CLASS:IX (IIT) CAT -2 MOCK TEST-1 Max Mark: 100

Time: 2hr
MATHS
1. ABC is a right-angled triangle, right-angled at A. A circle is inscribed in it. The lengths of the
two sides containing the right angle are 5 cm and 12 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
a) 2cm b) 1cm c) 3cm d) 4cm
2. In the figure, the bisector of ∠B and ∠C meet at O. Then ∠BOC is:

∠A ∠B ∠C
1 1 1
a) 90 + b) 90 + c) 90 + d) None of these

In the given diagram ∠B = ∠C = 65° and ∠D = 30° , then the true statement is:
2 2 2
3.

a) BC = CA b) CA > CD c) BD > AD d) AC = AD
4. In figure, PQ = PR and ∠Q = ∠R . then ∆ PQS ≅ ∆ PRT . By which critenian

a) ASA b) SSA c) SSS d) RHS

5. In the given figure, PQR is an equilateral triangle and QRST is a square. Then ∠PST = ____

a) 30° b) 75°
c) 90° d) 60°
6. In the adjoining figure ABCD and BGFE are rhombus. AB = 10 cm, GF = 3 cm. GE produced
meets DC at H. If ∠A = 60° then the perimeter of ABEHD is:

a) 47 b) 40
c) 39 d) 33
7. The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid points of a kite is a
a) Rhombus b) Isosceles Trapezium c) Rectangle d) None of these
8. In the figure, the area of square ABCD is 4 cm2 and E any point on AB. F, G, H and K are the
mid point of DE, CF, DG, and CH respectively. The area of ∆ KDC is –

1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
a) cm b) cm c) cm d) cm
4 8 16 32
5x ° 7 x°
9. A quadrilateral ABCD has four angles x° , 2x° , and respectively. What is the
2 2
difference between the value of biggest and the smallest angles.
a) 40° b) 100° c) 80° d) 20°
10. In the figure AE : EB = 1 : 2 and BD : DC = 5 : 3. Find EG : GC.

a) 5 : 9 b) 6 : 8 c) 4 : 6 d) 3 : 9
11. Three equal cubes are placed adjacently in a row. Find the ratio of the total surface area of the
resulting cuboid to that of the sum of the total surface areas of the three cubes –
a) 5 : 7 b) 7 : 9 c) 9 : 7 d) None of these
12. The dimension of a cuboid is 18 cm × 12 cm × 9 cm. How many cubes of side 3 cm can be
made by melting the cuboid?
a) 72 b) 69 c) 60 d) 55
13. From a 25 cm×35 cm rectangular cardboard, an open box is to be made by cutting out
identical squares of area 25 cm2 from each corner and turning up the sides. The volume of the
box is:
a) 3000 cm3 b) 1875 cm3 c) 21875 cm3 d) 1250 cm3
14. Three cubes with the sides in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 are melted to form a single cube whose
diagonal is 12√ 3 cm. The sides of the cubes are –
a) 3cm, 4cm, 5cm b) 6cm, 8cm, 10cm c) 9cm, 12cm, 15cm d) None of these
15. Statement-I: The edge of a cube is increased by 100% the surface are of a cube increased by
300%.
Statement-II: If the length of the cuboid is doubled, height is same and breadth is halved its
volume is halved.
a) Both statements are correct. b) Both statements are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
16. Assertion (A): In a given figure, quadrilateral PQRS is cyclic. If ∠P = 80° then ∠R is equal
to 100°
Reason (R): In a quadrilateral PQRS, ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R + ∠S = 360°
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Linked Comprehensive Type:
The line segment joining the midpoints of any two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third
side and equal to half of it.
1
17. In the given figure, the side AC of ∆ ABC is produced of E such that CE = AC. If D is the
2
midpoint of BC and ED produced meets AB at F and CP, DQ are drawn parallel to BA, then
FD =

1 1 1
a) FE b) FE c) FE d) FE
2 3 4
18. In the given figure, AD is a median of ∆ ABC and E is the midpoint of AD. Also, BE produced
meets AC in F. Then AF =

1 1
a) 3 AC b) AC c) 2 AC d) AC
2 3
19. In the given figure, D, E, F are the midpoints of the sides BC, CA and AB of ∆ ABC . BE and
DF intersect at X while CF and DE intersect at Y, then BC = aXY. Find the value of a.

