Addis Ababa University, School of Commerce, Department of BAIS

Regular Program
Test 2 for Systems Analysis and Design
Date of Exam Jan 12, 2019
Time Allowed 1:10 minutes
Instructions:

Give All answers in the Answer Sheet

Section: ___________________ Base Section: ______________ (for add students)

ANSWER SHEET

3
1 6 11 16 21 26 1 36 41
3
2 7 12 17 22 27 2 37 42
3
3 8 13 18 23 28 3 38 43
3
4 9 14 19 24 29 4 39 44
1 3
5 0 15 20 25 30 5 40 45

4 5
6 1 56
4 5
7 2 57
4 5
8 3 58
4 5
9 4 59
5 5
0 5 60

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 Part I: Write T if the statement is True and Write F otherwise, in the Answer Sheet
1. _T____ The focus of project management is to assure that systems development projects meet customer expectations
and are delivered within budget and time constraints.
2. _T____ The project manager is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down the project.
3. _T____ A deliverable is an end product in a phase of the SDLC.
4. _T____A systems development project may be undertaken to take advantage of business opportunities or to solve
business problems.
5. _T____In order to determine the resources required for project completion, an organization should analyze the
project’s scope and determine the project’s probability of successful completion.
6. _F____The most instrumental person to the successful completion of a project is the database analyst.
7. _F____When a project manager is getting projects completed through the effective utilization of resources, she is
performing a risk and change management activity.
8. _T____When a project manager works closely with customers to assure project deliverables meet expectations, she is
performing a customer relations activity.
9. _F____.Project planning is the first phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to
assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities.
10. _T____Establishing a relationship with the customer is a project initiation activity.
11. _F____Project initiation is the second phase of the project management process, which focuses on defining clear,
discrete activities and the work needed to complete each activity within a single project.
12. _F____Gantt charts show how tasks must be ordered and when an activity should begin and end.
13. _T____Creating a work breakdown structure requires that you decompose phases into activities and activities into
specific tasks.
14. _T____Project time estimates for task completion and overall system quality are significantly influenced by the
assignment of people to tasks.
15. _T____A PERT diagram depicts project tasks and their interrelationships.
16. _T____Gantt charts do not show how tasks must be ordered.
17. _F____When compared to PERT charts, Gantt charts are more useful for depicting the activities associated with large
projects.
18. _T____Gantt charts visually show the time overlap of tasks whereas PERT does not show time overlap but does show
which tasks could be done in parallel.
19. _T____Critical path scheduling is a scheduling technique whose order and duration of a sequence of task activities
directly affect the completion date of a project.
20. _F____A major disadvantage of the PERT technique is its inability to represent completion times and show
interrelationships between activities.
21. _T____If an activity’s optimistic time is 4 weeks, its realistic time is 6 weeks, and its pessimistic time is 8 weeks, then
its estimated time would be 6 weeks.
22. _F____An activity on the critical path will have a slack time of 1.

Part II: Choose the best answer and put the Letter in the Answer Sheet

23. _____A planned undertaking of related activities to reach an objective that has a beginning and an end best defines:
a. task development
b. activity plan
c. project
d. task schedule
24. _____An individual with a diverse set of skills--management, leadership, technical, conflict management, and
customer relationship--who is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best defines:
a. systems analyst
b. consultant
c. project scheduler
d. project manager
25. _____Which of the following are primary reasons for undertaking systems development projects?
a. to take advantage of business opportunities
b. to solve business problems
c. to use state-of-the-art technology
d. both a and b
26. _____Identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and day-to-day changes that occur during a project best defines
which of the following project manager activities:
a. conflict management c. team management
b. risk and change management d. problem solving

