D.A.

V INSTITUTIONS, WB ZONE
QUESTION BANK
SESSION 2024-2025
Class: VII MAX MARKS: 35
Subject: Social Science
Chapter Name: 1. Components of Environment
General Instructions: - This Question Paper contains 3 pages and 19 questions in all.

Q. Question Marks
No.

1. The sphere provides soil for the plants: - 1

A. Lithosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Hydrosphere
D. Atmosphere
2. Environment is our basic _________________ support system. 1
A. Vegetation,
B. Life,
C. Soil,
D. Animal
3. _____________________ are an important part of the Biosphere. 1
A. Human beings,
B. Plants,
C. Minerals,
D. Microbes
4. Statement I: The upper most part of the Lithosphere is known as Sial. 1
Statement II: The natural environment can be broadly divided into four spheres.
A. Both the statements are false.
B. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
5. Statement I: 99 per cent of the atmosphere exists within 23km. 1
Statement II: 57% of the Earth’s water lies in the Southern Hemisphere.
A. Both the statements are false.
B. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
6. Assertion(A): The Physical and Biological environments are largely dependent on each 1
other.
Reason(R): The development of soil takes years together and cannot be visualized through
our senses.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

1
7. Assertion(A): The word ‘Biosphere’ literally means the “Sphere of Life”. 1
Reason(R): We find most of the organisms like plants, animals and microbes in the
Biosphere.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
8. Identify any one environmental issue from the given picture. 1

A. Soil erosion
B. Global Warming
C. Deforestation
D. Water Pollution
9. Match the column A with column B. 1
Column A Column B
i)Wildlife Protection Act A) Atmosphere
ii)Gaseous Envelope B) Endangered Species
iii)Tiger Toad C)Lithosphere
iv)Mineral Wealth D)1972
Options:
A. i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
B. i-B, ii-D, iii-C, iv-A
C. i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
D. i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
10. In sequence arrange the following as per their position. 1
i) Plastic Asthenosphere is found above upper mantle.
ii) Sial is composed of rocks rich in silica and aluminium.
iii) Sima is composed of rocks rich in silica and magnesium.
Options:
A. iii-ii-i
B. ii-i-iii
C. i-ii-iii
D. ii-iii-i
11. A strong earthquake that struck Southern Japan left nine people with minor injuries and 1
caused damage as burst water pipes and small landslides.
Identify the type of change happened due to the above event.
A. Sudden Change
B. Gradual Change
C. Climatic Change
D. Change in Biodiversity

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12. Differentiate between National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. 2

13. How the Biodiversity on the earth is created? 2

14. Contrast between two parts of the Lithosphere. 3

15. Government has implemented various Acts at different time for the protection of Wildlife. 1+2
Write down the name of one such Act implemented by government of India. Explains the
steps taken under the Act.
16. As an important part of environment write down the role of human beings to sustain all 3
forms of life on earth.
17. The atmosphere is the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth. The gravitational force of the 1+1+1
earth holds the atmosphere around it. It protects us from the harmful rays and scorching heat
of the sun. It consists of number of gases, dust and water vapour. The changes in atmosphere
produce changes in the weather and climate. Plant and animal kingdom together make
biosphere or the living world. It is a narrow zone of the earth where land, water and air
interact with each other to support life.
A) Which force holds the atmosphere around the earth?
B) Write down any one advantage of the presence of atmosphere?
C) What are the major components of Biosphere?
18. Elaborate the role of environment in our basic life support system. Write down the contrast 3+2
between Physical and Biological environment.
19. On the given map of India locate and label the national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. (any 1+1+1
three)

A) Sundarban National Park B) Periyar National Park

C) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary D) Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary

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Name of the Chapter: 2 The Earth and the Changes on It MAX MARKS: 50

General Instructions: The question paper comprises 5 pages and contains 25 questions.

Q. No. Question Marks

Section A (Multiple Choice Questions)

1 External processes are responsible for the- 1

A. Lowering the level of land
B. Raising the level of land
C. Creation of new landform features
D. Leveling of land

2 Which one of the following event brings sudden changes? 1

A. Soil formation
B. Mountain building
C. Flash flood
D. All the above

3 When a river course becomes curvy and flows through a bendy path like a 1
snake is known as__________. (Fill in the blank with correct option)
A. Delta
B. Meander
C. River valley
D. George

4 Delta is a depositional landform by running water that always formed at 1

river mouth in ________ stage. (Fill in the blank with correct option)
A. Young
B. Old
C. Mature
D. None of the above

5 External processes include changes on account of ______and ______. 1

(Fill in the blanks with correct option)
A. Aggradation, Degradation
B. Erosion, deposition
C. Weathering, gradation
D. Erosion, denudation

6 Assertion (A): Judicious use and conservation of natural resources are the 1
need of the hour.
Reason (R): Soil erosion becomes a menace which causes decline in the
crop yield.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A correctly.
B. Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. R is true but A is false.

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7 Assertion (A): The action of wind erosion is more prominent in deserts. 1
Reason (R): The wind itself has the capacity to rub and scratch the rocks.
A. Both A and R are true and R explains A correctly.
B. Both A and R are true but R doesn't explain A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. R is true but A is false.

8 Read the following statements and choose the correct option. 1

(a) Black soil is found in peninsular plateau and some patches of north
eastern parts of India.
(b) Parent rock for Black soil is basalt.
Options:
A. Both (a) and (b) are true.
B. Only (a) is true.
C. Only (b) is true.
D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

9 Read the following statement and choose the correct option. 1

(a) In lower course, the river becomes large and sluggish and gets
divided into several tributaries before meeting the sea.
(b) In upper course of the river, the rate of erosion is maximum.
Options:
A. Both (a) and (b) are true.
B. Only (a) is true.
C. Only (b) is true.
D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

10 Identify the landform that is depicted in the picture. Given options may help 1
you.

Options:
A. Cliff
B. Inselberg
C. Mushroom rock
D. Sand dune

11 Match column A with column B and choose the correct option given below. 1
Column A Column B
(A) Water falls i) Lower course of river
(B) Sand dune ii) Erosional feature
(C) Cliff iii) Depositional feature
(D) Flood plain iv) Upper course of river
v) Wind erosion
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A. ii i v iv
B. iv iii ii i
C. ii v iii i
D. iv ii i iii

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12 Match column A with column B and choose the correct option given below. 1

Column A Column B

(A ) Transported soil i ) Laterite soil

(B) Residual soil ii ) Mountain Soil

(C ) Formed in hot and humid climate iii) Alluvial soil

(D) Contain coarse grained particles and rich in iv) Black soil
humus

v) Saline soil
Options.
(A). (B). (C). (D)
A. iv. iii. v. ii
B. iii. iv. v. i
C. iii. iv. i. ii
D. iii. v. i. ii

13 Which among the following is the correct sequence of soil horizons from 1
bottom to top?
A. Weathered rock, Bedrock, Subsoil, Topsoil
B. Bedrock, weathered rock, Topsoil, Subsoil
C. Topsoil, Subsoil, weathered rock, Bedrock
D. Bedrock, Weathered rock, Subsoil, Topsoil

14 Imagine that you are a farmer cultivating rice in hill slopes. Which of the 1
following techniques will you prefer to adopt?
A. Terrace farming
B. Strip cropping
C. Contour ploughing
D. Multiple cropping

15 Imagine that you are on a field trip in Darjeeling where you saw the Teesta 1
gorge (‘I’ shaped valley). How could the river have formed this valley?
A. By lateral erosion
B. By vertical erosion
C. By wind actions
D. By glacier movement

Section B (Very Short Answer Type Questions)

16 How are the gradual changes different from sudden changes? 2

17 “Human beings play a crucial role in changing the face of the land.” - name 2
any two land use practices that make changes on the land surface.

Section C (Short Answer Type Questions)

18 What do you mean by ‘soil separates'? Are they able to determine the nature 1+2
of soil? If yes, then how?

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19 Describe the formation of one erosional feature and one depositional feature 1½+1½
of wind action.

20 “The rate at which erosion takes place varies from one region to another”- 3
describe any three factors that affect the rate of erosion.

Section D (Source Based Questions)

21 Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow: 3
Weathering describes the breaking down or dissolving of
rocks and minerals on the surface of Earth. Water, ice, acids, salts, plants,
animals, and changes in temperature are all agents of weathering. Once a
rock has been broken down, a process called erosion transports the bits of
rock and mineral away. No rock on Earth is hard enough to resist the forces
of weathering and erosion.
Weathering and erosion constantly change the rocky landscape of Earth.
Weathering wears away exposed surfaces over time. The length of
exposure often contributes to how vulnerable a rock is to weathering. Rocks,
such as lavas, that are quickly buried beneath other rocks are less vulnerable
to weathering and erosion than rocks that are exposed to agents such as wind
and water.
As it evens rough, sharp rock surfaces, weathering is often the first step in
the production of soils. Tiny bits of weathered minerals mix with plants,
animal remains, fungi, bacteria, and other organisms. A single type of
weathered rock often produces infertile soil, while weathered materials
from a collection of rocks is richer in mineral diversity contributes to more
fertile soil. Soil types associated with a mixture of weathered rock include
glacial till, loess, and alluvial sediments.

A. What are the agents of weathering? (1)

B. What contributes to more fertile soil? (1)
C. How is weathering different from erosion? (1)

Section E ( Long Answer Type Questions)

22 “Soil erosion is a serious problem affecting land all over the world”. Identify 2+3
a few causes of soil erosion. Suggest some effective measures to control soil
erosion.

23 Make a brief comparison between the work of running water and the work 5
of wind.

24 Make a list of the characteristic features, areas and major crops grown on 2+2+1
the following soil types.
(a) Black Soil
(b) Alluvial soil

Section F (Map Skills)

25 On the given map of India, locate and label the areas of ANY FOUR of the 1+1+1+
following soil types: 1
a. Desert soil

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b. Alluvial soil
c. Laterite soil
d. Red soil
e. Mountain soil/ Forest soil
f. Black soil

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Chapter Name: 3. The Surface and Interior of the Earth Maximum Marks: 50
General Instructions:
1. Questions paper comprises five sections- A, B, C, D, and E and 4 pages.
2. There are 26 questions in the question paper.

Q.No. Questions Mar

ks
Section –A (MCQs)
1. The direct source of information about the interior of the earth is 1
a. Volcanic eruption.
b. Meteorite.
c. Seismic Waves.
Options:
A. a and b only
B. b only
C. a and c only
D. a only
2. Limestone changing into------------------- is an example of metamorphism. 1
A. Marble
B. Amphibolite
C. Slate
D. Graphite
3. Pressure and ----------------- is responsible for changing sedimentary rocks to metamorphic 1
rocks.
A. Weathering
B. Heat
C. Humidity
D. Precipitation
4. Which of the following statement’s is correct 1
A. The Asthenosphere is the lower portion of the Mantle.
B. The continental crust is made of nickel and iron.
C. The Asthenosphere is the upper portion of the Mantle.
D. The oceanic crust is made of silica and aluminium.
5. Two statements are given in the below as Assertion (A) and Reason(R).Read the statements 1
and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The solid rocks inside the earth are in molten state.
Reason (R): The temperature inside the earth is very high.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
6. The origin of an earthquake is at -----------------inside the earth.
A. Epicentre 1
B. Focus
C. Core
D. Mantle

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7. Two statements are given in the below as Assertion (A) and Reason(R).Read the statements 1
and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquake.
Reason (R): Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
8. Complete the table: 1

Layers Thickness Minerals

Crust 60- 100km ---------------------------------
Mantle ------------------------------ silica and magnesium
------------------ 3470km ---------------------------------
----

9. Match the following: 1

Column A Column B
a. Asthenosphere i. Andaman
b. Barren Island ii. 26 January, 2001
c. Mariana Trench iii. zone that separates Crust and Mantle
d. Bhuj earthquake iv. Pacific Ocean

Options:
A. a -iii, b- i, c-ii, d-iv.
B. a- ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.
C. a - iii, b-i, c-iv, d- ii
D. a - i, b- ii, c- iv, d- iii
10 Identify the various layers of the earth in order from interior to the outermost layer. 1

Option:
A. Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core.
B. Mantle, Core, Outer Core, Inner Core
C. Inner Core, Outer Core, Crust, Mantle
D. Inner Core, Outer Core, Mantle, Crust.

10
11. Match the following: 1
Column A Column B
a. A solid inorganic substance of natural i. seismology
occurrence
b. Science of the study of earthquake ii. metamorphic rock
c. Primary rock iii. mineral
d. Gneiss iv. igneous rock
Options:
A. a -iii, b- i, c-ii, d-iv.
B. a- ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.
C. a - iii, b-i, c-iv, d- ii
D. a - i, b- ii, c- iv, d- iii
12. State which of the following statement is incorrect. 1
A. The magnitude of earthquake is measured by Rotameter.
B. The atmospheric pressure measured by Barometer.
C. Humidity is measured by Hygrometer.
D. Wind speed is measured by Anemometer.
13. Identify the correct answer: 1
The earth was formed about
A. 4.6 billion years ago
B. 4.6 million years ago
C. 4.6 thousand years ago
D. 3.6 million years ago
14. Identify the picture: 1

A. Seismograph
B. Barometer
C. Thermometer
D. Rain gauge
15. Sinuk is a village with most of its inhabitants involved in mining activities Lazk a village 1
with most of its inhabitants involved in agriculture.
Name the village more susceptible to an earthquake.
A. Agumbe
B. Lazk
C. Banakal.
D. Sinuk
16. Suppose you are lying on the bed on fifth floor of a high rise and you feel that your bed is 1
trembling.
11
 What you will do at that moment.
A. You will come down by lift to go outside.
B. You will close all doors and windows and sit on the bed.
C. You will call your neighbour to ask what is happening.
D. You will run down fast the staircase to go outside.

Section –B (Very short answer type questions)

17. State the significance of minerals. 2
18. Write two differences between extrusive igneous rocks and intrusive igneous rocks. 2
Section -C (Short answer questions)
19. Write three characteristics of earth crust. 3
20. Explain the formation of fossil fuel. Write the importance of fossil fuels. 3
21. Define the core of the Earth, and classify it. 3
22. Most of our knowledge about the interior of the earth is largely based on estimates and 3
inferences. Yet, a part of the information is obtained through indirect observations and
analysis of materials. Elucidate
Section- D (Source based questions)
23. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: 3
Garhwal Himalayas are well-known for earthquakes of damaging magnitude. An
earthquake of magnitude 6.6 rocked the Garhwal region on October20, 1991. The epicentre
of this earthquake was near the Uttarkashi town. There was a death toll of about 750 with
5000 injured and widespread damage in the districts of Uttarkashi, Tehri and Chamoli. The
Government of Uttar Pradesh provided assistance to the affected community in cash and
kind. Volunteers from NCC, NSS and many NGOs did exemplary relief work.
Answer the following questions:
a. Mention the magnitude of Garhwal earthquake? (1)
b. State the assistance provided to the affected community. (2)

Section- E (Long answer type-questions)

24. Describe the transition of rocks from igneous- sedimentary- metamorphic with the help of 3+2=
a labelled diagram. 5

25. Describe the formation of sedimentary rocks. Write any two characteristics of sedimentary 3+2=
rocks. 5
26. Define earthquake. Mention any two earthquake incidents of India. Distinguish between P- 1+2+
waves and S- waves. 2=5

12
NAME OF THE CHAPTER: 4. AIR AROUND US MAX MARKS: 50

General Instructions: This Question Paper consists 5 pages and 28 questions.

