27/09/2023 Code_A (Weekday)

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)_(Offline) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Work, Energy and Power, System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Chemistry: Thermodynamics, Equilibrium
Mathematics: Sequence and Series, Permutations and Combinations

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

1
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. Four point masses of 1 kg, 2 kg, 3 kg and 4 4. A homogeneous solid cylindrical roller of
kg are placed at the four corners (A, B, C, D) radius R and mass m is pulled on a cricket
of square of side length a0 , as shown in pitch by a horizontal force applied at the
figure. centre. Assuming rolling without slipping,
angular acceleration of the cylinder is

(1) F

Taking ‘A’ as origin, find the x-coordinate of 2mR

center of mass of the system. (2) 2F

3mR
(1) a 0

4
(3) F

3mR
(2) a0

2 (4) 3F

2mR
(3) a0

(4) 3a0
5. If the magnitude of two vectors are 4 and 6
4
and magnitude of their scalar product is
–
12√2 , the angle between them is
2. →
(1) 30°
The work done by a force f = 6xˆ i N in

displacing a particle from x = 1 m to x = 2 m (2) 45°

is (3) 60°
(1) 15 J (4) 90°
(2) 9 J
(3) 420 J 6. A uniform cable of mass M and length L is
(4) 10 J placed on a horizontal surface such that its
th
1
(
n
part is hanging below the edge of the
)

3. Moment of inertia of a body about a given surface. To lift the hanging part of the cable
axis is 1.5 kg m2 . Initially the body is at rest. upto the surface, the work done should be
In order to produce a rotational kinetic
energy of 1200 J, the angular acceleration of
20 rad/s2 the body must be subjected about
the axis for a duration of
(1) 2.5 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 5 s (1) M gL

2
n
(4) 3 s
(2) nMgL
(3) M gL
2
2n

(4) 2M gL

2
n

2
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

7. Let the kinetic energy of a ring rolling without 11. An object is at rest on a smooth surface,
slipping on a horizontal surface is K. The starts moving by constant power P at time t =
kinetic energy of a disc of same mass and 0. If v is the velocity of object at time t, then
radius, slipping without any rotation on a (1) v ∝ t
horizontal surface with same speed would
(2) v ∝ √t
be
(1) K (3) v ∝ 1

(2) K (4) v ∝ 1
4
√t

(3) K

(4) 3K
12. ˆ ˆ ˆ
4 A force ( i − 2 j + 3k) N acts on a particle
at position vector
8. The moment of inertia of system formed by ˆ ˆ ˆ
(3 i + 2 j + k) . Calculate the torque
four thin rods of same mass M and length a
as shown in figure about an axis through acting on the particle about origin.
centre O and perpendicular to its plane is (1) 3 (ˆ ˆ ˆ
i − j − k)

(2) ˆ ˆ ˆ
8 ( i − j − k)

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ
6 ( i − j − k)

(4) ˆ ˆ ˆ
4 ( i − j − k)

13. A spring of spring constant 1000 N/m is

compressed through 10 cm and is used to
push a metal block of mass 0.5 kg. The
velocity with which the metal block moves is
(1) 4 2
Ma (1) 4 m/s
3

(2) 1 2
(2) 5 m/s
Ma –
3
(3) 3√3 m/s
(3) 1 2
Ma –
6 (4) 2√5 m/s
(4) 2 2
Ma
3

14. A uniform rod of length ℓ and mass m is

hinged about point O and it is released from
9. Angular momentum of a solid sphere (of horizontal position. The initial angular
mass m and radius r) rolling without slipping acceleration of the rod will be
on a horizontal surface in frame of 'centre of
mass' of the sphere is
(Here v is speed of centre of mass)
(1) 2g

(1) 0.4mvr l

(2) 0.6mvr (2) 2g

(3) 1.4mvr 3l

(3) 3g
(4) 1.8mvr 2l

g
(4)
2l
10. Two identical particles each of mass 1 kg are
connected by ideal string as shown.
Complete arrangement is in horizontal 15. In a factory, 2000 kg metal is lifted by 12 m in
plane. A sudden impulse J = 10 N – s is 1 minute by a crane. The minimum horse
provided to particle C along BC. Speed of B power of engine is (nearly)
just after the impulse is (1) 5.3
(2) 4.3
(3) 3.3
(4) 1.3