1
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d)
4
20. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
a) Surface area of a cube is 96cm2 then its volume is p) 1,918 cm2
b) The dimensions of a cuboid are 10 cm × 5cm × 6cm. Q) 5√ 2 cm
Then surface area is
c) A cuboid has three mutually perpendicular edges measuring r) 64 cm3
5cm, 4cm, 3cm. Then length of a diagonal is
 d) The external dimensions of a closed wooden box are 25cm, s) 280 cm2
23cm, 18cm. If the thickness of the wood used is 2cm. Then
The total inner surface area of the box is
t) 6√ 2 cm
a) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p b) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-s c) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q d) None
21. In the given figure, ‘O’ is the centre of a circle determine i) ∠AEC ii) reflex ∠AOC

a) 58° , 214° b) 68° , 224° c) 78° , 204° d) 88° , 194°

Linked comprehensive type: (Q. no:22 to 24)
If a chord is drawn through the point of a tangent to circle, then the angler which this chord
makes with the given tangent are respectively equal to the angler formed in the corresponding
alternate segment.
22. In the given figure, PQ is a tangent to a circle at A, ∠BAQ = 65° and ∠BAC = 35° , then
∠ABC = ______

a) 60° b) 70° c) 80° d) 90°

23. In the figure, ST is a tangent to the circle at S and PQRS is cyclic quadrilateral, then the value
of x is

a) 50° b) 40° c) 60° d) 70°

24. In the fig, PQ is a tangent to the circle at P. QRS is a straight line. Find the value of x.

a) 40° b) 30° c) 20° d) 50°

25. In the adjacent figure, O and O' are centres of two circles intersecting at B and C, ACD is a
straight line, then the measure of x is
a) 130° b) 50°
c) 65° d) 110°
26. The value of x in the adjacent figure, is

a) 30° b) 20° c) 10° d) 40°

27. Statement I: The Quadrilateral formed by angle bisectors of a cyclic quadrilateral is also
cyclic.
Statement II: The area of a rhombus OABC, whose three vertices A, B and C lie on a circle
with centre O, is 35 sq cm, then the radius of the circle is 10 cm.
a) Both statements I & II are correct b) Both statements I & II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
28. For ‘more than ogive’ the x-axis represents :
(a) upper limits of class-intervals (b) mid-values of class-intervals
(c) lower limits of class-intervals (d) frequency
29. If the ‘less than’ type ogive and ‘more than’ type ogive intersect each other at (20.5, 15.5),
then the median of the given data is
(a) 36 (b) 20.5 (c) 15.5 (d) 5.5
30. Each observation in a raw data is first multiplied by 3, then 6 is added. It is then divided by 3
and subsequently reduced by 6. Mean of the original observation. Which of the following
statements is true?
a) The new mean is equal to the original mean.
b) The new mean is 4 more than the original mean.
c) The new mean is 4 less than the original mean.
d) The new mean is 2 more than the original mean
31. Assertion (A): The length of a chord which is at a distance of 5 cm from the centre of a circle
of radius 10 cm is 17.32 cm.
Reason (R): The perpendicular from the centre of a circle to a chord bisects the chord.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
32. A line 1 intersects two concentric circles at A, B, C and D. Then
a) AC = BD b) AD + CD = AD – AB c) PD = AC d) AB > CD
33. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
a) C is a point on the minor arc AB of the circle with p) 60°
centre O. Given ∠ACB = x. Calculate x, if ACBO is a
parallelogram.
b) Chord ED ia parallel to the diameter AC of the circle. q) 120°
Given ∠CBE = 55° , calculate ∠DEC.

c) In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If r) 35°

∠ACB = 60° , find ∠OAB

d) In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle, s) 30°

∠AOB = 40° and ∠BDC = 100° . Find ∠OBC

a) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p b) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s c) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p d) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p
34. In the given circle, O is the centre and ∠BDC = 42° . Then ∠ACB is equal to

a) 58° b) 48° c) 52° d) 42°

35. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which ∠BAD = 75° , ∠ABD = 58° and
∠ADC = 77° , AC and BD intersect at P, the measure of ∠DPC is

a) 94° b) 105° c) 90° d) 92°

36. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and ∠BAC = 56° . The measure of ∠BDC is
___.

a) 46° b) 40°
c) 56° d) 50°
37. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. Find the values of x, y and z.

