II PU Statistics Question Bank

Government of Karnataka

DEPARTMENT OF SCHOOL EDUCATION (PRE-UNIVERSITY)

REVISED QUESTION BANK (2024 - 25)

For Second Year P U C STATISTICS

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II PU Statistics Question Bank

Members of the Question Bank Committee:

1. Channamallaiah A M Co-ordinator
Rtd. lecturer in Statistics
BES PU College, Jayanagara,
Bengaluru-11

2. H B Somaraddy Member
Lecturer in Statistics
S U J M College, Harapanahalli.
Vijayanagara Dist.

3. Dr S R Byakod Member
Lecturer in Statistics
SECAB PU College
Vijayapur.

4. Harish Aithal P Member

Lecturer in Statistics
St Joseph's PU College,
Bajpe, Mangaluru.
Dakshina Kannada Dist.

5. Sri. Sandesh.B Member

Lecturer in Statistics,
Acharya Pre-University College,
Bypass Road,
Shivamogga.

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II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – I VITAL STATISTICS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.

1. The statistical study of human population is called –
a) Biology b) Sociology c) Demography d) Psychology

2. The formula for estimating the population between two census years is –
a) Pt = P0+(B–D)+ (I–E) b) Pt = P0– (B+D) – (I+E)
c) Pt = P0+ (D+B) + (E+I) d) Pt = P0– (D–B) + (E–I)

3. The births occurring to women of child bearing age is called

a) Fertility b) Mortality c) Survival rate d) Fecundity

4. The capacity of a woman to bear children is called-

a) Fertility b) Mortality c) Survival rate d) Fecundity

5. Generally the child bearing age for women is-

a) 10–50 years b) 15–49 years c) 15–60 years d) 10–49 years

6. In a life table, generally the size of the cohort is –

a) 100 b) 1,00,000 c) 1000 d) 10,000

7. The expected number of years that a new born baby would live is called- (Life
expectancy of a new born baby)
a) Longevity b) Cohort c) Radix d) Survival ratio

8. In a life table, the size of the cohort is

a) Longevity b) Mortality ratio c) Radix d) Survival ratio

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
(Longevity, Fertility, Radix, Average, Demography, Annual, 15 to 49,
Survive, Fecundity, Cohort)
1. The statistical study of human population is called _______________.
2. The births occurring to women of child bearing age is called ___________.
3. The capacity of a woman to bear children is called ______________.
4. Generally the child bearing age for women is assumed in between ________
years.
5. TFR of a population in a year is the total of _____ age specific fertility rates of
females of child bearing age.
6. TFR divided by 1000 gives __________ number of children born in life time to one
woman.
7. TFR is based on the assumption that all women __________ throughout the child
bearing age.
8. The expected number of years that a new born baby would live is called _______.
9. In a life table, the size of the cohort is called _______.
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Match the following: (Direct answers are given)
Infant Child aged less than one year
Births, deaths, migration etc. Vital events
Method of obtaining vital Census enumeration
statistics
Deaths of new born babies within Neonatal deaths
28 days
Maternal mortality Puerperal deaths
Fertility Births occurring to women of child
bearing age
Fecundity The capacity of a woman to bear
children
15 – 49 years Child bearing age for women
N.R.R. per woman = 1 Population remains constant
N.R.R. per woman = 0.95 Population is decreasing
N.R.R. per woman = 1.2 Population is increasing
Radix 1,00,000
The size of the cohort Radix
Expected number of years that a Longevity
new born baby would live

One Mark Questions:

1. What is demography?
2. Mention a vital event occurring in the human population.
3. Mention a method of obtaining vital statistics.
4. Write the formula for estimating the population between two census years.
5. Mention a use of vital statistics.
6. Define fertility.
7. Define fecundity.
8. Mention a measure of fertility.
9. Define crude birth rate.
10. Write the formula of crude birth rate.
11. Mention a merit of crude birth rate.
12. Mention a demerit of crude birth rate.
13. Define general fertility rate.
14. Generally, what is the child bearing age (germination period) of women?
15. Write the formula of general fertility rate.
16. Mention a merit of general fertility rate.
17. Mention a demerit of general fertility rate.
18. Define age specific fertility rate.
19. Write the formula of age specific fertility rate.
20. Mention a merit of age specific fertility rate.
21. Mention a demerit of age specific fertility rate.
22. What is total fertility rate?
23. Mention a merit of total fertility rate.
24. Mention a demerit of total fertility rate.
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
25. Mention a measure of reproduction rate.
26. Define gross reproduction rate.
27. If GRR is 1300, then find number of female births to a woman, if she is alive till
the end of reproduction age.
28. Define net reproduction rate.
29. In a situation, if GRR per woman is greater than 1 and NRR per woman is less
than 1 then what is your conclusion about population?
30. If NRR per woman is less than 1, then what it indicates about the population?
31. If NRR per woman is one, then what it indicates about the population?
32. If NRR per woman is more than 1, then what it indicates about the population?
33. Define mortality.
34. Mention a measure of mortality.
35. Define crude death rate.
36. Write the formula of crude death rate.
37. Mention a merit of crude death rate.
38. Mention a demerit of crude death rate.
39. Define age specific death rate.
40. Write the formula of age specific death rate.
41. Write a merit of age specific death rate.
42. Write a demerit of age specific death rate.
43. Define standardized death rate.
44. Which death rate is used to compare the health condition of two populations?
45. Write a merit of standardized death rate.
46. Write a demerit of standardized death rate.
47. Define infant mortality rate.
48. Write the formula of infant mortality rate.
49. Define neo-natal mortality rate.
50. Write the formula of neo-natal mortality rate.
51. Define maternal mortality rate.
52. Write the formula of maternal mortality rate.
53. Define life table.
54. Define cohort.
55. Define radix.
56. What is longevity?
57. Mention a use of life table.
58. Write the formula of calculating dx in life table.
59. Define mortality ratio.
60. Write the formula of mortality ratio.
61. Define survival ratio.
62. Write the formula of survival ratio.
63. Define expectation of life.
64. Write the formula of expectation of life.
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II PU Statistics Question Bank

Five Mark Questions:

1. For the following data compute general fertility rate.
Age [in Male Female Number of live
years] Population Population births
0 - 14 11,000 10,000 -
15 - 19 9,000 8,000 320
20 - 24 12,000 11,000 660
25 - 29 16,000 15,000 1,350
30 - 34 21,000 20,000 2,000
35 - 39 15,000 15,000 1,035
40 - 44 7,000 6,000 180
45 - 49 4,000 5,000 55
50 & above 6,000 9,000 -

2. Calculate CBR, GFR and ASFR for the age group [15-19].
Age [in Male Female Number of live
years] Population Population births
0 - 9 6400 5197 0
10 - 14 5430 6153 0
15 - 19 6300 7888 510
20 - 24 2300 3444 880
25 - 39 4700 3800 277
40 - 49 5600 4400 45
50 & above 2800 1119 0

3. For the following data, find TFR.

Age group 15 - 20 - 25 - 30 - 35 - 40 - 45 -
[in years] 19 24 29 34 39 44 49
Female population 8,000 11,000 15,000 20,000 15,000 6,000 5,000
Live births 320 660 1,350 2,000 1,035 180 55

4. Find total fertility rate for the following data.

Age group [in years] Female population Live births
15 - 19 14000 840
20 - 24 15000 1350
25 - 29 14000 2660
30 - 34 12000 1200
35 - 39 13000 1040
40 - 44 12000 960
45 - 49 10000 500

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II PU Statistics Question Bank
5. For the following data, calculate gross reproduction rate.
Age group 15 - 20 - 25 - 30 - 35 - 40 - 45 -
[in years] 19 24 29 34 39 44 49
Female population 14,000 15,000 14,000 12,000 13,000 12,000 10,000
Female births 630 870 980 660 650 240 30

6. Find the gross reproduction rate from the following data. Obtain the average
number of female children born to woman of child bearing age.
Age [in years] Female Population Female births
15 - 19 10000 200
20 - 24 9000 540
25 - 29 8000 400
30 - 34 7000 280
35 - 39 6000 180
40 - 44 5000 100
45 - 49 4000 40

7. For the following data, calculate net reproduction rate.

Age group [in years] 15-19 20 24 25 - 29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49
Female population 8,000 9,000 10,000 9,000 8,000 7,000 6,000
Female births 240 450 600 360 160 70 30
Survival ratio 0.90 0.88 0.85 0.84 0.82 0.80 0.80

8. Compute age specific death rates for the following data

Age [in years] Population Deaths
Under 10 12,000 450
10 - 19 20,000 480
20 – 39 40,000 800
40 – 59 20,000 670
60 & above 8,000 500

9. Compute standardized death rates for towns A and B. State which town is
healthier.
Age Death rates Standard
[in years] Town A Town B Population
0– 9 18 20 15,000
10 – 29 10 9 35,000
30 – 59 15 8 30,000
60 & above 20 24 20,000

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II PU Statistics Question Bank
Ten Mark Questions:
1. For the following data, compute CBR, GFR and TFR.
Age [in Male Female Number of live
years] Population Population births
0 - 14 11,000 10,000 -
15 - 19 9,000 8,000 320
20 - 24 12,000 11,000 660
25 - 29 16,000 15,000 1,350
30 - 34 21,000 20,000 2,000
35 - 39 15,000 15,000 1,035
40 - 44 7,000 6,000 180
45 - 49 4,000 5,000 55
50 & above 6,000 9,000 -
2. For the following data, compute the GRR, NRR and hence comment on the
results.
15 - 20 - 25 - 30 - 35 - 40 - 45 -
Age group [in years]
19 24 29 34 39 44 49
Female population 8,000 9,000 10,000 9,000 8,000 7,000 6,000
Female births 240 450 600 360 160 70 30
Survival ratio 0.90 0.88 0.85 0.84 0.82 0.80 0.80
3. For the following data, compute the GRR, NRR and hence comment on the
results.
15 - 20 - 25 - 30 - 35 - 40 - 45 -
Age group [in years]
19 24 29 34 39 44 49
Female population 3,000 2,500 2,200 2,000 1,800 1,500 1,200
Female births 60 100 132 80 54 30 12
Survival ratio 0.9 0.9 0.8 0.8 0.8 0.7 0.7
4. For the following data, compute the GRR and NRR. On the basis of NRR draw
inference about the population.
15 - 20 - 25 - 30 - 35 - 40 - 45 -
Age group [in years]
19 24 29 34 39 44 49
Female population 15000 11000 16000 17000 16000 15000 10000
Female births 180 715 960 680 352 120 10
Survival ratio 0.95 0.92 0.89 0.87 0.85 0.83 0.80
5. From the following data, compute standardized death rates for Town A and
Town B. Comment on the results.
Age group Town - A Town - B Standard
[in years] Population Deaths Population Deaths Population
0 – 20 5,000 100 7,000 105 4,000
20 – 50 14,000 392 15,000 465 16,000
50 – 70 20,000 300 25,000 500 18,000
70 & above 1,000 200 3,000 390 2,000

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
6. From the following data, calculate the STDRs for locality A and locality B.
Comment on the results.
Age group Locality A Locality B Standard
[in years] Population Deaths Population Deaths Population
0 – 20 4,000 68 8,000 160 6,000
20 – 40 9,000 54 13,000 65 12,000
40 – 60 7,000 91 10,000 130 8,000
60 & above 3,000 129 4,000 160 4,000
7. From the following data, compute standardized death rates for village A and
village B. Which village is healthier?
Age group Village - A Village - B Standard
[in years] Population Deaths Population Deaths Population
0 – 20 4,000 36 3,000 30 2,000
20 – 40 12,000 48 20,000 100 3,000
40 – 60 6,000 60 4,000 48 6,000
60 & above 8,000 152 3,000 60 4,000
8. From the following data, compute standardized death rates by taking locality B
population as standard and comment on results.
Age group Locality A Locality B
[in years] Population Deaths Population Deaths
0 – 20 4,000 68 6,000 120
20 – 40 9,000 54 12,000 60
40 – 60 7,000 91 8,000 104
60 & Above 3,000 129 4,000 160
9. From the following data, compute standardized death rates and comment.
Age group Locality A Locality B [Standard]
[in years] Population Deaths Population Deaths
0 – 20 3,000 45 4,000 40
20 – 40 8,000 48 10,000 60
40 – 60 7,000 42 10,000 70
60 & Above 5,000 110 6,000 108
10. From the following data, compute standardized death rates and comment.
Age group Locality A [Standard] Locality B
[in years] Population Deaths Population Deaths
Below 10 5,000 140 5,000 145
10 – 25 12,000 50 14,000 60
25 – 65 15,000 80 20,000 90
65 & above 4,000 150 1,000 110

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – II INDEX NUMBERS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.

1. The value of the index number for the base year is –
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

2. If the general price level goes up by 80% between 2020 and 2022, the index
number for 2022 with base 2020 is-
a) 20 b) 80 c) 100 d) 180

3. The prices of items increased by 10% in 2012 as compared to 2010. The index
number for the year 2010 is,
a) 110 b) 10 c) 100 d) 0

4. The prices of items decreased by 10% in 2020 as compared to 2018. The index
number for the year 2020 is,
a) 110 b) 10 c) 100 d) 90

5. If price during the current year is double the price during the base year, then
the price relative is
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

6. The weights used in the construction of Laspeyre’s price index number are –
a) Base year prices b) Current year prices
c) Base year quantities d) Current year quantities

7. The weights used in the construction of Paasche’s price index number are –
a) Base year prices b) Current year prices
c) Base year quantities d) Current year quantities

8. The weights used in construction of Marshall-Edgeworth’s price index numbers

q +q
a) q0 b) q1 c) ( 0 2 1) d) (q 0 ÷ q1)

9. The condition for the ‘time reversal test’ to be satisfied with usual notation is –
a) P01 x P10 = 1 b) P01 x P10 = 0 c) P01 x Q01 = V01 d) P01 x V01 = Q01

10. The condition for the ‘factor reversal test’ to be satisfied with usual notation is –
a) P01 x P10 = 1 b) P01 x P10 = 0 c) P01 x Q01 = V01 d) P01 x V01 = Q01

11. Factor reversal test is satisfied by

a) Laspeyre’s index number b) Marshall – Edgeworth’s index number
c) Fisher’s index number d) Kelly’s index number

12. Laspeyre’s’s index number satisfies

a) Unit test b) Circular test c) Time reversal test d) Factor reversal test

13. Paasche’s index number satisfies

a) Unit test b) Circular test c) Time reversal test d) Factor reversal test

14. Dorbish-Bowley’s index number satisfies

a) Unit test b) Circular test c) Time reversal test d) Factor reversal test
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
(Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s, Fisher’s, Retail, Economic barometers, 100, Averages,
Base year, Current year, 𝐪𝟎 , Simple aggregative price, 𝐪𝟏 , Price, quality,
Geometric mean)
1. Index numbers are known as ____________.

2. Index numbers are specialized type of __________.

3. The value of the index number for the base year is _________.

4. In the computation of index numbers, most preferred type of average is

____________.
5. The weight that is used in the construction of Laspeyre’s price index number is

_____________.
6. The weight that is used in the construction of Paasche’s price index number is

____________.
7. Laspeyre’s quantity index number uses the _________ prices as weights.

8. Paasche’s quantity index number uses the ___________ prices as weights.

9. _________ index number shows an upward bias.

10. __________index number shows downward bias.

11. __________ index number satisfies both TRT and FRT.

12. __________ index number does not satisfy unit test.

