VSTEP READING TEST

Time permitted: 50 minutes

Number of questions: 30
Directions: In this section, you will read THREE different passages. Each one is
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-30, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C or D to each question. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.

PASSAGE 1
The hugs that keep on giving

Every weekend over the past 10 months, Nguyen Bao Ngoc has been walking around
the Sword Lake in Hanoi, dressed up as Doraemon, a popular Japanese comic book
character that is half cat half robot. Stretching his arms out, he tries to hug as many
strangers as possible. Some stop to hug him back before putting money into one of the
boxes that his friends are holding. Some Others walk faster and avoid eye contact with
him. Ngoc, 23, says he started the “Hug Me” (Om toidi) campaign in February,
inspired by the Free Hugs social movement in. Australia. The difference is his hugs are
not free, because he wants to raise money to help children in poor and remote areas
around the country. [A]
The senior college student who is studying to become a TV reporter has been doing
charity work for three years. In one of his most successful attempts, he worked as a xe
om motorbike taxi driver in his free time and donated all the money he could earn to
poor families in his hometown in Quang Binh Province. But “Hug Me,” Ngoc says, is
his favorite because with it, he can get the attention of his peers. “Young people my
age have been more into social media than real life. We may cry over a sad story on
Facebook but when we witness the same story in real life, we can be indifferent”. [B]
As hugging in public is not very common in Vietnam, Ngoc said he puts on a costume
so that strangers will not feel uncomfortable. Doraemon the cat is in fact famous for its
friendliness and kindness. Sometimes, for a change, he also dresses as a bee or a
puppy. [C]
Many students who gave him a hug donated more than VND5,000, which is what he
hopes to receive, allowing the campaign to earn between $50 and $200 each week.
Some also brought old clothes and books. Ngoc has organized two trips to bring gifts
and food to children in Quang Binh and the northern mountainous province of Yen Bai
this year. The third has been planned for December.
Ngoc has been diagnosed with first stage bone marrow cancer but he says his condition
is” stable.” He says he does not want to be defined by his illness. Having cancer is not
the motivation for him to help others. “I’d do it anyway. I want people to see me as a
student doing charity work, not a cancer patient doing charity work.” [D]
1. Why does Ngoc start the “Hug Me” campaign?
A. to initiate a social movement in Australia
B. to offer free hugs
C. to raise money for charity
D. to pay for his tuition fee at college
2. The word “some” refers to _____
A. friends B. children C. strangers D. boxes
3. The word “senior” is closest in meaning to _____
A. last-year B. superior C. advanced D. leading
4. The word “indifferent” is closest in meaning to _____
A. uncaring B. concerned C. dissimilar D. responsive
5. What character might probably not represent a costume that Ngoc dresses in?
A. a cat B. a bee C. a puppy D. a panda
6. How much is the “Hug Me” campaign expected to earn a month?
A. VND5,000 B. $50 and $200 C. $200 and $800 D. free
7. The word “third” refers to _____
A. province B. campaign C. trip D. month
8. In which space (marked A, B, c and D in the passage) will the following
sentence fit?
“I want to live and love in the real world, not the virtual world,”He added.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
9. What does Ngoc mean when he said “Z want people to see me as a student
doing charity work, not a cancer patient doing charity work”
A. having cancer motivates him to do charity work
B. he does not like being remembered by his illness
C. any student with such illness can do more to help other people
D. he is a student who helps cancer people
10. In which paragraph does the author mention the bad health condition of
Nguyen Bao Ngoc?
A. paragraph 1
B. paragraph 2
C. paragraph 4
D. paragraph 5
PASSAGE 2 - Questions 11-20
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is the main political and economic
organization for that area. The leaders summit is the last meeting before the launch of the
ASEAN’ Economic Community, or AEC, on December 31.
The AEC will be equivalent to the world’s seventh largest economy. It was set up to create a
highly competitive single market and production area. Organizers hope it will ease the
movement of capital, goods, investment, services and skilled labor across ASEAN countries.
The goal is to make the whole area more competitive and economically successful. But some
business leaders have low expectations for the ASEAN summit. Anthony Nelson is a director
at the US – ASEAN Business Council in Washington. He believes that security will be an
important issue at the meetings, especially after the terrorist attacks in Paris last week. “The
November summit includes the East Asia Summit, which primarily focuses on political and
security issues. So that’s going to be a big part of what is actually going on around the summit.
A lot of the work that business gets really involved in tends to happen around the ASEAN
economic ministers’ meeting in August.” But the AEC may have only limited influence on
business activity when it comes into being next year. Experts expect little to change at first
because there is still much to be done.
“The ASEAN single window, which is a customs project, is still very much a work in
progress. But beginning next year they will start limited trials with five of the 10 ASEAN
countries. And there have been past mutual recognition agreements for credentials of skilled
professionals. But there’s still a lot of work to be done in terms of
actually implementing those agreements.” Some critics say the AEC will mainly help
businesses, not the majority of people in Southeast Asia. Earlier this year, the ASEAN Civil
Society Conference and ASEAN Peoples’ Forum expressed concern about regional
economic integration. In a statement, the group said such a move would mean unequal and
unsustainable economic growth. This, it said, would result “in worsening poverty and
inequalities of wealth.” Jerald Joseph is co – chairman of the ASEAN People’s Forum. He
says people crossing borders to find employment need more protections. He said: “Cross —
border migrant workers don’t have the same level of protection or interest in the whole
negotiation. So that’s a little bit of a pity, a wasted chance, if it’s not reflected in the coming
document.” The 27th ASEAN Summit includes the organization’s partners. Nations including
China, India, Japan and the United States are to attend.

