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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

APTITUDE TEST–Test (4736) – 2025

Q 1.D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Refer to the lines: “Growing up in the 1990s in India meant having seen an ad for
a glucose-based drink on television in which the sun literally sucks the life force out of children with a giant
straw as they are playing. This ad has started to hit closer to reality.” The passage talks about a particular
ad whose premise has started becoming a reality. This cannot be generalized to all ads. Hence, statement 1
is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Refer to the lines: “A recent study published in Science Advances showed that it
wasn’t just India: the whole world is grappling with slower and longer heatwaves.” The context of
heatwaves is not limited to India alone; entire world is suffering. However, this context cannot be
extrapolated to advertisement of glucose-based drinks. The author talks about the ads in India in the 1990s.
There is no indication towards ads in other parts of the world. Hence, this answer option is completely
beyond the scope of the passage. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q 2.C
Option (a) is not correct: The passage deals with specific case of travel insurance vis-à-vis PEDs. There is
no mention of the larger ambit of life insurance at all. Therefore, the argument of bringing travel insurance
under the broader domain of life insurance is entirely beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, option (a)
is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage discusses the case of travel insurance with PED coverage. Different
aspects like under what situation people with PEDs will be covered, and what the provisions of the coverage
etc. are discussed. There is no mention of the availability or affordability of such plans. Hence, option (b)
is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The given statement best reflects the critical message of the passage for the following
reasons:
PED coverage exists: Travel insurance can cover medical costs related to pre-existing conditions in some
situations.
Focus on emergencies: This coverage is primarily for stabilizing a life-threatening situation, not ongoing
treatment.
This is highlighted in the lines – “this cover is only available for life-threatening situations and will pay the
medical expenses for treatment required to bring the patient out of danger and to stability. There are specific
plans that provide policyholders with PED coverage up to a certain limit or up to the sum insured.”

Q 3.A
Inference 1 is correct. The passage talks about connecting an employee’s everyday work activities with the
organization’s purpose. The workers are trained to visualize the larger impact of their work. In general, this
creates a win-win situation that may lead to higher job satisfaction. The author cites the examples of hospital
cleaner and insurance agent to substantiate his argument. It is natural that the such employees may perform
better and feel satisfied, eventually leading to low attrition rates. These arguments are best captured in this
answer option. Hence, inference 1 is correct.

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 Inference 2 is incorrect. The passage notes, “…employees have to see a connection between their day-to-
day work and the organization’s greater purpose.” It goes on to highlight the advantages of job crafting in
the lines “…job crafting,… is one technique that connects an employee’s everyday work activities with the
organization’s purpose.” However, it is nowhere indicated that employees prefer job crafting to financial
benefits, and accord less priority to financial benefits. This answer option is beyond the scope of the passage,
and is therefore incorrect.

Q 4.B
Given that, passing marks = 35%
Let total marks of the examination be 100%.
The candidate got (3/5) of 100% i.e. 60%
That is, 60% - 35% (passing marks) = 25% more marks than the passing marks.

Now, according to the question,

25% = 40 marks
∴ 1% = 40/25
∴ 100% = (40/25) × 100 = 160 marks
So, the total marks of the examination = 160

So, Passing marks = 35% of 160 = 160 × (35/100) = 56

Thus, marks scored by the candidate = 56 + 40 = 96
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 5.D
Let the principal amount be Rs. P.
Compound interest for 2 years at 6.25% p.a. on Rs. P will be:
Compound interest = P[{1 + (6.25/100)}2 – 1] = P[{1 + (1/16)}2 – 1]
= P[(17/16)2 – 1] = P((289/256) – 1] = P(33/256)

Simple interest for 2 years at 5% p.a. on Rs. P will be:

Simple interest = P×2×5/100 = P/10

According to the question,

P(33/256) – P/10 = 37
Or P(165 – 128)/1280 = 37
Or P(37/1280) = 37
Or P = Rs. 1280
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 6.C
Let us assume the initial price of rice to be Rs. 100.
According to the question, when the price of rice is increased by 25%, the value of rice increases by Rs. 80.
Therefore, 25% = Rs. 80
Or 1% = 80/25
Or 100% = (80/25) × 100 = Rs. 320
So, the initial price of rice = Rs. 320

Price of rice when the it is increased by 37.5% = 137.5% of 320 = Rs. 440
Hence, option (c) is right answer.

Q 7.B
Percentage of people less than 30 years of age = 12%; Percentage of people more than 70 years of age =
6%; Percentage of people more than 50 years of age = 22%
Number of people between 30 and 50 years of age= 990.
Percentage of people between 30 and 50 years = 100% – 12% – 22% = 66%
Let the total number of people be X
So, 66% of X = 990

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 Thus, X = (990/66) × 100 = 1,500
People between 50 and 70 years = 22 – 6 = 16% of 1500 = 240
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 8.D
Suppose second seller’s income be Rs. 500
Then, Income of 1st seller = [(12/5) + 100]% of 500 = [(512/5)]% of 500
= [(512/500) × 500 = Rs. 512

∴ The required percentage = [(512 – 500) / 512] × 100 = (12/512) × 100 = (75/32)%
Hence, option (d) is the right answer.

Q 9.A
Let R be the rate of interest.
Now, SI = (P × R × t)/100
So, q = (p×R×2)/100 ………..(i)
And, r = (q×R×4/100) ………..(ii)

Dividing equation (i) by (ii), we get:

q/r = {p×R×2/100}/{q×R×4/100}
Or q/r = p/2q
Or 2q2 = p × r
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 10.A
Let, the total number of votes be 100.
Percentage of voters who did not cast their votes = 10%
So, the remaining voters = 100 – 10 = 90
Now, 20% of the votes casted were invalid.
So, total valid votes = 90 – (20% of 90) = 90 – 18 = 72

Votes given to 1st candidate = 73% of 72

Votes given to 2nd candidate = (100 – 73)% of 72 = 27% of 72

Now, according to the question,

73% of 72 – 27% of 72 = 3312 votes
Or 46% of 72 = 3312 votes
Or (46/100) × 72 = 3312 votes
Or 1 unit = (3312 × 100)/(46 × 72) votes
Or 1 unit = 100
Or 100 units = 100 × 100 = 10,000 votes
Therefore, total voters = 10,000
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 11.A
The average of the distances covered by Yogesh in September and December, 2023 = (17998 + 14890)/2 =
16444 kilometers
The average of the distances covered by Naresh in August and December, 2023 = (24560 + 16788)/2 =
20674 kilometers

