True or false?

1. The three types of stress applied to rocks are tension, compression, and extension,
each causing a different type of deformation. (true)

2. Garnet is commonly found as porphyroblasts in metamorphic rocks. (true)

3. Surface area is the main factor that dictates how quickly a rock will break apart due to
weathering. (false, hardness is the main one and surface area comes next)

4. Elastic deformation refers to rocks permanently bending under pressure, while plastic
deformation involves rocks returning to their original shape after stress is released.
(false, the reverse is correct)

5. Normal faults are caused by compression stress, reverse faults by tension stress, and
strike-slip faults by shear stress. (false, normal faults by tension and reverse by
compression)

6. The classification of folds is primarily determined by the arrangement of rock layers

relative to the axial plane, with examples including asymmetrical and symmetrical
folds. (true)

7. Schist forms in contact metamorphism settings with high temperatures but little or no
pressure. (false, in regional metamorphism with elevated P and T)

8. The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus of an earthquake is called the
apex. (false, epicenter)

9. Limestone caves form due to carbonation. (true)

10. Strike-slip faults involve vertical movement along the fault plane, and their
classification is based on the amount of vertical displacement. (false, lateral)

11. Plunging synclines and anticlines exhibit symmetrical mirror images across the hinge
axis in map view. (false, show horseshoes shape arrangement of rock layers)

12. Mechanical (physical) weathering involves the breakdown of rocks without changing
their composition. (true)

13. L waves cause the most violent shocks and destruction. (true)

14. Thrust faults are reverse faults that develop at high angles, often leading to significant
vertical displacement. (false, at low angles < 45o)

15. Basins result from pressure pushing up a dome in a single spot, while domes are formed
by downward pressure pushing the rock layers. (false, reverse is correct)

1
16. Hot spot volcanoes are typically found along tectonic plate boundaries. (false, far away
from plate boundaries)

17. The orientations of rock layers play a minor role in geological studies, mainly affecting
the aesthetic appearance of geological formations. (false)

18. The study of rock deformation and geological structures is primarily important for
academic research, with limited practical applications. (false, this study has numerous
industrial applications in mineral exploration and oil industry)

19. Convection currents in the Earth’s core create enormous pressure leading to
earthquakes. (false, convection currents in the Earth’s mantle cause plate motions.
Plate motions in turn cause pressure buildup and lead to the earthquakes)

20. The axial plane describes the imaginary plane that bisects a fold and along which the
fold drapes or hangs. (true)

21. Gneiss undergoes crystallization, which causes increasing the size and rearrangement
of its minerals into distinct layers or bands. (false, recrystallization not crystallization)

22. The heaviest mineral that tends to settle at the bottom of a magma chamber is quartz.
(false)

23. The part of the Earth's surface near the epicenter typically experiences the worst
damage during an earthquake. (true)

24. Shield volcanoes are typically associated with the extrusion of basaltic lava at mid-
ocean ridges. (true)

25. Lava, volcanic bombs, thick ash, and gas are ejected into the atmosphere during a
volcanic eruption. (true)

Choose the correct answer:

26. Which plate boundary is associated with compression stress?

a) Convergent
b) Divergent
c) Transform
d) Subduction

27. Which type of deformation occurs when rocks are permanently bent?
a) Elastic deformation
b) Plastic (ductile) deformation
c) Brittle deformation

2
28. Where are rocks more likely to undergo brittle deformation?
a) At great depths
b) At the Earht’s surface
c) At convergent plate boundaries
d) At divergent plate boundaries

29. Which type of fault is caused by tension stress?

a) Strike slip fault
b) Reverse fault
c) Normal fault
d) Thrust fault

30. How can you determine the type of strike slip fault by observation?
a) By measuring the depth of the fault
b) By looking at the dip of the fault plane
c) By analyzing the rocks on either side of the fault
d) By observing the relative lateral movement of features split by the fault

31. What term describes the imaginary plane that bisects a fold and along which the fold
drapes or hangs?
a) Axial plane
b) Hinge axis
c) Dip line
d) Fault plane

32. What type of fold has a U-shape in cross-section?

a) Anticline
b) Syncline
c) Monocline
d) Dome

33. How do you classify folds based on their map view?

a) By the orientation of the axial plane
b) By the direction of plunging
c) By the arrangement of rock layers relative to the hinge axis
d) By the symmetry of outcropped patterns across the hinge axis

34. What geological feature results from pressure pushing up in a single spot?
a) Syncline
b) Anticline
c) Basin
d) Dome

35. Why is it important to identify the direction of beds dipping or folding underground?
a) To predict future earthquake locations
b) To locate mineral resources
c) To determine historical climate patterns
d) To measure groundwater levels
3
36. What is the primary reason geologists study rocks that appear on the surface?
a) To understand past geological events
b) To gather information about underground structures and resources
c) To assess earthquake risks
d) To predict volcanic eruptions

37. How does the orientation of the axial plane affect fold classification?
a) It determines the fold's shape in cross-section.
b) It indicates whether the fold is plunging or non-plunging.
c) It helps identify the type of stress that caused the fold.
d) It influences the symmetry of outcropped patterns on the surface.