13. The _______ price of the commodities used in the construction of cost of living
index number.

14. A value weight means quantity produced multiplied by the __________ of the
commodities.

15. In constructing index number, the ___________ of the product is not taken into
consideration.

Match the following: (Direct answers are given)

Index numbers Economic barometers
Base period Economically stable
P01 = 80 20% of the price of the commodity
decreases
P01 = 140 40% of the price of the commodity
increases
Laspeyre’s index number Upward bias
Paasche’s index number Downward bias
Fisher’s index number Free of bias
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Fisher’s index number Satisfies both TRT and FRT
Fisher’s index number Ideal
Dorbish-Bowley’s index number Free of bias
Index number which doesn’t Simple aggregative price index
satisfy unit test number
P01 x P10 = 1 Time reversal test
P01 x Q01 = V01 Factor reversal test
P01 x P12 x P20 = 1 Circular test
Current year weight Paasche’s index number
Base year weight Laspeyre’s index number
Retail price of commodities Cost of living index number

One Mark Questions:

1. In index number what is meant by base year?
2. In index number what is meant by current year?
3. Define price relative.
4. Write the formula of price relative.
5. Write the formula of quantity relative.
6. What is the value of index number for the base year?
7. If the price during the current year is triple the price during the base year, what
is the value of price relative?
8. If the price relative is 175, what would you conclude?
9. If the general price level goes up by 80% between 2000 and 2012, what is the
index number for 2012 with base 2000?
10. If the quantity index number for current year is 80, then what would you
conclude?
11. Mention a characteristic of index numbers.
12. Mention a use of index numbers.
13. Mention a limitation of index numbers.
14. Define price index number.
15. Mention two steps involved in the construction of index number.
16. Name the common average used in the construction of index numbers.
17. Which average is considered as the best average in the construction of index
number?
18. Why GM is considered as the best average in the construction of index number?
19. What is simple aggregative price index number?
20. Write down the formula of simple aggregative price index number.
21. Write down the formula of simple arithmetic mean price index number.
22. Write down the formula of simple geometric mean price index number.
23. Write down the formula of weighted arithmetic mean price index number.
24. Write down the formula of weighted geometric mean price index number.
25. Write down the formula of Laspeyre’s price index number.
26. Which weight is used in the construction of Laspeyre’s price index number?
27. Write down the formula of Paasche’s price index number.
28. Which weight is used in the construction of Paasche’s price index number?
29. Write down the formula of Marshall-Edgeworth’s price index number.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
30. Which system of weight is used in the construction of Marshall-Edgeworth’s
price index number?
31. State the relation between Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Dorbish–Bowley’s index
numbers.
32. Write down the formula of Dorbish – Bowley’s price index number.
33. State the relation between Laspeyer’s, Paasche’s and and Fisher’s index
numbers.
34. Write down the formula of Fisher’s price index number.
35. Write down the formula for Kelly’s fixed weight price index number.
36. Which weight is used in the construction of Kelly’s price index number?
37. Write down the formula of Laspeyre’s quantity index number.
38. Which weight is used in the construction of Laspeyre’s quantity index number?
39. Write down the formula of Paasche’s quantity index number.
40. Which weight is used in the construction of Paasche’s quantity index number?
41. Write down the formula of Marshall-Edgeworth’s quantity index number.
42. Which system of weight is used in the construction of Marshall-Edgeworth’s
quantity index number?
43. Write down the formula of Dorbish – Bowley’s quantity index number.
44. Write down the formula of Fisher’s quantity index number.
45. Write down the formula of value index number.
46. What do you mean by unit test?
47. Name the index number which does not satisfy unit test.
48. State the condition required to satisfy Time Reversal Test (TRT).
49. Name the index number which satisfies TRT.
50. Does Marshall - Edgeworth’s index number satisfies TRT?
51. State the condition required to satisfy Factor Reversal Test (FRT).
52. Name the index number which satisfies FRT.
53. Does Marshall - Edgeworth’s index number satisfies FRT?
54. Name the index number which satisfies both TRT and FRT.
55. State the condition required to satisfy circular test.
56. Name the index number which satisfies circular test.
57. Which index number shows upward bias?
58. Why Laspeyre’s price index number shows upward bias?
59. Which index number shows downward bias?
60. Why Paasche’s price index number shows downward bias?
61. Is Marshall - Edgeworth’s index number free from bias?
62. Why Fisher’s index number is free from bias?
63. Define consumer price index number (cost of living index number).
64. Write a use of consumer price index number.
65. Which price of the commodities is used in the construction of cost of living
index number?
66. State a method used to compute consumer price index number.
67. Write the formula for computing CPI by aggregative expenditure method.
68. Write the formula for computing CPI by family budget method.

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II PU Statistics Question Bank
Five Mark Questions:
1. Following are the prices (in Rs.) of items in 2010 and 2015. Calculate simple
arithmetic mean price index number. Comment on the result.
Item A B C D E F
Price 2010 50 60 20 50 80 125
(Rs.) 2015 55 75 30 75 90 130
2. The following are the prices (in Rs.) of items in 2010 and 2015. Find simple
geometric mean price index number.
Item A B C D E F
Price 2010 50 60 20 50 80 125
(Rs.) 2015 55 75 30 75 90 130
3. Calculate simple geometric mean price index number for the following data.
Item A B C D E
Price Base year 24 40 20 16 50
(Rs.) Current year 30 35 24 16 60
4. For the following data calculate the weighted arithmetic mean price index
number.
Commodity Wheat Gram Rice Pulses
Price 2005 50 60 20 50
(Rs.) 2010 55 75 30 75
Weight 4 2 3 1
5. Find the weighted A.M price index number from the following data.
Item A B C D E
Weight in % 25 10 20 15 30
Price 2000 120 30 50 25 40
(Rs.) 2005 100 30 40 20 50
6. Find weighted G.M. price index number from the following data.
Item A B C D E
Weight in % 30 15 20 10 25
Price Base year 100 20 70 20 40
(Rs.) Current year 90 20 60 15 55
7. Calculate the weighted geometric mean price index number for the following
data.
Item Stereo Television Radio
Price Base year 20,000 15,000 500
Rs/ Unit Current year 25,000 20,000 800
Weight 30 50 20
8. By using the following data compute suitable index number and comment on
the result.
Base year Price (Rs.)
Item
Quantity Base year Current year
A 20 8 4
B 40 12 10
C 40 20 15
D 50 40 25
E 50 50 10

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
9. Compute suitable index number from the following data and comment on the
result.
Item p0 p1 q1
I 5 6 30
II 3 4 15
III 4 5 18
IV 2 2 10
10. Compute Kelly’s price index numbers for 2005 from the following data.
Comment on the result.
Price (Rs.)
Item Quantity
2000 2005
A 15 22 15.5
B 20 27 12.5
C 4 7 7.5
D 10 20 7.5
11. Calculate Kelly’s price index number from the following data. Comment on the
result.
No. of units Price (Rs.)
Item
sold Base year Current year
A 22 25 30
B 40 60 75
C 35 100 110
D 45 70 90
12. Compute Kelly’s price index number for the following data. Comment on the
result.
Price (Rs.) Quantity of
Item
2010 2012 consumption
A 10 12 20
B 16 18 15
C 9 10 10
D 11 14 25
13. Compute Kelly’s price index number for the following data. Comment on the
result.
Item A B C D
p0 14 22 10 8
p1 15 24 12 10
q 5 4 10 12
14. Compute suitable index number from the following data. Comment on the
result.
Quantity
Item Unit Price in 1990
1990 1995
A kg 150 160 10
B kg 90 100 12
C meter 60 60 15
D packets 50 40 9

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
15. Compute suitable index number from the following data. Comment on the
result.
Item p0 q0 q1
I 30 6 5
II 15 4 3
III 18 5 4
IV 10 2 2

16. Calculate suitable index number from the following data. Comment on the result.
Current year Quantity
Item
price Base year Current year
A 30 8 10
B 45 10 15
C 100 7 10
D 22 20 25

17. For the following data show that Marshall-Edgeworth’s price index number
satisfies TRT.
Base year Current year
Item
Price Quantity Price Quantity
A 4 4 6 2
B 6 4 4 8
C 8 5 10 3

18. From the following data compute value index number for the year 2010 on the
basis of 2008.
2008 2010
Item
Price (in Rs.) Quantity Price (in Rs.) Quantity
A 9 10 10 11
B 10 9 11 10
C 7 8 8 10
D 15 8 15 9
19. For the following data compute value index number for the current year.
Comment on the result.
Base year Current year
Item
Price Quantity Price Quantity
A 5 25 6 30
B 10 5 15 4
C 3 40 2 50
D 6 30 8 35

20. For the following data find the consumer price index number for the year 2012
with respect to the base year 2005 by aggregative expenditure method.
No. of units Price (in Rs. per unit)
Commodity Unit
(quantities) in 2005 2005 2012
Rice quintal 2 1600 3800
Dhal quintal 0.2 2100 6400
Sugar kg 30 15 32
Tea kg 3 60 100
Miscellaneous monthly 12 2000 3000

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
21. Calculate the cost of living index number by aggregative expenditure method.
Base year Current year
Commodity
Price (in Rs.) Quantity price (in Rs.)
Wheat 26 40 30
Pulses 48 5 60
Salt 2 4 2.5
Oil 150 15 170
Others 1000 6 1400
22. For the following data find consumer price index number by aggregative
expenditure method.
No. of units Price per unit in Rs.
Item
(quantities) in 2010 2010 2015
A 100 8 12
B 25 6 7
C 10 5 5
D 20 48 52
E 25 15 16
F 30 9 27

23. For the following data calculate the cost of living index number by aggregative
expenditure method.
Base year Current year
Commodity
Price (in Rs.) Expenditure (in Rs.) price (in Rs.)
Rice 12 960 17
Sugar 24 360 30
Tea 200 400 300
Pulses 40 200 50
Fuel 500 4000 600
Others 1000 20000 2500

24. For the following data calculate the cost of living index number by family budget
method.
Price (in Rs.)
Group Weight
Base year Current year
Food 10 2000 2500
Housing 5 800 1200
Clothing 3 400 500
Fuel 7 500 700
Miscellaneous 5 800 1000

25. For the following data calculate the cost of living index number by family budget
method.
Price (in Rs.)
Group Weight
Base year Current year
Food 130 170 30
Clothing 50 60 12
Fuel 90 110 8
Entertainment 30 50 15
Medicine and Education 40 70 10
Others 50 90 15

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
26. For the following data calculate the cost of living index number.
Price (in Rs.)
Group Weight
Base year Current year
Food 2000 2500 10
Clothing 800 1200 4
Housing 2500 3000 12
Fuel 500 400 8
Miscellaneous 800 1000 6

Ten mark questions:

1. Find Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Fisher’s price index numbers for 2000 from the
following data.
1995 2000
Item
Price (Rs.) Quantity Price (Rs.) Quantity
A 6 50 10 56
B 2 100 2 120
C 4 60 6 60
D 10 30 12 24
E 8 40 12 36
2. From the following data compute Marshall-Edgeworth’s and Dorbish-Bowley’s
price Index numbers.
Price (in Rs.) Quantity
Item
Base year Current year Base year Current year
A 6 10 50 56
B 2 2 100 120
C 4 6 60 60
D 10 12 30 24
E 8 12 40 36
3. Find Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Dorbish-Bowley’s price index numbers for the
following data.
2004 2008
Item
Price (Rs.) Quantity Price (Rs.) Quantity
A 10 5 12 4
B 15 8 18 7
C 6 3 4 5
D 3 4 3 5
4. From the following data compute Marshall-Edgeworth’s and Fisher’s price Index
numbers.
Price (in Rs.) Quantity
Item
Base year Current year Base year Current year
A 10 12 60 60
B 4 5 100 90
C 5 6 70 80
D 6 6 60 40

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
5. From the following data find Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Marshall-Edgeworth’s
price Index numbers.
Base year Current year
Item
Price (Rs.) Expenditure (Rs.) Price (Rs.) Expenditure (Rs.)
A 5 25 10 60
B 1 10 2 24
C 4 14 8 40
D 2 40 5 75
6. From the following data compute Dorbish-Bowley’s and Fisher’s price Index
numbers.
Price (Rs.) Expenditure (Rs.)
Item
Base year Current year Base year Current year
1 2 5 50 60
2 4 8 20 48
3 1 2 8 20
4 5 10 30 70
7. For the following data show that Fisher’s index number satisfies both time
reversal and factor reversal tests.
2004 2006
Item
Price (Rs.) Quantity Price (Rs.) Quantity
A 8 15 9 15
B 7 12 8 13
C 10 10 10 10
D 12 14 15 16
8. For the following data verify whether Fisher’s index number satisfies TRT and
FRT.
Price (Rs.) Quantity
Item
Base year Current year Base year Current year
A 4 6 4 2
B 6 4 4 8
C 8 10 5 3
9. For the following data verify whether Marshall-Edgewroth’s index number
satisfies TRT and FRT.
Base year Current year
Item
Price (Rs.) Quantity Price (Rs.) Quantity
A 4 4 6 2
B 6 4 4 8
C 8 5 10 3
10. Using the following data verify whether
a. Laspeyre’s index number satisfies FRT
b. Marshall-Edgewroth’s price index number satisfies TRT.
Base year Current year
Commodity
Price (Rs.) Quantity Price (Rs.) Quantity
Rice 40 20 45 22
Wheat 25 16 30 15
Oil 95 8 95 9
Fish 110 10 120 10
Milk 20 6 30 7

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – III TIME SERIES ANALYSIS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.

1. A graphic representation of time series data is called
a) Frequency polygon b) Ogive
c) Frequency curve d) Historigram

2. The general tendency of the time series data to increase or to decrease or to

remain constant during a long period of time is called
a) Secular trend b) Seasonal variation
c) Cyclical variation d) irregular variation

3. The regular, periodic and short term variation in a time series is called
a) Secular trend b) Seasonal variation
c) Cyclical variation d) irregular variation

4. The sudden unexpected variation in a time series is called

a) Secular trend b) Seasonal variation
c) Cyclical variation d) irregular variation

5. The method in which the original time series data is divided into two equal parts
and averages are calculated for both the parts is known as
a) Graphical method b) semi averages method
c) Moving averages method d) least squares method

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
(Semi-averages, Indices, Normal, Irregular, An upward, downward,
Historigram, Secular trend, Seasonal, Cyclical)
1. A graphic representation of time series data is called _______________.
2. The general tendency of the time series data to increase or to decrease or to
remain constant during a long period of time is called __________.
3. Increase in the price of gold in the past many years is ____________ trend.
4. Decrease in the death rates in the past many years is a ___________ trend.
5. The regular, periodic and short term variation in a time series is called
_____________ variation.
6. Seasonal ____________ are used for the measurement of seasonal variation.
7. The sudden unexpected variation in the time series is called __________ variation.
8. In the ____________ method the original time series data is divided into two equal
parts and averages are calculated for both the parts.
9. The process of minimisation of sum of squared errors results in some equations
which are called ______ equations.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Match the following. (Direct answers are given)
Time series Data arranged chronologically
Graphic representation of time Historigram
series
Period of cyclical variation Within one year
Business cycle Oscillatory variation
Irregular variation Unpredictable
y = a + bx Straight line trend
y = a + bx + cx 2 Parabolic (quadratic) trend
y = abx Exponential (Logarithmic) trend

One mark questions:

1. Define time series.
2. Give an example for time series.
3. What is Historigram?
4. Mention a use of time series.
5. Mention two components of time series.
6. Define secular trend.
7. Give an example for secular trend.
8. Give an example for upward trend.
9. Give an example for downward trend.
10. Define seasonal variation.
11. Is seasonal variation of the time series predictable?
12. Mention a factor causing seasonal variation.
13. Give an example for seasonal variation.
14. Which component of a time series is associated with ‘Increase in the sales of text
books in the month of June’?
15. Which index is used for the measurement of seasonal variation?
16. Define cyclical variation.
17. Define irregular (random) variation.
18. Mention a factor causing random variation.
19. Give an example for random variation.
20. Which component of a time series is associated with ‘Sudden increase in theprice
of vegetables due to strike’?
21. Which variation of the time series is unpredictable?
22. Name two methods of measuring trend.
23. Write a merit of method moving averages for measuring trend.
24. Write a demerit of method moving averages for measuring trend.
25. Write a merit of method least squares for measuring trend.

Two mark questions:

1. Define time series. Give an example.
2. Mention two uses of time series.
3. Mention four components of time series.
4. Define secular trend. Give an example.
5. Define seasonal variation. Give an example.
6. What are the different phases in a business cycle?
7. Diagrammatically represent ‘Business Cycle’ with stages.
8. Define random variation. Give an example.
9. Mention a factor causing following variations:
i) Seasonal variation ii) Irregular variation

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
10. Which component of a time series is associated with the following sentences?
(a) Fall in death rate due to advance in science.
(b) An increase in employment during harvest season.
11. Name four methods of measuring trend.
12. State two conditions of least squares method of measuring trend.
13. Write down the normal equations for fitting linear trend.
14. Given a second degree trend equation Y = 25 - 0.75X + 2X2. Estimate the value of
Y, when X = 3.

Five mark questions:

1. Obtain trend values by 3 yearly moving averages for the following data.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
No. of Students 15 18 17 20 23 25 29 36 33 40

2. The following figures relate to the profits of 10 years. Find the trend values of the
profits by 3 yearly moving averages method.
Year 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Profits
30 27 39 36 42 48 45 51 48 54
(in lakhs)

3. Find trend values by five yearly moving averages for the following time series.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
Value 10 15 18 21 25 30 33 40 50

4. For the following time series compute trend values by five yearly moving
averages.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Value 14.6 15.9 17.4 17.9 16.5 16 17.1 18.3 19.6 20.1 18.5

5. Calculate trend values for the following data by 5 yearly moving averages.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Sales
18 18 21 20 16 17 17 16 21 20 20
(‘000)

6. Compute trend values by four yearly moving averages for the following data.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Sales (‘000) 75 60 55 60 65 70 70 75 85 70

7. Estimate the trend values by taking four yearly moving averages.

Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Value 12 25 39 54 70 87 105 100 82 65

8. Calculate trend values by 4 yearly moving averages for the following data.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Profit
80 85 82 90 100 95 85 84 98 100
(in crores)

9. Calculate trend values by 4 yearly moving averages for the following data.
Year 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Production 464 515 518 467 502 540 557 571 586 612

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
10. Fit a straight line trend for the following data by least squares method and
estimate the production for 2010.
Year 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Production (in lakhs) 70 74 81 86 89

11. Fit a straight line trend for the following data by least squares method and
estimate the price for 2013.
Year 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Price (in Rs.) 12 20 31 40 47

12. For the following time series fit a linear trend by the method of least squares.
Year 1980 1984 1988 1992 1996 2000
Sales (‘000) 16 20 19 14 18 21

13. Below are given the figures of production of a sugar factory. Fit a linear trend by
the method of least squares.
Year 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
Production (‘000 tons) 79 83 90 94 90 95 99

Ten mark questions:

1. Production in 1000 quintals of sugar is given below. Fit a straight line trend, find
trend values and estimate production for 2009.
Year 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
Production 12 10 14 11 13 15 16

2. Fit a straight line trend for the following data by the method of least squares,
find trend values and estimate the production for the year 2007.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Production (‘000 tons) 50 47 52 45 48 55 60

3. For the following data fit a straight line trend of the form Y = a + b X. Find the
trend values and estimate the sale for 2007.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Sale of Vehicles (‘000) 160 350 340 580 770 910 950

4. Below are given the figures of production (in thousand tons) of a sugar factory
Year 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Production 80 90 92 83 94 99 92
(i) Fit a st. line by the method of least squares and obtain the trend values.
(ii) Also estimate the production for the year 2008.