Required difference = 20674 – 16444 = 4230 kilometers

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 12.B
Total distance travelled by Suresh = 22500 + 23980 + 17645 + 16123 = 80248 kilometers
Total distance travelled by Naresh = 15780 + 24560 + 14584 + 16788 = 71712 kilometers
Total distance travelled by Yogesh = 20542 + 17343 + 17998 + 14890 = 70773 kilometers

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 Total distance travelled by Mahesh = 18640 + 19876 + 17774 + 19584 = 75874 kilometers

Thus, Naresh did not travel the longest distance. Therefore, we can say that option (b) cannot be concluded.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 13.C
Amount in 5 years = Principal + SI of 5 years = Rs. 6125 ………..(i)

Amount in 2 years = Principal + SI of 2 years = Rs. 4325 ………..(ii)

Subtracting equation (ii) from (i), we get:

SI for 3 years = (6125 – 4325) = Rs. 1800
So, SI for 2 years = Rs. (1800/3) × 2 = Rs. 1200

Principal + SI of 2 years = Rs. 4325

Or Principal + 1200 = 4325
Or Principal = 4325 – 1200 = Rs. 3125

Now, SI = PRt/100
∴ Rate of interest = (100 × SI)/(P × t) = (100 × 1200)/(3125 × 2) = 19.2%
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 14.D
Statement 1 is not correct: The passage talks about international spoofed calls, and how it works. There is
no indication towards whether or not TSPs have the wherewithal to block such calls. We cannot
conclusively arrive at any conclusion. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage talks about “manipulating the calling line identity.” This clearly
means that the technology is not outdated. This argument itself renders this answer option incorrect. The
second part of the answer option – misuse of weak document verification process – may be or may not be
correct. It is nowhere indicated in the passage. Therefore, this part of the answer option is beyond the scope
of the passage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: The passage details a range of scams that rely on spoofed calls impersonating
government and police officials. This suggests that criminals understand that people are more likely to trust
and respond to calls that appear to be from legitimate authorities. It highlights a tactic that exploits trust in
institutions for fraudulent purposes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 15.A
Assumption 1 is correct: Refer to the line: “The objective of education is to turn the soul towards light.” The
author uses "light" in the context of the ultimate goal of education. It doesn't explicitly define
what "light" refers to, but mentions Plato's view of education "directing it towards the right objects" which
suggests a focus on guiding someone towards something valuable. This implies that "light" is likely a
metaphor for a positive outcome of education, such as knowledge, understanding, or the development of
good character. Hence, assumption 1 is correct.
Assumption 2 is not correct: The passage mentions Plato's view that education should develop a sense of
ideas in people "who possess the ability and purpose to perform their assigned tasks." While fulfilling one's
purpose might be one of the many benefits of education, this passage doesn't suggest that it is the only aim
of education. According to Plato, education has broad aims like developing a sense of ideas and turn the
soul towards the light. It can also be inferred from the last line of the passage – “…early education plays a
crucial role in the overall development of the individual.” Hence, assumption 2 is not correct.

Q 16.D
Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “You start by booking a cab ride through a mobile app, but
since the app is not accessible, you seek external help to book the ride.” This shows the difficulty faced by
such a person in booking a cab ride.
Statement 2 is correct. The entire passage highlights a multitude of challenges faced by a visually impaired
person in accomplishing the very basic task of buying a toaster. The passage tries to bring attention to the

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 problems and highlights that there is a need to bring reforms at multiple levels to create a more inclusive
environment for all.

Q 17.D
Option (a) is incorrect. A humorous tone is funny and witty at the same time. This is easy to catch because
they usually induce laughter. The given passage does not induce laughter or humour; hence it is not
humorous. Hence option (a) is incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect. An aggressive or angry tone is a destructive tone that may be biased or justified.
Nonetheless, it is an emotionally charged response to something. Although this passage gives an account of
injustice, it is not aggressive or emotionally charged. Hence option (b) is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect. A biased or prejudiced opinion or statement is when the author clearly shows
allegiance towards one party over the other, usually by openly supporting every action of one party. The
passage does not give a biased account of any event. Rather it presents the facts. Hence option (c) is
incorrect.
Option (d) is correct. A sympathetic tone expresses grief or sympathy for a person or a group of people who
have suffered or are suffering from some or other misfortune. The author intends to understand and convey
to the reader the suffering undergone by the victims. The given passage tries to arouse sympathy for the
visually impaired persons. Hence option (d) is correct.

Q 18.D
Let the salary of the lead be Rs. 100.
Salary of the 1st and 2nd employee will be 20% and 30% less than their lead respectively.
So, the salary of the 1st employee = 100 – 20% of 100 = Rs. 80
And the salary of the 2nd employee = 100 – 30% of 100 = Rs. 70

Required percentage = [(80 – 70)/70] × 100 = [10/70] × 100 = (100/7)% = 14(2/7)% = 14.28%
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 19.D
Since, Aman’s pocket money is 10% less than Bhushan.
So, the ratio of their pocket money will be:
Aman : Bhushan = 90 : 100 = 9 : 10 …….(i)

Similarly, Bhushan’s pocket money is 25% more than Raman.

Bhushan : Raman = 125 : 100 = 5 : 4 ……….(ii)

Similarly, Raman’s pocket money is 20% less than Dinesh.

Raman : Dinesh = 80 : 100 = 4 : 5 (iii)

Now from equations (i), (ii) and (iii) we get:

So, we got:
Aman : Dinesh = 9 : 10
Difference between Aman’s and Dinesh’s pocket money = (10 – 9) unit = Rs. 360
Or 1 unit = 360

Therefore, Aman’s pocket money = 9 units = 9 × 360 = Rs. 3240

Pocket money of Dinesh = 10 units = 10 × 360 = Rs. 3600
Raman’s pocket money = 8 units = 8 × 360 = Rs. 2880
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 Bhushan’s pocket money = 10 units = 10 × 360 = Rs. 3600

Pocket money of both Dinesh and Bhushan is the same, i.e. Rs. 3600.
Hence, option (d) is the correct.