38. What type of fault is formed by compression stress with the hanging wall moving
upward relative to the foot wall?
a) Strike slip fault
b) Normal fault
c) Reverse fault
d) Thrust fault

39. How do plunging synclines and anticlines differ from unfolded beds in the map view?
a) They show horseshoe-shaped patterns.
b) They have concentric circles.
c) They exhibit symmetrical mirror images.
d) They have asymmetrical outcropped patterns.

40. What type of fault results from tension stress with the hanging wall moving
downward relative to the foot wall?
a) Reverse fault
b) Normal fault
c) Strike slip fault
d) Thrust fault

41. How can you classify strike slip faults by observing their motion?
a) By analyzing the rocks on either side of the fault
b) By measuring the depth of the fault
c) By determining the dip of the fault plane
d) By observing the lateral movement of features split by the fault

42. Why do geologists study the dips and outcropped patterns of rock layers on the
surface?
a) To gather information about underground structures and resources
b) To determine historical climate patterns
c) To understand past geological events
d) To predict future volcanic eruptions

43. Which type of river channel shape typically results in the fastest flow velocity?
a) U-shaped
4
 b) V-shaped
c) Rectangular-shaped
d) Circular-shaped

44. What process leads to the formation of an oxbow lake?

a) Delta formation
b) Intense erosion
c) Meander cutoff
d) Glacial deposition

45. What geological feature results from the slowing down of a river as it enters a larger
body of water?
a) Canyon
b) Estuary (inlet)
c) Alluvial fan
d) Floodplain

46. What process results in the widening of a river channel and the formation of point
bars?
a) Deposition
b) Erosion
c) Subduction
d) Compaction

47. What term describes the sorting of sediment from coarse to fine as rivers flow into a
larger body of water?
a) Stratification
b) Graded bedding
c) Turbidity
d) Discharge

48. What factor primarily determines the discharge of a river?

a) Velocity
b) Width
c) Depth
d) Sediment load

49. Which type of sedimentary sorting occurs when sediment is deposited gradually over
time?
a) Vertical sorting
b) Lateral sorting
c) Diagonal sorting
d) Circular sorting

50. What term describes the process of sediment being carried away by the force of
flowing water?
a) Abrasion
b) Corrosion
5
 c) Attrition
d) Erosion

51. What type of river channel typically exhibits the highest flow velocity?
a) Wide and shallow
b) Narrow and deep
c) Straight and uniform
d) Braided and complex

52. What characteristic of a river indicates its youthfulness?

a) Meandering pattern
b) Wide floodplain
c) Deep channel, straight pathway
d) Numerous oxbow lakes

53. Which factor primarily determines the shape of a river channel?

a) Temperature of the water
b) Velocity of the flow
c) Surrounding vegetation
d) Depth of the sediment

54. What is the primary factor that distinguishes metamorphic rocks from igneous rocks?
A) Mineral composition
B) Their formation processes and pressure-temperature conditions
C) Chemical composition
D) Water content

55. Which of the following environments is characterized by high pressures but low to
moderate temperatures?
A) Seduction zones
B) Volcanic centers
C) Burial metamorphism
D) Convergent plate boundaries

56. What physical change occurs in rocks under increased pressure during
metamorphism?
A) Decreased density
B) Increased fragmentation
C) Increased density

57. In which metamorphic setting do temperatures rise slower than pressures due to the
sinking of a cold oceanic plate?
A) Seduction zones
B) Collision zone
C) Divergent plate boundaries

58. What crucial geological phenomenon does the theory of plate tectonics describe?
A) Volcanic eruptions
6
 B) Earth's magnetic field
C) Movements of lithospheric plates
D) Continental drift patterns

59. -------------------is the type of rock that makes up the continental crust.
A) Basalt
B) Granite
C) Obsidian
D) Limestone

60. The density of the oceanic crust is -----------------------.

A) 2.7 g/cm3
B) 3 g/cm3
C) 2 g/cm3
D) 4.4 g/cm3

The average density of oceanic crust is 3.0 g/cm3 while continental crust has an average
density of 2.7 g/cm3

61. What process occurs in the asthenosphere, causing plate movement?

A) Erosion
B) Convection
C) Subduction
D) Compression

62. What type of boundary is characterized by plates drifting apart?

A) Transform boundary
B) Convergent boundary
C) Divergent boundary
D) Collision zones

63. The --------------plate boundaries are characterized by rejuvenated earthquakes but

not volcanoes.
A) Convergent
B) Divergent
C) Transform
D) Collision

64. --------------------- is a famous example of a transform boundary.

A) Pacific Fault
B) Mid-Atlantic Fault
C) San Andreas Fault
D) Himalayan Fault

65. What type of boundary involves plates colliding, with oceanic crust sinking beneath
continental crust?
A) Divergent boundary
B) Collision boundary
7
 C) Convergent boundary
D) Transform boundary

66. Which convergent boundary involves oceanic-to-oceanic collision, forming volcanic

islands?
A) Subduction zone
B) Collision zone
C) Island arc
D) Transform zone

67. What type of boundary involves plates sliding past each other?
A) Divergent boundary
B) Convergent boundary
C) Collision boundary
D) Transform boundary

68. Where do hotspot volcanoes typically occur?

A) At plate boundaries
B) In the middle of continents
C) In the middle of plates
D) At divergent boundaries

69. What is the evidence supporting plate divergence along mid-ocean ridges?
A) Seafloor spreading
B) Earthquakes
C) Subduction zones
D) Transform boundaries

70. What direction does the chain of extinct volcanoes in a hotspot indicate?
A) Plate movement
B) Plate divergence
C) Plate collision
D) Plate subduction

71. --------------- is the most common example of divergent boundaries.

