done by the battery as the slab is
A pair of field lines are drawn, connecting the (III) inserted.
charges q1, q2 in addition to the straight field
Choose the correct option:
line connecting them. From the above diagram,
1. I, II are true 2. I and III are true
3. only I is true 4. I, II, and III are true
1. q1 > 0, q2 < 0 and |q1| > |q2|
2. q1 < 0, q2 > 0 and |q1| > |q2|
3. q1 > 0, q2 < 0 and |q1| < |q2| 157. A long solenoid has a square cross-section
of side a. It has turn-density n (number of turns
4. q1 < 0, q2 > 0 and |q1| < |q2|
per unit axial length). A current i is passed
through this solenoid. The magnetic field at the
centre of the solenoid is Bc . Then, Bc is
155. A point charge 'q' is placed at a distance 2r proportional to:
from the center of a conducting sphere of (I) a
radius r, and the sphere is earthed. The 1
(II) a
conducting sphere acquires a charge q1, which
resides on its surface. Then, (III) n
(IV) i
1. I, III, IV
2. II, III, IV
3. III, IV
4. IV Only

158. The coercive force for a certain magnet is

3 × 10 A/m. This magnet is placed within a
3

solenoid having 40 turns/cm. What current

should be passed through the solenoid so that
the magnet is demagnetised?
1. 0.75 A
2. 75 A
1. q1 = −q
3. 1.33 A
q
2. q1 = −
2
4. 133 A
q
3. q1 = −
4

4. q1 = −2q
Hint: Use the fact that the potential at the
center of the sphere is zero.

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

159. A thin metallic plate is allowed to fall 161. A ray of light is incident normally onto the
through the space between two magnetic poles surface AB of a right-angled prism ABC (∠B =
creating a horizontal magnetic field. The plate 90o) and emerges from the surface AC. The
is vertical, and its face is perpendicular to the refractive index of the material of the prism is
field lines as it falls. While it is entering the μ = √2 .
region of the magnetic field,

1. the acceleration of the plate is equal to g.

At what other angle of incidence on the surface
the acceleration of the plate is greater than AB will the ray undergo the same total
2.
g.
deviation as before?
3. the acceleration of the plate is less than g. 1. 15o
4.
the plate comes to a stop and rebounds 2. 30o
upward. 3. 45o
4. 60o

160. A convex lens forms a real image of the 162. A double-slit experiment is performed
same size as that of the object, but when it is with one slit four times as wide as the other.
moved closer by 15 cm it forms a real image Assuming that the amplitude of light coming
that is twice as large. The focal length of the from a slit is proportional to the slit-width, the
lens is: ratio of the maximum and minimum intensities
1. 15 cm Imax
on the screen, =
2. 30 cm Imin

3. 45 cm 1.
5

3
4. 90 cm 3
2. 1
25
3. 9
9
4. 1

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

163. Photons of energy hν (ν = frequency) 165. Two semi-circular current-carrying wires

incident onto a photocathode cause the are placed in the same plane so that they share
emission of photoelectrons, and a current flows a common centre. The magnetic field due to
in the circuit. Assume the photoelectrons are any one of them at the common centre has the
emitted normal to the photocathode. A uniform magnitude, Bo . When one of them is tilted so
magnetic field B is switched on parallel to the that it is in a perpendicular plane, with the
plates (into the plane). The work function is W same centre, the magnetic field at the common
and the separation between the cathode and centre is B. Then,
anode is 'd'. The minimum value of B for which 1. B = 2Bo
the ammeter shows zero current satisfies: 2. B =
B0

3. B = √2 B0
B0
4. B =
√2

166. The two switches S1, S2 are switched on

simultaneously. The current through the cell ε1
is, initially,

1. B.e.d = (hν -W).

2. (B.e.d)2 = m(hν +W).
3. (B.e.d)2 = 2m (hν -W).
4. (B.e.d)2 = 2m (hν +W).

164. Let nh, ne be the number of holes and

electrons in a sample of silicon (Si) doped with
phosphorous (P). Then, 1.
ε1

R
ε2
2.
1. nh = ne R
ε1 −ε2
3.
2. nh > ne R
ε1 −ε2

3. ne > nh 4. 2R

any of the above may be true depending on

4.
the temperature of the sample.

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

167. The end ′ B′ of the circuit is earthed 170. During an experiment, an ideal gas is
(VB = 0) while a sinusoidal voltage is applied observed to obey the law: pV 3 = constant, as
at ′ A′ ; VA = V0 sin ωt. The rms voltage across the process is conducted. If the volume of the
the capacitor C equals that across the upper gas doubles during this process, the absolute
resistor R (as shown in the figure). What is the temperature of the gas changes from T to:
phase difference between the current through 1. 2T
the capacitor and the voltage across the 2. 2
T

capacitor when no current flows out at X? 3. 4T

4. 4
T

171. Two identical springs are joined end-to-

end to form a single spring and a block is
suspended from the combination. The time
period of oscillation is T1 . Alternatively, if the
springs were joined in parallel, the time period
is T2 . Then:

