1.

Radiographic Positioning and Techniques

Q1: When performing a PA chest X-ray, the patient should be positioned:

 A) With the chest against the image receptor and arms at the sides
 B) With the back against the image receptor and arms overhead
 C) With the chest away from the image receptor and arms elevated
 D) With the back against the image receptor and hands on hips

Answer: A) With the chest against the image receptor and arms at the sides
Q2: For a lateral chest X-ray, the patient’s arms should be:
 A) Positioned across the chest
 B) Elevated above the head to avoid superimposing the lungs
 C) Resting on the hips to keep the shoulders relaxed
 D) Behind the back

Answer: B) Elevated above the head to avoid superimposing the lungs

Q3: The AP (Anteroposterior) projection of the chest is used when:
 A) The patient is unable to stand or sit upright
 B) A lateral chest X-ray is contraindicated
 C) The radiographer needs to minimize the radiation dose
 D) Both A and B

Answer: D) Both A and B

Q4: For a supine abdominal X-ray (KUB), the patient should be positioned:
 A) Lying flat with the arms at the sides and the legs extended
 B) On their side with the legs drawn up
 C) In an erect position with the arms overhead
 D) Prone with the arms extended above the head

Answer: A) Lying flat with the arms at the sides and the legs extended
Q5: When performing an erect abdominal X-ray, the radiographer should ensure:
 A) The patient is standing with the chest against the image receptor and the arms at the
sides
 B) The patient is sitting down with the legs crossed
 C) The patient is standing with the hands raised above the head
 D) The patient’s back is against the image receptor with the head turned

Answer: A) The patient is standing with the chest against the image receptor and the
arms at the sides
Q6: To obtain a lateral view of the wrist, the patient should:
 A) Place the wrist in a supine position with the thumb up
 B) Position the wrist on its side with the forearm parallel to the image receptor
 C) Have the wrist in a prone position with the fingers pointing downward
 D) Position the wrist in an oblique angle with the fingers pointing forward

Answer: B) Position the wrist on its side with the forearm parallel to the image
receptor
Q7: In a lateral view of the elbow, the patient should:
  A) Have the arm fully extended and the hand facing downward
 B) Have the arm flexed 90 degrees with the hand in a neutral position
 C) Have the elbow fully extended and the hand facing up
 D) Have the arm bent at 45 degrees with the palm down

Answer: B) Have the arm flexed 90 degrees with the hand in a neutral position
Q8: For a AP knee X-ray, the patient should be positioned:
 A) With the leg extended and the foot dorsiflexed
 B) With the knee slightly flexed and the foot internally rotated
 C) With the knee fully flexed and the foot in a neutral position
 D) With the knee fully extended and the leg in a neutral position

Answer: D) With the knee fully extended and the leg in a neutral position
Q9: A lateral lumbar spine X-ray requires the patient to:
 A) Be in a supine position with the knees flexed
 B) Be in a prone position with the arms above the head
 C) Be in a lateral position with the knees and hips flexed to reduce lumbar curvature
 D) Be in an upright position with the arms raised overhead

Answer: C) Be in a lateral position with the knees and hips flexed to reduce lumbar
curvature
Q10: For an AP cervical spine X-ray, the patient should be positioned:
 A) Lying supine with the neck extended
 B) Sitting or standing with the chin up and the neck in neutral alignment
 C) Lying prone with the arms raised
 D) Sitting with the chin lowered and head rotated

Answer: B) Sitting or standing with the chin up and the neck in neutral alignment
Q11: For an oblique view of the cervical spine, the patient should:
 A) Be in a lateral position with the head turned 45 degrees
 B) Be rotated 45 degrees with the chin slightly elevated
 C) Be rotated 30 degrees with the head turned slightly down
 D) Be lying supine with the head rotated 90 degrees

Answer: B) Be rotated 45 degrees with the chin slightly elevated

5. Chest Imaging Techniques
Q12: In a PA chest X-ray, the central ray should be directed:
 A) 2 inches below the jugular notch
 B) 5 cm above the xiphoid process
 C) At the level of T7
 D) At the midline of the chest, 2 inches above the sternum

Answer: C) At the level of T7

Q13: When performing a lateral chest X-ray, the central ray should be directed:
 A) Perpendicular to the mid-sagittal plane
 B) Perpendicular to the mid-coronal plane at the level of T7
 C) Parallel to the mid-coronal plane
 D) 5 cm below the level of the xiphoid process
Answer: B) Perpendicular to the mid-coronal plane at the level of T7
6. Imaging Technique Factors
Q14: The kilovolt peak (kVp) for a chest X-ray should generally be set at:
 A) 40-50 kVp
 B) 60-70 kVp
 C) 110-120 kVp
 D) 90-100 kVp

Answer: C) 110-120 kVp

Q15: When performing an AP abdominal X-ray, the mAs should be adjusted to:
 A) A high mAs to ensure good contrast for soft tissues
 B) A low mAs for faster exposure
 C) A moderate mAs with a higher kVp for better penetration of the abdomen
 D) A high mAs and low kVp for better detail

Answer: C) A moderate mAs with a higher kVp for better penetration of the abdomen
Q16: For a lateral skull X-ray, the patient’s head should be:
 A) Positioned with the chin raised
 B) Positioned in a lateral position with the arms at the sides
 C) Positioned with the chin tucked and the neck extended
 D) Positioned with the forehead and nose in contact with the image receptor

Answer: B) Positioned in a lateral position with the arms at the sides

Q17: A Townes projection for the skull requires the patient to:
 A) Flex the chin and extend the neck
 B) Extend the neck and tilt the head backward
 C) Position the head with the chin down and the back of the head against the image receptor
 D) Tilt the head 45 degrees to the side

Answer: C) Position the head with the chin down and the back of the head against the
image receptor
Q18: To ensure patient safety during imaging, the radiographer should:
 A) Leave the patient alone during the examination to avoid distraction
 B) Keep the patient informed about the procedure, comfort them, and ensure correct
positioning
 C) Rush through the procedure to minimize patient discomfort
 D) Allow the patient to adjust their own positioning

Answer: B) Keep the patient informed about the procedure, comfort them, and ensure
correct positioning
2.

2. Radiation Protection and Safety.

Q1: What does the ALARA principle stand for?
 A) As Low As Radiation Allows
 B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
 C) Always Lower All Radiation
 D) Adjust Levels and Radiation Application
Answer: B) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
Q2: What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational radiation workers as per
the International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP)?
 A) 5 mSv
 B) 10 mSv
 C) 20 mSv
 D) 50 mSv

Answer: D) 50 mSv
Q3: What is the purpose of collimation in radiographic procedures?
 A) To focus the X-ray beam
 B) To limit patient exposure to the area of interest
 C) To reduce magnification of the image
 D) To increase the sharpness of the image

Answer: B) To limit patient exposure to the area of interest

Q4: What is the minimum lead equivalence required for protective aprons used during
fluoroscopic procedures?
 A) 0.25 mm
 B) 0.5 mm
 C) 0.75 mm
 D) 1 mm

Answer: B) 0.5 mm
Q5: Which material is most commonly used as a radiation barrier?
 A) Aluminum
 B) Plastic
 C) Copper
 D) Lead

Answer: D) Lead
Q6: How does increasing the thickness of lead shielding affect radiation attenuation?
 A) Decreases attenuation
 B) Increases attenuation
 C) Has no effect on attenuation
 D) Doubles attenuation

Answer: B) Increases attenuation

Q7: The inverse square law states that the intensity of radiation:
 A) Is directly proportional to the distance from the source
 B) Decreases proportionally to the square of the distance from the source
 C) Doubles when the distance is halved
 D) Remains constant regardless of the distance

Answer: B) Decreases proportionally to the square of the distance from the source
Q8: Which of the following is the most effective method to reduce patient dose
during radiographic imaging?
 A) Increasing kVp and lowering mAs
  B) Decreasing kVp and increasing mAs
 C) Increasing exposure time
 D) Using a smaller focal spot size

Answer: A) Increasing kVp and lowering mAs

Q9: What is the purpose of using a grid in radiography?
 A) To reduce scatter radiation reaching the image receptor
 B) To protect the patient from radiation
 C) To magnify the image
 D) To increase the size of the X-ray beam

Answer: A) To reduce scatter radiation reaching the image receptor

Q10: Which type of cells are most sensitive to radiation?
 A) Nerve cells
 B) Muscle cells
 C) Reproductive cells
 D) Bone cells

Answer: C) Reproductive cells

Q11: What is the most likely long-term effect of low-dose radiation exposure?
 A) Acute radiation sickness
 B) Genetic mutations
 C) Immediate cell death
 D) Skin burns

Answer: B) Genetic mutation

Q12: Which dose measurement unit is used to quantify radiation exposure in air?
 A) Gray (Gy)
 B) Sievert (Sv)
 C) Becquerel (Bq)
 D) Roentgen (R)

Answer: D) Roentgen (R)

Q13: What device is used to monitor occupational radiation exposure?
 A) Geiger counter
 B) Dosimeter
 C) Lead apron
 D) TLD (Thermoluminescent Dosimeter)

Answer: D) TLD (Thermoluminescent Dosimeter)

Q14: Which of the following measures the dose equivalent received by radiology
personnel?
 A) Optical Density Meter
 B) Film Badge Dosimeter
 C) X-ray Tube Output Meter
 D) Scintillation Detector

Answer: B) Film Badge Dosimeter

Q15: What is the role of a controlled area in a radiology department?
 A) To limit public access to areas with potential radiation exposure
 B) To provide storage for imaging equipment
 C) To perform routine patient X-rays
 D) To allow unrestricted public access

Answer: A) To limit public access to areas with potential radiation exposure

Q1: What is the most effective way to explain a radiographic procedure to a patient
who is hearing impaired?
 A) Speak loudly and slowly.
 B) Write down the instructions or use visual aids.
 C) Use sign language, even if you're not fluent.
 D) Ask the patient’s family members to interpret.

Answer: B) Write down the instructions or use visual aids.

Q2: How should you address a pediatric patient who is anxious about an X-ray
procedure?
 A) Use technical terms to explain the procedure.
 B) Involve the child in the process by explaining in simple terms and using a calm, friendly
tone.
 C) Ignore their fears and focus on getting the X-ray done quickly.
 D) Ask the parents to restrain the child during the procedure.

Answer: B) Involve the child in the process by explaining in simple terms and using a
calm, friendly tone.
Q3: If a patient refuses a radiographic examination, what should the radiographer do?
 A) Proceed with the examination regardless of the patient’s wishes.
 B) Force the patient to sign a consent form.
 C) Respect the patient’s decision and inform the referring physician.
 D) Dismiss the patient from the radiology department.

