Wardhaman Nagar / Sakkardara / Manewada

AMAIRA STUDENT FORUM

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Date : 02-12-2024 TEST ID: 426
Time : 04:30:00
Marks : 720
11th - 12th PCB

PHYSICS
Single Correct Answer Type stretched to double its length keeping volume
1. In the circuit shown below, the power constant. Now the resistance of the wire will
developed in the 6Ω resistor is 6 watt. The become
power in watts developed in the 4Ω resistor is a) 4 𝑅 Ω b) 2 𝑅 Ω c) 𝑅/2 Ω d) 𝑅/4 Ω
7. The 𝑉 − 𝑖 graph for a conductor makes an
angle 𝜃 with 𝑉-axis. Here 𝑉 denotes the
voltage and 𝑖 denotes current. The resistance
of conductor is given by
a) sin 𝜃 b) cos 𝜃 c) tan 𝜃 d) cot 𝜃
8. If 400Ω of resistance is made by adding four
100Ω resistance of tolerance 5%, then the
a) 16 b) 9 c) 6 d) 4
tolerance of the combination is
2. The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4 Ω .
a) 20 % b) 5 % c) 10 % d) 15 %
It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external
9. Following figure shows cross-sections through
resistance of 21 Ω. The rate at which chemical
three long conductors of the same length and
energy is consumed in providing the current is
material, with square cross-section of edge
a) 0.42 J s −1 b) 0.84 J s −1
lengths as shown. Conductor 𝐵 will fit snugly
c) 1 J s −1 d) 5 J s −1
within conductor 𝐴, and conductor 𝐶 will fit
3. If 𝑅1 and 𝑅2 are respectively the filament
snugly within conductor 𝐵. Relationship
resistances of a 200 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡 bulb and 100 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
between their end to end resistance is
bulb designed to operate on the same voltage,
then
a) 𝑅1 is two times 𝑅2 b) 𝑅2 is two times 𝑅1 a
c) 𝑅2 is four times 𝑅1 d) 𝑅1 is four times 𝑅2
A B C
4. Electroplating does not help in
a) Fine finish to the surface
b) Shining appearance a) 𝑅𝐴 = 𝑅𝐵 = 𝑅𝐶
c) Metals to become hard b) 𝑅𝐴 > 𝑅𝐵 > 𝑅𝐶
d) Protecting metal against conosion c) 𝑅𝐴 < 𝑅𝐵 < 𝑅𝐶
5. A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal d) Information is not sufficient
divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions 10. In a conductor 4 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏 of charge flows for
per milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 2 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠. The value of electric current will be
divisions per millivolt. In order that each a) 4 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 b) 4 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒
division reads 1V, the resistance in Ohm’s c) 2 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 d) 2 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
needed to be connected in series with the coil 11. Two identical induction coils each of
will be inductance L joined in series are placed very
a) 103 b) 105 c) 99995 d) 9995 close to each other such that the winding
6. The resistance of a wire is 𝑅 Ω.The wire is direction of one is exactly opposite to that of

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 the other, what is the net inductance? a) 3.75 × 10−3 𝑁 b) 3.75 × 10−2 𝑁
a) 𝐿2 b) 2𝐿 c) 𝐿/2 d) Zero c) 3.75 × 10 𝑁
2 d) 3.75 × 10−4 𝑁
12. A uniform but time varying magnetic field 18. The charge which will flow through a 200 Ω
𝐵 (𝑡) exists in a circular region of radius a and galvanometer connected to a 400 Ω circular
is directed into the plane of the paper as shown coil of 1000 turns wound on a wooden stick 20
in figure. The magnitude of induced electric mm in diameter, if a magnetic field B = 0.012 T
filed at point P at a distance r from the centre parallel to the axis of the stick decreased
of the circular region suddenly to zero is
a) 6.3 𝜇𝐶 b) 63 𝜇𝐶 c) 0.63 𝜇𝐶 d) 630 𝜇𝐶
19. In the following circuit, the bulb will become
suddenly bright if

a) Is zero b) Decrease as 1/ 𝑟
c) Increases as 𝑟 d) Decreases 1 / 𝑟 2
13. A step up transformer connected to a
a) Contact is made or broken
220 𝑉 𝐴𝐶 line is to supply 22 𝑘𝑉 a neon sign in
b) Contact is made
secondary circuit. In primary circuit a fuse
c) Contact is broken
wire is connected which is to blow when the
d) Won’t become bright at all
current in the secondary circuit exceeds
20. The primary and secondary coils of a
10 𝑚𝐴. The turn ratio of the transformer is
transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
respectively. If the magnetic flux ϕ linked with
14. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
the primary coil is given by ϕ = ϕ0 + 4t,
complete circuit. If at a certain instant the
where ϕ is in weber, 𝑡 is time in second and
current 𝑖 is 5 𝐴 and is decreasing at the rate of
ϕ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the
103 𝐴/𝑠 then 𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 is
secondary coil is
A
1 15 V 5mH
B a) 90 V b) 120 V c) 220 V d) 30V
a) 5 𝑉 b) 10 𝑉 c) 15 𝑉 d) 20 𝑉 21. An electric motor operates on a 50 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 supply
15. The momentum in mechanics is expressed as and a current of 12𝐴. If the efficiency of the
𝑚 × 𝑉. The analogous expression in electricity motor is 30%, what is the resistance of the
is winding of the motor
a) 𝑖 × 𝑄 b) 𝑖 × 𝑉 c) 𝐿 × 𝑖 d) 𝐿 × 𝑄 a) 6Ω b) 4Ω c) 2.9Ω d) 3.1Ω
16. Why the current does not rise immediately in a 22. 2
If a coil of 40 turns and area 4.0 cm is
circuit containing inductance suddenly removed from a magnetic field, it is
a) Because of induced emf observed that a charge of 2.0 × 10−4 C flows
b) Because of high voltage drop into the coil. If the resistance of the coil is 80Ω,
c) Because of low power consumption the magnetic flux density in Wbm−2 is…….
d) Because of Joule heating a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
17. As shown in the figure a metal rod makes 23. Which of the following is a wrong statement
contact and completes the circuit. The circuit is a) An emf can be induced between the ends of a
perpendicular to the magnetic field with 𝐵 = straight conductor by moving it through a
0.15 𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑙𝑎. If the resistance is 3Ω, force needed uniform magnetic field
to move the rod as indicated with a constant b) The self induced emf produced by changing
speed of 2𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 is current in a coil always tends to decrease the
      current
      c) Inserting an iron core in a coil increases its
50 cm
      coefficient of self induction
v = 2m/s
      d) According to Lenz’s law, the direction of the
      induced current is such that it opposes the

B = 0.15 T
    
flux change that causes it
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24. An electron moves along the line PQ which lies is an 𝐴𝐶 voltage source of frequency 𝑓, which
in the same plane as a circular loop of of the following observation will be correct
conducting wire as shown in figure. What will
be the direction of the induced current in the
loop?

a) Both bulbs will glow alternatively

Both bulbs will glow with same brightness
b) 1
a) Anticlockwise provided 𝑓 = 2𝜋 √(1/𝐿𝐶)
b) Clockwise Bulb 𝑏1 will light up initially and goes off,
c) Alternating c)
bulb 𝑏2 will be ON constantly
d) No current will be induced Bulb 𝑏1 will blink and bulb 𝑏2 will be ON
25. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a book and d)
constantly
this book is lying on the table. The vertical 31. A capacitor and an inductance coil are
component of earth’s magnetic field is connected in separate AC circuits with a bulb
0.6 × 10−4 T and the area of the coil is 0.05 glowing in both the circuits. The bulb glows
m−2. The book is turned over once about a more brightly when
horizontal axis is 0.1 s. This average emf a) An iron rod is introduced into the
induced in the coil is inductance coil
a) 0.03 V b) 0.06 V c) Zero d) 0.6 V b) The number of turns in the inductance coil is
26. When a coil carrying a steady current is short increased
circuited, the current in it, decreases 𝜂 time in c) Separation between the plates of the
time 𝑡0 . The time constant of the circuit is capacitor is increased
𝑡0
a) d) A dielectric is introduced into the gap
𝐼𝑛 𝜂
between the plates of the capacitor
𝑡0
b) 32. In a current carrying long solenoid, the field
𝜂−1
produced does not depend upon
c) 𝑡0 In 𝜂
𝑡0 a) Number of turns per unit length
d) b) Current flowing
𝜂
27. In a L – R circuit, the value of L is (0.4)H and c) Radius of solenoid
𝜋 d) All of the above
the value of R is 30 Ω. If in the circuit, an 33. A circuit draws 330 W from a 110V, 60 Hz AC
alternating emf of 200 V at 50 cycle/s is line. The power factor is 0.6 and the current
connected, the impedance of the circuit and lags the voltage. The capacitance of a series
current will be capacitor that will result in a power factor of
a) 11.4 Ω, 17.5 A b) 30.7 Ω, 6.5 A unity is equal to
c) 40.4 Ω, 5 A d) 50 Ω, 4 A a) 31𝜇F b) 54𝜇F c) 151𝜇F d) 201𝜇F
28. The resonance frequency of the tank circuit of 34. A coil of 200Ω resistance and 0.1 𝐻 inductance
10
an oscillator when 𝐿 = 𝜋2
mH and 𝐶 = 0.04 𝜇F is connected to an ac source of frequency
are connected in parallel is 200/2π 𝐻𝑧. Phase angle between potential and
a) 250 kHz b) 25 kHz c) 2.5 kHz d) 25 MHz current will be
29. The quality factor of 𝐿𝐶𝑅 circuit having a) 30° b) 90o c) 45° d) 0°
resistance (𝑅) and inductance (𝐿) at 35. What will be the phase difference between
resonance frequency (𝜔) is given by virtual voltage and virtual current, when the
𝜔𝐿 𝑅 𝜔𝐿 1/2 𝜔𝐿 2 current in the circuit is wattles
a) b) c) ( ) d) ( ) a) 90° b) 45° c) 180° d) 60°
𝑅 𝜔𝐿 𝑅 𝑅
30. Two identical incandescent light bulbs are 36. A 12 𝑜ℎ𝑚 resistor and a 0.21 henry inductor
connected as shown in figure. When the circuit are connected in series to an ac source
operating at 20 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠, 50 cycle/second. The
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 phase angle between the current and the c) Average power dissipation is zero
source voltage is d) The phase difference between voltage and
a) 30° b) 40° c) 80° d) 90° current is zero
37. The impedance of a circuit consists of 3 𝑜ℎ𝑚 41. The power factor of good choke coil is
resistance and 4 𝑜ℎ𝑚 reactance. The power a) Nearly zero b) Exactly zero
factor of the circuit is c) Nearly one d) Exactly one
a) 0.4 b) 0.6 c) 0.8 d) 1.0 42. The phase difference between the alternating
38. The reactance of a coil when used in the current and emf is 𝜋/2. Which of the following
domestic ac power supply (220 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑠, 50 cannot be the constituent of the circuit?
cycles per second) is 50 𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑠. The inductance a) C alone b) R, L c) L, C d) L alone
of the coil is nearly 43. A bulb is connected first with dc and then ac of
a) 2.2 ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑟𝑦 b) 0.22 ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑟𝑦 same voltage it will shine brightly with
c) 1.6 ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑟𝑦 d) 0.16 ℎ𝑒𝑛𝑟𝑦 a) AC
39. The magnet in figure rotates a shown on a b) DC
pivot through its center. At the instant shown, c) Brightness will be in ratio 1/1.4
what are the directions of the induced d) Equally with both
currents. 44. In an ac circuit, the current is given by 𝑖 =
𝜋
5 sin (100 𝑡 − 2 ) and the ac potential is 𝑉 =
200 sin(100) 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡. Then the power
consumption is
a) 20 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠 b) 40 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
a) 𝐴 to 𝐵 and 𝐶 to 𝐷
c) 1000 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠 d) 0 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡
b) 𝐵 to 𝐴 and 𝐶 to 𝐷
45. A pure inductor of 25 𝑚𝐻 is connected to a
c) 𝐴 to 𝐵 and 𝐷 to 𝐶
source of 220 𝑉. Given the frequency of the
d) 𝐵 to 𝐴 and 𝐷 to 𝐶
source as 50 𝐻𝑧, the 𝑟𝑚𝑠 current in the circuit
40. In general in an alternating current circuit
is
a) The average value of current is zero
a) 7 𝐴 b) 14 𝐴 c) 28 𝐴 d) 42 𝐴
b) The average value of square of the current is
zero