a) 40° , 90° , 250°

b) 45° , 90° , 270°
c) 45° , 80° , 270° d) None of these
Linked Comprehensive Type:[Q. no. 38 to 40]:
The formula for determining Mean, Median or Mode is by an Experical relation ., Mode = 3
median – 2 Mean
38. To find the Mean, we can take
a) 3 Median + Mode b) 3 Median – Mode
3 Median−Mode 3 Median+ Mode
c) d)
2 2
39. If Mean = 21, Median = 32 then Mode = ?
a) 44 b) 54 c) 64 d) 74
40. If mode of the data is 8 and Median of the data is 8. What is the value of Mean?
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 16
Physics
41. Where will it be profitable to purchase one kilogram sugar ?
a) At poles b) At equator c) At 45° latitude d) At 40° latitude
42. The value of g at a place increases with :
a) Decrease in the latitude of the place b) Increase in the latitude of the place
c) Increase in the altitude of the place d) None of these
43 The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 :
a) Much above the earth’s surface b) Near the earth’s surface
c) Deep inside the earth d) At the centre of the earth
44. Match the following:
Column - A Column – B
A. Gravitational force - i. 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2
B. G - ii. GMm/d2
C. g - iii. Maximum
Gm
D. g at poles - iv. 2
R
A B C D A B C D
a) ii i iv iii b) ii i iii iv
c) i ii iv iii d) i ii iii iv
45. The figure shows the motion of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit with the sun at
one focus. The shaded area SAB is twice that of SCD. If t1 and t2 are the times taken by the
planet to move from A to B and C to D respectively, then
a) t1 = t2
b) t2 = 2t1
c) t1 = 2t2
t1
d) t 2=
4
46. Inertia of a body has direct dependency on
a) Velocity b) Mass c) Area d) Volume
47. Sand falls on to a conveyor belt at a constant rate of 2kg/sec. If the belt is moving at 0.1m/sec.
Then the extra force required to maintain speed of the belt is
a) 2N b) 0.2N c) 20N d) Zero
48. The value of G depends upon __________.
a) the mass of bodies b) the medium between the bodies
c) the temperature of bodies d) it is an independent constant
49. The tidal Waves in the sea are primarily due to _________
a) the gravitational effect of the moon on the earth
b) the atmospheric effect of the earth
c) the gravitational effect of the sun on the earth d) both 2 & 3
50. The earth revolves round the sun in an elliptical orbit, its speed is ______
a) going on decreasing continuously b) greatest when it is closest to the sun
c) greatest when it is farthest from the sun d) constant at all the points on the orbit
51. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are separated by certain distance. If ⃗ F 12 is the force on m1
due to m2 and ⃗
F 12 is the force on m2 due to m1, then _______.
a) F12 = F21 b) ⃗
F 12= ⃗
F 21 c) ⃗
F 12=−⃗
F 21 d) Both 1 & 3
52. The ratio of the distance of two planets from the sun is 1:2. The ratio of their periods of
revolution is _______.
a) 1 : 4 b) 1 : √ 2 c) 1 : 2 d) 1 : 2√ 2
53. A man weighs 75kg on the surface of the earth. His weight on a geostationary satellite is
___________.
75
a) infinity b) 150kg c) zero d) kg
2
54. Two planets of radii r1 and r2 are made from the same material. The ratio of the acceleration
due to gravities at the surface of the two planets is ___________.