Q 20.D
As we know that,
n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)

Here, A be the students having brown hair and B be the students having brown eyes.
Students having brown hair = n(A) = 35%
Students having brown eyes = n(B) = 50%
Students having both brown hair and brown eyes = n(A ∩ B) = 18%

The number of students having either brown hair or brown eyes = n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B) =
35% + 50% – 18%
= 85% – 18%
= 67%

So, the number of students having neither brown hair nor brown eyes = 100% - 67% = 33%
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 21.A
The average number of ACs sold in Bihar in all the given days taken together = (280 + 320 + 400 + 440 +
360 + 480)/6 = 2280/6 = 380
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 22.D
The total number of ACs sold in Bihar on Thursday = 440
So, The total number of ACs sold in Bihar on Sunday = 120% of 440 = (120/100) × 440 = 528
Total numbers of ACs sold in Bihar on Tuesday, Friday and Sunday taken together = 320 + 360 + 528 =
1208
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 23.D
The total number of ACs sold in Jharkhand on Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday = 380 + 560 + 360 = 1300
The total number of ACs sold in Bihar on Monday, Wednesday and Friday = 280 + 400 + 360 = 1040
Required ratio = 1300 : 1040 = 5 : 4
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 24.B
Principal (P) = Rs. 720

Using statement-I alone:

Principal (P) = Rs. 720; Amount (A) = Rs. 1230
Simple Interest (SI) = 1230 – 720 = Rs. 510
Time (T) = 17 months

Interest earned in 17 months = Rs. 510

∴ Interest earned in 1 month = 510/17 = Rs. 30
∴ Interest earned in 12 months (1 year) = 12×30 = Rs. 360
Let R be the rate of interest per annum.
Now, SI = Rs. 360; P = Rs. 720; Time = 1 year
SI = (PRT)/100
Or R = (SI × 100)/(PT)
Or R = 360 × 100/(720 × 1)
Or R = 50%
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 Therefore, rate of interest per annum is 50%.
Hence, the question can be answered using statement I alone.

Using statement-II alone:

Interest earned after 30 months is Rs. 900.
Principal (P) = Rs. 720
Simple Interest (SI) = Rs. 900
Time (T) = 30 months

Interest earned in 30 months = Rs. 900

∴ Interest earned in 1 month = 900/30 = Rs. 30
∴ Interest earned in 12 months (1year) = 12 × 30 = Rs. 360
Let R be the rate of interest per annum.
Now, SI = Rs. 360; P = Rs. 720; Time = 1 year
SI = (PRT)/100
Or R = (SI × 100)/(PT)
Or R = 360 × 100/(720 × 1)
Or R = 50%
Therefore, rate of interest per annum is 50%.
Hence, the question can be answered using statement II alone.

Thus, the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 25.B
Principle (P) = Rs. 5600
Simple interest (SI) = Rs. 640
Time (T) = 2 years
Rate of interest (R) = ?
SI = (PRT)/100
Or R = (SI × 100)/PT
Or R = (640 × 100)/(5600 × 2)
Or R = (40/7)%

Statement 1:
P = Rs. 4200
T = 2 years
R = (40/7)%

SI = (PRT)/100
Or SI = (4200 × 40 × 2)/(100 × 7)
Or SI = Rs. 480
Therefore, we can say that Statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2:
P = Rs. 2800
R = (40/7)%
T = 2 years

SI = (PRT)/100
Or SI = (2800 × 40 × 2)/(100 × 7)
Or SI = 4 × 2 × 40
Or SI = Rs. 320
So, Amount = P + SI = 2800 + 320 = Rs. 3120
Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Q 26.D
Let the total number of students be x.
Let n(M)= number of students who passed in Mathematics
n(E)= number of students who passed in English
n(M∩E)= number of students who passed in both Mathematics and English
n(M∪E)= number of students who passed in either Mathematics or in English or in both the subjects.
So the number of students who passed in one or both the subjects = n(M∪E) = n(M)+n(E)-n(M∩E) = 65%
of x + 60% of x – 40% of x = 65x/100 + 60x/100 - 40x/100 = 85x/100 = 17x/20
So the number of students who failed in both the subjects = x – (17x/20) = 3x/20
So, 3x/20 = 135
Or x = 900
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 27.D
Statement 1:
If 15% is 90, then 65% is 390.
Since, 15% = 90
Or 1% = 90/15
∴ 65% = (90/15) × 65 = 390
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2:
33% of 63% = 105
Or 1/3 of 63% = 105
Or 21% = 105
∴ 100% = (105/21) × 100 = 500
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3:
When 150 becomes 174, then the approximate percentage change is 16%.
Difference = 174 – 150 = 24
Percentage change = (24/150) × 100 = 16%
Hence, statement 3 is also correct.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 28.C
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage highlights Machiavelli’s fascination for republican form of government,
and the underlying reasons. His inclination for individual liberties and maintenance of army is also dealt
with in the passage. However, there is no mention of his early days, and the society in which is grew up.
Hence, we cannot conclusively comment on this. Therefore, this answer option is beyond the scope of the
passage.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage highlights Machiavelli's admiration for the Roman Republic, but it
does not necessarily mean that he believed it was the only successful model, that too for all states. The
passage does not explore his views on other forms of government besides republics. It is rather an extreme
statement. Also, we do not know much about the social aspect of the Roman empire. Hence, option (b) is
not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage states Machiavelli was an "ardent lover of individual liberty.". He was
also a supporter of national armies as mentioned towards the end of the passage. There could be a coherence
between the two ideas of individual liberty and maintenance of armies. Individual liberties can be ensured
only if the state is safeguarded from external attacks and internal rebellion by a strong army. Therefore, this
answer option is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage highlights Machiavelli's admiration for the Roman Republic, which
had a strong national army. It also mentions his advocacy for a similar national army model. However, the
passage does not necessarily connect these two points directly. There could be examples wherein a non-
republican state also has a strong national army. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
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Q 29.D
Statement 1 is incorrect. The first two lines of the passage only mention that the automobile industry
contributes 7.1% of the country's GDP and 49% of the manufacturing GDP. And, India's car industry plays
a big role in both macroeconomic expansion and technological improvement. This does not necessarily
mean that the car segment accounts for the largest share in India’s automobile industry. Hence, this answer
option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The last line of the passage says that cheap labour cost is one of the factors that
make India a globally attractive destination for automobile manufacturing. At the same time, the line “To
meet the growing demand for automobile production in the nation, numerous manufacturers are investing
in both new and existing plants” clearly implies that the domestic demand is increasing. It is possible that
other factors not mentioned in the passage are offsetting the low wage factor. Therefore, this answer option
is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q 30.D
Cost Price (CP) of each item = Total Cost / Number of Items = Rs. 1000 / 50 = Rs. 20 per item.

For the first 30 items:

SP = CP + 20% of CP = 20 + 0.20 × 20 = Rs. 24 per item.
Total SP for 30 items = 30 × 24 = Rs. 720.

For the remaining 20 items:

SP = CP - 10% of CP = 20 - 0.10 × 20 = Rs. 18 per item.
Total SP for 20 items = 20 × 18 = Rs. 360.