11. ASEAN is the main political and economic organization in _____

A. East Asia
B. Southeast Asia
C. West Asia
D. North Asia
12. What does the word “It” refer to _____
A. ASEAN
B. Organizer
C. AEC
D. Business Council
13. According to Anthony Nelson, what is the important issue at the meetings?
A. Security
B. Climate change
C. Business
D. Economy
14. According to the passage, what aspect tends to happen around the ASEAN economic
ministers?
A. Security
B. Climate change
C. Business
D. Economy
15. According to the passage, how many countries in the ASEAN will start limited trials?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
16. The word “credentials” can be replaced by _____
A. letters
B. salutations
C. invitations
D. certificates
17. The word “implementing” is closest in meaning to _____
A. carrying out
B. producing
C. concentrating
D. focusing
18. The word “integration” can be replaced by _____
A. utilization
B. contribution
C. combination
D. separation
19. According to the passage, what would delay the increase of the economy?
A. the recession
B. the poverty
C. the move
D. the employment
20. According to the passage, who requires more assurance?
A. travellers
B. immigrants
c. residents
D. tourists

PASSAGE 3 - Questions 21 - 30
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are
killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter
vacations (and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops
along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell
phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices
would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow
intellectually, creatively, and socially - exploring the arts, keeping up with current
events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just ‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21 century, enjoying one of the greatest
st

technological boom times in human history, and nothing could be further from the
truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have bound us to our work and
study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that
technology almost never does what we expect.
In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer.
People left their offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected
from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to and from work, and were off-
duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today's highly competitive job
market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer
hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other
communications devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is
going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to
catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their
work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job
security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to
voice mail and e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their
desks by an environment in which faculty, friends, and other members of the college
community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant
messaging services would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from
genetic research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when
new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful
- and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously
awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it
should benefit us.

