07/02/2024 Code-C_Phase-2

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations, Waves
CC-674
Chemistry: Organic Chemistry: Some BasicCC-674 CC-674
Principles & Techniques, Hydrocarbons CC-674
Botany: Respiration in Plants, Plant Growth and Development
Zoology: Animal Kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals– Animal Morphology (Cockroach, Frog & Earthworm)

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. Two moles of monoatomic and four moles of 2. The displacement equation of a travelling
diatomic gas are mixed together in a closed wave pulse, moving along x axis is given by
container. The molar heat at constant y =
12
, where x and y are in cm.
volume of mixture (Cv) is
2
(x –10x+31)

The maximum displacement of particle will

(1) 6R be
(2) 7R (1) 4 cm
6

(3) 13R
CC-674 CC-674 (2) CC-674
6 cm CC-674
6
(3) 1 cm
(4) 6R

13 (4) 2 cm

3. The fastest mode of heat transfer is

(1) Conduction
(2) Radiation
(3) Convection
(4) All of these are equally fast

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

4. A body kept in a room and it cools from 80°C 10. A thermodynamic system undergoes from
to 70°C in T1 minute, from 70°C to 60°C in state 1 to 2 for which Q12 = 10 J and W12 = –
T2 minute and from 60°C to 50°C in T3 5 J. The system is further returned to its
minutes, then initial state 1 by a different path for which
(1) T1 < T2 < T3 Q21 = – 3 J. The total change in internal
energy for the cycle is
(2) T1 = T2 = T 3
(1) Zero
(3) T1 > T2 > T3
(2) 15 J
(4) T1 < T2 > T3 (3) –8 J
(4) 5 J
5. At what temperature, the readings of
centigrade scale and Fahrenheit scale are in 11. The product of pressure and volume of a gas
ratio 2 : 3? has the unit of
(1) −160
(1) Momentum
( )°C
3

(2) CC-674
−160
CC-674 (2) CC-674
Force CC-674
(
3
) °F (3) Power
(3) −320
(4) Work
(
3
)° C

(4) −160 12. For an adiabatic process which among the

(
5
) °F
CP
following is correct? (γ =
CV
)

6. 20 g of ice at –20ºC dropped in a closed (1) P

γ−1
V
γ
= constant
container having 40 g of water at 50ºC. The (2) 1

temperature of the mixture will be (container T

γ−1
V = constant
has negligible heat capacity) (3) TV
γ
= constant
(1) 3.3ºC (4) T
γ−1
V = constant
(2) 0ºC
(3) 10ºC
13. The P-V diagram of 2 g of helium gas for a
(4) 5ºC certain process A → B is as shown in figure.
Heat energy absorbed by the gas during the
7. If reflectance and transmittance of a body process is
are 0.4 and 0.3, then its absorptance will be
(1) 0.3
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.25
(4) 1

8. Thermal capacity of a body is 40 cal/°C. Its

water equivalent is
(1) 20 g
(2) 40 g
(1) 5 P0 V0
(3) 80 g
(2) 3 P0 V0
(4) 60 g 2

(3) 7
P0 V0
2
9. Relation between α, β and γ is
(Where CC-674 CC-674 (4) CC-674 CC-674
13
α is coefficient of linear expansion, P0 V0
2
β is coefficient of superficial expansion,
γ is coefficient of volume expansion in
isotropic solid)
(1) α = β = γ
(2) α = 2β = 2γ
(3) α = 2β = 3γ
(4) α = β/2 = γ/3

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

14. A and B are two adiabatic curves for two 19. If Cp for a diatomic gas is
7
R then Cv for
gases. Then curve A and B corresponds to 2

the gas will be

(1) 2 R
3

(2) 5
R
2

(3) 2R
(4) 3
R
2

20. If vavg is average speed and vrms is root

mean square speed of molecules of ideal
(1) Ar and He respectively gas at temperature T K, then the ratio of
(2) O2 and H2 respectively vavg /vrms is
−−
(3) He and H2 respectively (1) 8

(4) H2 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

√
3π
and He respectively −−
(2) 3π
√
2

15. A polyatomic gas with six degrees of −

−
(3) 4
freedom does 75 J of work. When it is √
π
expanded at constant pressure, the heat −−
given to gas is (4) 2
√
3π
(1) 100 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 300 J 21. For a particle performing SHM, differential
equation of motion is given as
(4) 150 J d
2
x

2
+ 4x = 0 . The frequency of oscillation
dt

16. The specific heat of a metal at low is

temperature varies according to s = aT3 (1) π Hz
where a is a constant and T is the absolute (2) 1
Hz
π
temperature. The heat energy needed to
raise the temperature of unit mass of the (3) 2π Hz
metal from T1 = 1 K to T2 = 2 K is (4) 2 Hz
(1) 3a
(2) 15a 22. A 2 kg block is attached to two identical
4 springs of spring constant 10 N/m as shown
(3) 2a
below. The angular frequency of system for
3
small oscillations is
(4) 12a

