RUDMAN

1. Failure of partial dentures due to poor clasp design can BEST be avoided by
a. Clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns & normal bone support
b. Altering tooth contours as indicated by using surveyor
c. Providing bracing arms
d. Employing bar-type clasps
e. Employing stress breakers
2. A tooth which has not been in function & is now being used as an abutment may become symptomatic. This most likely
results from
a. Overstress
b. Pulpal reaction
c. Localized osteoclastic activity
d. Change in trabecular pattern
e. Reaction within PDL
3. Lifting of mandibular partial denture with distal extension bases may be corrected by
a. Narrowing teeth
b. Correcting occlusion
c. Tightening bracing arms
d. Tightening retention arms
e. Reducing overextended borders
4. In order to compensate for contraction of gold alloy, modern dental investments make use of
a. Hygroscopic expansion
b. Thermal expansion
c. Setting expansion
d. AOTA
5. In denture construction, the patient is likely to experience the MOST discomfort from
a. Non-anatomic teeth
b. Excessive vertical opening
c. Having the vertical dimension closed more than normal
d. Slight error in centric occlusion
e. AOTA
6. On anterior teeth, the most favorable area of placing a continuous bar which is being used as indirect retainer is
a. On cingulum
b. Close to incisal edge
c. Close to gingival margin
d. Midway between incisal edge & gingival margin
e. None of the above
7. When a non-rigid connector is used, the path of insertion of the ear into keyway should be parallel to
a. Path of insertion of retainer carrying keyway
b. Paths of insertion of both retainers of bridge
c. Path of insertion of retainer not involved with keyway
d. AOTA
8. A precision attachment RPD is preferred when
a. Abutment teeth are well supported
b. Teeth are present on both ends of edentulous areas
c. Patient is able to pay for service
d. No posterior abutment teeth are present
e. Abutment teeth require restorations
9. Which of the ff considerations is LEAST important in fabricating RPD?
a. Esthetics
b. Mouth preparation
c. Stress distribution
d. Choice partial denture alloy
10. For the forces from RPD to be properly directed through an abutment tooth, the seat for an occlusal rest should be
prepared so that its floor is
a. Parallel to plane of occlusion
b. At right angles to minor connector
c. At right angles to long axis of tooth
d. Sloping apically from center of occlusal surface
11. Which of the ff MOST influence cast positioning in surveying for RPD designing?
I. Location of undercuts for retention
II. Number of missing teeth
III. Esthetic requirements
IV. Ease of insertion & removal
V. Relation to opposing cast
a. I, II, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, IV
d. II, IV
12. Radiographs are an aid to determining prognosis because the reaction of the bone that supports the abutment teeth
can be judged by the
a. Shape of roots of abutment teeth
b. Amount of bone loss due to extractions
c. Reaction of bone to previously induced stresses
d. AOTA
13. In establishing the proper tilt of surveyor table when surveying casts, the dentist would first
a. Use arbitrary tilt to create undercuts
b. Locate undercuts with casts placed on horizontal plane
c. Adjust tilt to permit establishment of parallel bracing planes
d. Establish anterior tilt for maxillary cast & posterior tilt for mandibular cast
14. The scoring of palatal bar on cast is
a. Necessary to give major connector the required rigidity
b. Carried across the entire length of posterior palatal bar
c. Carried across the entire length of anterior palatal bar
d. Limited to areas of soft displaceable tissue
15. Bracing of partial denture framework is BEST accomplished by the
a. Rigid reciprocal arm & body of clasp
b. Rigid reciprocal arm & flexible part of retentive arm of clasp
c. Rigid reciprocal arm of clasp
d. Retentive arm & occlusal rest
16. The cast-wrought combination clasp is DESIRABLE
a. Because it cannot be re-adapted
b. Only when used with extension base partial dentures
c. Because it offers no stress-breaking action
d. Because of its ability to flex in all directions
17. A two-stage impression technique may be considered for partial denture construction PRIMARILY because
a. It provides more accurate impression of abutment teeth
b. It provides more detailed impression of soft tissue
c. Resilient & non resilient tissues are involved
d. It enables the dentist to border mold
18. The MOST reliable method of recording centric occlusion when constructing mandibular bilateral distal extension
partial denture occluding with natural teeth is to construct a stabilized occlusion rim
