13/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Advanced Test and Discussion Course Time : 3:00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2020)
Test – 1

Topics covered :
Physics : Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion.

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements & Periodicity in
Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure.

Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants.

Zoology : Animal Kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals, Biomolecules.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. If L and R are respectively the inductance and 3. Identify the pair having different dimensions
L (1) Planck’s constant and angular moment
resistance, then the dimensions of will be
R (2) Impulse and linear momentum
(1) M°L°T–1 (2) M°L°T1 (3) Angular momentum and frequency

(3) M°L°T° (4) M°LT° (4) Pressure and Young’s modulus

4. 1 a.m.u. is equivalent to
2. The percentage errors in the measurement of
length and time period of a simple pendulum (1) 1.66 × 10–27 kg (2) 1.66 × 10–24 g
are 2% and 1% respectively. Then the maximum (3) 1.66 × 10–21 mg (4) All of these
error in the measurement of acceleration due to
gravity is 5. The respective number of significant figures for
the numbers 21.021 and 2.1 × 10–3 are
(1) 8% (2) 4%
(1) 4, 2 (2) 5, 2
(3) 3% (4) 6% (3) 5, 5 (4) 4, 5
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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-01 (Code-A)

6. If voltage V = (200 ± 0.5) V and current I = (20 ± 14. A car at rest accelerates uniformly to a velocity of
0.2) A, then find percentage error in resistance R. 72 km/h in 10 second. Find distance covered by
(1) 2.5% (2) 1.25% car is
(3) 0.125% (4) 0.25% (1) 50 m (2) 200 m
7. A 300 m long train is moving with a uniform (3) 100 m (4) 300 m
velocity of 90 km/h. The time taken by the train to 15. If a freely falling body travels in the last second a
cross a bridge of length 1700 m is distance equal to the distance travelled by it in the
(1) 56 s (2) 80 s first three seconds, the time of the travel is
(3) 68 s (4) 92 s (1) 6 s (2) 5 s
8. The unit of permittivity of free-space (0) is (3) 3 s (4) 4 s

(1) coulomb/newton-metre 16. A particle moves in a straight line with acceleration

proportional to its displacement S, then its velocity
(2) newton- metre2/coulomb2
is proportional to
(3) coulomb2/(newton- metre)2
(1) S (2) S
(4) coulomb2/(newton- metre2)
(3) S2 (4) (S)–1
9. A particle starts its motion from rest under the
action of a constant force. If the distance covered 17. A body starts to fall freely under gravity. The
in first 5 s is S1 and that covered in the first 10 s is distances covered by it in first, second and third
seconds are in ratio
S2
S2 then is (1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
S1
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 5 : 6
(1) 4 (2) 2
18. A particle initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its
(3) 1 (4) 8
acceleration is given as a = (2t + 2) m/s2. If it starts
10. SI unit of radioactivity is from origin, find distance covered in 2 second is
(1) Rutherford (2) Roentgen (1) 5.7 m (2) 6.7 m
(3) Becquerel (4) Curie (3) 7.5 m (4) 7.6 m
11. A particle moves along a straight line such that its
19. Which of the following graphs shown is not
displacement at any time t is given by
possible in a practical situation? (s = distance
S = 2t3 – 12t2 + 6t + 6 metres covered, x = position, v = velocity, t = time)
The velocity when acceleration is zero is
(1) 6 m/s (2) – 24 m/s
(3) 84 m/s (4) – 18 m/s a. b.
12. In classical physics the force F acting on a body is
assumed to be the product of mass m and
acceleration a. If m = 2.31 kg and acceleration is
3.123 m/s2, then taking into account significant
figures the force F should be reported as c. d.
(1) 7.21413 N (2) 7.2141 N
(3) 7.214 N (4) 7.21 N (1) a & b (2) a, b & c
13. Two cars A and B are moving with same speed of (3) a, c & d (4) a & d
90 km/h along the same direction. If a third car C 20. Consider a car moving along a straight horizontal
coming from the opposite direction with a speed of road with a speed 36 km/h. If the coefficient of
72 km/h meets the two cars in an interval of 10 kinetic friction between the tyres and road is 0.25,
minutes, the distance of separation of two cars A the shortest distance in which car can be stopped
and B should be (in km) is [g = 10 ms–2]
(1) 27 km (2) 18 km (1) 20 m (2) 40 m
(3) 36 km (4) 9 km (3) 10 m (4) 5 m