17. The mean free path of molecules of a gas

(diameter d) is inversely proportional to
(1) 1 −−
d
2
(1) √10 rad/s
(2) d (2) –
√5 rad/s
(3) 1 –
d (3) 2√2 rad/s
(4) d
2
(4) 2 rad/s
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
18. An ideal monatomic gas follows a law, P ∝ 23. When a wave travels in a medium, the
T2 in addition to ideal gas law. Then molar particle displacement is given by
heat capacity for the process is y = p sin 2π(qt − rx), where p, q and r are

(1) R constants. The maximum particle velocity

(2) R will be twice the wave velocity, if
2 (1) p >qr
(3) 3R
(2) p = qr
2

(4) 2R (3) r = 1
πp

(4) r > pπ

3
TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

24. A simple harmonic motion has an amplitude 29. A simple harmonic progressive wave
A and time period T. The time required by it travelling in negative x-direction having
to travel x = A to x =
A
is amplitude 2, wavelength 4 π and frequency
2 1
is represented by
(1) T 2π

6
(1) y = 2 sin(
x
− t)
(2) T 2

4 (2) y = 2 sin(2x +
t
)
2
(3) T

3 (3) y = 2 sin(2x −
t
)
2
(4) T

2 (4) y = 2 sin(
x
+ t)
2

25. Figure shows v – x graph of a particle

executing SHM. The speed of the particle at 30. The transverse wave produced in a
x = 3 m will be stretched string of linear density 4 × 10–3
kg/m is represented by equation y =
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
2sin(1.25x CC-674
+ 50t), where ‘x’ is in metre and ‘t’
is in second. The tension in the string (in
newton) is
(1) 4.8
(2) 0.24
(3) 6.4
(4) 0.36

31. There are three sources of sound of equal

intensity with frequencies 400, 401, 402
vibrations/s. The number of beats heard per
second is
(1) 15 ms–1 (1) Zero
(2) 16 ms–1 (2) 1
(3) 2
(3) 18 ms–1
(4) 3
(4) 15√–
2 ms
–1

32. The phase difference between the particles

26. For one mole of an ideal gas, the internal A and B for a wave located as shown in
energy is given by U = 3 + 1.5PV then gas is figure is
(1) Monoatomic
(2) Diatomic
(3) Polyatomic
(4) Gas mixture of monoatomic and
diatomic

(1) 3π

27. Fundamental frequency corresponding to a 4

closed organ pipe is 200 Hz. The first (2) 7π

overtone has a frequencies x Hz lower than 4

third overtone, then value of x is (3) 3π

(1) 600 2

(4) 5π
(2) 400 4

(3) 200CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

(4) 800

28. Three consecutive resonant frequencies of

stretched string fixed at both ends are 60 Hz,
90 Hz and 120 Hz, then
(1) The fundamental frequency is 30 Hz
(2) The given frequencies are 1st, 3rd and
5th harmonic
(3) The given frequencies are 1st, 2nd and
3rd overtone
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

33. ABC is a semicircle. Work done in process 35. V

The correct graph between T and
1
for an
ABC is V

ideal gas at constant pressure is

(1)

(2)

(1) Zero
π
(2) P0 V0

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

4
π
(3) P0 V0
2
(3)
(4) P0 V0

34. A wave is represented by y = A sin(ωt – kx)

(where t is in seconds and x, y are in meter).
The wavelength of wave is
π
(1) m
k
(4)
(2) 2π
m
k

(3) kπ m
(4) 2πk m

SECTION-B

36. An air column in a pipe, which is closed at 37. If length, tension, density and radius of cross
one end is in resonance with a vibrating section of a stretched string A are four times
tunning fork of frequency 264 Hz in its of that of stretched string B, then ratio of
fundamental mode of vibration. If v = 330 fundamental frequency of A and B is
m/s, the length of the column (in cm) is (1) 1 : 2
CC-674
(1) 31.25 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) 1 : 16
(2) 62.50 (3) 8 : 1
(3) 90.75 (4) 1 : 4
(4) 125

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

38. A uniform rod of length l is pivoted at 43. Ratio of mean free path of the molecules of
l
from one end in vertical plane made to two gases, if the ratio of their number density
3
is 3 : 4 and the ratio of molecular diameters
undergo small oscillation. The frequency of is 2 : 5, will be
oscillation will be?
−− (1) 25
(1) 1 2g
3
√
2π 3l
(2) 4

−− 3
(2) 1 3g
√
2π 2l
(3) 4

25
−
−
(3) 1 g
(4) 3
√
2π l 16

−−
(4) 1 5g
√
2π 7l 44. The coefficient of linear expansion of two
metal rods A and B are α1 and α2
respectively. Length of rod A is ℓ 1 and of rod
39. A particle is executing SHM given by
CC-674
equation y = 4 sin(3t +
π
) , where CC-674
y is in B isCC-674 CC-674
ℓ 2 . If the difference in their length
4
remains same at all temperatures, then
meter and t is in second. The time when
which of the following relation holds good?
particle passes through y = +2 m for the first
time is (1) ℓ = α
1 2