() ( )
2 2
r1 r2 r1 r2
a) b) c) d)
r2 r1 r2 r1
55. If the change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of the earth is same as at depth
‘x’ below the surface of the earth, then (h<<R)
h
a) x = h b) x = 2h c) x = d) x = h2
2
56. The period of geostationary artificial satellite of the earth is ________.
a) 24hr b) 48hr c) 12hr d) zero
57. The ratio of the escape velocity and the orbital velocity is ________.
1
a) √ 2 b) c) 2 d) ½
√2
58. Masses 4 kg and 36 kg are 16 cm apart. The point where the gravitational field due to them is
zero is ________.
a) 6 cm from 4 kg mass b) 4 cm from 4 kg mass
c) 1.8 cm from 36 kg mass d) 9 cm from each mass
59. The distances of two planets from the sun are 1012 m and 1010m respectively. The ratio of the
time periods of these planets is_______.
a) 1000:1 b) 100:1 c) 10:1 d) 1:1
60. You are given total mass M. How do you divide it into two parts so that the
gravitational force between them at a given distance is maximum_______.
M 3M M 2M M 4M M M
a) , b) , c) , d) ,
4 4 3 3 5 5 2 2
Chemistry
61. Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?
a) CuO + H2→ Cu + H2O b) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
c) 2K + F2→ 2KF d) BaCl2 + H2SO4→ BaSO4 + 2HCl
62. The oxidation number of an element in a compound is evaluated on the basis of certain rules.
Which of the following rules is not correct in this respect?
a) The oxidation number of hydrogen is always +1.
b) The algebraic sum of all the oxidation numbers in a compound is zero.
c) An element in the free or the uncombined state bears oxidation number zero.
d) In all its compounds, the oxidation number of fluorine is – 1.
63. In which of the following compounds an element exhibits two different oxidation states.
a) NH2OH b) NH4NO3 c) N2H4 d) N3H
64. Which of the following arrangements represents an increasing oxidation number of the central
atom?
−¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿
a) CrO2 , ClO4 , CrO2−¿¿
4 , MnO4 b) ClO4 , CrO2−¿¿
4 , MnO4 , CrO2
−¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿ −¿ ¿
c) CrO2 , ClO4 , MnO4 , CrO2−¿¿
4 d) CrO2 , MnO4 , CrO2−¿¿
4 , ClO4
65. Identify disproportionation reaction
a) CH4 + 2O2→ CO2 + 2H2O b) CH4 + 4Cl2→ CCl4 + 4HCl
−¿¿ −¿¿
c) 2F2 + 2OH-→ 2F- + OF2 + H2O d) 2NO2 + 2OH–→ NO 2 + NO 3 + H2O
66. Equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the reaction SO2 + 2H2S  3S + 2 H2O IS:
a) 32 b) 64 c) 16 d) 8
67. The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba (H2PO2)2 is
a) +3 b) +2 c) +1 d) -1
68. Oxidation number of oxygen in ozone (O3) is
a) +3 b) -3 c) -2 d) 0
69. The brown ring complex compound is formulated as [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4. The oxidation state of
Fe is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
70. The oxidation number of Fluorine in F2O is
a) -1 b) +1 c) +2 d) -2
71. Statement- I: Fluorine exists in -1 oxidation state.
Statement- II: Fluorine has 7 electrons in outershell
a) Both statements are correct b) Both statements are incorrect
c) Statement I only correct d) Statement II only correct
72. Which of the following elements does not show disproportionation tendency?
a) Cl b) Br c) F d) I
73. Identify the correct statements with reference to the given reaction
P4 + 3OH–+ 3H2O → PH3+ 3H2PO2–
(i) Phosphorus is undergoing reduction only.
(ii) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation only.
(iii) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation as well as reduction.
(iv) Hydrogen is undergoing neither oxidation nor reduction.
a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (ii) c) (ii) and (iv) d) (iii) and (i)
74. The oxidation state of nitrogen in N3H is
a) +1/3 b) +3 c) -1 d) -1/3
75. In the reaction 8Al + 3Fe3O4 4Al2O3 + 9Fe. The number of electron transferred from the
reductant to the oxidant is:
a) 8 b) 4 c) 16 d) 24
Paragraph (or) Linked Comprehension:[Q.no.76 to 77]
The mass of a substance which either reacts with or liberates 1 gram hydrogen is called its
equivalent mass or the mass which either reacts or liberates 8 gram oxygen is called its
equivalent mass.
76. The equivalent weight of an element is 4. Its chloride has a V.D 59.25. Then the valency of the
element is:
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
77. Equivalent weight of iron in Fe2O3 would be:
a) 28 b) 56 c) 18.6 d) 112
78. Assertion (A): Among halogens, fluorine is the best oxidant.
Reason (R): Fluorine is the most electronegative atom.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) Both A and R are false.
79. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
1. 2Mg + O2 2MgO (type of reaction) a) Cl2
 2. 2Fe 2+ + Cl2 2Fe3+ + 2Cl- (oxidising b) Redox
agent in this reaction)
3. The oxidation number of Cr in c) Fe
(NH4)2Cr2O7 is
4. oxidation number of carbon in the d) 6
oxalate ion, C2O42-
e) 3

