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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
37 views7 pages

(Online) Reso Ix C.T-01 03-12-2024 Q.P

Uploaded by

Sunnykumar840
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We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow

Exam Type: C.T - 1 (JEE MAIN)


Class : (ONLINE)RESO - IX
Maximum Marks: 300
Exam Date: 3rd Dec 2024
Exam Duration: 3Hrs

PHYSICS: Complete Motion


CHEMISTRY: Matter in our surroundings, is matter around us pure.
MATHEMATICS: Number system, Polynomials, Co-ordinate, Geometry and Linear Equation in Two variables,
Probability.

PART-A : PHYSICS
SECTION A (Maximum Marks: 80)
 This section contains Twenty (20) questions for each subject.
 Each question has four options (1), (2), (3) and (4). ONLY ONE of these four options is the most appropriate or best
answer, which will be considered the correct answer.
 The answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following Marking Scheme:
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
01. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal ground. The magnitude of the
displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is
(a) 2𝜋 (b) √2𝜋 (c) √𝜋 2 + 4 (d) 𝜋
02. A man goes 10 m towards North, then 20 m towards east then displacement is
(a) 22.5 m (b) 25 m (c) 25.5 m (d) 30 m
03. A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 10 sec . The
total distance covered by the particle during this time is 30 m . Which of the following statements about
the motion of the particle is false
(a) Displacement of the particle is zero (b) Average speed of the particle is 3 m/s
(c) Displacement of the particle is 30 m (d) Both (a) and (b)
04. The correct statement from the following is
(a) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration
(b) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration
(c) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration
(d) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration
05. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity and average speed of a body is always
(a) Unity (b) Unity or less (c) Unity or more (d) Less than unity
06. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km/h. Finding
the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. The average speed
of the man over the interval of time 0 to 40 min is equal to
25 30 45
(a) 5 km/h (b) km/h (c) km/h (d) km/h
4 4 8
07. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a distance 𝑆1
in the first 10 sec and a distance 𝑆2 in the next 10 sec , then
(a) 𝑆1 = 𝑆2 (b) 𝑆1 = 𝑆2 /3 (c) 𝑆1 = 𝑆2 /2 (d) 𝑆1 = 𝑆2 /4
08. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration travels 24 m and 64 𝑚 in the first two consecutive
intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial velocity is
(a) 1 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 5 m/sec (d) 2 m/sec

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Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow
09. Two trains travelling on the same track are approaching each other with equal speeds of 40 m/s. The
drivers of the trains begin to decelerate simultaneously when they are just 2.0 km apart. Assuming the
decelerations to be uniform and equal, the value of the deceleration to barely avoid collision should be
(a) 11.8 m/s 2 (b) 11.0 m/s 2 (c) 2.1 m/s2 (d) 0.8 m/s2
10. If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 𝑠 Then it covers a distance of
(a) 20 m (b) 400 m (c) 1440 m (d) 2880 m
11. A man is 45 m behind the bus when the bus start accelerating from rest with acceleration 2.5 m/s. With
what minimum velocity should the man start running to catch the bus? 2.5 m/s^2