ℓ2 α1

(1) 7π s
36 (2) α1
ℓ2
= α2
ℓ1

(2) π
s
ℓ1 ℓ2

α1 α2
6
(3) =
(3) π
s
ℓ1 ℓ2

36 α1 α2
(4) ℓ2 = ℓ1
(4) 7π
s
α2 α1

45. When a system is taken from state A to C

40. The Kinetic Energy and Potential Energy of along the path ABC it absorbs 50 cal of heat
a particle executing SHM with amplitude A and work done is 20 cal. If it is taken from
will be equal when its displacement from state C to A along the path CDA, It absorbs
mean position is 36 cal of heat, then work done along CDA is
(1) A/2
(2) A

√2

(3) √3A

(4) A

(1) 50 cal
41. A gas of diatomic molecules is expanded
adiabatically. How many times has the gas (2) 6 cal
to be expanded to reduce the root mean (3) 66 cal
square velocity of molecules to two third of (4) 16 cal
the initial value
(1) 2.6
46. If absolute temperature of sun increases by
(2) 5.2
0.5% (keeping other parameters constant),
(3) 1.5 the value of solar constant changes by
(4) 7.6 (1) 0.5%
(2) 1%
42. NumberCC-674
of degrees of freedom of anCC-674
ideal (3) CC-674
1.5% CC-674
monoatomic gas molecule is (4) 2%
(1) 3
(2) 4
47. The density of water is maximum at
(3) 5 (1) 4°F
(4) 6 (2) 32°F
(3) 39.2°F
(4) 4K

6
TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

48. The mean transnational kinetic energy of an 50. Average velocity of particle executing SHM
ideal diatomic gas molecule at a with time period T and amplitude A when it
temperature T is moves from its extreme position to half
(1) 3 KT amplitude directly is
2
(1) 2 A
(2) 5
KT T
2

(3) KT (2) 3A

T
(4) 3
KT
4 (3) 2 A

3 T

(4) 6A
49. The temperature of an ideal gas consisting
T
of rigid diatomic molecule is T. The angular
root mean square velocity of rotating
molecule is (If moment of inertia about COM
is I)
(1)
−
CC-674
−−
kT CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
√
I

−−−
(2) 2kT
√
I

−−
(3) kI
√
T

−−−
(4) 2kI
√
T

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. The relative stability of following structures is 52. The shape of methane, ethylene and
in the order acetylene molecules respectively are
(1) Tetrahedral, pyramidal and planar
(2) Tetrahedral, linear and planar
(3) Tetrahedral, planar and linear
(4) Pyramidal, planar and linear

53. Among the following, the least stable free

radical is
(1) ∙

CH2 = CH – CH2
(2) ∙

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

( CH ) − C
3 3
CC-674
(3) ∙

CH2 = CH − CH2

(4) ∙

CH2 = CH − CH = CH

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii)

(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
(3) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii)

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

54. Order of stability of carbocations is 56. The common technique used to separate
I. liquids chloroform and aniline is
(1) Sublimation
(2) Steam distillation
(3) Distillation
(4) Differential extraction
II.
57. While testing for halogens, nitric acid is
added to Lassaigne’s extract to decompose
(1) Sodium fluoride and sodium sulphide
III. (2) Sodium cyanide and sodium sulphate
(3) Sodium chloride and sodium sulphate
(4) Sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

58. CH3 CH2 CH2 OCH3 and CH3 CH2 OCH2 CH3
IV. are
(1) Metamers
(2) Tautomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Functional isomers
V.
59. 0.32 g of sulphur containing organic
compound gave 0.64g of barium sulphate in
sulphur estimation. The percentage of
sulphur in the compound is [Molar mass of
BaSO4 = 233 g/mol]
(1) V < IV < I < III < II (1) 42.2%
(2) V < I < II < IV < III (2) 27.5%
(3) I < IV < V < II < III (3) 28.4%
(4) II < I < V < IV < III (4) 32.5%

55. Which among the given molecules can 60. Compound having most acidic hydrogen is
exhibit tautomerism? (1)
(1)

(2)

(3)
(2)
(4)

61. The number of cyclic isomers possible for

(3)
CC-674 CC-674 C4 HCC-674
6 is CC-674
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) (4) 3

62. Which among the following is a temporary

effect?
(1) Inductive effect
(2) Electromeric effect
(3) Resonance
(4) Hyperconjugation

8
TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

63. Number of 3° hydrogen atoms present in 68. The most stable carbanion among the
neopentane is following is
(1) Zero (1)
(2) 12
(3) 6 (2)
(4) 3

(3)
64. Conformations of ethane are
(1) 2
(4)
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) Infinite
69. The rate of elimination reaction of alkyl
bromide with alcoholic KOH is observed to
65. CC-674
Consider the reaction, CC-674 CC-674
follow which order? CC-674
(1)

These products are (2)

(1) Propan-2-one, methanoic acid
(2) Propanoic acid, Methanal (3)
(3) Propan-2-one, Methanal
(4) Propanoic acid, Methanoic acid (4)

66. Which of the following is a heterocyclic

aromatic compound? 70.
(1)

(2)
Product B is
(3) (1)

(4)

(2)

67. The pair of hybridized orbitals involved in

the formation of C2 – C3 bond in CH2 = CH –
C ≡ CH is (3)
(1) sp3 – sp3
(2) sp2 – sp2
(3) sp2CC-674
– sp CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(4) sp – sp

(4)

9
TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

71. 75. Appearance of blood red colour in

Lassaigne’s test shows the presence of
(1) Only nitrogen
(2) Only sulphur
Major product formed in above reaction is
(3) Both nitrogen and sulphur
(1)
(4) Halogen

76.