a. For mandibular master cast & record relationship with baseplate wax
b. For mandibular master cast & record relationship with utility wax
c. For mandibular master cast & record relationship with ZOE registration paste
d. Attached to the finished partial denture frame & record relationship with ZOE registration paste
19. The reciprocal arm of circumferential clasp should ALWAYS
I. Contact guiding plane near its tip
II. Contact guiding plane near its attachment to minor connector
III. Contact guiding approximately 180° around tooth from its tip
IV. Be rigid
V. Be flexible
a. I, IV
b. I, V
c. II, IV
d. II, V
20. INCREASED bulk in major connector is necessary if the
I. Major connector is shorter than usual
II. Major connector is longer than usual
III. Framework is to be made of gold rather than cobalt-chromium
IV. Framework is to be made of cobalt-chromium rather than gold
a. I only
b. I, III
c. I, IV
d. II only
e. II, III
21. Mounted diagnostic casts in RPD treatment planning are ESSENTIAL for selecting the
I. Type of denture base
II. Areas for support
III. Areas for retention
IV. Type of supplied teeth
V. Major connector
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III
d. II, IV
22. The part of a distal extension RPD which provides the greatest resistance to movement & torqueing of abutment teeth
a. Rest
b. Base
c. Guiding plane
d. Retentive clasp
23. The MOST effective means of limiting applied loads to abutment teeth in distal extension partial denture is by
a. Using stressbreaker
b. Using acrylic replacement teeth
c. Splinting abutments to adjacent teeth
d. Using abutment teeth without splinting
e. Maintaining stable base-tissue relationship
24. Centric relation is a _____ relationship
a. Tooth-to-tooth
b. Mandible-to-condyle
c. Mandible-to-skull
d. Maxilla-to-skull
WELLS
1. A high survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the gingival one-third of the
abutment tooth indicates that
a. the angle of cervical convergence is small
b. the angle of cervical convergence is large
c. the abutment tooth must be recontoured
d. a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice
2. True reciprocation infers that the reciprocal component of a clasp assembly
a. lies on the middle one-third of the clinical crown
b. is a lingual blanket rather than a lingual arm
c. contacts the abutment tooth simultaneously with the retentive arm
d. contacts the tooth immediately after the retentive arm assumes its passive position on the retentive area
3. Which of the following is not a function of occlusal rests?
a. Maintenance of the correct occlusal relation of the artificial teeth
b. Guiding of prosthesis along planned path of insertion
c. Stabilization of clasp arms in their planned position
d. Resistance to cervical movement of prosthesis
4. Aesthetics is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable partial denture for which of
the following Kennedy classifications?
a. Kennedy Class I
b. Kennedy Class II
c. Kennedy Class III
d. Kennedy Class IV
5. All of the following statements related to the RPI clasp assembly are false except one.
a. The rest may be placed on the distal aspect of the occlusal surface.
b. A boxlike rest seat is desirable to promote stability of the prosthesis.
c. Proper depth of the rest seat may require an amalgam or a direct filling gold restoration.
d. Contact between the mesial minor connector and the adjacent tooth is desirable.
6. Which of the following is (are) not a valid criterion (a) of incisal rest seat design?
a. The deepest portion (mesiodistally) is toward the center of the tooth.
b. Sharp line angles are desirable.
c. Contact area is involved in the preparation.
d. Small bevels are placed labially and lingually.
e. a and d
f. b and c
7. When surveying a diagnostic cast, the selection of a suitable anteroposterior tilt is to
a. indicate the greatest available support for the re-, movable partial denture
b. provide relative parallelism among proximal tooth surfaces
c. provide suitable reciprocation for retentive clasp
d. eliminate soft tissue undercuts in the retromylohyoid areas
8. Which of the following statements regarding the design of minor connectors is (are) true?
a. The minor connector mist be rigid
b. The minor connector must engage an undercut low on the tooth
c. The minor connector should present minimal interference to the tongue.
d. The minor connector should cover the minimum of gingival tissue possible.
e. a, c, and d
f. All of the above
9. Which of the following is an (are) indication(s) for re-contouring natural tooth structure in preparation for a removable
partial denture?