5. Fit a straight line trend for the following data by the method of least squares,
find trend values and estimate the production for 2015.
Year 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
Production (‘000 tons) 80 100 110 122 138 150 162

6. For the following time series fit a second degree trend of the type y  a  bx  cx 2 by
the method of least squares. Estimate the profit for the year 2010.
Year 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Profit (in lakhs) 10 12 16 24 38

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
7. By the method of least squares fit a parabolic trend for the following time series.
Estimate the profit for the year 2016.
Year 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015
Profit (‘000) 10 12 14 10 8

8. By the method of least squares fit a parabolic trend for the following time series.
Estimate the production for the year 2017.
Year 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015
production (‘000 tons) 15 11 10 11 13

9. For the following time series data fit a trend equation of the type y  a  bx  cx 2 .
Estimate the value for 2011.
Year 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Value 14 16 20 29 42 60 80

10. The following figures give the annual production of a commodity. Estimate the
production in 2011 by using the trend equation of the type y  a  bx  cx 2 .
Year 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Production (‘000 tons) 8 10 13 17 22 28 35

11. Population figures for a city are given below.

Year 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
Population (‘000) 132 142 157 170 191
Fit a curve of the type y = ab and estimate the population for the year 2014
x

12. Following data shows the population of India. Fit a curve of the type y = abx and
estimate the population for the year 2011.
Year 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001
Population (in crores) 43.9 54.8 68.4 84.4 102.7

13. Following data shows the population of India. Fit a curve of the type y = abx.
Estimate the population for the year 2021.
Year 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Population (in crores) 36.1 43.9 54.8 68.4 84.4 102.7 121

14. Following data shows the population of Karnataka. Fit a curve of the type y=abx.
Estimate the population for the year 2021.
Year 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011
Population (in lakhs) 194 236 293 371 448 527 611

15. The sales of a company in lakhs of rupees for the year 2006 to 2012 are given
below.
Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
Sales 32 47 65 92 132 190 275
Fit an equation of the form y = ab and estimate the sales for the year 2013.
x

16. For the following data fit an exponential trend of the form y = abx.
Year 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Production (in crores) 7 10 12 14 17 24

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – IV INTERPOLATION AND EXTRAPOLATION

Two mark questions:

1. Differentiate between interpolation and extrapolation.
2. Write two assumptions of interpolation and extrapolation.
3. Mention two methods of interpolation.
4. Write down the conditions for applying of Binomial expansion method of
interpolation and extrapolation.
5. Write down the conditions for applying Newton’s advancing difference method of
interpolation.

Five mark questions:

1. Following is data regarding annual net life insurance premium. Using binomial
expansion method estimate the premium at the age 30 and 45.
Age (in Years) 20 25 30 35 40 45
Premium (in Rs.) 1426 1581 - 1996 2256 -

2. For the following data estimate the production for the year 2001 and 2005 by
binomial expansion method of interpolation and extrapolation.
Year 1995 1997 1999 2001 2003 2005
Production (‘000 tons) 20 40 70 ? 130 ?

3. For the following data estimate the production for 2006 and 2010 by binomial
expansion method of interpolation and extrapolation.
Year 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Production (tons) 5 ? 10 15 20 ?

4. For the following data interpolate and extrapolate the sales for the year 2007 and
2011.
Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
Sales 13 ? 25 38 65 ?

5. Interpolate and extrapolate the production for the years 1989 and 1991 with the
help of the following table.
Year 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991
Production 120 122 126 - 135 -

6. The annual sales of a company are given below. Interpolate and extrapolate the
sales for the year 2002 and for the year 2005.
Year 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005
Sales (Rs.lakhs) 125 163 - 238 282 -

7. Interpolate and extrapolate the production for the years 1965 and 1975 with the
help of the following table.
Year 1950 1955 1960 1965 1970 1975
Production (tons) 100 120 150 - 210 -

8. Interpolate and extrapolate the business for the years 1982 and 1984 from the
following data.
Year 1978 1979 1980 1981 1982 1983 1984
Business (in lakhs) 80 150 235 365 - 780 -
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
9. Interpolate and extrapolate the production for the years 2000 and 2010 with the
help of the following table.
Year 1980 1985 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010
Production (tons) 5 12 19 26 - 40 -

10. Cost of living indices of working class of a certain place for some years are given
below.Interpolate and extrapolate the missing index number for 1996 and 1999.
Year 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Index No. 200 202 206 ? 222 240 ?

11. Interpolate and extrapolate the production for the years 1982 and 1985 from the
following data.
Year 1979 1980 1981 1982 1983 1984 1985
Production (tons) 100 120 150 - 525 780 -

12. By binomial expansion method estimate the number of persons at ages 24 and
30 years with the help of the following data.
Age (Years) 18 20 22 24 26 28 30
No. of persons 20 22 26 ? 35 39 ?

13. Interpolate and extrapolate the missing values in the following the data.
X 5 10 15 20 25 30 35
Y 5 8 ? 13 15 15 ?

14. Following is data regarding annual net life insurance premium. Using Newton’s
advancing difference method estimate the premium at the age of 26 years.
Age (in Years) 20 25 30 35
Premium (in Rs.) 1426 1581 1771 1996

15. The following table shows the expectation of life at different ages. Interpolate the
expectationof life at the age 15.
Age (in Years) 10 20 30 40
Expectation of life (in years) 50 42 33 22

16. Using Newton’s forward difference method interpolate the value of ‘y’ when x=25.
X 10 20 30 40 50
Y 55 48 39 26 7

17. Below are given the wages earned by workers per day in a certain factory. Using
Newton’s advancing difference method estimate the number of workers earning
up to Rs.550 per day.
Wages per day up to (Rs.) 500 600 700 800
No. of workers 50 150 300 500

18. Below are given the wages earned by workers per day in a certain factory. Using
Newton’s advancing difference method estimate the number of workers earning
up to Rs.650 per day.
Wages per day up to (Rs.) 500 600 700 800 900
No. of workers 20 120 240 430 740

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
19. From the following data estimate the number of persons earning wages below
Rs.70 per day using Newton’s advancing difference method.
Wages per day Below 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100 100 - 120
No. of persons 500 280 200 140 100

20. From the following data interpolate the number of persons below the age 30
years.
Age (in Years) Below 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 – 80 80 – 100
No. of persons (‘000) 30 35 28 19 8

21. From the following table interpolate the number of workers getting salary below
Rs.25000.
Wages (‘000 Rs.) 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60
No. of workers 50 80 100 75 40

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – V THEORETICAL DISTRIBUTIONS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.

1. The range of Bernoulli distribution is
a) x = 0,1 b) x = 0,1,2,3,......n c) x = 0,1,2,3,......, ∞ d) x = ∞

2. The range of binomial distribution is

a) x = 0,1 b) x = 0,1,2,3,......n c) x = 0,1,2,3,......, ∞ d) x = ∞

3. The mean of a Bernoulli distribution is –

a) p b) np c) pq d) npq

4. The variance of a Bernoulli distribution with parameter p is –

a) p b) np c) pq d) npq

5. The standard deviation of a Bernoulli distribution is –

a) p b) pq c) √pq d) npq

6. The mean of a Binomial distribution is –

a) p b) np c) pq d) npq

7. The variance of a Binomial distribution is –

a) p b) np c) npq d) √npq

8. The standard deviation of a Binomial distribution is –

a) p b) np c) npq d)√npq

9. Following is the probability distribution of a Binomial variate:

X 0 1 2 3 4
p(x) 0.0625 0.25 0.375 0.25 0.0625
The mode of the distribution is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1

10. In a Binomial distribution, if np =3, the relation between mean and mode is
a) Mean = mode b) Mean> mode c) Mean < mode d) mean ≠ mode

11. In a binomial distribution, if n = 5 and p = 0.4, then the relation between mean
and mode is
a) Mean = mode b) Mean > mode c) Mean < mode d) mean ≠ mode

12. The range of Poisson distribution is

a) x = 0,1 b) x = 0,1,2,3,......n c) x = 0,1,2,3,......, ∞ d) x = ∞

13. The mean of a Poisson distribution is –

a) p b) np c) λ d) √λ

14. The variance of a Poisson distribution is –

a) p b) np c) λ d) √λ

15. The standard deviation of a Poisson distribution is –

a) p b) np c) λ d) √λ
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
16. The relationship between mean and variance of a Poisson distribution is –
a) Mean = variance b) Mean > variance
c) Mean < variance d) Mean ≠ variance

17. In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 1.2, the value of the mode is

a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 1.2

18. In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 2, the values of the modes are

a) 1, 2 b) 3, 4 c) 0, 4 d) 0, 3

19. In a Hyper geometric distribution, if a = 2, b = 4 and n = 3, the range is

a) x = 0,1 b) x = 0,1,2 c) x = 0,1,2,3 d) x = 0,1,2,3,4

20. The area under the normal curve is –

a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0 d) -1

21. The relationship between variance and standard deviation of a standard normal
distribution is –
a) Variance = S.D. b) Variance > S.D
c) Variance < S.D. d) Variance ≠ S.D.

22. If ‘X’ is a normal variate with mean ‘μ’ and S.D. ‘σ’, the value of P( X < μ ) is –
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

23. If ‘X’ is a normal variate with mean ‘μ’ and S.D. ‘σ’, the value of P( X > μ ) is –
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

24. If ‘Z’ is a standard normal variate , the value of P( Z<0 ) is –

a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

25. If ‘Z’ is a standard normal variate , the value of P( Z > 0 ) is –

a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

26. The parameter of a Chi- square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) q d) n, p

27. The mean of a Chi-square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) 2n d) np

28. The variance of a Chi-square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) 2n d) √2n

29. The standard deviation of a Chi-square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) 2n d) √2n

30. If Z1, Z2 and Z3 are three independent standard normal variates, the distribution
of Z12 + Z22 + Z32 is –
a) χ2 (1) b) χ2 (2) c) χ2 (3) d) χ2 (4)

31. For a Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f., the mean is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
32. The parameter of a t-distribution is-
a) n b) p c) q d) n, p

33. The mean of a t- distribution is –

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2

34. The median of a t- distribution is –

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2

35. The mode of a t- distribution is –

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2

36. If parameter of a t-distribution is 10, the mean is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

37. The variance of a t- distribution is-

n n n n−2
a) 2−n b) n+2 c) d)
n−2 n

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
𝟏
[ 0, 1, n, p, np, pq, npq, λ, 2n, Poisson, 𝟐 , 0.5, Standard normal,
t-distribution, Bell, 4, 𝛘𝟐 (3) ]

1. The mean of a Bernoulli distribution is _____.

2. The variance of a Bernoulli distribution is _____.
3. The mean of a Binomial distribution is ______.
4. The variance of a Binomial distribution is _____.
5. Binomial distribution is positively skewed when p <____.
6. Binomial distribution is negatively skewed when p >____.
7. The mean of a Poisson distribution is ______.
8. In _________distribution, mean and variance are equal.
9. The area under the normal curve is_______.
10. In ___________distribution, variance and standard deviation are equal.
11. If Z1, Z2 and Z3 are three independent standard normal variates, the distribution
of ( Z12 + Z22 + Z32 ) is ____.
12. The mean of a Chi-square distribution is______.
13. The variance of a Chi-square distribution is ______.
14. The mean of a t- distribution is _____.
15. If parameter of a t- distribution is 4, the mean is _____.
16. In a___________, mean = median = mode = 0
17. The t – curve is ________shaped.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Match the following: (Direct answers are given)
Bernoulli distribution Mean > variance
Bernoulli distribution Range: 0,1
The range of Bernoulli distribution x = 0,1
Binomial distribution Mean > variance
Variance of a Bernoulli distribution pq
In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 4 Mean =4
In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 4 Variance =4
Poisson distribution Mean = variance
The area under the normal curve 1
Standard normal distribution Variance = standard deviation
The parameter of a Chi-square n
distribution
The mean of a Chi-square n
distribution
The variance of a Chi-square 2n
distribution
Chi- square distribution Mean equals to its parameter
Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f. Mean = 10
Chi-square distribution curve Leptokurtic (β2 >3)
The parameter of a t- distribution n
The mean of a t- distribution 0
The median of a t- distribution 0
The mode of a t - distribution 0
Student’s t-distribution curve Leptokurtic (β2 >3)

One mark questions:

1. Define a Bernoulli variate.
2. Define a Bernoulli distribution.
3. Write down the probability mass function of a Bernoulli distribution.
4. Write the range of a Bernoulli distribution.
5. Give an example for Bernoulli variate.
6. Write a feature of Bernoulli distribution.
7. Write the parameter of a Bernoulli distribution.
8. Write the mean of a Bernoulli distribution.
9. Write the variance of a Bernoulli distribution.
10. Write the relationship between mean and variance of a Bernoulli distribution.
11. If X1, X2, ... Xn are independently identically distributed Bernoulli variates with
parameter p, what is the distribution of X=X1+X2+...+Xn?
4
12. If p  for a Bernoulli distribution, write down the p.m.f.
5
4
13. If p  for a Bernoulli distribution, find variance.
5
14. Define a binomial vaiate.
15. Define a binomial distribution.
16. Write down the p.m.f. of a binomial distribution.
17. Write down the range of a binomial distribution.
18. Give an example of binomial variate.
19. Write a feature of binomial distribution.
20. What are the parameters of binomial distribution?
21. Write the mean of a binomial distribution.
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
22. Write the variance of a binomial distribution.
23. Write the relationship between mean and variance of a binomial distribution.
24. Write the recurrence relation for successive probabilities in a binomial
distribution.
25. Write the recurrence relation for successive frequencies in a binomial
distribution.
26. For what value of ‘p’ binomial distribution is symmetrical?
27. From the following probability distribution find the value of mode.
x 0 1 2 Total
(x) 0.25 0.5 0.25 1
28. Define a Poisson variate.
29. Define a Poisson distribution.
30. Write down the p.m.f. of a Poisson distribution.
31. Write the range of a Poisson distribution.
32. Give an example for Poisson variate.
33. Mention a feature of Poisson distribution.
34. What is the parameter of a Poisson distribution?
35. Write the mean of a Poisson distribution.
36. Write the variance of a Poisson distribution.
37. Write the relationship between mean and variance of a Poisson distribution.
38. In which distribution mean and variance are equal?
39. Which type of skewness a Poisson distribution has?
40. Under what condition Poisson distribution tends to normal distribution?
41. In a Poisson distribution if mean is 4, find S.D.
42. In a Poisson distribution if S.D. is 4, find mean.
43. Write the recurrence formula for successive probabilities in a Poisson
distribution.
44. Write the recurrence formula for successive frequencies in a Poisson distribution.
45. In a Poisson distribution, if P(X = 0) = 0.0408, find  .
46. Define a hyper geometric variate.
47. Define a hyper geometric distribution.
48. Write down the p.m.f. of a hyper geometric distribution.
49. Write the range of a hyper geometric distribution.
50. Mention a feature of hyper geometric distribution.
51. Write the mean of a hyper geometric distribution.
52. Write the variance of a hyper geometric distribution.
53. Write down the p.m.f. of a hyper geometric distribution whose parameters are
a=4, b=7 and n=5.
54. For a hyper geometric distribution the parameters are a = 7, b = 5 and n = 8.
Write the range of hyper geometric variate.
55. Given, a = 3, b = 8 and n = 6, find the mean of a hyper geometric distribution.
56. Write down the mean of a hyper geometric distribution whose parameters are
a=4, b=7 and n=5.
57. Define a normal variate.
58. Define a normal distribution.
59. Write down the p.d.f. of a normal distribution.
60. Write the range of a normal distribution.
61. Give an example for normal variate.
62. Write the mean of a normal distribution.
63. Write the variance of a normal distribution.
64. What is the value of coefficient of skewness (β1) for a normal distribution?