Q.NO. Questions Marks
1. Analyse the information and identify the layer of the atmosphere related to this. 1
i. This is the layer of the atmosphere where cloud cannot form due to absence of water vapour
and dust particles.
ii. It contains a special form of oxygen which act as a filter and absorbs harmful ultraviolet
rays of the sun.
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere
2. Human beings and animals release carbon dioxide during the process of respiration. The 1
green plants draw this carbon dioxide from ----------
A. Sun rays
B. Atmosphere
C. Water vapour
D. Mesosphere
3. Wind always flows from high pressure area to low pressure area. This change is caused duo 1
to ______________ heating of land and water.
A. Equal
B. Maximum
C. Same
D. Unequal
4. The smoke particles when combined with fog form ___________, causing serious health 1
problems like irritation in eyes, skin disease, respiratory disease, etc.
A. Smoke
B. Cloud
C. Smog
D. Fog
5. The atmosphere also holds solid particles of dust, salt, pollen, etc. These dust particles act 1
as ________________ nucleus around which water vapours get condensed to form clouds.
A. Hydroscopic
B. Microscopic
C. Atmospheric
D. Macroscopic
6. Read the following statements and choose the correct option given below - 1
I. As we go higher on the mountains or travel in air, we notice our ears pop; this is due to
the rise in air temperature and atmospheric pressure.
II. The zone, which demarcates line of separation between troposphere and stratosphere, is
defined as mesopause.
Option:
A. I is true but II is false
B. II is true but I is false
C. Both I & II are true
D. Both I & II are false

13
 7. Read the following statements and choose the correct option given below - 1
I. Climate refers to the state of atmospheric condition that includes temperature, rainfall, and
pressure over a short period of time and covers a smaller area.
II. The variation in atmospheric temperature and atmospheric pressure divides the atmosphere
in different layers.
Option:
A. I is true but II is false
B. II is true but I is false
C. Both I & II are true
D. Both I & II are false
8. Read the following statements and choose the correct option given below – 1
I. The atmosphere is continuously replenished of oxygen by the green plants through the
process of photosynthesis
II. Growing of trees and bushes is very important to maintain a balance of oxygen supply in
the air.
Option:
A. I is true but II is false
B. II is true but I is false
C. Both I & II are true
D. Both I & II are false
9. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): It is important for us to know the daily temperature and pressure conditions
of the place where we live.
Reason (R): Weather report is useful to all of us in different ways and we should make it
our habit to read the weather report on daily basis.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct expiation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
10 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In the lower layer of the thermosphere, ion particles are present. These ion-
particles are electrically charged and help in wireless communication.
Reason (R): Above the stratosphere lies another layer known as mesosphere. It is a hot layer
where meteors burn up.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct expiation of A.
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
11 Read the following weather report of Asansol and its surrounding area of 2022 and 1
answer the question given below-
Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May. Jun. Jul. Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec.
Temp.
19.6 22.0 27.1 30.1 30.4 29.9 28.9 28.7 28.9 27.6 23.4 19.7
(°C)
Rainfall
1.2 2.8 3.4 5.1 13.4 29.0 33.1 33.4 25.3 12.7 2.7 0.4
(cm).
14
 Name the hottest month of this year and mention the temperature of that month.
A. May, 30.4ºC
B. June, 29.9 ºC
C. July, 28.9ºC
D. Sep, 28.9 ºC
12 Read the following weather report of Asansol and its surrounding area of 2023 and 1
answer the question given below-
Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May. Jun. Jul. Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec.
Temp.
21.5 23.9 28.3 32.7 35.5 32.0 27.7 27.3 27.9 26.7 23.1 20.7
(°C)
Rainfall
1.1 2.3 1.7 1.6 2.1 22.2 37.6 28.6 18.5 5.5 2.0 1.0
(cm).
Name the rainiest month of this year and mention the amount of rainfall of that month.
A. June, 22.2 cm
B. July, 37.6 cm
C. Aug, 28.6 cm
D. Sep. 18.5 cm
13. Match the following column-I with column-II. 1
Column-I Column-II
(i). Barometer a. Total absence of water vapour and
dust particles.
(ii). Sulphur dioxide, lead particles b. Temperature decreases according to
height
(iii). Stratosphere c. Air pressure or weight
(IV) Troposphere d. Pollutants
Option:
A. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, i-a
B. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
C. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
14 Match the following column-I with column-II. 1
Column-I Column-II
(i). Radio waves transmission a. Troposphere
(ii). Meteors burn up b. Stratosphere
(iii). A special form of oxygen c. Mesosphere
(iv). Densest layer d. Thermosphere
Option:
A. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
B. i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
C. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
D. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

15
15 Arrange the following statements in order. 1
I. The tiny droplets of water join together and form clouds.
II. In the course of time these droplets become so heavy that the air cannot hold them and
they fall in the form of precipitation.
III. These tiny condensed droplets join and form larger droplets due to cooling.
IV. Water evaporates and turns into water vapours which condenses into tiny droplets of
water.
Option:
A. I, II, III, IV
B. IV, III, II, I
C. II, I, IV, III
D. IV, I, III, II
16. Read the following statements and arrange the different layer of the atmosphere in 1
order.
I. In this layer the meteors burn up.
II. Aircrafts often fly lower portion of this layer because it facilitates visibility and this
contributes to easy flying conditions.
III. Play an important role in our wireless communication due to presence of ion-particles.
IV. Densest layer of the atmosphere where all weather changes continuously take place.
Option:
A. I, II, III, IV
B. III, II, IV, I
C. IV, II, I, III
D. II, I, III, IV
17. You will want to visit Ooty in the summer season because of the pleasant climate. Since this 1
place is located close to the equator, its temperature should be high. But it is not like that.
Reason -
A. Temperature increases with height.
B. Temperature does not increase with height.
C. Temperature decrease with height.
D. Height does not affect temperature.
18 Suppose, there has been a severe drought situation in your area for five years. Mention any 1
two problems faced by the people of your area due to this situation.
I) Scarcity of water, shortage of food.
II) Means of good transport and communication
A. I is correct but II is wrong.
B. II is correct but I is wrong.
C. Both I and II are correct.
D. Both I and II are wrong.
19. Define Normal lapse rate. 2
20. Analyse the significance of nitrogen. 2

16
21. Suggest two ways to maintain the balance between oxygen and carbon dioxide in the 2
atmosphere.
22. Mention any three health problems caused by smog. 2
23. Ozone layer acts as a shield over the earth’s surface. Explain. 3
24. Analyze the significance of Thermosphere. 3
25. Read the following passage and write the answer given below - 3
In an area where temperature rises high, the air gets heated and rises upwards. This causes
fall in the air pressure and the area, thus, becomes low pressure area. The space vacated by
hot air is replaced by cold, denser air of the surrounding high-pressure area. This flow or
movement of air is called wind. Thus, wind always flows from high pressure area to low
pressure area. The phenomenon of monsoon is a good example of such seasonal winds. This
change is caused due to unequal heating of land and water. Our country receives monsoon
rains which support our agricultural economy. Thus, our country is very much dependent on
the monsoonal rainfall.
i. Define wind. (1)
ii. Give one example of seasonal wind. (1)
iii. What causes seasonal changes in wind direction? (1)
26. Define global warming. Mention two factors which cause global warming. Explain any two 1+2+2
measures to mitigate the problems caused due to global warming.
27. Differentiate between weather and climate. Explain the significance of weather report in our 2+3
daily life.
28. Name and mention the percentage of the three major gases which constitute about 99% of 2+3
the earth’s atmosphere and explain one importance of each.
******

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Name of the Chapter: - CH: 5- WATER SURROUNDING THE EARTH
MAX MARKS : 50
General Instructions: This question paper consists of 5 pages. There are 28 questions.
Q.No. Question Marks
SECTION-A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. The main cause for the occurrence of tide is 1
A. Wave movements
B. Gravitational pull
C. Planetary winds
D. Temperature difference
2. Following are the movements that occur in oceans except 1
A. Tides
B. Waves
C. Ocean currents
D. Wind
3. The major source of freshwater is____________ 1
A. Oceans
B. Rivers
C. Sea
D. Salt Lakes
4. The rhythmic movement of water particles producing a pattern are called _________ 1
A. Ocean Currents
B. Tides
C. Waves
D. Water Cycle
5. Now a days, _______ is harnessed to generate electricity in the coastal area. 1
A. Thermal Energy
B. Nuclear Energy
C. Tidal Energy
D. Biomass Energy
6. Choose the option which is true about the origin of the word ‘Tsunami’ 1
A. It is Chinese name
B. It is Japanese name
C. It is German name
D. It is French name
7. Read the statements and find out which of the following is true 1
Statement I: The earth receives major part of pure water from rainfall
Statement II: In addition it receives fresh water from numerous springs and rivers
Options:
A. Only statement I is true
B. Only statement II is true
C. Both statements are true
D. None of the above statements are true
8. Which one is the false option about the cause of Tsunami 1
A. Nuclear explosion under water
B. Earthquake
18
 C. Volcanic eruption
D. Lightning
9. For the following question a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of 1
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): Due to higher density of cold water, it sinks down below the warm water
Reason (R) : The cold water moves slowly towards pole and warm water moves slowly
towards the equator
Codes:
A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A)
B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
10. For the following question a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of 1
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion (A): Tides occur twice a day. When the level of water rises, it is a high tide
and when the level falls, it is a low tide.
Reason (R): Tides are caused due to the gravitational pull of the moon and the sun.
Codes:
A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A)
B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
11. 1
Which of the following
options best signifies
about this image?
A. A Glacier
B. River
C. Tsunami
D. Ocean Current

19
12. Complete the given table: - 1
Forms of Water Bodies Percentage of Water
Ice caps & Glaciers ___
A. 2%
B. 3%,
C. 5%
D. 6%
13. Match the column I with II and choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1
-
Column-I Column-II
A. Tides i) Strong seismic wave
B. Ocean currents ii) The circulation process of water
C. Tsunami iii) Movement of a mass of water in a particular
direction
D. Water cycle iv) Periodic rise and fall of water
Options are-
A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
B) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I
D) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
14. Match the column I with II and choose the correct answer from the options given 1
below>-
Column-I Column-II
A. Warm currents i) Flow along the west coast of the continent
B. Tides ii) It can be extracted through trough a well
drilled into the aquifer
C. Cold currents iii) Flow along the east coast of the continent
D. Ground water iv) Periodic rise and fall in the level of ocean
water
Options are-
A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
B) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
D) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
15. i) Arrange the processes involved in Water Cycle in meaningful order. 1
I. Condensation
II. Precipitation
III. Evaporation
IV. Surface Runoff
A. I, II, III, IV
B. III, II, I, IV
C. II, I, IV, III
D. III, I, II, IV

20
16. Which among the following sequences of water bodies is correct in descending order of 1
size.
A. River, Sea, Ocean
B. Ocean, River, Sea
C. Sea, River, Ocean
D. Ocean, Sea, River
17. Imagine yourself as xyz living in an area of low rainfall. What methods you will adopt to 1
conserve water for your daily needs.
I. Rain water harvesting
II. Digging ponds
III. Making Canals
IV. Not closing the taps when not in use
A. Option I, II and III are correct
B. Option I and II are correct
C. Option II and III are correct
D. All options are correct
18. Choose the correct option by which you will help the victims facing the devastation of 1
Tsunami.
I. Donation of money
II. Providing, cloths and beddings
III. Not providing them medical care
IV. Providing clean drinking water
A. Option I, II, III
B. Only option III
C. Option I, II, IV
D. Option II, III
SECTION-B
19. “The ground water is a very important source of water” – Justify. 2
20. Write a short note on waves. What are the factors affecting the height of the waves? 2
21. “Earth is called Blue planet or Watery planet”- Give reason. 2
22. What are Planktons? Where they are found? 2+1
23. Describe the importance of tides to man. Name one tidal port of India 2+1
24. Enlist three points on the importance of ocean water. 3
25. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below: 3
Groundwater can be found almost everywhere. The water table may be deep or shallow;
and may rise or fall depending on many factors. Heavy rains or melting snow may cause
the water table to rise, or heavy pumping of groundwater supplies may cause the water
table to fall.
Groundwater supplies are replenished, or recharged, by rain and snow melt that seeps
down into the cracks and crevices beneath the land’s surface. In some areas of the world,
people face serious water shortages because groundwater is used faster than it is naturally
replenished. In other areas groundwater is polluted by human activities.

i)Define ground water. (1)

ii) How the ground water is replenished or recharged naturally? (1)
21
 iii) “Human beings are responsible for polluting water on earth”- Do you agree? Justify.
(1)
26. Explain the concept of water cycle with a neatly labelled diagram. 2+3
27. Write in brief about ocean currents. Enumerate the factors responsible for their 1+2+2
formation. List any two impact of ocean current on the climate of coastal regions
SECTION-C
28. On the outline map of the World, identify the following-
A. A fishing ground 1
B. A cold current 1
Locate and label the following in the given map of the World
C. Grand Bank 1
D. Kuroshio Current 1

22
Chapter: 6. Life On the Earth Total Marks: 50
General Instructions: This question consists of 25 question and 5 pages
Q. NO. QUESTIONS MAR
KS

SECTION – A (MCQ)

1 The temperate grasslands of North America is called as- 1

A. Campos
B. Prairies
C. Pampas
D. Veld
2 Identify the tree found in Tropical Evergreen Forest- 1
A. Sal
B. Bamboo
C. Mahogany
D. All the above
3 Cactus, shrubs and bushes are the common vegetation ________area. 1
A. Mountain
B. B. Desert
C. Grassland
D. Plain
4 The Trees are conical in shape and have very soft wood. These forests are also known 1
as____________.
A. Evergreen Forest
B. Tropical Deciduous Forest
C. Coniferous Forest
D. D. Temperate Grassland
5 State whether the statement is True or False: 1
Statement 1: - In the grasslands, the number of animals is less as compared to the
equatorial forests because of less vegetation.
Statement 2:- The Common animals found here are penguin, polar bears, yak etc.
A. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
B. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
C. Both are true.
D. Both are false.
6 State whether the statement is True or False: 1
Statement 1: - Siberia and the northern part of Canada are examples of the Cold Desert.
Statement 2: - The Common vegetation is comprised of mosses, lichens, etc.
A. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
B. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
C. Both are true
D. Both are false
7 State whether the statement is True or False: 1
Statement 1: -Tropical Deciduous forests are found between 10° North to 10° South
latitudes.
Statement 2: - The main areas where these forests are found are India, China etc.

A. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false

B. Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true

23
 C. Both are true
D. Both are false
8 There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Read the statement 1
and choose the correct option.
Assertion: Due to the rapid increase in population of the world, the areas under the
forests are fast decreasing.
Reason: Humans have cleared forests for the sake of agriculture habitation and
expansion of Industries.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
9 There are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason(R). Read the statement 1
and choose the correct option.
Assertion: Tropical Grasslands are located between the equatorial forests and hot desert
in both the hemispheres.
Reason: These Grasslands receive about 75 cm rainfall.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
10 Identify the Animal. 1

A. Armadillos
B. Sloth Bear
C. Porcupine
D. Honey Badger
11 Determine the kind of forest from the picture depicted below. 1

A. Tropical Evergreen Forest

B. Tropical Deciduous Forest
C. Temperate Softwood Forest
D. Temperate Grassland

24
12 Match the following: - 1

List I List II

A Tropical Evergreen Forest 1 Between 10° N to 23.5°N and

10°S to 23.5°S Latitudes

B Tropical Grassland 2 Grassland receive about 100 cm

of rainfall

C Temperate Grassland 3 Both sides of equator between

10° N and 10°S latitudes.

D Tropical Deciduous Forest 4 Grasslands receive about 25 cm

to 75 cm rainfall.

Codes: -

I. A-3 , B-2, C-4 , D-1

II. A-4 , B-2, C-3 , D-1
III. A-1 , B-3, C-4 , D-2
IV. A-2 , B-3, C-1 , D-4
13 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below: 1

List-I List-II
A Downs 1 North America
B Veld 2 South Africa
C Prairies 3 Australia
D Pampas 4 South America
Codes:
i) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
ii) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
iii) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
iv) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1
14 Arrange the tropical grassland from west to east direction.: - 1

A. Savanna (Australia), Savanna (Africa), Campos, Llanos

B. Llanos, Campos, Savanna (Africa), Savanna (Australia)
C. Llanos, Campos, Savanna (Australia), Savanna (Africa)
D. Campos, Llanos, Savanna (Africa), Savanna (Australia)
15 Imagine you are passing through a grassland in Australia, grasses of this region are soft 1
and short.
Identify the name of grassland which receives snowfall too.
A. Downs
B. Velds
C. Lianos
D. Pustaz

SECTION – B (Very short answer type questions)

25
16 ‘Ladakh is a rain shadow region of the Himalayas’ – Analyse the statement. 2

17 “Animals in the polar region have thick fur on their bodies”. Give reasons. 2

SECTION – C (Short answer type questions)

18 Distinguish between tropical and temperate grasslands. 3

19 Enlist any three features of tropical deciduous forests. 3

20 Compare between hot and cold deserts. 3

SECTION – D
(Source Based questions)
21 It is high time that man should realise his mistakes and stop tampering with nature. In 1+2
order to maintain the ecological balance, afforestation should be taken up on a large scale.
Hunting of animals should be strictly banned. For the preservation of different animal
species, the government has set up Wildlife sanctuaries, national parks and biosphere
reserves. Many non-governmental organisations have also come forward to help in
protecting different types of animal species.
1. Name any one National Park of India.
2. Describe the role of National Park and wildlife sanctuaries in preserving
biodiversity.
SECTION – E
(Long answer type questions)
22 Enlist steps we should take to solve the problems related to ecological imbalance. 5

23 “Human activities affected the depletion of flora and fauna” Analyse. 5

24 Answer the following questions: - 3+1+

I. Mention any three features of Temperate softwood forests. 1
II. Give me an example of Desert in South America.
III. Tropical Deciduous forests are found in India and China. Give reasons.
SECTION – F
(Map Work)
25 On the Outline map of the world, locate & label the following: - 1x4=
01. Temperate grassland of Europe and Asia. 4
02. Temperate grassland of Australia.
03. Tropical grassland of South America.
04. Temperate grassland of South Africa.

26
Chapter Name-7. HUMAN ENVIRONMENT MAX MARKS: 50

General Instructions: This question paper contains 4 pages and 25 questions.

Q.No. Questions Marks

1. HBJ pipeline is used for transportation of 1

A. Water
B. Petroleum
C. Slurry iron ore
D. Natural gas
2. One of the following represents human environment. Identify 1
A. Forest
B. Desert
C. City
D. Ocean
3. Road transport is used for_____________ distance. 1
A. Short
B. Very long
C. Towns
D. Villages
4. Railways are virtually called the ____________ of a country. 1
A. Metro line
B. Dream line
C. Stream line
D. Lifeline
5. ________provide communication services even to the remote areas of the 1
country.
A. Planets
B. Comets
C. Satellites
D. Asteroids
6. Choose the correct option: 1
Statement: (a) Waterways are the most expensive mode of transport.
Statement: (b) Pipelines are the most important means of transporting solid
goods.
A. Statement (a) is True but statement (b) is false
27
 B. Statement (a) is False but statement (b) is True
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Both the statements are false.

7 Choose the correct option: 1

Statement: (a) Transportation is helpful for industrialisation of a place.
Statement: (b) The floating towns are large mechanised ships.
A. Statement (a) is True but statement (b) is false
B. Statement (a) is False but statement (b) is True
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Both the statements are false.
8. Each question consists of two statements. Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 1
Select the correct answer using the following codes:
Assertion (A): Transportation is very helpful for industrialisation of a place.
Reason (R): Raw materials can be easily transported from mining areas to
factories.
Codes:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A)
C. Assertion (A) is true but Reason(R) is false
D. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
9. Each question consists of two statements. Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 1
Select the correct answer using the following codes:
Assertion(A): In olden times pigeons were used to send messages to
different places
Reason (R): Today satellites are the most powerful means of
communication in the world.
Codes:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A)
C. Assertion (A) is true but Reason(R) is false
D. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true
10. 1

Identify the picture:

A. Laptop
B. Desktop
C. Pen drive
D. Cell phone

28
11. 1

Identify the given mode of transportation.

A. Airways
B. Waterways
C. Railways
D. Roadways
12. Which pair is correctly matched? 1
a. Railways i) boat
b. Waterways ii) boat
c. Roadways iii) car

A. Option a and b
B. Option a and c
C. Option b and c
D. All of them
13. Identify the pair which is matched correctly. 1
a. Pipelines i) transportation of solid materials
b. Metro city ii)Durgapur
c. Goa iii) tourism based own
A. Option a is correct
B. Option b is correct
C. Option c is correct
D. None of them are correct
14. Arrange the following sentences as per sequential order: 1
(a) With advancement of science and technology human beings have been
able to modify the natural environment depending on their need.
(b) In the pre stone age human beings lived a nomadic life.
(c) The discoveries of fire, iron and wheel were big steps towards
civilisation.
(d) In the post stone age human beings learnt the art of agriculture and
started cultivating crops near river banks.
A. (a), (b), (c), (d)
B. (d), (a), (c), (b)
C. (c), (d), (b), (a)
D. (b), (d), (c), (a)
15. A world cup cricket tournament will be played in USA. To watch the game 1
Live which electronic device will you choose:
A. Pen Drive
B. Radio

29
 C. E-mail
D. TV
16. Name any two big discoveries of human beings in the post stone age that 2
were considered remarkable for civilisation.
17. Mention two advantages of electrification of railways. 2

18. Explain the term “transportation”. Name the various means of transportation. 3

19 Discuss the impact of wheel, fire and iron on human civilisation. 3

20 Highlight the importance of various means of communication. 3

21. Read the given passage and answer the following questions : 3

In olden times pigeons were used to send messages to various places. Then the services
like post and telegraph, newspaper, radio, television, telephone developed. Today satellite
is the most powerful medium of communication in the world. It provides TV services even
in remote areas of the country. Computer is yet another great invention by man. It has
revolutionised the process of communication through e-mail, Internet, CD’s, pen drive,
laptop, palmtop etc.

a) Mention the type of communication services provided by artificial satellites even in

very remote areas. (1)

b) Name any four different audio/ video devices used for communication today. (2)

22. Briefly describe the various factors responsible for permanent settlements. 5

23. Computers today have revolutionised the process of communication today. Discuss 5

24. Explain how transportation and communication help in economic development of the 5
country.

25. On an outline political map of the world locate and label the following: 1+1+1
+1=4

A. Hong Kong sea port

B. Los Angeles sea port
C. London Heathrow airport
D. Dubai airport

30
CLASS: VII Max Marks: 50

CHAPTER: 8. LAND AND THE PEOPLE.

General Instruction: This Question Paper consists 5 pages and 24 questions.

Q. QUESTIONS MARKS
NO.
1. Choose the correct option for the following- 1
The type of farming used in the prairies---
A. Shifting Agriculture
B. Intensive Agriculture
C. Extensive Agriculture
D. Primitive Agriculture

2. Choose the correct option for the following- 1

Rice, jute and tea are important crops of -
A. Ganga- Brahmaputra Basin
B. Amazon Basin
C. Indus Basin
D. Nile Basin

3. Choose the correct options from the given choices and fill in the blanks to complete 1
the sentences:

The opening of -------------------has made Ladakah a big tourist centre.

A. Kashmir-Srinagar
B. Srinagar-Leh
C. Mughal Road- Kashmir
D. Ladakh-Leh

4. Choose the correct options from the given choices and fill in the blanks to complete 1
the sentences:

The lowest part of the Ganga delta is covered with ---------forests.

A. Montane Forests
B. Tropical Thorn Forests
C. Tropical Rain Forests
D. Mangrove forests

5. Statement I The river Nile is the world's longest river. 1

Statement II :The top layer of the Amazon forests is known as canopy.

Options:
A. Both the statements are True.
B. Both the statements are False.
C. Statement I is TRUE and statement II is FALSE.
D. Statement I is FALSE, and statement II is TRUE.

31
 Statement I : Ladakh is situated in the south-western part of Jammu and Kashmir. 1
6. Statement II : The Sahara is the World’s largest and hottest desert on the Earth.

Options:
A. Both the statements are True.
B. Both the statements are False.
C. Statement I. is TRUE and statement II. is FALSE.
D. Statement I is FALSE, and statement II TRUE.

7. Statement I : The Prairies are also known as the “Granaries of the World” 1
Statement II : Kalahari Desert is located in South America continent.
Options:
A. Both the statements are True.
B. Both the statements are False.
C. Statement I is TRUE and statement ii. is FALSE.
D. Statement II is FALSE, and statement ii.is TRUE.
8 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) 1
and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The northern plain is agriculturally a productive part of India.
Reason (R) : It has a rich soil cover combined with adequate water and favourable
climate.
Options:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the A

B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of the A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
9. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) 1
and Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : The north-western part of sahara known as rocky desert.

Reason (R): Population is mainly concentrated near the water bodies like oasis.
Options:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the A

B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of the A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

10. Study the following data regarding the characteristics of three major deserts 1
and answer the question that follows:

Dessert Name Average Annual Average Major Vegetation

Rainfall (mm) Temperature (°C) Type
Sahara 25 30 Sparse shrubs and
grasses
Gobi 194 3 Sparse grasses and
shrubs
Thar 200 24 Thorny bushes
and grasses

32
 Based on the data above, which desert has the lowest average annual rainfall?
A. Sahara desert
B. Gobi Desert
C. Thar desert
D. None of the above.

11. Match the followings Group A with Group B and choose the correct answer 1
from the options below.

Group A Group B
i.) Down a.) South America
ii.) Veld b.) North Amreica
iii.) Prairies c.) Australia
iv.) Pampas d.) South Africa
Options:
A. i.)-d), ii.)-b), iii.)-c), iv.)-a)
B. i.)-c), ii.)-a), iii.)-b), iv.)-d)
C. i.)-c), ii.)-d), iii.)-b), iv.)-a)
D. i.)-b), ii.)-c), iii.)-a), iv.)-b)

12. Match the followings Group A with Group B and choose the correct answer 1
from the options below.

Group A Group B
i.) kimberley a.) Hottest desert
ii.) sahara b.) diamond mines
iii.) johanesberg c.) Indus
iv.) ladakh d.) coal mines
Options:
A. i.)-b), ii.)-a), iii.)-c), iv.)-d)
B. i.)-b), ii.)-a), iii.)-d), iv.)-c)
C. i.)-a), ii.)-b), iii.)-d), iv.)-c)
D. i.)-b), ii.)-c), iii.)-a), iv.)-d)

13. Write in correct sequence of the following from the upper course to lower 1
course of the river ganga
A. Uttarakhand, bihar, uttar Pradesh, west Bengal
B. West Bengal, uttar Pradesh, bihar, uttarkhand
C. Uttarakhand, uttar Pradesh, bihar, west Bengal
D. D, Bihar, west Bengal, uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand

14. Read the situation and answer the question which follows. 1
During summer vacation Riya and Raj want to visit sunderban delta. Sunderban has
a vast mangrove forest.
In India sunderban delta is located in the state of?
A. Gujarat
B. Jharkhand
C. West Bengal
D. Uttar Pradesh
15. Why is the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta known as Sundarbans? 2
16. Explain the type of farming which is common in the prairies. 2

33
17. Why are the rainforests of the Amazon basin disappearing? 3
18. Write any three characteristics of a desert. 3
19. Name the main occupation of the people of the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin and give 3
reasons for it.
20. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below. 3

The Ganga-Brahmaputra basin covered with tropical deciduous forests. But now this
area has been completely converted into farms and settlements. The lowest part of the
Ganga delta is covered with mangrove forests. Agro-based industries like textiles and
sugar etc. are common in this region. Towns and cities of Haridwar, Allahabad,
Varanasi, Patna and Guwahati are located on or near the river banks and are
developing at a very fast rate.
i) Which part of the Ganga delta is covered with mangrove forest? (1)
ii) What type of industry common in Ganga-Brahmaputra basin? (1)
iii) What type of forest mainly found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra basin? (1)

21. Write any five factors which are responsible for the tall grasses in the prairies. 5

22 Distinguish between the Sahara Desert and the Ladakh desert with respect to 5
location, climate and vegetation.

23. Temperate grasslands are known by different names in different continents. Name 5
them.

24. On the political out line map of the world locate and label- 5
i) Kalahari Desert
ii) Prairie’s grassland
iii) Sahara desert
iv) Drakensberg mountain
v) Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.

34
Class: VII Maximum Marks: 35

Subject: Social Science

Chapter Name: 9. Mediaeval Period

General instructions: This question paper has 3 printed pages containing total 19 questions.