I. Need to create rest seats
II. Need to prepare guiding planes
III. Need to lower a survey line
IV. Need to raise a survey line
a. I, II
b. I, II, IV
c. I, II, III
d. III
e. AOTA
10. As part of the preliminary oral rehabilitative phase of removable partial denture therapy, an isolated mandibular second
premolar should ideally be
a. extracted
b. used for support only
c. used as a primary abutment
d. splinted to a canine with a fixed prosthesis
11. All of the following are indications for restoring abutment teeth with the exception of
a. as a prophylactic measure where a low caries index is present
b. when the abutment tooth is nonvital
c. when the abutment tooth has undergone significant extrusion
d. when survey analysis reveals that crown form must be significantly altered to allow proper clasp assembly design
12. Which of the following treatment approaches should be considered for a severely extruded abutment tooth, the loss
of which would create a distal extension area?
a. Extraction
b. Occlusal recontouring
c. Endodontic therapy and coping placement
d. Cast restoration
13. The altered cast technique can be used to obtain
a. a functional impression of the edentulous ridge area
b. an anatomic impression of the edentulous ridge area
c. a functional impression of selected supporting areas and an anatomic impression of nonsupporting areas
d. a & b
e. AOTA
14. Identify the proper sequence of procedures to arrive at an altered cast for a distal extension removable partial denture
I. Fitting of framework (intraoral)
II. Removal of distal extension portion of final casts
III. Making altered cast impression
IV. Final impression for framework construction
V. Construction of impression trays on framework
a. I, II, III, IV, V
b. II, IV, III, I, V
c. IV, I, V, II, III
d. IV, II, III, I, V
15. Which of the following maxillary partially edentulous arches does not generally require record bases and occlusion rims
(or framework) for an accurate face-bow record?
a. Kennedy Class I, modification 1
b. Kennedy Class III, modification 1
c. Kennedy Class II
d. Kennedy Class II, modification 2
16. The horizontal mandibular position recorded for a maxillary complete denture opposing a Kennedy Class Ill,
modification 1 removable partial denture should provide
a. centric occlusion coincident with centric relation
b. maximum intercuspation anterior to centric relation
c. a & b
d. a or b
17. Maxillary and mandibular removable partial denture frameworks have been independently adjusted for occlusion to
allow natural tooth contacts. With both frameworks seated it is noted that the natural teeth are in slight hyperocclusion.
The premature contact exists between
a. the mandibular framework and the natural maxillary teeth
b. the maxillary framework and the natural mandibu-lar teeth
c. opposing frameworks
d. Any of the above; all are possible
18. In order to achieve maximum intercupation in centric occlusion when setting posterior artificial teeth for a removable
partial denture, the artificial teeth are first set in hyperocclusion and then equilibrated back to the original vertical
dimension of occlusion. This procedure must be accomplished for all of the following situations with the exception of
setting
a. maxillary artificial posteriors against mandibular natural posteriors
b. maxillary artificial posteriors and mandibular artificial posteriors
c. mandibular artificial posteriors against a maxillary posterior fixed prosthesis
19. A distal extension removable partial denture with natural anterior teeth that are capable of anterior guidance requires
the posterior artificial teeth to provide
a. centric occlusion and working contacts
b. centric occlusion contacts only
c. balancing and working contacts
20. The occlusal requirements: of a mandibular bilateral distal extension removable partial denture against a maxillary
complete denture are
a. centric occlusion
b. centric occlusion and working contacts
c. centric occlusion and balancing contacts
d. centric occlusion, working contacts, and balancing contacts
e. balancing and working contacts
21. The final path of insertion may affect aesthetics by permitting
a. the most suitable size and shape of anterior tooth replacements
b. less clasp metal to be displayed
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
22. Aesthetic considerations related to the selection of posterior artificial teeth and waxing of the denture base include
a. maintenance of artificial tooth height (gingivoocclusal)
b. placement of gingival papillae above contact areas
c. harmony of artificial tooth size with adjacent natural teeth size
d. a & c
e. All of the above
23. If careless handling of the prosthesis has distorted the major connector, the steps taken in the corrective procedure are
to
I. reestablish the taper of the clasp arm
II. accomplish a functional reline
III. remake the prosthesis
IV. remount and equilibrate the prosthesis
V. adjust the major connector
- III, IV, II, I
24. Theoretically the best combination for a partial denture framework is
a. chromium alloy for the clasps, gold alloy for frame. work and connectors
b. gold alloy for the clasps and connectors, chromium alloy for the framework
c. chromium alloy for the clasps and connectors, gold alloy for the framework
d. gold alloy for the clasps, chromium alloy for the framework and connectors
e. None of the above
25. Which of the following is (are) considered to be (an) advantage(s) of metal denture bases compared to acrylic resin
denture bases?