Answer: C) Respect the patient’s decision and inform the referring physician.
1: What is the most effective way to communicate with a patient who does not speak
your language?
 A) Use medical jargon and speak slowly.
 B) Use gestures and visual aids to communicate.
 C) Avoid communication and proceed with the procedure.
 D) Ask the patient’s family member to translate without a professional interpreter.

Answer: B) Use gestures and visual aids to communicate.

Q2: How should a radiographer address a patient’s anxiety about a procedure?
 A) Ignore the patient's concerns to save time.
 B) Reassure the patient by explaining the procedure clearly and calmly.
 C) Provide only technical details of the procedure.
 D) Avoid eye contact to maintain professionalism.

Answer: B) Reassure the patient by explaining the procedure clearly and calmly
Q4: During a radiographic procedure, a patient reports feeling dizzy and faint. What
is the first action a radiographer should take?
  A) Increase ventilation in the room.
 B) Continue with the procedure and monitor the patient.
 C) Assist the patient to a seated or lying position immediately.
 D) Offer the patient food or drink.

Answer: C) Assist the patient to a seated or lying position immediately.

Q5: A diabetic patient undergoing a radiographic procedure begins showing signs of
hypoglycemia (shakiness, sweating, confusion). What should you do?
 A) Stop the procedure and provide a source of sugar if the patient is conscious.
 B) Give the patient insulin immediately.
 C) Ignore the symptoms and continue the procedure.
 D) Call a radiologist for assistance.

Answer: A) Stop the procedure and provide a source of sugar if the patient is
conscious.
Q6: If a patient collapses and becomes unresponsive during a procedure, what is the
radiographer's immediate action?
 A) Activate the emergency response system and begin CPR if necessary.
 B) Move the patient to a wheelchair.
 C) Continue the procedure.
 D) Wait for the radiologist to assess the situation.

Answer: A) Activate the emergency response system and begin CPR if necessary.
Q7: What is the most important step before performing a contrast study, such as a
barium enema?
 A) Ensure the patient has fasted as per protocol and has completed bowel preparation.
 B) Administer sedatives to relax the patient.
 C) Ask the patient to drink water before the procedure.
 D) Avoid explaining the procedure to prevent anxiety.

Answer: A) Ensure the patient has fasted as per protocol and has completed bowel
preparation.
Q8: A patient scheduled for an IV contrast study reports a history of allergic
reactions. What should the radiographer do?
 A) Proceed with the procedure as planned.
 B) Inform the radiologist and assess the need for premedication or alternative imaging
techniques.
 C) Ignore the history since contrast reactions are rare.
 D) Perform the study without any prior precautions.

Answer: B) Inform the radiologist and assess the need for premedication or
alternative imaging techniques.
Q9: When preparing a patient for an abdominal ultrasound, what instructions should
the radiographer give?
 A) Do not eat or drink for at least 6-8 hours before the procedure.
 B) Drink at least two liters of water before the procedure.
 C) Avoid taking any medications on the day of the procedure.
 D) Wear loose-fitting clothing to the appointment.
Answer: A) Do not eat or drink for at least 6-8 hours before the procedure.
Q3: If a patient faints during a procedure, the first action a radiographer should take
is:
 A) Call for medical assistance.
 B) Proceed with the procedure as quickly as possible.
 C) Assist the patient to a lying position and check vital signs.
 D) Provide the patient with food or drink.

Answer: C) Assist the patient to a lying position and check vital signs.
Q4: What is the safest way to transfer a patient from a wheelchair to the X-ray table?
 A) Allow the patient to climb onto the table independently.
 B) Use a mechanical lift if the patient cannot move unassisted.
 C) Have two staff members lift the patient without the use of aids.
 D) Ask the patient to support themselves using the X-ray table.

Answer: B) Use a mechanical lift if the patient cannot move unassisted

3.
Q10: What is the first step to ensure patient safety during a radiographic
examination?
 A) Confirm the patient’s identity and the correct procedure.
 B) Position the patient and start the exposure.
 C) Adjust the equipment settings.
 D) Check the availability of the referring physician.

Answer: A) Confirm the patient’s identity and the correct procedure.

Q11: How should a radiographer handle a pregnant patient who requires an urgent X-
ray?
 A) Refuse to perform the procedure under any circumstances.
 B) Perform the procedure without shielding to avoid delays.
 C) Use appropriate shielding and ensure the lowest possible radiation dose.
 D) Use an alternative imaging modality without consulting the physician.

Answer: C) Use appropriate shielding and ensure the lowest possible radiation dose.
Q12: What is the safest method for transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the X-
ray table?
 A) Pull the patient by their arms.
 B) Use a sliding board or mechanical lift if necessary.
 C) Allow the patient to transfer themselves without assistance.
 D) Ask another patient to assist in the transfer.

Answer: B) Use a sliding board or mechanical lift if necessary.

Q13: What should a radiographer do if they accidentally expose the wrong body part
during an X-ray procedure?
 A) Ignore the mistake and proceed with the examination.
 B) Inform the patient and the supervising radiologist immediately.
 C) Attempt to conceal the mistake from the patient.
 D) Repeat the procedure without informing anyone.
Answer: B) Inform the patient and the supervising radiologist immediately.
Q14: If a patient lacks the ability to give consent, who is legally allowed to provide it
on their behalf?
 A) The radiographer performing the procedure.
 B) A family member or legal guardian.
 C) The referring physician only.
 D) The hospital administrator.

Answer: B) A family member or legal guardian.

Q15: A patient who is unable to speak due to a medical condition arrives for an X-
ray. What is the best way to confirm their identity?
 A) Assume their identity based on appearance.
 B) Check their ID band and compare it with the request form.
 C) Proceed with the examination without confirmation.
 D) Ask another patient for their confirmation.

Answer: B) Check their ID band and compare it with the request form
Q5: What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection during patient
care?
 A) Wear gloves for every patient interaction.
 B) Wash hands thoroughly before and after each patient contact.
 C) Sterilize all equipment after each use.
 D) Wear a mask at all times in the radiology department.

Answer: B) Wash hands thoroughly before and after each patient contact.
Q6: How should reusable positioning aids be managed after use?
 A) Discard them immediately.
 B) Disinfect them according to hospital protocol.
 C) Wipe them with a dry cloth.
 D) Wash them with soap and water only.

Answer: B) Disinfect them according to hospital protocol.

Q7: During an emergency, if a patient goes into cardiac arrest, what is the
radiographer’s role?
 A) Administer medication immediately.
 B) Begin CPR and call for help.
 C) Continue with the imaging procedure to avoid delay.
 D) Wait for a physician to arrive before taking any action.

Answer: B) Begin CPR and call for help.

Q8: If a patient with diabetes becomes hypoglycemic during an imaging procedure,
what is the best initial response?
 A) Provide a sugary drink or snack if the patient is conscious.
 B) Call for emergency assistance and proceed with the imaging.
 C) Administer insulin immediately.
 D) Lay the patient flat and restrict food intake.

Answer: A) Provide a sugary drink or snack if the patient is conscious.

Q9: For an elderly patient with severe arthritis, how should the radiographer ensure
comfort during positioning?
 A) Proceed with standard positioning regardless of discomfort.
 B) Use cushioning and adjust positioning to minimize pain.
 C) Perform the procedure standing to avoid strain.
 D) Avoid using any supports as they may obstruct the image.

Answer: B) Use cushioning and adjust positioning to minimize pain.

Q10: What is the best way to ensure correct patient identification before an imaging
procedure?
 A) Ask the patient to confirm their name and date of birth.
 B) Check the patient’s room number.
 C) Verify the name on the patient’s gown.
 D) Assume the patient’s identity based on appearance.

Answer: A) Ask the patient to confirm their name and date of birth.
Q11: A patient reports a history of allergy to iodine. What is the most appropriate
action before administering iodinated contrast?
 A) Administer the contrast and monitor for a reaction.
 B) Refuse to perform the imaging procedure.
 C) Consult with the physician and use an alternative contrast medium.
 D) Proceed with the contrast injection but keep emergency medications nearby.

Answer: C) Consult with the physician and use an alternative contrast medium.
Q12: What is the most common side effect of intravenous contrast media?
 A) Severe anaphylactic shock
 B) Nausea and mild warmth sensation
 C) Cardiac arrest
 D) Swelling of the extremities

Answer: B) Nausea and mild warmth sensation

Q13: If a patient refuses a radiographic examination, the radiographer should:
 A) Perform the procedure regardless of the refusal.
 B) Respect the patient's decision and inform the referring physician.
 C) Convince the patient to proceed by minimizing their concerns.
 D) Document the refusal but continue the procedure.

Answer: B) Respect the patient's decision and inform the referring physician.
Q14: What is informed consent?
 A) The patient’s verbal agreement to undergo a procedure.
 B) The patient’s written or verbal understanding and agreement after an explanation of the
procedure, risks, and benefits.
 C) The doctor’s approval of the procedure.
 D) The radiographer’s explanation of the imaging process.