(2)

A and B are
(1) Identical
CC-674 CC-674 (2) CC-674
Chain isomers CC-674
(3) (3) Geometric isomers
(4) Position isomers

77. Major product formed in the following

reaction is
HCl
(4) CH3 − CH = C H2 −−−−−−−→
(C6 H5 CO) O2
2

(1)

(2)

(3)
72. HgSO4 /H2 SO4
(X) + H2 O −−−−−−→ Y (an aldehyde).
Δ

In the above reaction (X) could be (4)

(1) CH3 – C ≡ C – H
(2) H – C ≡ C – H
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 78. For the reaction
(4) Ph – C ≡ CH

The product(s) formed is/are

73. Propyne on passing through red hot Fe tube
(1) CH3 COCH3
gives
(1) Toluene (2) CH3 COOH
(2) Xylene (3) CH3 CHO
(3) Mesitylene (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Benzene
79. Compound which will give positive test with
74. A hydrocarbon A (C5 H8 ) on reductive ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is
ozonolysis gives methanal and 2- (1) CH3 – CH = CH2
CC-674 CC-674
oxopropanal. The correct IUPAC name of A
CC-674 CC-674
(2) CH3 – C ≡ CH
is
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
(1) Penta-1,3-diene
(2) 2-Methylbuta-1,2-diene (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) 2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene
(4) 4-Methylbut-2-yne 80. The rate of dehydrohalogenation is
maximum in
(1) Tert alkyl iodide
(2) Tert alkyl chloride
(3) Primary alkyl iodide
(4) Primary alkyl chloride

10
TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

81. The compound which will react fastest with 83. A:

AgNO3 solution is
(1)
is an aromatic compound.
R : Out of 8 πelectrons, it has 6 πelectrons in
one ring following Huckel rule.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
statements CC-674
(4)
84. During estimation of nitrogen present in an
organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the
ammonia evolved from 1 g of the compound
is neutralised by 10 mL of 0.5 M H2 SO4
solution. The percentage of nitrogen in the
82. Maximum boiling point among the following
compound is
is of
(1) 28%
(1) n-butane
(2) 14%
(2) n-pentane
(3) 56%
(3) Isopentane
(4) 42%
(4) Neopentane

85. % enol content is maximum for

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

86. A : Pyrrole is a heterocyclic compound. 91. Which of the following hydrocarbons on

R : Pyrrole contains a nitrogen atom in its mono chlorination gives only one product?
ring. (1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (3)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

87. Kjeldahl's method is used to estimate

nitrogenCC-674
in CC-674 92. CC-674 CC-674
(1) CH3 NH2 In furan , the number of conjugated
(2)
electrons are
(1) 4
(3) (2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 2

(4) All of these

93. Reductive ozonolysis of which compound
gives CH3 COCH3 as one of the products?
88. The ratio of σ : bonds in Naphthalene is
π (a)
(1) 11 : 5
(2) 19 : 6
(3) 19 : 5
(4) 8 : 5

(b)
89. Number of vinylic hydrogen atoms in CH3 –
CH = CH2 is
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1 (c)

90. Which among the following alkynes gives H2

gas with Na?
(1) CH3 – C ≡ CH
(2) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 (d)
(3) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH2 – CH3
(4) Ph – C ≡ C – Ph
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

(1) (a) and (d) only

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

12
TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

94. The number of possible isomers of C4 H8 is 98. Which of the following has highest heat of
(1) 3 hydrogenation per mole?
(1) Trans-2-butene
(2) 4
(2) Cis-2-butene
(3) 5
(4) 6 (3) But-1-ene
(4) 2-methylbut-2-ene

95. (i) B2 H6 ⋅ THF

CH3 – CH = C H2 −−−−−−−−→ A 99. The correct statement(s) for the given
(ii) H2 O2 / OH
–
reaction sequence is/are
Product A is
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CHO
(2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH a. B and C have same molecular formula.
b. B and C are position isomers of each
(3) other.
c. B and C give same product with
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
HgSO4 /H2 O/H2 SO4
CC-674
(4) (1) a, b and c
(2) a and b only
(3) a and c only
(4) c only
96. Number of cyclic ethers excluding
stereoisomers for molecular formula C4 H8 O
is 100. Which of the following organic compound is
(1) 3 purified by vacuum distillation?
(2) 4 (1) Glycerol
(3) 5 (2) Chloroform
(4) 6 (3) Aniline
(4) All of these
97. Suitable method for the separation of ortho
and para nitrophenol is
(1) Sublimation
(2) Chromatography
(3) Crystallization
(4) Steam distillation