(a) 12 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 15 m/s (d) 16 m/s


12. A stone falls from a balloon that is descending at a uniform rate of 12 m/s. The displacement of the stone
from the point of release after 10 sec is
(a) 490 m (b) 510 m (c) 610 m (d) 725 m
13. Two balls are dropped from heights ℎ and 2ℎ respectively from the earth surface. The ratio of time of
these balls to reach the earth is
(a) 1: √2 (b) √2: 1 (c) 2: 1 (d) 1: 4
14. Two balls of same size but the density of one is greater than that of the other are dropped from the same
height, then which ball will reach the earth first (air resistance is negligible)
(a) Heavy ball (b) Light ball
(c) Both simultaneously (d) Will depend upon the density of the balls
15. A man throws a ball vertically upward and it rises through 20 m and returns to his hands. What was the
initial velocity ( 𝑢 ) of the ball and for how much time (𝑇) it remained in the air [𝑔 = 10 m/s2 ]
(a) 𝑢 = 10 m/s, 𝑇 = 2 s (b) 𝑢 = 10 m/s, 𝑇 = 4 s (c) 𝑢 = 20 m/s, 𝑇 = 2 s (d) 𝑢 = 20 m/s, 𝑇 = 4 s
16. A balloon is rising vertically up with a velocity of 29 ms . A stone is dropped from it and it reaches the
ground in 10 seconds. The height of the balloon when the stone was dropped from it is (𝑔 = 9.8 ms )
29 m/s
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 400 m (d) 150 m
17. Assertion : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
18. Assertion : If the displacement of the body is zero, the distance covered by it may not be zero.
Reason : Displacement is a vector quantity and distance is a scalar quantity.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
19. Assertion : The position-time graph of a uniform motion in one dimension of a body can have negative
slope.
Reason : When the speed of body decreases with time, the position-time graph of the moving body has
negative slope.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.

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Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow
20. Assertion : The average and instantaneous velocities have same value in a uniform motion.
Reason : In uniform motion, the velocity of an object increases uniformly.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
(e) If assertion is false but reason is true.

SECTION B (Maximum Marks: 20)


 This Section contains Ten (10) questions. Out of these Ten (10) questions, only Five (05) Questions need to be
attempted.
 Candidates are advised to do the calculations with the constants given (if any) in the questions. The answer should
be rounded off to the nearest Integer.
 There are 10 questions and you have to attempt any 5 questions. If a student attempts more than 5 questions,
then only first 5 questions which he/she has attempted will be checked.
 The answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following Marking Scheme:
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the values are entered (i.e. the question is unanswered). 300m east
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

21. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m south and then flies 1200 m upwards then net displacement is
(a) 1200 m (b) 1300 m (c) 1400 m (d) 1500 m
22. A train has a speed of for the first one hour and for the next half hour. Its average speed in is
value is missing correct key
(a) 50 (b) 53.33 (c) 48 (d) 70
23. A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then velocity 4 m/s for another 20 seconds and
finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the average velocity of the particle?
(a) 3 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) Zero
24. The initial velocity of the particle is 10 m/sec and its retardation is 2 m/sec 2. The distance moved by the
particle in 5 th second of its motion is
(a) 1 m (b) 19 m (c) 50 m (d) 75 m
2
25. The velocity of a body moving with a uniform acceleration of 2 m./sec is 10 m/sec. Its velocity after
correct key
an interval of 4 sec is
(a) 12 m/sec (b) 14 m/sec (c) 16 m/sec (d) 18 m/sec
26. A car, moving with a speed of 50 km/hr, can be stopped by brakes after at least 6 m . If the same car is
moving at a speed of 100 km/hr; the minimum stopping distance is
(a) 6 m (b) 12 m (c) 18 m (d) 24𝑚
27. An object is projected upwards with a velocity of 100 m/s. It will strike the ground after (approximately)
(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec (c) 15 sec (d) 5 sec
28. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches the ground in 4 sec . The height of the tower is about
(a) 80 m (b) 40 m (c) 20 m (d) 160 m
29. A body projected vertically upwards with a velocity 𝑢 returns to the starting point in 4 seconds. If 𝑔 =
10 m/sec, the value of 𝑢 is
(a) 5 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 20 m/sec
30. A cricket ball is thrown up with a speed of 19.6 ms . The maximum height it can reach is
(a) 9.8 m (b) 19.6 m (c) 29.4 m (d) 39.2 m

Q21 TO Q 30 IS
INTEGER TYPE SO
REMOVE OPTION

Resonance Hyderabad Page 3


Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow

PART-B : CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION A (Maximum Marks: 80)
 This section contains Twenty (20) questions for each subject.
 Each question has four options (1), (2), (3) and (4). ONLY ONE of these four options is the most appropriate or best
answer, which will be considered the correct answer.
 The answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following Marking Scheme:
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