Total Selling Price (SP) for all items = 720 + 360 = Rs. 1080.
So, Overall Profit or Loss = Total SP - Total CP = 1080 - 1000 = Rs. 80 (profit).
And, Profit Percentage = (Profit / Total CP) × 100 = (80 / 1000) × 100 = 8%
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 31.D
Here, the election is between 2 candidates.
The candidate who won the election secured 59% valid votes, while the candidate who lost the election
secured 41% valid votes.
So, 59% - 41% = 1080 votes
Or 18% = 1080 votes
Or 1% = 60 votes
Therefore, total votes = 100% = 60 × 100 = 6000
Votes secured by the candidate who won the election = 6000 × 59/100 = 3540
Votes secured by the candidate who lost the election = 6000 × 41/100 = 2460
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 32.C
He earns Rs. 1,050 from income of Rs 6,000.
So, 3000(m/100) + 3000(n/100) = 1050
Or 30m + 30n = 1050
Or m + n = 35 …………….. (i)
Also, he earns Rs 1,350 from income of Rs 7,500
So, 3000(m/100) + 4500(n/100) = 1350
Or 30m + 45n = 1350
Or 2m + 3n = 90 ………… (ii)
Solving these two equations simultaneously, we get n = 20.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q 33.C
Difference between simple interest and compound interest for 2 years = Rs. 64.
Compound interest for two years = Rs. 704

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 CI for two years – SI for two years = Difference between CI and SI for 2 years
Or 704 – SI for two years = 64
Or SI for two years = 704 – 64 = Rs. 640
Or SI for 1 year = 640/2 = Rs. 320
Therefore, SI and CI for 1st year is Rs. 320.

∵ The difference between SI and CI = R% of 320 = 64

Or (R/100) × 320 = 64
Or R = 20%

Now, as we know that:

SI = (PRT)/100
Or 320 = (P × 20 × 1)/100
Or P = (320 × 100)/20
Or P = Rs. 1600
Therefore, the principal amount must be Rs. 1600.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 34.A
Let the cost price of the first item be Rs. x. Therefore, the cost price of the second item is Rs. 900 - x.

Selling Price (SP) of the first item (with 10% loss) = CP - 10% of CP = x - 0.10x = 0.90x.
Selling Price (SP) of the second item (with 25% profit) = CP + 25% of CP = (900 - x) + 0.25(900 - x) = Rs.
1.25(900 - x).
Total SP = 0.90x + 1.25(900 - x).

Given no overall profit or loss, the Total SP = Total CP

or 0.90x + 1.25(900 - x) = 900
or 0.90x + 1125 - 1.25x = 900
or -0.35x = -225
or x = 225 / 0.35
or x = Rs. 642.86.

So, Cost price of the first item = Rs. 642.86

And, Cost price of the second item = 900 - 642.86 = Rs. 257.14
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 35.B
Let the initial population be P.
Population after the first year = 1.1 P
Population after the second year = 0.95 × 1.1 P

As per the question,

0.95 × 1.1 P = 99,750
or 1.045 P = 99,750
or P = 95454.54
Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q 36.D
On the given date, only Delhi (460) is falling in the ‘severe’ category (401 – 500) of air quality, rest (the
remaining 4 cities) are in the non – severe category.

Q 37.B
As the air quality is the worst (severe) in Delhi on that day, so the persons having respiratory disease(s) and
living/staying in Delhi needed to be the most cautious on that day.
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Q 38.B
We know that selling price = (100 – discount%)/100 of the initial cost
Now, we will calculate the selling price under the three schemes:
Scheme 1: SP = 0.9 × 0.9 = 0.81 of the initial cost.
Scheme 2: SP = 0.86 × 0.94 = 0.808 of the initial cost
Scheme 3: SP = 0.88 × 0.92 =0.809 of the initial cost
Under Scheme 2, the purchaser will be able to buy at the least price.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 39.D
Statement 1 is correct. The passage says “When we decide what to do—for instance, decide to pick up that
cup of coffee—we may unreflectively believe that it was up to us what we decided”. It mentions about the
possibility that our decision to pick up the coffee, or any decision for that matter, might not be as freely
chosen as we believe. It hints that there could be underlying factors influencing our choices that we might
not be consciously aware of. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage suggests that simply being able to act without force isn't sufficient for
true free will. There's more to it than the absence of coercion. The passage says, “Exercising one’s free will
involves an exercise of control, or influence, over oneself”. This implies free will likely involve a deeper
sense of control over our choices that goes beyond external pressures. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the lines, "Incompatibilists typically agree that lack of compulsion or coercion
is necessary for agents to have free will, however, incompatibilists don’t take this kind of freedom of action
to be enough control for free will.", the incompatibilists find lack of coercion to be insufficient. The passage
suggests they believe true free will requires an even greater level of control over our actions. This control
might involve factors beyond our current understanding. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 40.C
Inference 1 is correct: The passage mentions the "collapse of the international colonial structure" and the
establishment of sovereign countries. It suggests that this transition was expected to lead to a reduction
in "international conflict over natural resources." The passage implies that during the colonial era, these
conflicts were more prominent. With countries gaining sovereignty, the hope was that they would manage
resources based on their own needs, potentially reducing tensions. Hence, inference 1 is correct.
Inference 2 is correct: The passage states that “local resources are moving out of the control of local
communities and governments”. It highlights the “growing influence of international financial institutions
in developing countries”. It links these two points by suggesting that this financial involvement leads to
drastic changes in natural resource management strategies. Hence, inference 2 is correct.

Q 41.A
Assumption 1 is correct: The passage says, “…fascist and authoritarian orders have stressed on the duty
to contend against liberal stress on rights and the Marxist pursuit of a non-exploitative and just social
order”. These orders have attempted to impose their interpretation of duty on cherished values and strivings,
such as self-respect and culture. Hence, assumption 1 is correct.
Assumption 2 is not correct: This assumption is not explicitly stated in the passage, and may not accurately
represent the nuanced relationship between rights and duty. The passage acknowledges that different
philosophical and political contexts have emphasized either rights or duty, but it does not necessarily imply
that these concepts cannot be reconciled or made to coexist in a complementary manner. Hence, assumption
2 is not correct.

Q 42.A
Let P = Principal, r = Rate of interest, n = time period
Amount, A = P[1 + r/100]n
Compound interest = CI = A – P = P[1 + r/100]n – P = P[(1 + r/100)n – 1]
Compound interest when the sum is Rs. 1000 = 1000 × [{1 + (10/100)}2 – 1]
= 1000 × ({121/100} – 1) = 1000 × 21/100 = Rs. 210

Compound interest when the sum is Rs. 1500 = 1500 × [{1 + (10/100)}2 – 1]
= 1500 × ({121/100} – 1) = 1500 × 21/100 = Rs. 315
Therefore, the required ratio = 210 : 315 = 2 : 3
11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 Hence, option (a) is correct.