a. Metal acts as a thermal insulator.
b. Metal is easily relined or rebased.
c. Metal exhibits greater accuracy.
d. Metal is more aesthetic.
e. a & c
26. Acrylic resin artificial teeth rather than porcelain artificial teeth are generally used as posterior tooth replacements in
a removable partial denture because
I. acrylic resin teeth are easily adjusted to accommodate the retentive meshwork and the minor
connectors
II. acrylic resin teeth maintain the vertical dimension of occlusion over a longer period of time
III. the occlusal surfaces of acrylic resin teeth need no midification to occlude against natural teeth
IV. acrylic resin teeth are potentially less destructive when opposed by natural teeth or gold restorations
a. I, III, IV
b. I, IV
c. II, III
d. AOTA
FIRST AID NBDE
1. A 44-year-old male presents with missing teeth #6 to #9. After being presented with many treatment options including
rockets power dancers (RPD), dental implants, and bridge, the patient elects for the fabrication of an RPD. Where is the
path of insertion going to allow for the best esthetics minimizing space between artificial and natural teeth?
a. Parallel to the most distal maxillary molar or most posterior tooth
b. Extracting remaining anterior teeth and then fabricating RPD would be best for esthetics
c. Parallel to the proximal surfaces of the abutment teeth adjacent to the space
d. D. Parallel to the mandibular anterior teeth due to occlusion
e. An RPD should not be considered
2. A 68-year-old male presents with severe loss of tooth structure on an abutment for an existing removable partial
denture. A crown is indicated for the tooth. Which of the following are important considerations when preparing an
RPD abutment to receive a crown?
a. Path of draw
b. Location of rests
c. Orientation of guiding planes
d. Placement of porcelain on metal finish lines
e. All of the above.
3. Certain restorations (inlay, crowns, fixed partials, removable partials) require alloys intended for their use according to
physical strength. In turn, this affects our selection of casting alloy. Which of the following correctly pairs the casting
alloy with its intended restoration?
a. Type III: Complex inlays
b. Type IV: Simple inlays
c. Type III: Crowns and FPDs
d. Type II: Crowns and FPDs
e. Type II: RPDs
4. In March 2003, the Journal of the American Dental Association revised the classification system of dental alloys. What
are the requirements for a high noble alloy?
a. Noble metal content ≥ 40% (gold + platinum group) and gold ≥ 60%
b. Noble metal content ≥ 60% (gold + platinum group) and gold ≥ 40%
c. Noble metal content ≥ 25% (gold + platinum group) and gold ≥ 40%
d. Noble metal content ≥ 40% (gold + platinum group)
e. Noble metal content ≥ 60% (gold + platinum group)
5. Alginate (irreversible hydrocolloid) is a hydrocolloid consisting of a solution of alginic acid and has a physical state that
is changed by an irreversible chemical reaction forming insoluble calcium alginate. The setting reaction is represented
by the following formula:
H2O + Na alginate + Ca2SO4 → Ca alginate gel (insoluble) + NaSO4
What are the methods for decreasing setting time of the alginate?
a. Increase water temperature, mix more rapidly, decrease water:powder ratio
b. Decrease water temperature, mix less rapidly, decrease water:powder ratio
c. Increase water temperature, mix less rapidly, decrease water:powder ratio
d. Decrease water temperature, mix more rapidly, increase water:powder ratio
6. It is important to select an esthetic tooth shape and to consider alignment features when fabricating any type of
prosthesis. Considered in treatment planning and evaluation of patients smile analysis, what is the acceptable midline
deviation?
a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
e. 5 mm
7. A 35-year-old female presents for a comprehensive oral examination. She admits that this is her first dental visit in 15
years when they extracted all four third molars. Upon examination, you observe decay in several maxillary anterior
teeth, and #4, #5, #12, and #13 require root canal therapy. The mandibular anterior teeth have heavy calculus. After
explaining all of her treatment options, the patient elects to extract all the teeth requiring endodontic treatment and
restoring them with an upper partial denture. What is the Kennedy classification for the partial denture you will design
for this patient’s final dentition after extractions?
a. Kennedy Class I, Mod 1
b. Kennedy Class II, Mod 2
c. Kennedy Class III, Mod 1
d. Kennedy Class IV, Mod 2
e. Kennedy Class III, Mod 2
f. Kennedy Class I, Mod 2
8. Which of the following is false concerning Applegate’s rules governing the application of Kennedy Classification?
a. If a third molar is missing and is not to be replaced, it is not considered in the classification
b. If a second molar is missing and is not to be replaced, it is not considered in the classification
c. The most posterior edentulous area always determines the classification
d. Edentulous areas other than those determining the classification are referred to as modifications and are
designated by their number
e. There can be only one modification area in Class IV arches
f. All of the above are true
9. A patient presents to your office for a framework try-in this afternoon. You are evaluating the removable prosthesis
prior to the appointment and are concerned with the factors that a major connector requires to be stable in the
patient’s mouth. Which of the following are requirements for a functional major connector?