CHEMISTRY
46. C2 — C3 bond length in but-1,3-diene is:
a) 1.46Å b) 1.20Å c) 1.39Å d) 1.34Å
47. Which of the following reactions are not c)
expected to give

d) None of the above

48. Which of the following reactions can be used to
prepare methane?
In yields of more than 50%? a) Clemmensen reduction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Reduction of CH2 = CH2 by LiAlH4
a) d) Reduction of methyl iodine by using a zinc-
copper couple
49. Cyclopentene on treatment with alkaline
KMnO4 gives:
b) a) Cyclopentanol
b) 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠-1,2-cyclopentanediol
c) 𝑐𝑖𝑠-1,2-cyclopentanediol
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 1 : 1 mixture of 𝑐𝑖𝑠-and 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠-1,2- d) A mixture of the above three
d)
cyclopentanediol 60. In the addition of HBr to propene in the
50. The product formed when acetylene is passed absence of peroxides the first step involves the
through red hot tube is: addition of:
a) Benzene b) Cyclohexane a) H + b) Br − c) H d) Br
c) Neoprene d) Ethane 61. The substance employed as tear gas is:
51. Hydrocarbon liquid at STP is: a) Westron b) Chloropicrin
a) Ethane b) Propane c) Chloretone d) None of these
c) Butane d) Pentane 62. Which of the following will not respond to
52. Which of the following differs with the other iodoform test?
three? a) Ethyl alcohol b) Propanol-2
a) Naphthalene b) Ethylene c) Propanol-1 d) Ethanal
c) Toluene d) Xylene 63. Anhydrous HCl gas, on passing through ethyl
53. 1-propanol on dehydration with H2 SO4 alcohol, in presence of anhy. ZnCl2 gives:
produces: a) Ethane b) Ethyl chloride
a) CH3 − CH = CH2 c) Ethene d) CCl4
b) CH3 − CH = CH − CH3 64. In the reaction sequence
c) CH3 CH2 CH2 OCH2 CH2 CH3
d) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH = CH2
54. The highest boiling point is expected for
a) 𝑛-butane
b) 𝑖𝑠𝑜-octane
c) 𝑛-octane
d) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane Compound ‘X ’ is
55. When propionic acid is treated with aqueous a) Chlorobenzene b) Benzene
sodium bicarbonate, CO2 is liberated. The ‘C’ of c) Toluene d) Biphenyl methane
CO2 comes from: 65. The following compound on hydrolysis in
a) Methyl group b) Carboxylic group aqueous acetone will give
c) Methylene group d) Bicarbonate
56. The middle oil fraction of coal-tar distillation
contains:
a) Benzene b) Anthracene
c) Naphthalene d) Xylene
57. Which compound does not decolourize
bromine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride?
a) C2 H2 b) C3 H6 c) C6 H6 d) C2 H4
58. Which compound does not give precipitate
with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution?
a) C2 H5 − C ≡ CH
b) CH3 − C ≡ C − CH3
CH3
c) |
CH3 − CH − C ≡ CH
d) Ph − CH2 − C ≡ CH
59. By Wurtz reaction, a mixture of methyl
iodide and ethyl iodide gives
a) Butane a) Mixture of (K) and (L)
b) Mixture of (K) and (M)
b) Ethane
c) Only (M)
c) Propane
d) Only (K)
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66. Among the following the one that gives ethylene?
positive iodoform test upon reaction with I2 a) 9.6 kg b) 96.0 kg c) 6.4 kg d) 2.8 kg
and NaOH is 76. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a
a) CH3 CH2 CH(OH)CH2 CH3 closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess
b) C6 H5 CH2 CH2 OH and how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24, O = 16)
H3 C − CH − CH2 OH a) Mg, 0.16 g b) O2 , 0.16 g
c) | c) Mg, 0.44 g d) O2 , 0.28 g
CH3 77. In an experiment it showed that 10 mL of 0.05
d) PhCHOHCH3 M solution of chloride required 10 mL of 0.1 M
67. Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidised to solution of AgNO3 , which of the following will
a) CO2 b) COCl2 be the formula of the chloride (𝑋 stands for the
c) CO2 , Cl2 d) None of these symbol of the element other than chlorine)
68. 1-phenyl, 2-chloropropane on treating with alc. a) 𝑋2 Cl2 b) 𝑋Cl2
KOH gives mainly: c) 𝑋Cl4 d) 𝑋2 Cl
a) 1-phenylpropene 78. 2.79 g of silver carbonate on being strongly
b) 2-phenylpropene heated yields a residue weighing:
c) 1-phenylpropan-2-ol a) 2.16 g b) 2.48 g
d) 1-phenylpropan-1-ol c) 2.32 g d) 2.64 g
69. When iodoform is heated with silver powder it 79. By Victor meyer’s method, one determine the
forms: vapour density if:
a) Acetylene b) Ethylene a) Non-volatile solid b) All substances
c) Methane d) Ethane c) Volatile liquid d) Electrolyte
70. t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis 80. If a compound contains two oxygen atoms,
by four carbon atoms and number of hydrogen
a) SN 1 mechanism atom is double of carbon atoms, the vapour
b) SN 2 mechanism density of it is:
c) Any of (a) and (b) a) 88 b) 44 c) 132 d) 72
d) None of the above 81. The net charge on ferrous ion is:
71. Which of the following does not answer a) +2 b) +3 c) +4 d) +5
iodoform test? 82. In a compound C, H, N atoms are present in 9
a) N-butyl alcohol b) Sec-butyl alcohol :1 : 3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of
c) Acetophenone d) Acetaldehyde compound is 108, its molecular formula is:
72. The reaction in which phenol differs from a) C2 H6 N2 b) C3 H4 N
alcohol is c) C6 H8 N2 d) C9 H12 N3
a) It undergoes esterification with carboxylic 83. Volume occupied by one molecule of water
acid (density = 1 g cm−3 ) is:
b) It reacts with ammonia a) 6.023 × 10−23 cm3 b) 3.0 × 10−23 cm3
c) It forms yellow crystals of iodoform c) 5.5 × 10−23 cm3 d) 9.0 × 10−23 cm3
d) It liberates H2 with Na metal 84. 0.52 g of dibasic acid required 100 mL of 0.1 𝑁
73. Carbon tetrachloride on treatment with Fe NaOH for complete neutralization. The
/H2 O gives: equivalent weight of acid is:
a) Chloromethane b) Methane a) 26 b) 52 c) 104 d) 156
c) Chloroform d) Methylene chloride 85. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly
74. The reactivity order of alkyl halides depends heated yield a residue weighing
upon: a) 2.16 g b) 2.48 g c) 2.64 g d) 2.32 g
a) Nature of alkyl group only 86. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 66. Its
b) Nature of halogen atom only oxide contains 53% metal. The atomic weight
c) Nature of both alkyl group and halogen atom of the metal is:
d) None of the above a) 21 b) 54 c) 27.06 d) 2.706
75. What is the weight of oxygen that is required 87. Acidified KMnO4 oxidises oxalic acid to CO2 .
for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of
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 What is the volume (in litres) of 10−4 M KMnO4 a) 760.0 mm of Hg b) 76.0 mm of Hg
required to completely oxidise 0.5 L of 10−2 M c) 7.6 mm of Hg d) 0.76 mm of Hg
oxalic acid in acid medium? Multiple Correct Answers Type
a) 125 b) 1250 c) 200 d) 20 91. Which of the following are the best methods
88. The ratio of amounts of H2 S needed to for the preparation of cumene (A)?
precipitate all the metal ions from 100 mL of 1 a)
M AgNO3 and 100mL of CuSO4 , will be
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 1 d) None of these b)
89. 4.6 × 10 atoms of an element weigh 13.8 g.
22