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Test-01 (Code-A) Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020
21. A particle is projected at an angle 60º from vertical 28. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed x
with a velocity 20 m/s in a vertical plane. Find and returns to Y with uniform speed y. The
velocity of projectile after 1 s. (g = 10 m/s2) average speed of the round trip is
2xy x+y
(1) 5 3 m/s (2) 2 2 m/s (1) (2)
x+y 2 xy
(3) 2 3 m/s (4) 10 3 m/s
x+y
(3) (4) xy
22. If A.B = 3 | A  B | (where A and B are two 2
29. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface
vectors) then find angle between A and B .
with angle of inclination ‘’. The incline is given an
  acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary. Then
(1) (2)
6 3 a is equal to

 (1) g (2) g tan

(3) (4) 
2 (3) g cot (4) g cosec
23. The mass of a lift is 1000 kg. When the tension in 30. Numerical value of a given quantity is
the supporting cable is 14000 N, then its (1) Independent of unit
acceleration is (2) Directly proportional to time
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2 (3) Inversely proportional to unit
(3) 2 m/s2 (4) Zero (4) Directly proportional to square root of unit
24. For a body moving with uniform velocity, the 31. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg are connected by
displacement versus time graph will be a/an a pulley as shown. What will be the acceleration
(1) Circle (2) Parabola of the system (g = acceleration due to gravity)
(3) Ellipse (4) Straight line
25. A mass of 2 kg is suspended by a string P. Another
string R is connected to its lower end (see figure).
If a sudden jerk is given to R1 then

(1) The portion PQ of the string will break (1) g (2) g/3
(2) The portion QR of the string will break (3) g/2 (4) g/4
(3) None of the strings will break 32. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate. It
(4) The mass will start rotating covers a distance x in first 10 seconds and
distance y in the next 10 seconds. The relation
26. A particle is projected vertically up from the top of between x and y is
a tower takes time t1 to reach the ground. Another
(1) x = 3y (2) y = 3x
particle thrown downward with the same speed
(3) x = y (4) y = 2x
from the top of the tower takes time t2 to reach the
ground. Height of the tower is 33. A river is flowing with speed of 6 m/s. A swimmer
whose speed in still water is 5 m/s, wants to cross
gt1t2 the river in direction perpendicular to flow. Then
(1) gt1t2 (2)
2 the direction in which swimmer must swim be
gt1t2 gt1t2 5
(3) (4) (1) At an angle sin−1   with flow
4 8 6
27. A man fires a bullet of mass 100 g at a speed of 3
(2) At an angle sin−1   with flow
10 m/s. The gun is of one kg mass. By what 5
velocity the gun rebounds backwards?
(3) At an angle 120° with the flow
(1) 0.1 m/s (2) 10 m/s (4) Swimmer can’t cross river along perpendicular
(3) 1 m/s (4) 0.01 m/s direction

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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-01 (Code-A)
→ → → → → → 40. The maximum range of a gun on a horizontal
34. If A  B = 3 A  B , then the value of A + B is
terrain is 25 km. If g = 10 m/s2. What must be the
(1) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2 muzzle velocity of the shell?
1/ 2 (1) 200 m/s (2) 400 m/s
 AB 
(2)  A2 + B 2 +  (3) 500 m/s (4) 50 m/s
 3
41. A 5000 kg rocket is set for an upward firing. Its
(A + B 2 + 3 AB )
1/ 2
2
(3) exhaust speed is 500 m/s. The gas ejected per
second to supply thrust to overcome the weight of
(4) (A2 + B2) the rocket is (g = 10 m/s2)
35. If three equal mass of 2 kg as shown in figure are (1) 500 kg/s (2) 100 kg/s
accelerated with an acceleration a = 4 m/s2, then
find the tension T2 (3) 10 kg/s (4) 50 kg/s
42. Two bodies are projected with same velocity. If
one is projected at an angle of 37° and the other
at an angle of 53° to the horizontal, the ratio of
(1) 2 N (2) 4 N
maximum heights reached is
(3) 8 N (4) 10 N
9 3
36. A 1000 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m (1) (2)
16 4
with a velocity of 72 km/h. The centripetal force is
1 1
(1) 1000 N (2) 1500 N (3) (4)
4 2
(3) 8000 N (4) 4800 N
43. A block of mass m = 10 kg is at rest on a rough
g incline plane as shown. The force applied by the
37. A lift is moving with a retardation of m/s2 . Find
2 inclined plane on the block is
percentage change in the weight of the person in
lift.
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 25%
38. Figure shows a body of mass 2 kg moving with a (1) 50 N (2) 40 3 N
uniform speed 2 m/s along a circle of radius 2 m.
The change in velocity is going from A to B is (3) 50 3 N (4) 100 N
44. A particle of mass 100 g is moving on a straight
line. The speed of the particle varies with time as
shown. The force acting on the particle at t = 1 s
is