Q.No. Questions Marks

1. The medieval period in India was from 1

A. Fifth to Thirteenth century
B. Eight to Eighteenth century
C. Sixth to Sixteenth century
D. none of the above

2. Prithviraj Raso written by Chand Bardai throws light on 1

A. Administration
B. life of people under the reign of PrithivRaj
C. a and b
D. none of the above

3. In Europe the period from fifth to fifteenth century is known as the 1

_______________ period.
A. Modern
B. Mediaeval
C. Ancient
D. None
4. In India, the period from eight to _______________century CE marks the 1
beginning and end of the medieval period.
A. eighteenth
B. tenth
C. fifteenth
D. None
5. Match the following: 1
Column - l Column - II

1. City of Bikaner a. Rana Kumbha

2. Kirti Stambh (Chittor) b. Rao Bika

3. City of Jodhpur. c. Alauddin Khilji

4. Alai Darwaza d. Rao Jodha

A. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
C. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

6. Arrange in sequence the following events of History. 1

I. First battle of Tarain.
35
 II. Mohammad Bin Qasim invaded India.
III. Vasco da Gama arrived at Calicut, India.
IV. Second battle of Tarain.
A. I, III, II, IV
B. II, I, IV, III
C. IV, I, III, II
D. III,. II, IV, I

7. I. Prithviraj Raso written by Al Biruni. 1

II. Prithviraj Raso throws light on administration and life of people during the
reign of Mohammad Ghori.
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Both are incorrect
.
8. Read the following statements -Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose the 1
correct answer from the following:
Assertion (A):- Medieval period was a period of economic, political, social and
cultural changes.
Reason(R):- In Medieval period new technologies made their appearance - like
the Persian wheel in irrigation, The spinning wheel in weaving and fire arms in
combat. New food and beverages arrived in the subcontinent.

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
Explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
Explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

9. Identify the personality. 1

A. Prithviraj chauhan
B. Jaichand
C. Mohammad Ghori
D. Al Beruni

10. Merchants and migrants first brought the teachings of the holy Quran to India in the 1
seventh century. Muslims regard the Quran as their holy book and accept the
36
 sovereignty of the one God, Allah, whose love; mercy and bounty embrace all those
who believe in Him, without regard to social background. Many rulers were patrons
of Islam and the ulema – learned theologians and jurists. And like Hinduism, Islam
was interpreted in a variety of ways by its followers. There were the Shia Muslims
who believed that the Prophet Muhammad’s son-in-law, Ali, was the legitimate
leader of the Muslim community, and the Sunni Muslims who accepted the
authority of the early leaders (Khalifas) of the community, and the succeeding
Khalifas.

Islam arrived in India in 7th century through ____

A. priests
B. travellers
C. traders
D. rulers
11. Name the three periods in which history is divided. 2

12. Was the medieval period of history in India and Europe at the same time? Specify 2
the period.
13. In the ancient period what kind of culture did India have? 2

14. How is it evident that during medieval period the Indian culture was influenced? 2

15. Source based question: 3

Today we understand it as “India”, the modern nation-state. When the term was
used in the thirteenth century by Minhaj-i-Siraj, a chronicler who wrote in Persian,
he meant the areas of Punjab, Haryana and the lands between the Ganga and
Yamuna. He used the term in a political sense for lands that were a part of the
dominions of the Delhi Sultan.

Who used the term “India” in the thirteenth century? (1)

What did the chronicler who wrote in Persian meant when he used the term
“India”. (2)
16. List the main sources of information of the mediaeval period of Indian history. 3

17. What does literature of the mediaeval period of Indian history consists of? 3

18. How are travelogues an important literary source? 3

19. Explain the sources which give us information about social, economic, political 5
condition of the mediaeval period of Indian history.

37
CLASS: VII SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
Name of the Chapter: 10. The Rise of small kingdoms in North India
General instructions: There are 25 questions in the Question Bank and 4 printed pages.
Q. QUESTIONS MARKS
No.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given options:

The founder of Pratihara empire was - 1

A. Dantidurga

B. Govinda III

C. Nagabhatta-I

D. Mihir Bhoj

2. Choose the correct answer from the given options:

The Pala rulers were the followers of-

A. Buddhism 1

B. Jainism

C. Hinduism

D. Islam

3. Fill in the blank with the help of given options:

_______ was considered a symbol of power in north India. 1

A. Bundelkhand

B. Malwa

C. Ajmer

D. Kanauj

4. Fill in the blank with the help of given options:

The language ______ enjoyed a place of prominence. 1

A. Pali

B. Sanskrit

C. Prakrit

D. Gujrati

38
5. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options
given below:

Statement I. The Pratiharas were great warriors.

1
Statement II. The Pratiharas stopped the Arab invasions for 500 years.

A. Statement I is true Statement II is false

B. Statement I is false Statement II is true

C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

6. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1
Statement I. The Rajputs played an important role in medieval India.

Statement II. They were famous for their bravery.

A. Statement I is true Statement II is false

B. Statement I is false Statement II is true

C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A) The feudal system led to the decline of many empires.
1
Reason (R) The feudal lords gave only a small part of the land revenue to the
King.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true

8. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements carefully and choose the correct option:
1
Assertion (A) Land was cultivated mainly by shudras who were burdened by
taxes and social discrimination.

Reason (R) The condition of women was quite miserable.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

39
 B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true

9. Identify the famous temple-

A. Sun temple, Konark 1

B. Jagannath temple

C. Khajuraho temple

D. Mukteshwara temple

10. Choose the options given below and complete the following table-

½ + ½ =1

Dynasty Art and Architecture Founder

Palas Siddhesvara temple a)

Rashtrakutas b) Dantidurga

A. a) Gopala b) Rock cut Ellora temple

B. a) Devapala b) Khajuraho temple

C. a) Gopala b) Nalanda University

D. a) Govinda III b) Ellora temple

11. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options
given below:
1
Column A Column B

a) Pratiharas i) Prithviraj Raso

b) Chand Bardai ii) southern Rajasthan and Gujarat

40
 c) Rajput iii) Kaviragamarga

d) Amoghvarsha iv) son of a Raja

A. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

B. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

C. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

D. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

12. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options
given below:

Column A Column B
1
a) Rashtrakutas i) small pictures drawn to illustrate books

b) Miniature painting ii) preached in regional languages

c) Pali and Prakrit iii) Param Bhattarak

d) Bhakti saints iv) used for writing books on Buddhism and

Jainism

A. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

B. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

C. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

D. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

13. Solve the analogy: - 1

Devapala : Palas :: _____: Pratiharas

A. Dantidurga

B. Mihir Bhoj

C. Dharamapala

D. Govinda III

41
14. Arrange the following statements in chronological order:

a) Prithviraj Chauhan remains a hero of many folk tales of India.

b) Muhammad Ghori with better preparation defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in the 1

battle of Tarain.

c)Prithviraj Chauhan checked the advances made by Ghori by defeating him at the
battlefield of Tarain.

d) Prithviraj Chauhan became the ruler of Delhi and Ajmer.

A. c d a b

B. a d c b

C. a b c d

D. d c b a

15. Imagine you as Pijush, a Rajput ruler of a kingdom. You came to know that the
British had conquered your neighbouring kingdom and your secret spy informed
1
that any time they are going to conquer your kingdom. Now as a ruler you have to
protect your people so you will-

A. make peace with them.

B. fight bravely

C. take the help of other rulers to save you

D. flee from your kingdom

16. List the temples built during eighth to twelfth century. Enumerate the reasons 1+1=2
which attracted the Muslim invasions in India.

17. The King was all powerful in north India – Justify 2

18. Highlight the features of the education system of north India during medieval
period.
3

19. Write the developments that took place during tenth century CE in medieval India.

20. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions: -

Three powerful kingdoms arose between 750 CE and 1000 CE out of the ruins of
Harsha’s empire and hence this period is also known as the Age of Three Empires.

42
 The Rashtrakutas took over the control in northern part of Deccan, the Palas in 1x3=3
eastern India and the Pratiharas in Avanti. The three main kingdoms though
continuously engaged in wars were successful in providing stable administration
which helped in the progress of art and literature.

A. List the names of the three empires.

B. Mention the present states where Pratiharas ruled.

C. State the reason of the disintegration of Harsha’s empire.

21. The three main kingdoms were continuously engaged in wars. Elaborate. 3+2=5

Discuss its impact.

22. Enumerate the features of Rashtrakutas. 1x5=5

23. There is no clarity about the origin of the Rajputs. Justify. 3+2=5

Recall any two contributions of Palas.

24. Pen down any two evil practices that contributed to the decline of status of 1+2+2=5
women. Write about the religion of the people of north India during medieval
period. List the languages flourished under the Pratiharas.

On an outline map of India mark the following- 1+1=2

25.
A. The place where Lingaraja temple is situated.

B. It was considered a symbol of power in north India

43
CLASS: VII
SUBJECT: Social Science Max Marks: 50
Name of the Chapter: 11. The rise of small Kingdom in the South India
General Instructions: This question paper consists 4 pages and 23 questions.

Q.No. Question Marks

1. Who constructed the temple of Rajarajeshwara at Tanjore? 1
A. Vijayalaya Chola
B. Rajendra Chola
C. Rajaraja I
D. None of them

2. Who defeated the Pala king Mahipal of Bihar and Bengal? 1

A. Rajaraja- I
B. Rajendra Chola
C. Vijayalaya Chola
D. None of them

3. In the 16th century, the ........................kingdom was absorbed in the kingdom of 1

Vijayanagar.
A. Chola
B. Pandya
C. Pala
D. Chera

4. ................. started the Pandya rule over Madurai, Tirunelveli and parts of 1
Travancore.
A. Kandungori
B. Maruvarmab
C. Sundara Pandya
D. None of them

5. Statement I : The founder of cholas was Vijayalaya who defeated Cheras.

Statement II :Rajaraja spread the message of Vedas among the common people.
A. I is true 1
B. II is true
C. Both of them are false
D. Both of them are true

6. Statement I : Rajaraja-I was succeeded by his son, Rajendra Chola, who ruled 1
for 28 years.
Statement II : Chola kingdom extended from Nellore to Pudukotta and Mysore
to Madra.

A. I is true
B. II is true
C. Both of them are false
D. Both of them are true

44
7. In the question given below, two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
1
Assertion(A): The Chola kings encouraged building temples with tall entrance
towers and intricate carvings.
Reason(B): They believed in showcasing grandeur and devotion through
architecture, leading to the development of the distinct Dravida style seen in
temples like the Kailashnath temple.
Options:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is correct but (R)is wrong.
D. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

8. Identify the picture and write its name.

A. Rajrajeshwara temple, Tanjore

B. Kanchipuram temple,
C. Mahabalipuram temple
D. Ksilashnath temple
9. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options
given below.
1
Column A Column B
a. Mandalams i. Chola king
b. Rajrajeshwara Temple ii. Provinces
c. Kshatriyas iii. Warrior class
d. Parantaka-I iv. Tanjore
A. a- i, b-iv, c-iii, d- ii
B. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d- i
C. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d- i
D. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d- i
10. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options 1
given below.

Column A Column B
a. Matha i. A place, usually attached
b. Patron to a temple
c. Edict ii. Oneness
d. Ekatvam iii. An order or a command
iv. Someone who protects an
artist, or an art form
A. a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d- ii
B. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d- i
C. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d- i
D. a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d- i

45
11. Consider the following statements and choose the correct options where they 1
are arranged in the correct sequence:
P- Cholas
Q- Cheras
R- Pandyas
S- Palas
Options:
A. Q-R-P-S
B. Q-R-S-P
C. R-Q-P-S
D. P-R-Q-S

12. As a Chola administrator, you are tasked with ensuring the fair distribution of
land. A dispute arises between two powerful local landlords over the boundaries 1
of their properties. How do you handle this situation?

A. Allow the landlords to resolve the dispute among themselves.

B. Refer the dispute to the village assembly (sabha) for resolution. C. Arbitrarily
decide the boundaries yourself to avoid delays.
D. Increase taxes on both parties to deter future disputes.

13. What was the significance of the Chola Navy? 2

14. Who was Vijayalaya Chola? Write any achievement of him. 2

15. Who took the title of Gangaikondai and why? 1+2=3

16. What role did agriculture play in the prosperity of the Chola Kingdom? 3

17. What were the social structures in South India during the medieval period? 3

18. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 3

The Kanchipuram temple is located in the city of Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu. The
temple is a masterpiece of Dravidian architecture, dating back to the Pallava
dynasty in the 8th century CE. It is one of the oldest temples in Kanchipuram and
is a renowned for its intricate carvings and exquisite craftsmanship. The primary
deity of the temple is Lord Shiva, worshipped in the form of Kailashnath.

(a) What is the architecture style of the Kanchipuram temple? (1)

(b)When was the Kanchipuram temple built? (1)
(c) Who is the primary data worship at the Kanchipuram temple? (1)

19. Write a brief note on the main achievements of Rajendra Chola. 5

20. Describe the administration system of the southern rulers during the medieval 5
period.
21. Describe the development of art and architecture under the southern rulers. 5
22. Mention any five features of the Cholas. 5
23. Mark the following places on the outline map of India.
1. Mahabalipuram 2. Thanjavur 2

46
47
Class: VII Maximum Marks: 35
CHAPTER: 12. THE TURKISH INVASION

General Instructions: - This question paper contains 3 printed page and 19 questions.

Q.No Questions Marks

1. Choose the correct options from the given alternatives:- 1
Which of the following was not the reason for the defeat of Indian rulers in the
medieval period?
A. Disunity among Indian rulers.
B. Dissatisfaction of the common people with the rulers.
C. Powerful and modern army of the Indian rulers.
D. The feudal system.
2. The credit of founding Muslim empire in India goes to ______. 1
A. Mahmud Ghazni
B. Muhammad Ghori
C. Prithviraj Chouhan
D. Qutub –ud-din Aibek
3. Prithviraj Chouhan was defeated by Muhammad Ghori in the second battle of 1
__________
A. Panipat
B. Tarain
C. Haldighati
D. Bhairowal
4. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options given 1
below:-
a) The frequent wars among the Rajputs resulted in political unity in North India.
b) The wars among the Rajput rulers paved the way for the Turks to invade on India.
A. (a) is True but (b) is False
B. (a) is False but (b) is True
C. Both the statements are True
D. Both the statements are False
5. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the options given 1
below:-
a) Muhammad Ghazni invaded India 17 times in 27 years.
b) The attacks of Ghazni exposed the weakness of the Indian rulers.
A. (a) is True but (b) is False
B. (a) is False but (b) is True
C. Both the statements are True
D. Both the statements are False
6. Two statements are marked with Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have been given 1
below. Choose the correct options that follow:-
Assertion (A): The Turks slowly took over the power and became Governors of the
provinces.
Reason (R): By the end of the 9th century, the power of Caliph weakened.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
48
 B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is incorrect
D. A is incorrect but R is correct

7. Complete the table given below:- 1

Literary Source Author

Kitab –Al- Hind

A. Al Beruni
B. Ibn-e- Battutah
C. Abul- Fazal
D. Fa-Hien
8. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options given 1
below:-
Column A Column B

i) Birth of Mahmud Ghazni a) 1025 CE

ii) Ascending of throne by Mahmud b) 1191-92 CE

Ghazni.

iii) Attack on Somnath temple. c) 971 CE

iv) The Battle of Tarain d) 998 CE

A. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

B. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
D. i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
9. Arrange the following events in the chronological order:- 1
i) Rule of Abbasid Caliph of Baghdad.
ii) Invasion of Muhammad Ghori on India.
iii) Invasion of Mahmud Ghazni on India.
iv) Formation of Delhi Sultanate under Qutub-ud-din Aibek.
A. i, iii, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv, ii
C. ii, i, iii, iv
D. ii, iv, iii, i
10 Suppose you are a Rajput ruler in North India during the Turkish invasion. Mention 1
any one strategy you would opt to defend your kingdom from the attacks of Turkish
rulers.
Options:
A. I would first fortify the defence of my kingdom by strengthening the city walls of
the kingdom.
B. I would leave the kingdom to save my life.
C. I would surrender before the enemy.