The atomic weight of element is c)

a) 290 b) 180 c) 34.4 d) 10.4
90. A candle is burnt in a beaker until it
d)
extinguishes itself. A sample of gaseous
mixture in the beaker contains and
6.08 × 1020 molecules of O2 , and 0.50  1020
molecules of CO2 . The total pressure is 734
mm of Hg. The partial pressure of O2 would be

BIOLOGY
Single Correct Answer Type c) A-Ferric, B-goitre, C-hypothyroidism
92. ‘ANF’ is a hormone, which d) A-Sodium, B-goitre, C-hypothyroidism
a) Is secreted when BP is increased 97. Pineal gland secretes
b) Decreases BP a) FSH b) LH
c) Cause vasodilation c) Melatonin d) GH
d) All of the above 98. The contraction of gall bladder is due to
93. Cortisol is involved in a) Cholecystokinin b) Enterogastrone
a) Maintaining cardio-vascular system c) Gastrin d) Secretin
b) Kidney functions 99. Addition of a trace of thyroxine or iodine in
c) RBC production water containing tadpoles will
d) All of the above a) Keep them in larvalb) Hasten their
94. GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) stage metamorphosis
a) Inhibits the gastric secretion and motility c) Slow down theird) Kill the tadpoles
b) Inhibits the gastric secretion only metamorphosis
c) Activate the gastric secretion and motility 100. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’
d) Activate the gastric secretion only endocrine gland because
95. Neurons of people suffering from diabetes a) It is provided with ab) It only stores and
insipidus do not secrete duct releases hormones
a) Enzyme b) Steroid c) It is under thed) It secretes enzymes
c) Fatty acid d) ADH regulation of
96. …A… is essential for the normal rate of hypothalamus
hormone synthesis in the thyroid. Deficiency of 101. Which gland is called 4S and 3F?
iodine in our diet results in …B… and a) Thyroid gland b) Parathyroid gland
enlargement of the thyroid gland, commonly c) Adrenal gland d) Hypothalamus
called …C… 102. Insulin and glucagon are transported to target
Select the correct combination for A, B and C organ by
a) A-Ferrous, B-goitre, C-hypothyroidism a) Lymph b) Blood
b) A-Iodine, B-hypothyroidism, C-goitre c) Pancreatic duct d) Cystic duct

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103. Identify 𝐴 to 𝐸 in the following figure and c) Pollen tube enter into the ovule through
choose the correct option chalaza
d) Vegetative cell and tube cell fuse
109. The outermost and innermost wall layers of
microsporangium in an anther are respectively
a) endothecium and b) epidermis and
tapetum endodermis
c) epidermis and d) Epidermis and
a) A-Adrenal gland, B-Fat, C-Kidney, D-Adrenal middle layer tapetum.
cortex, E-Adrenal medulla 110. Pollenkitt is generally found in
b) A-Fat, B-Adrenal gland, C-Kidney, D-Adrenal a) anemophilous b) entomophilous
cortex, E-Adrenal medulla flowers flowers
c) A-Fat, B-Adrenal gland, C-Kidney, D-Adrenal c) Ornithophilous d) Malacophilous
medulla, E-Adrenal cortex flowers flowers.
d) A-Adrenal gland, B-Fat, C-Kidney, D-Adrenal 111. In which one pair, both the plants can be
medulla, E-Adrenal cortex vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
104. Which of the following is true for the effect of a) Bryophyllum and kalanchoe
steroid hormone? b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
a) Fast and short term c) Agave and kalanchoe
b) Fast and long lasting d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
c) Slow and short term 112. Synergids are
d) Slow and long lasting a) Haploid b) Diploid
105. LH and FSH are collectively called c) Triploid d) Tetraploid
a) Oxytocin b) Somatotrophins 113. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
c) Luteotrophins d) Gonadotrophins represented by
106. Molecule that bind the receptor and induces a) Ovule b) Megaspore mother
cell the post-receptor events is called …A… and cell
molecule that bind to the receptor and inhibit c) Embryo sac d) nucellus
all the post-receptor events is called …B…. 114. Study the following pairs.
a) A-antagonist, B-agonist I. Modified - Unisexual - Chalazal
b) A-agonist, B-enzyme aerial stem flowers entry of
c) A-antagonist, B-hormone Develop pollen tube
d) A-agonist, B-antagonist Acropetally
107. Identify 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 II. Flowers - Pedicels of all - Presence of
achlamydeous the flowers false whorl
are of same
Length
III. Cohesion of - Centrifugal - Male flowers
a) A-Syngamy, B-Embryo, C-Triple fusion, D- Bracts opening of many
Endosperm forming a cup flowers
b) A- Endosperm, B- Syngamy, C- Embryo, D- IV. flower - Presence of - terminal part
Triple fusion Formation on rachilla of the peduncle
c) A- Endosperm, B- Triple fusion, C- Syngamy, One side in a is flowerless
D-Embryo Spiral manner
d) A- Endosperm, B- Triple fusion, C- Embryo, Select the correct pair of answers in which the
D-Syngamy former represents the set of characters present
108. Syngamy is the process in which in poinsettia and the latter in the pair
a) Male gamete fuses with female gamete represents the set of characters present in
b) Pollen tube enter into the ovule through casuarina.
micropyle a) II and III b) I and II
c) IV and III d) III and I
Page|8
115. Match column I with column II and select the 123. Which of the following options shows two
correct option from the given codes. plants in which new plantlets arise from the
Column I Column II same organ?
a) Dahlia and ginger b) Potato and sweet
A. Monoecious i Primula potato
B. Dioecious ii Maize c) Dahlia and rose d) Potato and
sugarcane
C. Cleistogamous iii Date palm 124. Which of the following is an incorrect
D. Heterostyly iv Commelina combination of organism with its chromosome
number in meiocyte and in gamete?
a) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
Name of organism Chromosome number
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-I, D-iv d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
in meiocyte Chromosome number in gamete
116. Ruminate endosperm is found in the seeds of
a) Onion b) Ophioglossum
family
24 1260
a) Compositae b) Cruciferae
12 630
c) Euphorbiaceae d) Annonaceae
c) Human beings d) Fruit fly
117. Vegetative reproduction, in which new plants
develop in the notches along the tip of intact 46 8
leaves is seen in 23 4
a) Aspargus b) Agave 125. 'Clones' are individuals that have exactly the
c) Chrysanthemum d) Bryophyllum. same
(AFMC) a) lifespan b) physiology
118. A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a c) growth rate d) Genetic makeup.
type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic 126. Vegetative propagation in 𝑃𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑎 occurs by:
division occurs after the formation of zygote. a) Stolon b) Offset c) Runner d) Sucker
The adult filament of this alga has 127. Cell division is the mode of reproduction in
a) haploid vegetative b) diploid vegetative a) Monera b) Protista
cells and diploid cells and diploid c) Both (a) and (b) d) Plants
gametangia gametangia 128. ‘Gemmule formation is a common mode of
c) diploid vegetative d) Haploid vegetative reproduction in 𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑢𝑚’
cells and haploid cells and haploid a) True
gametangia gametangia. b) False
119. In diploid organism the gamete producing cells c) Sometimes (a) and sometimes (b)
are called d) Neither (a) nor (b)
a) Gamete mother cell b) Meiocytes 129. An example of corm is
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these a) Ginger b) Colocasia
120. Diploid zygote is universal in c) Onion d) Potato
a) All sexually reproducing organisms 130. Which of the following is hermaphrodite?
b) All asexually reproducing organisms a) Ant b) Aphids
c) All sexually and asexually reproducing c) Earthworm d) Cockroach
organisms 131. A dandelion produces seeds without meiosis or
d) All plants and animals fertilization. The adult sporophyte forms
121. Menstrual cycle is completed in: diploid, rather than haploid, megaspores that
a) 30 Days b) 31 Days c) 28 Days d) 27 Days develop into ovules containing diploid, rather
122. Why water hyacinth is called Terror of Bengal? than haploid nuclei. One of the nuclei in each
a) It is being used as food for fish ovule becomes an egg and develops directly,
b) It consumes oxygen from cultivated plant without fertilization, into an embryo that is
and destroy them genetically identical to its parent. This type of
It consumes oxygen from water and reproduction is called
c)
decreases O2 concentration in water a) parthenogenesis, b) Parthenogenesis,
d) It is a weed which is a form of which is a form of
apomixis amphimixis
Page|9
 c) Adventive d) Agamospermy,
embryony, which is which is a form of
a form of apomixes amphimixis.
132. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,
which one of the following is unlikely?
a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
b) Oestrogen secretion further decreases
c) Primary follicle starts developing a) A-Urethra, B-Urinary bladder, C-Uterus, D-
d) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines Cervix, E-Vagina
133. The type of connective tissue that is associated b) A-Urethra, B-Urinary bladder, C-Uterus, D-
with the umbilical cord is Vagina, E- Cervix
a) Areolar connective tissue c) A-Urethra, B-Urinary bladder, C-Uterus, D-
b) Jelly-like connective tissue Cervix, E-Vagina
c) adipose connective tissue d) A- Uterus, B-Urinary bladder, C- Urethra, D-
d) Reticular connective tissue Cervix, E-Vagina
134. Extrusion of second polar body from egg 140. Correct statement with reference to a test tube
nucleus occurs bay is
a) After entry of spermb) After completion of a) The fertilized egg is placed in the womb of
before completion of fertilization the mother where the gastrula period is
fertilization completed
c) Before entry ofd) Without any relation b) Unfertilized egg is placed in the womb and
sperm of sperm entry allowed to grow parthenogenetically
135. Natural parthenogenesis is found in c) A prematurely born baby is reared in an
a) Housefly b) Honey bee incubator
c) Drosophila d) All of these d) Fertilized egg is taken out and grown in a
136. A young infant may be feeding entirely on large test tube
mother's milk which is white in color but the 141. Which set is similar?
stools which the infant passes out are quite a) Corpus luteum –b) Sebum – Sweat
yellowish. The yellow color of stool is due to Graafian follicles
a) bile pigments passed b) undigested milk c) Bundle of His – Pace
d) Vitamin B7 – Niacin
through bile juice protein casein maker
c) pancreatic juice d) Intestinal juice. 142. The method of directly injecting a sperm into
poured into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is
duodenum called
137. Regeneration of tail in lizards is an example of a) GIFT b) ZIFT
a) Epimorphosis b) Morphollaxis c) CSI d) ET.
c) Heteromorphosis d) parthenogenesis 143. Read the following statements and select the
138. Vas deferentia receives a duct from …A… and correct option.
opens into the …B… as ejaculatory duct. Statement 1: Subcutaneous implantation of
A and B in above statement is synthetic progesterone prevents pregnancy for
a) A-vas deferens; B-urinary bladder about 5
b) A-seminal vesicles; B-urethra Statement 2: A tiny amount of progesterone is
c) A-urethra; B-seminal vesicles steadily released from the inserts into the
d) A-urethra; B-urinary bladder blood.
139. The following diagram refers to female a) Both statement 1 b) Statement 1 is
reproductive system of human. Identify 𝐴 to 𝐸 and 2 are correct. correct but
statement 2 is
incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is d) Both statement 1
incorrect but and 2 are incorrect.
statement 2 is
P a g e | 10
 correct. disorders of muscles in humans.
144. STDs caused by bacteria is/are a) Failure ofb) Accumulation of urea
a) Syphilis b) Gonorrhea neuromuscular and creative in the
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above transmission in joints causes their
145. Which of the following causes abortion in myasthenia gravis inflammation
ladies? can prevent normal
a) Viruses b) Bacteria swallowing
c) Mycoplasma d) None of these c) An overdose ofd) Rapid contractions of
146. July 11 is : vitamin D causes skeletal muscles
a) World Environment day osteoporosis cause muscle
b) World Population day dystrophy
c) World AIDS day 153. Dark bands are
d) World Education day a) A-band b) B-band
147. Identify the correct statements c) I-band d) Z-line
i. Birth control pills are likely to cause 154. Which of the following statements is correct?
cardiovascular problem a) Movable skull bone is mandible
ii. A woman who substitutes or takes the place b) We move our hands, while walking for
of the real mother to nurse to embryo is called
balancing
surrogate mother
iii. Numerous children have been produced by Cartilaginous joints have little mobility due
𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑜 fertilisation but with some to fibrocartilage disc between its articular
c)
abnormalities ands, 𝑒. 𝑔., intervertebral disc between the
iv. Woman plays a key role in the continuity of centre of vertebrae
the family and human species d) All of the above
v. Foetal sex determination test should not be 155. Centrum of 8th vertebra of frog is
banned
a) Procoelous b) Acoelous
a) I and II b) II and IV
c) III and V d) I, II and IV c) Amphicoelous d) Amphiplatyan
156. Fused vertebrae in human are
148. What is correct about a test tube baby?
a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and I. Sacral
growth in test tube II. Coccygeal
III. Thoracic
b) Rearing of premature born baby in an
IV. Cervical
incubator
V. Lumber
c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside
mother’s womb a) I and II b) III and c) IV and V d) II and V
IV
d) Both fertilization and development are done
157. Volkmann’s canals occur in
outside the female genital tract
149. The most important component of a) Internal ear b) liver
c) Cartilage d) Bone
contraceptive pills is:
158. Which of the following features differentiate
a) Progesterone
bone from cartilage?
b) Growth hormone
c) Thyroxine a) Haversian canal b) Blood vessel
d) Luteinising hormone c) Lymph vessel d) All of these
159. Smallest bone in human system is
150. Hepatitis-B and HIV spreads through
a) Stapes b) patella
a) Sharing needless
c) malleus d) Incus
b) Transfusion of blood
c) Infected mother to child 160. Identify 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 in the given diagram of
d) All of the above humans skull. Choose the correct option
151. ‘Hum Do Hamare Do’ slogan for encourages
a) Family planning b) Immunisation
c) Electric growth d) Patriotism
152. Select the correct statement with respect to