(1) 2 2 m/s (2) 2 m/s

(3) 2 m/s (4) Zero
39. A force F acts on rope of mass m at end B, which
is connected to block of mass M on smooth
surface. The tension in the rope at point A is
(1) 50 N (2) 5 N
(3) 0.5 N (4) 0.05 N
45. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time
F ‘t’ are given by x = 3t3 and y = 4t3. The speed of
(1) F (2)
(M + m ) the particle at time ‘t’ is given by
MF (1) 5 (2) 15t
(3) (4) Zero
(M + m ) (3) 15t2 (4) 5t2

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Test-01 (Code-A) Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. If the percentage of water of crystallization in 54. A compound was found to contain 5.37% nitrogen.
MgSO4·xH2O is 13%, then the value of x is Then, the minimum molecular weight of the
(1) 1 (2) 4 compound is
(1) 26.07 g (2) 2.607 g
(3) 5 (4) 7
(3) 260.7 g (4) 0.27 g
47. Correct order of electronegativity of N, P, C and Si
is 55. In the Dobereiner’s triad, all the three elements
have same
(1) N < P < C < Si (2) N > C > Si > P
(1) Electronic configuration
(3) N = P > C = Si (4) N > C > P > Si
(2) Properties
48. In Rutherford’s scattering experiment, which of the
(3) Number of shells
following observation does not occur?
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Most of the -particles passed through the foil
without deflection 56. The number of atoms in 1.8 g of glucose sample
is
(2) Few -particles pass through the nucleus
(1) 0.24 NA (2) 0.12 NA
(3) Very few -particles are deflected back at (3) 0.48 NA (4) 0.18 NA
~180°
57. The element having highest ionization enthalpy
(4) -particles going near the nucleus are slightly among the following is
deflected
(1) H (2) F
49. Atomic mass of an element is (3) He (4) B
(1) Actual mass of an atom of the element 58. Empirical formula of oxide of iron, having 70% by
(2) Relative mass of an atom of the element mass of iron is (Atomic mass of Fe = 56)
(3) Average relative mass of different atoms of (1) FeO (2) Fe2O3
the element (3) Fe3O4 (4) Fe3O2
(4) Always a whole number 59. The ratio of radius of first orbit in hydrogen to the
50. The d-orbital involved in sp3d hybridisation is radius of first orbit in deuterium will be
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(1) d (2) d
z2 x2 − y 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
(3) dxy (4) dxz 60. The compound having zero dipole moment is
51. Suppose elements X and Y combine to form two (1) CCl4 (2) CH2Cl2
compounds XY2 and X3Y2 when 0.1 mole of (3) XeO3 (4) XeOF4
former weigh 10 g while 0.05 mole of the latter
61. For the reaction,
weigh 9 g. Then the atomic weight of X and Y are
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
(1) 40, 30 (2) 60, 40
If 4 kg of limestone is taken with percentage purity
(3) 20, 30 (4) 30, 20 of 75%, then volume of CO 2 gas released at STP
52. A mixture of ethanol and water contains 54% would be
water by mass. Then, the mole fraction of alcohol (1) 224 L (2) 134 L
in this mixture is
(3) 896 L (4) 672 L
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 62. Orbital angular momentum for electron present in
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.8 5p orbital is
53. The species having maximum number of lone h
(1) Zero (2)
pairs of electrons around the central atom is 2
(1) XeOF4 (2) XeF2
3h 5h
(3) (4)
(3) IF4+ (4) BrF3 2 2

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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-01 (Code-A)

63. Which of the following elements can show 72. If incident wavelength is double of the threshold
covalency greater than 4? wavelength, then the kinetic energy of ejected
(1) C (2) P electron would be