Note: We could have got the same answer if we would just have find out the ratio of 1000 to 1500.

Q 43.B
A invested Rs. 5000 on compound interest at the rate of 20% p.a. for 2 years.
Investment by A = Rs. 5000 (principal); Rate (R) = 20%; Time (T) = 2 years
CI for 2 years on Rs. 5000 = 5000{(1 + 20/100)2 – 1} = 5000 × 11/25 = Rs. 2200

B invested Rs. 10,000 on simple interest at the rate of 15% p.a. for 3 years.
Investment by B = Rs. 10,000 (principal); Rate (R) = 15%; Time (T) = 3 years
∴ Simple interest (SI) = (P×R×T)/100
Or SI = (10000 × 15 × 3)/100
Or SI = Rs. 4500
∴ Required ratio = 2200 : 4500 = 22 : 45
Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q 44.D
Offer by Shop l: Buy 5 get 3 free.
Discount% = [3/(5 + 3)]×100 = (3/8)×100 = 37.5%

Offer by Shop ll: Buy 3 get 2 free.

Discount% = [2/(2 + 3)]×100 = (2/5)×100 = 40%

Offer by Shop lll: Buy 7 get 4 free.

Discount % = [4/(4 + 7)]×100 = (4/11)×100 = 36.36%

Offer by Shop lV: Buy 7 get 5 free.

Discount% = [5/(5 + 7)]×100 = (5/12)×100 = 41.67%

Therefore, shop lV provides the best offer.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 45.C
Solving this question with the help of options would be easy.

Taking option (a): Cost price of the old chair is Rs. 120.
Cost price (CP) = Percentage of profit
Selling price (SP) = CP + profit
Or SP = 120 + 120% of 120
Or SP = 120 + [(120/100)×120]
Or SP = 120 + 144
Or SP = Rs. 264
Since the SP of the chair is Rs. 171, option (a) is not correct.

Taking option (b): Cost price of the old chair is Rs. 60.
Cost price (CP) = Percentage of profit
Selling price (SP) = CP + profit
Or SP = 60 + 60% of 60
Or SP = 60 + [(60/100)× 60]
Or SP = 60 + 36
Or SP = Rs. 96
Since the SP of the chair is Rs. 171, option (b) is not correct.

Taking option (c): Cost price of the old chair is Rs. 90.
Cost price (CP) = Percentage of profit
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 Selling price (SP)= CP + profit
Or SP = 90 + 90% of 90
Or SP = 90 + [(90/100)× 90]
Or SP = 90 + 81
Or SP = Rs. 171
Since the SP of the chair is Rs. 171, option (c) is correct.

Q 46.C
Manoj is getting a discount of 3 shirts on the Marked Price (MP) of 8 shirts.
So, the discount received by Manoj = (3/8)×100 = 37.5%
Also, he got an extra discount of 20%.
Total discount = 37.5 + 20 – [37.5×20/100]% = (57.5 – 7.5)% = 50%
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 47.A
Let marked price (MP) of the box of Alfonzo mangoes be 100 units.
After 10 % discount, cost price (CP) of Alfonzo mangoes = 90% of 100 units = 90 units

Ramkumar sold these Alfonzo mangoes to one of his friends at 20% profit.
Selling price (SP) of Alfonzo mangoes for Ramkumar = 120% of 90 = (120/100) × 90 units = 108 units

So, 108 units = Rs. 1296

Or 1 unit = Rs. 1296/108 = Rs. 12
∴ 100 units = Rs. 12 × 100 = Rs. 1200

Therefore, the undiscounted price of the Alfonzo mangoes must be Rs. 1200.
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 48.D
Let the cost of Q be 100 units, then:
Cost of R = 140% of 100 units = 140 units
And, Cost of P =125% of 140 unit = 175 units
Total cost of three articles P, Q and R = 175 units + 100 units + 140 units = 415 units
According to the question,
415 units = 4565
Or 1 unit = 4565/415 = 11
The cost of P = 175 units = 175×11 = Rs. 1925
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 49.B
As we know that loss percent = (Loss/CP) × 100
Now, we will calculate the loss percentage of all the four options one by one:
Option (a): Loss percent = 10/300 × 100% = 3.33%
Option (b): Loss percent = 10/500 × 100% = 2%
Option (c): Loss percent = 50/1000 × 100% = 5%
Option (d): Loss percent = 70/700 × 100% = 10%.

Clearly, 2% is the minimum loss amongst all the options.

Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q 50.D
Let cost of 1 glass, 1 spoon and 1 plate be G, S and P respectively.
The total cost of 4 glasses, 6 spoons and 8 plates is equal to thrice the total cost of 1 glass, 2 spoons and 5
plates.
4G + 6S + 8P = 3(G + 2S + 5P)
Or 4G + 6S + 8P = 3G + 6S + 15P
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 Or 4G – 3G + 6S – 6S = 15P – 8P
Or G = 7P

Statement 1:
The total cost of 3 glasses, 5 spoons and 9 plates is equal to the total cost of 4 glasses, 6 spoons and 8 plates.
3G + 5S + 9P = 4G + 6S + 8P
Or 9P – 8P = 4G – 3G + 6S – 5S
Or P = G + S, which is not true.
Hence, statement 1 is false.

Statement 2:
The cost of one plate is equal to the total cost of seven glasses.
P = 7G, which is not true.
Hence, statement 2 is also false.
Thus, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 51.B
Assumption 1 is not correct: The passage says that Northeastern India bucked the national trend, and
witnessed an increase in NOTA votes. We know that Northeast India constitutes several states. The author
has treated Northeast India has one common entity. There is no mention of the trend in different states of
Northeast India. Hence, we cannot conclusively say whether or not ‘all’ Northeastern states witnessed an
increase in NOTA votes. Therefore, assumption 1 is not correct.
Assumption 2 is correct: The passage mentions, “while the percentage of NOTA votes dipped nationally in
the 2024 Lok Sabha election compared to the 2019 edition, Northeastern India showed a different
trend”. This suggests that there may be unique circumstances or issues in Northeastern India that
contributed to the rise in NOTA polls, setting it apart from the overall national trend. Hence, assumption 2
is correct

Q 52.A
Implication 1 is correct: The passage highlights the importance of informal waste collectors and recyclers
in the line “a significant portion (85% of the 9% recycled waste) is handled by informal workers”. This
implies that informal sector plays a crucial role in waste management. Since the treaty focuses on plastic
pollution, it will likely introduce regulations and potential changes in how waste is collected and recycled.
The passage further says about informal workers - “Yet, these workers are often overlooked and remain
highly vulnerable in plastic value chains”. This implies that if the treaty doesn't consider their role, it could
disrupt their livelihood or make it harder for them to continue their work. By including provisions to help
formalize this sector, the treaty can ensure these workers are integrated into the system.
Implication 2 is not correct: The passage mentions EPR as a policy intervention that might exclude informal
workers, but it doesn't necessarily imply they are always excluded. Without more context about the specific
EPR programs being implemented, it is imprudent to infer that informal workers are automatically excluded
from all such programs.