P a g e | 11
 a) A-Hyoid bone, B-Maxilla, C-Frontal bone, D- incorrect but and 2 are incorrect
Parietal bone statement 2 is
b) A-Hyoid bone, B-Maxilla, C-Parietal bone, D- correct
165. Bones become fragile in
Frontal bone
a) Osteoporosis b) Gout
c) A-Maxilla, B-Hyoid bone, C-Parietal bone, D-
c) Arthritis d) None of these
Frontal bone
166. During muscular contraction, which of the
d) A-Parietal bone, B-Frontal bone, C-Maxilla,
following events occur?
D-Hyoid bone (i) H-zone disappears
161. Which of the following muscular disorder is (ii) A-band widens
inherited? (iii) I-band reduces in width
a) Botulism b) Tetany (iv) Width of A-band is unaffected
c) Muscular dystrophy d) Myasthenia gravis (v) M-line and Z-line come closer
162. Examine the given diagrammatic view of a) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) b) (i), (ii) and (v)
human skull given below and identify the skull c) (ii), (iv) and (v) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
bones labelled from A-D 167. In the given diagram, what does ‘A’
represents?

a) A-Frontal, B- b) A-Occipital, B-
Temporal, C-Maxilla, Frontal, C-Mandible,
D-Mandible D-Maxilla
c) A-Parietal, B- d) A- Temporal, B-
Temporal, C-Maxilla, Parietal, C-Mandible, a) Pons Varolii b) Cerebellum
D-Mandible D-Maxilla
c) Medulla oblongata d) Midbrain
163. Identify 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 in the given diagram and
168. The number of cranial nerves in frog and
choose the correct option
man is
a) 10 and 12 b) 12 and 10
c) 10 and 8 d) 8 and 10
169. Mark the following statements as true/false
and choose the correct option from the codes
given below
I. Neuroglial cells are the packing and
supporting cells found in the brain and spinal
cord
II. Oligodendrocytes is a category of glial cells
a) A-Cervical vertebrae, B-Coccyx, C-Sacrum
that forms myelin sheaths around the axon
b) A-Cervical vertebrae, B-Coccyx, C-Atlas
III. Microglia provides mechanical support to
c) A-Cervical vertebrae, B-Coccyx, C-Axis
the neurons
d) A-Cervical vertebrae, B-Sacrum, C-Coccyx
IV. Astrocytes communicate with one another
164. Read the given statements and select the
through potassium channels
correct option
Statement 1: Articulation between the occipital Codes
condyles and the atlas vertebra forms a hinge I II III IV
joint. a) True True False False
Statement 2: Hinge joint is a monaxial joint b) False True True False
a) Both statements 1 b) Statement 1 is c) False False True True
and 2 are correct correct but d) True False True False
statement 2 is
170. Read the following statements.
incorrect
c) Statement 1 is d) Both statements 1 I.Preganglionic nerve fibres of III, VII, IX

P a g e | 12
 and X cranial nerves are a part of the d) Is fastest in non-myelinated axons
parasympathetic nervous system 176. The complex system of the inner ear
II.V,VII, IX and X cranial nerves are mixed associated with maintenance of body
nerves. balance is
III.Trochlear nerves are the largest cranial a) Cochlea
nerves. b) Reissner’s membrane
IV.Abducens nerves are motor nerves and c) Vestibular apparatus
originate from the Gasserian ganglia. d) Basilar membrane
Which of the above statements are correct? 177. There are two types of photoreceptor cells,
a) I and IV b) I and II 𝑖. 𝑒., …A… and …B… . These cells contains
c) II and III d) I and III photopigments
171. When different cones of human eye are Here, A and B refers to
stimulated equally, a sensation of …… light is a) A-rods; B-cones
produced b) A-cones; B-rhodopsin
a) Red b) White c) Green d) Blue c) A-rhodopsin; B-rods
172. Give movements are controlled by d) A-rods; B-fovea
I. Gastrointestinal movement 178. Function of ear ossicles in human is
II. Pancreatic movement a) To equalise the pressure on either sides of
III. Tongue movement ear drum
Select the correct option b) Collects the vibrations in the air which
a) I and II are controlled by vagus nerve produce sound
b) I and III are controlled by vagus nerve c) To increase the efficiency of transmission of
c) Only I is controlled by vagus nerve sound waves to the inner ear
d) Only II is controlled by vagus nerve d) All of the above
173. Which of the following statements are correct 179. During depolarization, the outer surface of the
membrane becomes
for iris?
a) Negatively charged b) Positively charged
I. The ciliary body extends forward to form iris
c) Neutrally charged d) None of these
II. It is pigmented and opaque structure
180. Structurally what are olfactory nerve cells?
III. It is the visible coloured portion of the eye
a) Multipolar neurons
Choose the correct option
a) I and II b) I and III b) Unipolar neurons
c) II and III d) I, II and III c) Neurochemically specialized neurons
174. Which part of the human brain controls the d) Bipolar neurons
urge for eating and drinking? 181. The light sticking the retina generates nerve
a) Forebrain b) Midbrain impulse. Which of the following options
c) Hindbrain d) Spinal cord correctly describes the path of light?
175. The velocity of action potential a) Photosensory cells b) Sensory nerves →
→ Bipolar neurons Bipolar neurons →
propagation → Ganglionic cells → Ganglionic cells →
a) Is independent of an axon’s diameter Sensory nerves Photosensory cells
b) Depends on the thickness of the myelin c) Sensory nerves → d) Photosensory cells →
around the axon Ganglionic cells → Ganglionic cells →
Bipolar neurons → Bipolar neurons →
c) Will be unaffected if the axon becomes
Photosensory cells Sensory nerves
demyelinated

P a g e | 13
 Wardhaman Nagar / Sakkardara / Manewada

AMAIRA STUDENT FORUM

THE COACHING INSTITUTE
www.ajstudentforum.co.in
NEET
Date : 02-12-2024 TEST ID: 426
Time : 04:30:00
Marks : 720
11th - 12th PCB