A) San Andreas Fault
B) Himalayan Fault
C) Mid-Atlantic Ridge
D) Peru-Chile Trench

72. What geological features are associated with transform boundaries?

A) Earthquakes
B) Volcanoes
C) Active mountains
D) All of the above

73. What specific geological phenomenon occurs in a hotspot, leading to the formation
of volcanic islands?
8
 A) Seafloor spreading
B) Tectonic collisions
C) Mantle plume
D) Subduction zones

74. Along a divergent boundary on land, what geological feature is likely to form?
A) Deep ocean trench
B) Rift zone
C) Subduction zone
D) Transform fault

75. At a convergent boundary involving continental crust collision, what is the likely
result?
A) Formation of a mid-ocean ridge
B) Creation of volcanic islands
C) Development of deep ocean trenches
D) Uplift of mountain ranges

76. What characteristic distinguishes the rock of the mid-ocean ridge from the rock
farther away from the ridge?
A) Higher density
B) Younger age
C) Lower magnetism
D) Greater thickness

77. At transform boundaries, what primarily causes earthquakes?

A) Subduction
B) Convection currents
C) Plate lateral sliding
D) Volcanic eruptions

78. What is the primary factor determining which plate subducts in an oceanic-to-oceanic
collision?
A) Plate density
B) Plate thickness
C) Plate age
D) Plate magnetism

79. How do convection currents in the asthenosphere contribute to plate motion?

A) By causing earthquakes
B) By pulling plates apart
C) By melting the lithosphere
D) By creating transform boundaries

80. What evidence supports the theory of seafloor spreading?

A) Earthquakes along transform boundaries
B) Alternating bands of magnetism on the ocean floor
C) Formation of island arcs
9
 D) Uplift of mountain ranges

81. In a collision zone involving continental crust, what geological feature is most likely to
form?
A) Island arc
B) Deep ocean trench
C) Volcanic plateau
D) Folded mountain ranges

82. What are the three essential criteria for a substance to be classified as a mineral?
a) Organic composition, natural occurrence, and hardness
b) Inorganic composition, natural occurrence, and definite chemical composition
c) Organic composition, artificial occurrence, and definite atomic structure

83. Which characteristic of minerals is the least reliable for identification?

a) Color
b) Streak
c) Luster

84. What is the hardness of glass on the Mohs scale?

a) 5.5
b) 6
c) 7

85. Which type of luster is characterized by a shiny, reflective surface resembling metal?
a) Vitreous
b) Metallic
c) Dull

86. What property of minerals refers to the color of the mineral when powdered?
a) Streak
b) Cleavage
c) Hardness

87. What is the primary difference between extrusive and intrusive igneous rocks?
a) Size of the mineral crystals
b) Mineral composition
c) Color and luster

88. Which igneous rock is characterized by a glassy texture and rapid cooling?
a) Granite
b) Basalt
c) Obsidian

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89. What process forms sedimentary rocks from the compaction and cementation of
sediments?
a) Metamorphism
b) Erosion
c) Lithification

90. What type of clastic sedimentary rocks is primarily composed of ill-sorted fine- and
coarse-grained fragments?
a) Conglomerate
b) Sandstone
c) Shale

91. Which metamorphic rock is characterized by its banded and contorted appearance?
a) Slate
b) Marble
c) Gneiss
d) Migmatite

92. What mineral property refers to a mineral's tendency to break along flat surfaces?
a) Cleavage
b) Fracture
c) Hardness

93. Which metamorphic process occurs when rocks are subjected to high pressure and
temperature?
a) Contact metamorphism
b) Regional metamorphism
c) Hydrothermal metamorphism

94. What sedimentary rock forms from the accumulation of organic matter in swampy
environments?
a) Coal
b) Limestone
c) Sandstone

95. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of regional metamorphism?

a) Banding
b) High pressure
c) Near-surface exposure

96. What type of metamorphism occurs when rocks come into contact with magma?
a) Hydrothermal metamorphism
b) Cataclastic metamorphism
c) Contact metamorphism
11
97. ------------------ is the process of melting or partial melting of pre-existing solid rocks
within the Earth’s crust.
a) Deposition
b) Anatexis
c) Uplift

98. Which type of metamorphism primarily occurs along fault zones?

a) Contact metamorphism
b) Cataclastic metamorphism
c) Regional metamorphism

99. What mineral characteristic refers to the way light reflects off the surface of a
mineral?
a) Streak
b) Luster
c) Cleavage

100. Which of the following rocks would likely be formed by the metamorphism of
limestone?
a) Slate
b) Schist
c) Marble

101. What mineral property is tested using the scratch test with a piece of glass?
a) Luster
b) Hardness
c) Cleavage

102. What type of sedimentary rock is formed from the accumulation of organic matter
in stagnant water?
a) Conglomerate
b) Coquina
c) Breccia

103. What is the primary source of heat for contact metamorphism?

a) Earth's mantle
b) Radioactive decay
c) Nearby magma intrusion

104. What mineral characteristic describes a mineral's tendency to break along planes of
weakness?
a) Hardness
12
 b) Cleavage
c) Streak