a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-e c) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-d
80. Match Column I with Column II for the oxidation states of the central atoms.
Column I Column II
2–
1. Cr2O7 a) +3
-
2. MnO4 b) +5
3. VO3- c) 6
3-
4. FeF6 d) +7
a) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c d) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
Biology
81. The embryo sac of an Angiosperm is made up of
(a) 8 cells (b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei (c) 8 nuclei (d) 7 cells and 7 nuclei.
82. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?
(a) Flat worms (b) Sponges (c) Ctenophores (d) Corals
83. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
(a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates (b) Molluscs are acoelomates
(c) Insects are pseudocoelomates (d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
84. Select the correct matching:
(a) Petromyzon – Hag fish
(b) Echinus – Brittle star
(c) Apis – Silkworm
(d) Pennatula – Sea pen
85. Which of the following animals is not viviparous?
(a) Flying fox (Bat) (b) Elephant (c) Platypus (d) Whale
86. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and
indirect developments are the characteristics of phylum
(a) Porifera (b) Mollusca (c) Protozoa (d) Coelenterata
87. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum – Arthropoda?
(a) Chitinous exoskeleton (b) Metameric segmentation
(c) Parapodia (d) Jointed appendages
88. Match the following list of animals with their level of organization.
Division of Labour Animal
a. Organ level i. Pheritima
b. Cellular aggregate level ii. Fasciola
 c. Tissue level iii. Spongilla
d. Organ system level iv. Obelia
Choose the correct match showing the division of labour with animal example.
a) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv) and (d)–(ii)
b) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv) and (d)–(iii)
c) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv) and (d)–(i)
d) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii) and (d)–(i)
89. Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called
(a) Acoelomate (b) Pseudocoelomate (c) Coelomate (d) Haemocoelomate
90. Assertion: Most sponge’s body are said to be asymmetrical.
Reason: Body of most sponge can’t be divided into two equal half by any plane pass through
the centre of body.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
91. Water path in sponges is
(a) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum (b) Osculum → Spongocoel → Osculum
(c) Ostia → Spongocoel → Ostia (d) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum
92. Assertion: Porifera to Echinoderms are non-chordates.
Reason: Notochord is not formed during embryonic development in these animals.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
93. Assertion: Birds are warm blooded.
Reason: Birds are able to maintain a constant body temperature.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
94. The excretory organ present in the organism given in figure is
a) Rennet cells
b) Protonephridia or flame cells
 c) Malpighian tubules
d) Kidney
95. In birds
The forelimbs are modified into _(1)_
Jaw is modified into _(2)_
Bones are _(3)_
Heart is _(4)_
Fill in the blanks correctly:
(a) Wings, beak, solid, 3 chambered (b) Wings, beak, pneumatic, 4 chambered
(c) Claws, beak, pneumatic, 3 chambered
(d) Wings, beak, solid, incompletely 4 chambered
96. In which subphyla, the notochord is present in tail of larva only?
(a) Hemichordata (b) Urochordata (c) Cephalochordata (d) All of these
97. Which of the following are the features of chordates?
(1) Notochord is present.
(2) CNS is dorsal, hollow and single.
(3) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
(4) Heart is ventral.
(5) A post-anal is present
(a) All except (4) (b) All except (2) (c) All except (5) (d) All of these
98. Animals with soft body, bilateral symmetry, triploblastic and unsegmented, usually protected
by a shell made up of calcium carbonate belongs to phylum _____
(a) Porifera (b) Echinodermata (c) Mollusca (d) Arthropoda
99. Ctenophores are commonly known as
(a) Sea walnut (b) Comb jellies (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
100. Match the column A with column B and choose the correct option.
Column A Column B
a. Porifera i. Canal system
b. Aschelminthes ii. Water–vascularsystem
c. Annelida iii. Muscular Pharynx
d. Arthropoda iv. Jointed appendages
e. Echinodermata v. Metameres
a) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(v), (d)–(iv), (e)–(i)
b) (a)–(ii), (b)–(v), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (e)–(i)
c) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(v), (d)–(iv), (e)–(ii)
d) (a)–(i), (b)–(v), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (e)–(ii)
ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C A B D C B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A B B C B B D B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C A D A C C C B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A A A B D C B C B C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D A B A D C B D A A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A C A D D B C B B D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A A D C A C C B A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A A B B D C C C C