SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Section A

1. Identify the correct option regarding monocot embryo.

a) Cotyledon of monocot embryo, situated towards ventral side of embryonal axis.

b) Embryonal axis has Plumule and Radicle on opposite poles of the embryo

c) Epicotyl is the hollow foliar structure enclosing shoot apex and leaf primordia.

d) Hypocotyl is the differentiated sheath enclosing plumule.

2. Blue eye color is recessive to brown eye color. In a population of 100 individuals, how many
will have blue eye color if the allelic frequency is 0.2, given that the population is in Hardy
Weinberg equilibrium.

a) 32 b) 64 c) 8 d) 4

3. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
evolution?

a) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection.

b) Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection.

c) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection.

d) Variations, natural selection, environmental changes, population size.

4. Read the given statements and select the option which are true (T) and which are false (F).

i) Typhoid fever can be confirmed by Widal test.

ii) Entamoeba histolytica resides in jejunum and ileum parts of the small intestine and is more
common in females than males.

iii) Elephantiasis is caused by a protozoan parasite Trichophyton.

iv) Plant yielding ‘cocaine’ is native to South America.

I II III IV
 a) T F F F

b) T F F T

c) F T F T

d) F T T T

5. The population of a weed species shows an explosive increase in numbers during the rainy
season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What would be the reason for
population increase?

a. No predators in rainy season

B. No competition in rainy season

C. Availability of food and water optimum in rainy season

D. High chances of reproduction in rainy season soil

6. Constant diameter of DNA is due to

a. Purine –Purine base pairing b. Purine – Pyrimidine base pairing

c. Adenine – Thymine base pairing d. Deoxyribose – Ribose pairing

7. The anticodon of initiation codon for protein synthesis is

a. 5’UUU3’ b. 5’AUG3’ c. 5’UAC3’ d.5’CAU3’

8. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?

a. 46 b.44 c.23 d. 22

9. Competition is most fierce between

a. Unrelated species in the same environment b.Two or more closely related species in the
same environment

c. Two or more closely related species in a different environment d. None of the above

10. If a population of 50 Paramoecia present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what
would be the growth rate of population?
(a) 50 per hour (b) 200 per hour (c) 5 per hour (d) 100 per Hour

11. __________ is an example of ex-situ conservation.

a. Sacred groves b. Wildlife sanctuary c. Seed bank d. National Park

12. Antihistamine drug is effective in

(a) Bacterial infection (b) Viral infection (c) Drug overdose (d) Allergy

Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true but R is false.

D. A is False but R is true.

13. Assertion: In Bacteria, translation of mRNA begins before it is fully transcribed.

Reason: There is no spatial separation of cytosol and nucleus in bacteria.

14. Assertion: The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia caused havoc by spreading
rapidly in water.
Reason: When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become
invasive and start spreading fast in absence of natural predators.

15. Assertion: Beer and wine are called soft liquors while gin, rum, etc. are hard liquors.
Reason: Beer and wine are made without distillation.
16. Assertion: Innate immunity is non-specific defence.
Reason: It consists of barriers which produce antibodies.

Section B

17. A pest control program needed to be developed for the Sunderbans mangrove ecosystem
and biocontrol methods were being explored.
(a) Why would biocontrol methods be the best method over chemical alternatives for a pest

control program in a biome like Sunderbans?

(b) Mention any vital information about the pests that the designers of the pest control
program need to be aware of?
18. A. a. The gross primary productivity (GPP) of a meadow in southeastern Kansas is found to
be 38,000 Kcal/m2 . Amount of CO2 released is 13,500 Kcal/m2 . What is the net
primary productivity (NPP) for this ecosystem, in Kcal/m 2 .
b. Draw a pyramid of number considering a big banyan tree supporting a population of
insects, small birds and their parasites.
OR
 B. Giving two reasons explain why there is more species biodiversity in tropical latitudes
than in temperate ones.

19. Give reasons for the following

(a) Solid media that are used for culturing microbes in laboratories are not used for large
scale cultivation.
(b) Aeration is important for microbial growth.
(c) Foaming caused during mixing process in bioreactor can be harmful to the process.

20. A particular species of wild cat is endangered. In order to save it from extinction which is
desirable approach, in situ or ex situ? Justify your answer and explain the difference
between the two approaches.
21. a. Name the product of fertilization that forms the kernel of coconut. How does the Kernel
differ from coconut water?
b. Name 1 outbreeding device by which both autogamy and geitonogamy can be prevented.

Section C

22. a. What are the events that take place in the ovary and uterus during follicular phase of the
menstrual cycle?
b. Mention the function of trophoblast in human embryo.
23. An infertile couple decided to use ART to conceive. After IVF they decided for Embryo
transfer of the following 2 embryos. Embryo 1 consisted of 8 blastomeres and Embryo
2 consisted of 16 blastomeres. Name and explain the techniques they should deploy to
complete further development of the given embryos.
24. I.(a) In a 3800bp long piece of DNA, 820 Adenine bases were found. What would be the
number of Cytosine bases?
( b) In a nucleus, the number of RNA nucleoside triphosphates is 10 times the number of
DNA nucleoside triphosphates. But only DNA nucleotides are added during the DNA
replication. Why?
OR
II. a. Write the sequence of mRNA with its reading frame transcribed and its polarity from

the following Template strand – 5’ATCCCATTAGGTCGAAAAT3’.

b. Enlist the components of Transcription unit.