(3) Be (4) B (1) 2hc

64. At NTP, 5.6 litres of a gas weigh 8 g. The vapour hc

(2)
density of gas is 2
(1) 8 (2) 32 2
(3)
(3) 16 (4) 64 hc
65. Which of the following set does not contain (4) No electron will be ejected
isoelectronic species? 73. A mixture containing 100 g H2 and 100 g O2 is
(1) Cl–, P3–, Ar ignited, according to the reaction, 2H2 + O2 →
2H2O. So, how much water will be formed?
(2) N3–, Ne, Mg2+
(1) 115.5 g (2) 105.2 g
(3) B3+, He, Li+
(3) 120.5 g (4) 112.5 g
(4) N3–, S2–, Cl–
74. If radius of the first orbit for He+ is x Å, then the
66. For the reaction, 2N2 + O2 → 2N2O, if 28 g N2 is
radius of the 3rd orbit for He+ will be
allowed to react with 8 g O2, which of the following
is correct? x x
(1) Å (2) Å
(1) N2 is limiting reagent 3 9

(2) 1 mole N2O is formed (3) 3x Å (4) 9x Å

(3) 0.5 mole N2O is formed 75. The radiation of low frequency will be emitted in
which transition of hydrogen atom?
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) n = 1 to n = 4
67. Total number of electrons present in a subshell is
given by (2) n = 2 to n = 5

(1) 2n2 (2) n2 (3) n = 3 to n = 1

(3) 2(2l + 1) (4) (2l + 1) (4) n = 5 to n = 2

76. The maximum tendency to form unipositive ion is
68. Total number of periods present in modern
periodic table is for the element with the electronic configuration
(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
(1) 7 (2) 9
(2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2 3p2
(3) 18 (4) 16
(3) 1s2 2s22p6, 3s23p3
69. The wavelength () of charged particle is related
to the potential difference (V) through which it is (4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1
accelerated as 77. From the given set of species, point out the
species from each set having least atomic/ionic
(1)   V (2)   V
radius
1 1 (a) O–2, F–, Na+
(3)   (4)  
V V (b) Ni, Cu, Zn
70. The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine atom (c) Li, Be, Mg
in ClO3– and ClO4– are respectively
(d) He, Li+, H–
(1) sp2, sp3 (2) sp2, sp2
Correct answer is
(3) sp3, sp3 (4) sp3, sp2
(1) O–2, Cu, Li, H–
71. Which of the following element will have the least
(2) Na+, Ni, Be, Li+
negative electron gain enthalpy?
(3) F–, Zn, Mg, He
(1) S (2) F
(4) Na+, Cu, Be, He
(3) O (4) Cl
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Test-01 (Code-A) Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020

78. Which of the following hydrogen bond is the (3) Atoms can be divisible into electrons, protons
strongest? and neutrons
(1) S — H ···· O (2) O — H ···· O (4) Atoms generally combine in simple ratio to
form different compounds
(3) N — H ···· N (4) F — H ···· F
84. If 100 ml of decimolar HCl is diluted to 1000 ml,
79. Total number of nodes and number of angular
then the molarity of the diluted solution is
nodes in 4p orbital is respectively
(1) 1 M (2) 0.1 M
(1) 3, 2 (2) 3, 1
(3) 0.01 M (4) 0.001 M
(3) 4, 3 (4) 2, 1
85. The types of bonds present in CuSO45H2O is/are
80. Gram equivalent volume at STP and gram
(1) Covalent bond
equivalent weight for oxygen gas is
(2) Electrovalent bond
(1) 22.4 L, 32 g (2) 11.2 L, 16 g
(3) Coordinate bond
(3) 5.6 L, 8 g (4) 5.6 L, 16 g
(4) All of these
81. The set of quantum numbers, which is not
86. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the
correctly applicable to an electron is
bond angles not equal?
n l m s
(1) SiF4 (2) ICI−4
1
(1) 1 0 0 +
2 (3) SF4 (4) PCI+4
1
(2) 2 2 0 + 87. Bonds present in N2O5 are
2 (1) Only ionic
1 (2) Covalent and coordinate
(3) 4 3 2 +
2 (3) Only covalent
1 (4) Covalent and ionic
(4) 3 1 1 −
2 88. The element with atomic number 58 belongs to
82. The correct order of covalent character among the (1) s-block (2) p-block
following molecules is
(3) d-block (4) f-block
(1) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4 89. The molecule which is paramagnetic among the
(2) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4 following is
(3) BeCl2 > BCl3 > LiCl > CCl4 (1) N2 (2) O2−
(4) CCl4 > BCl3 > LiCl > BeCl2
(3) O22− (4) F2
83. Which is not the correct statement according to
Dalton’s atomic theory? 90. Which of the following species is non-polar?
(1) Atoms of same element are generally identical (1) I3− (2) ClF5
in terms of size, shape, mass etc.
(2) Atoms can neither be created nor destroyed (3) BrF4+ (4) IF6−