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

3
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

16. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and 19. A solid sphere and solid cylinder of identical
mass 4M, a small disc of radius
R
is radii approach an incline with the same
2
linear velocity (see figure). Both roll without
removed concentrically. The moment of slipping all throughout. The two climb
inertia of the remaining disc about its axis is
maximum heights hsph and hcyl on the
(1) 15 M R2 h
s ph
8
incline. The ratio is given by
(2) 2MR2
h
cyl

(3) 3
MR
2

(4) 3M R
2

17. A particle of mass m with an initial velocity

(1) 4
ˆ
ui collides perfectly elastically with a mass 5
ˆ
3 m at rest. It moves with a velocity vj after (2) 2

collision, then, v is given by √5

(1) v = 1 u (3) 1
√6

u
(4) 14
(2) v = 15
√3

−
−
(3) 2
v = √
3
u 20. As shown in the figure, a bob of mass m is
u
tied by a massless string whose other end
(4) v = portion is wound on a fly wheel (disc) of
√2
radius r and mass m. When released from
rest the bob starts falling vertically. When it
18. A pendulum of length 2m is released from P. has covered a distance of h, the angular
When it reaches Q, it losses 10% of its total speed of the wheel will be:
energy due to air resistance. The velocity at
Q is (for gravitational potential energy
reference is horizontal line passing through
Q)

−−−
(1) r√
3

2gh

−−−
(2) r√
3

4gh

−−−
(3) 1 4gh
√
r 3

(1) 6 m/sec −−−

(4) 1 2gh
√
(2) 1 m/sec r 3

(3) 2 m/sec
(4) 8 m/sec

Section-II

4
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

21. A cylinder rolls down an inclined plane of 27. A uniform solid sphere of mass M is placed
inclination 30°, the acceleration of the on rough horizontal surface. A constant force
cylinder is g/n. The value of n is R
F is applied horizontally at 2 height above
the center, If the minimum value of co-
efficient of friction to support pure rolling is
F

αM g
, then find the value of α.

22. A single conservative force F(x) acts on a 1.0

kg particle that moves along the x–axis. The
potential energy U(x) is given by :
28. Potential energy (U) of a particle is related to
U(x) = 20 + (x – 2)2
x-coordinate by equation U = (x2 – 2x) J,
where x is in metres. At x = 5.0
where x is in metres. Particle will be in stable
the particle has a kinetic energy of 20 J. If
equilibrium at x equal to λ metres. Find the
the mechanical energy of the system is NJ,
value of λ.
find N.

23. One end of a straight uniform 1 m long bar is

pivoted on horizontal table. It is released
from rest when it makes an angle 30° from
the horizontal (see figure). Its angular speed
−−
when it hits the table is given as √n s–1 ,
where n is an integer. The value of n is
______ /

24. If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its

potential energy is U. If the spring is
stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential energy
will be nU. Value of n, is _____

25. A ball falls on the ground from a height of

10.0 m and rebounds upto a height of 6.4 m.
If the coefficient of restitution is e then the
value of 10e is ______ (g = 10 m/s2 )

26. Work done by force

→
ˆ ˆ
F = (2 i + 3 j ) N during
−→
ˆ ˆ
displacement Δr = ( i + 4j ) m is
equal to _____ joule.

5
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

29. One end of a uniform rod rests against a

smooth vertical wall and other end on rough
horizontal floor. Coefficient of friction
between the lower end of rod and floor is
0.3. If the minimum angle θ of inclination of
rod with horizontal is tan–1 ( β ) , then find
α

the value of α + β. (α, β are integers less

than 9)

30. In the system shown, the strings are light

and inextensible. Pulleys B and C are light
and smooth while pulley A is smooth and
has mass equal to 1 kg. A vertical force F = 5
N acts on one of the free ends of the string
as shown. At t = 0, the system is instantly at
rest. Taking g = 10 m/s2 , what is the work
done (in J) by external force F between t = 0
and t = 0.1 s?