Answer: B) The patient’s written or verbal understanding and agreement after an

explanation of the procedure, risks, and benefits.
4. Anatomy and Physiology Related to Imaging

Q1: What is the most common site for imaging a scaphoid fracture?
 A) Foot
 B) Hand
 C) Wrist
 D) Ankle

Answer: C) Wrist
Q2: Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
 A) Humerus
 B) Femur
 C) Sternum
 D) Clavicle

Answer: C) Sternum
Q3: The odontoid process is a feature of which vertebra?
 A) Atlas (C1)
 B) Axis (C2)
 C) Thoracic vertebrae
 D) Lumbar vertebrae

Answer: B) Axis (C2)

Q4: For imaging the pelvis, which landmark is most important for centering?
 A) Iliac crest
 B) Pubic symphysis
 C) Ischial tuberosity
 D) Greater trochanter

Answer: B) Pubic symphysis

Q5: The central ray for a PA chest radiograph is directed to:
 A) T4
 B) T7
 C) T10
 D) L1

Answer: B) T7
Q6: What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
 A) Diaphragm
 B) Sternum
 C) Rib cage
 D) Mediastinum

Answer: A) Diaphragm
Q7: The heart's primary imaging landmark on a chest X-ray is the:
 A) Right atrium
 B) Left ventricle
 C) Aortic arch
  D) Apex of the heart

Answer: D) Apex of the heart

Q8: The esophagus begins at which vertebral level?
 A) C5
 B) C6
 C) T1
 D) T2

Answer: B) C6

Q9: In an upper GI series, the radiologist is primarily looking at which of the

following organs?
 A) Stomach and esophagus
 B) Liver and gallbladder
 C) Small and large intestines
 D) Rectum and sigmoid colon

Answer: A) Stomach and esophagus

Q10: The nephrogram phase in intravenous urography (IVU) occurs approximately:
 A) Immediately after injection of contrast
 B) 2-5 minutes after injection
 C) 15 minutes after injection
 D) 30 minutes after injection

Answer: B) 2-5 minutes after injection

Q11: The kidneys are located at which vertebral levels?
 A) T10-L2
 B) T12-L3
 C) L1-L4
 D) T8-T11

Answer: B) T12-L3
Q12: In imaging of the urinary system, which structure is best visualized with a
retrograde pyelogram?
 A) Ureters and renal pelvis
 B) Urethra
 C) Bladder only
 D) Cortex of the kidneys

Answer: A) Ureters and renal pelvis

Q13: The central nervous system consists of:
 A) The brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
 B) The brain and spinal cord only
 C) The spinal cord and autonomic nervous system
 D) The brain, spinal cord, and sensory organs

Answer: B) The brain and spinal cord only

Q14: For a lateral skull radiograph, which cranial structure is often used as a
reference point?
 A) Sella turcica
 B) Frontal sinus
 C) Maxilla
 D) Zygomatic arch

Answer: A) Sella turcica

Q15: Which imaging modality is best suited for evaluating soft tissue injuries, such as
muscle tears?
 A) X-ray
 B) MRI
 C) CT scan
 D) Ultrasound

Answer: B) MRI
Q16: Which of the following is the primary imaging modality for assessing rotator
cuff injuries?
 A) Ultrasound
 B) X-ray
 C) CT scan
 D) Nuclear medicine

Answer: A) Ultrasound
Q17: The foramen magnum is located in which bone?
 A) Parietal
 B) Frontal
 C) Occipital
 D) Temporal

Answer: C) Occipital
Q18: In a Water's view radiograph, which sinus is best demonstrated?
 A) Maxillary
 B) Frontal
 C) Ethmoid
 D) Sphenoid

Answer: A) Maxillary
Q19: The imaging modality most commonly used for fetal monitoring during
pregnancy is:
 A) CT scan
 B) X-ray
 C) MRI
 D) Ultrasound

Answer: D) Ultrasound
Q20: Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is primarily performed to evaluate:
  A) The ovaries and uterus
 B) The uterus and fallopian tubes
 C) The bladder and urethra
 D) The kidneys and ureters

Answer: B) The uterus and fallopian tubes

Q1: Which part of the body is primarily responsible for producing red blood cells?
 A) Liver
 B) Spleen
 C) Bone marrow
 D) Kidneys

Answer: C) Bone marrow

Q2: Which structure in the body is responsible for filtering and removing excess fluid
and waste products from the blood?
 A) Kidneys
 B) Heart
 C) Lungs
 D) Liver

Answer: A) Kidneys
Q3: The diaphragm is located at the level of which anatomical structure?
 A) T6
 B) T10
 C) T12
 D) L4

Answer: B) T10
Q4: The liver is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?
 A) Left upper quadrant
 B) Right upper quadrant
 C) Left lower quadrant
 D) Right lower quadrant

Answer: B) Right upper quadrant

Q5: In a standard chest X-ray, which lung field is typically more prominent due to the
heart’s position?
 A) Right lung
 B) Left lung
 C) Both lungs are equal in prominence
 D) None, they are always symmetrical

Answer: A) Right lung

Q6: Which of the following bones make up the shoulder girdle?
 A) Clavicle and scapula
 B) Humerus and radius
 C) Femur and tibia
 D) Ulna and radius
Answer: A) Clavicle and scapula
Q7: The acetabulum is part of which anatomical structure?
 A) The spine
 B) The shoulder
 C) The pelvis
 D) The knee

Answer: C) The pelvis

Q8: In an AP (Anteroposterior) projection of the knee, what angle should the central
ray (CR) be directed?
 A) 0°
 B) 5°-10° cephalad
 C) 5°-10° caudad
 D) 15°-20° cephalad

Answer: B) 5°-10° cephalad

Q9: The patella is also known as:
 A) The kneecap
 B) The heel bone
 C) The elbow bone
 D) The wrist bone

Answer: A) The kneecap

Q10: Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?
 A) Left atrium
 B) Right atrium
 C) Left ventricle
 D) Right ventricle

Answer: C) Left ventricle

Q11: The trachea bifurcates into the left and right bronchi at the level of which
vertebra?
 A) T1
 B) T4-T5
 C) T8
 D) T12

Answer: B) T4-T5
Q12: What structure separates the left and right lung fields on a chest X-ray?
 A) Diaphragm
 B) Sternum
 C) Heart
 D) Mediastinum

Answer: D) Mediastinum
Q13: The pancreas is located in which part of the body?
 A) Left upper quadrant
 B) Right upper quadrant
  C) Left lower quadrant
 D) Right lower quadrant

Answer: A) Left upper quadrant

Q14: Which of the following is a function of the small intestine?
 A) Absorption of nutrients
 B) Production of insulin
 C) Storage of bile
 D) Filtration of blood

Answer: A) Absorption of nutrients

Q15: In an abdominal X-ray, where is the location of the appendix?
 A) Left lower quadrant
 B) Right upper quadrant
 C) Right lower quadrant
 D) Left upper quadrant

Answer: C) Right lower quadrant

Q16: The brain is located in which body cavity?
 A) Thoracic cavity
 B) Abdominal cavity
 C) Cranial cavity
 D) Pelvic cavity

Answer: C) Cranial cavity

Q17: The spinal cord extends from the brainstem down to the level of which vertebra
in adults?
 A) L2
 B) L4
 C) T12
 D) S2

Answer: A) L2
Q18: In a chest X-ray, what is the primary reason the left side of the heart appears more prominent?
 A) The left ventricle is larger than the right.
 B) The left atrium is larger than the right.
 C) The heart is shifted towards the right side of the chest.
 D) The right lung is more opaque than the left lung.

Answer: A) The left ventricle is larger than the right.

Q19: The ulnar nerve runs along the medial side of which bone?
 A) Radius
 B) Ulna
 C) Humerus
 D) Scapula

Answer: B) Ulna
Q20: Which part of the digestive system is most commonly involved in imaging
studies such as barium swallows?
  A) Large intestine
 B) Small intestine
 C) Esophagus
 D) Liver

Answer: C) Esophagus
Q1: Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
 A) Femur
 B) Tibia
 C) Skull
 D) Clavicle

Answer: C) Skull
Q2: The area where two bones meet is called a:
 A) Ligament
 B) Joint
 C) Tendon
 D) Cartilage

Answer: B) Joint
Q3: Which part of the long bone is responsible for producing red blood cells?
 A) Diaphysis
 B) Epiphysis
 C) Periosteum
 D) Bone marrow

Answer: D) Bone marrow

Q4: Which muscle is primarily responsible for the movement of the shoulder joint?
 A) Biceps brachii
 B) Deltoid
 C) Triceps brachii
 D) Pectoralis major

Answer: B) Deltoid
Q5: The process by which muscles contract and produce movement is controlled by:
 A) The sympathetic nervous system
 B) The parasympathetic nervous system
 C) The central nervous system (CNS)
 D) The autonomic nervous system

Answer: C) The central nervous system (CNS)

Q6: The diaphragm plays an essential role in:
 A) Filtering air
 B) Producing sound
 C) Facilitating gas exchange
 D) Aiding in breathing (inhalation and exhalation)

Answer: D) Aiding in breathing (inhalation and exhalation)

Q7: What is the primary function of the alveoli in the lungs?
  A) To transport oxygen to the heart
 B) To filter particles from the air
 C) To facilitate gas exchange between the lungs and blood
 D) To produce mucus

Answer: C) To facilitate gas exchange between the lungs and blood

Q8: The trachea is commonly known as the:
 A) Windpipe
 B) Esophagus
 C) Voice box
 D) Diaphragm

Answer: A) Windpipe
Q9: The heart’s primary function is to:
 A) Pump blood throughout the body
 B) Oxygenate the blood
 C) Regulate blood pressure
 D) Produce hormones

Answer: A) Pump blood throughout the bod

Q10: Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic
circulation?
 A) Right atrium
 B) Right ventricle
 C) Left atrium
 D) Left ventricle

Answer: D) Left ventricle

Q11: The arteries carry blood:
 A) Away from the heart
 B) Toward the heart
 C) Both toward and away from the heart
 D) Only to the lungs

Answer: A) Away from the heart

Q12: The brain and spinal cord are part of the:
 A) Peripheral nervous system
 B) Autonomic nervous system
 C) Central nervous system
 D) Somatic nervous system

Answer: C) Central nervous system

Q13: Which part of the nervous system is responsible for controlling involuntary
functions like heart rate and digestion?
 A) Somatic nervous system
 B) Peripheral nervous system
 C) Autonomic nervous system
 D) Central nervous system
Answer: C) Autonomic nervous system
Q14: The cranial nerves primarily control functions related to:
 A) Movement of limbs
 B) Sensation and movement of the head and neck
 C) Digestion
 D) Respiration

Answer: B) Sensation and movement of the head and neck

Q15: The primary function of the small intestine is:
 A) Absorption of nutrients
 B) Storage of waste products
 C) Secretion of digestive enzymes
 D) Elimination of food particles

Answer: A) Absorption of nutrients

Q16: The liver is involved in all of the following EXCEPT:
 A) Detoxification of harmful substances
 B) Production of bile
 C) Storage of fat-soluble vitamins
 D) Secretion of insulin

Answer: D) Secretion of insulin

Q17: The appendix is located in which part of the digestive system?
 A) Small intestine
 B) Large intestine
 C) Stomach
 D) Esophagus

Answer: B) Large intestine

Q18: The kidneys are primarily responsible for:
 A) Filtration of blood and production of urine
 B) Regulation of blood pressure
 C) Production of red blood cells
 D) Detoxification of the liver

Answer: A) Filtration of blood and production of urine

Q19: Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney?
 A) Neuron
 B) Alveolus
 C) Nephron
 D) Osteon

Answer: C) Nephron
Q20: The pancreas secretes insulin, which is responsible for:
 A) Lowering blood glucose levels
 B) Increasing blood glucose levels
 C) Stimulating the production of red blood cells
 D) Regulating fluid balance
Answer: A) Lowering blood glucose levels
Q21: The adrenal glands are located above the:
 A) Kidneys
 B) Liver
 C) Heart
 D) Lungs