BOTANY
91. Which of the following exhibit an extraordinary 92. Select the odd one out w.r.t. defining feature of life
ability to regenerate its lost body parts forms.
completely?
(1) Cellular organisation
(1) Paramoecium
(2) Consciousness
(2) Euglena
(3) Planaria (3) Metabolism
(4) Fungi (4) Reproduction

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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-01 (Code-A)

93. Number of species that are known and described, 101. Which of the given contains information of any one
ranges from taxon?
(1) 1.7 – 1.8 billion (2) 1.7 – 1.8 million (1) Flora
(3) 17 – 18 million (4) 17 – 18 billion (2) Monograph
94. The carrier of male gamete during fertilisation in (3) Catalogue
Pinus is
(4) Manual
(1) Insects (2) Pollen tube
102. Mycelium is septate and branched in all of the
(3) Air current (4) Water
given classes of fungi, except
95. Who developed binomial nomenclature for
scientific naming of organisms? (1) Ascomycetes
(1) Hutchinson (2) John Ray (2) Phycomycetes
(3) Carolus Linnaeus (4) Aristotle (3) Basidiomycetes
96. The branch of science which deals with study of (4) Deuteromycetes
principles and procedures of classification is
103. Which of the given fungi causes rust disease in
called
wheat?
(1) Taxonomy (2) Characterisation
(1) Agaricus
(3) Taxon (4) Nomenclature
(2) Puccinia
97. In angiosperms, diploid secondary nucleus is
fused by male gamete to produce (3) Ustilago
(1) Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) (4) Colletotrichum
(2) Embryo 104. The edible part of mushroom is
(3) Seed (1) Ascocarp
(4) Zygote (2) Basidiocarp
98. Which of the given serves as the basic and lowest
(3) Primary mycelium
taxonomic category?
(4) Ascospore
(1) Kingdom (2) Phylum
(3) Family (4) Species 105. First scientific attempt for classification was
performed by
99. Select the mismatch.
(1) R.H. Whittaker
(1) Housefly – Muscidae
(2) Wheat – Sapindales (2) Aristotle

(3) Mango – Anacardiaceae (3) Linnaeus

(4) Tritcum – Monocotyledonae (4) E. Haeckel
100. Identify the given diagram and its characters. 106. Which of the given groups of protozoans causes
‘sleeping sickness’?
(1) Amoeboid protozoan
(2) Flagellated protozoan
(3) Ciliated protozoan
(4) Sporozoans
107. Cyanobacteria are
(1) Chemosynthetic heterotrophs
(1) Salvinia – a terrestrial homosporous fern
(2) Heterotrophic bacteria
(2) Salvinia – an aquatic heterosporous fern
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(3) Azolla – heterosporous aquatic fern
(4) Photosynthetic autotrophs
(4) Horsetails – homosporous terrestrial fern

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Test-01 (Code-A) Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020
108. Select the correct match. 115. Which of the following is not the member of
Column I Column II Phycomycetes?