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
65. What is the value of coefficient of kurtosis (  2 ) for a normal distribution?
66. What is the probability that a normal variate takes a value greater than its
mean?
67. What is the total area under the normal curve?
68. If X is a normal variate with mean µ and S.D. , what is the value of P(X <µ)?
69. Write down the area under the normal curve in 1 neighbourhood of µ.
70. Write down the area under the normal curve in 2 neighbourhood of µ.
71. Write down the area under the normal curve in 3 neighbourhood of µ.
72. Define a standard normal variate.
73. Define a standard normal distribution.
74. Write down the p.d.f. of a standard normal distribution.
75. Write the mean of a standard normal distribution.
76. Write the variance of a standard normal distribution.
77. Name the distribution for which variance and S.D. are equal.
78. If Z is a SNV, write the value of P(Z < 0).
79. In a normal distribution, given P(- 0.8 < Z < 0.8) = 0.5762. Find P(0 < Z < 0.8).
80. If Z is a SNV and P(Z > k) = 0.05, find the value of k.
81. If Z is a SNV and P(Z > k) = 0.1, find the value of k.
82. Define a chi-square distribution.
83. Write down the p.d.f. of a chi-square distribution.
84. Write the range of a chi-square distribution.
85. Define degrees of freedom.
86. Mention a feature of chi-square distribution.
87. Write the parameter of a chi-square distribution.
88. Write the mean of a chi-square distribution.
89. Write the variance of a chi-square distribution.
90. If Z is a SNV, then name the distribution of Z2.
91. If Z1, Z2 and Z3 are three independent standard normal variates, what is the
distribution of Z12+Z22+Z32 ?
92. Find mean of a chi-square variate with 8 degrees of freedom.
93. If variance of chi-square variate is 16, what is its mean?
94. Find mode of a chi-square variate with 8 degrees of freedom.
95. For a chi square(χ2 ) variate, if P(0<χ2 <13.33) = 0.5, find median.
96. Write down the p.d.f. of a student’s t-distribution.
97. Write the range of a student’s t-distribution.
98. Write the parameter of a student’s t-distribution.
99. Mention a feature of student’s t-distribution.
100. Write the mean of a t-distribution.
101. Write the variance of a t-distribution.

Two mark questions:

1. Write the mean and variance of a Bernoulli distribution.
2. What is meant by Bernoulli trial? Give an example.
3. Write down the Bernoulli distribution with parameter p = 0.25
4. Write down the Bernoulli distribution with parameter p =2/5.
5. Find the mean and variance of a Bernoulli distribution with parameter p = 0.8.
6. If p = 0.1 for a Bernoulli distribution, find mean and variance.
1
7. If p  for a Bernoulli distribution, find mean and variance.
2
8. Find the mean and variance of a Bernoulli distribution with parameter p = 2/3.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
1
9. If p  for a Bernoulli distribution, write down the p.m.f.. Also find variance.
5
10. Write down the p.m.f. of a Bernoulli distribution with parameter 0.8. Also find
S.D.
11. For a Bernoulli distribution, if p = 0.1 write the p.m.f. Also find S.D.
12. If n = 5 and p = 1/4, then write p.m.f. binomial distribution.
13. Write down two features of binomial distribution.
14. Write mean and variance a binomial distribution.
15. ‘The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 5 respectively’.
Comment on this statement with reason.
16. Under which conditions binomial distribution tends to Poisson distribution?
17. Under which conditions binomial distribution tends to normal distribution?
18. In a binomial distribution, if n = 6 and p = 1/3, find mean and variance.
19. For a binomial distribution if n = 5 and p = 0.4, find mean and variance.
20. In a binomial distribution, if n = 6 and p = 1/3, find mean and mode.
21. For a binomial distribution if n = 5 and p = 0.4, find mean and mode.
22. In a binomial distribution, if n = 6 and p = 1/3, find mode and variance.
23. For a binomial distribution if n = 5 and p = 0.4, find mode and variance.
24. In a binomial distribution with 9 trials, the mean is 6. Find ‘p’ and the variance.
25. In a binomial distribution, if n = 16 and mean = 4. Find p and S.D.
26. If a binomial distribution has mean 3 and variance 2, find the parameters.
27. The mean and S.D. of a binomial distribution are 8 and 2 respectively. Find the
parameters.
28. For a binomial distribution, if mean = 4 and S.D. = 2 , find the parameters.
29. Mention two features of Poisson distribution.
30. Find P(X = 0) in a Poisson distribution with mean 5.
31. The probability that a taxi driver makes no accidents is 0.1353. Find the average
number of accidents made by him.
32. In a Poisson distribution if P(X = 0) = 0.1225, write down the p.m.f.
33. In a Poisson distribution if 3×p(3) = p(4). Find mean.
34. In a Poisson distribution, the second probability term is half of the first
probability term. Find the variance.
35. In a Poisson distribution the first probability term is 0.3679. Find the next
probability term.
36. Mention two features of hyper geometric distribution.
37. Write the parameters of a hyper geometric distribution.
38. Write the mean and variance of a hyper geometric distribution.
39. Given, a = 5, b = 3 and n = 3. Find P(X = 1) for hyper geometric distribution.
40. In a hyper geometric distribution if a = 6, b = 9 and n = 4, find P(X = 2).
41. Find the variance of a hyper geometric distribution with parameters a = 12, b = 8
and n = 6.
42. If a = 5, b = 15 and n = 3, then find the variance of hyper geometric distribution.
43. Given a = 6, b = 4 and n = 4, find the S.D of hyper geometric distribution.
44. For a hyper geometric distribution the parameters are a = 7, b = 5 and n = 8.
What is the S.D?
45. Under what conditions hyper geometric distribution tends to binomial
distribution?
46. Write the parameters of a normal distribution.
47. Write the mean and variance of a normal distribution.
48. Write the p.d.f. of a normal distribution with mean 3 and S.D. 2
49. Write the p.d.f. of a normal distribution with mean 10 and S.D. 3
50. Write the p.d.f. of a normal distribution with mean 55 and variance 4.
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
2
1  x 6 
1   
51. Consider the following p.d.f. of a normal variate X, f (X)  e 2 3 
;   x  .
3 2
Write the mean and variance of X.
2
1  x 100 
1   
52. The distribution of a variable X is given by, f (X)  e 2  5  ;    x   . Write
5 2
the mean and S.D.
53. What are the values of coefficient of skewness ( 1 ) and coefficient of kurtosis (  2 )
for a normal distribution?
54. The two parameters of a normal distribution are µ= 10 and = 5. Find the points
of inflexion of the curve.
55. Mean and variance of a normal distribution are 12 and 4 respectively. Find
points of inflexion.
56. If the variance of a normal distribution is 9 cm2., then find Q.D.
57. If the S.D. of a normal distribution is 15, find M.D.
58. In a normal distribution if the values of first and third quartiles are 25 and 55
respectively, find the mean.
59. If the lower and upper quartiles of a normal distribution are 11 and 39
respectively, find the median.
60. If Q1 = 30 and Q3 = 70, find the mode of the normal distribution.
61. In a normal distribution mean and variance are 50 and 16 respectively. Find the
Q1 and Q3.
62. Mean and S.D. of a normal distribution are 20 and 2 respectively. Find lower and
upper quartiles.
63. In a normal distribution Q1 and mean are 40 and 50 respectively. Find the S.D.
64. In a normal distribution mean and Q3 are 50 and 60 respectively. Find the S.D.
65. In a normal distribution Q1 and S.D. are 40 and 15 respectively. Find the mean.
66. In a normal distribution Q3 and S.D. are 60 and 15 respectively. Find the mean.
67. Write the mean and variance of a standard normal distribution.
68. If Z is a SNV and P(Z < k) = 0.95, find the value of k.
69. If Z is a SNV, then name the distribution of Z2 and write its variance.
70. If Z1 and Z2 are two independent SNVs, then name the distribution of Z12+Z22
and write its mean.
71. Mention two features of chi-square distribution.
72. Write the mean and variance of a chi-square distribution.
73. What are the mean and variance of chi-square variate with 18 d.f.?
74. Find the S.D. of a chi-square variate with 8 d.f.
75. If variance of a chi-square variate is 16, what are mean and mode?
76. For a chi square(χ2 )variate, with 13 d.f. P(0<χ2 <12.33) = 0.5. Find median and
mode.
77. For a chi square(χ2 )variate, with 10 d.f.P(0<χ2 <9.33) = 0.5. Find median and
mode.
78. Mention two features of student’s t-distribution.
79. Write the mean and variance of a student’s t-distribution.
80. If the parameter of t-distribution is 6, find mean and variance.
81. If n = 4 for student’s t-distribution, find S.D.
82. If the parameter of t-distribution is 7, find median and variance.
83. If n = 10 for student’s t-distribution, find mode and variance.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank

Five mark questions:

1. Assuming that birth to male child and birth to female child to be equi-probable,
find the probability that a family with three children has 2 or more male
children.

2. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. Find the probability that the tosses results in
i) heads only ii) 3 heads.

3. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. Find the probability that the tosses results in
i) one head ii) 4 or more heads.

4. The probability that a bomb hits a target is 1/2. Four bombs are aimed at a
bridge.3 bombs are enough to destroy the bridge. What is the probability that i)
the bridge is destroyed ii) none of the bombs hit the bridge.

5. Team A has probability 0.3 of winning a game. If it plays 5 games, find the
probability that it wins i) 4 games ii) at least one game.

6. In a college, 60% of the students are boys. In a random sample of 3 students,

calculate the probability of getting i) two boys ii) at least one boy.

7. There are 40 boys and 30 girls in a class. 4 students are selected at random.
Find the probability that the selected students are i) all boys ii) at the most two
boys.

8. In a college 35% of the students are girls. In a random sample of 5 students,

calculate the probability that i) two are girls, ii) at least one is girl.

9. If the chance that a vessel (ship) arrives safely at a port is 9/10. Find the chance
that out of 5 vessels, at least 4 will arrive safely.

10. The probability of an arrow hitting a tree is 1/3. If 4 arrows are aimed at the tree,
find the probability that i) 3 arrows miss the tree ii) at least two arrows hit the
tree.

11. In a certain university, the chance that a professor suffers from dust allergy is
1/5. Calculate the chance that out of 8 professors in a university i) 2 will not
suffer from the allergy, ii) at least 2 will suffer from the allergy.

12. In a city 40% of the people are vegetarians. In a random sample of 6 persons find
the probability that i) 3 are vegetarians, ii) at least one is vegetarian.

13. The incidence of an occupational disease in an industry is such that the workers
have 20% chance of suffering from it. What is the probability that out of 5
workers 4 or more suffer from the disease?

14. The incidence of an occupational disease in an industry is such that the workers
have 20% chance of suffering from it. What is the probability that out of 5
workers at most 1 suffer from the disease?

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
15. There are 100 wrist watches in a box. 5 of them are defective. In a selection of 6
watches, what is the probability of getting less than 2 defective wrist watches? If
there are 50 such boxes, in how many of them will you find 2 defective wrist
watches?

16. In a grove there are 200 trees. Out of which 50 are mango trees. Among them, if
20 samples of 3 trees each are selected, in how many samples will you expect i)
exactly one mango tree ii) more than one mango tree?

17. In a village 1/3 of the people are literates. If 100 investigators meet 5 persons
each to see if they are literates, then how many investigators would you expect to
report that 2 or more are literates?

18. In a certain school 40% of the students have opted for first language Kannada.
Assuming 20 teachers take a sample of 4 students each, how many teachers will
report that 2 or 3 students opted for first language Kannada?

19. Four unbiased coins are tossed 64 times. Find expected frequencies of number of
heads obtained.

20. Four unbiased coins are tossed 128 times. Find the theoretical frequencies for
the number of heads obtained.

21. Five unbiased coins are tossed 128 times. Calculate the expected frequencies for
the number of heads obtained.

22. Five unbiased coins are tossed 256 times. Find the theoretical frequencies for the
number of tails obtained.

23. Six unbiased coins are tossed 256 times. Calculate the expected frequencies for
the number of heads obtained.

24. Fit a binomial distribution to the following data and obtain the theoretical
frequencies.
Number of defective balloons 0 1 2 3 4
Number of packets 6 12 22 24 16

25. Fit a binomial distribution to the following data and obtain the expected
frequencies.
Male births 0 1 2 3 4
No. of families 46 194 270 230 60

26. Four coins are tossed 100 times and the following distribution is obtained.
Number of heads 0 1 2 3 4
Number of tosses 8 32 33 22 5
Fit a binomial distribution when nature of the coin is not known. Obtain the
theoretical frequencies.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
27. Five coins are tossed 256 times and the following distribution is obtained.
Number of heads 0 1 2 3 4 5
Number of tosses 35 39 45 62 50 25
Fit a binomial distribution when nature of the coin is not known. Obtain the
theoretical frequencies.

28. For the following data, fit a binomial distribution and obtain the expected
frequencies.
Number of defective screws 0 1 2 3 4
Number of samples 3 20 26 17 9

29. The following data relates to the number of defective items.

Number of defective items 0 1 2 3 4 5
Number of samples 171 200 99 20 8 2
Fit a binomial distribution to the data. Obtain the theoretical frequencies.

30. In a binomial distribution with parameters n = 3 and p, the second and the third
frequency terms are 26 and 24 respectively. Find p

31. A typist makes 2mistakes per page on an average. Find the probability that a
page typed by him has i) 2 mistakes ii) at the most 2 mistakes.

32. On an average, a telephone operator receives 3 telephone calls per 5 minutes

interval. Calculate the probability that in a particular 5 minutes interval he i)
does not receive any call ii) receives more than one call.

33. On an average a box contains 2 defective items. Find the probability that a
randomly selected box has i) no defective item ii) at least two defective items.

34. It has been found that on an average 4 patients visit a particular doctor during
one hour. What is the probability that during a particular hour i) doctor is free
ii) more than 3 patients visit the doctor?

35. A car hire agency has two cars. On an average there is a demand for one car
during a particular hour. What is the probability that i) both the cars are free ii)
some demand is refused?

36. If 2% of electric bulbs manufactured by a company are known to be defective,

what is the probability that a sample of 150 electric bulbs taken from the
production process of that company would contain i) exactly one defective bulb?
ii) more than two defective bulbs? (Use Poisson approximation).

37. A 200 pages book has 0.4 mistakes per page on an average. i) Find the
probability that a randomly selected page from the book is free from mistakes ii)
in the book how many pages contain mistakes?

38. In a text book, on an average 0.3 mistakes per page is found. If there are 500
pages in the text book, in how many pages will there be i) three mistakes ii) at
the most two mistakes?

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
39. On an average, the number of defective items in a box is 4. If there are 100 such
boxes, in how many of them would you expect i) one defective item ii) at least 2
defective items?

40. The number of accidents in a year attributed to taxi drivers in a city follows
Poisson distribution with mean 2.5. Out of 1000 taxi drivers, find approximate
number of drivers with i) one accident in a year ii) more than three accidents in
a year.

41. On an average, one in every 50 valves manufactured by a firm is substandard. If

valves are supplied in packets of 100 each, in how many of the lot of 2000
packets would you expect substandard valves? (Use Poisson approximation).

42. The probability that a knife manufactured by a firm is defective is 1/50. Knives
are supplied in boxes of 50 each. In a lot of 1000 boxes, how many boxes contain
i) 3 defective knives ii) at least one defective knife? (Use Poisson approximation).

43. Out of experience, it is known that 1% of the screws manufactured by a firm are
defective. Screws are supplied in packets of 100 each. What is the probability
that a randomly selected packet has 2 defective screws? Among 3000 packets, in
how many packets would you expect defective screws? (Use Poisson
approximation).

44. The probability of a fuse manufactured by a firm found to be defective is 0.05.

Find the probability that a box containing 100 fuses have no defective fuse.
Among 500 such boxes how many contain exactly 4 defective fuses? (Use Poisson
approximation).

45. In a certain factory turning out optical lenses there is a chance 1/500 for lens to
be defective. The lenses are supplied in packets of 50 each. Use Poisson
distribution to calculate the approximate number of packets containing one
defective lens in a consignment of 20000 packets.

46. If a random variable X follows Poisson distribution such that P(X=1) = P(X = 2),
find i) mean ii) standard deviation and iii) the first probability term.

47. In a Poisson distribution, P(X = 2) = P(X = 3). Find P(X = 4).

48. In a Poisson distribution, if first two frequencies are 100 and 120 respectively.
Find next two frequencies.

49. In a Poisson distribution, the second and third frequencies are 120 and 60
respectively. Find next two frequencies.

50. The following are mistakes per page observed in a book.

Number of mistakes per page 0 1 2 3 4 and more
Number of pages 68 37 10 5 0
Fit a Poisson distribution to the data. Obtain expected frequencies.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
51. Fit a Poisson distribution to the following data and hence find the theoretical
frequencies.
No. of deaths per day 0 1 2 3 4 and more
No. of days 20 45 30 5 0

52. Fit a Poisson distribution to the following data and hence find the theoretical
frequencies.
No. of T.V. Sets sold 0 1 2 3 4 5 and more
No. of days 31 34 21 12 2 0

53. Fit a Poisson distribution to the following data and hence find the theoretical
frequencies.
X 0 1 2 3 4 5
f 46 29 12 7 4 2

54. A bag contains 10 red and 5 black marbles. A random sample of 5 marbles is
taken. Find the probability that the sample contains 3 red marbles. Also find the
mean of red marbles.

55. There are 14 fruits in a basket, out of which 8 are mangoes and rests are
oranges. A girl picks 5 fruits at random from the basket. Find the probability
that she gets 3 mangoes. Also find the mean of mangoes.

56. A student preparing for an examination studies only 10 out of 12 sections

prescribed. If the teacher selects 8 sections at random, what is the probability
that the student will have studied i) six and ii) five of these sections?

57. There are 15 lecturers in a college. Out of them 8, belong to the science faculty.
The college management builds 5 residential quarters and allots them to 5
randomly selected lecturers. Find the probability that i) all the quarters are
allotted to science lecturers.ii) three quarters are allotted to science lecturers.

58. A pond has 10 fishes among which 4 are marked (marked fishes are under
scientific observation). 4 fishes are caught from the pond. Find the probability
that two of them are marked. Also find the mean of marked fishes.

59. A basket has 10 mangoes, out of which 6 are ripe. 3 mangoes are randomly
selected.
i) What is the probability that all the picked mangoes are ripe?
ii) Find the expected number of ripe mangoes among the picked ones.