Answer: A) Kidneys
Q22: In male, the primary function of the testes is to:
 A) Produce sperm and testosterone
 B) Produce eggs and estrogen
 C) Produce semen
 D) Store sperm

Answer: A) Produce sperm and testosterone

Q23: In females, the function of the ovaries is to:
 A) Produce eggs and secrete estrogen
 B) Store eggs
 C) Facilitate sperm transport
 D) Secrete progesterone

Answer: A) Produce eggs and secrete estrogen

5. Imaging Pathology!.

1. Respiratory Pathology
Q1: What is the most common radiographic feature of pneumonia?
 A) Ground-glass opacity
 B) Patchy consolidation
 C) Hyperinflation of the lungs
 D) Pleural effusion

Answer: B) Patchy consolidation

Q2: In which of the following conditions would a radiograph most likely show a
"barrel-shaped chest"?
 A) Pneumonia
 B) Pulmonary edema
 C) Emphysema
 D) Atelectasis

Answer: C) Emphysema
Q3: A radiograph shows a honeycombing pattern in the lungs. This is indicative of
which pathology?
 A) Tuberculosis
 B) Pulmonary fibrosis
 C) Pneumothorax
 D) Sarcoidosis
Answer: B) Pulmonary fibrosis
2. Cardiovascular Pathology
Q4: What radiographic finding is most associated with congestive heart failure?
 A) Pulmonary edema
 B) Pneumothorax
 C) Rib fractures
 D) Cardiac tamponade

Answer: A) Pulmonary edema

Q5: Which of the following is a common radiographic feature of aortic aneurysm?
 A) Displaced mediastinal shift
 B) Enlarged cardiac silhouette
 C) Calcifications in the aorta
 D) Patchy consolidation

Answer: C) Calcifications in the aorta

3. Abdominal Pathology
Q6: A "stepladder" pattern of air-fluid levels is most commonly associated with:
 A) Small bowel obstruction
 B) Ascites
 C) Liver cirrhosis
 D) Pancreatitis

Answer: A) Small bowel obstruction

Q7: What radiographic feature is commonly associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
 A) Enlarged liver with a smooth contour
 B) Diffuse calcifications
 C) Enlarged spleen and ascites
 D) Gallstones

Answer: C) Enlarged spleen and ascites

Q8: A "soap bubble" appearance on an X-ray is most likely indicative of which
pathology?
 A) Gastric ulcer
 B) Osteomyelitis
 C) Ewing’s sarcoma
 D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

Answer: D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

4. Musculoskeletal Pathology
Q9: In which condition would you expect to see "Bamboo spine" appearance on
radiographs?
 A) Osteoarthritis
 B) Ankylosing spondylitis
 C) Rheumatoid arthritis
 D) Paget's disease
Answer: B) Ankylosing spondylitis
Q10: A radiograph reveals a "sunburst" pattern of calcification in the bone. This is
characteristic of which pathology?
 A) Osteosarcoma
 B) Multiple myeloma
 C) Chondrosarcoma
 D) Fibrous dysplasia

Answer: A) Osteosarcoma
Q11: A radiograph of the knee shows narrowing of the joint space with osteophyte
formation. This is typical of:
 A) Rheumatoid arthritis
 B) Osteoarthritis
 C) Gout
 D) Septic arthritis

Answer: B) Osteoarthritis
5. Neurological Pathology
Q12: A CT scan reveals a hyperdense lesion in the brain. This is most likely
indicative of:
 A) Hemorrhagic stroke
 B) Ischemic stroke
 C) Brain abscess
 D) Multiple sclerosis

Answer: A) Hemorrhagic stroke

Q13: Which of the following is the most common radiographic finding in patients
with brain tumors?
 A) Midline shift
 B) Calcified lesion
 C) Subdural hematoma
 D) Cerebellar atrophy

Answer: A) Midline shift

6. Renal Pathology
Q14: A "staghorn calculus" is typically found in which condition?
 A) Acute pyelonephritis
 B) Renal artery stenosis
 C) Renal calculi (Kidney stones)
 D) Hydronephrosis

Answer: C) Renal calculi (Kidney stones)

Q15: What radiographic finding is characteristic of polycystic kidney disease?
 A) Enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts
 B) Renal calcifications
 C) Hydronephrosis
 D) Staghorn calculus
Answer: A) Enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts
7. Gastrointestinal Pathology
Q16: The "double bubble" sign on an X-ray is characteristic of which condition?
 A) Gastric ulcer
 B) Duodenal atresia
 C) Gallstones
 D) Inflammatory bowel disease

Answer: B) Duodenal atresia

Q17: What is the most common radiographic finding in patients with Crohn’s
disease?
 A) "Thumbprinting" sign
 B) Gas-filled loop of the bowel
 C) Abdominal calcifications
 D) Air-fluid levels in the large bowel

Answer: A) "Thumbprinting" sign

8. Oncology Pathology
Q18: A "moth-eaten" appearance in the bone is suggestive of:
 A) Osteosarcoma
 B) Ewing’s sarcoma
 C) Multiple myeloma
 D) Osteomyelitis

Answer: C) Multiple myeloma

Q19: What radiographic feature is often seen in lung cancer?
 A) Consolidation in the lower lobes
 B) Multiple cavitary lesions
 C) Pleural effusion
 D) Pleural plaques

Answer: C) Pleural effusion

9. Vascular Pathology
Q20: The "golden sign" in a chest X-ray is indicative of:
 A) Aortic dissection
 B) Pulmonary embolism
 C) Pneumothorax
 D) Right-sided heart failure

Answer: A) Aortic dissection

Q21: A "coin lesion" in the lung is a common finding in:
 A) Pneumonia
 B) Tuberculosis
 C) Lung cancer
 D) Pulmonary embolism Answer: C) Lung cancer

1. General Pathology
Q1: Which of the following best describes the term "edema" in pathology?
 A) Swelling caused by the accumulation of pus
 B) An abnormal collection of fluid in the tissues
 C) Accumulation of fat within tissues
 D) Inflammation of blood vessels

Answer: B) An abnormal collection of fluid in the tissues

Q2: A condition characterized by the abnormal growth of tissue in the body is known
as:
 A) Atrophy
 B) Hyperplasia
 C) Necrosis
 D) Infarction

Answer: B) Hyperplasia
2. Bone Pathology
Q3: Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by:
 A) Excessive bone production
 B) Weakening and thinning of bones
 C) Inflammation of the bone
 D) Abnormal growth of bone tissue

Answer: B) Weakening and thinning of bones

Q4: Which of the following imaging features is most associated with osteoarthritis?
 A) Increased bone density
 B) Bone sclerosis and joint space narrowing
 C) Soft tissue calcification
 D) Diffuse bone destruction

Answer: B) Bone sclerosis and joint space narrowing

Q5: A malignant bone tumor often found in children, most commonly in the long
bones, is:
 A) Osteomyelitis
 B) Osteosarcoma
 C) Chondrosarcoma
 D) Ewing’s sarcoma

Answer: B) Osteosarcoma
3. Chest Pathology
Q6: The presence of air or gas in the pleural cavity, which causes the lung to collapse,
is known as:
 A) Pneumothorax
 B) Pneumonia
 C) Pulmonary edema
 D) Pleural effusion

Answer: A) Pneumothorax
Q7: Which of the following is the most common cause of a pleural effusion?
 A) Pulmonary embolism
 B) Heart failure
 C) Tuberculosis
 D) Emphysema

Answer: B) Heart failure

Q8: A patient presents with consolidation in the lung field on an X-ray. The most
likely diagnosis is:
 A) Pneumothorax
 B) Pulmonary edema
 C) Pneumonia
 D) Lung cancer

Answer: C) Pneumonia
4. Abdominal Pathology
Q9: Which imaging finding is characteristic of cirrhosis of the liver?
 A) Enlarged spleen
 B) Uniform liver size
 C) Calcification of the liver
 D) Hepatic masses

Answer: A) Enlarged spleen

Q10: A condition characterized by the formation of multiple stones within the
gallbladder is called:
 A) Cholecystitis
 B) Gallstones (Cholelithiasis)
 C) Hepatitis
 D) Pancreatitis

Answer: B) Gallstones (Cholelithiasis)

Q11: In the case of acute appendicitis, which imaging finding is typically seen?
 A) Bowel perforation
 B) Enlarged, fluid-filled appendix
 C) Calcified gallstones
 D) Enlarged liver with diffuse low attenuation

Answer: B) Enlarged, fluid-filled appendix

5. Cardiac Pathology
Q12: A condition where the heart's ability to pump blood is decreased due to damage
to the heart muscle is called:
 A) Hypertension
 B) Heart failure
 C) Coronary artery disease
 D) Aortic aneurysm

Answer: B) Heart failure

Q13: Which of the following is the most common radiological sign of left-sided heart
failure?
 A) Pulmonary edema
 B) Pleural effusion
 C) Cardiomegaly
 D) Aortic enlargement

Answer: A) Pulmonary edema

Q14: A myocardial infarction (MI) is most commonly diagnosed through:
 A) MRI of the chest
 B) A chest X-ray
 C) Cardiac MRI or CT angiography
 D) Abdominal ultrasound

Answer: C) Cardiac MRI or CT angiography

6. Neurological Pathology
Q15: A brain tumor presenting with a "butterfly" shape across the midline of the brain
is most likely:
 A) Meningioma
 B) Glioblastoma multiforme
 C) Astrocytoma
 D) Pituitary adenoma

Answer: B) Glioblastoma multiforme

Q16: Which of the following imaging techniques is most commonly used for the
diagnosis of a stroke?
 A) CT scan
 B) MRI
 C) X-ray
 D) Ultrasound

Answer: A) CT scan
Q17: A CT scan shows a midline shift in the brain. This may indicate:
 A) A subdural hematoma
 B) A normal finding in aging adults
 C) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
 D) Intracranial mass or large hemorrhage

Answer: D) Intracranial mass or large hemorrhage

7. Soft Tissue Pathology
Q18: A benign tumor that arises from connective tissue and often presents as a soft
mass is called a:
 A) Lipoma
 B) Sarcoma
 C) Hemangioma
 D) Neurofibroma

Answer: A) Lipoma
Q19: A soft tissue mass with irregular borders and heterogeneous density on an MRI
is likely to be:
 A) A benign tumor
 B) A malignant tumor
 C) A normal anatomical variant
 D) A cystic lesion

Answer: B) A malignant tumor

Q20: The "apple core" sign on a barium enema radiograph is indicative of:
 A) Colorectal cancer
 B) Inflammatory bowel disease
 C) Appendicitis
 D) Gallbladder stones