49
 D. I would increase the taxes on the people to manage the expenses of the war.

11. Discuss the reasons behind the beginning of a new lineage of rulers known as 2
Ghaznavis.
12. Explain why Mahmud Ghazni decided to invade India from North-West part. 2

13. “Mahmud Ghazni was remembered as a great builder of beautiful mosques, palaces 2
and libraries in his own country.” Justify the statement.

14. “The credit of founding the Muslim empire in India goes to Muhammad Ghori.” 3
Support this statement in three points.
15. Briefly explain the invasions of Mahmud Ghazni on Somnath temple. 3

16. Describe the impacts of Mahmud Ghazni’s invasions on political, economic and 3
cultural landscape in North India.
17. Muhammad Ghori was the ruler of a small kingdom of Ghor in Afghanistan. He 3
conquered Ghazni. He placed it under the charge of his brother and decided to turn his
attention towards India to expand his empire unlike Mahmud-Ghazni whose main aim
of invading India was to loot the great wealth of India,
The credit of the founding of muslim empire in India goes to Muhammad Ghori. He
occupied Peshawar, Lahore and Sindh. He was defeated in the first Battle of Tarain by
Prithviraj Chauhan (1191-1192) but was victorious in the second Battle of Tarain and
took over Delhi and Ajmer.
i) Discuss the main intention of Muhammad Ghori behind his invasions on India. (1)
ii) Who was the victorious in the first Battle of Tarain? (1)
iii) How did Muhammad Ghori manage to take over Delhi and Ajmer? (1)

18. State any five reasons responsible for the defeat of Indian rulers. 5

19. On the outline map of India locate and label the following kingdoms of medieval 2
India:-
i) Rashtrakutas
ii) Chauhanas

50
Name of the Chapter: 13. The Delhi Sultanate Maximum Marks: 50
General Instructions: This question paper consists 23 questions and 4 pages.

Q. Questions Marks
No.
1. Whom did Muhammad Ghori appoint as his deputy in India? 1

A. Nasiruddin Mahmood

B. Qutubuddin Aibak

C. Ala-ud-din Khilji

D. Ibrahim Lodhi

2. Daulat Khan was attacked and defeated by? 1

A. Sikander Lodhi

B. Feroz Tughlaq

C. Ibrahim Lodhi

D. Sayyed Khirja Khan

3. Muhammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj Chauhan in__________.

A. 1206 CE

B. 1191 CE 1

C. 1192 CE

D. 1193 CE

4. Iltutmish organised a group of 40 Turkish nobles called__________. 1

A. Chaliha

B. Iqtas

C. Jital

D. Darbar

5 __________ was made Sultan by the nobles after Razia Sultan. 1

A. Mir Quasim

B. Nasiruddin Mahmood

C. Bahram Shah

D. Jalal-ud-din

51
6. Statement I. People were engaged in agriculture during the Medieval Period. 1
Statement II. They depended only on rain.

A. I is true but II is false.

B. I is false but II is true.
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Both the statements are false.

7 Statement I. Iltutmish constructed Qutub Minar. 1

Statement II. It was completed by Qutubuddin Aibak.
A. I is true but II is false.
B. I is false but II is true.
C. Both the statements are true.
D. Both the statements are false.
8 The following question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). For selecting the correct answer, use the following code:
1

Assertion (A): Iltutmish treated Sunnis and Hindus very badly.

Reason (R): Iltutmish was a staunch Sunni Muslim.

A. Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are the true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true and (R) is false.

D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

9 The following question consists of two statements, namely, Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). For selecting the correct answer, use the following code:
1
Assertion (A): The Hindu society was based on caste system. Lower caste was exploited
by the upper class.

Reason (R): This led to wide-scale conversion to Islam.

A. Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are the true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true and (R) is false.

D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

10 Study the picture and choose the correct options.

52
 1

What architectural style is found in the given picture?

A. Hindu style

B. Gothic style

C. Islamic style

D. Roman style

11 Match the following.

a) Braj Bhasha i) Shaivism 1

b) Hinduism ii) Copper coin

c) Lodhi Road iii) 1st Muslim lady ruler of medieval

period

d) Jital iv) became the literary language

e) Razia Sultan v) Delhi

A. a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-3; e-5

B. a-3; b-5; c-1; d-2; e-4

C. a-5; b-3; c-2; d-4; e-1

D. a-4; b-1; c-5; d-2; e-3

53
12 Match the following.

a) Slave Dynasty i) great scholar but lacked common 1

sense

b) Ibrahim Lodhi ii) Qutubuddn Aibak

c) Paragana iii) defeated by Babur

d) Muhammad Tughlaq iv) 84 or 100 villages

A. a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv

B. a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i

C. a-iv; b-ii; c-ii; d-i

D. a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i

13 Arrange the following according to their chronological order:

1) Razia Sultan 1
2) Nasiruddin Mahmood
3) Qutubuddin Aibak

4) Muhammad Tughlaq
Options:
A. 3, 4, 2, 1
B. 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

14 Arrange the following according to the events taken place:

1) Razia becomes Sultan
2) Iltutmish died 1
3) Rukunuddin Feroz was declared the Sultan
4) Feroz murdered seven months later.

Options:
A. 4,2,3,1
B. 3,1,2,4
C. 2,1,4,3
D. 2,3,4,1

54
15 Shreya, a 14 year old girl, is asked by her mother after watching the movie ‘Padmavat’.

Mother: Can you tell me which incident is shown in the last scene of the movie, where 1
all the women burns themselves alive in the Chittor Fort?

Shreya: yes mom! I know the answer, I have read it in my History book. It’s
called_____.

A. Sati

B. Johar

C. Holocaust

D. Renaissance

16 Rajesh(to his father): Wow! What a mesmerizing view to look at the Taj Mahal. 1

Father: Yes, son. It is indeed so. But there are other sites to visit.

Rajesh: Let's go and visit Agra Fort next. Agra is a wonderful place to visit.

Father: Indeed so. But do you know who built the modern Agra City?

Rajesh: No.

Father: Well, let me give you a clue. He and his Dynasty built a famous garden in Delhi.

Who is the person father referring to?

A. Bahlol Lodhi

B. Mohammad bin Tughlaq

C. Sikander Lodhi

D. Qutub-ud-din Aibak

17 Which Khalji ruler is famous for his Economic reforms? 2

18 What is Chaliha? 2

19 Why is the Mamluk Dynasty also called The Slave Dynasty? 3

20 Analyse how Iltutmish saved Delhi from the wrath of Chenghis Khan? 3

21 Do you think Diwan-i-Arz was like the present Defence Minister? 3

22 “India had a flourishing internal and foreign trade”- Support this view taking examples
from the chapter.
3

55
23 Illustrate how the society was divided during the Medieval Period. 5

24 Reflect on the language and literature of the period. 5

25 Ala-ud-din Khalji was a brave general and a skilled administrator. Justify. 5

26 On a political map of India, mark the following--- 3

i) Place where Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated by Babur.

ii) City where Lodhi Garden is situated.

iii) Prithviraj Chauhan was the ruler of this place apart from Delhi.

56
CLASS: VII
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE MAXIMUM MARKS: 50
CHAPTER: 14. REGIONAL POWERS

Q. No. Questions Marks

1 On which river bank Vijaynagar was established? 1

A. Indus River
B. Tungabhadra River
C. Krishna River
D. Godavari River
2 Which dynasty Krishnadevaraya belonged to? 1

A. Mauryan Dyansty
B. Kushana Dyansty
C. Chola Dyansty
D. Tuluv Dyansty
3 Complete the following statement with suitable word/s. 1

__-------------------- and ----------------- are most famous temples in Vijaynagar

Empire.

A. Vithalswami and Virupaksha

B. Lingaraja and Mukteswara
C. Mahabalipuram and Kailashnath
D. Kanchipuram and Tirupati
4 Complete the following statement with suitable word/s. 1

__--------------------- made Ahom a very strong kingdom and it was given the name
‘Assam’.

A. Suhungming
B. Nusrat Shah
C. Ahmad Shah
D. Suteuphaa
5 Statement I: In Bahamani Kingdom Hasan Gangu transferred his capital from 1
Gulbarga to Bidar.

Statement II: The Bahamani kingdom was a cultural bridge between north and south
India.

A. Statement I is True but statement II is False.

B. Statement I is False but statement II is True.
C. Both Statements I and II are True.
D. Both Statements I and II are False.

6 Statement I: Rana Kumbha constructed magnificent Kirti Stambha. 1

57
 Statement II: He constructed this beautiful architecture to celebrate his victory over
Malwa.

A. Statement I is True but statement II is False.

B. Statement I is False but statement II is True.
C. Both Statements I and II are True.
D. Both Statements I and II are False.
7 Assertion(A): The rulers of Vijaynagar were mostly involved in battles with 1
Bahamani Kingdom.

Reason(R): Both kingdoms wanted to gain control over Raichur Doab which was
every rich and fertile area.

A. Both(A) and (R)are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and(R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
8 Two statements given as Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Read the two statements 1
carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion(A):Maharana Pratap was known as ‘a king without capital’.

Reason (R):Maharana Pratap and his followers withdrew to the hills of Mewar from
where they continued the war against Akbar through guerrilla warfare for the next
twenty years.

A. Both(A) and (R)are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and(R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
9 Look at the picture and identify the historical place . 1

A. Kumbhalgarh Fort

B. Red Fort

C. Kirti Stambha

D. Vijaynagar Fort

10 1

Column A Column B

58
 i. Firoz Shah a.1576

ii. Harihar and Bukka b. Daulatabad observatory

iii. Battle of Khanwa c. Founder of Vijaynagar empire

iv. Battle of Haldighati d.1527

Match the following and choose the option:

A. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

B. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

C. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

D. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

11 Match the following and choose the correct option: 1

Column A Column B

i. Ashta Diggaj a. Vijaynagar Empire

ii.Virupaksha Temple b. Group of eight intellectuals in

Vijaynagar Empire

iii. Rao Jodha c. Bahmani kingdom

iv. Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah d. Founder of Jodhpur

A. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

B. i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
C. i-d, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
D. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
12 Arrange the following statements in chronological order. 1

i. Rana Sanga was lost in the battle of Khanwa.

ii. The magnificent Kirti Stambha was constructed to celebrate victory of Rana
Kumbha over Malwa.

iii. Maharana Pratap confronted imperial armies at Haldighati.

iv. Zainul Abidin adopted policy of religious tolerance towards the Hindus.

A. i, ii, iii, iv
B. iii, ii, i, iv
C. iv, ii, i, iii
D. iii, i, iv, ii
13 Zainul Abidin was one of the famous rulers of Kashmir and his policy of religious 1
tolerance allowed the people in his kingdom to live a happy and prosperous life.
Suppose you are given responsibility to run a state as a religious tolerant ruler where

59
 people from different religions live. Mention one step that can be taken by you to
create harmony in the society?

A. Particular one religion will be declared as a state religion.

B. People from every religion will be allowed to practice their faith.
C. People from majority religion will be given preference.
D. People will be prohibited to practice any religious custom.

14. “The women were respected in the society in Vijaynagar Empire.” Justify the 2
statement with two suitable examples.

15. “In Vijaynagar Empire the head of the state was the king’’. Justify the statement with 2
suitable points.

16. “Firoz Shah Bahamani was the most famous and successful ruler of Bahamani 2
kingdom.” Mention his contribution to the kingdom.

17. “Several measures were taken by Zainul Abidin for economic development of 3
Kashmir’’. Support the statement with suitable examples.

18. Read the following passage and answer the following questions: 3

Krishnadevaraya was born in 1471 CE and he was the son of Tuluva Narasa Nayaka
and Nagala Devi. With the accession of Vira Narasimha, the period of the Tuluva
Dynasty began. After the death of Vira Narasimha (1505-1509) his brother
i.e. Krishnadevaraya ascended the powerful throne of the Vijayanagara Empire in
1509 CE. To safeguard his empire he initially took the objective of bringing all the
chieftains of the Tungabhadra region under his sway. He was a great patron of art and
literature. He was known as Andhra Bhoja and gave patronage to many scholars,
artists, philosophers, etc. Amukta-malyada a famous poem in Telugu is also written by
him. He built numerous temples like the famous Krishnaswamy temple, Hazara
Ramaswamy temple, Vittalaswami temple. He also built huge irrigation reservoirs,
tanks, and canals for the peasants.
18.1. What step was taken by Krishnadevaraya to unite and strengthen the empire?
(1)
18.2. “Krishnadevaraya was a great patron of art and literature.” Support the
statement. (1)
18.3. “Krishnadevaraya had taken several steps for the well-being of his
peasants.”Justify the statement. (1)

19 i.“Dravidian architecture flourished under the Vijaynagar Empire’’. Justify the 4+1=5
statement with suitable examples.

ii. Name two foreign travelers who visited this empire?

20 i. Who was the last famous ruler of Vijaynagar Empire? 1+4=5

60
 ii. “Several administrative reforms took place in Vijaynagar Empire which made the
government run smoothly.” Explain the statement.

21 i.“Society under the Vijaynagar Empire was also cursed with many social evils.” 2+3=5
Justify the statement.

ii. “Rana Kumbha was one of the famous rulers of Mewar.” State any three reasons
in support of this statement.

22 i.“Zainul Abidin was a liberal and far-sighted ruler.” Mention any three steps taken 3+2=5
by him to ensure equality among all religions.

ii. Highlight some notable administrative measures implemented in the Bahamani

Kingdom to ensure the smooth functioning of the government?

23 On the outline map of India locate and label the following locations - 5

i. Bahmani Kingdom

ii.Vijaynagar Empire

iii. Chittor

iv. Khanwa.

v. Ahom Dynasty

General Instruction: This question paper consists 5 pages and 23 questions.

61
Class- VII Subject- Social Science
Name of the Chapter: 15. The Mughal Empire M.M.- 50
General Instruction:
1. This question paper contains four printed pages.
2. There are 24 questions in all and marks are indicated against each question.
Q.No. Questions Marks

1 Who is popularly known as the fore runner of Akbar? 1

A) Babur
B) Jahangir
C) Sher Shah

D) Aurangzeb

2 Sulh-e-kul meant- 1
A) Unity
B) Gender discrimination
C) Universal peace

D) Joint family

3 In the first battle of Panipat in 1526, Babur defeated _____________. 1

A) Ibrahim Lodi
B) Sher Shah Suri
c) Prithvi Raj Chauhan

D) Bahadur Shah Zafar

4 _____________ was not only a religion but a socio religious path started by Akbar. 1
A) Mansabdari System
B) Din-i-llahi
C) Ibadat khana
D) Diwani

5 ____________ was a singer and musician among the nine gems of Akbar’s court. 1
A) Birbal
B) Raja Todarmal
C) Raja Man Singh

D) Tansen

6 Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the option given 1
below.