1. T1 = T2
1. 0o
2. T1 = 2T2
2. 45o
3. T2 = 2T1
3. 90o
4. none of the above is true.
4. 180o

168. Let the average nuclear force exerted by a

172. A 100 cm wire of mass 40 g is fixed at both
proton on a proton be Fpp , by a proton on a
ends. A tuning fork, vibrating at a frequency of
neutron be Fpn and by a neutron on a neutron 50 Hz, sets the wire into resonance in its
be Fnn . When their separations are nearly 1 fm fundamental mode. Then, the tension in the
, then, wire is:
1. Fpp < Fpn < Fnn 1. 400 N
2. Fpn > Fpp > Fnn 2. 100 N
3. Fpp > Fpn > Fnn 3. 25 N
4. 1600 N
4. Fpp = Fpn = Fnn
173. If the absolute temperature increases by
169. A particle is projected with a speed u so 1%, the frequency of an organ pipe will:
that it has the maximum horizontal range 1. increase by 1%.
under gravity. The speed is increased to v 2. decrease by 1%.
(without changing the direction of its 3. increase by 0.5%.
projection), so that, after projection, it passes 4. decrease by 0.5%.
above its previous point of impact but at a
height which is equal to its previous maximum
height. Then,
1. 2u = v
2. 3u = 2v
3. 2u = √3v
4. 3u = √2v

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 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

174. Two short bar-magnets are placed at large 177. The velocity-time graph of a particle,
distance from each other, with their axes moving along a straight time, is shown in the
aligned along the same line but in opposition figure. The curve, when plotted, takes the form
direction to each other. A null point is formed of a 'circle'. The magnitude of average
between them at a distance r1 from the first acceleration of the particle is:
magnet and r2 from the second. If the dipole
moments of the magnets are P1 and P2 , then:
r1 P1
1. r2
=
P2

2
r1 P1
2. ( r 2
) =
P2

3
r1 P1
3. ( r 2
) =
P2

4. none of the above is true.

175. A small solenoid is kept inside a much 1. 1 m/s2

larger solenoid, with their axes parallel to each 2. 2 m/s2
other. The small solenoid has a cross-sectional
3. less than 1 m/s2
radius r1 , length l1 and the total number of
turns N1 . The corresponding quantities for the 4. greater than 2 m/s2
larger solenoid are: r2 , l2 , N2 respectively.
The smaller solenoid, which had a mutual
inductance M0 with the larger one, is now 178. A small block of mass m lies on a
rotated so that it makes an angle θ, with the frictionless wedge of mass M , which is pushed
larger one: the angle being measured between horizontally to the right by means of a constant
their axes. The mutual inductance is (nearly): force F . There is no relative motion between
1. M0 block and the wedge. Let the work done by F
2. M0 cosθ on M be WF . The work done by the normal
3. M0 sinθ force (between M & m) on m be Wm . Both are
4. M0 cos2 θ measured for the same time interval.

176. In stimulated emission, an incoming

photon interacts with an excited atom (e.g. H*)
and brings the atom to its ground state, while
an extra photon is emitted - as it happens in a
laser. When a photon stimulates the emission of WF Wm

another photon, the two photons have: 1. =

m
2. WF ⋅ M = Wm ⋅ m
M

1. the same phase. 3.

WF
=
Wm
4.
WF
=
Wm

M +m m M m+M
2. the same energy.
3. the same direction.
4. the same phase, energy, and direction.

Page: 24
 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

179. A uniform rod of mass M and length L lies 182. Select the correct option based on
at rest on a smooth horizontal plane, as shown statements below:
in the figure. A particle of mass m, moving with As a gas bubble rises from the
an initial velocity u strikes one end (A) of the Assertion (A): bottom of a lake, its volume
rod and stops. The initial velocity u is decreases.
perpendicular to the length (AB) of the As the gas bubble rises from the
rod. Reason (R): bottom of a lake-the pressure of
the gas within decreases.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.

2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
The angular momentum of the system, about 4.
correct explanation of (A).
O, before the collision is:

1. zero 2. muL
3.
muL
4.
muL
+
1
ML (
2 u 183. A straight horizontal wire of mass m and
)
2 2 12 L
length l, and having a negligible resistance can
slide freely on a pair of conducting parallel
rails, placed vertically. The rails are connected
180. The quantity η is defined by: η = 1 at the top by a capacitor C. A uniform magnetic
μ σ
field B exists in the region, perpendicular to
0

where μ0 is the permeability of free space and

the plane of the rails. The wire
σ is the electrical conductivity (of a plasma). η

is referred to as the magnetic diffusivity. Its SI

unit is
1. m2/s
2. m/s2
3. C-m2/s
4. T-m/s

181. A uniform solid sphere lying on a smooth

horizontal surface is acted upon by a horizontal
force, which is impulsive and transmits to it a 1. falls with uniform velocity.
momentum mv, where m is the mass of the accelerates down with acceleration less than
sphere (see figure). The angular velocity of the 2.
g.
sphere is:
accelerates down with acceleration equal to
3.
g.