Answer: A) Colorectal cancer

8. Endocrine Pathology
Q21: A patient with a "moon face" and "buffalo hump" is most likely suffering from:
 A) Addison's disease
 B) Cushing's syndrome
 C) Hypothyroidism
 D) Hyperthyroidism

Answer: B) Cushing's syndrome

Q22: A multinodular goiter typically presents on imaging as:
A) A uniformly enlarged thyroid gland
 B) A thyroid mass with calcifications
 C) Multiple cystic areas within the thyroid
 D) An asymmetric enlargement of the thyroid with nodules

Answer: D) An asymmetric enlargement of the thyroid with nodules

Radiation Protection
Q1: Which of the following is the primary principle of radiation protection?
 A) Time
 B) Distance
 C) Shielding
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q2: The ALARA principle in radiation protection stands for:
 A) As Low As Reasonably Achievable
 B) As Large As Radiological Advantage
 C) Always Look After Radiation Awareness
 D) Avoiding Large Amounts of Radiation

Answer: A) As Low As Reasonably Achievable

Q3: What is the best method to reduce the radiation dose to the patient during a
radiographic procedure?
  A) Increase the exposure time
 B) Use a higher radiation dose
 C) Minimize the exposure time and use the lowest possible radiation dose
 D) Use less shielding

Answer: C) Minimize the exposure time and use the lowest possible radiation dose
Q4: Which of the following devices is used to monitor radiation exposure to workers?
 A) CT scanner
 B) Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)
 C) Radiographic film
 D) Lead apron

Answer: B) Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)

Q5: The recommended maximum permissible dose (MPD) for radiation workers in a
year is:
 A) 50 mSv
 B) 10 mSv
 C) 1 mSv
 D) 100 mSv

Answer: A) 50 mSv
Q6: The primary function of a dosimeter is to:
 A) Measure the amount of radiation the patient receives
 B) Record the number of radiographic procedures performed
 C) Monitor the radiation exposure to the radiographer or staff
 D) Provide immediate feedback on image quality

Answer: C) Monitor the radiation exposure to the radiographer or staff

Q7: What type of shielding should be used for a patient during a radiographic
procedure?
 A) Lead aprons
 B) Regular clothing
 C) Window shielding
 D) Plastic shields

Answer: A) Lead aprons

Q8: Which of the following is the most appropriate method for protecting staff from
scattered radiation during fluoroscopy?
 A) Standing behind the patient
 B) Using a lead shield
 C) Increasing the exposure time
 D) Wearing a personal dosimeter

Answer: B) Using a lead shield

Q9: What is the main purpose of using a lead apron on a patient during an X-ray
procedure?
 A) To prevent the patient from moving
 B) To protect the patient’s vital organs from unnecessary radiation exposure
 C) To help with positioning
  D) To improve the quality of the radiograph

Answer: B) To protect the patient’s vital organs from unnecessary radiation exposure
Q10: If a pregnant patient needs an X-ray, which of the following should be done to
minimize fetal radiation exposure?
 A) Delay the procedure until after delivery
 B) Use the lowest possible radiation dose and shield the abdomen
 C) Perform the procedure without shielding
 D) Increase exposure time to obtain better image quality

Answer: B) Use the lowest possible radiation dose and shield the abdomen
Q11: What is the recommended approach if a radiographer is exposed to radiation
during pregnancy?
 A) Continue working without concern
 B) Increase the radiation dose to avoid repeat exposures
 C) Consult with the radiation safety officer and adjust duties to minimize exposure
 D) Wear two dosimeters instead of one

Answer: C) Consult with the radiation safety officer and adjust duties to minimize
exposure
5. Radiation Protection during Imaging Procedures
Q12: When performing a chest X-ray, the radiographer should be positioned:
 A) In the direct path of the X-ray beam to monitor the procedure
 B) As far from the patient and the X-ray tube as possible
 C) Directly above the patient to ensure accuracy
 D) Next to the patient to assist with positioning

Answer: B) As far from the patient and the X-ray tube as possible
Q13: Which of the following is an effective method of reducing radiation exposure to
the patient during fluoroscopy?
 A) Use the highest available radiation dose
 B) Use a pulsed fluoroscopy mode
 C) Increase the exposure time
 D) Decrease the distance between the tube and the patient

Answer: B) Use a pulsed fluoroscopy mode

Q14: In which of the following cases should a radiographer use lead shielding?
 A) When performing an abdominal X-ray on a child
 B) When imaging the extremities of a pregnant woman
 C) When taking a thoracic X-ray on a male patient
 D) When performing a pelvic X-ray on a female patient of reproductive age

Answer: D) When performing a pelvic X-ray on a female patient of reproductive age

Q15: Which of the following is the recommended distance for a radiographer to stand
from the patient during fluoroscopy to minimize radiation exposure?
 A) At least 1 meter from the patient
 B) 5 feet from the patient
 C) As close as possible to the patient for accurate positioning
  D) Directly behind the X-ray tube

Answer: A) At least 1 meter from the patient

Q16: What is the function of a collimator in radiography?
 A) To control the amount of radiation reaching the patient
 B) To focus the X-ray beam to the area of interest
 C) To shield the radiographer from radiation
 D) To increase the image quality

Answer: B) To focus the X-ray beam to the area of interest

Q17: For pediatric patients, which of the following radiation protection measures is
most important?
 A) Using high radiation doses to reduce exposure time
 B) Increasing the number of imaging projections
 C) Shielding sensitive organs like the gonads and thyroid
 D) Delaying imaging until the child is older

Answer: C) Shielding sensitive organs like the gonads and thyroid

Q18: Geriatric patients typically require:
 A) Higher radiation doses due to thinner bones
 B) Lower radiation doses due to increased sensitivity to radiation
 C) Longer exposure times to obtain clear images
 D) No additional radiation protection

Answer: B) Lower radiation doses due to increased sensitivity to radiation

Q1: The primary objective of radiation protection is to:
 A) Increase the dose of radiation to enhance image quality
 B) Minimize radiation exposure to patients, staff, and the public
 C) Maximize the exposure to the area being examined
 D) Use the highest possible radiation dose to achieve clearer images

Answer: B) Minimize radiation exposure to patients, staff, and the public

Q2: Which of the following is a key factor that affects the amount of radiation a
patient receives during a radiographic examination?
 A) The distance from the X-ray tube
 B) The exposure time
 C) The type of imaging technique used
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q3: To minimize the radiation dose to a patient, a radiographer should:
 A) Increase the exposure time
 B) Use the highest possible kilovolt peak (kVp)
 C) Collimate the X-ray beam to the area of interest
 D) Use a higher dose of contrast media

Answer: C) Collimate the X-ray beam to the area of interest

Q4: Which of the following is the most effective method to reduce radiation exposure
to the patient during an X-ray examination?
 A) Reducing the number of repeat exposures
 B) Using a higher dose of radiation
 C) Increasing the exposure time
 D) Decreasing the image quality

Answer: A) Reducing the number of repeat exposures

Q5: What is the purpose of using lead aprons during radiographic procedures?
 A) To prevent electrical burns
 B) To protect the patient from scattered radiation
 C) To improve the quality of the image
 D) To absorb the X-rays

Answer: B) To protect the patient from scattered radiation

Q6: Which of the following is the most effective method of radiation protection for
radiology staff?
 A) Standing behind a protective lead shield during imaging
 B) Wearing a lead apron during the procedure
 C) Keeping as far away as possible from the X-ray source
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q7: According to the ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principle, what
is the primary goal?
 A) To increase radiation exposure to patients for better image quality
 B) To minimize radiation exposure to patients and staff
 C) To ensure patients receive the highest dose for accurate diagnosis
 D) To limit the use of diagnostic imaging procedures

Answer: B) To minimize radiation exposure to patients and staff

Q8: What is the recommended safe distance for a radiographer to stand from the X-
ray tube during an examination?
 A) 0.5 meters
 B) 1 meter
 C) 2 meters
 D) 3 meters

Answer: B) 1 meter
Q9: The use of a lead shield or barrier in the radiology department is intended to:
 A) Prevent patient movement
 B) Absorb X-rays and reduce exposure to staff
 C) Improve image quality
 D) Focus the X-ray beam

Answer: B) Absorb X-rays and reduce exposure to staff

Q10: In the case of a radiographic procedure where the patient is receiving radiation,
the public should be protected by:
  A) Increasing the radiation dose
 B) Limiting exposure time for public bystanders
 C) Asking the public to stay as close to the X-ray source as possible
 D) Giving the public lead aprons during procedures

Answer: B) Limiting exposure time for public bystanders

Q11: When taking radiographs in an area with non-essential individuals present, the
radiographer should:
 A) Ask them to leave the room if they are not necessary for the procedure
 B) Use higher radiation doses for faster imaging
 C) Allow them to stay in the room for better observation
 D) Not inform them of the potential risks

Answer: A) Ask them to leave the room if they are not necessary for the procedure
Q12: The dose equivalent for occupational exposure to radiation is typically
measured in:
 A) Grays (Gy)
 B) Sieverts (Sv)
 C) Roentgens (R)
 D) Millisieverts (mSv)

Answer: B) Sieverts (Sv)

Q13: What is the primary purpose of a dosimeter badge worn by radiographers?
 A) To measure the level of radiation exposure to the environment
 B) To monitor the radiation dose received by the radiographer
 C) To measure radiation levels in the patient’s body
 D) To improve image quality

Answer: B) To monitor the radiation dose received by the radiographer

Q14: Which of the following actions would most effectively reduce the dose of
radiation to a patient during fluoroscopic imaging?
 A) Increase the exposure time
 B) Use the highest kVp
 C) Minimize the field of view and use pulsed fluoroscopy
 D) Use lower kVp and longer exposure time

Answer: C) Minimize the field of view and use pulsed fluoroscopy

Q15: If a radiographer must remain in the room during fluoroscopic imaging, they
should:
 A) Stand as close as possible to the patient for better monitoring
 B) Stand behind a protective lead barrier or shield
 C) Continuously adjust the X-ray machine manually
 D) Not wear any protective clothing

Answer: B) Stand behind a protective lead barrier or shield

Q16: The "three principles" of radiation protection are:
 A) ALARA, distance, and time
 B) Time, distance, and shielding
 C) Time, ALARA, and shielding
  D) Distance, time, and quality

Answer: B) Time, distance, and shielding

Q17: What should a radiographer do if a female patient informs them she is pregnant
before a radiographic procedure?
 A) Proceed with the procedure, ensuring the lead shield is used
 B) Immediately cancel the procedure and consult with the physician
 C) Continue with the procedure without any changes
 D) Use the highest possible dose to ensure a clear image