Q 53.C
Option (a) is not correct: The passage criticizes excessive regulation hindering private sector growth, but it
doesn't claim private sector is always better than public sector in healthcare delivery. The specific case of
Maharashtra or Kerala is quoted to highlight the efficiency of private sector, but it cannot be generalised.
There could be cases where public healthcare delivery is better than their private counterparts. Hence, option
(a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage criticizes excessive regulations hindering private healthcare delivery,
but it doesn't necessarily imply that less regulation equates to better quality care. The passage highlights the
negative impact of over regulation, but stops short of establishing a causal relationship between regulation
and efficiency of healthcare delivery. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage says, “It is not as if there are not enough health regulations in Indian
States. Rather, it is a problem of excess.” This clearly means that the author does acknowledge the
importance of regulations. Just that he is concerned about excessive regulations. The passage further

14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 says, “The other challenge is unrealistic healthcare quality standards”. This can be resolved by adopting
a nuanced and calibrated approach that accounts for the regional variation in contributing factors. These
arguments are aptly captured in this answer option. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct as both options (a) and (b) are incorrect.

Q 54.C
Here, gain is 15%.
Let cost price (CP) of pure milk be Rs. 1 per ml.
So, CP of 100 ml of pure milk will be Rs. 100.
And after gain of 15%, selling price (SP) would be Rs. 115.
So, the quantity of sold mixture should be 115 ml.
Therefore, water mixed = 115 – 100 = 15 ml.

So, the required percent of water mixed in milk = (15/100) × 100 = 15%
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 55.A
Let the article be worth Rs. x (the actual cost price).
Effective cost price= 80% of Rs. x = 80x/100 = 4x/5.
Also, the selling price = 120% of Rs. x = 120x/100 = 6x/5.
So, gain= (6x/5) – (4x/5) = 2x/5.
So, the gain percent = (2x/5)/(4x/5) x 100 = 50%
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 56.B
Let the original fraction be ‘O’ and the new fraction be ‘N’.
The fraction is increased by 30%.
So, the ratio of original and new fraction will be:
Original : New = O : N = 100 : 130 = 10 : 13
Let numerator and denominator of the new fraction be x and y respectively.
Numerator is increased by 340% and denominator is increased by 150%.
So, the second new fraction will be:
(440% of x) : (250% of y) = 44x/25y
According to the question,
44x/25y = 1(3/5)
Or 44x/25y = 8/5
Or 11x/5y = 2/1
Or 11x = 10y
Or x/y = 10/11
Now, from above the ratio of original and new fraction is:
Original : New = O : N = 10 : 13
Here new fraction is 13 units.

∴ 13 units = x/y = 10/11

Or 1 unit = 10 / (11 × 13)
∴ 10 units = [10/143] × 10 = 100/143
Therefore, original fraction = 100/143
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q 57.B
Checking Option (a):
The number of crocks sold by shop C = 180
The number of shoes sold by shop A = 230
The number of crocks sold by shop C is not more than the number of shoes sold by shop A.
Hence, option (a) cannot be concluded.
Checking Option (b):
The ratio of shoes sold by shop C to the crocks sold by shop D = 245/210 = 7 : 6
Hence, option (b) can be concluded.
15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q 58.D
The number of sandals sold by shop A = 350
The number of crocks sold by shop D = 210
Difference between number of sandals sold by shop A and the number of crocks sold by shop D = 350 –
210 = 140
Required percent = (140/210) × 100 = (200/3)% = 66.67%
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 59.C
Total number of shoes sold by all shops taken together = 230 + 235 + 245 + 315 + 275 = 1300
Total number of sandals sold by all shops taken together = 350 + 255 + 325 + 280 + 200 = 1410
Required ratio = 1300/1410 = 130/141 = 130 : 141
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 60.A
Let the initial mixture be 1000 ml. (This solution will have 500 ml milk and 500 ml water)
¼ of this mixture will have 125 ml of milk and 125 ml of water.
Amount of pure milk to be added into it = 500 ml.
So, Percentage of water in new mixture = 125/(125 + 500) = (125/625) × 100 % = 20%
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 61.C
Option (a) is not correct. The passage only says that the politics around oil is again gaining momentum.
This is peaceful time in the context of the passage. How the oil behaves in war times is not dealt with in the
passage. We cannot say whether or not it becomes more volatile and vital during war times. Moreover, this
statement touches upon only one aspect discussed in the passage, and hence cannot be the best critical
message. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct. The passage says “Manifest attempts are being made by several leading countries
to enhance their national security by protecting vital technologies, over which they possess a near-
monopoly today”. Therefore, the above statement is correct in the context of the passage. However, it does
not cover the other aspects of the passage like the geopolitics of oil and nuclear arms race. The above
statement does not reflect the holistic message of the passage. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The passage suggests that the world is unprepared for the challenges of the geopolitics
of oil, technological disruption, and Nuclear proliferation. The passage suggests that “competition for oil
resources, could lead to instability and potentially disrupt the global oil market”. It further highlights the
“growing importance of technology in national security”. Finally, the passage expresses concern that the
“erosion of arms control agreements could lead to a renewed nuclear arms race”. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage mentions both the development of new nuclear warheads and
countries protecting vital technologies, but it does not establish a causal relationship between the two. It
could be possible that nuclear warhead development and protection of vital technologies are mutually
independent developments. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
Q 62.B
Option (a) is not correct. This statement might be factually true. However, the author does not even remotely
talk about CO2 fertilization, and its impact on forest as CO2 sink. This is entirely beyond the scope of the
passage. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. The passage discusses the economic value of forests in terms of carbon credits, which
can be sold to countries with a deficit. It also highlights the environmental impact of deforestation in the
lines “The judgment said India’s forests serve as a major sink of carbon dioxide. India could lose anywhere
around 3% to 10% of its GDP annually by the year 2100 due to climate change”. This suggests that the
Supreme Court views forests as a national asset that is essential for both the economy and the environment.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage says that India’s forests serve as a major sink of carbon dioxide. There
is also a mention of the concepts of carbon credit and green accounting to evaluate a nation’s wealth.