a. Runner (i) Oxalis (1) Mucor

(2) Albugo
b. Thorns (ii) Jasmine
(3) Claviceps
c. Sucker (iii) Citrus
(4) Rhizopus
d. Stolon (iv) Chrysanthemum
116. Consider the following statements w.r.t.
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
Solanaceae family and select the correct option.
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
a. It is widely distributed in tropics, subtropics
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) and even temperate zones
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) b. Obliquely placed ovary with swollen placenta
109. Select the odd one out w.r.t. disease caused by c. Leaves are compound and stipulate
organism other than bacteria. d. Presence of axile placentation
(1) Citrus canker (1) Only a is incorrect
(2) Influenza (2) Only d is correct
(3) Cholera (3) Both c and d are correct
(4) Tetanus (4) a, b and d are correct
110. How many characteristic among the following 117. Who discovered viroids?
cannot be taken as criteria in chemotaxonomy? (1) W.M Stanley
DNA sequence, protein sequence, aromatic (2) T.O. Diener
compounds, chromosome number
(3) D.J. Ivanowsky
(1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Randle et.al.
(3) 1 (4) 5
118. Select correct match.
111. ________ are chief producers in the oceans. Column I Column II
(1) Dinoflagellates a. Giant redwood tree (i) Pinus
(2) Euglenoids b. Fungal association (ii) Sequoia
(3) Diatoms c. Coralloid root (iii) Wolfia
(4) Cyanobacteria d. Smallest flowering (iv) Cycas
112. A lateral branch with short internodes, nodes plant
having a tuft of roots and rosette of leaves is (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
known as (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Sucker (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Stolon (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) Runner 119. Match the following :
(4) Offset
Column I Column II
113. Spores of slime moulds are dispersed by Cell wall composition
(1) Air currents
(a) Chlorophyceae (i) Cellulose, pectin and
(2) Water poly-sulphate esters
(3) Insects (b) Rhodophyceae (ii) Chitin
(4) Animals
(c) Phaeophyceae (iii) Cellulose and algin
114. Which of the given represents juvenile phase in
life-cycle of a moss plant? (d) Ascomycetes (iv) Cellulose

(1) Capsule (2) Oospore (1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Sporophyte (4) Protonema (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-01 (Code-A)

120. All of the given are living nature of virus, except a b c d

(1) Presence of genetic material (1) Pinnately Whorled Opposite Alternate
compound phyllotaxy phyllotaxy phyllotaxy
(2) Ability to multiply
leaf
(3) Ability to get crystallize (2) Palmately Whorled Alternate Opposite
(4) Occurrence of mutation compound phyllotaxy phyllotaxy phyllotaxy
leaf
121. Agar is one of the commercial product, obtained
from (3) Pinnately Opposite Alternate Whorled
compound phyllotaxy phyllotaxy phyllotaxy
(1) Volvox (2) Chara leaf
(3) Gelidium (4) Ulothrix (4) Palmately Whorled Opposite Alternate
122. Bacteria are the sole member of which of the given compound phyllotaxy phyllotaxy phyllotaxy
kingdom according to whittaker’s kingdom system leaf
of classification? 127. Select the odd one out w.r.t. algae exhibiting
(1) Fungi (2) Monera haplontic life-cycle.
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Fucus
(3) Protista (4) Animalia
(3) Spirogyra (4) Volvox
123. In which of the given plant groups, main plant body
128. Find odd one out w.r.t. zygomorphic flower.
is haploid?
(1) Canna (2) Cassia
(1) Angiosperm (2) Pteridophyte
(3) Pisum (4) Bean
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Bryophyte
129. Read the following statements:
124. To how many families the given plants belong? Statement A : In dicot seed, hilum is small pore
Lupin, Aloe, Indigofera, Petunia, Muliathi and above micropyle.
Gloriosa Statement B : Bean is endospermous seed.
(1) Two (2) Three (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Four (4) Five (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
125. Ploidy level of endosperm of angiosperm is (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
(1) n (2) 2 n
130. In general viruses that infect plants contain
(3) 4 n (4) 3 n
(1) Single-stranded RNA
126. Examine the figures (a-d) given below and select
(2) Double-stranded RNA
the right option out of (1-4) in which all the four
structures are identified correctly. (3) Single-stranded DNA
(4) Double-stranded DNA
131. Transfer of pollen grain from anther to the stigma
is called
(1) Syngamy (2) Fertilization
a. b.
(3) Pollination (4) Aestivation
132. When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one
another at the margin, without overlapping, such
an aestivation is called
(1) Imbricate (2) Twisted
(3) Valvate (4) Contorted

c. d. 133. The ratio of nucleotides : capsomeres in tobacco

mosaic virus (TMV) is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

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Test-01 (Code-A) Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020
134. Type of inflorescence where the main axis is 135. What is the edible part of mango?
limited in growth
(1) Epicarp
(1) Shows acropetal succession of flowers
(2) Endocarp
(2) Called cymose
(3) Mesocarp
(3) Bear terminal flower
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