 I. Be rigid
II. Join clasps, rests, and indirect retainers
III. Provide vertical support and protect the soft tissue
IV. Reciprocating stabilization
V. Provide means of obtaining indirect retention where indicated
VI. Provide an opportunity of positioning denture bases where needed
VII. Maintain patient comfort
VIII. Connect parts of the prosthesis from one side of the arch to the other
a. I, II, III, IV, V, and VI
b. II, III, V, VI, and VII
c. I, III, IV, V, VII, and VIII
d. I, III, V, VI, VII, and VIII
e. III, IV, VI, VII, and VIII
f. All of the above
10. A 43-year-old male presents to your office for a comprehensive dental examination. In your review of the panoramic
radiograph, you observe periodontal disease in the lower anterior dentition. During your clinical examination, you are
surprised to only observe +1 mobility on teeth #22, #23, #25, and # 26. In addition, your patient will require the
extraction of his last remaining molar #19. Following a gross debridement and the extraction of tooth #19, your patient
will have teeth #20 to #28 remaining. Which of the following major connectors will be the most likely indicated for your
mandibular partial denture design?
I. Lingual bar
II. Lingual plate
III. Double lingual bar or Kennedy bar
IV. IV. Labial bar
a. I
b. I, II
c. II, III
d. I, II, III
e. II, III, IV
f. AOTA
11. A combination clasp is a circumferential clasp that has a retentive arm made of wrought metal, thus making it more
flexible than a similar arm constructed from cast alloy. The reciprocating arm, made of cast metal, must be rigid to
counteract the forces generated by the flexible wrought metal. What part of the retentive is the most flexible?
a. The terminal half
b. The middle third
c. The terminal third
d. The shoulder half
e. The proximal third
12. Which of the following are not basic requirements for clasp design?
I. Retention
II. Support
III. Rigidity
IV. Stability
V. Reciprocation
VI. Durability
VII. Encirclement
VIII. Esthetic
IX. Passivity
X. Restorability
a. III, VI, VIII, and X
b. II, IV, V, VI, and IX
c. I, III, IV, V, and VI
d. I, III, VI, and VII
e. V, VI, and IX
f. None of the above are basic requirements for a clasp design
13. A 30-year-old female patient presents to your practice with no upper molars. You present all her treatment options,
and she chooses the option of upper partial dentures. There are many factors to consider when designing a removable
prosthesis. At this time, you are most concerned about indirect retention. Which of the following statements is not true
of an indirect retainer?
a. It prevents the distal extension from moving away from the underlying tissue during function
b. The ideal location is determined by an imaginary line drawn perpendicular to fulcrum line and as anterior as
possible
c. Must be flexible
d. Must be placed in the rest seats that transmit applied forces through the long axis of the abutment tooth
e. A distal extension partial denture uses the mechanical advantage of leverage by moving the fulcrum line further
from the force
f. Cingulum rests designed on maxillary canines are of great advantage
14. During a recall appointment, your patient states that he has finally decided to take your recommendation of extraction
of his upper posterior teeth. You discuss with him the sequence of his treatment plan that includes partial upper and
lower dentures. After extractions, root canal therapy, and periodontal therapy, you must survey and contour natural
teeth and crowns. What is the modification sequence one should follow to complete tooth preparations for final
impressions?
a. Heights of contour, parallel guiding planes, retentive contours, rests
b. Rests, retentive contours, heights of contour, parallel guiding planes
c. Retentive contours, rests, parallel guiding planes, heights of contour
d. Heights of contour, retentive contours, rest, parallel guiding planes
e. Parallel guiding planes, heights of contour, retentive contours, rests
f. Parallel guiding planes, heights of contour, rests, retentive contours
15. A 33-year-old male presents with pain. Upon examination, you see severely decayed teeth #6 to #11 with edematous
exudate from the buccal mucosa of several teeth. You recommend the extraction of all upper anterior teeth #6 to #11
as they are unrestorable. What Kennedy classification is this partially edentulous arch?