4. moves down and eventually comes to rest.

v 2v
1. r
2. r

3 v 5 v
3. 2 r
4. 2 r

Page: 25
 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

184. Which of the following situation(s), can 188. The first overtone of a closed organ pipe of
cause the radiation of an electromagnetic length l1 matches the fundamental frequency
wave? of an open pipe of length l2 . Then,
1. l1 = 2l2
a varying sinusoidal current flowing 2. l2 = 2l1
(A)
through a capacitor 3. 2l1 = 3l2
an electric dipole, whose size (and 4. 2l2 = 3l1
(B)
magnitude) is oscillating with time
(C) a steady current flowing through a toroid 189. A metallic sphere of radius R is given a
charge Q. The energy stored in the sphere due
1. only (A) to this charge is:
2
Q
2. only (B) 1. 4πε0 R

3. only (A) & (B) 2Q

2

2.
4. (A), (B), (C) 4πε0 R
2
1 Q
3. 2
(
4πε0 R
)

2
Q
185. Consider the circuit shown in the above 4.
16πε R
diagram. The output (Y ) of the circuit does not 0

depend on A. Then, Y = 190. The potential difference between the ends

of a 12 V battery when it is being charged by a 2
A charger is found to be 13.2 V.
If this battery is connected in a circuit with a 6
Ω resistance, the current will be nearly

1. 2 A
1. B AND C 2. 1 A
2. B OR C 3. 1.8 A
3. B 4. 2.2 A
4. C
191. A current-carrying loop of wire in the
shape of a square of side 'a' lies in the x-y plane.
Physics - Section B A uniform magnetic field B acts in the plane.
Then:
186. The net force acting on a projectile at the
highest point of its trajectory, moving with a
speed v, at a height H is (m is the mass of the
projectile)
1. Zero
2. mg
2
mv
3. mg+ H 1. The force on the loop is 4iaB.
2

2. The torque on the loop is ia2B.

mv
4. mg- H

3. The force on the loop is √2iaB.

187. A water pump lifts water from a well
4. The torque on the loop is √2ia2B.
which is 20 m deep at a rate of 60 kg/min – with
negligible K.E. Take g = 10 m/s2. The losses in
the pump are 20%. The power of the pump is
1. 200 W 2. 250 W
3. 2000 W 4. 500 W

Page: 26
 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

192. A small object is placed on the principal 195. There is no friction anywhere, and the
axis of a convex lens and it forms a real image string and the pulley are ideal. Assume that
with a (transverse) magnification of 2. If the m1 < m2 .The acceleration of m2 down the
object were to move perpendicular to the plane is a. Then,
principal axis with a speed u, the speed of the
image will be:
1. u
2. u/2
3. 2u
4. 4u

193. Select the correct option based on 1. as m → 1, a → 0.

1

m
statements below: m
2

2. as m → 0, a → g.
1

The resistance of a photodiode 2

decreases when light having m

3. a varies linearly with m .
1

Assertion (A):
photons of sufficient energy is 2

incident on it. 4. all the above are true.

When energetic photons fall on
the p-n junction of a
Reason (R): photodiode, electron-hole pairs 196. Which of the following diagrams, correctly
are created due to the breaking illustrates the streamline flow of a liquid out of
of the valence bonds. a tank?

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.

2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 1. 2.
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A).

194. A metallic ball (work function: 2 eV) is

irradiated with light consisting of photons of
wavelength 200 nm. The ball has an initial 3. 4.
charge, giving it a potential 1 V. Take the
product of Planck's constant and velocity of
light, hc as 1240 eV-nm. The final potential of
the ball, when photoemission practically stops,
is:
1. 2 V
2. 3.2 V
3. 4.2 V
4. 5.2 V

Page: 27
 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

197. The arrangement shows two pistons P1 , P2 199. A block A is placed on a spring and causes
with a rigid connecting rod C so that they can it to be compressed; when another block B is
slide together with respect to the two fixed placed on top of the first one the compression
cylinders of cross-sectional areas A1 , A2 increases by 125%. The time period of small
respectively. The two cylinders are connected oscillations is TA when A is present, and is
by means of two pipes to a small cylinder (of TAB , when both A & B are present. Then,

area A) with a piston at the bottom on which is

applied a force F . The interior of the pipes and
cylinder is filled with an incompressible oil.
Ignore any pressure variations due to gravity.
The net force on the two pistons P1 , P2 is

3
1. TAB =
2
TA

√5
2. TAB =
2
TA

1
3. TAB =
2
TA

2
4. TAB =
3
TA

200. The fundamental frequencies of a closed

pipe and an open pipe are identical. The first
overtone for the closed pipe is fc and for the
fc
open pipe is fo . Their ratio is:
fo

1. 1
1
2. 2
1.
F
(A1 + A2 ) to right.
A 2
3.
2.
F
(A1 + A2 ) to left. 3
A 3
F 4.
3. (A2 − A1 ) to right. 2
A
F
4. (A2 − A1 ) to left.
A

198. The pressure of an ideal gas (γ =

3
) is
2

increased by 1% in an adiabatic process. The

temperature of the gas:
1. increases by 1.5%
2. decreases by 1.5%
1
3. increases by 3
%

2
4. increases by 3
%

Page: 28
 High Yield Test #15 (Level 2) - NEW NCERT
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

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