6
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. A system absorbs 500 J of heat and does 37. In which of the following options, the
work equivalent 200 J on its surrounding. reaction proceed backward on decreasing
The internal energy change will be pressure at equilibrium?
(1) 100 J (1) 2HI(g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g)
(2) 200 J (2) CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(3) 300 J (3) 2NH3 (g) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
(4) 400 J (4) 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2 O4 (g)

32. Heat capacity of H2 O at its boiling point is

38. At a given temperature, the equilibrium
(1) Zero constant for reaction
(2) Infinity P Cl5 (g) ⇌ P Cl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) is
(3) 45.40 kJ K–1 mol–1 2.4 × 10
−3
. At the same temperature, the
(4) 48.75 kJ K–1 mol–1 equilibrium constant for reaction
P Cl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ P Cl5 (g) is

(1) −3
33. The value of ΔH = –5 kJ and ΔS = –5 JK–1
2.4 × 10

for a process at 300 K. ΔG for process is (2) −2.4 × 10

−3

(1) +1.5 kJ (3) 4.2 × 10

2

(2) –5 kJ (4) −2
4.8 × 10
(3) 0
(4) –3.5 kJ
39. The degree of ionisation of weak acid HA
having dissociation constant Ka and
34. The true statement among the following is concentration c is nearly equal to
−−−−
(1) S is not a function of temperature but (1) √Ka /c
ΔS is a function of temperature
(2) c/Ka
(2) S is a function of temperature but ΔS is
not a function of temperature (3) Ka c
−
−−−
(3) Both ΔS and S are functions of (4) √Ka c
temperature
(4) Both S and ΔS are not functions of
temperature 40. The solubility product of a salt having
general formula M X2 , in water is :
−12 2+
4 × 10 . The concentration of M ions
35. For the gaseous reaction:N2 O4 → 2 NO2
in the aqueous solution of the salt is
(g) (g)
(1) 2.0 × 10−6 M
(1) ΔH > ΔU
(2) 1.0 × 10
−4
M
(2) ΔH < ΔU

(3) ΔH = ΔU
(3) 1.6 × 10
−4
M

(4) ΔH = 0 (4) 4.0 × 10

−10
M

36. Sublimation is defined as the transition of a 41. To neutralise 20 mL of M/10 sodium

substance directly from the solid phase to hydroxide, the volume of M/20 hydrochloric
gas phase of a substance and its enthalpy is acid required is
equal to (1) 10 mL
o o
(1) ΔH − ΔH (2) 15 mL
fus vap

(2) Δ
o
Hvap − ΔHfus
o
(3) 20 mL
o o (4) 40 mL
(3) ΔHvap − 2ΔHfus
o o
(4) ΔHvap + ΔHfus

7
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

42. If enthalpy of atomisation for Br2 (l) is x 46. In an acid-base titration, 0.1 M HCl solution
kJ/mol and bond enthalpy for Br2 (g) is y was added to the NaOH solution of unknown
kJ/mol, the relation between them strength. Which of the following correctly
shows the change of pH of the titration
(1) Is x > y
mixture in this experiment?
(2) Is x ≤ y (1)
(3) Is x = y
(4) Is x < y

43. The solubility product of Cr(OH)3 at 298 K is

6.0 × 10–31 . The concentration of hydroxide
ions in a saturated solution of Cr(OH)3 will
be
(2)
(1) (2.22 × 10–31 )1/4
(2) (18 × 10–31 )1/2
(3) (18 × 10–31 )1/4
(4) (4.86 × 10–29 )1/4

44. While titrating dilute HCl solution with (3)

aqueous NaOH, which of the following will
not be required?
(1) Pipette and distilled water
(2) Clamp and phenolphthalein
(3) Burette and pipette
(4) Bunsen burner and measuring cylinder
(4)
45. A buffer solution is a mixture of
(1) Strong acid and strong base
(2) Weak acid and weak base
(3) Weak acid and conjugate acid
(4) Weak acid and conjugate base

47. Statement I : At equilibrium, reaction

quotient(Q) is equal to equilibrium
constant(K).
Statement II : If Q > K, reaction proceeds in
backward direction. If Q < K, reaction
proceeds in forward direction.
(1) Statement I is true, statement II is true;
statement II is correct explanation of
statement I
(2) Statement I is true, statement II is true;
statement II is NOT a correct
explanation of statement I
(3) Statement I is true; statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false, statement II is true