a. Kennedy Class IV, Mod 2
b. Kennedy Class I, Mod 1
c. Kennedy Class IV
d. Kennedy Class II, Mod 2
e. Kennedy Class I, Mod 2
f. Kennedy Class II
16. The design for a lower partial denture will require wrought metal clasps on the direct retainers. You evaluate the
patient’s mounted cast with an undercut gauge. What is the undercut required for the retentive arm of a c-clasp direct
retainer?
a. 0.005 inch
b. 0.010 inch
c. 0.015 inch
d. 0.020 inch
e. 0.030 inch
17. The most rigid palatal connector is:
a. Anterior–posterior palatal bar connector
b. Palatal palate
c. Palatal horseshoe-shaped connector
d. Single palatal bar
18. “T” and “D” sounds are formed by:
a. The tongue protruding slightly between the maxillary and mandibular anterior teeth
b. Contact of the tip of the tongue with the anterior palate and lingual surfaces of the maxillary teeth
c. The lips only
d. None of the above
19. When fabricating dentures, posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause:
a. Lip biting
b. Tongue biting
c. Cheek biting
d. Gagging
DENTAL DECKS
1. How would you classify an RPD in which a portion of functional load is carried by the residual ridge at one end of the
denture base while the other end of the base segment is supported by natural teeth?
a. Tooth-borne RPD
b. Bilateral distal extension RPD
c. Unilateral distal extension RPD
d. None of the above
2. The major connector is
a. Connecting tang between the denture & other units of the prosthesis
b. Part of denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border of denture
c. Unit of partial denture that connects parts of prosthesis located on one side of arch with those on opposite side
d. None of the above
3. When designing an anterior-posterior palatal bar maxillary major connector, the anterior, posterior, and lateral straps
should be about
a. 2-4 mm wide
b. 6-8 mm wide
c. 8-10 mm wide
d. At least 12 mm wide
4. A mandibular lingual bar major connector requires a minimum of
a. 3 mm of vertical height between gingival margin & floor of mouth
b. 5 mm of vertical height between gingival margin & floor of mouth
c. 7 mm of vertical height between gingival margin & floor of mouth
d. 9 mm of vertical height between gingival margin & floor of mouth
5. All of the ff are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for RPD EXCEPT one
a. Resistance to tarnish
b. Low material cost
c. Low density (weight)
d. High flexibility
e. High modulus of elasticity (stiffness)
6. The type of form of clasp is generally selected after
a. Looking at x-rays
b. Talking to patient
c. Surveying cast
d. Initial try-in of metal framework
7. Suprabulge retainers (clasps) originate
a. Below HOC
b. Above HOC
c. Above 0.08 undercut
d. Above occlusal surface of most molars
8. All of the ff are advantages of infrabulge retainers as compared to suprabulge retainers EXCEPT
a. More efficient retention
b. Less distortion of coronal contours
c. Less tooth contact
d. Cleaner
e. Less bothersome to vestibular tissues
f. Less prone to caries
g. Esthetically superior in most cases
h. Greater adjustability
9. Which of the ff indirect retainers will provide the best leverage against lifting of denture base?
a. The one located closest to clasp tips which is located furthest from edentulous area
b. The one located furthest from clasp tips which is located nearest to edentulous area
c. The located furthest from clasp tips which is located furthest from edentulous area