: ANSWER KEY :
88) b 89) b 90) b
91) b,c,d
PHYSICS
BIOLOGY
1) b 2) c 3) b
4) c 5) d 6) a 92) d 93) d 94) a
7) d 8) b 9) a 95) d 96) b 97) c
10) c 11) d 12) b 98) a 99) b 100) b
13) b 14) c 15) c 101) c 102) d 103) a
16) a 17) a 18) a 104) b 105) d 106) d
19) c 20) b 21) c 107) a 108) a 109) d
22) b 23) b 24) a 110) b 111) a 112) a
25) b 26) a 27) d 113) c 114) d 115) b
28) b 29) a 30) a 116) d 117) d 118) d
31) d 32) c 33) b 119) c 120) a 121) c
34) c 35) a 36) c 122) c 123) d 124) a
37) b 38) d 39) a 125) d 126) b 127) c
40) a 41) a 42) c 128) b 129) b 130) c
43) d 44) d 45) c 131) a 132) b 133) b
134) a 135) b 136) a
CHEMISTRY 137) a 138) b 139) d
140) a 141) a 142) c
46) d 47) a 48) d 143) a 144) c 145) c
49) c 50) a 51) d 146) b 147) d 148) c
52) b 53) a 54) c 149) a 150) d 151) a
55) d 56) c 57) c 152) a 153) a 154) d
58) b 59) d 60) a 155) c 156) a 157) d
61) b 62) c 63) b 158) d 159) a 160) d
64) b 65) a 66) d 161) c 162) c 163) d
67) b 68) a 69) a 164) a 165) a 166) a
70) a 71) a 72) c 167) b 168) a 169) a
73) c 74) c 75) a 170) b 171) b 172) a
76) a 77) b 78) a 173) d 174) a 175) b
79) c 80) b 81) a 176) c 177) a 178) b
82) c 83) b 84) b 179) a 180) d 181) c
85) a 86) c 87) d

P a g e | 14
 Wardhaman Nagar / Sakkardara / Manewada

AMAIRA STUDENT FORUM

THE COACHING INSTITUTE
www.ajstudentforum.co.in
NEET
Date : 02-12-2024 TEST ID: 426
Time : 04:30:00
Marks : 720
11th - 12th PCB

: HINTS AND SOLUTIONS :

PHYSICS
Single Correct Answer Type 6 (a)
1 (b) When wire is stretched to doubled its length,
𝑉 2 𝑃1 𝑅2 6 4 2 its resistance becomes four times
𝑃= ⇒ = ⇒ = = ⇒ 𝑃2 = 9 𝑊
𝑅 𝑃2 𝑅1 𝑃2 6 3
7 (d)
2 (c)
At an instant approach the student will choose
Chemical energy consumed per sec = heat
tan 𝜃 will be the right answer. But it is to be
energy produced per sec.
seen here the curve makes the angle 𝜃 with the
𝐼 2 (𝑅 + 𝑟) = (0.2)2 (21 + 4) = 1 J s −1
𝑉-axis. So it makes an angle (90 − 𝜃) with the
3 (b)
1 𝑃1 𝑅2 200 𝑅2 𝑖-axis
𝑃∝ ⇒ = ⇒ = ⇒ 𝑅2 = 2𝑅1 So resistance = slope = tan(90 − 𝜃) = cot 𝜃
𝑅 𝑃2 𝑅1 100 𝑅1
4 (c) 8 (b)
Electroplating only provides a thin deposition Resistance of combination 𝑅𝑒 = 4𝑅
∆𝑅𝑒 ∆𝑅
of a metal on the surface which in no way can =
𝑅𝑒 𝑅
give hardness to the metal
5 × 100
5 (d) = = 5%
100
Full scale deflection current
9 (a)
150
= mA = 15mA All the conductors have equal lengths. Area of
10 2 2
Ig R G cross-section of 𝐴 is {(√3𝑎) − (√2𝑎) } = 𝑎2
Similarly area of cross-section of 𝐵 = Area of
| V | cross-section of 𝐶 = 𝑎2
𝑙
Hence according to formula 𝑅 = 𝜌 ;
Full scale deflection voltage 𝐴
150 resistances of all the conductors are equal
= mV = 75mV 𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑅𝐴 = 𝑅𝐵 = 𝑅𝐶
2
Galvanometer resistance 10 (c)
75mV 𝑞 4
G= = 5Ω 𝑖 = = = 2 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒
15mA 𝑡 2
Required full scale deflection voltage. 11 (d)
𝑉 = 1 × 150 = 150 volt When the two coils are joined in series such
Let resistance to be connected in series is R. that the winding of one is opposite to the other,
⟹ 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑔 (𝑅 + 𝐺) then the emf produced in first coil is 180° out
∴ 150 = 15 × 10−3 (𝑅 + 5) of phase of the emf produced in second coil.
⟹ 104 = 𝑅 + 5 Thus, emf produced in first coil is negative and
⟹ 𝑅 = 10000 − 5 = 9995 the emf produced in second coil is positive, so
net inductance is
P a g e | 15
 𝐿 = 𝐿1 + 𝐿2 = 𝐿 + 𝐿 The magnetic flux linked with the primary coil
From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic is given by
induction ϕ = ϕ0 + 4𝑡
ϕ = 𝐿𝑖, where ϕ is flux and 𝑖 the current So, voltage across primary
ϕ ϕ 𝑑ϕ 𝑑
∴ 𝐿=− + 𝑉𝑃 = = (ϕ + 4𝑡)
𝑖 𝑖 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
⇒ 𝐿=0 = 4 V(as ϕ0 = constant)
12 (b) Also, we have
For 𝑟 ≥ 𝑎, ∮ 𝐸⃗ 𝑑 𝐼 𝑁𝑃 = 50 and 𝑁𝑆 = 1500
𝑑𝜙 𝑑𝐵 From relation,
= | |=𝐴 | | 𝑉𝑆 𝑁𝑆
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 =
𝑑𝐵 𝑎 𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑃
𝐸(2𝜋𝑟) = 𝜋𝑎2 | 𝑑𝑡 | 2
𝑁 1500
𝑎2 𝑑𝐵 Or 𝑉𝑆 = 𝑉𝑃 𝑁𝑆 = 4 ( 50
) = 120V
𝑃
𝐸= | |
2𝑟 𝑑𝑡 21 (c)
𝑒
𝜂= × 100 ⇒ 𝑒 = 0.3 𝐸
𝐸
𝐸−𝑒 50−(0.3×50)
Now, 𝑖 = 𝑅 ⇒ 12 = 𝑅
⇒ 𝑅 = 2.9Ω
22 (b)
𝑁 𝑁
1
𝑞= ϕ = (𝐵𝐴)
∴ Induced electric filed, 𝐸 ∝ 𝑅 𝑅
𝑟 𝑞𝑅 2 × 10−4 × 80
13 (b) ⇒𝐵= = = 1Wbm−2
𝑁𝐴 40 × 4 × 10−4
𝑁𝑠 𝑉𝑠 22000
= = = 100 24 (a)
𝑁𝑝 𝑉𝑝 220 From right hand thumb rule, the magnetic field
14 (c) passing through the loop due to the current 𝑖
By using Kirchhoff’s voltage law will be perpendicular to the plane of the page
𝑑𝑖 pointing downwards. The direction of current
𝑉𝐴 − 𝑖 𝑅 + 𝐸 − 𝐿 = 𝑉𝐵 ⇒ 𝑉𝐵 − 𝑉𝐴 = 15 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
𝑑𝑡 in the loop will be such as to oppose the
1 15 V 5mH
A B increase of this field (Lenz’s law), hence
15 (c) direction of induced current in the loop is
As 𝐿 corresponds to 𝑚 and 𝑣 corresponds to anticlockwise.
current 𝑖
∴ 𝑚𝑣 → 𝐿 × i.
17 (a)
𝐵𝑣𝑙
Induced current in the circuit 𝑖 = 𝑅
Magnetic force acting on the wire 𝐹𝑚 = 𝐵𝑖𝑙 = 25 (b)
𝐵𝑣𝑙 −𝑑𝜙 −𝑁𝐵𝐴(cos 0° − cos180°)
𝐵( 𝑅 )𝑙 𝑒= =
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝐵2 𝑣𝑙 2 2 𝑁𝐵𝐴 2×1000×0.6×10−4 ×0.05
⇒ 𝐹𝑚 = 𝑅
. External force needed to move = =
𝑑𝑡 0.1
the rod with constant velocity = 0.06 V
𝐵2 𝑣𝑙 2 (0.15)2 × (2) × (0.5)2 26 (a)
(𝐹𝑚 ) = =
𝑅 3 The current in a coil is given by
= 3.75 × 10−3 𝑁
𝑖 = 𝑖0 𝑒 −𝑡/𝜏
18 (a) 𝑖0
Now, 𝑖 = 𝑖𝑛 𝑡 = 𝑡0
𝑞𝜙 𝑁𝐴(𝐵2 − 𝐵1 ) 𝑁 𝜋𝑟 2 (𝐵2 − 𝐵1 ) 𝜂
𝑞= = = 𝑖0
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 ∴ 𝜂
= 𝑖0 𝑒 −𝑡0 /𝜏
1000×𝜋×10−4 ×(0.012−0)
= (200+400) 𝑒 −𝑡0 /𝜏
= 𝜂 −1
−6 Taking log of both sides,
= 6.3 × 10 𝐶. = 6.3 𝜇𝐶
20 (b) −
𝑡0
log 𝑒 𝑒 = −1 log 𝑒 𝜂
𝜏