25. a. Mention the evolutionary significance of the following organisms:

(i) Shrews
(ii) Lobefins

b. Write the probable differences in eating habits of Homo habilis and Homo erectus.
26. The given graph shows the concentration of antibody X in blood when an allergen enters
the body and when a chemical X is given. Based on this answer the following questions:

a) With reference to the given graph explain why there is high level of antibody X after
point P?
b) Name the cells and their secretions responsible for the response after point P.
c) Why there is a decrease in the level of antibody X in the blood after point Q?

27. The primary effluent in the treatment of sewage is sent to tanks for secondary treatment
in the presence of aerobic bacteria.
(a) How would the BOD of the effluent be affected if anaerobic bacteria are used for
secondary treatment?
(b) Name one condition that should be maintained in a sludge digester where biogas is
produced.
(c) The slurry formed after biogas production is recommended as manure for plants.
Which nutrients will the slurry be rich in and why?
28. Protoplasts from two different sources are isolated and allowed to fuse with each other.
Name this process and explain how this fusion can be done. Give its benefit over genetic

hybrid.
Section D

29. Two patients - A and B, who had recently consumed drugs, were brought to a
rehabilitation centre. While it is established that each of them consumed either
morphine or cocaine, their specific drug consumption remained undisclosed. During the
preliminary tests, A exhibited heightened alertness with series of hallucinations while B
appeared drowsy. Further, the resting heart rate of A was high and that of B was slower
than normal.
(a) Based on these observations, specify the drug that each patient is likely to have
consumed.
 (b) Which category of drugs does each drug identified in (a) belong to?
(c) How might their body react in the first few days of rehabilitation? Enlist any two
symptoms.
(d) I. Name one non plant source of hallucinogen?
OR
II. Why does any plant produce such alkaloids in its body and why these drugs do not
affect the source organism?
30. Answer the following questions on the basis of the given pedigree chart,

(a) Identify the pattern of inheritance of the disorder/disease.

(b) Write the genotype of all affected individuals in the second generation.
(c) Identify the chromosomes affected by the disorder and mention one example of the
same.
(d) I. What is the genotype of 4th individual of second generation and how does that
contribute to the disorder?
OR
II. How is Anueploidy different from Polyploidy in terms of causing disorder?
Section E

31. I.(a) A plant part is an allergen and also a source of instant energy in some cases. Identify
the part and mention its ploidy. (1)
(b) A polyploid is seen in a fertilized embryo sac. What is its significance to plant? (1)
(c) Identify and name the parts which are - (2)
(i) Involved in dehiscence of the anther.
(ii) Binucleate.
(d) How does nutritive tissue in black pepper seed differ from maize seed? (1)

OR
II. Complete the following flowchart.

32. I. (a) You have an individual who is totally heterozygous for 2 genes that are not linked. One
gene is for ear size (AA or Aa being big ears whereas aa is for small ears) and the other
gene is for bulgy eyes (BB and Bb for bulgy eyes whereas bb represents normal eyes).
If you test cross this individual, what are the resulting genotypes and phenotypes?
Explain the cross as well. (2)
 (b) If the 4 types of offspring from the above cross, did not show 1:1:1:1, but were as
follows, what can be inferred? Which organism was used as the experimental
material to explain it? (1)

Percentage Genotype Phenotype

48 AaBb Big ears, bulgy eyes
2 Aabb Big ears, normal eyes
2 aaBb Small ears,Bulgyeyes
48 aabb Small ears,normal eyes

(c ) Enlist any two advantages of the experimental material mentioned in b. (2)

OR

II. In maize, the trait for the purple kernel (P) is dominant over the yellow kernel (p). A plant
with purple kernels is crossed with another plant with yellow kernels and produces 2
offspring with purple kernels and 2 offspring with yellow kernels.
(a) What is the genotype of the parental maize plants? (1)
(b) Draw a Punnett square to depict the cross between the two offspring with purple
kernels. (2)
(c) Identify the genotypic and phenotypic ratios obtained from the cross in (b). (1)
(d) Describe a method that can definitely help with the identification of an unknown
genotype of a plant with purple kernels. (1)

33. I. a .Explain how advent of biotechnology has helped in preventing infestation by

nematodes and thereby increasing crop yield. (3)
b. Write the importance of GEAC and Patent Law in regulating sustainability and
innovation in our society. (2)

OR
II. a. In view of the current food crisis, it is said, that we need another green revolution.
Highlight two major limitations of the earlier green revolution. (2)
b. Observe the given structure of a hormone which is produced by beta cells of pancreas
and help to treat diabetes. An American company produced this hormone using rDNA
technique. (3)
(i) Which bonds join the polypeptide chains of the mature hormone?
(ii) Mention the chemical change that the pro hormone undergoes to be able to act
as mature hormone.
(iii) Why is the hormone produced via rDNA technique considered better than the
ones used earlier by diabetic patients?