62
 a) Aurangzeb took the title of Alamgir.
b) Aurangzeb died in 1707.
A) Only (a) is true

B) Only (b) is true

C) Both of them are true
D) Both of them are false

7 Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the option given 1
below.

a) Jahangir was known as an Engineer king.

b) He was the son of Akbar
A) Only (a) is true
B) Only (b) is true
C) Both of them are true
D) Both of them are false

8 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) 1
and Reason(R).
Assertion (A): Bairam Khan wrote Akbarnama.
Reason (R): Baburnama, Akbarnama and Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri are the main sources of
information of the Mughal period.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) A is false, but R is true.

9 In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) 1
and Reason(R).
Assertion (A): Babur laid the foundation of the Mughal Empire in India.
Reason (R): Babur became the ruler of Hindustan by defeating the army of Ibrahim
Lodi.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true.

63
10 Complete the table by giving correct information. 1

Ascended the Name of the Title taken

throne ruler

1605 a) b)

c) Shah Jahan d)

Options-

A) a-Akbar, b-Jahangir, c-1627, d- Engineer king

B) a- Salim, b-Jahangir, c-1629, d- Engineer king

C) a- Jahangir, b- Akbar, c-1630, d- Engineer king

D) a-Salim, b-Jahangir, c-1628, d- Engineer king

11 Match the column and choose the correct option from the given alternatives. 1

Column A Column B

a) Birbal i) Akbarnama

b) Abul Fazal ii) Son of Bairam Khan

c) Humam iii) Statement ship and wit

d) Abdur Rahim Khan v

Options-

A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

B) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

D) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

64
12 Match the column and choose the correct option from the given alternatives. 1

Column A Column B

a) Shah Jahan i) Law and order

b) Bahadur shah Zafar- II ii) Holder of the world

c) Kotwal iii) Last Mughal emperor

d) Jahangir iv) Engineer King

Options-
A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

B) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
D) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

13 Arrange the incident according to the time line. 1

a) Second battle of Panipat

b) First battle of Panipat.

c) First war of Independence
d) Battle of Chausa
Options-
A) a-b-c-d

B) b-d-a-c
C) d-a-b-c
D) c-a-d-b

14 Situation based question 1

If you are a descendent of Bahadur Shah Zaffar, who was exiled by British after the
first war of independence of 1857 to Rangoon, where he died. British captured the
last symbol of Mughal Empire ie. The Red fort and disrespected the family of the
said Mughal emperor.
How do you like yourself to be treated by the Government of Independent India?
A) Minister
B) President

C) Prime Minister
D) Citizen

15 Who was the regent of Akbar? Why? 2

65
16 What was the outcome of the battle of Khanwa? 2

17 Discuss any two measures taken by Akbar to make him a secular ruler. 3

18 Why Shah Jahan was known as an Engineer king? 3

19 Describe the social and economic condition of the people during Mughal period. 3

20 Read the given passage and answer the following questions. 3

The Mughals were a Muslim dynasty who ruled over a majority Hindu population.
By 1750, they had dominated much of South Asia for several centuries. Muslims
were already living in India when the Mughals first arrive. During Mughal rule,
Muslims averaged only fifteen percent of the population.
i) Who founded Mughal Empire and when? (1)
ii) What does majority and minority means? (2)

21 Explain the important factors that laid to the decline of Mughal Empire. 5

22 Who were Mansabdars? State their responsibilities. 2+3

23 Examine in five points, how far Aurangzeb was responsible for downfall of Mughal 5
Empire.

24 On the given political map of India mark the following points given below. 5
i) Delhi
ii) Panipat
iii) Ahemdabad
iv) Kanauj

v) Bikaner

66
Class: VII Subject: Social Science
Name of the Chapter: 16. Emergence of Independent States Max Marks: 50
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
General Instructions:
This question paper comprises of 5 pages with a total of 24 questions:
Q.No QUESTION MA
RKS

1. Choose the correct answer from the given options: 1

Name the Mughal emperor when Saadat Khan was appointed as the Governor of
Awadh in 1722?
A. Muhammad Shah
B. Bahadur Shah
C. Farrukhsiyar
D. Jahandar Shah

2. Choose the correct answer from the given options: 1

Which Sikh guru tried to unite the peasants and the lower castes to wage a war against
the Mughals?
A. Guru Gobind Singh
B. Banda Bahadur

C. Guru Angad
D. Maharaja Ranjit Singh

3. Fill in the blank spaces with the help of the given options: 1
_______________________ was an additional tax of ten per cent which Shivaji
demanded as he was the chief of Maharashtra.

A. Chauth
B. Sardeshmukhi
C. Upari
D. All the above

4. Fill in the blank spaces with the help of the given options: 1

Saadat Khan’s nephew _______________________ succeeded him in 1739.

A. Muhammad Shah
B. Haider Ali
C. Bairam Khan
D. Safdar Jung

67
5. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the options 1
given below:

I) Guru Angad was the tenth Sikh Guru

II) He transformed the Sikhs into a powerful political and military force.

A. Only (I) is true

B. Only (II) is true

C. Both of them are true

D. Both of them are false

6. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the options 1
given below:

I) Shivaji was an able administrator and a military commander.

II) Shivaji challenged the powerful Mughal empire during the reign of Jahangir and laid
the foundation of the Maratha state.

A. Only (I) is true

B. Only (II) is true

C. Both of them are true

D. Both of them are false

7. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): The Sikhs gained an opportunity to reestablish themselves thereby
forming a Sikh state, they established control over Punjab and Jammu.

Reason (R): Nadir Shah’s attack caused permanent harm to the Mughal Empire. He was
followed by Ahmad Shah Abdali, who between 1748 and 1767 invaded India four times
and pillaged Delhi.

CODES-

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is correct, but R is incorrect

D. A is incorrect, but R is correct

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:

68
 Assertion (A): Shivaji’s military power was exemplified by the use of Guerilla warfare.
Reason (R): Shivaji used this method to avoid direct confrontation with the invading
forces, this method is well suited to all terrains.

CODES-
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct, but R is incorrect
D. A is incorrect, but R is correct

9. Complete the following table with the help of the given options: 1

Kingdoms Founders

1. Hyderabad

2. Saadat Khan

A. 1- Haider Ali, 2- Awadh

B. 1- Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah, 2-Bengal
C. 1- Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah, 2- Awadh
D. 1- Muhammad Shah, 2- Awadh

10. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options given 1
below:

Column A Column B

1) Shivaji a) Tenth Guru

2) Farrukh Siyar b) Koh-i-Noor

3) Guru Gobind Guru c) Guerilla Warfare

4) Maharaja Ranjit Singh d) Mughal emperor

Options:
A. 1-c, 2-d, 3-d, 4-a
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d,4-a

11. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from the options given 1
below:

69
 Column A Column B

1) Dewan Dina Nath a) Marwar

2) Ajit Singh b) land revenue

3) Chauth c) Finance minister

4) Sawai Jai Singh d) Amber

Options:
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

B. 1- b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

12. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option where they are 1
arranged in the correct sequence:
P. The leadership of the Sikhs passed into the hands of Banda Bahadur.
Q. Ranjit Singh rose to power and captured Lahore and Amritsar.
R. Guru Gobind Singh transformed the Sikhs into a powerful political and military
force.
S. The institution of Guruship came to an end after the death of Guru Gobind Singh.

Options:
A. R-P-Q-S
B. R-S-P-Q
C. R-S-Q-P
D. R-P-Q-S

13. Read the passage and choose the correct option from the following: 1

India of eighteenth century lacked social unity due to feudal divisions and economic
disparity. The condition of women was not good. The backwardness of agriculture and
industry at the hands of the foreign companies destroyed the internal and the external
trade.
Let’s assume you are the emperor of India during the eighteenth century, what steps will
you adopt to improve the condition of women in those times.
A. Encourage education of women and enable them to participate in the decision-
making process
B. Take effective measures to eradicate social evils against women

70
 C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

14. ‘All the three Nawabs of Bengal realised the importance of trade’- What were the steps 2
taken by the Nawabs to encourage trade in Bengal?

15. Name the states that never openly asserted their independence. 1+1
What was the nature of their relationship with the Mughal empire?
1
16. Name the two main sources of state income of the Marathas. Explain any one of them. /2+1
/2+1

17. ‘An efficient team of officers ran the administration under the Maratha king’- Explain 3
the statement with reference to the administrative policies of Shivaji.

18. Which warfare strategy was adopted by Shivaji to combat the invading Mughal forces? 1+1
Explain it. Do you think this warfare strategy would be equally beneficial to the plains? +1

19. ‘Ranjit Singh was tolerant towards other religions’- Explain it with reference to his 2+1
policies. What was the major reason for the defeat of Banda Bahadur at the hands of the
British?

Read the passage and answer the following questions:

20. In the 17th century, the Mughals’ attempt to control the Rajputs led to a rise in Rajput 3
autonomy and independence. Later Mughal rulers attempted to reconcile with the
Rajputs, but by then, the Rajputs no longer trusted the Mughals enough to join forces
with them. In the 18th century, the Rajputs were influenced by the Maratha kingdom and
attempted to reclaim their independence.
The Rajput rebellion began in 1708 due to harsh treatment of Rajput kings by the Mughal
emperor. The rebellion was led by Jai Singh and Durgadas Rathore, and the Rajput
kingdoms of Marwar and Amber banded together against Mughals.

i) Why did the plan of reconciliation of the later Mughals turn out to be a failure? (1)
ii) Name the Rajput rulers who led the rebellion. (2)

21. State the factors that led to the emergence of independent states in India. 5

22. Name any two places conquered by Ranjit Singh. 1+1

+3
How did he manage to save his kingdom from the wrath of the Britishers?

Do you consider Ranjit Singh as an efficient administrator-Justify in your own words.

23. ‘Tipu Sultan was a staunch enemy of the British’- Give a brief review of his military 3+2
policies.

71
 Do you think his policies hold relevance in the modern times?

24. On a political map of India locate and label the following places (Prepare a legend
as well):

a) Ajit Singh was the governor of (i)___________ and (ii)___________.

(1+1
b) Mysore )

c) State founded by Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jha (1)

(1)

72
Class- VII Max Marks: 50
Name of the chapter- 17. Major Religions Subject – Social Science
General Instructions- This question paper consists 3 pages and 24 questions.
Q. No Question Marks

1. The word ‘Sufi’ is derieved from- 1

A. Sufe
B. Sufa
C. Sufii
D. Wool
2. Kabir and Nanak strongly preached – 1

A. Hindu- Muslim unity.

B. Muslim-Sikh unity.
C. Hindu- Sufism unity.
D. Muslim- Sufism unity.
3. Every Muslim should keep roza during the holy month of _______________. 1

A. Ramzan.

B. Rajab.

C. Safar.

D. Shawwal.

4. Grave of a Muslim saint called _____________. 1

A. Samadhi.

B. Dargah.

C. Mazar.

D. Khanqah.

5. State True or False for the following statements:- 1

(i)The worship of Rama was made popular by Kalidas in north.

(ii) The worship of Rama was made popular by Tulsidas in North.

A. Both are True.

B. Both are False.

C.(i) is True but (ii) is False.

D.(i) is False but (ii) is True.

6. State True or False for the following statements:- 1

73
 i.Guru Nanak passed away in 1539 CE at Kartarpur.
ii.Kabir composed padas and Dohas in the praise of the Supreme God.
A. Both are True.
B. Both are False.
C.(i) is True but (ii) is False.
D.(i) is False but (ii) is True.
7. Assertion (A) – The two main sects within Islam were the Sunni and Shia. 1
Reason (R) - The conflict among the Successors led to the creation of two main sects
within Islam.
A. Both (A) and ( R)are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

8. Assertion (A) –Ramanananda worshiped shri Ram with complete devotion and love. 1
Reason (R)- Bhakti saints opposed the caste system, superstition and narrow
mindness.

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

9. Identify the picture:- 1

A. Tomb of Khwaja Muinnudin Chisti.

B. Dargah Nizamuddin Aulia.
C. Dargah Sheikh Bahauddin Zakaria.
D. The Golden Temple.

10. Match the following- 1

Column A Column B

a. Guru Teg Bahadur (i) Holy book of Christian

74
 b. Bible (ii) Fighting against the oppression by
The Mughals

c. Khalifa (iii) Head of the Muslim world

d. Bakhtiar Kaki (iv) ) Famous Sufi saints

Choose the correct one –

A. a.(i), b.(ii), c.( iii), d.(iv)
B. a. (ii), b. (i), c. ( iii), d. (iv)
C. a.( iii), b. ( iv), c.( i), d. (ii)
D. a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (ii), d.( i)
11. Match the following- 1

Column A Column B

a.Temple (i) The second Guru of Shikhism

b. Devotee of Krishna (ii) Place of Hindu worship

c. The Alvars (iii) Meerabai

d. Guru Angad (iv) ) Devotes of Vishnu

Choose the correct one -

A. a.(i), b.(ii), c.( iii), d.(iv)

B. a. (ii), b. (iii), c. ( iv), d. (i)
C. a.( iii), b. ( iv), c.( i), d. (ii)
D. a. (iv), b. (iii), c. (ii), d.( i)
12. Arrange the following Bhakti Saints in a chronological sequence- 1

i. Tukaram
ii. Kabir
iii. Ramananda
iv. Jnanadeva
Options-

A. 3,4,2,1
B. 4,3,2,1
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 3,2,4,1
13. If you have any Superstitions in your religion, how will you remove it from people’s 1
mind?

A. Provide Information.

B. Provide Food.

C. Provide Education.

75
 D. Provide logical thinking and proper scientific knowledge.

14. According to Chaitanya Charitamrita, Chaitanya was born in Nabadwip on the full 3
moon night of 18 February 1486, at the time of lunar eclipse. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu’s
mode of worshipping Krishna with bhajan-kirtan and dance had a profound effect on
Vaishnavism in Bengal. He was also the chief proponent of the Vedantic philosophy of
Achintya Bheda Tattva. He expounded Bhakti yoga and popularized the chanting of the
Hare Krishna Maha-mantra.

i. Draw the Image of Full Moon night. (1)

ii. Mention the district name where Nabadwip situated. (1)

iii. How the Vaishnavism spread in Bengal? (1)

15. Does the Quran teach you any strategy in your life? Explain your answer. 2

16. Explain the main teachings which we learn from Christian religion. 2

17. Name two famous gurus of Bhakti movement 2

18. Distinguish between omnipotent and omnipresent. 2

19. Explain Sangat and Pangat established by Guru Nanak. 3

20. Mention the three Silsilas of Sufism. 3

21. What is the main believe of Sufism? Enlist the similarities between Sufism and 1+4
Hinduism.

22. Write a short note about Guru Nanak. 5

23. Explain the characteristic of Bhakti movement. 5

24. “Mecca and Madina are the two holy cities of pilgrimage for the Muslims”-

A. Mention the reason why these two cities consider as holy places for Muslims.
B. Which values are extracted from the Islamic Religion.
5

76
Class: VII Subject: CIVICS
Name of the Chapter: 18. Democracy and Equality Max Marks: 50
General Instructions: This question paper consists 23 questions and 4 pages.