P a g e | 16
 𝑡0
= log 𝑒 𝜂 1 (given)
𝜏
Therefore, circuit is purely resistive, ie, it
𝜏 = 𝑡0 / log 𝑒 𝜂 = 𝑡0 /In𝜂
contains only resistance. This is the condition
27 (d)
of resonance in which
𝑍 2 = 𝑅 2 + (2𝜋𝑓𝐿)2
0.4 2
𝑋𝐿 = 𝑋𝐶
= (30)2 + (2𝜋 × 50 × ) 4𝑅 4 110 440
𝜋 ∴ 𝑋𝐶 = 3
=3 × 3
= 9
Ω [From Eq.
= (900 + 1600) = 2500 (i)]
or 𝑍 = 50 Ω 1 440
𝑉 200 2𝜋𝑓𝐶
= 9
Ω
Also, 𝐼= 𝑍
= 50
=4A
9
28 (b) 𝐶 = 2×3.14×60×440
In parallel resonant circuit, resonance = 54 𝜇F
frequency 34 (c)
1 200
𝑓0 = 2𝜋 𝑋𝐿 2𝜋𝑣𝐿 2𝜋 × 2𝜋 × 1
√𝐿𝐶 tan 𝜙 = = = =1⇒𝜙
1 𝑅 𝑅 200
=
2𝜋√
10×10−3
×0.04×10−6
= 45°
𝜋2
104
35 (a)
= 2×0.2 = 25 kHz If the current is wattles then power is zero.
30 (a) Hence phase difference 𝜙 = 90°
This is a parallel circuit, For oscillation, the 36 (c)
energy in 𝐿 and 𝐶 will be alternately maximum 𝜔𝐿 2𝜋 × 50 × 0.21
tan 𝜙 = = = 5.5 ⇒ 𝜙 = 80°
31 (d) 𝑅 12
Current, 𝑖 =
𝑉 37 (b)
√𝑅2 +𝑋𝐶2 𝑍 = √𝑅 2 + 𝑋 2 = √42 + 32 = 5
If a dielectric is introduced into the gap 𝑅 3
∴ cos 𝜙 = = = 0.6
between the plates of capacitor. Its capacitance 𝑍 5
will increase and hence, impedance of the 38 (d)
circuit will decrease. Thus, current and hence 𝑋𝐿 50
𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑣 𝐿 ⇒ 𝐿 = =
brightness of the bulb increase. 2𝜋𝑣 2 × 3.14 × 50
= 0.16 𝐻
32 (c)
39 (a)
As 𝐵0 = 𝜇0 𝑛𝑖, therefore 𝐵0 does not depend
In the rotation of magnet, 𝑁 pole moves closer
upon radius (𝑟) of the solenoid.
to coil 𝐶𝐷 and 𝑆 pole moves closer to coil 𝐴𝐵.
33 (b)
As per Lenz’s law, 𝑁 pole should develop at the
Ist case From formula
𝑉2
end corresponding to 𝐶. Induced current flows
𝑅= 𝑃 from 𝐶 𝑡𝑜 𝐷. Again 𝑆 pole should develop at
110×110 110
= 330 = Ω the end corresponding to 𝐵. Therefore,
3
Since, current lags the voltage thus, the circuit induced current in the coil flows from 𝐴 to 𝐵.
contains resistance and inductance. 41 (a)
𝑅
Power factorcos 𝜙 = 0.6 cos 𝜙 = 𝑍 . In choke coil 𝜙 = 90° so cos 𝜙 ≈ 0
𝑅
= 0.6 42 (c)
√𝑅2 +𝑋𝐿2 (i) In a circuit having C alone, the voltage lags
𝜋
𝑅 2 the current by .
⇒ 𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝐿2 = ( ) 2
0.6 (ii) In a circuit containing R and L, the voltage
𝑅2 𝜋
leads the current by 2 .
⇒ 𝑋𝐿2 = − 𝑅2
(0.6)2
(iii) In L – C circuit, the phase difference
𝑅 2 × 0.64
⇒ 𝑋𝐿2 = between current and voltage can have any
0.36 𝜋
0.8 𝑅 4𝑅 value between 0 to 2 depending on the
∴ 𝑋𝐿 = 0.6 = 3 …(i)
values of L and C.
IInd case
(iv) In a circuit containing L alone, the voltage
Now cos 𝜙 =
P a g e | 17
 𝜋 22
leads the current by . 𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑣 𝐿 = 2 × × 50 × 25 × 10−3 Ω
2
43 (d) 7
1 The 𝑟𝑚𝑠 current in the circuit is
Brightness ∝ 𝑃consumed ∝ . For bulb, 𝑅𝑎𝑐 = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 220
𝑅
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = = 22
𝑅𝑑𝑐 , so brightness will be equal in both the 𝑋𝐿 2 × × 50 × 25 × 10−3
7
cases 7 × 1000
44 (d) = 𝐴 = 28 𝐴
2 × 5 × 25
𝑃 = 𝑉𝑖 cos 𝜙
𝜋
Phase difference 𝜙 = 2 ⇒ 𝑃 = zero
45 (c)
Here, 𝐿 = 25 𝑚𝐻 = 25 × 10−3 𝐻
𝑣 = 50 𝐻𝑧, 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 220 𝑉
The inductive reactance is

CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Answer Type ammoniacal silver nitrate solution.
46 (d) Among the given, CH3 − C ≡ CH − CH3 is not
CH2 = CH— CH = CH2 ; 𝑠𝑝2 − 𝑠𝑝2 (C — C)bond a terminal alkyne. Thus, it does not give
length is 1.34 Å precipitate with ammoniacal AgNO3 .
1 2 3 4 59 (d)
50 (a)
∆
Methyl iodide and ethyl iodide, on treatment
3C2 H6 → C6 H6 + 3H2 ; the reaction is called with sodium in ethereal solution, give a
aromatisation. mixture of propane, ethane and butane, as
51 (d) follows
B.p. increases with increase in mol. Wt.
CH3 I + 2Na + I − CH2 CH3
52 (b)
Ether
Rest all are aromatic compounds. → CH3 CH2 CH3 + 2NaI
54 (c) Propane
(i)Among alkanes boiling point increases with CH3 I + 2Na + I − CH3 → CH3 − CH3 + 2NaI
increase in molecular mass. ethane
(ii)Among isomeric alkanes the boiling point C2 H5 I + 2Na + I − C2 H5 → C2 H5 C2 H5 + 2NaI
decreases with branching due to decrease in butane
surface area. 60 (a)
𝑛-octane will have highest boiling point Alkenes show electrophilic addition.
because it has highest number of carbon 61 (b)
atoms and does not show branching. CCl3 NO2 is chloropicrin used as tear gas.
55 (d) 62 (c)
CH3 CH2 COOH + NaHCO3 Iodoform test is given by only those compounds
⟶ CH3 CH2 COONa + H2 O + CO2 which conatain either
56 (c) CH3 C = O or CH3 CH − OH group
Follow text. | |
57 (c) (a) CH3 CH − OH (b) CH3 CH − OH
Due to resonance, benzene is quite stable and | |
inspite of three double bonds does not H CH3
decolourise Br2 water. ethyl alcohol propanol-2
(c) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH (c) CH3 − C = O
58 (b)
Propanol-1 |
Only terminal alkynes give precipitate with H

P a g e | 18
 ethanal 67 (b)
Hence, propanal-1 due to absence of above given Chloroform is oxidised to a poisonous gas,
groups, does not give positive iodoform test. phosgene (COCl2 ) by atmospheric oxidation.
63 (b) CHCl3 + O → COCl2 + HCl
ZnCl2
C2 H5 OH + HCl → C2 H5 Cl 69 (a)
64 (b) CH3 I + 6Ag + I3 HC ⟶ C2 H2 + 6Ag𝑋
This is the preparation method of DDT (dichloro 70 (a)
diphenyl trichloroethane). Tertiary halide preferentially undergo SN 1
substitution as they can give stable carbocation.
CH3
|
Slow +OH−
H3 C − C − Cl → (H3 C)3 C+ → (H3 C)3 COH
−Cl fast
| carbocation t-butyl alcohol
CH3
t-butyl chloride
71 (a)
𝑛-butyl alcohol (CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 OH) does not
give iodoform test because it does not possess the
CH3 CO − or CH3 CHOH group.
72 (c)
Iodoform test is given by those compounds which
has
CH3 − C − C/H or CH3 − CH − units.
∥ |
65 (a) O OH
The product (K) is formed through simple
Hence, this test is not given by phenol
substitution while major product (L) is formed
(C6 H5 − OH).
through H − shift 𝑣𝑖𝑎 SN 1 reaction and methoxy
group stabilizes the carbocation intermediate of 73 (c)
product (L). Fe/H2 O(v)
CCl4 + [H] → CHCl3
74 (c)
𝑅— I > 𝑅— Br > 𝑅— Cl > 𝑅— F; reactivity order
due to halogen atom.
3 ͦ > 2 ͦ > 1 ͦ; reactivity order due to alkyl group.
75 (a)
C2 H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2 O
28 g 96 g
∵ The weight of oxygen required for complete
combustion of 28 g ethylene=96 g.
∴ Weight of oxygen required for combustion of
66 (d) 2.8 kg ethylene
96×2.8×1000
For positive iodoform test, alcohol molecule must = 28×1000 kg=9.6 kg
have 76 (a)
CH3 − CH − group. 1
𝑛Mg = 24 = 0.0416
| 0.56
OH 𝑛O2 = 32 = 0.0175 moles
I2 +NaOH The balanced equation is
Ph − CH − CH3 → CHI3 + Ph − COO− 1
| Mg + O ⟶ MgO
Initial 0.0416 2 2 0
Final (0.0416 − 2 × 0.0175) 0.0175 moles
OH 0 2 × 0.0175