31. A mixture of water and benzene can be separated by using:


A) Filtration methods
B) O Separating funnel methods
C) Centrifugation method
D) Chromatography
32. Which of the following conditions is essential for using fractional distillation as a method for separation
of the components from mixture?
(i) The components must differ in their boiling points atleast by 15∘ C.
(ii) The components must have same boiling points.
(iii) The components must be miscible with each other.
(iv) The components, must be immiscible with each other.
A) (i) and (ii) B) (ii) and (iii) C) (i) and (iv) D) (i) and (iii)
33. The solubility of a solute ' X ' in water is 35 g in 100 g of water. The density of the solution is 1.5ml−1
The concentration of ?x? in the solution in % (m/v) is:
A) 60% B) 38.88% C) 34 % D) 88%
34. Based on the statements given below choose the correct answer.
Some sugar can be added to a glassful of water without causing an overflow.
Liquids have spaces present between the molecules
A) P and Q are true and Q explain P B) P and Q are true but Q does not explain P
C) Only P is true D) Only Q is true
35. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Increase in surface area, increases the rate of evaporation.
B) Increase in temperature, increases the rate of evaporation.
C) Increase in humidity, increases the rate of evaporation.
D) Increase in wind speed, increases the rate of evaporation.
36. Which one of the following shows the process of electrophoresis?
A) True solution B) Colloid C) Suspension D) All the above
37. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Statement 1: If temperature of a solid substance is increased, the force of attraction between its
molecules will also increase
Statement 2: If temperature of a solid substance is increased, the force of attraction between its
molecules will decrease
A) Statement 1 only B) Statement 2 only
C) Both statements are correct D) Both statements are incorrect
38. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Statements 1: Physical state of a substance can be changed by changing its temperature
Statement 2: Physical state of a substance can be changed by changing pressure
A) Statement 1 B) Statement 2
C) Both statements are correct D) Both statements are incorrect
39. Which one of the following statement is correct?
Statement 1: In solids, molecules are tightly packed.

Resonance Hyderabad Page 4


Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow
Statement 2: Force of attraction between molecules in solids is very weak
A) O Statement 1 only B) Statement 2 only
C) Both statements are correct D) Both statements are incorrect

40. Match the entries in Column I with those in Column II.


Column – I Column – II

[ a ] Evaporation 1. Liquid to gas at a fixed temperature


[ b ] Boiling 2. Solid to gas
[c] Sublimation 3. Gas to solid
[ d ] Hoar frost 4. Liquid to gas at any temperature
A) 𝑎 − 4, 𝑏 − 1, 𝑐 − 2, 𝑑 − 3
B) 𝑎 − 1, 𝑏 − 2, 𝑐 − 3, 𝑑 − 4
C) 𝑎 − 2, 𝑏 − 3, 𝑐 − 4, 𝑑 − 1
D) 𝑎 − 4, 𝑏 − 1, 𝑐 − 3, 𝑑 − 2
41. Find the rise in temperature of 1 kg of water if 1000 J of heat is supplied to it.
1000 𝑜 4186 𝑜
A) (4186) 𝐶 B) (1000) 𝐶 C) (1000 × 4186)∘ 𝐶 D) (4186 − 1000)∘ 𝐶
42. What could be the diameters of the molecules of matter?
A) 10−7 m B) 10−11 m C) 10−9 m D) 10−15 m
Direction: For question given below two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes [a], [b], [c] and [d] as
given below
43. Assertion: Gold, silver and bromine are the pure substances.
Reason: The metals and non-metals are the types of elements based on the variation in properties.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
44. Assertion: Water and carbon dioxide are known as compounds.
Reason: Water and carbon dioxide are heterogeneous in nature.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
45. Assertion: A solution of table salt in a glass of water is homogeneous.
Reason: A solution having different composition throughout is homogeneous.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
46. Assertion: The component present in large amount is solute.
Reason: Solvent is the dissolving phase.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
47. Assertion: Suspension is a heterogeneous mixture.
Reason: The solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended throughout the bulk of medium.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
48. Assertion: Colloidal particles do not show Tyndall efféct.
Reason: Colloidal solutions are stable and the colloidal particles do not settle down.
Resonance Hyderabad Page 5
Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
49. Assertion: Tyndall effect is an optical property.
Reason: Scattering of beam of light by the colloidal particles is known as Tyndall effect.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.
50. Assertion: Fog is an example of aerosol colloid.
Reason: The dispersion medium is gas and dispersed phase is liquid in fog.
A) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true and 𝑅 is correct explanation of the 𝐴.
B) Both 𝐴 and 𝑅 are true but 𝑅 is not the correct explanation of the 𝐴.
C) A is true but 𝑅 is false.
D) A is false but 𝑅 is true.