BOTANY

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

SECTION-A

101. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Krebs 102. The enzyme of TCA cycle found on inner
cycle. mitochondrial membrane catalyses the
(1) During conversion of succinyl-CoA to conversion of
succinic acid substrate level (1) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid
phosphorylation occurs (2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(2) It occurs in mitochondrial matrix (3) Fumaric acid to malic acid
(3) In this cycle, three steps of (4) α-Ketoglutaric acid to succinyl CoA
decarboxylation occur
(4) During this cycle, FAD is also reduced
to FADH2

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

103. Direct gain of ATP through one citric acid 110. The plant growth regulator that is involved in
cycle is all of the following functions is
(1) 1 molecule • To overcome apical dominance
• To promote nutrient mobilisation
(2) 12 molecules
• To delay leaf senescence
(3) 2 molecules (1) Auxin
(4) 24 molecules (2) Gibberellin
(3) Ethylene
104. The mobile electron carrier towards the (4) Cytokinin
inter-membrane space of mitochondria is
(1) Ubiquinone
111. Number of female flowers in cucumber can
(2) Cytochrome bc1
be increased with the help of
(3) Cytochrome c (1) Auxin
(4) Cytochrome a (2) ABA
CC-674 CC-674 (3) CC-674
Ethylene CC-674
105. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the (4) Kinetin
concentration of alcohol reaches about
(1) 5%
112. IAA is essential in all except
(2) 13%
(1) Apical hook formation
(3) 8%
(2) Apical dominance
(4) 6%
(3) Parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(4) Xylem differentiation
106. Less than seven percent of the energy in
_______ is released in lactic acid and
alcohol fermentation. 113. A phytohormone, responsible for closure of
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. stomata is
(1) NADH + H+ (1) Ethylene
(2) Pyruvate (2) ABA
(3) ATP (3) Auxin
(4) Glucose (4) Gibberellin

107. The similarity between an aerobic and an 114. Which phytohormone is known as Anti GA
anaerobic bacteria is hormone?
(1) Presence of TCA cycle (1) Ethylene
(2) Release of ATP during link reaction (2) ABA
(3) Presence of EMP pathway (3) Cytokinin
(4) Oxidation of NADH + H+ via ETS (4) Auxin

115. The effect of inhibitory chemicals in seeds

108. The role of auxin is to that promote their dormancy can be
(1) Stimulate ripening of fruit removed by application of certain chemicals,
(2) Stimulate root formation on stem like
cuttings (1) Nitrates
(3) Inhibit apical dominance (2) Phenolic acids
(4) Inhibit flowering in pineapples (3) Abscisic acids
(4) Para-ascorbic acids
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
109. Read the following statements and select
the correct option for them. 116. In plants, for photoperiodism, the site of
Statement-A: GA3 was one of the first
perception of light/dark is
gibberellins to be discovered.
(1) Leaves
Statement-B: All GAs are basic in nature.
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Stem
(3) Shoot apex
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Root apex
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

117. The ability of a plant to form different 125. During glycolysis, the conversion of BPGA to
structures in response to environment or 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
phases of life is called (1) Is an energy consuming process
(1) Differentiation (2) Is an energy yielding process
(2) Plasticity (3) Produces FADH2
(3) Dormancy (4) Produces NADH + H+
(4) Growth

126. How many TCA cycles are required for the

118. Which of the following is formed during TCA complete oxidation of four molecules of
cycle? glucose?
(1) Citric acid (1) 6
(2) Acetyl CoA (2) 4
(3) Lactic acid (3) 8
(4) Acetic acid (4) 2
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
119. Link reaction is catalysed by which enzyme? 127. Which of the given is true for anaerobic
(1) Pyruvate kinase respiration?
(2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (1) Final electron acceptor is oxygen in
(3) Lactic acid dehydrogenase ETS
(4) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (2) Involves Krebs' cycle
(3) Has pyruvic acid as the product of
glycolysis
120. Which of the following is not associated with
glycolysis? (4) Releases 38 ATP from oxidation of one
molecule of glucose
(1) It occurs in cytoplasm
(2) Partial oxidation of glucose takes place
(3) Utilisation of oxygen 128. Which of the PGR elongates and improves
shape in apple?
(4) Breakdown of ATP molecules
(1) Gibberellin
(2) Auxin
121. Most preferred substrate(s) for respiration (3) Cytokinin
is/are
(4) Ethylene
(1) Proteins
(2) Glucose
(3) Fats
(4) Organic acids

122. The oxidation of one molecule of FADH2

produces
(1) 8 molecules of ATP
(2) 3 molecules of ATP
(3) 36 molecules of ATP
(4) 2 molecules of ATP

123. EMP pathway involves

(1) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(2) Complete oxidation of NADH
(3) A chain of ten reactions to produce
pyruvate
(4) Decarboxylation of monosaccharides

124. In aerobic eukaryotes, the function of

pyruvate dehydrogenase is seen in
(1) Matrix of mitochondria
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Stroma of chloroplasts
(4) Cytosol