8
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

48. Statement I : Addition of inert gas to a system 50. Match the following.
at constant volume has no effect on Column I Column II
equilibrium condition.
Intensive
Statement II : Addition of inert gas to a (i) Heat (p)
property
system at constant pressure has no effect on
the equilibrium condition. (ii) Heat content (q) ΔH-TΔS
(1) Statement I is true, statement II is true, (iii) Density (r) Path function
Statement II is correct explanation of Gibb’s energy
statement I (iv) (s) E + PV
change
(2) Statement I is true; statement II is true, Choose the correct option
statement II is NOT a correct (1) (i) – (r); (ii) – (s); (iii) – (p); (iv) – (q)
explanation of statement I
(2) (i) – (r); (ii) – (s); (iii) – (q); (iv) – (p)
(3) Statement I is true; statement II is false
(3) (i) – (s); (ii) – (r); (iii) – (q); (iv) – (p)
(4) Statement I is false, statement II is true
(4) (i) – (p); (ii) – (r); (iii) – (s); (iv) – (q)

49. Match column I with column II

Column I Column II
(Solution) (pH)
Salt of
weak acid [ Salt]
(i) (p) pKa + log
with strong [Acid]
base.
Salt of
strong acid 1
pKw pKa + log c]
(ii) (q) [ +
with weak 2

base.
For salt of
weak acid 1
pKw pKb − log c]
(iii) (r) [ −
with weak 2

base.
For acidic 1
pKw pKa − pKb ]
(iv) (s) [ +
Buffer. 2

(1) (i) – (r); (ii) – (q); (iii) – (p); (iv) – (s)

(2) (i) – (q); (ii) – (r); (iii) – (s); (iv) – (p)
(3) (i) – (q); (ii) – (r); (iii) – (p); (iv) – (s)
(4) (i) – (r); (ii) – (p); (iii) – (q); (iv) – (s)

Section-II

51. For the reaction A(l) → 2B(g), ΔU = 2.1 kcal, 54. For a reaction
ΔS = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K. X(g) + Y(g) ⇌ 2Z(g) ,
Hence ΔG in kcal is –Y. The value of 10Y is 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z
_______ were taken in a 1 L vessel and allowed to
(Take R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1 ) react. At equilibrium, the concentration of Z
was 1.0 mol L–1 . The equilibrium constant of
X
52. The standard heat of formation the reaction is . The value of X is
15
) of ethane (in kJ/mol), if the heat
0
( Δf H
298 _______.
of combustion of ethane, hydrogen and
graphite are –1560, –393.5 and –286 55. The pH of solution having 0.2 M BOH (weak
kJ/mol, respectively is –10B. The value of B base) and 0.2 M BCl is X then (14 – X)
is ______ (nearest integer)
is___ (pKb of BOH = 5)

53. What is the pH of 0.1 M solution of NH4 Cl

and 0.1 M solution of NH4 OH, mixed in 56. If the solubility product of AB2 is 3.20 × 10–11
equal amount? (pKb = 5) M3 , then the solubility of AB2 in pure water
is K × 10–4 mol L–1 . [Assuming that neither
kind of ion reacts with water]. Then find
value of ‘K’

9
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

57. The magnitude of work done by a gas that 59. Weak base BOH has dissociation constant
undergoes reversible expansion along the 10–8 . What is the pH of 0.01 M BOH solution
path ABC shown in the figure is at 25°C?
_____________.
60. Consider the following data:
∘
Δ Hf ( CO2 , g) = −390 kJ/mol
∘
Δ Hf ( H2 O, l) = −290 kJ/mol
∘
Δ Hc (C2 H4 O, g) = −1400 kJ/mol
The magnitude of standard heat of formation
of C2 H4 O(g) is (in kJ/mol) [f–formation and c-
combustion]

58. For a reaction ΔrG° is 55.6 kJ at 298 K, log K

for the reaction is found as (–x – 0.744), find
integer closest to x.