60. In a normal distribution, Q1 = 40 and Q3 = 60. Find mean, Q.D. and S.D.

61. In a normal distribution, mean and S.D. are 50 and 15 respectively. Find Q1, Q2
and Q3.

62. If X is a normal variate with mean 64 and S.D. 4, find the probability that,
i) X  68 ii) 60  X  68

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
63. If X is a normal variate with mean 64 and S.D. 4, find the probability that,
i) X < 62 ii) 60  X  66
64. If X is a normal variate with mean 64 and variance 4, find the probability that,
i) X  60 ii) X < 66.
65. If X ~ N(50, 32), find the probability that the value of the variate X is,
i) more than 47, ii) lies between 44 and 53.
66. Marks scored by the students of a class follow normal distribution with mean 80
and S.D. 5. Calculate the probability that a student selected at random from the
class scored i) more than 90 marks ii) between 70 and 85 marks.
67. Marks scored by the students of a class follow normal distribution with mean 80
and S.D. 5. Find the probability that a student selected at random from the class
scored i) more than 70 marks ii) between 75 and 90 marks.
68. Monthly income of employees follows normal distribution with mean Rs.18,000
and S.D. Rs.800. Compute the probability of employees with monthly income i)
more than Rs.20,000 ii) lies between Rs.16,000 and Rs.17,000.
69. The weekly wages of workers are normally distributed with mean Rs.3000 and
S.D. Rs.500. Calculate the probability of workers whose weekly wages will be i)
more than Rs.3400 ii) between Rs.2500 and Rs.3500.
70. The weekly wages of workers are normally distributed with mean Rs.3000 and
S.D. Rs.500. Find the probability of workers whose weekly wages will be i) more
than Rs.2500 ii) between Rs.2600 and Rs.3200.
71. The mean I.Q. of a large number of children of age fourteen is 95 and the S.D. is
5. Assuming that I.Q. follows normal distribution, find the i) percentage of the
children with I.Q. under 85. ii) proportion of the children with I.Q. above 90.
72. The weights of 1000 students are normally distributed with mean 55 kg and S.D.
2 kg. Calculate the number of students with weight between 57 kg and 60 kg.
73. Heights of 2000 soldiers are normally distributed with mean 175 cm and
variance 16 cm2. Find the number of soldiers with height between 173 cm and
177 cm.
74. Heights of 360 children are normally distributed with mean 120 cm. and
variance 4 cm2. Find the number of children having height i) greater than 118
cm. ii) less than 124 cm.
75. The weights of 1000 youths are normally distributed with mean 60 kg and S.D. 4
kg. Find the number of youths with weight i) more than 56 kg. ii) less than 68
kg.
76. The weights of 500 persons are normally distributed with mean 60 kg and S.D. 5
kg. Find the number of persons with weight between 62 kg and 70 kg.
77. The weights of 500 persons are normally distributed with mean 60 kg and S.D.
5kg. Find the number of persons with weight i) more than 68 kg ii) less than 55
kg.
78. Height of a group of 500 candidates who attended the army selection camp is
normally distributed with mean 170cm and S.D. 5cm. Minimum eligible height
for army selection is 175cm.How many candidates from above group are eligible?
79. Height of a group of candidates who attended the army selection camp is
normally distributed with mean 170cm and S.D. 3.9cm. Minimum eligible height
for army selection is 175cm. Show that 10% of the above group is eligible.
80. The daily wages of workers are normally distributed with mean Rs.500 and S.D.
Rs.50. i) Find the probability of workers whose daily wages will be between
Rs.400 and Rs.600 ii) Show that only 10% of workers have daily wages more
than Rs.564.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – VI STATISTICAL INFERENCE

Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.

1. A statistical constant of the population is called:
a) A parameter b) A statistic c) Standard error d) Estimate

2. A function of the sample values is called:

a) A parameter b) A statistic c) Standard error d) Estimate

3. The standard error of the sample mean is –

a) σ⁄ b) n⁄ c) √σ⁄n d) σ⁄n
√n √σ

4. The standard error of sample proportion is-

PQ P PQ q
a) b) c) √ n d)
n n n

5. The likely value of the unknown parameter is

a) Estimate b) Estimator c) Estimation d) Point estimation

6. Statistic which is used to estimate an unknown parameter is called

a) Estimate b) Point estimate c) Estimation d) Estimator

7. The best estimator of the population mean is-

a) μ b) x̅ c) σ d) s

8. Type I error is
a) Rejecting H0 when it is true b) Accepting H0 when it is true
c) Rejecting H0 when it is not true d) Accepting H0 when it is not true

9. The error that occurs by rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is
called:
a) Size of the test b) Power of a test c) Type – I error d) Type – II error

10. The error that occurs by accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually not
true is called:
a) Size of the test b) Power of a test c) Type – I error d) Type – II error

11. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is true is called:
a) Size of the test b) Power of a test c) Type – I error d) Type – II error

12. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is not true is called:
a) Size of a test b) Power of a test c) Type – I error d) Type – II error

13. The degrees of freedom while testing independence of attributes in a 2x2

contingency table is –
a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d) 4

14. A wrong decision about null hypothesis (H0) leads to

a) One kind of error b) Two kinds of error
c) Three kinds of error d) Four kinds of error

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
15. There are four possible decisions under the testing of null hypothesis (H0):
i) Accept H0 when it is true. ii) Reject H0 when it is not true.
iii) Accept H0 when it is not true. iv) Reject H0 when it is true.
The correct decisions are:
a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) i and iii d) ii and iii

16. There are four statements regarding the probability of rejecting null hypothesis
(H0):
i) Size of the test = P(type – I error) ii) Size of the test = 1 – P(type – I error)
iii) Power of a test = P(type – II error) iv) Power of a test = 1– P(type – II error)
The correct statements are:
a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) i and iv d) ii and iii

17. Which of the following statements are correct?

i) P(type – I error) = α ii) P(type – II error) = β
iii) P(type – I error) = 1 – α iv) P(type – II error) = 1– β
a) i and ii b) iii and iv c) i and iv d) ii and iii

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
[ Estimation, Interval estimation, Statistic, Test statistic, An estimator, An
upper, Point estimation, Less than 5, Parameter space, Parameter, ̅𝐱 ,
Confidence limits, Size of the test, Type – I error, Power of a test, Critical
𝐏𝐐
region, Type – II error, √ 𝐧 , Acceptance region, Null distribution ]

1. A statistical constant of the population is called a____________.

2. A function of the sample values is called a_____________.
3. The set of all the admissible values of the parameters is called ______________.
4. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of a statistic is called its
____________.
5. Standard error of sample proportion (p) is ________.
6. Method of obtaining the most likely value of the population parameter is called
___________.
7. Any statistic which is used to estimate an unknown parameter is
called_____________.
8. If a single value is proposed as an estimate of the unknown parameter, it is
__________.
9. If an interval is proposed as an estimate of the unknown parameter, it is
_________.
10. The boundary values of confidence interval are ______.
11. The best estimator of the population mean is ______.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
12. The error that occurs by rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is
called __________.
13. The error that occurs by accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually not
true is called ________.
14. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is true is called
____________.
15. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is not true is called
__________.
16. __________is the set of those values of test statistic, which leads to the rejection of
the null hypothesis.
17. __________is the set of those values of test statistic, which leads to the acceptance
of the null hypothesis.
18. The statistical distribution of the test statistic under the null hypothesis is
called_____________.
19. A statistic based on whose distribution the testing of hypothesis is conducted is
called__________.
20. Chi-square test for goodness of fit is always ________tailed test.
21. In chi-square test for goodness of fit, if any Ei is___________, it should be pooled
with the adjacent frequency.

Match the following. (Direct answers are given)

Parameter Population constant

Statistic A function of sample values
The best estimator of the population x̅ (sample mean)
mean
σ S. E.(x̅)
⁄ n
√
Estimation and testing of hypothesis Branches of statistical inference
The likely value of the unknown Estimate
parameter
Single value proposed as an estimate Point estimation
H1: μ < 5 H0: μ = 5
H1: μ > 5 H0: μ = 5
H1: μ ≠ 5 H0: μ = 5
P(type – I error) α
P(type – II error) β
Size of the test P(Reject H0 when it is true)
Size of the test P(type – I error)
Power of a test P(Reject H0 when it is not true)
Power of a test 1 – P(type – II error)
Power of a test 1–β

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
One mark questions:
1. Define parameter.
2. Define statistic.
3. What is parameter space?
4. What is sample space?
5. Define sampling distribution of a statistic.
6. Define standard error.
7. Write the formula of S.E.(x̅).
8. Write the formula of S.E.(x̅1 − x̅2 ).
9. Write the formula of S.E. (p).
10. Write the formula of S.E.(p1 - p2), when P1≠ P2.
11. Write the formula of S.E.(p1 - p2), when P1= P2.
12. A lot contains 2% defective items. 40 items chosen from it. Another lot contains
1% defective items. 60 items chosen from it. Find E (p1-p2).
13. Write a use of standard error.
14. What is statistical inference?
15. Mention a branch of statistical inference.
16. What is meant by estimation?
17. Define an estimator.
18. Define an estimate.
19. Define point estimation.
20. Define interval estimation.
21. Define confidence interval.
22. What are confidence limits?
23. What is confidence coefficient?
24. Define statistical hypothesis.
25. Give an example for statistical hypothesis.
26. Define null hypothesis.
27. Give an example for null hypothesis.
28. Define alternative hypothesis.
29. Give an example for alternative hypothesis.
30. What is type I error?
31. What is type II error?
32. Define size of a test.
33. What is level of significance?
34. Define power of a test.
35. What is critical region?
36. What is critical value?
37. What is two tailed test?
38. What is one tailed test?
39. Define null distribution.
40. Define test statistic.

Two mark questions:

1. Define parameter and statistic.
2. Given  2 = 9 cm2 and n = 36, calculate standard error of sample mean.
3. Sizes of two samples are 50 and 100. Population standard deviations are 20 and
10. ComputeS.E.(x̅1 − x̅2 ).
4. If P = 0.02 and n = 64, then find S.E(p).
5. If P = 0.1 and n = 100, then find S.E(p).
6. A lot contains 2% defective items. 40 items chosen from it. Another lot contains
1% defective items. 60 items chosen from it. Find S.E.(p1 - p2).
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
7. For the following data, Find S.E.(p1 - p2).
Sample sizes 100 100
Population proportions 0.2 0.1
8. Write two uses of standard error.
9. Mention two branches of statistical inference.
10. Mention two types of estimation.
11. What are point and interval estimations?
12. What is statistical hypothesis? Give an example.
13. What is null hypothesis? Give an example.
14. What is alternative hypothesis? Give an example.
15. Define type I and type II errors.
16. Define size of a test and power of a test.
17. What are one tailed and two tailed tests?

Unit VI (b)
Large Sample Tests
One mark questions:
1. Write an alternative hypothesis for null hypothesis:    0 .
Two mark questions:
1. Given x = 203 gm,  = 200 gm,  = 10 gm and n = 64, calculate test statistic Z.
2. If (x̅1 − x̅2 )= 2.6 and S.E.(x̅1 − x̅2 )= 1.3, find test statistic Z.

Five mark questions:

1. A sample of 100 students is chosen from a large group of students. The average
height of these students is 162 cm and standard deviation is 8 cm. At 5% level of
significance can we reasonably assume that the average height of large group of
students is 160 cm?

2. A random sample of 400 tins of Vanaspati has mean weight 4.96 kg and
standard deviation 0.4 kg. Test at 1% level of significance that the average weight
of tins of Vanaspati is 5 kg?

3. It is required to test whether those who practice Yoga have average blood sugar
less than 120 mg/dl. A sample consisting of 36 persons who practice Yoga is
observed. If their mean blood sugar is 118.5 mg/dl and variance is 9 mg2/dl. At
1% level of significance what would you conclude?

4. The average weekly sales of the chocobars in candy stores were 150 bars. After
advertising campaign the average weekly sales in 64 stores for a typical week
increased to 153 bars and standard deviation 10 bars. Is the advertisement
campaign successful? (Use  = 0.01)

5. A sample of 100 students is taken from a college. If the mean and S.D. of their
weights are 51 kg and 5 kg respectively, test at 1% level of significance that the
average weight of college students is 50 kg.

6. A machine is designed to fill 500 ml of milk to polythene bags. A randomly

selected 100 milk bags filled by this machine are inspected. The mean is found to
be 499 ml and S. D. is 5 ml. Is the machine functioning properly at 5% level of
significance?
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
7. A random sample of 64 children is taken from a school. The average weight of the
children is 29 kg and standard deviation is 5 kg. Can we assume that the
average weight of the school children is less than 30 kg? (Use  = 0.05)

8. A company manufactures car tyres. Their average life is 40,000 kilometres and
standard deviation 5,000 kilometres. A change in the production process is
believed to result in a better product. A test sample of 100 new tyres has mean
life of 41,000 kilometres. Can you conclude at 5% L.O.S. that the new product
gives better result?

9. A specified brand of automobile tyre is known to have average life of 10,000 km

with a S.D. of 500 km. A random sample of 36 tyres, when tested resulted in the
average life of 9,800 km. At 1% level of significance what is your conclusion
regarding average life of tyres?

10. A random sample of 225 cans containing baby food has mean weight 998 gm and
S. D. 15 gm. Test whether the mean contents of the cans be considered as 1 kg.
Use 1% L.O.S.

11. On 60 different days the number of passengers in a bus was noted. The mean
and S. D. of the number of passengers was found to be 40 and 5 respectively. At
5% level of significance, test the hypothesis that the average number of
passengers in the bus is more than 38.

12. From the following data test whether mean daily wages of workers of Factory-A
and Factory-B are equal. Use 1% L.O.S.
Factory No. of workers Mean daily wages (in Rs.) S.D. (in Rs.)
A 200 195 20
B 450 200 30

13. The mean I.Q. of 200 randomly selected boys of a college is 90 and that of 128
girls is 88. Standard deviations of their I.Q. are 10 and 8 respectively. Test
whether there is a significant difference between average I. Q. of boys and girls at
5% level of significance.

14. The mean and variance of heights of 60 randomly selected Punjabis are 178 cm
and 9 cm2 respectively. The mean and variance of heights of 40 randomly
selected Guajaratis are 176 cm and 16 cm2 respectively. Can we conclude that
Punjabis are taller than Guajaratis? Use  = 5%.

15. For the following data, test whether means differ significantly. Use  = 0.01.
Sample Size Mean S.D.
I 90 52 9
II 40 54 2

16. 450 boys and 350 girls appeared for II P.U.C examination. The mean and S.D. of
marks obtained by boys are 53 and 18 respectively. The mean and S.D of marks
obtained by girls are 50 and 14 respectively. Is there any significant difference
between mean marks obtained by boys and girls? (Use  = 0.01)

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
17. A random sample of 100 workers from South India shows that their daily mean
wage is Rs. 446 with S.D. Rs. 20. A random sample of 150 workers from North
India shows that their daily mean wage is Rs. 450 with S.D. Rs. 30. Test at 1%
level of significance that, mean wages in South India is less than mean wages in
North India.

18. The mean and S.D. of marks obtained by 50 students of college A are 74 and 8
respectively. The mean and S.D. of marks obtained by 40 students of college B
are 78 and 7 respectively. Is there any significant difference between mean
marks of the students of two colleges? Test at 1% L.O.S.

19. The mean weight of 50 boys of college A is 58 kg with variance 64 kg2. The mean
weight of 40 boys of college B is 54 kg with variance 49 kg2. Can we conclude
that boys of college A and boys of college B have same mean weight? Use 5%
level of significance.

20. A sample of 400 woman shoppers is chosen from market A. Their average weekly
expenditure on food is Rs. 1000 with S.D. of Rs. 40. Another sample of 500
woman shoppers is chosen from market B. Their average weekly expenditure on
food is Rs. 992 with S.D. of Rs. 50. Test at 5% level of significance that the
average weekly expenditure on food is same.

21. Intelligence test given to groups of boys and girls gave the following information:
Mean S.D. Size
Boys 70 12 100
Girls 74 10 50
Is the difference in the mean scores of boys and girls statistically significant? Use
5% L.O.S.

22. For the following data, test whether means differ significantly. Use  = 0.01
Sample Size Mean S.D.
I 40 70 8
II 60 66 6

23. Test at 1% level of significance, that average life of bulbs manufactured by Firm-
A is less than Firm-B.
Firm Size Average life Variance
A 32 1300 hours 64 hours2
B 50 1305 hours 100 hours2

24. Following is data regarding mean weights of randomly selected boys and girls of
P.U.C. Test whether, mean weight of boys is greater than mean weight of girls.
(Use  = 0.05)
Sample Boys Girls
Size 64 48
Mean 63 kg 60 kg
S.D 8 kg 12 kg

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
25. Intelligence test given to groups of boys and girls gave the following information:
Mean S.D. Size
Boys 74 12 100
Girls 70 10 50
Is the difference in mean score of boys and girls statistically significant? Use 1%
L.O.S

26. In a sample of 400 people from Kerala 180 are coffee drinkers and the rest are
tea drinkers. Can we assume that both coffee and tea are equally popular in the
state? Use 5% level of significance.