105. Which of the following minerals is Not commonly found in granite?

a) Quartz
b) Calcite
c) Hematite
d) Feldspar

106. What type of igneous rock typically forms from the cooling of silica-poor lava flows?
a) Granite
b) Basalt
c) Obsidian

107. What type of metamorphism occurs when rocks are buried deep within the Earth's
crust?
a) Contact metamorphism
b) Burial metamorphism
c) Cataclastic metamorphism

108. What mineral characteristic refers to a mineral's ability to transmit light?

a) Luster
b) Transparency
c) Cleavage

109. Which of the following minerals exhibits a metallic luster?

a) Quartz
b) Pyrite
c) Calcite

110. What type of sedimentary rock forms from the accumulation of organic and non-
organic matters in swampy environments?
a) Sandstone
b) Coal
c) Shale

111. What is the primary difference between breccia and conglomerate?

a) Grain size
b) Composition
c) Roundness of particles

112. What mineral characteristic refers to a mineral's resistance to scratching?

a) Luster
13
 b) Cleavage
c) Hardness

113. What type of metamorphism occurs when rocks are subjected to high temperatures
and pressures associated with mountain-building processes?
a) Cataclastic metamorphism
b) Burial metamorphism
c) Regional (thermos-dynamic) metamorphism

114. What mineral property refers to a mineral's tendency to break into uneven,
irregular shapes?
a) Cleavage
b) Hardness
c) Fracture

115. Which of the following minerals has a perfect cleavage along one direction?
a) Quartz
b) Mica
c) Feldspar

116. What type of sedimentary rock is formed by the accumulation of sand-sized

particles that are well-rounded and sorted?
a) Conglomerate
b) Breccia
c) Sandstone

117. What mineral characteristic refers to a mineral's resistance to being scratched?

a) Cleavage
b) Fracture
c) Hardness

1. Which of the following is a non-foliated metamorphic rock?

a) Gneiss
b) Schist
c) Quartzite

118. What type of metamorphism occurs when rocks are subjected to intense heat and
actively-chemical fluids?
a) Contact metamorphism
b) Hydrothermal metamorphism
c) Regional metamorphism

14
119. Which metamorphic rock often exhibits foliation and is commonly used in roofing
tiles and flooring?
a) Gneiss
b) Schist
c) Slate
d) Marble

120. Hornfels is formed through:

a) Regional metamorphism
b) Hydrothermal metamorphism
c) Contact (thermal) metamorphism
d) Dynamic metamorphism

121. ----------is a metamorphic rock that lacks foliation and results from contact
metamorphism of shale.
a) Gneiss
b) Hornfels
c) Schist

122. Amphibolite is primarily composed of which mineral?

a) Quartz
b) Feldspar
c) Hornblende
d) Mica

123. Quartzite is a non-foliated rocks that forms from the metamorphism of:
a) Granite
b) Sandstone
c) Limestone
d) Basalt

124. Which metamorphic rock is known for its resistance to weathering?

a) Marble
b) Slate
c) Quartzite
d) Schist

125. Which of the following statements about minerals is incorrect?

a) Minerals are the building blocks of rocks.
b) Minerals combine to form rocks.
c) Minerals have specific characteristics.
d) All minerals form from the cooling of magma.

126. Which of the following rocks is classified as an intrusive igneous rock?

a) Basalt
15
 b) Obsidian
c) Gabbro
d) Pumice

127. What distinguishes intrusive igneous rocks from extrusive igneous rocks?
a) Presence of vesicles
b) Presence of fossils
c) Large crystals
d) Formation on the Earth’s surface

128. What is the difference between magma and lava?

b) Magma is molten rock beneath the Earth's surface, while lava is molten rock on
the Earth's surface.
c) Magma is cooled and solidified, while lava is still molten.
d) Magma forms intrusive rocks, while lava forms extrusive rocks.

129. Which of the following is NOT an example of an intrusive igneous rock?

a) Granite
b) Pegmatite
c) Basalt
d) Diorite

130. Which type of igneous rock forms on the Earth's surface?

a) Intrusive rocks
b) Extrusive (volcanic) rocks
c) Plutonic rocks

131. What feature of igneous rocks may indicate a rapid cooling process?
a) Large crystals
c) Glassy texture
d) Speckled appearance

132. Which of the following statements accurately describes the classification of igneous
rocks?
a) They are classified based on their mineral composition
b) They are classified based on their location of formation
c) They are classified based on their physical properties
d) They are classified based on their color

133. What characteristic of intrusive igneous rocks allows for the formation of large
crystals?
a) Viscosity
b) Slow cooling
c) Presence of air bubbles
d) Vesicular texture

134. What is the primary factor influencing crystal size in igneous rocks?
a) Color
16
 b) Density
c) Texture
d) Cooling rate

135. What mineral is commonly found in intrusive igneous rocks and gives them a
speckled appearance?
a) Biotite
b) Quartz
c) Feldspar
d) Obsidian

136. Which of the following rocks is classified as an extrusive igneous rock?

a) Granite
b) Pegmatite
c) Obsidian
d) Diorite

137. What is the main difference between intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks?
a) Color
b) Hardness
c) Crystal size (crystallinity)
d) Density