Q. No. Question Marks

1. The Preamble is- 1

A. A conclusion to Indian Constitution
B. A replica to Indian Constitution
C. An Introduction to Indian Constitution
D. A guidelines to Indian Constitution
2. 26th January, 1950 is important for 1
A. India attained Independence
B. Constitution of India came into effect
C. End of Colonial exploitation
D. Death of Mahatma Gandhi
3. _________ was the most courageous step of the Constitution framers. 1
A. One Man Two Vote
B. One Man No Vote
C. Two Man One Vote
D. One Man One Vote
4. When a single majority party cannot form the Government, some political 1
parties join hands to form a government.
It is known as _________________
A. Friendship Government
B. Mutual Government
C. Coalition Government
D. Multi Party Government
5. Read the following statements and choose the CORRECT option. 1
Statement I – The people of India cast their votes and elect their representative for a
fixed period.
Statement II – These representatives run the Government according to the wishes of
President.
A. Only I is true
B. Only II is true
C. Both I & II are true
D. Both I & II are false
6. Read the following statements and choose the CORRECT option. 1
Statement I – Our Constitution has promoted awarding titles like Raj Bahadur as
this gave a special status in the society.
Statement II – Our Constitution has banned the practice of untouchability.
A. Only I is true
B. Only II is true
C. Both I & II are true
D. Both I & II are false

77
7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Read 1
the statements and choose the appropriate option from the options given below.
Assertion (A)- Some religious places ban the entry of people belonging to other
communities and castes.
Reason (R)- Certain communities look down upon others and do not give them jobs
or houses on rent.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
8. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Read 1
the statements and choose the appropriate option from the options given below.
Assertion (A)- Many laws have been made to protect the Right to Equality. For
examples, equal opportunities in education and jobs.
Reason (R)- Government has launched many schemes for the Ministers.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
9. Study the image, read the information given below and choose the correct 1
option.

i) This program encourages caste discrimination.

ii) This Scheme motivated many parents to sent their children to school.
iii) The enrolment in school has decreased.
Options:
A. Only i is correct.
B. ii and ii is correct.
C. Only ii is correct.
D. i and iii is correct.

10. Match the following. 1

Column A Column B

i) Community a) A person elected to act on behalf of

people for a fixed period.

ii) Democracy b) Disadvantaged groups enlisted in

Article 341.

78
 iii) Representative c) People living together sharing common
interest.

iv) Scheduled Caste/Tribe d) A kind of system where people have

supreme power.

Options:
A. i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
B. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C. i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
D. i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
11. Arrange the following in sequence. 1
i) LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship;
ii) FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity
of the Nation;
iii) JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
iv) WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA having solemnly resolved to constitute India into
a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure
to all its citizens:
v) IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949,
do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS
CONSTITUTION.
vi) EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all
Options:
A. iv-iii-ii-i-vi-v
B. vi-iv-i-iii-ii-v
C. iv-iii-i-vi-ii-v
D. vi-v-iv-ii-i-iii
12. Read the information given below and choose the correct option. 1

Sumita lives at Rudrapur village in Uttar Pradesh. She belongs to ST category. She is
not allowed to take water from the common village well. She launched complain to
Gram Pradhan several times. But it did not work. She has to go 10 kilometres to
outskirt of her village to fetch water.

Sumita is denied from which of the following rights?

A. Right to Freedom
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Equality
D. Cultural and Educational Right.
13. List the roles performed by political parties in a democratic country. 2

14. Name any to literacy programmes started by Indian Government. 2

15. Why reservation was provided to weaker section? 2

16. ‘Let us all make India a successful democracy.’ Write any three points to support the 3
statement.

79
17. How does opposition party play an important role in democracy? 3

18. Mention any three steps taken by Government for better education. 3

19. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow. 1+2=3
In the United States of America, the African–Americans whose ancestors were the
slaves who were brought over from Africa, continue to describe their lives today as
largely unequal. This, despite the fact that there was a movement in the late 1950s to
push for equal rights for African– Americans. Prior to this, African–Americans were
treated extremely unequally in the United States and denied equality through law. For
example, when travelling by bus, they either had to sit at the back of the bus or get up
from their seat whenever a white person wished to sit. Rosa Parks (1913–2005) was
an African–American woman. Tired from a long day at work she refused to give up
her seat on a bus to a white man on 1 December 1955. Her refusal that day started a
huge agitation against the unequal ways in which African–Americans were treated and
which came to be known as the Civil Rights Movement. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
prohibited discrimination on the basis of race, religion or national origin. It also stated
that all schools would be open to African–American children and that they would no
longer have to attend separate schools specially set up for them. However, despite this,
a majority of African–Americans continue to be among the poorest in the country.
Most African-American children can only afford to attend government schools that
have fewer facilities and poorly qualified teachers as compared to white students who
either go to private schools or live in areas where the government schools are as highly
rated as private schools.

a) What was the consequence of Rosa Park’s refusal to give up her bus seat?
b) Do you think the Civil Rights Act has been successful in giving equal rights to the
African – Americans?

20. What do you mean by Midday Meal Programme? List any four benefits of this 1+4=5
programme.

21. Enlist the constitutional provisions that recognise equality in our country. 5

22. List down some major efforts made by the Indian government to assist the less 5
privileged sections of society.
23. Explain the principle of Universal Adult Franchise and how it has helped the people 1+4=5
to become vigilant citizens.

80
CLASS – VII SUBJECT-SOCIAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER – 19. OUR STATE GOVERNMENT F.M.-50

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This Question Paper consists 4 pages and 23 questions.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
SECTION- A

Q.No. Questions Marks

1. Identify the latest Union Territories formed in India. 1

A. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

B. Delhi and Puducherry
C. Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh
D. Chandigarh and Lakhsadweep Islands
2. Identify the state executive, who can address, summon or dissolve the Legislative 1
Assembly.

A. Prime Minister
B. Governor
C. Speaker
D. President
3. The Union Territories of Andaman and Nicobar, Delhi and Pondicherry have 1
_______ Governor.

A. Deputy
B. Acting
C. Lieutenant
D. Assistant
4. Chief Minister enjoys real power and act as a link between the________ and 1
Council of Minister.

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker
D. Governor
5. Read the following statement and consider whether True or False. 1

I. Governor has some discretionary powers.

II. Governor can reduce or pardon the punishment awarded to a criminal.
III. Governor acts as link between Chief Minister and Council of Minister.
Options -

A. I-TRUE,II-TRUE. III-FALSE
B. I-TRUE, II- TRUE, III- TRUE
C. I- FALSE, II- FALSE III- TRUE
D. I- TRUE, II- FALSE, III- TRUE
6. Read the following statement and consider whether it is True or False. 1

I. Minimum strength of a Legislative Assembly is 60.

II. Minimum member of Legislative Council 40.
III. Legislative Council is a permanent house.

81
 Options-

A. I-TRUE, II-TRUE. III- FALSE

B. I- TRUE, II- TRUE, III- TRUE
C. I- FALSE, II- FALSE, III- TRUE
D. I- TRUE, II-FALSE, III-TRUE
7. Direction: In the questions given below, there are two statements marked 1
as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A):Legislative Council is a permanent house which cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): 1/3 members of Legislative Council retire after every 2 years.
Options -
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

8. Direction: In the questions given below, there are two statements marked 1
as Assertion (A) and Reason(R).Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Governor enjoys the real executive power.
Reason (R):The state administration is carried out by the name of Governor.
Options-
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

9. From the diagram given below find out the mandatory organs of State Legislature 1
for passinga money bill.

A. Governor & Legislature

B. Governor & Legislative Assembly
C. Governor & Legislative Council
D. Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council
10. Match the following. 1

List 1 List 2

a. Governor 1.Maintaining law and order

b.Council of Minister 2. Recommends for Presidential Rule

c.Chief Minister 3. Presides over Legislative Assembly

d.Speaker 4.Most important functionary of State

Government

82
 Codes:

A. a-4, b-3, c- 2, d-1

B. a-2, b-1, c- 4, d-3
C. a-4,b-1, c-2, d-3
D. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
11. Arrange the Union Territories into correct sequence according to their location 1
from North to South.

A. Ladakh, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry

B. Delhi, Chandigarh, Ladakh, Puducherry
C. Ladakh, Chandigarh, Delhi, Puducherry
D. Ladakh, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Delhi

12. Read the statements given below and identify the most appropriate term described 1
by them.
1.Only six states of India have this House of Legislature
2. Minimum age needed to be a member of this House is 30 years.
3. It elects it’s chairperson from amongst its members.
A. Legislative Assembly
B. Legislative Council
C. State Union
D. State Legislature.
SECTION B

13. Mention two functions that can be only performed by Legislative Assembly but not 2
Legislative Council.

14. Identify the situation in which Presidential rule is imposed in a State of India. 2

15. Mention the lists which divide power between the Central and theState Government. 1+1
How many subjects are enlisted in each of these lists?

SECTION C

16. “Vidhan Parishad is a permanent house”. Justify the statement. 3

17. “Central and State Governments are independent in their working. Yet the Central 3
Government is more powerful”. Support the statement.

18. Enlist any three differences between Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council. 3

SECTION - D

83
19. Read the passage and answer the following questions. 3

In most states, the Legislature has only one house- that is Legislative Assembly or Vidhan
Sabha. States like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra
Pradesh have two houses-Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council. The number of
members in an Assembly depends on the population of the state. However the minimum
strength is 60 and the maximum cannot be more than 500. It’s members are directly
elected by the people. The minimum age to be a member of the legislative assembly is 25
years. Some seats are reserved for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe. For example
Uttar Pradesh has 404 members in its Legislative Assembly and Mizoram has 40 only.

I. Name two states where the State Legislature has only Legislative
Assembly.(1)
II. Mention the factor on which number of members of Legislative Assembly
depends. (1)
III. Identify the procedure by which members of Legislative Assembly are
elected. (1)
SECTION - E

20. Explain any five ways in which Council of Ministers participate in state administration. 5

21. Discuss the working of the Indian Federation with the help of a flow chart. 2+3

22. Define the term Union Territory. Enumerate the special administrative status enjoyed by 2+3
Delhi.

23. Members of which two administrative body of India take part in election of President. 2+3
Explain the process of converting of a money bill into a law.

84
CLASS- VII SUBJECT- SOCIAL SCIENCE
NAME OF THE CHAPTER- 20. MEDIA MAX MARKS: 50
General Instruction: - This Question consists 4 pages and 23 questions.

Q. No. Question Marks

1. Which of the following is true about ‘Media’? 1

A. It is not important to make a critical appraisal of media before accepting or
rejecting any news.

B. Our Constitution safeguarded the Freedom of Press.

C. It is not important that the information provided by media is balanced and

impartial.

D. Media shouldn’t give unbiased report.

2. Which of the following is the main source of income for media? 1

A. Government incentives.

B. Articles.

C. Advertisements.

D. General News.

3. Media decides which subject to highlight and hence ______________ . 1

A. Memorandum.
B. Report.
C. Sets an agenda.
D. Meeting.

4. __________________ are the examples of print media. 1

A. Radio and Magazine.

B. Newspaper and Magazine report.
C. Television and Newspaper.
D. Telephone and Newspaper.

5. Consider the following statements. 1

Statement-I: The government can ban the media from broadcasting or

publishing certain items to protect the interest of Ruling party.

Statement-II: Indian media is free.

Statement-III: Freedom of press is a fundamental right under Freedom of

Education.

Options-

85
 A. I-True, II-False, III-False.

B. I-False, II-True, III-False.

C. I-False, II-False, III-True.

D. I-True, II-True, III-False.

6. Consider the following statements. 1

Statement-I: Cable and satellite network has improved the connectivity in

rural areas.

Statement-II: Technology has deteriorated the efficiency of media.

Statement-III: The Television and Radio make the rural, illiterate masses
aware of the latest happenings in their region or the country on the whole

Options-

A. I-True, II-False, III-False.

B. I-False, II-True, III-False.

C. I-False, II-False, III-True.

D. I-True, II-False, III-True.

7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your 1
answer as per the codes provided below:

Assertion (A): Any citizen may request information from a public authority,
which is required to reply within forty-five days.
Reason(R): RTI was passed on 2005 by Government of India.
Codes: -
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

D. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

8. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your 1
answer as per the codes provided below:

Assertion (A): Media is now a powerful tool in the hands of the rich.
Reason(R): Media is the main source of information for common people.
Codes: -
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

86
 C. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

D. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.

9. Which of the following option best signifies about this image? 1

A. Role of money in media.

B. The media has a profound impact on public opinion and attitudes.

C. Media is controlled and pressurized by the present government of the

country.

D. Freedom of media.

10. Complete the box by choosing the correct options: 1

Column A Column B

(i) Mass media (a) To ban the circulation of

any newspaper.

(ii) Narrow casting (b) Freedom of speech and

expression.

(iii) Gagging Act (c) Limited to a country

(iv) Right to Information Act (d) Communicating to a large

number of people.

Options: -

A. (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a.

B. (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-d.

C. (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c.

D. (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b.

11. Arrange the following in chronological order: 1

87
 I. Gutenberg brought out the first printed Bible in the mid-fifteenth century.

II. Internet has revolutionized the process of communication.

III. Television is the prime source for the public to know about the current
affairs.

Options-

A. II, I, III.

B. III, II, I.

C. I, III, II.

D. I, II, III.

12. Teacher asked his students, “Have you watched yesterday's news?” 1

Few students nodded.

Teacher: “Salute to Indian press. The way they have covered the news and
criticized the running Government… just speechless”. He also added, “Now
we are lucky enough. Do you know during the time of Sepoy Mutiny (1857)
British Government passed an Act which empowered the government to ban
on media”?

Which of the following Act is the teacher talking about here?

A. Rowlatt Act.

B. Gagging Act.

C. Regulating Act.

D. Pitt's India Act.

13. Mention the role of Chinese people in the field of printing. 2

14. Complete the chart below- 2

Type of media Examples
Print Media ?
Electronic Media ?
Audio-Visual Media ?
Digital Media ?
15. Define the tern ‘Censorship’. 2

88
16. ‘Audio visual publicity has a deep positive impact on our ear and eyes’- 3
Justify the statement.

17. Mention the role of Indian cinema in creating awareness among citizens. 3

18. “Media is a powerful tool in the hands of the rich”- examine the statement. 3

19. Read the following passage and answer the following questions – 3

Facebook, YouTube, Twitter etc. are called social networking sites because
they allow people to interact by sharing news and personal information, photos,
videos, as well as communicate through chatting or messaging one another. As
internet connections became faster and computers more powerful, social media
became more popular. Facebook was launched in 2004, first as a social
networking site for college students. YouTube launched the following year,
allowing people to post videos they made or found online. Twitter launched in
2006. Over the next decade, a whole new generation of social networking sites
designed to take advantage of the smartphone's multimedia capabilities
emerged.
(I) Mention the original purpose of Facebook? (1)
(II) State the importance of Social media in modern times. (2)
20. “Media is like a watchdog in a democracy that keeps the government active 5
and the public involved”- Justify the statement.