Answer: B) Immediately cancel the procedure and consult with the physician
Q18: In the case of a pregnant radiographer, which of the following is true regarding
radiation exposure?
 A) The radiographer should take all standard precautions, including using a dosimeter and
protective shielding
 B) The radiographer can work without any precautions during pregnancy
 C) The radiographer must quit their job immediately upon confirming pregnancy
 D) The radiographer is exempt from radiation protection protocols during pregnancy

Answer: A) The radiographer should take all standard precautions, including using a
dosimeter and protective shielding
Anatomy and Physiology
Q1: The adult human skeleton consists of how many bones?
 A) 206
 B) 208
 C) 210
 D) 212

Answer: A) 206
Q2: The main function of the skeletal system is to:
 A) Protect vital organs
 B) Produce blood cells
 C) Provide structure and support
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q3: Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
 A) Femur
 B) Sternum
 C) Tibia
 D) Clavicle

Answer: B) Sternum
Q4: The femur is the longest bone in the body. Where is it located?
 A) In the arm
 B) In the leg
 C) In the skull
 D) In the spine
Answer: B) In the leg
2. Muscular System
Q5: The muscle responsible for extending the forearm is:
 A) Biceps brachii
 B) Triceps brachii
 C) Deltoid
 D) Pectoralis major

Answer: B) Triceps brachii

Q6: Which of the following types of muscle is under voluntary control?
 A) Cardiac muscle
 B) Smooth muscle
 C) Skeletal muscle
 D) All of the above

Answer: C) Skeletal muscle

Q7: What is the role of calcium in muscle contraction?
 A) It stimulates the release of acetylcholine
 B) It binds to troponin, allowing actin and myosin to interact
 C) It provides energy for muscle contraction
 D) It prevents muscle relaxation

Answer: B) It binds to troponin, allowing actin and myosin to interact

3. Cardiovascular System
Q8: Which of the following arteries carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the
body?
 A) Pulmonary artery
 B) Aorta
 C) Carotid artery
 D) Femoral artery

Answer: B) Aorta
Q9: The heart's right ventricle pumps blood into the:
 A) Pulmonary circulation
 B) Systemic circulation
 C) Coronary circulation
 D) Jugular vein

Answer: A) Pulmonary circulation

Q10: The primary function of red blood cells (RBCs) is to:
 A) Carry oxygen to tissues
 B) Help with blood clotting
 C) Fight infections
 D) Maintain blood pressure

Answer: A) Carry oxygen to tissues

Q11: Which of the following blood vessels carries deoxygenated blood back to the
heart?
 A) Aorta
 B) Pulmonary veins
 C) Superior vena cava
 D) Carotid arteries

Answer: C) Superior vena cava

4. Respiratory System
Q12: The primary site of gas exchange in the lungs is:
 A) Trachea
 B) Bronchi
 C) Alveoli
 D) Pleura

Answer: C) Alveoli
Q13: The diaphragm is the primary muscle responsible for:
 A) Inhalation
 B) Exhalation
 C) Heartbeat
 D) Blood circulation

Answer: A) Inhalation
Q14: Which of the following structures is part of the upper respiratory tract?
 A) Bronchioles
 B) Trachea
 C) Alveoli
 D) Nasopharynx

Answer: D) Nasopharynx
Q15: Oxygen is transported in the blood primarily by:
 A) Plasma proteins
 B) Red blood cells (hemoglobin)
 C) Platelets
 D) White blood cells

Answer: B) Red blood cells (hemoglobin)

5. Digestive System
Q16: The stomach primarily functions in the digestion of:
 A) Carbohydrates
 B) Proteins
 C) Fats
 D) Nucleic acids

Answer: B) Proteins
Q17: Which of the following organs produces bile to aid in fat digestion?
 A) Stomach
  B) Pancreas
 C) Liver
 D) Gallbladder

Answer: C) Liver
Q18: The small intestine is the primary site for the absorption of:
 A) Water and electrolytes
 B) Fats and proteins
 C) Carbohydrates and nutrients
 D) Minerals

Answer: C) Carbohydrates and nutrients

6. Nervous System
Q19: The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the:
 A) Brain and spinal cord
 B) Brain and peripheral nerves
 C) Spinal cord and sensory receptors
 D) Peripheral nerves and ganglia

Answer: A) Brain and spinal cord

Q20: Which part of the brain controls vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, and
blood pressure?
 A) Cerebrum
 B) Cerebellum
 C) Medulla oblongata
 D) Pons

Answer: C) Medulla oblongata

Q21: Which of the following is the primary function of the autonomic nervous
system?
 A) Voluntary muscle movement
 B) Sensory processing
 C) Regulating involuntary functions like heart rate and digestion
 D) Higher cognitive functions

Answer: C) Regulating involuntary functions like heart rate and digestion

7. Endocrine System
Q22: The pancreas is part of the endocrine system and secretes:
 A) Insulin
 B) Adrenaline
 C) Thyroxine
 D) Estrogen

Answer: A) Insulin
Q23: The thyroid gland regulates metabolism through the secretion of:
 A) Cortisol
 B) Insulin
 C) Thyroxine
  D) Growth hormone

Answer: C) Thyroxine
8. Urinary System
Q24: The primary function of the kidneys is to:
 A) Regulate blood pressure
 B) Filter waste products from the blood
 C) Produce bile
 D) Control heart rate

Answer: B) Filter waste products from the blood

Q25: The bladder stores urine until it is excreted through the:
 A) Ureter
 B) Urethra
 C) Kidney
 D) Renal pelvis

Answer: B) Urethra
9. Reproductive System
Q26: The male reproductive system produces sperm in the:
 A) Seminal vesicles
 B) Epididymis
 C) Testes
 D) Prostate gland

Answer: C) Testes
Q27: In females, the fertilized egg implants in the:
 A) Uterus
 B) Ovaries
 C) Fallopian tubes
 D) Cervix

Answer: A) Uterus
10. Integumentary System (Skin)
Q28: The epidermis of the skin is responsible for:
 A) Producing sweat
 B) Producing oil
 C) Providing a barrier to infection and injury
 D) Regulating body temperature

Answer: C) Providing a barrier to infection and injury

Q29: The dermis of the skin contains:
 A) Blood vessels
 B) Nerve endings
 C) Hair follicles
 D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q1: The primary function of the skeletal system is to:
 A) Produce hormones
 B) Protect internal organs
 C) Pump blood throughout the body
 D) Store energy

Answer: B) Protect internal organs

Q2: Which of the following is the largest organ in the human body?
 A) Brain
 B) Heart
 C) Skin
 D) Liver

Answer: C) Skin
Q3: The medulla oblongata is located in the:
 A) Brainstem
 B) Cerebrum
 C) Spinal cord
 D) Cerebellum

Answer: A) Brainstem
Q4: The right atrium of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from:
 A) The pulmonary arteries
 B) The lungs
 C) The superior and inferior vena cava
 D) The aorta

Answer: C) The superior and inferior vena cava

Q5: The electrical impulse that initiates the contraction of the heart is generated by
the:
 A) Sinoatrial (SA) node
 B) Atrioventricular (AV) node
 C) Purkinje fibers
 D) Bundle of His

Answer: A) Sinoatrial (SA) node

Q6: The coronary arteries supply blood to the:
 A) Lungs
 B) Heart muscle
 C) Brain
 D) Kidneys

Answer: B) Heart muscle

Q7: Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for gas exchange in the
lungs?
 A) Bronchi
 B) Alveoli
  C) Trachea
 D) Pleura

Answer: B) Alveoli
Q8: During inhalation, the diaphragm:
 A) Contracts and moves upwards
 B) Relaxes and moves downwards
 C) Contracts and moves downwards
 D) Remains stationary

Answer: C) Contracts and moves downwards

Q9: The main function of the alveoli in the lungs is to:
 A) Warm the air entering the lungs
 B) Increase the surface area for gas exchange
 C) Filter foreign particles from the air
 D) Produce mucus to trap dust

Answer: B) Increase the surface area for gas exchange

Q10: The small intestine is primarily responsible for:
 A) Absorption of nutrients
 B) Production of bile
 C) Absorption of water
 D) Storage of undigested food

Answer: A) Absorption of nutrients

Q11: The liver plays an important role in:
 A) Absorbing vitamins and minerals
 B) Breaking down waste products
 C) Producing insulin
 D) Producing bile

Answer: D) Producing bile

Q12: The pancreas produces enzymes that help digest:
 A) Carbohydrates
 B) Proteins
 C) Fats
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

5. Nervous System
Q13: The central nervous system (CNS) includes the:
 A) Spinal cord and cranial nerves
 B) Brain and spinal cord
 C) Brain and sensory organs
 D) Brain and autonomic nervous system

Answer: B) Brain and spinal cord

Q14: The autonomic nervous system regulates:
  A) Voluntary muscle movements
 B) Involuntary functions like heart rate and digestion
 C) Sensory input
 D) Motor output

Answer: B) Involuntary functions like heart rate and digestion

Q15: Which part of the brain controls basic functions like breathing, heart rate, and
blood pressure?
 A) Cerebrum
 B) Medulla oblongata
 C) Thalamus
 D) Cerebellum

Answer: B) Medulla oblongata

Q16: Skeletal muscles are primarily responsible for:
 A) Pumping blood
 B) Moving the bones and joints
 C) Controlling involuntary functions
 D) Producing hormones

Answer: B) Moving the bones and joints

Q17: Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle tissue?
 A) Striated appearance
 B) Voluntary control
 C) Involuntary control
 D) Found only in the heart

Answer: C) Involuntary control

Q18: The muscle contraction process is powered by the interaction between:
 A) Actin and myosin
 B) Hemoglobin and oxygen
 C) Calcium and sodium
 D) Collagen and elastin

Answer: A) Actin and myosin

Q19: The primary function of the kidneys is to:
 A) Produce urine
 B) Regulate blood pressure
 C) Filter waste from the blood
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q20: The ureter connects the:
 A) Kidneys to the bladder
 B) Bladder to the urethra
 C) Kidneys to the urethra
 D) Kidneys to the lungs

Answer: A) Kidneys to the bladder

Q21: The nephrons in the kidneys are responsible for:
 A) Filtration of blood
 B) Reabsorption of nutrients
 C) Excretion of urine
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q22: The pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" because it:
 A) Produces all hormones for the body
 B) Controls other endocrine glands
 C) Regulates the immune system
 D) Produces adrenaline