138. What term is used to describe the presence of trapped gas bubbles in igneous
rocks?
a) Vesicular texture
b) Speckled
c) Glassy
d) Crystalline

139. Which of the following rocks is NOT classified as an igneous rock?

a) Sandstone
b) Granite
c) Basalt
d) Obsidian

140. What leads to the formation of vesicular texture in igneous rocks?

a) Slow cooling
b) Diagenesis
c) Presence of gas bubbles
d) High pressure

141. Which type of igneous rocks is more likely to have a glassy appearance?
a) Intrusive rocks
c) Plutonic rocks
d) Volcanic rocks

142. What is the primary method of formation for clastic sedimentary rocks?
17
 a) Cooling and solidification of magma
b) Accumulation and cementation of accumulated sediments
c) Extreme heat and pressure
d) Recrystallization of minerals

143. How are sedimentary rocks primarily classified?

a) By their color
b) By their texture
c) By their method of formation
d) By their crystal size

144. What process leads to the formation of sedimentary rocks from loose sediments?
a) Erosion
b) Weathering
c) Deposition
d) Subduction

145. What type of rock is formed from the accumulation and compaction of organic
remains in a marine environment?
a) Sandstone
b) Shale
c) Biogenic (fossiliferous) limestone
d) Granite

146. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of sedimentary rocks?

a) Layering or bedding
b) Fossils
c) Glassy and vesicular textures
d) Clastic texture

147. How are metamorphic rocks primarily formed?

a) By the cooling and solidification of magma
b) By the accumulation of sediments
c) By the recrystallization of minerals due to elevated heat and pressure
d) By the deposition of organic remains

148. Which of the following processes is responsible for the transformation of existing
rocks into other rocks?
a) Crystallization
b) Sorting
c) Metamorphism
d) Deposition

149. What term describes the arrangement of mineral grains within a metamorphic
rock?
b) Foliation and banding
c) Clastic texture
d) Nonfoliated
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150. What type of metamorphism occurs due to high temperature surrounding a body of
magma?
a) Regional metamorphism
b) Contact (thermal) metamorphism
c) Dynamic metamorphism
d) Hydrothermal metamorphism

151. Which of the following is a non-foliated metamorphic rock and is mainly of silica?
a) Slate
b) Gneiss
c) Quartzite
d) Schist

152. How does the rock cycle connect igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks?
a) Through erosion and weathering
b) Through the transformation of one rock type into another
c) Through volcanic activity
d) Through the deposition of sediments

153. What process is responsible for the conversion of sedimentary rocks into other
sedimentary rocks?
a) Weathering, erosion, and deposition
b) Melting
c) Metamorphism

154. How do igneous rocks contribute to the rock cycle?

a) By forming from the cooling and solidification of magma or lava
b) By accumulating sediments over time
c) By undergoing recrystallization due to heat and pressure
d) By weathering and eroding into sedimentary rocks

155. What is the mineral composition of basalt?

a) Quartz and biotite
b) Biotite and clay minerals
c) Pyroxene±olivine and plagioclase feldspar

156. Unlike granite, gneiss undergoes ______________, which causes increasing the size
and rearrangement of its minerals into distinct layers or bands.
a) Crystallization
b) Slow cooling
c) Recrystallization
d) Weathering

157. Which mineral is the heaviest and tends to settle at the bottom of a magma
chamber?
a) Olivine
b) Pyroxene
19
 c) Plagioclase feldspar
d) Quartz

158. Which volcanic type is typically associated with the extrusion of basaltic lava at the
mid-ocean ridges?
a) Shield volcano
b) Stratovolcano
c) Caldera
d) Cinder cone

159. Which type of magma would be found predominantly at mid-ocean ridges?

a) Granitic
b) Rhyolitic
c) Andesitic
d) Basaltic

160. What mineral is responsible for the green sand beaches found in Hawaii?
a) Quartz
b) Olivine
c) Feldspar
d) Pyroxene

161. Which type of magma is typically associated with hot spots, like the one in Hawaii?
a) Felsic magma
b) Mafic magma
c) Ultramafic magma
d) Intermediate magma

162. How does the mantle composition change as a result of partial melting?
a) It becomes more mafic (as partial melting leads to silica extraction)
b) It becomes more felsic
c) It becomes more ultramafic
d) It remains unchanged

163. Which rock type is typically found at the top of a magma chamber, according to
Bowen's reaction series?
a) Peridotite
b) Diorite
c) Granite

164. What is the significance of the Bowen's reaction series in understanding igneous
rock formation?
a) It explains the process of metamorphism
b) It describes the formation of sedimentary rocks
c) It illustrates the crystallization sequence of minerals in the magma
d) It outlines the process of erosion

20
165. What is the primary factor determining the order of mineral crystallization in
Bowen's reaction series?
a) Density
b) Color
c) Viscosity
d) Temperature

166. Which type of magma is associated with explosive volcanic eruptions?

a) Mafic
b) Felsic (viscous)
c) Intermediate
d) Ultramafic

167. How do hot spots contribute to the formation of volcanic islands?

a) By causing tectonic uplift
b) By promoting erosion
c) By triggering subduction
d) By generating basaltic magma

168. What type of rock would be formed from the partial melting of basaltic oceanic
crust?
a) Granite
b) Andesite on surface, diorite in depth
c) Basalt
d) Gabbro