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

129. The growth curve which is characteristic of 132. The hormonal substance responsible for
living organisms growing in a natural flowering migrates from (i) to (ii)
environment can be represented as ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
for inducing flowering.
(1) Select the correct option to fill in the blanks
(i) and (ii).
(1) (i) Apical buds, (ii) Axillary buds
(2) (i) Roots, (ii) Shoot apices
(3) (i) Leaves, (ii) Shoot apices
(4) (i) Shoot apices, (ii) Axillary buds
(2)
133. Which of the following is not a reason that
causes seed dormancy?
(1) Lack of endosperm
(2) Immature embryo
CC-674 CC-674 (3) CC-674
Presence of abscisic acid CC-674
(3) (4) Presence of para-ascorbic acid

134. Site of synthesis of cytokinin is

(1) Senescence leaves
(2) Mature fruit
(3) Older leaves
(4) (4) Root apices

135. To form tracheary element a very strong and

elastic secondary cell wall develops, which
is
(1) Cellulosic only
(2) Pectin containing
130. In plants, ethylene (3) Chitinous
(1) Is a derivative of carotenoids (4) Lignocellulosic
(2) Causes dormancy
(3) Is the only gaseous hormone
(4) Responsible for bolting

131. Which plant growth regulator does not occur

naturally in plants?
(1) Indole butyric acid
(2) Kinetin
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Ethylene

SECTION-B

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

136. The products in lactic acid fermentation are 137. ABA is also called stress hormone because
(1) Carbon dioxide and energy (1) It increases the stress conditions for the
(2) Lactic acid and energy plants
(3) Lactic acid and carbon dioxide (2) It causes the opening of stomata
(4) Carbon dioxide and water (3) It increases the tolerance of plants in
adverse environmental conditions
(4) It increases the water absorption
capacity of the plant

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

138. All of the following are the characteristics of 144. The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase of
the phase of elongation during plant growth, Krebs cycle is located in / at
except (1) Matrix of mitochondria
(1) Increase in the number of vacuoles (2) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(2) Enlargement of nucleus (3) Inter membrane space
(3) New cell wall deposition (4) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(4) Increase in the size of vacuoles
145. Respiration does not involve
139. Who amongst the following, first isolated (1) Breaking up of C – C bond
auxin from the tip of coleoptile of oat
(2) Photolysis of water molecule
seedling?
(3) Release of energy in the form of ATP
(1) F. Skoog
(4) Oxidation of macromolecules
(2) E. Kurosawa
(3) F.W. Went
CC-674
(4) Miller CC-674 146. In CC-674
Krebs cycle, which of the CC-674
following
compounds contain maximum number of
carbon atoms?
140. The geometric growth mathematically can (1) Oxaloacetic acid
be expressed by the following equation
(2) Succinic acid
W1 = W0 ert
(3) α-ketoglutaric acid
Select the incorrect option for the above
equation (4) Citric acid
(1) W1 = final size
(2) e = Base of natural logarithm 147. Proton gradient required for phosphorylation
in respiration is created by
(3) W0 = size at the end of the growth
(1) The energy of oxidation-reduction
(4) r = growth rate
(2) Uphill movement of electrons
(3) The energy of ATP
141. The chemicals like inhibitor-B and dormin (4) Splitting of water molecule
were proved to be chemically identical. It
was later named
(1) Indole acetic acid 148. Root elongating at constant rate shows
(2) Gibberellins (1) Arithmetic growth
(3) Abscisic acid (2) Geometric growth
(4) Auxins (3) Discontinuous growth
(4) Exponential growth
142. Fatty acids enters the respiratory pathway
after being converted into 149. A phytohormone which was first isolated
(1) Pyruvic acid from a fungus
(2) Acetyl CoA (1) Is basic in nature
(3) Amino acid (2) Helps in seed germination
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid (3) Decreases sugarcane yield
(4) Is used to promote fruit ripening
143. Complex IV of mitochondria involved in ETS
is associated with all except 150. Which two plant hormones show their
(1) Cytochrome c oxidase synergistic effect on cell division?
(2) Cytochrome (1) Auxin and ethylene
CC-674a & a3 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(3) Cytochrome bc1 (2) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(3) Auxin and cytokinin
(4) Two copper centres
(4) Cytokinin and ethylene

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

151. Select the odd one w.r.t. fundamental 157. How many of the given organisms exhibit
characteristics of phylum Chordata. incomplete digestive system?
(1) Notochord is present (a) Euspongia
(b) Fasciola
(2) Presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord
(c) Hydra
(3) Radially symmetrical (d) Ancylostoma
(4) Paired pharyngeal gill slits are present (e) Hirudinaria
Choose the correct option.
(1) One
152. Identify the below given diagram of an
animal and choose the correct statement (2) Two
w.r.t. its characteristics. (3) Four
(4) Five

158. Choose the odd one with respect to animals

and their common names.
CC-674 CC-674 (1) CC-674
Ancylostoma – Hookworm CC-674
(2) Bombyx – Silkworm
(3) Locusta – Lac insect
(4) Pinctada – Pearl oyster