ZOOLOGY
136. First true coelomate animals are placed in phylum How many of the above are present in
(1) Coelenterata nonmyelinated neurons of PNS?
(2) Platyhelminthes (1) Only (a)
(3) Aschelminthes (2) Only (a) and (b)
(4) Annelida (3) Only (a) and (d)
137. Botryoidal tissue and presence of suckers is the (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
feature of 143. Presence of intercalated discs and gap junctions
(1) Nereis are the characteristic feature of
(2) Cockroach (1) Single unit smooth muscle
(3) Leech (2) Multi unit smooth muscle
(4) Octopus (3) Cardiac muscle
138. Which of the following is a coelenterate? (4) Skeletal muscle
(1) Sea lily (2) Sea fan 144. Consider the following structures :
(3) Sea mouse (4) Cuttle fish (a) Inner lining of small intestine
139. Planula larva and metagenesis is the feature of (b) Germinal layer of ovary
(1) Leucosolenia (c) Mesothelium
(2) Obelia (d) Inner lining of fallopian tube
(3) Hydra Which of above structure(s) have ciliated
(4) Sycon columnar epithelium?

140. Water vascular system in echinoderms does not (1) Only (a)
help in (2) Only (b)
(1) Respiration (3) Only (d)
(2) Excretion (4) (a) and (d)
(3) Transport of food 145. A pair of spermatheca is present in
(4) Sexual reproduction (1) 4th–6th abdominal segments in male
141. In human adults erythropoiesis start in cockroach
(1) Liver (2) 2nd–6th abdominal segments in female
cockroach
(2) Yolk sac
(3) 6th abdominal segment in female cockroach
(3) Spleen
(4) 6th abdominal segment in male cockroach
(4) Red bone marrow
146. Fertilisation in cockroach occurs in
142. Consider the following features :
(1) Genital atrium
(a) Neurilemma
(b) Node of Ranvier (2) Vestibulum

(c) Saltatory conduction (3) Oviduct

(d) Schwann cell (4) Spermatheca

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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)

147. Choose the option with all incorrect statements 152. Which of the following can hold iodine and give
(a) Each eye of cockroach consists of about 2000 blue colour?
ommatidia (1) Cellulose
(b) Compound eye of cockroach cannot receive (2) Starch
several images of an object (3) Glycogen
(c) Cockroach is nocturnal animal with mosaic (4) Glucose
vision
153. Hard and non-pliable ground substance with
(d) Vision with less sensitivity but more resolution calcium is present in
is called mosaic vision
(1) Bones
(1) (a) and (b) (2) Cartilage
(2) (b) and (c) (3) Ligaments
(3) (c) and (d) (4) Tendons
(4) (b) and (d) 154. Osteocytes are branched cells present in
148. Study the following graph of enzyme activity and (1) Periosteum
choose the correct statement.
(2) Perichondrium
(3) Lacunae of cartilage
(4) Lacunae of bones
155. Km of enzyme is
(1) The substrate concentration at which it
achieves one half of the maximal rate
(2) The substrate concentration at which it
achieves maximal velocity
(3) The concentration of enzyme at which it
(1) The effect of inhibition can be reversed by achieves half of the maximal rate
increasing substrate concentration
(4) The concentration of enzyme at which it
(2) This graph shows competitive inhibition achieves maximal rate
(3) This graph shows cytochrome oxidase 156. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from
inhibition by cyanide substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis
(4) Both Km and Vmax remains unchanged in leaving double bonds are called
non-competitive inhibition (1) Lyases
149. Km of enzyme is a measure of (2) Hydrolases
(1) Enzyme substrate affinity (3) Transferases
(2) Feedback inhibition (4) Ligases
(3) Allosteric inhibition 157. Body of Balanoglossus is divided into proboscis,
(4) Enzyme product affinity collar and trunk. It also have
150. Among the following which substance is not a (1) Pulmonary respiration
sugar? (2) Open circulatory system
(1) Invert sugar (3) Internal fertilisation
(2) Sucrose (4) Direct development
(3) Glycine 158. Which one of the following sets of animals belong
(4) Glucose to same phylum?