169. Which mineral has the lowest melting point in Bowen's reaction series?
a) Quartz
b) Olivine
c) Plagioclase feldspar
d) Pyroxene

170. What process is responsible for the formation of the Andes Mountains?
a) Subduction (and partial melting of the upper mantle wedge)
b) Hot spot volcanism
c) Rifting
d) Glacial erosion

171. What is the third mineral to form in the discontinuous series of Bowen’s Reaction
Series?
a) Pyroxene
b) Amphibole
c) Olivine
d) Biotite

172. The discontinuous series in Bowen's reaction series refers to the minerals that
crystallize from cooling magma at decreasing temperatures, with each mineral
21
 crystallizing at a specific temperature range. The sequence starts with ---------- and ends
with --------------.
a) Anorthite, quartz
b) Biotite, pyroxene
c) Olivine, quartz
d) Amphibole, feldspar

173. What determines the order of crystallization of calcium-rich and sodium-rich

plagioclase in the continuous series?
a) Presence of iron
b) Availability of magnesium
c) Amount of sodium available in magma
d) Temperature fluctuations

174. In the olivine structure, tetrahedra are ------------------and linked by cations (Fe, Mg).
a) Single chained
b) Double chained
c) Isolated
d) Sheeted

175. What rock type is associated with the ultramafic column in Bowen’s Reaction
Series?
a) Granite
b) Diorite
c) Peridotite
d) Gabbro

176. Which mineral is NOT a component of granite?

a) Olivine
b) Quartz
c) Biotite
d) Potassium-feldspar

177. Which element increases as you move towards the felsic end of Bowen’s Reaction
Series?
a) Iron
b) Magnesium
c) Calcium
d) Sodium

178. What is the defining characteristic of the discontinuous series of Bowen’s Reaction
Series?
a) Continuous transformation of minerals
b) Formation of single chains
c) Sequential but discrete formation of ferromagnesian mineral groups
d) Predominance of sodium-rich minerals

179. Which mineral marks the end of the continuous series in Bowen’s Reaction Series?
22
 a) Muscovite
b) Potassium-feldspar
c) Quartz
d) Na-plagioclase (albite)

180. What does erosion refer to?

A) The removal and transportation of weathering products
B) The breaking down and changing of rocks due to exposure to the environment
C) The dropping off of sediments
D) The formation of caves

181. What is weathering of rocks?

A) The transportation of sediments
B) Breaking down and changing of rocks due to exposure to the
atmosphere/hydrosphere conditions
C) The dropping off of sediments
D) The formation of caves

182. Frost action is also known as ------------------

A) Wind abrasion
B) Root wedging
C) Ice wedging
D) Exfoliation

183. Which type of weathering involves a reaction with substances like wet air or water?
A) Physical weathering
B) Biological weathering
C) Chemical weathering

184. What causes the formation of limestone caves?

A) Frost action
B) Wind abrasion
C) Carbonation
D) Root wedging

185. What is the impact of climate on weathering?

A) Climate has no impact on weathering
B) Hot and dry climates promote chemical weathering
C) Hot and wet climates promote chemical weathering
D) Cold temperatures promote chemical weathering

186. Which factor affects weathering by dictating how resistant the rock is to being
weathered?
A) Climate
B) Rock hardness and exposed surface area
C) Chemical composition of the rock

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187. Which type of weathering involves the breakdown of rocks without changing their
composition?
A) Chemical weathering
B) Dissolution
C) Mechanical (physical) weathering

188. In which climate condition is frost action most likely to occur?

A) Hot and dry
B) Cold and dry
C) Hot and wet
D) Cold and wet

189. What is the main factor that dictates how quickly a rock will break apart due to
weathering?
A) Climate
B) Hardness
C) Surface area
D) Color

190. Which type of chemical weathering involves the reaction between iron and oxygen?
A) Oxidation
B) Frost action
C) Root wedging
D) Carbonation

191. What is the impact of wind abrasion on rock formations?

A) It causes them to melt
B) It grinds them down slowly over time
C) It hardens them
D) It creates sinkholes

192. What causes the formation of sinkholes?

A) Frost action
B) Oxidation
C) Root wedging
D) Carbonation

193. What type of climate promotes chemical weathering?

A) Hot and dry
B) Cold and dry
C) Hot and wet (tropical)
D) Cold and wet

194. How does surface area affect the rate of weathering?

A) It has no effect
B) Larger surface areas weather faster
C) Smaller surface areas weather faster
D) Surface area only affects chemical weathering
24
195. What is the primary cause of exfoliation in weathering?
A) Temperature changes
B) Chemical reactions
C) Wind abrasion
D) Biological activity

196. Which type of weathering involves plant breaking apart rocks?

A) Frost action
B) Oxidation
C) Root wedging
D) Carbonation

197. What geological process involves the alteration of rocks due to environmental
exposure?
a) Weathering
b) Erosion
c) Deposition
d) Sedimentation

198. What is the name for the curves or bends seen in rivers where erosion and
deposition occur?
a) Tributaries
b) Deltas
c) Meanders
d) Watersheds

199. What determines the velocity of a river?

a) Width of the river
b) Depth of the river
c) Gradient of the riverbed
d) Temperature of the water