27. A campus bulletin claims that only 36% of all college students visit the library in
a week. A sample of 225 college students showed that 90 of them had visited the
library. Can we accept the bulletin claim? (Use 1% L.O.S)

28. From a random sample of 100 students from PUC, 13 students were found
wearing spectacles. Can we conclude that proportion of students wearing
spectacles is more than 0.1? Use  = 0.05.

29. A coin is tossed 400 times and head turns up 220 times. Can we conclude that
the coin is unbiased? Use α = 0.05.

30. In a city, out of 900 men 486 were smokers. Does this information indicate that
the majority of men in the city are smokers? Use 1% L.O.S.

31. A manufacturer claims that less than 2% of his products are defective. A retailer
buys a batch of 1000 articles from the manufacturer and finds that 10 are
defective. Test at 5% level of significance that, whether the manufacturer’s claim
is justifiable.

32. A stock broker claims that he can predict with 75% accuracy whether a stock
market value will rise or fall during the coming month. In a sample of 50
predictions he is correct in 35. Does this evidence supports broker’s claim at 5%
level of significance?

33. The manufacturer of surgical instruments claims that less than 1% of the
instruments he supplied to a certain hospital are faulty. A sample of 300
instruments revealed that 6 were faulty. Test his claim at 1% level of
significance.

34. In a random sample of 1000 persons from a large population, 470 are women.
Can we conclude that men and women are in the equal ratio in the population?
(Use α= 0.05).

35. In an election the leaders of a party contend that they would secure more than
36% of votes. A pre-poll survey of 400 voters revealed that the percentage is 42.
Does the survey support the leader’s claim? (Use 1% L.O.S)

36. In a random sample of 100 II PUC Statistics students 9 secured distinctions. At

5% level of significance, can we conclude that 10% of II PUC Statistics students
secured distinctions?
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
37. A stock broker claims that he can predict with 80% accuracy whether a stock
market value will rise or fall during the coming month. In a sample of 40
predictions, 28 are correct. Does this evidence supports broker’s claim at 1%
level of significance?

38. The manufacturer of surgical instruments claims that less than 2% of the
instruments he supplied to a certain hospital are faulty. A sample of 400
instruments revealed that 12 were faulty. Test his claim at 5% level of
significance.

39. In a random sample of 80 persons from town A, 30 are found to be consumers of

wheat. In a random sample of 40 persons from town B, 18 are found to be
consumers of wheat. Does this data reveal a significant difference between
proportion of wheat consumers in town A and town B? Use 5% L.O.S.

40. In an institution, out of 500 students who took S.S.L.C. examination, 460 passed
and out of 400 students who took P.U.C. examination, 350 passed. At 1% level of
significance, can it be concluded that S.S.L.C. students have performed better
than P.U.C. students?

41. A machine produced 26 defective articles among 250. Another machine produced
4 defective articles among 50. Test whether there is any significant difference
between population proportions. Use 5% level of significance.

42. Among 400 students randomly selected from college A, 72% of students passed.
Among 200 students randomly selected from college B, 66% of students passed.
Can it be concluded that performance of college A is better than performance of
college B? Use 5% level of significance.

43. In a random sample of 120 people from a city in the year 2011 revealed that 96
were cricket match viewers. In another random sample of 100 people from same
city in the year 2013 revealed that 90 were cricket match viewers. Examine
whether there is a significant increase in the proportion of cricket match viewers.
Use 1% level of significance.

44. Among randomly selected 100 students of college A, 66 were passed. Among
randomly selected 200 students of college B, 144 were passed. Test whether
passing proportion is same in both the colleges. Use 5% L.O.S.

45. Among 80 randomly selected persons from district A, 36 are interested in viewing
hockey match. Among 40 randomly selected persons from district B, 12 are
interested in viewing hockey match. Test at 5% level of significance that, the
proportion of viewers in district A is more than district B.

46. From the following data test whether, the difference between population
proportions is significant at 5% level of significance.
Sample I II
Size 200 100
Proportion 0.28 0.34

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
47. From the following data test whether, the difference between population
proportions is significant at 1% level of significance.
Sample I II
Size 100 400
Proportion 0.02 0.01

48. From the following data test whether, the difference between population
proportions is significant at 5% level of significance.
Sample I II
Size 200 100
Proportion 0.12 0.09

Unit VI (c)
t- Tests
One mark questions:
1. Write an application of t-test.

Two mark questions:

1. Write two applications of t-test.
2. Write down the t-test statistic and degrees of freedom in case of test for mean.
3. Given, x = 53 gm,  = 50 gm, s = 5 gm and n = 17, calculate test statistic t.
4. Write down the t-test statistic and degrees of freedom in case of test for equality
of means of two independent samples.
5. Write down the test statistic and degrees of freedom of paired t-test.
6. In paired t-test, if n = 5, d = 3 and sd = 2, then what would be the value of test
statistic t?

Five mark questions:

1. The length of 10 samples of cotton taken from a population has mean length of
48cm and S.D. 3cm. Test whether the mean length of the population can be
taken as 50cm? Use 5% level of significance.

2. It is required to test whether those who practice yoga have average blood sugar
less than 120 mg/dl. A sample consisting of 17 persons who practice yoga is
observed. If their mean blood sugar is 108 mg/dl and S.D. is 8 mg/dl. What
would you conclude? Use 5% level of significance.

3. The mean weekly sales of the chocobar in candy stores were 146.3 bars. After
advertising campaign the mean weekly sales in 22 stores for a typical week
increased to 153.7 bars and showed S.D. of 17.2 bars. Was the advertisement
campaign successful? Use  = 5%

4. A random sample of size 20 is taken from normal population gives a sample

mean 42 and standard deviation 6. Test the hypothesis that the population mean
is 44. Use  = 5%.

5. A company has been producing steel tubes with mean inner diameter of 2 cm. A
sample of 10 tubes gives a mean inner diameter of 2.01 cm and a variance of
0.004 cm2. Is the company meeting the specification? Use  = 5%
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank

6. A manufacturer is making axle with diameters 0.7". A random sample of 10 axles

shows a mean diameter of 0.742" with S.D of 0.04". Test whether manufacturer
is meeting the specification. Use  = 5%.

7. The mean weekly sale of ice-cream bars was 140 bars. After an advertising
campaign the mean weekly sale in 26 shops for a typical week increased to 150
and showed a S.D. 20. Is this evidence indicates that the advertising campaign
successful? Use  = 1%.

8. A soap manufacturing company was distributing a particular brand of soap

through a large number of retail shops. Before a heavy advertisement campaign,
the mean sale per week per shop was 140 dozens. After the campaign a sample
of 26 shops was taken and mean sales was found to be 147 dozens with
standard deviation 16 dozens. Is advertisement effective? Use  = 5%.

9. A survey in a locality revealed that on an average 180 persons read a particular

newspaper. But the newspaper agent felt that it is more than 180. He conducted
a survey in 10 localities and it was found that on an average 185 persons read
that newspaper with S.D 6. Conduct the test at 1% level of significance.

10. The weights of 5 students of a college are 45, 47, 48, 49 and 51kg. Test whether
the average weight of the students of the college is 50kg. Use  = 5%

11. Five students are selected at random from a college and their heights are found
to be 149, 151, 152, 153 and 155cm. Test at 5% level of significance that the
average height of the students of the college is 150 cm.

12. A random sample of size 16 has mean 53. The sum of the squared deviations
taken from mean is 150. Can this sample be regarded as taken from the
population having mean 56? Use  = 0.01.

13. Mean and S.D. of heights of persons of two localities gave the following results.
Locality A Locality B
Sample size 12 8
Mean (cm) 175.3 177.7
S.D.(cm) 4.2 3.7
Can we conclude at 5% L.O.S. that the population of locality A on an average is
shorter than locality B?

14. For the following data test whether mean weight of group-I is greater than group-
II (use k=1.81)
Group-I Group-II
Sample size 7 5
Mean (kg) 50 48
Variance(kg )
2 5 3

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
15. The marks obtained by two groups of students in a statistics test are given
below:
Group A Group B
No. of students 15 11
Mean marks 42 38
S.D. marks 10 15
On the basis of above data, can it be concluded that there is a significant
difference in the mean marks obtained by the two groups? Use  = 5%.

16. For the following data examine whether the means differ significantly? Use  =
5%. (U)
Sample I II
Size 12 7
Mean 57.2 52.3
S.D. 3.41 3.62

17. The average weight of 6 randomly selected women is 68 kg and that of 10

randomly selected men is 67.8 kg. Their variances of weights are 12 kg2 and 17
kg2 respectively. Test whether the average weight of women is more than men.
Take  = 0.01.

18. I.Q. of 5 students before and after training is given below:

Student 1 2 3 4 5
Before training 110 123 120 132 125
After training 120 125 118 136 121
Test whether the training improves the I.Q. of students. (Take  = 0.01)

19. The following data represents the blood pressure of 5 persons before and after
performing dhyana:
Person A B C D E
B.P. Before Dhyana 90 90 100 88 99
B.P. After Dhyana 88 90 95 90 96
Can we conclude at 5% level of significance that Dhyana reduces blood pressure?

20. Following is the data regarding the I.Q. of five students before and after
treatment of Yoga:
I.Q. Before 118 120 116 115 125
I.Q. After 125 118 125 120 130
Is Yoga improves the I.Q. of students? Use 5% level of significance.

21. An I.Q. test was conducted to 5 students before and after training and following
data is obtained.
Student 1 2 3 4 5
I.Q. Before 121 128 120 118 125
I.Q. After 125 132 110 120 127
Test whether there is any significant difference between average I.Q. before and
after training. (Take  = 0.01).
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22. Five students were given intensive coaching and tests were conducted before and
after coaching. The scores of the tests are given below. Do the scores after
coaching show an improvement? (Use  = 0.05).
Student No 1 2 3 4 5
Marks before coaching 50 42 51 26 35
Marks after coaching 62 40 61 35 40

23. In geometry, first test was conducted to five boys of a school. They were given a
month tuition and second test was held at the end of it. The scores of the tests
are given below. Test whether the tuition was benefited the students. (Use  =
0.05).
Boys 1 2 3 4 5
Marks (I Test) 23 20 19 21 18
Marks (II Test) 24 18 21 18 20

24. A certain drug administered to 10 patients resulted in the following change in

blood pressure:-5, 2, -1, -3, 0, -2, 1, 5, 0, -4
Can it be concluded that the drug will decrease the blood pressure? Use  =0.05.

25. Ten hyper tension patients, to whom a certain drug was administered, change in
blood pressure are as follows:-7, 3, -1, 4, -3, 5, -6, -4, 1, -2
Can it be concluded that the drug will decrease the blood pressure? Use  =0.05.

Unit VI (d)
Chi-square Tests
One mark questions:
1. Mention an application of χ2 - test.
2. Write the degrees of freedom in testing of population variance for a sample of size n.
3. For the χ2 - test, what is the condition for expected frequency?
4. When do you pool the expected frequencies in testing of goodness of fit?
5. What is the value of degrees of freedom in testing of independence of attributes
in 2  2 contingency table?

Two mark questions:

1. Mention two applications of χ2 - test.
2. Write the χ2 - test statistic with degrees of freedom in testing of population
variance for a sample of size n.
3. Write the χ2 - test statistic with degrees of freedom in testing of goodness of fit.
4. Mention two conditions for applying χ2 - test of goodness of fit.
5. In a χ2 - test for goodness of fit, if there are 6 observations in which one
parameter is estimated, then find the value of degrees of freedom of test statistic.
6. Write the χ2 - test statistic with degrees of freedom in testing of independence of
attributes in 2  2 contingency table.
7. Write two conditions for applying χ2 - test of independence of attribute.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Five mark questions:
1. A normal variate has variance 8. Twenty sample observations of the variate have
variance 9. Test at 1% level of significance whether the population variance is 8.

2. A normal variate has variance 81. Twenty one random observations of the variate
have variance 100. Test at 1% level of significance whether the sample variance
differs significantly from the population variance.

3. The standard deviation of production of paddy is assumed to be 10.6 tons. A

sample of 20 acres showed that the standard deviation is 8.3 tons. Test at 1%
level of significance whether the standard deviation of production of paddy is less
than 10.6 tons.

4. A random sample of size 25 taken from a population gives the sample standard
deviation 8.5. Test the hypothesis that the population standard deviation ( ) is
10. Useα= 0.05.

5. A manufacturer claims that the life time of batteries produced by the factory has
variance 4000 hours2. To test this, a sample of 18 batteries were tested and
found the variance of 6000 hours2. Test the manufacturer’s claim at α= 0.05.

6. Test the hypothesis = 5, given that sample standard deviation is 6 for a random
sample of size 25 from a normal population. Use α= 0.05.

7. The variance of the height of 20 SSLC students is 4 cm2. Test at 1% level of

significance that the variance of height of SSLC students is more than 3 cm2.

8. Following are the points scored by five students in a competition:

1, 13, 9, 5, 7
Test at 5% level of significance that the population variance is more than 15.

9. The tensile strength of 8 rods were 8, 3, 12, 14, 7, 13, 9 and 6 tons. Test the
hypothesis that the standard deviation is more than 2 tons. Use 5% L.O.S.

10. Weights in kg. of 10 students are given below:

38, 40, 45, 53, 47, 43, 55, 48, 52, 49
Can we say that variance of the distribution of weights is equal to 20 kg2? Use
5% L.O.S.

11. Weights of 10 students are given below:

Weight (in kg) : 32, 48, 50, 47, 49, 55, 46, 51, 46, 50.
Can you conclude that standard deviation of the distribution of weights of
students is 4 kg? Use 1% L.O.S.

12. Binomial distribution is fitted to an observed frequency distribution after

estimating ‘p’ from the observed data. The observed and the expected frequencies
are given below.
X 0 1 2 3 4 5
Oi 14 56 110 88 40 12
Ei 10 50 100 100 50 10
Test whether B.D. is a good fit. Use  = 0.05.
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13. From the following data, test whether the Poisson distribution is a good fit. The
values are tabulated after estimating the parameter. Use  = 0.01.
Oi 46 29 12 7 4 2
Ei 37 37 18 6 2 0

14. 70 accidents that have occurred in a state in a week are tabulated as follows:
Day Sun Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
Accidents 7 8 11 12 5 13 14
Test whether accidents occur uniformly throughout the week. (k2 = 16.81)

15. In 120 throws of a die, the following distribution of faces was obtained.
Faces 1 2 3 4 5 6 Total
Frequency 30 25 18 10 22 15 120
Test at 5% level of significance that the die is unbiased.

16. A die is thrown 120 times and the results are as follows.
Face of die 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency 12 18 20 32 20 18
At 5% level of significance, test whether the die is fair.

17. Among 64 offspring of certain cross breed of guinea pigs, 34 were red, 10 were
black and 20 were white. According to genetic model, these numbers should be
in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 4. Are the data consistent with model at the 5% level of
significance?

18. A sample analysis of examination results of 500 students was made. It was
found that 220 students had failed, 170 had secured 3rd class, 90 were placed in
2nd class and 20 got 1st class. Do these figures commensurate with the general
examination result which is in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 for various categories
respectively.

19. The following is the data regarding family condition and examination result of
100 students. Test whether family conditions and results are independent. (k2 =
6.63)
Examination Result
Family Condition
Pass Fail
Good 30 10
Bad 20 40

20. From the following data, test whether ‘education’ and ‘employment’ are
independent at 1% level of significance.
Employment
Education
Employed Unemployed
Educated 20 25
Uneducated 15 40
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
21. From the following data test whether the attributes ‘literacy’ and ‘smoking’ are
independent. Use 5% level of significance.
Literates Illiterates
Smokers 7 18
Non-smokers 13 12

22. An opinion poll was conducted to find the reaction to a proposed civic reform in
100 members of each of the two political parties. The information is tabulated
below.
Party Favourable Unfavourable
A 40 60
B 50 50
Test whether political parties and the reaction to a proposed civic reform are
independent.

23. From the following data test whether the examination result depends on special
coaching. Use 1% level of significance.
Special Examination Result
coaching Pass Fail
Taken 210 90
Not taken 60 40

24. Consider the following 2  2 contingency table. Test whether X and Y are
independent at 1% level of significance.
X
X1 X2
Y
Y1 6 24
Y1 14 16

25. 40 students of college A and 80 students of college B are appeared for an

examination. The results are as follows.
Examination Result
College
Pass Fail
A 26 14
B 60 20
Is result depends on college? Use  = 0.05

26. In an experiment of immunization of cattle for tuberculosis, the following results

were obtained.
Vaccine Affected Unaffected
Inoculated 12 26
Non-inoculated 16 6
Test whether the vaccine is effective in controlling tuberculosis. Use  = 0.01.