21. Highlight the main features of ‘Right to Information Act’. 5

22. Do you think media is good for our democracy? Substantiate your answer 5
with examples.
23. Elucidate why a democracy without a free media is like a car without wheels. 5

89
CLASS VII SUBJECT- SOCIAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER – 21. ADVERTISING AND DEMOCRACY MAX MARKS: 50
General Instruction: This question paper consists 4 pages and 23 questions.
Q.NO. QUESTIONS MARKS

1. Consider the following statements: 1

i)The date of manufacture means the date after which a product (such as
food or medicine) should not be sold because of an expected decline in
quality.

ii) Most people opt to buy package items believing them to be better than
the items sold without packaging.

iii) Coca-Cola ,Dove are the example of Public service advertising.

A. i- TURE, ii-TRUE, iii-FALSE

B. i-FALSE, ii-TRUE, iii-FALSE

C. i-FALSE, ii-FALSE, iii-TRUE

D. i-TRUE, ii-TRUE, iii-FALSE,

2. Match the following: 1

Column 1 Column 2

i)Name given to a product with a) Brand loyalty

some unique value

ii) Government of India set up b) campaigns for health and

social issues

iii)Stars c) Brand

iv) Public service d) Bureau of Indian Standard

advertisement

A. i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv- d

B. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

C. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

D. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

90
3. Identify the type of advertisement of the given picture? 1

A. Public/Social service advertising

B. False advertising
C. Quack advertising
D. Commercial advertising
Consider the following statements:
i) Government laws must protect the interest of the seller.
4. ii) Only date of manufacture need to be checked before 1
purchasing.
iii) Huge amount is spent on advertising.
iv) Campaigns like Polio drops, ORS are known as Quack
advertising.
A. i- TURE, ii-TRUE, iii-FALSE, iv-TURE
B. i-FALSE, ii-FALSE, iii-FALSE, iv-TURE
C. i-FALSE, ii-FALSE, iii-TRUE, iv-FALSE
D. i-TRUE, ii-TRUE, iii-FALSE, iv-FALSE
5. Arrange the following statements according to the evaluation and 1
development of advertisement:

i) In the 1950s, advertisers emphasized the idealized suburban lifestyle,

showcasing modern conveniences and household products. Television
became a dominant medium, giving birth to jingles, catchy slogans, and
iconic brand mascots that remain etched in our memories.
ii) In the 2020s, digital advertising continued to
dominate. Brands leveraged big data and AI-driven insights to deliver
hyper-personalized content.
iii) India’s first newspaper ‘Bengal Gazette’ displayed Ads for the first
time starting with classified advertising. Advertisements in the 18th
century were meant to inform the public
iv) The 1920s marked a time of rapid social change and economic
prosperity.
A. i, ii, iii, iv
B. iii, iv, i, ii
C. iii, i, iv, ii
D iv, iii, ii, i

91
6. This question consists of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 1
Consider the statements and pick the correct option.

ASSERTION (A):- Advertising has become a market of its own and it

offers a large number of jobs along with providing information to people.

• REASON (R):- In today's competitive business landscape, effective

advertising plays a crucial role in capturing the attention of target
audiences, building brand awareness, and driving business growth.
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

7. Fill in the blanks with suitable word/words: 1

_________ is a person who buys by paying the price for some goods or
services (insurance, transport, electricity, banking, etc.)
A. Consumer
B. Seller
C. Entrepreneur
D. Shopkeeper
8. Advertisement is not helpful because: 1

A. Introduces a new product in the market.

B. Promotes impulsive buying.
C. Supports the salesmanship.
D. Enhances good-will and educates the consumers.
9. • While advertising in India is already a billion-dollar-industry, the digital 1
advertising segment under its umbrella has emerged as one of the fastest
growing in the world. Having surpassed the two dominating traditional
media, that is television and print, digital accounted for nearly half of the
overall revenue earned within the Indian ad market.
i)Which industry is known as the one of the fastest growing industry in
India?

10. This question consists of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). 1
Consider the statements and pick the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Indian Government has successfully protected the

public interest by banning the advertising of tobacco and alcohol on
radio, television and newspaper.

Reason(R): The cigarettes and other tobacco products banned to protect

the general populace from harmful effects.

92
 A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
11. Fill in the blanks with suitable word/words: 1

____________ is the earlier abbreviation for bureau of Indian Standards.

A. Indian Statistical Institute

B. Indian State Institute

C. Indian Standard Institute

D. Industrial Standard Institute

12. Read the sentence and select the correct option: 1

“Word of mouth” is -

A. Passing the information from person to person using oral

communication.
B. A strong and appealing social media presence.
C. Engages the consumers to review the business forcefully.
D. Provides predictable results.
13. Advertising is the techniques and practices used to bring products, 3
services, opinions, or causes to public notice for the purpose of persuading
the public to respond in a certain way toward what is advertised. Most
advertising involves promoting a product that is for sale, often
through brand marketing, but similar methods are used to encourage
people to drive safely, to support various charities, or education among
many other examples. In many countries advertising is the most important
source of income for the media (e.g., newspapers, magazines, or television
stations) through which it is conducted. In the non-communist world
advertising has become a large and important service industry.
i) Why advertising also consider as service industry? (1)
ii) Advertising is a powerful technique”-justify your answer? (2)
14. Explain the meaning of advertising? 2

15. Why ‘stars’ are being used while advertising any products? 2

93
16. 2

a) Identify these logos.

b) Mention the function of these?

17. “Advertising can shape people’s attitudes towards a products, service or 3

idea”- Justify the statement.

18. 3

a) Identify the type of advertisement of the given picture? (1)

b) List the impact of this type of advertisements? (2)

19. Explain the link between advertising and democracy. 3

20. List the main features of consumerism? 5

21. The role of Public or social service advertising among the citizens? 5

22. How does advertising is creating economic discrimination’? 5

23. “A huge amount of money is spent on advertisements to motivate the 5

customers to buy a particular product”- Do you think a huge amount of
money is needed to advertise any product?

Give suitable arguments.

94
Class: VII Maximum Marks: 50

Subject: Social Science Chapter: 22

Name of the Chapter: 22. Unpacking Gender

General instructions:

• This question paper has 4 printed pages containing total 23 questions.

Q.NO. Questions Marks

1. Gender inequality means— 1

A. biological differences between boys and girls.
B. discrimination against girls.
C. racial differences.
D. caste based differences.

2. Society devalues the work do by women - 1

A. allowing women to work.
B. not considering household work as work.
C. paying money for housework.
D. none of these.

3. Education empowers women to recognise her ___________________. 1

A. potential
B. inability
C. fault
D. none of these

4. The notion of stereotyping is generally _______________and creates 1

division.

95
 A. prejudiced
B. positive
C. beneficial
D. healthy

5. Statement I: Girls are schooled to be soft and obedient. 1

Statement II: Girls are not given adequate love and care in the family.
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Both are incorrect.

6. Statement I: The notion of stereotyping is prejudiced. 1

Statement II: Women are not given equal rights in the society.
A. Only statement I is correct.
B. Only statement II is correct.
C. Both are correct.
D. Both are incorrect.

7. Read the following statements -Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose 1
the correct answer from the following:
Assertion (A): Women should not be treated equally.
Reason (R): Women are biologically different from men.
Options:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
Explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

8. Read the following statements -Assertion (A) and Reason (R), Choose 1
the correct answer from the following:
Options:
Assertion [A]: If there was no discrimination, the number of girls should be
higher or as much as boys.
Reason [R]: Medical research shows that given similar circumstances, girl
children survive much better than boys.
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
Explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct Explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
9. Identify the famous women personality of India. 1

A. Mahasweta Devi

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 B. Ashapurna Devi
C. Sarojini Naidu
D. Kamla Gandhi
10. Match the following: 1

Column - 1 Column - 2

I. Rani Laxmi Bai a. Novelist

II. Sarojini Naidu b. Boxer

III. Amrita Pritam c. Revolt of 1857

IV. Mary Kom d. Freedom fighter

A. I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
B. I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
C. I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
D. I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
11. Arrange the following states and Union territories of India according to 1
sex ratio ( High to low).
I. Tamil Nadu
II. Kerala
III. Puducherry
IV. Andhra Pradesh
Options:
A. III, I, II, IV
B. II, III, I, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. IV, III, II, I

12. Rosie and Jaspreet are friends. Rosie works as an accountant in an office 1
whereas Jaspreet is a housewife. One day Rosie’s daughter Sona asks her to
take leave to attend the Parent Teacher Meeting (PTM). She cites that
Harshee’s mother Jaspreet always attends the school functions in spite of the
fact that being housewife her work starts from 5 a.m. till midnight.

In your opinion, which of the two mothers has more work to do?

A. Jaspreet
B. Rosie
C. Both of them.
D. None of them

13. ‘Stereotyping is harmful’- Explain. 2

14. Give one example each of stereotypical gender roles of boys and girls. 2

15. List are the similarities between rural and urban women’s conditions. 2

16. Explain different types of gender inequality. 3

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17. What is meant by invisibilization of women’s Labour? 3

18. Explain the causes behind the differences in value attached to the work of 3
males and females.

19. Read the extract and answer the questions that follows:- 3
Equality of women and men is a fundamental human right, an essential
element of democracy and an imperative of social justice. However, in
present-day societies inequalities between women and men persist de jure and
de facto, in the educational field as in the political, economic, social, cultural
and any other fields.
In the educational field, both sexes still continue to focus on traditional
gender roles which strongly steer and reduce their choices of education,
occupation and life concepts, thus reinforcing the male norms in society, the
unequal power relationship of the sexes, the sex-segregation of the labour
market, the sex-specific allocation of family responsibilities, the violence
against girls and women.
Male concepts of gender and ethnic inequality and male acts of violence
suggest that the equalisation process in numerous countries of Europe is
stagnating or even in danger of reversing.
Bearing in mind that the principles of "parity" and pluralist democracy
should be respected as the basis of individual identity and integrity and human
rights and that human resources will be the most important factor in future
structural change and development, the report suggests an integration of both
the gender dimension and the cross-cultural dimension in education as norms
actively promoted with a gender-sensitive approach.
Gender and cross-cultural equality in education should be recognised as
aims not easily achieved. A series of measures are proposed in the fields of
education, legislation, information, research and international cooperation.
Explain the need of gender equality in educational field.

i) What do you mean by gender equality? (1)

ii) Explain the importance of gender equality in educational field. (2)
20. Explain the role of gender equality in a democratic country. 5

21. ‘Without gender equality, the women empowerment is meaningless.’ Do 5

you agree with the statement? Give two examples in support of your answer.
22. Suggest any five ways to end gender discrimination. 5

23. Explain the role of education in bringing awareness among the women and 5
empowering them.

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CLASS: VII SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
Name of the Chapter: 23. Markets around Us MAX MARKS: 50
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
There are 23 questions in the Question Bank and 4 printed pages.
Q. No. QUESTIONS MARKS

1. Choose the correct option from the given options:-- 1

Large multi storied, air-conditioned buildings with shops on different

floors are called-

A. Wholesale market

B. Patari market

C. Malls

D. Branded Market

2. Choose the correct option from the given options:- 1

Markets that cater to the daily needs of people are called-

A. Super market

B. Malls

C. Neighborhood market

D. Online shopping

3. Fill in the blank with the help of given options: 1

______ is catching up in India at a very fast rate.

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 A. Retail Giants

B. Online shopping

C. Wholesale market

D. Factor market

4. Fill in the blank with the help of given options: 1

______ sells goods at low price.

A. Retailer

B. Wholesaler

C. Chain stores

D. Manufacturer

5. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the 1
options given below:

Statement I. Branded goods are expensive because they are advertised

and claims better quality.

Statement II. The companies producing these sell them through shops
in urban markets or special showrooms.

A. Statement I is true Statement II is false

B. Statement I is false Statement II is true

C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

6. Consider the statements and choose the correct answer from the 1
options given below:

Statement I. The goods are brought to the customer after passing a

chain of markets.

Statement II. This chain helps in supplying goods to customers only to

particular areas.

A. Statement I is true Statement II is false

B. Statement I is false Statement II is true

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 C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason 1

(R). Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A)- One buyer may be able to afford only cheap goods
from a weekly market whereas another may buy branded items.

Reason (R)- The selling as well as buying depends on money.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true

8. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason 1

(R). Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A)- During the British period the farmers were forced to
grow cotton.
Reason (R)- The British industries required huge amount of cotton as
raw material. The cotton cloth was imported from Britain and sold all
over India.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true

9. Identify the picture- 1

A. Wholesale market

B. Retail Giants

C. Weekly Markets

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 D. Malls

10. Match Column A with Column B and find out the answer from 1
the options given below:

Column A Column B

i)customer a) register names of

unemployed candidates who
desire employment

ii)employment exchange b) set up on specific days of

the week

iii)retailer c)one who buys something

iv)weekly markets d) sell goods in less

quantities

A. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

B. i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
C. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

D. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

11. Arrange the following statements in correct order: 1

i)The wholesale trader buys goods in large quantities from the
manufacturer.
ii) Placing of order to purchase raw material.

iii)Raw material used for production in the factory to produce finished

product.
iv)The customer buys from the retail shop.
v) The retailer buys from the wholesaler.
A. v iv iii ii i
B. ii iii i v iv
C. i ii iii iv v
D. ii iii v i iv

12. A boy named Piyush went to buy a cotton shirt from a shop. Next day 1
he accompanied his friend to a mall. He was surprised to see the price
of the shirt. He purchased the same shirt day before. He was surprised-
A. price is less than he purchased
B. same price

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 C. price is higher than he purchased
D. branded shirt

13. Define market. Differentiate between advertising and marketing. 1+1=2

14. State the measures taken by the government to eradicate inequalities in

the society.
2

15. List the names of any four Retail Giants. ½x4=2

16. Identify the picture and list any two its advantages.

1+2=3

17. Markets also determine wages. Justify. 3

18. Explain the terms ‘demand’ and ‘supply’ with an example. 3

19. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: 3
After independence, Indian markets has come a long way. Our policies
were aimed at reviving our traditional crafts, setting up of and
safeguarding Indian industries. Hence, in place of cotton as a raw
material, the export of cotton cloth was encouraged. Currently, India is
exporting garments all over the world. Our fashion industry is also
attracting buyers by organizing fashion shows in India and abroad.

i) Name the fashion capitals of the world. (1)

ii) State True or False-

Before independence the British industries required huge amount of

cotton as a raw material. (1)

iii) List the different types of markets emerged after independence. (1)

20. Pen down the other names of weekly markets. Explain the advantages 1+4=5
of buying goods from the weekly markets.

21. Differentiate between wholesale market and retail market. Explain 3+2=5
with reason why the people prefer shops in their neighborhood.

22. Enumerate the steps taken by the government to protect the interests of 5
all the people.

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23. Markets create economic inequality. Explain its meaning 2+3=5

The selling as well as buying depends on money. Justify.

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