200. Which characteristic is typical of a young river?

a) Shallow wide channels
b) Gradual slope
c) Less curves or meanders
d) Slow flow velocity

201. What type of sorting occurs when sediment is deposited gradually by a river?
a) Vertical sorting
b) Horizontal sorting
c) Lateral sorting
d) Diagonal sorting

202. What geological feature may form when a river cuts off a meander and forms a
curved lake?
a) Oxbow lake
25
 b) Tributary
c) Delta
d) Watershed

203. What process describes the wearing down of rocks as they are constantly bounced
against each other in a river?
a) Weathering
b) Erosion
c) Abrasion
d) Deposition

204. What term is used to describe the accumulation of sediment at the mouth of a river
where it enters a larger body of water?
a) Tributary
b) Estuary
c) Delta
d) Rapids

205. How can the age of a river be determined?

a) By analyzing the chemical composition of the sediment
b) By measuring the width and depth of the river
c) By examining the presence of meanders and sediment sorting
d) By studying the temperature fluctuations of the water

206. What type of metamorphism occurs around the walls of a magma chamber?
A) Hydrothermal metamorphism
B) Regional metamorphism
C) Contact metamorphism
D) Dynamic metamorphism

207. What is the primary source of water in burial metamorphism?

A) Ocean water
B) Surface fluids
C) Groundwater
D) Water trapped in rocks

208. Which mineral is stable under all pressures and temperatures in the metamorphic
realm?
A) Garnet
B) Quartz
C) Kyanite
D) Andalusite

209. What type of changes occur in rocks around volcanic centers facilitated by hot
chemically active fluids?
A) Physical changes only
B) Chemical changes only
26
 C) Both physical and chemical changes
D) No changes occur

210. Under increased temperatures during metamorphism, what happens to the size of
crystals?
A) They decrease
B) They remain the same size
C) They disappear
D) They grow larger

211. What is the primary difference between contact metamorphism and regional
metamorphism?
a) Contact metamorphism occurs in volcanic regions only
b) Contact metamorphism involves existing rocks coming into contact with heat,
while regional metamorphism is caused primarily by increasing pressure and
temperature by burial and tectonism
c) Regional metamorphism involves chemical processes, while contact
metamorphism involves physical changes

212. -------------------are minerals with different crystalline structures but the same
chemical formulas.
A) Isotopes
B) Polymorphs
C) Metamorphs
D) Monomorphs

213. Which of the following minerals indicates higher pressures and temperatures in a
metamorphic rock?
A) Quartz
B) Garnet
C) Andalusite
D) Sillimanite

214. In the -----------------, pressure gets quite high due to the collision of two plates.
A) Subduction zones
B) Volcanic centers
C) Divergent plate boundaries
D) Burial metamorphism

215. --------------is the primary factor that differentiates sedimentary rocks from
metamorphic rocks.
A) Color
B) grain size
C) Water content
D) Chemical composition

216. Metamorphic rocks are formed primarily due to-------------------

27
 A) Chemical weathering
B) Biological activity
C) Increasing temperature and/or pressure
D) Surface erosion

217. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to the formation of

metamorphic rocks?
A) Chemical reactions with atmospheric gases
B) Increases in temperature
C) Increases in pressure
D) Interaction with chemically active fluids

218. What is the primary indicator of metamorphic intensity or grade in marble and
quartzite?
A) Composition of the original parent rock
B) Crystal size
C) Presence of foliation
D) Water content during metamorphism

219. Which of the following textures is characterized by alignment of crystals in

metamorphic rocks?
A) Porphyritic texture
B) Foliation
C) Granular texture
D) Glassy texture

220. What type of metamorphism occurs when a rock is subjected to increasing

pressure?
A) Contact metamorphism
B) Hydrothermal metamorphism
C) Regional metamorphism
D) Dynamic (cataclastic) metamorphism

221. What is the primary difference between slate and shale in hand specimen?
A) Slate has a higher water content
B) Slate is denser and much more compacted
C) Slate forms from chemical weathering
D) Slate contains larger mineral grains

222. Which high-pressure mineral is commonly found as porphyroblasts in metamorphic

rocks?
A) Quartz
B) Garnet
C) Calcite
D) Feldspar

223. What type of metamorphic rock forms in contact metamorphism settings with high
temperatures but little or no pressure?
28
 A) Schist
B) gneiss
C) Hornfels
D) Slate

224. What are the primary differences between blueschist and eclogite?
A) Mineral composition and texture
B) Texture
C) Color
D) Parent rocks

225. What is the main characteristic of phyllite texture in metamorphic rocks?

A) Large crystal size
B) Scaly appearance
C) Satiny luster
D) Contorted, folded bands

226. Which of the following metamorphic rocks typically forms in a very high-pressure
environment?
A) Quartzite
B) Marble
C) Slate
D) Blueschist

227. What is the primary focus of the study of surface igneous rocks?
a) Describing the geological features of Earth's crust
b) Explaining the formation and types of volcanoes
c) Discussing the impact of volcanic eruptions on human civilization
d) Analyzing the composition of volcanic rocks

228. How many active volcanoes are estimated to exist on Earth currently?
a) Over 500
b) Over 1000
c) Over 600
d) Over 2000

229. What term is used to describe the Earth's outermost layer, composed of the crust
and upper mantle?
a) Tectonic plates
b) Volcanic vent
c) Magma chamber
d) Lithosphere

