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Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem

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152 views4 pages

Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem

Uploaded by

Gayathri Manasa
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LINEAR ALGEBRA AND DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS

UNIT-5: Single Variable Calculus


Topic: Lagrange’s mean value theorem
________________________________________________________________
Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem: If f(x) is (i) continuous in [a, b] (ii) derivable
in (a, b) then there exist at least one point or value c ϵ (a, b) such that
𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) =
𝑏−𝑎

Geometrical Interpretation:
Geometrically Lagrange’s mean value theorem states that if a curve AB has a
tangent at each of its points then there exist a point c on the curve at which
the tangent is parallel to the chord AB.

1.Verify Lagrange’s mean value theorem for f(x) = 𝐥𝐨𝐠 𝒆 𝒙 in [1, e].

Sol: Clearly f(x) is continuous in [1, e]


1
since 𝑓 ′ (𝑥 )= exists ∀ x ∈(1, e) hence it is derivable in (1, e)
𝑥

∴ By Lagrange’s mean value theorem ∃ at least one-point c ∈ (1, e) such that


𝑓(𝑒)−𝑓(1) 1 1−0
𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) = ⇒ = ⇒ c = e-1 ∈ (1, e)
𝑒−1 𝑐 𝑒−1

Hence Lagrange’s mean value theorem is verified.


2.Give an example of a function that is continuous in [-1,1] and for which
Lagrange’s mean value theorem does not hold.

Sol: Let f(x) = √𝑥


It is clear that f(x) is continuous in [-1,1]
1
Now 𝑓 ′ (𝑥 ) = does not exist at x= 0.
2√𝑥

Hence f(x) is not derivable in (-1,1).


Thus, Lagrange’s mean value theorem cannot be applied to f(x).

3.If 𝒇′ (𝒙) = 0 throughout the interval [a, b], prove using mean value
theorem that f(x) is constant in that interval.
Sol: Let f(x) is a function defined in [a, b] and let 𝑓 ′ (𝑥 ) = 0 ∀ x ∈ (a, b).
Then f(x) is continuous and derivable in (a, b).
Hence by Lagrange’s mean value theorem ∃ at least one-point c ∈ (a, b) such
𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
that 𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) =
𝑏−𝑎

But given 𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) = 0 ∀ c ∈ (a, b).


i.e. f(b) –f(a) = 0 ⇒ f(a) = f(b). It is true for all x in (a, b).
Hence f(x) is constant in [a, b].

𝟓
4.Calculate approximately √𝟐𝟒𝟓 by using Lagrange’s mean value theorem.

Sol: Let f(x) = 5√𝑥 and a = 243 ,b = 245


𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
∴ By Lagrange’s mean value theorem, we have 𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) =
𝑏−𝑎
4
1 𝑓(245)−𝑓(243)
⇒ 𝑐 −5 =
5 245−243
4 5 5
1 √245− √243
⇒ 𝑐 −5 =
5 2

5 2 −4
⇒ √245 = 3 + 𝑐 5
5
4
2
Let c = 243 then √245 = 3 + (243)−5 = 3.0049.
5
5

𝝅 𝟏 𝟑 𝝅 𝟏
5.Prove that + < 𝒔𝒊𝒏−𝟏 ( ) < + .
𝟔 𝟓√𝟑 𝟓 𝟔 𝟖

Sol: Let f(x) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1𝑥 in [a,𝑏] such that 0 < 𝑎 < 𝑏
𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
By Lagrange’s mean value theorem, we have 𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) =
𝑏−𝑎
1 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 𝑏− 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 𝑎
2
= . .........(1)
√1−𝑐 𝑏−𝑎

Now c ∈ (a, b) ⇒ a < 𝑐 < 𝑏


⇒𝑎2 < 𝑐 2 < 𝑏2 ⇒ −𝑎2 > −𝑐 2 > −𝑏2

⇒ 1 − 𝑎2 > 1 − 𝑐 2 > 1 − 𝑏2 ⇒ √1 − 𝑎2 > √1 − 𝑐 2 > √1 − 𝑏2


1 1 1
⇒ 2
< 2
<
√1−𝑎 √1−𝑐 √1−𝑏2
1 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 𝑏− 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 𝑎 1
⇒ 2
< < [∵ from (1)]
√1−𝑎 𝑏−𝑎 √1−𝑏2
𝑏−𝑎 𝑏−𝑎
⇒ < 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1𝑏 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1𝑎 <
√1−𝑎2 √1−𝑏2

𝑏−𝑎 𝑏−𝑎
⇒ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1𝑎 + < 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1𝑏 < +𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1𝑎
√1 − 𝑎2 √1 − 𝑏2
Let a = 1/2, b = 3/5
3 1 3 1
1 − 3 − 1
Then 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1 ( ) + 5 2
< 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1 ( ) < 5 2
+ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1 ( )
2 1 5 √1−
9 2
√1−
4 25

𝜋 1 3 𝜋 1
⇒ + < 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1 ( ) < +
6 5√3 5 6 8

Hence the proof.


𝒉
6.Prove that < 𝒕𝒂𝒏−𝟏 (𝒉) < 𝒉 when h≠ 𝟎 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒉 > 𝟎
𝟏+𝒉𝟐

Sol: Let f(x) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 −1𝑥 in [0,ℎ]


𝑓(𝑏)−𝑓(𝑎)
By Lagrange’s mean value theorem, we have 𝑓 ′ (𝑐 ) =
𝑏−𝑎
1 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 ℎ
2
= . .........(1)
1+𝑐 ℎ
Now c ∈ (0, h) ⇒ 0 < 𝑐 < ℎ
⇒0 < 𝑐 2 < ℎ2 ⇒ 1 < 1 + 𝑐 2 < 1 + ℎ2
1 1
⇒ < <1
1+ℎ2 1+𝑐 2
1 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 ℎ
⇒ 2
< < 1 [∵ from (1)]
1+ℎ ℎ
ℎ
⇒ < 𝑡𝑎𝑛 −1ℎ < ℎ
1+ℎ2

Hence the proof.


Practice Questions:
Verify Lagranges’s theorem for the following functions in the indicated interval
1
1.𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 (𝑥 − 1)(𝑥 − 2) 𝑖𝑛 [0, ]
2

2.𝑓 (𝑥 ) = log 𝑥 𝑖𝑛 [1, 𝑒]


3.𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 1/3 𝑖𝑛[−1,1]
4.𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑒 −𝑥 𝑖𝑛 [−1,1]
1 1
5.𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝜋𝑥 𝑖𝑛 [− , ]
2 2

6.𝑓 (𝑥 ) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −1 𝑥 𝑖𝑛[0,1]

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