10. Which of the ff Kennedy classes of RPD are not tooth-borne?
a. Class II
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
11. All of the ff are indications for using linguoplate as a mandibular major connector EXCEPT
a. When lingual frenum is high
b. In class I situations in which residual ridges have undergone excessive vertical resorption
c. For stabilizing periodontically weakened teeth
d. Severe anterior crowing
e. When future replacement of one or more incisor teeth will be facilitated by the addition of retention loops
12. It is important that a wrought wire clasp have an elongation percentage of
a. More than 25%, allowing clasp to bend w/out microstructure changes that could its physical properties
b. More than 6%, allowing clasp to bend w/out microstructure changes that could its physical properties
c. Less than 6%, allowing clasp to bend w/out microstructure changes that could its physical properties
d. Less than 25%, allowing clasp to bend w/out microstructure changes that could its physical properties
13. Which of the ff are true regarding indirect retention
a. It is a rest seat
b. It is located as far anterior as possible
c. The function is to prevent vertical dislodgment of distal extension base of RPD
d. It is usually an MO rest seat on first molar (canine or premolar)
14. The strength, hardness, & tensile strength of wrought wire is approximately
a. 5% greater than cast alloy from which it was fabricated
b. 25% greater than cast alloy from which it was fabricated
c. 50% less than cast alloy from which it was fabricated
d. 75% greater than cast alloy from which it was fabricated
15. In mesial rest, guide plane, & I-bar design, reciprocation is achieved by all of the ff EXCEPT
a. Rigid plating
b. Minor connectors
c. Guide planes extended around vertical line of abutments
d. Achieving balanced occlusion
e. Contact areas of proximal teeth
f. Reciprocal clasp arms
16. The cingulum rest is usually confined to preparation on
a. Maxillary lateral incisors
b. Maxillary canines
c. Mandibular lateral incisors
d. Mandibular canines
17. The retentive clasp arm should be passive (no active force) until a dislodging force is applied. In a clasp only the tip of
the retentive arm should be flexible, the other components are rigid.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. First statement is true, second is false
d. First statement is false, second is true
18. Which of the following is defined as “The quality of a restoration to be firm, steady, constant and not subject to change
of position when forces are applied”
a. Retention
b. Stability
c. Adhesion
d. Reciprocation
19. Free end saddles are liable to displaced under occlusal pressure (anteroposterior rocking around abutment tooth, which
acts a pivot). This is a result of the displaceability of the mucosa. Which technique is employed to try and prevent this
by taking an impression of the mucosa under controlled pressure.
a. Functional load technique
b. Altered cast technique
c. Residual ridge technique
d. Total occlusal load technique
20. Most designs of stressbreakers will rather effectively dissipate vertical forces to terminal abutments. However, this
occurs at the expense of what supporting entity?
a. PDL of abutment teeth
b. Alveolar support of abutment teeth
c. Residual ridge
d. AOTA
21. All of the ff are advantages of precision attachment restorations EXCEPT
a. They provide retention without unsightly display of metal
b. Easy to repair
c. Functional load dispersed down the long axis of abutments by virtue of low central loading at base of attachments
d. If both sides of dental arch have this type of restoration & joined by rigid major connector, excellent bilateral
stabilization is provided to the abutments
22. When surveying casts, the clinician/ technician must perform an important step in order to correctly record the path of
insertion, the position of the survey line & location of undercut & non undercut areas. Which of the ff is considered to
be that step?
a. Recontouring of proximal walls of abutments parallel to path of insertion
b. Use of indelible lead marker
c. Placing tripod marks on cast to record orientation of cast to surveyor
d. Fixing casts with screws on surveying table
e. AOTA
23. Which primary design quality of occlusal rest would categorize it as “positive” rest?
a. Allow no tilting of appliance
b. Prevent movement of appliance
c. Transmit stress down long axis of tooth
d. Form acute angles with minor connectors that connect them to major connectors
e. Have thickness of 1.5 mm
f. AOTA
24. The size of posterior teeth for RPD is determined primarily by which TWO of the ff?
a. Characteristics of denture-supporting tissues
b. Lip line of patient
c. Age of patient
d. Useful posterior tooth space
e. Face-bow transfer
25. A wire-gauge is selected on the basis of its active length. A short arm clasp (<7 mm) should be made in what gauge of
wire for optimum function below its proportional limit?