27. Of the 500 workers in a factory exposed to an epidemic, 350 were attacked, 200
had been inoculated and of these 100 were attacked. Test whether inoculation
and attack of epidemic are independent. Use  = 0.05

28. In a survey of 200 boys 75 were intelligent. Among intelligent boys 40 had skilled
fathers. While 85 ofthe unintelligent boys had unskilled fathers. Do these figures
support the hypothesis that skilled father have intelligent boys? Use  = 0.05
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – VII STATISTICAL QUALITY CONTROL
Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.
1. Suppose X is a variable quality characteristic, which chart is used for the control
of average quality level?
̅ – chart
a) X b) R- chart c) np-chart d) c-chart

2. Suppose X is a variable quality characteristic, which chart is used for the control
of variation?
̅ – chart
a) X b) R- chart c) np-chart d) c-chart

3. Which control chart is used for number of defectives?

a) ̅
X – chart b) R- chart c) np-chart d) c-chart

4. Which control chart is used for number of defects?

a) ̅
X – chart b) R- chart c) np-chart d) c-chart

5. For R-chart if σ’ is known, then the central line is

a) σ’ b) d2 σ’ c) D1 σ’ d) D2 σ’

Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
[Attribute, Assignable cause, R- chart, Chance cause, Product control, Defect,
Process control, Defective, Variable, Control chart, np-chart, d2σ’, c-chart ]
1. Statistical quality control helps in detecting ____________type of variation.
2. The process of inspection of manufactured lot for acceptability is
called___________.
3. A ___________is a quality characteristic which does not conform to specifications.
4. An item having one or more defects is a _________item.
5. Controlling the quality of goods during the manufacturing process itself is called
_____________.
6. In statistical quality control, a measurable quality characteristic, which varies
from unit to unit, is __________.
7. A qualitative characteristic which cannot be measured and can only be identified
by its presence or absence is an __________
8. A small amount of variation for which no specific cause can be attributed is
termed as _________________of variation.
9. ________________is a graphical device which is used to study and verify whether
the production process is under statistical control or not.
̅ – chart and __________are used for the control of
10. In statistical quality control, X
variables.
11. In statistical quality control, __________is used for number of defectives.
12. In statistical quality control, __________is used for number of defects.
13. For R-chart if σ’ is known, then _________ is the central line.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Match the following (Direct answers are given)
̅
X – chart Control of average quality level
R-chart Control of variation
np-chart Number of defectives
c-chart Number of defects
Chance variation Beyond human control
̅
X – chart & R-chart Control charts for variables
np-chart & c-chart Control charts for attributes

One mark questions:

1. Define Statistical Quality Control.
2. Mention a type of cause for variation in a manufacturing process.
3. What are chance causes?
4. What are assignable causes?
5. Which type of ‘cause of variation’ is detected by SQC?
6. Which cause of variation cannot be detected by SQC?
7. Mention an advantage of SQC.
8. What do you mean by process control?
9. What do you mean by product control?
10. What is a defect in SQC?
11. Give an example for defect.
12. What are defectives in SQC?
13. Give an example for defectives.
14. What is a control chart?
15. What is upper control limit?
16. What is lower control limit?
17. Mention different types of control charts.
18. Name control charts for variables.
19. Name control charts for attributes.
20. Name the control chart used for number of defectives.
21. Name the control chart used for number of defects per unit.
22. In ̅
X- chart, if one of the sample mean lies outside the control limits, what would
you conclude?
23. In a control chart, if one point lies outside the control lines, what is your
inference?
24. Define Acceptance sampling.
25. Write an advantage of ‘Acceptance sampling’.
26. Write a disadvantage of ‘Acceptance sampling’.

Two mark questions:

1. Mention two types of causes for variation in a manufacturing process.
2. What are chance and assignable causes?
3. Mention two advantages of SQC.
4. What do you mean by product control and process control?
5. In SQC define variable and attribute.
6. In SQC what is a defect? Give an example.
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
7. In SQC what are defectives? Give an example.
8. In SQC what are defect and defectives?
9. Give one example each for defect and defectives.
10. Name the control charts for variables and attribute.
11. Write the upper and lower control limits for X̅ - chart, when standards are
known.
12. Compute upper control limit for X̅ - chart when X̅ ′ = 40, ’= 6 and A = 1.342.
13. Write the upper and lower control limits for X̅ - chart, when standards are not
known.
14. If ̿
X= 40, R̅ =2.5 and A2= 0.577, find lower control limit of X̅ - chart.
15. Write the upper and lower control limits for R-chart when standards are known.
16. If ’= 4 and n = 5, find average quality level [C.L.] of R-chart.
17. Write the upper and lower control limits for R-chart when standards are not
known.
18. If R̅ =2.5 and n = 4, find upper control limit of R-chart.
19. Write the upper and lower control limits for d-chart when standards are known.
20. If P| = 0.1 and n = 100, calculate U.C.L. for d-chart.
21. Write the upper and lower control limits for d-chart when standards are not
known.
22. Write the upper and lower control limits for c-chart when standards are known.
23. Write the upper and lower control limits for c-chart when standards are not
known.
24. In a floor mat manufacturing company, the average number of defects per square
meter of floor mat is known to be 4. Find the upper control limit for the number
of defects.
25. If c̅ = 2, find U.C.L. for c - chart.
26. Write two advantages of acceptance sampling.
27. Write relative merits and demerits of single sampling plan and double sampling
plan.

Five mark questions:

1. A drilling machine is set to dig holes with a mean diameter of 15mm and a
standard deviation of 0.2mm. Find the control limits for mean, for samples of
size 5 each.

2. If X| = 4.5, 1 = 1.5 for samples of size n = 4, compute control limits of X - chart.

3. If X = 40, R =2.5 for samples of size n = 5, compute control limits of X - chart.

4. The measurement of 8 sub groups of samples of size 4 each gave the following
results: X = 33.3 and R = 8.2. Write down the control limits for X -chart.

5. For the following data, find control limits of X -chart. (Given, A2 = 0.729)
Sub-group 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Total
Mean 52 48 53 49 50 48 53 47 400
Range 10 11 8 12 9 10 9 11 80
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank

6. For the following data, find control limits of X -chart. (Given, A2 = 0.729)
Sub-group 1 2 3 4 5 6
Mean 52 49 53 48 51 47
Range 4 6 5 7 3 5

7. For the following data, find control limits of X -chart. (Given, A2 = 0.577)
Sub-group 1 2 3 4 5 6
Mean 49 52 53 51 47 48
Range 3 5 7 6 4 5

8. Given, n = 4 and Ri: 14, 8, 11, 9, 6 and 12. Find the control limits of R-chart.

9. Given, n = 5 and Ri: 6, 3, 8, 4, 1, 2, 5 and 7. Find the control limits of R-chart.

10. If P| = 0.02 and n = 100, calculate the control limits of np -chart.

11. In a fish net manufacturing process, the proportion defectives p| = 0.01. If the
processis based on samples of size 100 each, find the control limits of np-chart.

12. Calculate the control limits for d-chart given p = 0.05 and sample size 50.

13. In a mobile phone manufacturing plant, a production manager has inspected a

sample of 25 phone sets at regular intervals. If the average fraction defective is
p̅ =0.02, write down the control limits for number of defectives.

14. Ten samples of 100 P.V.C. pipes manufactured by a firm are inspected for the
number of defectives. The number of defective pipes is noted as: 2, 1, 3, 0, 2, 2,
4, 4, 5, 6. Calculate the control limits for np-chart.

15. A company manufactures flooring tiles. Samples of 100 tiles each are drawn at
regular intervals. The number of defective tiles is given below.
Sample no. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
No. of defective tiles 2 3 1 0 4 2 4 2 6 4
Obtain the control limits for the above data.

16. In a floor mat manufacturing company, the average number of defects per square
meter is known to be 4. Determine the control limits for the number of defects.

17. In a printing industry at regular intervals, cloth is inspected for defects in

printing. If on an average 0.5 defects are expected per square meter, obtain
suitable control limits.

18. One meter of cloth was inspected for weaving defects. Total number of defects for
10 such samples was 24. Find the control limits for defects.
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank

19. During an examination of equal length of cloth, the following are the number of
defects observed as: 4, 5, 6, 6, 3, 2, 6, 7, 3, 4. Calculate control limits for
suitable control chart.

20. Twenty pieces of cloth out of different rolls contained respectively 1, 4, 3, 2, 5, 4,

6, 7, 2, 3, 2, 5, 7, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 8 imperfections. Find control limits for c -
chart.

21. For the following data find the control limits for R- chart.
(Given, D3 = 0, D4 = 2.115 and R = 4)
Sub-group 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Range 4 5 5 3 6 2 4 3

22. In a textile mill, cloth is inspected at regular intervals for weaving defects. The
results are recorded as below.
Sample number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Defects/sq. metre 2 1 0 0 2 5 1 1
If on an average 1 defect is expected per square meter, find the control limits for
c-chart.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
UNIT – VIII OPERATIONS RESEARCH

Choose the most appropriate answer from the choices given.

1. Graphical solution to the linear programming problem lies in the –
a) I quadrant b) II quadrant
c) III quadrant d) IV quadrant

2. Graphical solution to L.P.P. lies in the first quadrant because, -

a) x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 b) x ≤ 0, y ≤ 0 c) x ≥ 0, y ≤ 0 d) x ≤ 0, y ≥ 0

3. Transportation problem (T.P.) said to be balanced if and only if –

a) ai = bj b) ai< bj c) ai> bj d) Σai = Σbj

4. In a T.P., the solution is said to be non-degenerate, when –

a) The number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. > m+n–1
b) The number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. < m+n–1
c) The number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. = m+n–1
d) The number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. ≠ m+n–1

5. In a transportation problem, any basic feasible solution is said to be non-

degenerate when number of positive allocation is equal to
a) m + n – 1 b) m – n + 1 c) n – m + 1 d) m + n + 1

6. A game is said to be fair, if value of the game is,

a) v = 0 b) v ≠ 0 c) v = 1 d) v = 2

7. The maximum of row minimums is known as –

a) Minimax b) Maximin c) Saddle point d) Strategy

8. The minimum of column maximums is known as –

a) Minimax b) Maximin c) Saddle point d) Strategy

9. The problem of deciding the age at which old equipments are replaced by new
ones is called –
a) Linear programming problem b) Transportation problem
c) Replacement problem d) Game problem

10. In replacement theory, the depreciation cost of the item is-

a) P – Sn b) Sn – P c) P + Sn d) ΣCi

11. The cost associated with the maintenance of an inventory until they are sold or
used is called:
a) Capital coat b) Setup cost c) Shortage cost d) Holding cost.

12. The time gap between the placing of order and arrival of goods at inventory is
called:
a) Demand b) Time horizon c) Lead time d) Stock replenishment

13. The time period over which the inventory control is planned is called:
a) Demand b) Time horizon c) Lead time d) Stock replenishment

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the
brackets.
[Transportation, Basic, Σai = Σbj, Maximin, Game, Strategy, First quadrant,
Zero, Less than, Minimax, Lead time, Setup, Feasible region, Equal to, Pay-
off matrix, Saddle point, Holding cost, Time horizon, Value]
1. Graphical solution to L.P.P. lies in the___________.
2. ____________is the area which satisfies all the constraints and also non-negativity
restrictions.
3. ___________problem helps in shipment of quantities from various sources to
different destinations at a minimum cost.
4. A Transportation problem is balanced if and only if _______.
5. In a T.P., (m+n–1) variables are known as __________variables.
6. When the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. is ________(m+n–1), the
solution is said to be degenerate.
7. When the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. is ________(m+n–1), the
solution is said to be non-degenerate.
8. _________theory helps in deciding the best strategy in conflicting situations.
9. The _________of a player is the pre-determined rule by which a player determines
his course of action.
10. A game is said to be fair if the value of the game is________.
11. __________is the table showing how payments are to be made at the end of each
game.
12. The maximum of the row minimums is known as ___________.
13. The minimum of the column maximums are known as ________.
14. The position of the pay-off matrix where maximin and minimax coincide is the
___________.
15. The pay off at the position of the saddle point is called __________of a game.
16. The cost associated with the maintenance of an inventory until they are sold or
used is called __________.
17. The time gap between the placing of order and arrival of goods at inventory is the
_________.
18. The time period over which the inventory control is planned is called the
___________.
19. Inventory reduces the _______cost.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
Match the following. (Direct answers are given)
Graphical solution to L.P.P. First quadrant
Σai = Σbj Balanced T.P.
Σai≠ Σbj Unbalanced T.P.
North-west corner rule method Transportation problem
Matrix minima method (Least cost entry Transportation problem
method)
Value of the game, v = 0 Fair game
Maximin Maximum of row minimums
Minimax Minimum of column
maximums
Dominance principle Game theory
Depreciation cost P – Sn
Physical stock of goods Inventory
Holding cost C1
Shortage cost C2
Setup cost C3
Profit due to increasing market price Advantage of inventory
Inventory Model – I Shortages are not allowed
Inventory Model – II Shortages are allowed

One mark questions:

1. Write a scope of Operations Research.

Two mark questions:

1. Define Operations Research.
2. Write two scope of operations research.
3. Mention two areas where the economic operations research can be applied.

(a) Linear Programming Problem (L.P.P)

One mark questions:
1. Define linear programming problem.
2. In L.P.P define decision variables.
3. In L.P.P define objective function.
4. In L.P.P define solution.
5. In L.P.P define feasible solution.
6. In L.P.P define optimal solution.
7. In L.P.P is an optimal solution always a feasible solution?
8. Mention a method of solving Linear Programming Problem.
9. When an L.P.P is said to have unique solution?
10. When an L.P.P is said to have multiple solutions?
11. When an L.P.P is said to have unbounded solution?
12. When an L.P.P is said to have no solution?
13. In graphical method why feasible solution of L.P.P lies in the first quadrant?

Two mark questions:

1. Give the general form of L.P.P. in matrix notation.
2. Mention two methods of solving Linear Programming Problem.
3. In which quadrant the feasible solution of the L.P.P lies in graphical method?
Give reason.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
4. In an L.P.P The objective function is Max Z = 20x + 70y and if feasible solutions
are A (0, 8) and B(12 , 5). Find optimal solution.
5. The objective function and two feasible solutions of an L.P.P are Max Z = 200x +
100y and A(0,18), B(12,0). Find the optimal solution.
6. Which of the two feasible solutions (12, 10) and (14, 4) of an L.P.P maximizes the
objective function Z = 5x + 4y?
7. Which of the two feasible solutions (10, 12) and (14, 8) of an L.P.P Minimizes the
objective function. Min. Z = 10x + 20y?
8. Consider the LPP: Max. Z = 3x + 5y
s.t. x + 2y ≤ 9
x≤3
and x, y ≥ 0
If x = -1 and y = 5 is a solution to L.P.P. Is it a feasible solution? Give reason.

Five mark questions:

1. A resourceful home decorator manufactures two types of lamps A and B. Both
the lamps go through two technicians, a cutter and a finisher. Lamp A requires
two hours of cutter’s time and one hour of finisher’s time. Lamp B requires one
hour of cutter’s time and two hours of finisher’s time. The cutterhas 104 hours
and finisher has 76 hours of available time per month. Profit on one lamp of A
variety is Rs.10 and B variety is Rs.12. Formulate the L.P.P.

2. A firm can produce two types of cloth say, A and B. Three kinds of wool are
required for it, red, green and blue. One unit length of type A cloth needs 2
yards of red wool and 3 yards of blue wool; one unit length of type B cloth needs
3 yards of red wool, 2 yards of green wool and 1 yard of blue wool. If the firm
has a stock of 15 yards of red wool, 8 yards of green wool and 12 yards of blue
wool. Profit from unit length of cloth A and B is Rs. 5 and Rs. 8 respectively.
Formulate the L.P.P.

3. A small manufacturer employs 5 skilled men and 10 semi-skilled men for making
a product in two qualities, a deluxe model and an ordinary model. The
production of a deluxe model requires 2 hours of skilled man and 3 hours of
semi-skilled man. The ordinary model requires 1 hour of skilled man and 2
hours of semi skilled man. According to worker union rules, no man can work
more than 8 hours per day. The profit from each deluxe model is Rs.10 and that
from each ordinary model is Rs.8. Formulate a L.P.P such that the total profit is
maximised.

4. A tailor gets a profit of Rs.100 from a shirt and Rs.170 from a pant. In a week
from available 56 hours, he uses 36 hours for cutting and 20 hours for stitching.
For cutting he requires 2 hours for a shirt and 3 hours for a pant. He requires 1
hour for stitching a shirt and 2 hours for stitching a pant. Formulate the L.P.P.

5. A manufacturer produces 2 products , A and B which needs two machines P and

Q. Product A requires 6 hours on machine P and 2 hours on machine Q. Product
B requires 4 hours on machine P and 4 hours on machine Q. There are 60 hours
of time available on machine P and 80 hours on machine Q. Profit earned by the
manufacturer on selling one unit of product A is Rs. 20 and one unit of product
B is Rs. 12. Formulate the L.P.P.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
6. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:
Max. Z = 40x + 20y
s.t. 2x + 3y ≤ 12
x+y ≥3
and x, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
Write the procedure of solving an L.P.P by graphical method.

7. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Min. Z = 10x + 5y
s.t. 4x + 2y ≤ 16
2x + 3y ≥ 12
and x, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
Write down the steps in the graphical method of solving L.P.P.

8. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Max. Z = 10x + 15y
s.t. x + y ≥ 10
3x + 2y ≤ 60
and x, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
Explain graphical method of solving L.P.P.

9. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Max. Z = 3x+5y
s.t. x+2y ≤ 20
y≤6
and x,y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
Write the procedure of solving an L.P.P by graphical method.

10. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Min. Z = 5x + 4y
s.t. 4x + y ≥ 40
2x + 3y ≥ 60
and x , y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
What is an L.P.P? Explain different kinds of solutions.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
11. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:
Max. Z = 3x+5y
s.t. x + y ≤ 150
y ≤ 60
and x, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
Explain graphical method of solving L.P.P.

12. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Minimize Z = 10x + 5y
Subject to 2x + 3y ≥ 12
4x + 2y ≥ 16
and x ≥0, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
Write the procedure of solving an L.P.P by graphical method.

13. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Maximize Z = 100x + 170y
Subject to 2x + 3y ≤ 36
x + 2y ≤ 20
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
A tailor gets a profit of Rs.100 from a shirt and Rs. 170 from a pant. In a week
from available 56 hours, he uses 36 hours for cutting and 20 hours for
stitching. For cutting he requires 2 hours for a shirt and 3 hours for a pant. He
requires 1 hour for stitching a shirt and 2 hours for stitching a pant. Formulate
the L.P.P.

14. Solve the following L.P.P graphically:

Maximize Z = 20x + 12y
Subject to 6x + 2y ≤ 60
4x + 4y ≤ 80
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
OR
(For visually challenged students only)
A manufacturer produces 2 products , A and B which needs two machines P
and Q. Product A requires 6 hours on machine P and 2 hours on machine Q.
Product B requires 4 hours on machine P and 4 hours on machine Q. There are
60 hours of time available on machine P and 80 hours on machine Q. Profit
earned by the manufacturer on selling one unit of product A is Rs. 20 and one
unit of product B is Rs. 12. Formulate the L.P.P.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
(b) Transportation Problem (T.P)
One mark questions:
1. In a T.P, define a feasible solution.
2. Define basic feasible solution (BFS) of a T.P.
3. When do you say that a basic feasible solution of T.P is degenerate?
4. When do you say that a basic feasible solution of T.P is non-degenerate?
5. Define optimal solution of a T.P.
6. When T.P is said to be balanced?
7. When a Transportation Problem said to be unbalanced?
8. Write the formula of total cost of T.P.
9. Mention a method of obtaining initial basic feasible solution to a T.P.

Two mark questions:

1. Define a transportation problem.
2. What do you mean by degenerate and non-degenerate solutions in T.P?
3. Mention two methods of obtaining initial basic feasible solution for a T.P.
4. Whether the following Transportation problem is balanced?
D1 D2 D3 Availability
O1 2 5 2 180
O2 8 3 7 100
O3 6 2 10 120
Requirement 150 200 250

5. Verify whether the following solution to a T.P is non-degenerate.

D1 D2 D3
O1 30 10
O2 30
O3 20

6. Verify whether the following solution to a T.P is non-degenerate.

-- -- 30 70
65 -- -- 100
-- 50 80 ---
-- -- 30 70

Five mark questions:

1. Determine an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation
problem by NWCR. Compute the transportation cost.
To
Supply
D1 D2 D3
O1 2 7 4 5
O2 3 3 1 8
From O3 5 4 7 7
O4 1 6 2 14
Demand 7 9 18

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
2. Determine an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation
problem by NWCR. Compute the transportation cost.
To
Supply
D1 D2 D3
O1 8 4 12 500
From O2 10 5 6 200
O3 7 5 3 100
Demand 400 200 200

3. Obtain an initial B.F.S for the following T.P by NWCR. Find the transportation
cost.
To
Supply
X Y Z
A 10 11 2 27
From B 8 9 6 33
C 1 7 5 38
D 3 14 12 22
Demand 46 44 30

4. For the following T.P, obtain an initial B.F.S by NWCR and show that it is
degenerate.
Destination
ai
A B C D
I 3 4 2 6 35
Origin II 4 3 3 2 50
III 6 4 7 9 15
bj 25 45 15 15

5. Determine an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation

problem by NWCR. Compute the transportation cost. Is the solution degenerate?
To
Availability
X Y Z
A 8 7 3 60
From B 3 8 9 70
C 11 3 5 80
Requirement 50 80 80 210

6. Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following T.P by NWCR. Compute
the transportation cost. Is the solution to T.P degenerate?
Warehouse
Availability
D1 D2 D3 D4
O1 19 30 50 10 70
Factory O2 70 30 40 60 90
O3 40 8 70 20 180
Requirement 70 80 50 140

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
7. Find an initial basic feasible solution by Matrix Minima Method and compute the
total transportation cost. Is the solution to T.P non degenerate?
To
Supply
D1 D2 D3
O1 8 4 12 500
From O2 10 5 6 200
O3 7 5 3 100
Demand 400 200 200

8. Determine an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation

problem by Matrix Minima Method and compute the transportation cost.
To
Supply
D1 D2 D3
O1 2 7 4 5
O2 3 3 1 8
From O3 5 4 7 7
O4 1 6 2 14
Demand 7 9 18

9. For the following transportation problem, find the initial basic feasible solution
by Matrix Minima Method and obtain the transportation cost.
Ware house
Availability
I II III
A 15 10 9 350
Factory B 5 8 9 100
C 10 6 4 110
Requirement 80 150 330

10. Obtain an initial basic feasible solution to the following T.P by Matrix Minima
Method. Compute the transportation cost.
To
Supply
A B C
I 7 3 4 2
From II 2 1 3 3
III 3 4 6 5
Demand 4 1 5

11. For the following T.P, find an initial B.F.S by Matrix Minima Method. Obtain the
transportation cost.
Destination
Availability
D1 D2 D3 D4
O1 15 14 18 15 300
Origin O2 17 19 15 10 250
O3 21 25 14 11 150
Requirement 100 200 150 250

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
(c) Game Theory
One mark questions:
1. Write a property of a competitive game.
2. What is n-person game?
3. What is two-person game?
4. What do you mean by zero-sum game?
5. Define rectangular game.
6. Define strategy in a game.
7. What do you mean by pure strategy in a game?
8. What do you mean by a mixed strategy in a game?
9. In a rectangular game, what is meant by pay-off matrix?
10. What is meant by maximin of a game?
11. What is meant by minimax of a game?
12. What is a saddle point?
13. When do you say that a game has saddle point?
14. What do you mean by the value of a game?
15. When the game is said to be fair?
16. If value of the game is -6, is the game fair?
17. In a rectangular game, if gain of a player is Rs.3 then what is the loss of the
other?
18. If in a game the pay-off at saddle point is 4, what is the value of minimax?
19. Mention a method of solving a rectangular game.

Two mark questions:

1. Write two properties of a competitive game.
2. What are pure and mixed strategies in a game?
3. Explain maximin and minimax of a game.
4. What is a saddle point? When do you say that a game has saddle point?
5. What do you mean by the value of a game? When the game is fair?
6. Mention two methods of solving a rectangular game.
7. In a rectangular game the pay-off matrix of player A is given below. Write down
the pay-off matrix of player B.
Player B
B1 B2 B3 B4
A1  5 38 6 
Player A
A2  5 10
3 6 


8. For the following pay-off matrix of player B, write down the pay-off matrix of
player A.
Player A
A1 A2 A 3
B 1  3 5
Player B 1  
B2  2  4 6 
9. The following is the pay off matrix of player A. Write the pay-off matrix of player B.
Player B
B1 B2
A1  3
2
Player A A 2 5 4 

 
A3  0 1 
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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
10. Using maximin-minimax principle, find the value of game.
Player B
B1 B2
A1  8 5
Player A
A2  3 
2

Five mark questions:

1. Two players A and B play a game of tossing coins. If the coins match, then A gets
Rs.5 from B and if the coins do not match, B gets Rs.10 from A. Write down the
pay off matrix of A. Does the game have saddle point?

2. Players A and B play a game in which each player has 3 coins (Re.1, Rs.5, Rs.10).
Each of them selects a coin without the knowledge of the other. If the sum of
values of the coins is an even number, A wins B’s coin otherwise B wins A’s coin.
Write down the pay off matrix of A. Does the game have saddle point?

3. For the following pay-off matrix, find the solution using maximin-minimax
principle.
Player B
B1 B 2 B 3 B 4
A1  10 8 6 20 
 
Player A A 2  20 12 7 9
A3  3 2 3 2 


4. Solve the following game using maximin-minimax principle. Is the game fair?
Company - Y
P Q R
A  3 -1 3
 
B  2 -1 2
Company - X
C  -1 0 0
 
D  2 0 4 

5. Pay-off matrix of player A is as follows. Find the solution by maximin-minimax

principle.
PlayerB
B1 B2 B3 B4
A1  7 0 3 5 
A2  7 2 0 5 
Player A  
A3  2 1 2 0 
A 4  4 2 3 6 

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
6. Solve the following game using maximin-minimax principle.
Player B
B1 B 2 B 3
A1 1 3 1
 
Player A A 2  0  1  3
A3 1 5  1 


7. Solve the following game using dominance principle.

PlayerB
B1 B2 B3 B4
A1  5 2 1 6
 
Player A A2  2 1 0 2
A3  7 5 4 5 

8. For the following pay-off matrix, find the solution using dominance principle. Is
the game fair?
Player B
B1 B2 B3 B4
A1  4 2 0 5
 
Player A A2  1 2 0 3 
A3  3 1 3 0 

9. Solve the following game using the principle of dominance.

Player B
B1 B2 B3 B4
A1  1 2 0 3
 
Player A A2  4 6 3 5
A3  3 1 2 0 

10. Solve the following game by dominance principle.

Player B
B1 B 2 B 3
A 1  6 12 7 
 
A2  7 9 8
Player A
A3  5 8 9
 
A 4  3 6 10 

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
(d) Replacement Theory
One mark questions:
1. What do you mean by replacement theory?
2. Mention a need for replacement of equipment.
3. When do you suggest for replacement of equipment which deteriorates with age?
4. Write the formula of to-date average annual cost.

Two mark questions:

1. Mention two needs for replacement of equipments.
2. If the depreciation cost and the cumulative maintenance cost of an equipment for
the third year are Rs.10,000 and Rs.10,400 respectively. What is the average
annual cost?
3. If the depreciation cost and the cumulative maintenance cost of an equipment for
the second year are Rs.10,000 and Rs.10,200 respectively. What is the average
annual cost?
4. For an equipment the fourth year depreciation cost is Rs.6,000 and the
cumulative maintenance cost is Rs.6,200. Find the average annual cost.

Five mark questions:

1. The cost of a scooter is Rs 36,000. Its maintenance cost and resale value at
different age are given below:
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6
Maintenance cost (Rs.) 800 1,300 1,900 2,700 3,900 5,400
Resale value (Rs.) 28,000 22,000 20,000 18,000 17,000 16,000
Determine the optimal age for replacement of the scooter.

2. The purchase price of a machine is Rs 10,000. Its maintenance costs and resale
values are as below:
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Maintenance cost (Rs.) 600 800 1,000 1,400 2,000
Resale value (Rs.) 5,600 4,000 3,000 2,000 1,000
What would be the optimum replacement period of machine? What would be the
average annual cost?

3. The purchase price of a machine is Rs 8,000. Its maintenance costs and resale
values are given below:
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Maintenance cost (Rs.) 500 600 800 1,100 1,500
Resale value (Rs.) 4,500 3,500 2,500 1,500 500
What would be the optimum replacement period of machine? What would be the
average annual cost?

4. Purchase cost of an item is Rs.5,000. Its running costs and resale values in
different years are as follows:
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Running cost (Rs.) 100 200 330 510 860
Resale value (Rs.) 3,000 2,500 2,000 1,500 1,000
Find the optimum replacement period of item.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
5. The following are the maintenance and depreciation costs per year of a vehicle.
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Depreciation
18,000 33,000 40,500 44,250 46,000 46,000 46,000
cost (Rs.)
Maintenance
4,500 5,500 6,500 8,500 11,000 15,500 17,500
cost (Rs.)
When the vehicle should be replaced?

6. The following are the maintenance and depreciation costs per year of a vehicle.
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Depreciation
20,000 35,000 42,500 46,250 48,000 48,000 48,000
cost (Rs.)
Maintenance
5,000 6,000 7,000 9,000 11,500 16,000 18,500
cost (Rs.)
When the vehicle should be replaced?

7. The cost of a machine is Rs.6600 and its resale value is Rs.600. The maintenance
costs in different years are as follows:
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Maintenance cost (Rs.) 250 300 450 600 900 1500 1800
Find the annual average cost. What is the optimum period of replacement?

8. Price of an item is Rs. 1000 and its maintenance costs at different years are as
follows:
Year 1 2 3 4 5
Maintenance cost (Rs.) 100 200 350 650 900
Assuming that resale value is negligible, find the annual average cost. What is
the optimum period of replacement?

9. A machine costs Rs.36000 and the operating cost is estimated to be Rs.1500 for
the first year and increases by Rs.3000 every year for next 5 years. Determine the
optimum period for replacement of the machine, assuming that the machine has
no resale value.

10. Equipment costs Rs. 5000, the running cost is Rs. 500 for the first two years and
increases by Rs. 2000 from third year onwards. The scrap cost of the machine at
all times is Rs. 300. Find the optimal replacement period.

11. Machine is priced Rs.6000 and operating cost is Rs.800 each for the first five
years, increases by Rs.200 per year in the sixth and subsequent years. Determine
the best age to replace the machine. Assume that the machine has no resale
value.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
(e) Inventory Theory
One mark questions:
1. What do you mean by inventory?
2. Mention one objective of inventory.
3. In inventory, what is holding cost?
4. In inventory, what do you mean by set-up cost?
5. In inventory, what do you mean by ordering cost?
6. In inventory, what do you mean by shortage cost?
7. In inventory, what is capital cost?
8. Mention a type of variable associated with inventory.
9. What is meant by stock replenishment in inventory?
10. Define uniform demand in inventory.
11. In inventory, what is lead time?
12. What is E.O.Q?
13. What is E.L.S?
14. Mention an advantage of inventory.
15. Write a disadvantage of inventory.
16. Mention a category of inventory model.

Two mark questions:

1. Mention two types of costs associated with inventory.
2. Mention two advantages of inventory.
3. State the assumptions of E.O.Q Model –I.
4. State the assumptions of E.O.Q Model –II.
5. Given, R = 3600 units/year, C3 = Rs.50/cycle and C1 = Rs.4/unit/year, find Q0.
6. Calculate E.O.Q when R=5000 units/year, C1=Rs.2/unit/year, C3=Rs.200/cycle.
7. If R=100 units/month, C3=Rs.250/cycle and C1=Rs.0.20/unit/month. Find Q0.
8. Given, R=5000items/year, C3=Rs.50/cycle, C1=Rs.2/item/year. Calculate
minimum average inventory cost.

Five mark questions:

1. Given, Demand = 5000 items/year, Holding cost= Rs.2/item/year, Setup cost =
Rs.50/cycle. Calculate i) E.O.Q ii) minimum average inventory cost.

2. There is a demand for 3600 units/year. The cost of placing an order is Rs. 50.
Maintenance cost is Rs.9/unit/year. Find (i) E.O.Q (ii) Minimum average
inventory cost.

3. If R = 12000 units/year, C1 = Rs.0.3/unit/month, C3 = Rs.150/run. Find (i)

optimum lot size (ii) minimum average annual inventory.

4. There is a demand for 10000 items per year. The replenishment cost is Rs.200
and the maintenance cost is Rs.9 per item per year. Replenishment is
instantaneous and shortages are not allowed. Find economic order quantity and
minimum average inventory cost.

5. A manufacturer has to supply 12,000 units of a product per year to a customer.

The inventory holding cost is Rs. 2 per unit per year and the set up cost per run is
Rs. 750. Determine (i) the optimum lot size (ii) re-order time.

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 II PU Statistics Question Bank
6. A stockist has to supply 300 units of a product every month to his customers. He
gets the product at Rs.50 per unit from the manufacturer. The cost of carrying
inventory is 12% per year of the cost of the product. The ordering cost is Rs.75/-
per order. Find (i) EOQ and(ii) re-order frequency.

7. The annual demand for an item is 3000 units. Capital cost is Rs. 10 per unit.
Inventory carrying cost is 20% of capital cost per annum. If setup cost is Rs.75,
Find (i) EOQ (ii) re-order time.

8. Maruthi Udyog Company purchases 10,000 rear mirrors for cars annually. The
ordering cost per order is Rs. 12. Each mirror costs Rs. 50 and the annual
inventory carrying cost is 12% of capital cost. Compute EOQ and the minimum
average inventory cost.

9. The demand for a commodity is at a constant rate of 200 units per year. There is
an inventory in which setup cost is Rs. 800 per production run, holding cost is
Rs.10 per unit per year and shortage cost is Rs. 12 per unit per year. Find the
economic order quantity and maximum shortage level.

10. The demand for an item is 700 units per year. The cost of placing an order is Rs.7
and holding cost is Rs. 2 per unit per year. The shortage cost is Rs. 3 per unit per
year. Find (i) EOQ (ii) maximum inventory level.

11. The following data gives various costs and other factors for the production of
inventory systems of gears:
Demand = 10000 gears / year
Setup cost = Rs.180 / setup
Holding cost = Rs. 40 / gear / year
Shortage cost = Rs.100 / gear / year
Find minimum average annual inventory cost

12. The annual demand of an item is 3600 units. The cost of placing an order is Rs.50
and annual maintenance cost is Rs. 9 per unit. The annual shortage cost is Rs. 16
per unit. Find (i) EOQ (ii) maximum inventory level.

13. The annual demand of an item is 8100 units. The cost of placing an order is Rs.
150 and annual maintenance cost is Rs. 3 per unit. The annual shortage cost is
Rs. 9 per unit. Find (i) EOQ (ii) maximum shortage level.

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