P a g e | 19
 = 0.0066 moles (O2 is limiting reagent.) ∴ 9 × 𝑛 + 35.5𝑛 = 132
∴ Mass of Mg left in excess = 0.0066 × 24 = 0.16 g ∴ 𝑛≈3
77 (b) ∴ At. wt. of metal = 27
Millimoles of solution of chloride 87 (d)
= 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the
Millimoles of AgNO3 solution = 10 × 0.1 = 1 following equation.
So, the millimoles of AgNO3 are double than the 2MnO− 2−
4 + 5C2 O4 + 16H
+

chloride solution. → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2 O

∴ 𝑋Cl2 + 2AgNO3 → 2AgCl + 𝑋(NO3 )2 Eq. mass of KMnO4 =
mol.mass
7−2
78 (a)
𝑁KMnO4 = 5 ×molarity=5 × 10−4
Ag 2 CO3 ⟶ 2Ag + CO2 + (1/2)O2 mol. mass mol. mass
79 (c) Eq. mass of C2 O2− 4 = 2(4−3) = 2
Victor meyer’s method is used for volatile 𝑁C2 O2− = 2 × molarity=2 × 10 −2
4
substances. 𝑁1 𝑉1 = 𝑁2 𝑉2
80 (b) 5 × 10−4 × 𝑉1 = 2 × 10−2 × 0.5
The compound is C4 H8 O2 ; 2 × 10−2 × 0.5
Mol. wt. = 88 𝑉 1 = = 20 L
5 × 10−4
∴ Vapour density = 44 88 (b)
81 (a) 100 mL of 1 M AgNO3 ≡ 0.1 mol AgNO3
Ferrous is Fe2+ 100 mL of 1 M CuSO4 = 0.1 mol CuSO4
82 (c) 2AgNO3 + H2 S → Ag 2 S + 2HNO3
9 + 1 + 3.5 = 13.5 2 mol 1 mol
9 0.1 mol 0.05 mol
∵ 13.5 g contains mole carbon
12
CuSO4 + H2 S → CuS + H2 SO4
 Formula is C6 H8 N2 1 mol 1 mol
83 (b) 0.1 mol 0.1 mol
1000 g H2 O = 1000 cm3 H2 O ∴ Ratio of the amounts of H2 S
1000
mole H2 O = 1000 cm3 H2 O needed=0.05:0.1=1:2
18
1000 89 (b)
× 6.023 × 1023 molecule of H2 O =
18 4.6 × 1022 atoms weight =13.8 g
1000 cm3 H2 O Hence, 6.02 × 1023 atoms will weigh
 1 molecule of H2 O = 3 × 10−23 cm3 13.8×6.02×1023
84 (b) =→ = 108.6 g (molar mass)
4.6×1022
Meq. of acid. Meq. of NaOH
0.52 90 (b)
× 1000 = 100 × 0.1 𝑝O2 = 𝑃total × O = (moles fraction of O2 )
𝐸 2
∴ 𝐸 = 52 𝑛O 2
𝜒O2 =
85 (a) 𝑛O2 + 𝑛N2 + 𝑛CO2
2Ag 2 CO3 →
∆
4 Ag + 2CO2 + O2 0.76 × 1020 0.76
𝜒O2 = 20
=
2 × 276 g 4 × 108 g (𝑠) (0.76 + 0.50 + 6.08) × 10 7.34
0.76
∵ 2 × 276 g of Ag 2 CO3 gives=4 × 108 g Ag 𝑝O2 = Ptotal × O = 734 ×
4×108 2 7.34
∴ 1 g of Ag 2 CO3 gives= 2×276 = 76.0 mm of Hg
4×108×2.76
∴ 276 g of Ag 2 CO3 gives= Multiple Correct Answers Type
2×276
=2.16 g
86 (c)
Mol. wt. of chloride = 66 × 2 = 132
Let metal chloride be 𝑀Cl𝑛
Eq. of metal = Eq. of O
53 47
∴ 𝐸
= 8
∴ 𝐸=9

P a g e | 20
9 (b,c,d)
1 (a) Products would be:

Due to stabilization of carbonium ion

b. Same explanation as in (a), the product would

be a mixture of (I) and (II)

Products would be a mixture of (I) and (b),(c),

(d) would produce stable carbonium

ion and would yield 100% of cumene

BIOLOGY
Single Correct Answer Type
92 (d) anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the
All of the above. immune response. Cortisol stimulates the RBC
The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very production
important peptide hormone called Atrial 94 (a)
Natriuretic Factor (ANF), which is peptide in Gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP), also known
nature. ANF decreases blood pressure. When as the glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide
blood pressure is increased, ANF is secreted is a member of the secretin family of hormones. It
which causes dilation of the blood vessels. This has traditionally been called gastrointestinal
reduces the blood pressure inhibitory peptide or gastric inhibitory peptide
93 (d) and was believed to neutralise stomach acid to
Cortisol is involved in maintaining the protect the small intestine from acid damage,
cardiovascular system as well as kidney function. reduce the rate at which food is transferred
Glucocorticoids, particularly cortisol, produces through the stomach and inhibit the GI motility