a. 20-gauge
b. 19-gauge
c. 18-gauge
d. 16-gauge
MOSBY’S
1. Which may be a consequence of occlusal trauma on implants
a. Widening of PDL
b. Soft tissue sore area around the tooth
c. Bone loss
d. AOTA
2. Which of the ff is true of an occlusal rest for RPD
I. One-third facial lingual width of tooth
II. 1.5 mm deep for base metal
III. 2.0 mm labiolingual width of tooth
IV. Floor inclines apically toward center of tooth
a. AOTA
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. III, IV
3. Which of the ff are factors associated with bone loss
a. Initial implant instability
b. Excessive occlusal foroce
c. Inadequate hygiene
d. Inadequate prosthesis fit
e. AOTA
4. In Kennedy Class I in which all molars & first premolar are missing & the rest of the teeth have good periodontal support,
the preferred choice of treatment is
a. RPD replacing all missing teeth
b. FPD replacing the missing premolar and RPD replacing the molars
c. Implant supported crowns replacing the first premolars and RPD replacing the molars
d. A and B are preferred choice of treatment over C
e. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A
5. Which of the ff are uses for the surveyor
a. To aid in the placement of an intracoronal retainer
b. To block out master cast
c. To measure specific depth of undercut
d. AOTA
6. Minor connector for a mandibular extension base should extend posteriorly about
a. 2/3 the length of edentulous ridge
b. Half the length of edentulous ridge
c. 1/3 the length of edentulous ridge
d. As long as possible
7. Which are characteristics of a major connector that contribute to health & well-being
a. It is rigid and provides unification of the arch stability
b. It does not substantially alter the natural contour of the lingual surface of the mandibular alveolar ridge or the
palatal vault
c. It contributes to the support of the prosthesis
d. AOTA
8. The component of an RPD that is spoon-shaped & slightly inclined apically from marginal ridge
a. Indirect retainer
b. Minor connector
c. Rest
d. Lingual bar
9. The incisive papilla provides a guide for the anteroposterior placement of maxillary anterior denture teeth. The labial
surfaces of natural teeth are generally 8-10 mm anterior to this.
a. Both statements are true
b. First statement is true, second is false
c. First statement is false, second is true
d. Both statements are false
10. Which of the ff statements is true concerning vertical dimension of rest (VDR)
a. VDR = physiologic rest position
b. VDR = position of mandible when opening & closing muscles are at rest
c. VDR is a postural relationship of the mandible to maxilla
d. VDR = the amount of jaw separation controlled by jaw muscles when in relaxed state
e. AOTA
11. The ff are characteristics of post-palatal seal of complete dentures, except
a. Compensates for shrinkage of acrylic resin caused by its processing
b. May reduce gag reflex
c. Improves stability of maxillary denture
d. Most shallow in midpalatal suture area
12. Which of the ff is the most likely cause of occlusal rest fracture
a. Inadequate rest seat preparation
b. Improper rest location
c. Structural metal defects
d. Occluding against antagonist tooth
e.
13. The main function of direct retainer of RPD is
a. Stabilization
b. Retention
c. Support
d. Add strength to major connector
14. Lack of reciprocation of RPD clasp is likely to cause
a. Tissue recession due to displacement of the RPD
b. Insufficient resistance to displacement
c. Fracture of the retentive clasp
d. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion
15. Denture base of a mandibular distal extension RPD should cover
a. Retromolar pads
b. All undercut areas and engage them for retention
c. Hamular notch
d. Pterygomandibular raphe
16. Purpose of fabricating a provisional restoration with correct contours & marginal integrity is
a. For protection
b. To supervise the patient’s dental hygiene & give them feedback during this stage
c. To preserve periodontal health
d. AOTA
17. Which is true of a minor connector of an RPD
a. Should be thin to not interfere with the tongue
b. Should be located on a convex embrasure surface
c. Should conform to the interdental embrasure
d. All of the above
18. Which is a main function of a guide plane surface contacted by a minor connector of an RPD
a. Provides a positive path of placement and removal for an RPD
b. Can provide additional retention
c. Aids in preventing cervical movement
d. All of the above
e. Only A and B
19. From the following list of components of an RPD, which must be rigid?
a. Major connector, minor connector, and retentive clasp
b. Wrought wire clasp, rests, and minor connector
c. Minor connector, rest, and major connector
20. Which type of clasps are generally used on a tooth-supported removable denture
a. Circumferential cast clasp
b. Combination clasp
c. Wrought wire clasp
21. In a tooth-supported RPD circumferential cast clasp assembly, there is
a. More than 180 degrees of encirclement in the greatest circumference of the tooth
b. A distal rest on the tooth anterior to the edentulous area
c. A mesial rest on the tooth posterior to the edentulous area
d. Only B and C
e. AOTA
22. What is a nonrigid connector
a. An appliance composed of key & keyway to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another
b. An appliance that is used to connect two crowns rigidly fixed
c. A bar appliance that is used to maintain a space for a tooth that has not erupted
d. None of the above
23. The distance between the major connector & maxillary RPD framework & gingival margins should be at least
a. 3 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 6 mm
d. 15 mm
24. The component responsible for connecting the major connector with the rest & clasp assembly
a. Bar
b. Minor connector
c. Proximal plate
d. Guide plane