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27. _____Skills that include interpreting system requests and specifications, site preparation and user training, and contact
point for customers best represent:
a. customer relations
b. conflict management
c. leadership
d. team management
28. _____The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and
complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities best defines:
a. project initiation
b. scope development
c. project planning
d. project assessment
29. _____The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a smooth
evolution between tasks defines:
a. task division
b. work breakdown structure
c. work structuring
d. project division
30. _____Which of the following is not a guideline for defining a task?
a. A task should have well accepted predecessor and successor steps.
b. A task should have a single and identifiable deliverable.
c. A task should have a known method or technique.
d. A task should always be completed by one person.
31. _____A graphical representation of a project that shows each task activity as a horizontal bar whose length is
proportional to its time for completion defines:
a. PERT chart
b. data diagram
c. project chart
d. Gantt chart
32. _____Risks can arise from:
a. the use of new technology
b. resistance to change
c. availability of critical resources
d. all of the above
33. _____The third phase of the project management process in which the plans created in the prior phases are put into
action is:
a. project planning
b. project execution
c. project planning
d. project close down
34. _____Which of the following occurs during project execution?
a. monitoring project progress against the baseline plan
b. conducting post-project reviews
c. establishing the project initiation plan
d. establishing the project workbook
35. _____When comparing a Gantt chart to a PERT chart, which of the following is a true statement?
a. Gantt shows the sequence dependencies between activities, whereas PERT shows the duration of activities.
b. PERT shows the time overlap of activities, whereas Gantt does not show time overlap.
c. Some forms of Gantt charts can show slack time available within an earliest start and latest finish duration,
whereas PERT shows this by data within activity rectangles.
d. both a and b
36. _____Optimistic time is:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed
37. _____Pessimistic time is:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed

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38. _____Realistic time is:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed
39. _____A critical path is:
a. a sequence of activities whose order and durations indirectly affect the completion date of a project
b. a sequence of activities whose order and durations directly affect the completion date of a project
c. a sequence of activities whose order must be performed in parallel
d. a sequence of activities whose duration cannot last more than 40 percent of the time allotted to the project
40. To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development project is the purpose of:
a. economic feasibility
b. technical feasibility
c. operational feasibility
d. schedule feasibility
41. Tangible benefits would include:
a. improved organizational planning
b. ability to investigate more alternatives
c. improved asset control
d. lower transaction costs
42. Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are examples of:
a. intangible benefits
b. qualitative benefits
c. tangible benefits
d. legal and contractual benefits
43. A savings of $3,000 resulting from a data entry error correction would most likely be classified as a(n):
a. intangible benefit
b. qualitative benefit
c. tangible benefit
d. operational benefit
44. A benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty is a(n):
a. intangible benefit
b. qualitative benefit
c. tangible benefit
d. operational benefit
45. The reduction of waste creation is an example of a(n):
a. intangible benefit
b. qualitative benefit
c. tangible benefit
d. operational benefit
46. A cost associated with project startup and development or system startup refers to a(n):
a. recurring cost
b. one-time cost
c. incremental cost
d. infrequent cost
47. A cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in terms of dollars or with certainty refers
to:
a. economic cost
b. tangible cost
c. intangible cost
d. one-time cost
48. A cost resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system refers to a(n):
a. recurring cost
b. one-time cost
c. incremental cost
d. frequent cost
49. The ratio of the net cash receipts of the project divided by the cash outlays of the project, enabling tradeoff analysis to
be made between competing projects is often referred to as:
a. return on investment (ROI) c. net present value (NPV)
b. break-even analysis (BEA) d. future value (FV)

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50. An assessment of the development group’s understanding of the possible target hardware, software, and operating
environments, system size, complexity, and the group’s experience with similar systems should be included as part of:
a. technical feasibility
b. political feasibility
c. operational feasibility
d. schedule feasibility

Part III: Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition and Put
the Letter in the Answer Sheet
a. business process reengineering
b. closed-ended questions
c. disruptive technologies
d. formal system
e. informal system
f. JAD session leader
g. key business processes
h. open-ended questions
i. scribe
j. JAD
51. Technologies that enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations from making radical
business changes. C
52. The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a Joint Application Design session. I
53. The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market. G
54. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that ask those responding to choose from among a set of specified
responses. B
55. The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in
products and services. A
56. The trained individual who plans and leads Joint Application Design sessions. F
57. The way a system actually works. E
58. The official way a system works as described in organizational documentation. D
59. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no prespecified answers. H
60. Techniques developed to keep the analysis effort minimal, yet still effective include J