10
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. The number of terms in the geometric 67. If a2 + 4b2 = 12ab, then log(a + 2b) is (a, b >
progression 2, 4, 8, 16, …., 1024 is 0)
(1) 7 (1) 1 [log a + log b − log 2]
2
(2) 8
(2) log
a
+ log
b
+ log 2
(3) 9 2 2

(4) 10 (3) 1
[log a + log b + 4 log 2]
2

(4) 1
[log a − log b + 4 log 2]
62. Sum to infinity of the series 2

1 1
1+ + + .... is
3 2
3
68. The sum to infinite terms of the series
(1) 7
4 7 10
6 1 + + + + ... is
2 3
7 7 7
(2) 2
(1) 3
3
2
(3) 3
(2) 7
2
4
(4) 7
(3) 7
12
8

(4) 3

63. Sum to 10 terms of the series 10 + 14 + 18 4

+ ... is
(1) 226 69. Number of ways in which 20 distinct pens
(2) 242 can be distributed equally among 5 children
is
(3) 246
(1) 20!
(4) 280 (5!)
4

(2) 20!

64. Letters of the word ‘MARCH’ are written in 4! (5!)

4

all possible orders and written out as in (3) 20!

dictionary. Then the rank of the word 5! (4!)

5

MARCH is
(4) 20!
(1) 75 (4!)
5

(2) 76
(3) 77
70. Out of 7 consonants and 3 vowels, number
(4) 78 of words that can be formed each containing
3 consonants and 2 vowels is
65. Arithmetic mean of 1, 4, 9 is (1) 105
(1) 7 (2) 105 × 5!
(2) 14 (3) 35 × 5!
3
(4) 75 × 5!
(3) 4
(4) 1
71. The number of 5-digit numbers that can be
formed with the help of the digits 1, 2, 2, 3, 3
66. A value of r for which so that odd digits always occupy odd places,
15
Cr+3 =
15
C2r−6 is is
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(3) 6
(4) 12
(4) –9

11
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

72. If the 2nd , 4th and 7th terms of a non- 76. If n P5 = 20 n P3 , then n is equal to
constant arithmetic progression are in (1) 6
geometric progression, then the common
ratio of this geometric progression is (2) 7
(1) 2 (3) 8
3
(4) 9
(2) 3

(3) 1 77. The number which should be added to all

2
the numbers 2, 14, 62 so that the resulting
(4) 4
numbers may be in geometric progression,
3
is
(1) 1
73. Sum to 10 terms of the series 10 + 14 + 22 + (2) 2
38 + ... is
(3) 3
(1) 4084
(4) 4
(2) 4034
(3) 4122
78. The number of permutations of 4 letters from
(4) 4152
the letters of word ‘KOLKATA’, is
(1) 144
74. If a2 , b2 , c2 are in arithmetic progression, (2) 270
1 1 1
then ,
c+a
and will be in (3) 354
b+c a+b

(1) Arithmetic progression (4) 436

(2) Geometric progression
(3) Harmonic progression 79. Value of 25
log
16
9
is
(4) Neither in arithmetic progression nor in (1) Zero
geometric progression nor in harmonic
(2) 2
progression
(3) 5
log
2
3

75. A box contains 4 distinct white, 4 distinct red (4) 2 (5

log
2
3
)

and 5 distinct black balls. The number of

ways in which 3 balls can be drawn from the
box so that at least one ball is black, is 80. 7
th
term of the sequence
– −− –
(1) 20 √2, √10 , 5√2, ....... is
−−
(2) 40 (1) 125√10
–
(3) 230 (2) 25√2
(4) 218 (3) 125
–
(4) 125√2

Section-II

81. Let N be number of arrangements of letters 85. If arithmetic mean and harmonic mean of
of the word CHAMPAKALI such that 1st and two positive numbers be 9 and 4
last letters are C and I respectively and H, M respectively, then their geometric mean is
are placed at even places and all As are at
N
odd places, then 6 is equal to 86. The sum of 100-terms of series –1 + 2 – 3 +
4 – 5 + … is

82. Three numbers are in arithmetic progression

1 87. The value of 81log √5
is
with common difference equal to 2 . If sum of
3

the numbers is 6, then their product is

88. If the sum of the first n terms of a series be
83. Exponent of 5 in 100! is 5n2 + 2n, then its second term is

84. Number of even divisors of N = 1800 is

12
Unit Test for First Step (Group-1)-2025_T03_(Code-A)

89. If 1
+
1
=
x
, then the value of x
is
9! 10! 11! 11

90. In a train five seats are vacant, then how

many ways can three passengers occupy
the seats?

13