151. Which of the following has -1-4 linkage between (1) Filarial worm, earthworm, blood worm
glucose and galactose? (2) Sea fur, sea hare, sea star
(1) Cellulose (2) Maltose (3) Sea fan, Portuguese man of war, Sea pen
(3) Lactose (4) Sucrose (4) Cuttlefish, sea urchin, apple snail

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Test-01 (Code-A) Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020
159. Which of the following statement does not 166. How many of the animals are birds in following
correspond to blood vascular system of annelids? given box?
(1) It is usually closed type Corvus, Macropus, Pteropus, Neophron,
(2) Blood is colourless due to absence of Delphinus, Psittacula, Struthio, Panthera
respiratory pigment
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Erythrocytes are absent
(3) Five (4) Six
(4) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th
167. Match column I and column II.
segments
160. Homeothermy is marked character of all animals Column I Column II
given below, except
a. Pennatula (i) Sea fan
(1) Delphinus (2) Pteropus
(3) Hemidactylus (4) Neophron b. Gorgonia (ii) Brain coral
161. Some structures are given with their function and c. Meandrina (iii) Sea lily
animal bearing them. Which one is not correct?
d. Antedon (iv) Sea pen
Structure Function Animal
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Book lung Respiration Scorpion
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Statocyst Balancing Ctenoplana
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) Malpighian Excretion Cockroach
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
tubules
168. As tracheal tubes are for respiration of arthropods
(4) Compound Vision Spider so are ______ for the respiration of molluscs.
eyes
(1) Parapodia
162. Aptenodytes belong to a group of animals having
(2) Feather like gills
(1) Mammary glands and 2 pairs of limbs
(3) Moist skin
(2) Epidermal scales with 3-chambered heart
(4) Book lungs
(3) Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood in ventricle 169. Coelom in Balanoglossus is lined by
(4) Air sacs to supplement pulmonary respiration (1) Ectoderm
and oviparity (2) Mesoderm
163. Which of the following molluscs is called pearl (3) Endoderm
oyster?
(4) Ectomesoderm
(1) Chiton
170. Octopus is commonly known as
(2) Pinctada
(1) Cuttle fish
(3) Dentalium
(2) Squid
(4) Doris
(3) Devil fish
164. In members of Cyclostomata
(1) Circulation is open type (4) Sea hare
(2) Mouth is suctorial with jaw 171. Molluscs are not regarded as
(3) Body is devoid of scales (1) The members of second largest animal
phylum
(4) Bony endoskeleton supports body
165. In Doliolum, notochord (2) Mostly shelled bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and coelomate animals
(1) Persists throughout life
(3) Invertebrates having sensory tentacles on
(2) Present in tail region only in larval stage
anterior head region
(3) Notochord is absent in larval stage
(4) Invertebrates with body surface distinctly
(4) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column marked into segments
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Advanced Test and Discussion Course for NEET-2020 Test-1 (Code-A)

172. Choose an amphibian in which body is divided into 177. Glands are specialized ________ tissues.
head, trunk and tail (1) Nervous
(1) Salamandra (2) Bufo
(2) Muscle
(3) Rana (4) Hyla
(3) Connective
173. Cnidarians having a skeleton composed of
calcium carbonate are known as (4) Epithelial

(1) Clam worms (2) Corals 178. The chemical and physical properties of amino
acids are due to all except
(3) Acorn worms (4) Comb jellies
(1) Amine group
174. Presence of scattered pouches of mesoderm
between the ectoderm and endoderm is an (2) Carboxyl group
identification of (3) R-group
(1) Enterocoelom (2) Schizocoelom (4) Ketonic group
(3) Pseudocoelom (4) Eucoelom
179. Which of the following is not function of epithelial
175. The positional information regarding sequence of tissue?
amino acids in a protein is included under
(1) Protecting underlying structures
(1) Quaternary structure
(2) Permitting the passage of substances
(2) Secondary structure
(3) Secretion and absorption of substances
(3) 3-D structure
(4) Provides support and help in locomotion
(4) Primary structure
180. Find out the correct option w.r.t.
176. Read following statements carefully and select
monosaccharides and their examples
incorrect statement
(1) In glycogen, right end is reducing end Monosaccharide Examples
(2) Starch forms secondary structure (1) C3H6O3 Galactose
(3) In proteins, right end is represented by first
(2) C4H8O4 Sucrose
amino acid
(4) The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is (3) C5H10O5 Ribose
called N-terminal amino acid (4) C6H12O6 Maltose

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Edition: 2020-21