Answer: B) Controls other endocrine glands

Q23: The thyroid gland regulates metabolism by producing which hormone?
 A) Insulin
 B) Thyroxine
 C) Estrogen
 D) Cortisol

Answer: B) Thyroxine
Q24: The pancreas produces insulin to regulate:
 A) Heart rate
 B) Blood sugar levels
 C) Immune responses
 D) Kidney function

Answer: B) Blood sugar levels

Q25: The female reproductive system includes all of the following structures
except:
 A) Ovaries
 B) Uterus
 C) Seminal vesicles
 D) Fallopian tubes

Answer: C) Seminal vesicles

Q26: In males, sperm is produced in the:
 A) Prostate gland
 B) Seminal vesicles
 C) Testes
 D) Epididymis

Answer: C) Testes
Q27: The placenta in the female reproductive system functions to:
 A) Produce eggs
 B) Transport sperm to the uterus
 C) Exchange nutrients and gases between mother and fetus
 D) Protect the ovaries
Answer: C) Exchange nutrients and gases between mother and fetus
Imaging Pathology
Q1: Pathology is the study of:
 A) The normal functioning of the body
 B) Diseases, their causes, and effects on the body
 C) The structure of bones and muscles
 D) The study of healthy tissue

Answer: B) Diseases, their causes, and effects on the body

Q2: A benign tumor is characterized by:
 A) Invasive growth that spreads to other parts of the body
 B) Cells that are highly abnormal and metastatic
 C) Slow growth with no ability to invade other tissues
 D) Rapid and uncontrolled growth with invasion of surrounding tissues

Answer: C) Slow growth with no ability to invade other tissues

2. Imaging Techniques for Pathology
Q3: X-ray imaging is most commonly used for diagnosing:
 A) Soft tissue injuries
 B) Bone fractures
 C) Neurological disorders
 D) Respiratory infections

Answer: B) Bone fractures

Q4: Which of the following imaging modalities is most commonly used to evaluate
soft tissue injuries?
 A) CT scan
 B) MRI
 C) X-ray
 D) Ultrasound

Answer: B) MRI
Q5: CT scans are particularly useful in diagnosing:
 A) Bone fractures
 B) Soft tissue tumors
 C) Fluid-filled cysts
 D) Airway obstructions

Answer: B) Soft tissue tumors

3. Inflammation and Infection
Q6: A radiograph of a patient with pneumonia would typically show:
 A) A clear, air-filled lung field
 B) A white shadow in the lungs due to fluid or consolidation
 C) Fractured ribs
 D) A large mass in the chest

Answer: B) A white shadow in the lungs due to fluid or consolidation

Q7: Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone that typically appears on an X-ray as:
 A) A soft tissue mass
 B) Bone destruction or an area of radiolucency
 C) An increase in bone density
 D) A normal bone structure

Answer: B) Bone destruction or an area of radiolucency

4. Tumors and Masses
Q8: A malignant tumor typically appears on imaging as:
 A) A well-defined, smooth, and regular mass
 B) A mass with irregular borders and possible invasion of surrounding tissues
 C) A fluid-filled cyst
 D) A mass with no growth over time

Answer: B) A mass with irregular borders and possible invasion of surrounding

tissues
Q9: The most common imaging modality used for the detection of breast cancer is:
 A) MRI
 B) CT scan
 C) Mammography
 D) Ultrasound

Answer: C) Mammography
Q10: A lung mass on a chest X-ray may suggest:
 A) An infection
 B) A benign tumor
 C) A malignant tumor
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q11: A comminuted fracture is characterized by:
 A) A simple break of the bone
 B) A bone broken into several pieces
 C) A crack that doesn’t go all the way through the bone
 D) A fracture that heals with no treatment

Answer: B) A bone broken into several pieces

Q12: Radiographs of a patient with a displaced fracture would typically show:
 A) A slight misalignment of the bone
 B) Bone fragments that have moved out of their normal position
 C) No change in bone structure
 D) A smooth bone surface without fractures

Answer: B) Bone fragments that have moved out of their normal position
Q13: Osteoarthritis typically appears on X-ray as:
 A) Bone erosion and sclerosis
 B) An increase in joint space
 C) A soft tissue mass in the joint
  D) A smooth joint surface

Answer: A) Bone erosion and sclerosis

Q14: In degenerative disc disease, MRI can reveal:
 A) A change in the shape of the spinal vertebrae
 B) Disc herniation or degeneration
 C) A solid mass in the spinal cord
 D) Fractures in the spinal bones

Answer: B) Disc herniation or degeneration

Q15: Aortic aneurysm on a CT scan may show:
 A) A dilated section of the aorta
 B) A clear, normal aorta
 C) Multiple small blood clots
 D) An increase in bone density

Answer: A) A dilated section of the aorta

Q16: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is best visualized with:
 A) X-ray
 B) Ultrasound
 C) MRI
 D) CT scan

Answer: B) Ultrasound
Q17: In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland often appears:
 A) Smaller and with calcifications
 B) Larger with diffuse enlargement
 C) Enlarged with irregular nodules
 D) Normal in size and structure

Answer: B) Larger with diffuse enlargement

Q18: Adrenal adenomas may appear on CT scans as:
 A) Homogeneous masses with well-defined borders
 B) Calcified masses with irregular borders
 C) A diffuse enlargement of the adrenal glands
 D) A fluid-filled cyst

Answer: A) Homogeneous masses with well-defined borders

Q19: Osteoporosis on a radiograph typically appears as:
 A) Increased bone density
 B) Decreased bone density and thinning of the cortex
 C) Bone sclerosis
 D) A soft tissue mass surrounding the bones

Answer: B) Decreased bone density and thinning of the cortex

Q20: Paget’s disease is characterized on X-ray by:
 A) Increased bone density
 B) Soft, deformed bones
  C) Large, lytic lesions and bone enlargement
 D) Bone fragments from fractures

Answer: C) Large, lytic lesions and bone enlargement

10. Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)
Q21: Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis are both types of:
 A) Cancers
 B) Inflammatory bowel diseases
 C) Infections
 D) Gastrointestinal obstructions

Answer: B) Inflammatory bowel diseases

Q22: A barium enema for a patient with Crohn’s disease may show:
 A) Narrowing or strictures in the bowel
 B) Enlarged bowel loops with fluid
 C) A smooth, normal colon
 D) Absence of the colon

Answer: A) Narrowing or strictures in the bowel

Patient Care
Q1: When preparing a patient for an imaging procedure, the radiographer should:
 A) Only explain the procedure if the patient asks questions
 B) Ensure the patient is informed about the procedure and address any concerns
 C) Avoid explaining the procedure to prevent anxiety
 D) Let the doctor explain the procedure instead

Answer: B) Ensure the patient is informed about the procedure and address any
concerns
Q2: Which of the following is the most appropriate way to communicate with a non-
English-speaking patient?
 A) Speak louder to make them understand
 B) Use professional interpreters or translation services
 C) Use gestures and body language exclusively
 D) Avoid any communication if there is a language barrier

Answer: B) Use professional interpreters or translation services

Q3: If a patient seems anxious or nervous about the procedure, the radiographer
should:
 A) Ignore their concerns as they are not important
 B) Reassure the patient and provide clear, calm explanations
 C) Tell the patient to stop being anxious
 D) Rush through the procedure to avoid further anxiety

Answer: B) Reassure the patient and provide clear, calm explanations

2. Infection Control and Safety
Q4: To prevent cross-contamination, it is essential for radiographers to:
 A) Wash their hands after every patient interaction and use gloves when necessary
  B) Use gloves only if the patient is visibly dirty
 C) Disinfect the equipment after every third patient
 D) Wear gloves at all times without washing hands

Answer: A) Wash their hands after every patient interaction and use gloves when
necessary
Q5: Which of the following is the correct procedure for handling contaminated
imaging equipment?
 A) Clean the equipment with water only
 B) Use a disinfectant approved for medical equipment after each use
 C) Wipe the equipment down with a dry cloth
 D) Only clean the equipment once a day

Answer: B) Use a disinfectant approved for medical equipment after each use
Q6: Personal protective equipment (PPE) is used to protect radiographers from:
 A) Radiation exposure
 B) Contaminants or pathogens from the patient
 C) Both radiation and contaminants
 D) None of the above

Answer: C) Both radiation and contaminants

Q7: When positioning a patient for a radiographic examination, the radiographer
should:
 A) Position the patient in a way that minimizes discomfort while ensuring accurate imaging
 B) Force the patient to stay in a position for the longest period
 C) Ignore the patient’s comfort for the sake of accurate images
 D) Position the patient in a random manner as long as the equipment works

Answer: A) Position the patient in a way that minimizes discomfort while ensuring
accurate imaging
Q8: If a patient is unable to hold a position due to pain or medical condition, the
radiographer should:
 A) Ask the patient to endure the discomfort as much as possible
 B) Assist the patient by using supports or modifying the position if needed
 C) Skip the exam entirely and inform the physician
 D) Rush through the procedure to minimize discomfort

Answer: B) Assist the patient by using supports or modifying the position if needed
Q9: During the positioning of a pregnant patient for a radiograph, the radiographer
should:
 A) Proceed with the examination as usual, without any precautions
 B) Use shielding for the abdomen and minimize radiation exposure to the fetus
 C) Take the radiograph without considering pregnancy status
 D) Refuse to take the examination, as all radiographs are dangerous during pregnancy

Answer: B) Use shielding for the abdomen and minimize radiation exposure to the
fetus
4. Handling Special Patient Groups
Q10: When caring for a pediatric patient (child) undergoing a radiographic procedure,
the radiographer should:
 A) Speak to the child in a firm, commanding tone to ensure cooperation
 B) Explain the procedure in simple, reassuring terms and involve the parent or guardian
 C) Ignore the child’s concerns and focus solely on the procedure
 D) Avoid any communication with the child

Answer: B) Explain the procedure in simple, reassuring terms and involve the parent
or guardian
Q11: When caring for elderly patients, radiographers should be aware that they may:
 A) Be more likely to develop pressure sores from extended periods of immobility
 B) Require longer explanations and additional assistance during positioning
 C) Be more sensitive to temperature changes, which may require blankets or heating pads
 D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Q12: For patients with hearing impairments, the radiographer should:
 A) Speak loudly and repeatedly to ensure understanding
 B) Use written instructions or sign language if necessary, and maintain eye contact
 C) Ignore the patient's impairment and continue with the procedure
 D) Use gestures only without speaking