159. Bioluminescence is characteristic of

(1) Respiration is exclusively by lungs.
(1) Pleurobrachia
(2) Fertilisation is internal and
development is indirect. (2) Gorgonia
(3) These are bilaterally symmetrical, (3) Sycon
triploblastic and acoelomate animals. (4) Taenia
(4) Circulatory system is of open type.
160. Which among the following is not a feature
153. With which organism is water vascular of Ornithorhynchus?
system associated? (1) Exhibits hair
(1) Asterias (2) Contains milk producing glands
(2) Sycon (3) Viviparity
(3) Anopheles (4) Presence of internal ears
(4) Hydra
161. One of the member of class Amphibia is
154. Proboscis gland is an excretory organ in (1) Columba
(1) Balanoglossus (2) Chelone
(2) Echinus (3) Bufo
(3) Octopus (4) Pavo
(4) Salpa
162. Choose the incorrect statement
155. Radial symmetry is the characteristic feature (1) Division Gnathostomata includes two
of adults belonging to the phylum super class, Pisces and Tetrapoda.
(1) Mollusca and Annelida (2) In Chondrichthyes, teeth are modified
(2) Ctenophora and Echinodermata cycloid scales which are backwardly
directed.
(3) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
(3) In Cephalochordates, CC-674
notochord
(4) Arthropoda and Annelida
extends from head to tail region.
(4) Under division Agnatha, living
156. Complete the analogy w.r.t. excretory organs members belong to class Cyclostomata
in animals. only
Platyhelminthes : Flame cells :: Crustaceans
: ____________
Choose the correct option 163. The number of chambers of heart in
amphibians is
(1) Green gland
(1) One
(2) Malphigian tubules
(2) Two
(3) Nephridia
(3) Three
(4) Protonephridia
(4) Four

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

164. The location of mouth in cartilaginous and 170. Select the correct route for the passage of
bony fishes respectively is sperms in male frogs
(1) Ventral and dorsal (1) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney
→ vasa efferentia → urinogenital
(2) Terminal and dorsal
duct → cloaca
(3) Ventral and terminal
(2) Testes → vasa efferentia → Kidney
(4) Dorsal and ventral → seminal vesicle → urinogenital
duct → cloaca
165. How many animals given in the below box (3) Testes → Bidder’s canal → vasa
are poikilothermic? efferentia → cloaca → ureter
Salamandra, Crocodilus, Pavo, (4) Testes → vasa efferentia → Kidney
Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Labeo → Bidder’s canal → urinogenital duct

Select the correct option. → cloaca

(1) One
(2) Two 171. Frog's eyes are protected under water by the
CC-674
(3) Three CC-674 CC-674
presence of CC-674
(4) Four (1) Retina
(2) Upper eyelid
(3) Nictitating membrane
166. Complete the analogy by selecting the
correct option. (4) Lower eyelid
Lamprey : Cyclostomata :: Hyla : ______
(1) Amphibia 172. Copulatory pad in frog is present on the first
(2) Osteichthyes digit of
(3) Reptilia (1) Forelimbs in males
(4) Aves (2) Hindlimbs in males
(3) Forelimbs in females
167. Choose the incorrect match regarding (4) Hindlimbs in females
classification of Corvus.
(1) Superclass — Tetrapoda 173. A fully grown tadpole larva of frog respires
(2) Sub-phylum — Vertebrata through
(3) Phylum — Aves (1) Gills
(4) Division — Gnathostomata (2) Skin
(3) Lungs
168. Match the items in column-I with those in (4) Tail fin
column-II and choose the option with only
correct matches.
174. In frogs, a triangular structure joins the right
Column-I Column-II atrium through aperture is called
Viviparous, fold of skin (1) Truncus arteriosus
A. Torpedo (p)
in between digits (2) Ductus arteriosus
Limbless, tailed (3) Ligamentum arteriosum
B. Trygon (q)
amphibian (4) Sinus venosus
Presence of placoid
C. Ichthyophis (r) scales and electric
organ 175. Assertion (A) : If we cut the nerves
supplying the heart of frog, it will stop
Presence of poisonous beating.
D. Pteropus (s)
sting and ventral mouth Reason (R) : The heart of frog is
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
neurogenic.
CC-674
(1) A(p), B(q), C(r), D(s)
In the light of above statements, choose the
(2) A(r), B(s), C(p), D(q) correct option.
(3) A(r), B(s), C(q), D(p) (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
(4) A(s), B(r), C(p), D(q) and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion
169. Cloaca in frog has openings of (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
the Reason is not the correct
(1) Anus only
explanation of the Assertion
(2) Urinogenital aperture and urinary
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
bladder only
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Urinary bladder and anus only
(4) Rectum, urinogenital aperture and
urinary bladder