16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 However, there is no mention about the impact of these measures on forest dwellers. This is entirely beyond
the scope of the passage. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage is about forest conservation. Also, there is mention of financial and
economic terms like green accounting, carbon credit etc. This does not mean that forest conservation is not
possible without incorporating these concepts. It is just that this passage talks about the financial
implications of forest conservation. Even if true, it cannot be the most critical inference that can be made
from the passage. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 63.A
Option (a) is correct. The passage mentions how during times of conflict and war the marginalization of
women is intensified. Women are subjected to physical, sexual and psychological violence. Women’s
ability to seek recourse is often severely limited due to structural inequalities. All this calls for a gendered
approach to conflict resolution and reconciliation process. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct. Refer to the line: “Even transitional justice mechanisms themselves can be blind
to the particular needs of women if badly designed…” The author is hopeful about the potential of
transitional justice, however, he is not sure whether it will help the women in distress. Therefore, we cannot
conclusively say that transitional justice is the best mechanism to ensure women safety in post conflict
society. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage criticizes poorly designed mechanisms, but doesn't claim that all of
them fail to consider women's needs. The passage focuses on the possibility of bad design, not the universal
failure of such mechanisms as stated: “Even transitional justice mechanisms themselves can be blind to the
particular needs of women if badly designed, and responses can mirror the gendered power imbalances in
society at large”. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage focuses on the vulnerability women face and the limitations placed
upon them. However, it doesn't suggest that women have no agency to protect them against their human
rights violations. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 64.A
While selling 80 oranges at Rs. 4000, loss to Sakibai is 40%.
So, 60% of actual cost = Rs. 4000
Or actual cost = 4000 × 100/60 = Rs. 40000/6
So, Actual cost of 80 oranges = 40000/6
Actual cost of 1 orange = 40000/(6×80) = 500/6
So as to gain 20%, Selling price of 1 orange = (500/6) × 120/100 = Rs. 100
Number of oranges sold for Rs. 2000 to get a gain of 20% = 2000/100 = 20
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 65.D
According to the question,

Hence, ratio of Guavas sold at 20% profit and 9% profit = 4 : 7

So, Quantity of Guavas sold at 9% profit = [7/(4 + 7)] × 220 = (7/11) × 220 = 140 kg
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 66.A
Let, the cost of one potato, one tomato and one lemon be P, T and L respectively.
According to the question:
4P + 2T + 3L = 55 ….(i)
1P + 3T + 2L = 30 ……(ii)
17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 After adding both the equations, we get:
5P + 5T + 5L = 85
Or 5(P + T + L) = 85
Or P + T + L = 17

Thus, cost of 1 potato, 1 tomato and 1 lemon is Rs. 17.

Therefore, the amount paid by Bankebihari for 13 potatoes, 13 tomatoes and 13 lemons = 13 × 17 = Rs. 221
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 67.B
Selling price (SP) of 2 dresses = Rs. 74.80
SP of 1 dress = 74.80/2 = Rs. 37.40
Discount% = 20%
So, 80% of Marked Price (MP) of each dress = Rs. 37.40
Or (80/100) × MP of each dress = 3740/100
Or MP of each dress = 3740/80 = 374/8 = Rs. 46.75
Therefore, we can say that MP of each dress is less than Rs. 50.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q 68.C
Statement 1: On observing the graph carefully, we can say that during first two years, i.e. in 2000 and 2001,
the amounts lent on simple interest and compound interest is same. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: The difference between the amounts lent on simple interest and compound interest is gradually
increasing after 2001. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: The amount lent on simple interest in 2004 is around Rs. 180000, which is roughly the same
as the amount lent on compound interest in 2003. Hence, statement 3 is correct too.
Hence, all the statements are correct. Option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 69.A
Option (a): On observing the graph carefully, we observe that the salary of both the typists for the first three
years appears to be the same. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b): Rate of increase of salary is not the same for the given two typists in question, as the slope of
the two graphs is different at various points of time. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c): Range of salary, i.e. the difference between the maximum and minimum salary, of two typists
is not same. Typist A is earning much more salary than typist B in the year 2018, though they started from
almost the same point in 2013. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Q 70.C
Principal, P = Rs. 35000
Rate of interest for 1st year, r1 = 4%
Rate of interest for 2nd year, r2 = 5%
Rate of interest for 3rd year, r3 = 6%
Amount after 3 years = P[1 + r1/100] [1 + r2/100] [1 + r3/100]
= 35000 × [1 + (4/100)] × [1 + (5/100)] × [1 + (6/100)]
= 35000 × [104/100] × [105/100] × [106/100]
= Rs. 40513.2
Thus, the amount to be paid after 3 years is Rs. 40513.2.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 71.A
Let Rs. x be lent at 7% p.a. and (Rs. 15000 – x) be lent at 11% p.a.
According to the question,
[(x×7×1)/100] + [{(15000 – x)×11×1}/100] = (15000×8.5×1)/100
Or (7x/100) + (15000×11/100) – (11x/100) = 150×8.5
Or (7x/100) – (11x/100) + 150×11 = 150 × 8.5
Or – 4x/100 = 1275 – 1650
Or – 4x/100 = – 375
18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 Or 4x = 375×100
Or x = 37500/4
Or x = Rs. 9375
Part lent at 7% p.a. = Rs. 9375
And part lent at 11% p.a. = (Rs. 15000 – x) = (Rs. 15000 – 9375) = Rs. 5625
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 72.A
Assumption 1 is correct. Refer to the lines: “The moral context in education, therefore, needs to be brought
back. It has been devalued as a result of a mad race wherein people derive satisfaction in leaving others…”
The author cites examples of unethical competition, mad race to ace past peers and defeating them etc. to
highlight the erosion of value-based education. The entire passage revolves around this argument.
Therefore, it is correct to say that infusing value orientation in the framework of education is the need of
the hour. Hence, assumption 1 is correct.
Assumption 2 is not correct. The passage argues for the return of a moral context in education, but it doesn't
mention its relationship with religious education. This statement is beyond the scope of this passage. Hence,
assumption 2 is not correct.