230. Which type of tectonic plate margins is associated with the formation of composite
volcanoes?
a) Destructive or convergent
b) Constructive or divergent
c) Transform or conservative
29
 d) Subduction or sliding

231. What term describes the alignment of tectonic plates where most volcanoes are
found?
a) Ring of Fire (marking the Pacific plate)
b) Circle of Magma
c) Volcanic Belt
d) Tectonic Ring

232. Where are hot spot volcanoes typically found?

a) Along tectonic plate boundaries
b) Underneath oceanic trenches
c) Away from tectonic plate boundaries
d) In the Earth's inner core

233. Which type of volcano is characterized by a conical shape and explosive eruptions?
a) Shield volcano
b) Cinder cone volcano
c) Stratovolcano (composite volcano)
d) Caldera volcano

234. What is the main difference between composite volcanoes and shield volcanoes?
a) Composite volcanoes erupt less violently
b) Shield volcanoes have gentle sloping sides
c) Composite volcanoes are found at hot spots
d) Shield volcanoes have a distinct crater

235. What material is ejected into the atmosphere during a volcanic eruption?
a) Lava, volcanic bombs, thick ash, and gas
b) Rocks, minerals, and water vapor
c) Magma and steam
d) Sediment and dust particles

236. What do volcanoes indicate about the Earth's surface?

a) Stability and rigidity
b) Static geological processes
c) Dynamic and powerful forces
d) Inactivity and dormancy

237. How does the Bowen's reaction series help explain the formation of continents?
a) By demonstrating the process of subduction
b) By illustrating the movement of tectonic plates
c) By showing how partial melting of basaltic magma leads to felsic magma and
continental growth
d) By outlining the distribution of minerals in igneous rocks

238. What are the three categories into which rocks are classified based on their method
of formation?
30
 a) Igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
b) Basaltic, granitic, and metamorphic
c) Intrusive, extrusive, and metamorphic
d) Crystalline, amorphous, and metamorphic

239. ----------- occurs periodically over time where the Earth's magnetic poles switch
positions.
a) Continental drift
b) Oceanic trench formation
c) Seafloor spreading
d) Magnetic reversal

240. ----------- in the Atlantic Ocean mimics the shape of the continents and raised
suspicions among scientists about the movement of continents.
a) Mid-ocean ridges
b) Oceanic trenches
c) Fracture zones
d) Underwater volcanoes

241. What type of igneous rock forms inside the Earth from magma and has large
crystals?
a) Extrusive igneous rock
b) Metamorphic igneous rock
c) Plutonic igneous rock
d) Volcanic igneous rock

242. What is the typical progression of metamorphism from shale to gneiss?

a) Shale → slate → phyllite → schist → gneiss
b) Shale → phyllite → slate → schist → gneiss
c) Shale → slate → schist → phyllite → gneiss
d) Shale → schist → slate → phyllite → gneiss

243. What are the two primary factors that drive metamorphism?
a) Heat and erosion
b) Pressure and erosion
c) Heat and pressure
d) Heat and weathering

244. What are index minerals in metamorphic rocks?

a) Minerals that are found in large quantities
b) Minerals that indicate the presence of oil or gas
c) Minerals that are stable under a wide range of pressures and temperatures
d) Minerals that indicate the range of pressures and temperatures the rock
experienced (commonly reflecting a narrow pressure-temperature ranges)

245. How much energy does each unit on the Richter scale represent?
a) 15 times
b) 30 times
31
 c) 45 times
d) 60 times

246. What are the two types of seismic waves that spread in all directions from the
focus?
a) P and T waves
b) S and L waves
c) P and S waves
d) L and T waves

247. What is the primary natural cause of earthquakes?

a) Meteorite impacts
b) Convection currents in the Earth's mantle
c) Ocean currents
d) Solar flares

248. Where do earthquakes mostly occur?

a) Inland deserts
b) Mountain ranges
c) Along the edges of tectonic plates
d) Polar regions

249. What creates enormous pressure leading to earthquakes?

a) Convection currents in the Earth’s core
b) Tectonic plates rubbing against each other
c) Volcanic eruptions
d) Seismic waves

250. Where is the focus of an earthquake located?

a) Within the Earth's lithosphere
b) In the Earth's core
c) On the surface of the Earth directly above the focus
d) In the Earth's mantle

251. How is the strength of an earthquake measured?

a) Using a thermometer
b) With a barometer
c) Using a seismograph and the Richter scale
d) By observing cloud patterns

252. What type of earthquakes occurs when underground caverns collapse?

a) Tectonic earthquake
b) Volcanic earthquake
c) Collapse earthquake
d) Mining earthquake

253. How often do earthquakes occur worldwide?

a) Once a year
32
 b) Several thousand times a day
c) Every decade
d) Once a month

254. At what Richter scale level can buildings start to damage?

a) Level 1
b) Level 3
c) Level 5
d) Level 7

255. Which type of earthquake occurs during volcanic eruptions?

a) Tectonic earthquake
b) Collapse earthquake
c) Mining earthquake
d) Volcanic earthquake

256. How are some earthquakes caused by humans?

a) Playing loud music
b) Construction of buildings
c) Mining and extraction of oil
d) Fishing in the ocean

33