SECTION B (Maximum Marks: 20)

 This Section contains Ten (10) questions. Out of these Ten (10) questions, only Five (05) Questions need to
be attempted.
 Candidates are advised to do the calculations with the constants given (if any) in the questions. The
answer should be rounded off to the nearest Integer.
 There are 10 questions and you have to attempt any 5 questions. If a student attempts more than 5
questions, then only first 5 questions which he/she has attempted will be checked.
 The answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following Marking Scheme:
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the values are entered (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

51. If a solution contains 40 g of salt and 160 g of water, what is the mass percentage of water in the
solution?
52. The boiling point of pure water is 100∘ C. After adding salt, the boiling point increases to 101.5∘ C. What
is the elevation in boiling point?
53. If 𝟏𝟓𝟎g of copper is mixed with 𝟓𝟎g of zinc to form an alloy, what is the percentage of zinc in the
alloy?
54. A solution is prepared by dissolving 30 g of solute in 90 g of water. What is the mass percentage of
solute in the solution?
55. If 500 g of ice at 0∘ C absorbs 167,000 J of heat energy to completely melt into water, what is the latent
heat of fusion of ice in J/g ?
For question 56 - 60 - Write how many options are correct.
56. The high diffusibility of gases is due to (M)
(A) Low intermolecular forces of attraction
(B) High kinetic energy of molecules
(C) Restricted translator motion in upward direction
(D) More intermolecular spaces
57. Which of the following process require heating? (E)
(A) Fusion (B) Condensation (C) Vaporization (D) Boiling
58. Which of the following are the correct examples of matter?
(A) Glass bottle, water and hot air (B) Air, wood and vacuum
(C) Silver foil, hot air and chalk (D) Sand, oxygen and light flash
Resonance Hyderabad Page 6
Resonance Hyderabad – Educating for Better Tomorrow
59. Non- reacting gases have a tendency to mix with each other. This phenomenon is known as (M)
(A) Chemical reaction (B) Diffusion (C) Effusion (D) Intermixing
60. Which is correct statement? (M)
(A) Matter is continuous in nature
(B) Of the three state of matter, the one that is most compact is solid state.
(C) In solid state inter-particles space (i.e., empty space) is minimum.
(D) The density of solid is generally more than that of a liquid.

PART-C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION A (Maximum Marks: 80)
 This section contains Twenty (20) questions for each subject.
 Each question has four options (1), (2), (3) and (4). ONLY ONE of these four options is the most appropriate or best
answer, which will be considered the correct answer.
 The answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following Marking Scheme:
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

SECTION B (Maximum Marks: 20)


 This Section contains Ten (10) questions. Out of these Ten (10) questions, only Five (05) Questions need to be
attempted.
 Candidates are advised to do the calculations with the constants given (if any) in the questions. The answer should
be rounded off to the nearest Integer.
 There are 10 questions and you have to attempt any 5 questions. If a student attempts more than 5 questions,
then only first 5 questions which he/she has attempted will be checked.
 The answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following Marking Scheme:
 Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
 Zero Marks : 0 If none of the values are entered (i.e. the question is unanswered).
 Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

s
***

Resonance Hyderabad Page 7

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