Q 73.B
Option (a) is not correct: The given statement is correct in the context of the passage. The passage implies
that studying an individual's genes, particularly those linked to cancer, could reveal potential weaknesses
or areas of increased risk for the disease. This is just one of the many arguments made in the passage.
However, it cannot be considered as the most logical and rational inference for the passage as the passage
also focuses on understanding mutation and analyzing relevant data sets. These aspects are not covered in
the given statement. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The passage establishes a link between mutations in genes and the development of
cancer. The passage says, “Just like the wrong ingredient can change how our recipe turns out, a DNA
mutation can change how our cells grow and function, sometimes leading to cancer.” It highlights the vast
amount of data due to the high number of cancer-causing genes and the complex nature of DNA with each
code potentially holding information about cancer. The passage emphasizes the sheer volume of data
analysis as a hurdle, suggesting it might be difficult or even seem impossible to analyze effectively. It says
that “the sheer volume of data analysis for a human can become quite overwhelming. And seemingly
impossible”. By connecting these points, the passage implies that the vast amount of genetic data associated
with cancer poses a significant challenge for researchers trying to understand the mutations that cause the
disease. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage does not mention the genetic inheritance of the gene mutations causing
cancer. It only describes that gene mutations cause cancer, and the related vast data is almost impossible to
analyse. There is no mention of it being passed on from parents to children. Even though it may be true, it
cannot be the most logical and rational inference. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passages restricts its domain to changes in DNA that lead to cancer. Other
factors, not discussed in the passage, could also lead to cancer. Hence, it would be incorrect to say that
cancer is caused only by changes at genetic level. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 74.D
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage mostly talks about how modification of the natural ecological
system is unavoidable for agriculture. Furthermore, the ecological ill effects of over exploitation of natural
resources are also touched upon in the passage. Sustainability is obviously the way forward, however, there
is no mention of the finer details of a sustainable agro-system. Based on the information given in the
passage, we cannot conclusively say whether or not the what constitutes a sustainable agro-system and
whether it remains consistent over time and space.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The author does highlight the challenges for the current agricultural practices –
deforestation, soil degration, over use of fertilisers etc. However, there is not even a remote indication of
exploring farming opportunities on other planets. Hence, this answer option is beyond the scope of the
passage.

19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 75.A
Option (a) is correct: The passage highlights, “human activities like mining and the use of phosphate-
containing products as the source of the increased phosphorus”. It explains how phosphate gets depleted
from the soil and how human actions contribute to a higher concentration of phosphorus in runoff water.
The passage mentions various sources of phosphorus enrichment, beyond just agriculture,
including “detergents, waste from processing plants, and sewage”. These arguments clearly imply that
human activities are causing an increase in phosphorus entering natural waters. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage highlights that the concerns associated with high concentration of
phosphates in water, driven by human activity. It doesn't necessarily imply that any presence of phosphates
is detrimental. The passage focuses only on the increase in concentration exceeding the natural levels.
Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage talks about the problem of excess phosphorus entering natural water
bodies. The author does not touch upon the regulations for controlling phosphorous levels in water. We
cannot conclusively comment on anything related to these regulations. Therefore, this answer option is
beyond the scope of this passage. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage highlights that the problem of phosphorus concentration becomes
acute in urban areas. From this we cannot deduce that all urban areas face acute phosphorous issue.
Similarly, just because rural areas have less severity of the problem, it does not mean all rural areas have
moderate levels of phosphate concentration in water. We do not have sufficient information to draw any
conclusion in this regard. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 76.C
Option (a) is not correct: The passage highlights the importance of affordable access to food for food
security. Food security issues in developing economies may arise due to multitude of factors, such as low
productivity, lack of purchasing power, etc. Moreover, even countries with high purchasing power might
struggle in ensuring food security because of other issues like wastage. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage highlights the disparity in food production among Indian states. But
it doesn't necessarily imply that the surplus states have achieved complete food security for their
populations. While the passage talks about production imbalances, it doesn't claim that surplus production
automatically translates to perfect food security within those regions. It is evident from the line: “Higher
production of food grains does not automatically solve the problem of food security.” Issues like pilferage,
low purchasing power may lead to food insecurity even in states with surplus production. Hence, option (b)
is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage emphasizes that food security requires physical and economic access to
food grains for the poor. It highlights that purchasing power is crucial, implying that production alone
doesn't solve the problem. The passage clarifies that “national foodgrain surpluses don't translate to
regional availability, and some states might still face deficits”. High production is seen as not sufficient to
guarantee food security for those who need it. The passage argues that food security is a complex issue
where people's ability to afford and obtain the food they need is just as important, if not more important,
than simply producing enough food overall. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The first line of the passage makes a reference to food basket. The author says that
food security, in India, basically means physical and economic access to foodgrains. There is no further
sub-classification of the constitutents of food grains. Therefore, we cannot say that foodgrain, in this case,
constitutes wheat and rice only. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 77.B
In the beginning, the speed of runner A is more. Towards the end, the velocity of both the runners is the
same.
All other statements are correct at one moment or the other.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q 78.A
Principal = Rs. 1,44,000; Rate = 6.25% = 1/16
Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100
Simple interest1 = 1,44,000 × (1/16) × 3 = Rs. 27,000
After three years, amount to be paid = 1,44,000 + 27000 = Rs. 1,71,000
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 Amount paid after 3 years = Rs. 44,000
Remaining amount after 3 years = 1,71,000 – 44,000 = Rs. 1,27,000
Now this amount will become the principal for the next four years.
Simple interest2 = 1,27,000 × (1/16) × 4 = Rs. 31,750
So, due amount after 4 years = Rs. 1,27,000 + 31,750 = Rs. 1,58,750
Hence, selling price of car = Rs. 1,58,750
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 79.A
Let the cost price (CP) of the product be Rs. 100.
So, marked price (MP) = 25% above the cost price = 100 + 25% of 100
= 100 + 25 = Rs. 125
Due to the slump in the market, cost of the products reduces by 10%.
New CP = 90% of CP = 90% of 100 = Rs. 90
Now, to boost his sales, the discount offered = 20%
SP = 80% of MP = 80% of 125 = Rs. 100
Profit = SP – New CP = 100 – 90 = Rs. 10
Profit% = (Profit/CP) × 100 = (10/90) × 100 = 100/9%
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q 80.C
The cost of three articles x, y and z is Rs. 75 and the price of y is Rs. 21.
x + z + y = 75
Or x + z + 21 = 75
Or x + z = 75 – 21
Or x + z = 54 …………(i)
Also, it is given that price of y is the least.
Statement-I:
The cost of x is not more than that of z.
So, x ≤ z
Statement-II:
The cost of z is not more than that of x.
z≤x
Using both the statements together, we can say that x = z.
Therefore, from equation (i) we have:
x = z = 27
Therefore, the price of the article x = Rs. 27
Thus, the question can be answered by using both the statements together.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

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