Answer: B) Use written instructions or sign language if necessary, and maintain eye
contact
5. Emergency Procedures and Patient Safety
Q13: In the event of a patient fainting during the procedure, the radiographer should
immediately:
 A) Continue with the imaging procedure and ignore the fainting episode
 B) Call for medical help, ensure the patient is lying down, and monitor their breathing
 C) Leave the patient unattended and wait for the physician to arrive
 D) Try to wake the patient by shaking them violently

Answer: B) Call for medical help, ensure the patient is lying down, and monitor their
breathing
Q14: If a patient is having an allergic reaction to a contrast agent, the radiographer
should:
 A) Ignore the symptoms and continue with the procedure
 B) Immediately notify the physician, administer prescribed medications, and ensure the
patient is monitored closely
 C) Tell the patient to wait and see if symptoms improve
 D) Ask the patient to leave the department

Answer: B) Immediately notify the physician, administer prescribed medications, and

ensure the patient is monitored closely
Q15: Restraints should be used in patient care:
 A) To prevent patients from moving during the procedure if they are uncooperative
 B) Only when absolutely necessary and with clear documentation of the reason for use
 C) As a first resort before attempting to communicate with the patient
  D) Without informing the patient

Answer: B) Only when absolutely necessary and with clear documentation of the
reason for use
Q16: Before administering a contrast agent for an imaging procedure, the
radiographer should:
 A) Check the patient’s medical history for any allergies to contrast material
 B) Administer the contrast agent without asking about allergies
 C) Only check for allergies to iodine
 D) Assume that all patients are allergic to contrast agents

Answer: A) Check the patient’s medical history for any allergies to contrast material
Q17: If a patient has a reaction to a contrast agent, the radiographer should:
 A) Wait for the reaction to subside before taking any action
 B) Immediately inform the physician and follow emergency procedures
 C) Continue the procedure without any interruption
 D) Ask the patient to leave and reschedule the exam

Answer: B) Immediately inform the physician and follow emergency procedures

Q18: A radiographer should consider the psychological state of the patient by:
 A) Ignoring the patient's emotions to complete the procedure
 B) Observing and addressing signs of anxiety, fear, or confusion
 C) Only focusing on the technical aspects of the imaging procedure
 D) Asking the patient to "tough it out" during the procedure

Answer: B) Observing and addressing signs of anxiety, fear, or confusion

Q19: To help a pediatric patient feel more comfortable during an imaging
procedure, the radiographer should:
 A) Ignore the child's emotional needs and focus only on positioning
 B) Use toys or distractions to help them relax
 C) Demand that they remain still without explanation
 D) Rush through the procedure to minimize anxiety

Answer: B) Use toys or distractions to help them relax

Q1: In an AP axial projection of the cervical spine (C-spine), what is the correct
angulation of the central ray (CR)?
A) 10° cephalad
B) 15°-20° cephalad
C) 25° caudad
D) Perpendicular to the image receptor
Answer: B) 15°-20° cephalad
Q2: What is the primary purpose of the Waters view in radiography?
A) Visualization of the orbits
B) Assessment of the paranasal sinuses
C) Evaluation of the mandible
D) Imaging of the cervical spine
Answer: B) Assessment of the paranasal sinuses
Q3: In a lateral chest X-ray, where should the central ray be directed?
A) T7 at the midcoronal plane
B) T10 at the midaxillary line
C) T5 at the midline
D) C7 at the midsagittal plane
Answer: A) T7 at the midcoronal plane
Q1: What is the correct position for a PA (Posteroanterior) chest X-ray?
 A) The patient should be facing the image receptor with arms raised and hands on hips.
 B) The patient should be facing the image receptor with arms by their sides.
 C) The patient should be turned 45° towards the image receptor.
 D) The patient should be facing the image receptor with arms above their head.

Answer: B) The patient should be facing the image receptor with arms by their sides.
Q2: In a lateral lumbar spine projection, where is the central ray (CR) directed?
 A) At the level of L2-3
 B) At the level of L4-5
 C) At the level of L1
 D) At the level of T7

Answer: B) At the level of L4-5.

Q3: Which projection is best for visualizing the intervertebral foramina of the cervical
spine?
 A) AP (Anteroposterior)
 B) Lateral
 C) Oblique
 D) Axial

Answer: C) Oblique
Q4: For an AP (Anteroposterior) chest radiograph, the central ray (CR) is directed at:
 A) T7
 B) T10
 C) C7
 D) L2

Answer: A) T7.
Q5: Which projection is used to best visualize the zygomatic arches?
 A) Lateral projection
 B) Submentovertical (SMV) projection
 C) Waters projection
 D) AP axial projection

Answer: B) Submentovertical (SMV) projection.

Q6: The primary purpose of collimation in radiography is to:
 A) Increase image contrast
 B) Minimize radiation exposure to the patient
 C) Magnify the area of interest
 D) Reduce motion artifacts
Answer: B) Minimize radiation exposure to the patient.
Q7: Which of the following is used to minimize radiation scatter during fluoroscopy
procedures?
 A) Lead aprons
 B) Lead gloves
 C) Bucky grid
 D) Collimator

Answer: A) Lead aprons.

Q8: What is the role of the lead apron in radiographic procedures?
 A) To protect the radiographer from radiation exposure
 B) To protect the patient from radiation exposure
 C) To reduce motion artifacts
 D) To assist with positioning

Answer: B) To protect the patient from radiation exposure.

Q9: What happens if the kilovoltage (kVp) is too low in a radiographic image?
 A) The image will have excessive contrast and will appear very dark.
 B) The image will have inadequate penetration and may appear underexposed.
 C) The image will appear overexposed.
 D) The image will be very clear and sharp.

Answer: B) The image will have inadequate penetration and may appear
underexposed.
Q10: Which of the following factors affects radiographic contrast?
 A) Exposure time
 B) Image receptor speed
 C) Kilovoltage (kVp)
 D) Field of view

Answer: C) Kilovoltage (kVp).

Q11: If a radiograph is underexposed, what adjustment is likely needed to improve
image quality?
 A) Increase exposure time or mAs
 B) Decrease exposure time or mAs
 C) Increase kVp
 D) Decrease kVp

Answer: A) Increase exposure time or mAs.

Q12: Which of the following will result in increased magnification of an object in
radiographic imaging?
 A) Increasing the focal spot size
 B) Decreasing the object-to-image receptor distance (OID)
 C) Increasing the source-to-image receptor distance (SID)
 D) Increasing the object-to-image receptor distance (OID)

Answer: D) Increasing the object-to-image receptor distance (OID).

Q13: To best demonstrate a scaphoid fracture in the wrist, which projection is
preferred?
 A) Lateral projection
 B) Ulnar deviation
 C) Radial deviation
 D) PA (Posteroanterior) projection

Answer: B) Ulnar deviation.

Q14: In the AP (Anteroposterior) projection of the knee, the central ray should be
directed:
 A) 5°-10° cephalad
 B) 5°-10° caudad
 C) Perpendicular to the IR
 D) 15°-20° caudad

Answer: A) 5°-10° cephalad.

Q15: In the lateral projection of the skull, the central ray (CR) should be directed:
 A) 1 inch above the EAM
 B) 2 inches below the EAM
 C) At the level of the EAM
 D) At the level of the nasion

Answer: A) 1 inch above the EAM

Q4: What is the maximum permissible annual dose limit for occupational exposure to
radiation workers?
A) 5 mSv
B) 10 mSv
C) 20 mSv
D) 50 mSv
Answer: D) 50 mSv
Q5: Which of the following best describes the ALARA principle?
A) As Low as Reasonably Achievable to minimize radiation exposure
B) Always Limit and Reduce Absorption of radiation
C) Adjust Levels to Achieve Reduced Artefacts
D) Align Leads to Avoid Radiation Accidents
Answer: A) As Low as Reasonably Achievable
Q6: Which shielding material is most effective in protecting against scatter radiation?
A) Copper
B) Lead
C) Aluminum
D) Plastic
Answer: B) Lead
Q7: Which projection is best for visualizing the intervertebral foramina of the lumbar
spine?
A) AP projection
B) Lateral projection
C) Oblique projection
D) Axial projection
Answer: C) Oblique projection
Q8: The scaphoid bone is located in which anatomical region?
A) Foot
B) Pelvis
C) Wrist
D) Shoulder
Answer: C) Wrist
Q9: What anatomical structure is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF)?
A) Pituitary gland
B) Hypothalamus
C) Choroid plexus
D) Pineal gland
Answer: C) Choroid plexus
Q10: If a patient with a suspected spinal injury cannot be moved, how should the
initial X-ray of the cervical spine be taken?
A) PA erect projection
B) Lateral cross-table projection
C) AP supine projection
D) Oblique erect projection
Answer: B) Lateral cross-table projection
Q11: What is the recommended communication method for a patient who is hearing
impaired?
A) Speaking loudly and slowly
B) Writing instructions or using visual aids
C) Speaking directly into their ear
D) Asking family members to interpret
Answer: B) Writing instructions or using visual aids
Q12: During a radiographic procedure, a patient becomes dizzy and nauseous. What
is the first action a radiographer should take?
A) Stop the procedure and call for help
B) Offer the patient water
C) Assist the patient into a seated or lying position
D) Continue the procedure but observe the patient closely
Answer: C) Assist the patient into a seated or lying position
Q13: Which of the following radiographic signs is indicative of pneumothorax?
A) Blunted costophrenic angles
B) Air-fluid levels in the pleural space
C) Visible pleural line and absence of lung markings
D) Honeycomb appearance of lung parenchyma
Answer: C) Visible pleural line and absence of lung markings
Q14: A "sunburst" pattern is commonly associated with which type of pathology?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Paget's disease
Answer: B) Osteosarcoma
Q15: A radiograph showing "ground-glass opacity" in the lungs is typically
associated with:
A) Emphysema
B) Pleural effusion
C) Interstitial lung disease
D) Pneumothorax
Answer: C) Interstitial lung disease
Q16: What is the purpose of a grid in radiography?
A) To magnify the image
B) To reduce scatter radiation reaching the image receptor
C) To enhance contrast by increasing kVp
D) To align the X-ray beam with the patient
Answer: B) To reduce scatter radiation reaching the image receptor
Q17: The term "line focus principle" refers to:
A) The use of collimation to focus the X-ray beam
B) The angling of the anode to produce a smaller effective focal spot
C) The alignment of the CR with the image receptor
D) The reduction of scatter radiation using grids
Answer: B) The angling of the anode to produce a smaller effective focal spot
Q18: What is the main factor affecting spatial resolution in digital radiography?
A) Tube current (mA)
B) Focal spot size
C) Image receptor size
D) Grid frequency
Answer: B) Focal spot size