P a g e | 21
 and secretion of acid 105 (d)
95 (d) Most of the trophic (𝑇𝑟𝑜𝑝ℎ𝑒 = nourishment)
ADH (antidiuretic hormone) or vasopressin hormones are secreted by anterior lobe of
hormone is produced by hypothalamic pituitary.
neurosecretory cells and released into posterior Gonadotrophins or gonadotrophic hormones are
pituitary gland. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder, those which stimulates the gonads (testes and
which develops due to inability of person to ovaries), 𝑒. 𝑔., FSH and LH. Follicle stimulating
secrete ADH. hormone (FSH) stimulates growth of ovarian
96 (b) follicles and the secretion of oestrogen in the
A-iodine, B-hypothyroidism, C-goitre female and spermatogenesis (formation of
97 (c) sperms) in the male. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Melatonin stimulates corpus luteum of the ovary to secrete
98 (a) progesterone in the females. In male, it activates
Cholecystokinin and duocrinin are secreted by the Leydig’s (interstitial) cells of testis to secrete
intestine. It stimulates pancreas to release androgens.
enzymes in pancreatic juice and stimulates gall 106 (d)
bladder to release bile. Duocrinin causes release A-agonist, B-antagonist
of viscous mucus from Brunner’s glands into 108 (a)
intestinal juice. Syngamy is the fusion of gametes, 𝑖. 𝑒, the union of
99 (b) nuclei of male gamete and female gamete in the
In 1912, Gudernatsch discovered that process of reproduction. In angiosperms,
metamorphosis in frog’s tadpole is increased by generative fertilization is also called, syngamy.
the thyroxine hormone which has the iodine as 109 (d)
the main constituent. If thyroxine or iodine in The wall layers of a microsporangium from
added in water having tadpoles in it, then it outermost to innermost are: epidermis,
increases the rate of metamorphosis in tadpole. endothecium, middle layers and tapetum. The
100 (b) first three layers generally provide protection and
Posterior lobe of pituitary gland does not secrete help in dehiscence of anther. Tapetum performs
any hormone. Its hormones are synthesised by nutritive function for pollen grains.
the hypothalamus. It only stores and releases 110 (b)
these hormones. Hence, it cannot be considered In the pollen grains of an insect pollinated plant,
as true gland. the exine is covered by a yellowish. Viscous, sticky
101 (c) and oily layer called pollen Kitt. It is made up of
Adrenal gland is also called 4S gland and 3F gland lipids and carotenoids. Pollen Kitt is secreted by
tapetum.
111 (a)
Both Bryophyllum and kalanchoe are propagated
by leaf pieces.
102 (d) 112 (a)
Cystic duct transports insulin and glucagon to In embryo sac-synergids, egg cells, antipodal cells
target organ. all are haploid because they are formed by mitotic
103 (a) division in haploid megaspore cell
A-adrenal gland, B-Fat, C-Kidney, D-Adrenal 113 (c)
cortex, E-Adrenal medulla Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
104 (b) represented by embryo sac. The polygonum type
All steroid hormones are made up of cholesterol of embryo sac contains 8-nuclei and 7-cells. It is
which is a lipid derivative, synthesized in the liver found in more than 80% plant families. The
cells. These hormones are lipid soluble. The effect nucleus of megaspore undergoes division and give
of these hormone is slow but it lasts longer, e.g., rise to embryosac or female gametophyte by the
corticotrophin aldosterone, testosterone, process of megagametogenesis.
oestrogen, progesterone, etc. 114 (d)
P a g e | 22
 In 𝑃𝑜𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑒𝑡𝑡𝑖𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸𝑢𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑎, inflorescence is New plantlets in potato and sugarcane arise from
cyathium, in which involucre fuse to form a cup bud on stem. Tubers have buds over their nodes
surrounding a large achlamydous, pedicellate, or eyes. The buds produce new plantlets when a
tricarpellary, syncarpous female flower. stem tuber or a part of it having a node is placed
Numerous centrifugally arranged male flowers in the soil. Sugarcane is propagated by planting
surround the female flower.numerous segments of stems having at-least one node.
centrifugally arranged male flowers surround the 124 (a)
female flower. Chromosome number in meiocyte (2 n) of onion
In 𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑎,cylindrical phylloclades are found cell is 32 , while chromosome number in gamete
which are modified aerial stems. Flowers are (n) is 16
unisexual which develop acropetally and pollen 125 (d)
tube enters the ovule through chalazal Clone is a population of genetically identical
tissues, 𝑖. 𝑒., chalazogamy. organisms or cells derived from an original single
116 (d) organism of cell by asexual reproduction.
Mature endosperm with any degree of irregularity 127 (c)
and unevenness in its surface contour is called In cell division the cell divides into two parts
ruminate endosperm. It is known to occur In having same genetic constituent. Only Monera and
about 32 families of angiosperms. In family- Protista are the organisms, which are single celled
Annonaceae, the ruminate endosperm is found. in five kingdom of classification.
117 (d) That’s why cell division is the common mode of
Leaves of many plants have adventitious buds reproduction in Monera and Protista
that help in vegetative propagation, e.g., Begonia, 128 (b)
Bryophyllum, Adiantum, etc. In Bryophyllum False Gemmule formation is the type of
daigremontianum, buds develop on the marginal reproduction in which the buds are formed with
notches of intact leaves which form plantlets even in the parent body, 𝑒. 𝑔., Sponge
when the leaves are still attached to parent plant.
This phenomenon is often referred to as
viviparity.
119 (c)
Gamete mother cells are called gamete producing
cells. In these the meiotic cell division takes place.
Hence, they are also called meiocytes
129 (b)
120 (a)
Corms are the unbranched rounded underground
Presence of diploid zygote is universal in all
stems. They buds for daughter plants. Axillary
sexually reproducing organism. Irrespective of
buds occur at places. Their base contains a
the fact that, the parents are haploid or diploid.
number of adventitious roots
In haploid parent condition, the diploid zygote
undergoes meiosis and become haploid body
again, while in diploid organisms, the diploid
zygote changes to diploid individual after
undergoing mitosis
122 (c)
Water hyacinth consumes oxygen from water and
decreases its O2 content.
‘Terror of Bengal’ is the aquatic plant (water
hyacinth) introduced in Bengal for its beautiful 130 (c)
leaves and flower. But it grows very faste and Ant, aphids, cockroaches are unisexual only
consumes O2 from water. earthworm have both the sexes (hermaphrodite)
Due to which lot of fish died. That’s why it was 131 (a)
called Terror of Bengal Apomixis (GK. apo-without, mixis-mixing) is a
123 (d)
P a g e | 23
 mode of reproduction which does not involve vascular clotting. Therefore, they are not
formation of zygote through gametic fusion. recommended for women with a history of
Apomixis, is thus asexual reproduction. disorders of blood clotting, careful blood vessel
Parthenogenesis (Gk. parthenos - virgin, genesis - damage, hypertension, liver malfunction, heart
produce) refers to development of an egg/ovum disease or cancer of the breast or reproductive
into a complete individual without fertilization. system
132 (b) 150 (d)
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, the Mode of Infection (MOI) of AIDS and hepatitis are
oestrogen secretion does not decrease further. same and both are also incurable also
133 (b) 151 (a)
Mucous (jelly –like) connective tissue is present ‘Hum do Humare Do’ slogan encourages family
mostly in embryos with Whartorn’s jelly (highly planning.
gelatinous) as the ground substance. The tissue is With 1.7% of the growth rate. India’s population
common in umbilical cord, cock’s comb and could double in 33 years. Such an alarming
viterous body of eye ball. growth rate could lead to an absolute scarcity of
even the basic requirement. Therefore, the
135 (b) government was forced to take up serious
Parthenogenesis refers to the development of measures to check the population growth.
unfertilized ovum into a new individual. In honey The most important step to overcome this
bee, drones develop parthenogenetically. problem is to motivate smaller families by using
137 (a) various contraceptive methods. You might have
Regeneration of tail in lizards is an example of seen advertisements in the media as well as
epimorphosis. Epimorphosis takes place by the posters/bills, etc., showing a happy couple with
proliferation of the new tissue cell from the two children with a slogan Hum Do Humare Do
surface of wound. (we two, our two).
138 (b) Many couples, mostly the young, urban, working
A-seminal vesicles; B-urethra ones have even adopted ‘one child norm’.
140 (a) Statutory raising of marriageable age of the
To produce test tube baby, the egg fertilized female to 18 years and that of males to 21 years
outside the human body, is placed in the womb of and incentives given to couples with small
the mother, where the gastrula period is families are two of the other measures taken to
completed. tackle this problem
141 (a) 152 (a)
A mature ovarian follicle is called Graafian follicle. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in
It contains follicular cells, an antrum, and an which autoantibodies bind to cholinergic
oocyte. After ovulation, the empty Graafian follicle receptors on muscle cells and impairs the ability
shows deposition of leutin and forms corpus of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to induce
luteum that ultimately degenerates. muscular contraction. This leads to fatigue,
142 (c) weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles of
ICSI is intra cytoplasmic sperm injection. In ICSI, mouth and throat which may prevent normal
sperm is directly injected into ovum, in vitro to swallowing. Gouty arthritis is caused either due to
form zygote, which is later implanted through excessive formation of uric acid or inability to
ZIFT into woman. excrete it. It gets deposited in synovial joints and
144 (c) causes inflammation. Osteoporosis is a disease in
Bacterial STDs are which bone loses minerals and fibres from its
Diseases Pathogens matrix. Major causative factors of osteoporosis
Syphilis – Treponema pallidum are imbalances of hormones like calcitonin of
Gonorrhea – Neisseria gonorrhea thyroid, parathormone of parathyroids, sex
Chancroid – Haemophilus ducrey hormones and deficiencies of calcium and vitamin
147 (d) D. Muscular dystrophy is inborn abnormally of
Oral contraceptive pills increases the risk of intra muscles associated with dysfunction and
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 ultimately with deterioration. 165 (a)
153 (a) Bones become fragile in osteoporosis, 𝑖. 𝑒.,
A myofibril has dark and light bands. The dark reduction in bone tissue mass causing weakness
bands are called A bands (Anisotropic bands). of skeletal strength. It is characterized by pain in
Light bands are called I bands (Isotropic bands). the bone, specifically in the back and vertebral
154 (d)
crush, usually in weight bearing vertebrae.
All of the above
166 (a)
155 (c)
Muscle contraction is brought about by sliding
The centrum of 8th vertebra of frog is movement of actin filaments over myosin
amphicoelous, 𝑖. 𝑒., concave at both ends. Its filaments. When a muscle fibril contracts, its A
transverse processes are somewhat narrower, band remains constant and I band shortens. H
pointed and directed straight outwards. The zone also disappears as the actin filaments of both
neural spine is somewhat flattened and directed sides in each sarcomere overlap each other at M-
line. M-line and Z-line also come closer.
upwards.
167 (b)
156 (a)
Cerebellum consists of two lateral cerebellar
Sacral and coccygeal (caudal) vertebrae are fused
hemispheres. A cross section of cerebellar
vertebrae in human beings
Sacral vertebrae First five sacral vertebrae gets hemisphere shows a branching tree-like
fused to form sacrum. It is a strong and short arrangement of grey and white matter called
supporting pelvic girdle as it (sacrum) articulates the arbor vitae. It is the second largest part of
with the ilium of pelvic girdle brain. It helps control body posture,
Caudal or coccygeal vertebrae Mainly 3 to 4 maintenance of muscle tone, coordinate
caudal vertebrae gets fused to form a small voluntary muscular activties and equilibrium
triangular bone called coccyx. It is the vestigial tail of body.
in humans 168 (a)
157 (d) Frog has 10 pairs of cranial nerves, while man
Volkmann’s canals are found in long bones of
has 12 pairs.
mammals. These are transverse canals and
169 (a)
connecting to Haversian canals.
I – True, II – true, III – false, IV – false.
158 (d)
Haversian canals are longitudinal canals present Neuroglial cells are the packing and supporting
in long bones of mammals. Lymph vessels and cells found in brain and spinal cord. They are of
blood vessels are present in bones. so, Haversian three types, i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and
canals, blood vessels and jymph vessels are microglia
present in bones but absent in cartilage.
159 (a) Astrocytes are responsible for separation of two
Stapes, one of the ear ossicles, is the smallest bone neurons by insulation. Oligodendrocytes are a
in human body. category of glial cells that form myelin sheath
161 (c) around the axon
Muscular dystrophy is a group of muscle diseases,
marked by weakness and wasting of skeletal Microglia are phagocytic as well as scavengers.
muscles, in which there is a recognizable pattern They engulf microbes and cellular debris. Nearly
of inheritance. In this disorder, the mutated gene 50% of all brain cells are neuroglia
on middle of the short arm of X-chromosome is
unable to produce a protein dystrophin in skeletal Schwann cells are the neuroglial cell, which are
muscles. It is common in males, female present in PNS
heterozygous carries are normal
163 (d) 170 (b)
(i) Non-striated muscles are involuntary. They Preganglionic nerve fibres of III
don’t obey according to our like heart muscles (oculomotor), VII (facial), IX
(ii) Microfilament are involved in the movement (glossopharyngeal) and X (vagus) cranial
of Amoeba and ciliatory protist
nerves are a part of parasympathetic nervous
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 system. V, VII, IX and X cranial nerves are which contains a derivative of vitamin-A. In
mixed nerves. human eye, there are three types of cones which
171 (b) possess their own characteristic photopigments
White. that respond to red, green and blue lights. The
Both (a) and (b), i.e., cones and rods sensations of different colours are produced by
172 (a) various combinations of these cones and their
Vagus nerve is a mixed cranial nerve controlling photopigments. When these cones are stimulated
much of the gut, ventilatory system and heart. It equally, a sensation of white light is produced
do not affects tongue movements. Tongue 178 (b)
movements are controlled by glossopharyngeal To increases the efficiency of transmission of
nerve sound waves to the inner ear.
173 (d) The middle ear contains three ossicles called
I, II and III. malleus, incus and stapes, which are attached to
Choroid infront from ciliary body, which is thick one another in a chain-like fashion. The malleus is
round and referred. It is hidden by iris (coloured attached to the tympanic membrane and the
membrane) stapes is attached to the oval window of the
174 (a) cochlea. The ear ossicles increase the efficiency of
Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain that controls transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. An
the urge for eating and drinking. Eustachian tube connects the middle ear cavity
175 (b) with the pharynx. The Eustachian tube helps in
The velocity of conduction of action potential equalizing the pressures on either sides of the
propogation is fastest in large diameter eardrum
myelinated axons than in unmyelinated 180 (d)
axons. In myelinated fibres,, conduction Olfactory nerve fibres arise from olfactory
velocity is directly proportional to the recepter cells located in olfactory epithelium
thickness of the myelin sheath. of nasal cavity. Bipolar neurons are found in
176 (c) olfactory epithelium. These neurons have
Vestibular apparatus is the part of the inner only two processes, an axon at one end and a
ear, which together with the cochlea forms dendrite at another end.
the membranous labyrinth. It is associated
with the body balance.
177 (a)
There are two types of photoreceptor cells, i.e., (i)
Rods (ii) Cones
These cells contains the light-sensitive proteins
called the photopigments. The daylight (photopic)
vision and colour vision are the functions of cones
and the twilight (scotopic) vision is the function
of the rods. The rods contains a purplish-red
protein called the rhodopsin or visual purple,

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