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

176. Nitrogenous excretory products of adult and 181. The frog’s body is divisible into
larva of frog are ________ respectively. (1) Head, Neck, Abdomen
Choose the option which fills the blank
(2) Head, Neck, trunk
correctly.
(1) Urea and ammonia (3) Head, trunk
(2) Ammonia and urea (4) Head, Neck
(3) Ammonia and uric acid
(4) Urea and uric acid 182. Common feature of earthworm, jelly fish,
Neries, Aedes, Pila is
(1) Presence of cloaca
177. The number of cranial nerves in frog is
(2) Presence of four-chambered heart
(1) 10
(3) Metameric segmentation
(2) 20
(4) Presence of ventral nerve cord
(3) 12
(4) 35
CC-674 CC-674 CC-674
183. In frogs, the medulla oblongata passesCC-674 out
through the ________ and continues into
178. Cerebrum in frog is the part of spinal cord.
(1) Forebrain Select the option to fill the blank correctly.
(2) Midbrain (1) Olfactory lobe
(3) Hindbrain (2) Foramen magnum
(4) Rhomobencephalon (3) Diencephalon
(4) Optic lobe
179. Choose the part of midbrain of frog.
(1) Olfactory lobes 184. Which of the following structures is absent in
frogs?
(2) Optic lobes
(1) Hepatic portal system
(3) Cerebral hemisphere
(2) Renal portal system
(4) Cerebellum
(3) Four chambered heart
(4) A pair of optic lobes
180. Read the given statements.
A : Mesorchium is a double fold of
peritoneum that attaches ovaries in a frog to 185. Choose the odd one w.r.t. parts of excretory
body wall. pathway in frog.
B : The ovaries are situated near kidneys (1) Cloaca
and there is no functional connection with
(2) Urinary bladder
kidneys.
(1) Statement (A) is correct and statement (3) Bidder’s canal
(B) is the correct explanation for (A) (4) Ureters
(2) Statement (A) is incorrect while
statement (B) is correct
(3) Both statement (A) & (B) are correct
(4) Statement (A) is correct but statement
(B) is not the correct explanation for (A)

SECTION-B

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

186. Animals with false body cavity
(pseudocoelomates) are/have
(1) Metamerically segmented
(2) Radially symmetrical
(3) Incomplete alimentary canal
(4) Generally sexually dimorphic

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

187. In which one of the following, the genus 192. Common feature of frog and cockroach is
name, its two characters and its phylum are (1) Closed circulatory system
not correctly matched?
(2) Uricotelism
Two
Genumname Phylum (3) Dorsal nerve cord
characters
(4) Indirect development
Presence of
stinging
(1) Gorgonia capsules, Coelenterate 193. The first pair of wings of cockroach arises
Central gastro- from A and is known as B .
vascular cavity Select the option which fills A and B
Pseudocoelom, correctly.
Often longer A B
(2) Ancylostoma Aschelminthes
females than
males (1) Metathorax Metathoracic wings
Jointed (2) Mesothorax Tegmina
CC-674 appendages,
(3) Bombyx CC-674
Arthropoda (3)CC-674 CC-674
Mesothorax Metathoracic wings
Metamerism
(4) Metathorax Tegmina
Water canal
system, Echino- (1) (1)
(4) Cucumaria
Calcareous dermata (2) (2)
exoskeleton (3) (3)
(4) (4)
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
194. On an average, female cockroaches
(3) (3) produce ______ oothecae, each containing
(4) (4) ______ eggs.
Choose the correct option which fill in the
blanks respectively.
188. Select the option in which animals belong to
(1) 4-6, 7-8
the same phylum.
(2) 14-16, 9-10
(1) Apple snail, devil fish, king crab
(3) 9-10, 14-16
(2) Cuttle fish, starfish, sea lily
(4) 7-8, 4-6
(3) Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum
(4) Lancelet, Myxine, Balanoglossus
195. The number of vasa efferentia in a male frog
is
189. Select the animal from the options
(1) 10-12
given below, whose body is cylindrical and
is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk. (2) 2
(1) Saccoglossus (3) 4
(2) Ascidia (4) 6-8
(3) Petromyzon
(4) Myxine 196. Which of the following structures helps to
increase surface area of intestine in
Pheretima?
190. A common characteristic between
(1) Buccal cavity
Balanoglossus and humans is the presence
of (2) Oesophagus
(1) Notochord (3) Typhlosole
CC-674
(2) Complete digestive tract CC-674 (4) CC-674
Gizzard CC-674
(3) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(4) Dorsal heart 197. Female frog does not possess
(1) Vocal cord
191. All mammals (2) Sensory papillae
(1) Give birth to young ones (3) Copulatory pad
(2) Have notochord in adult stage (4) Tympanum with internal ear
(3) Nourish their young with milk
(4) Have seven cervical vertebrae

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TermExam2023-25TYM(P2)-TE06C

198. Frog is 200. Choose the non-vertebrate chordate

(1) Homeothermic (1) Vipera
(2) Poikilothermic (2) Branchiostoma
(3) Homeostatic (3) Betta
(4) Warm blooded (4) Pterophyllum

199. Which of the following features is shared by

Pavo and Hemidactylus?
(1) Homeothermy
(2) Three-chambered heart
(3) Internal fertilization
(4) Presence of wings

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

CC-674 CC-674 CC-674 CC-674

22