21. According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed
to make our lives easier _____.
A. have brought us complete happiness
B. have not interfered with our privacy
C. have fully met our expectations
D. have turned out to do us more harm than good
22. Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to
new surveys?
A. They are being increasingly used.
B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations.
D. They make our life more stressful.
23. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. People have more opportunities to get access to technological applications.
B. Students used to have to study more about technological advances.
C. People now enjoy greater freedom thanks to the technological boom.
D. Employees were supposed to make technology do what they expected.
24. The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to “_____”.
A. unimaginable
B. foreseeable
C. unforgettable
 D. predictable
25. With the phrase “at a predictable time”, the author implies that _____.
A. people wanted to be completely disconnected from their work
B. people had to predict the time they were allowed to leave offices
C. people used to have more time and privacy after work
D. people were unable to foresee their working hours
26. It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that _____.
A. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
B. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
C. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
27. The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to _____.
A. employers
B. workers
C. employees
D. tasks
28. Which of the following could be the main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A. The coming of new technological advances has spoiled family and social
relationships.
B. New technological advances have added more stress to daily life.
C. New technological applications are wise entertainment choices of our modern
time.
D. New technological advances have reduced work performance.
29. This passage has probably been taken from _____.
A. a fashion magazine
B. a science review
C. a political journal
D. an advertisement
30. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Research on the Roles of Computers
B. Changes at the Workplace
C. Benefits of Technology
D. Expectations and Plain Reality
 ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA HÀ NỘI VSTEP READING
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NGOẠI NGỮ PRACTICE TEST
Ngày thi: / /202

BÀI THI: ĐỌC HIỂU

Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút

Directions: In this section of the test, you will read THREE different passages, each followed
by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-30, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D,
to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions
following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 45 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers
to the answer sheet.

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 15 minutes on Questions 1-10, which are based on Reading
Passage 1
Line A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality
of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication,
which includes imparting information by use of language,
communicating with a group or an individual, and specialized
5 communication through performance. A person conveys
thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of
voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the
rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by
speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and
10 hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance.
When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate
unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal
levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above
the words chosen, or may hide them. Here the speaker’s tone
15
can consciously or unconsciously reflect emotional sympathy
or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, tiredness, anxiety,
enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually observable
by the critical listener. Public performance is a manner of
20 communication that is highly specialized with its own
techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The
motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing,
the music, in combination with the performer's skills,
personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the
success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-
image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image
can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident,
pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or energetic, to name
 only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue
to the front or mask of that person, for example, a shy person
hiding behind an overconfident front. How a speaker
perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in
any given conversation can drastically change the tone of
presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker.
Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and
melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound
of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the
depressed.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The function of the voice in C. Communication styles
performance D. The production of speech
B. The connection between voice
and personality
Question 2: What does the author mean by stating that, "At interpersonal levels, tone
may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen" (lines 8-9)?
A. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
Question 3: The word "Here" in line 9 refers to ______.
A. interpersonal interactions C. ideas and feelings
B. the tone D. words chosen
Question 4: The word "derived" in line 13 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
Question 5: Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic
communication" in lines 15-16______.
A. As examples of public C. To contrast them to singing
performance D. To introduce the idea of self-image
B. As examples of basic styles of
communication
Question 6: According to the passage, an energetic tone of voice, may be an indication
of a person's ______.
A. general physical health C. ability to communicate
B. personality D. vocal quality
Question 7: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide______.
A. hostility B. shyness C. D. strength
friendliness
Question 8: The word "drastically" in line 21 is closest in meaning to______.
A. B. exactly C. severely D. easily
frequently
Question 9: The word "evidenced" in line 23 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. questioned B. repeated C. D. exaggerated
indicated
Question 10: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice
indicate?
A. Lethargy B. C. D. Anger
 Depression Boredom

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 15 minutes on Questions 11-20, which are based on Reading
Passage 2.
Line The first peoples to inhabit what today is the southeastern United States
sustained themselves as hunters and gathers. Sometimes early in the
first millennium A.D., however, they began to cultivate corn and other
crops. Gradually, as they became more skilled at gardening, they
5 settled into permanent villages and developed a rich culture,
characterized by the great earthen mounds they erected as monuments
to their gods and as tombs for their distinguished dead. Most of these
early mound builders were part of the Adena-Hopewell culture, which
had its beginnings near the Ohio River and takes its name from sites in
10 Ohio. The culture spread southward into the present-day states of
Louisiana, Alabama, Georgia, and Florida. Its peoples became great
traders, bartering jewelry, pottery, animal pelts, tools, and other goods
along extensive trading networks that stretched up and down eastern
North America and as far west as the Rocky Mountains. About A.D.
15
400, the Hopewell culture fell into decay. Over the next centuries, it
was supplanted by another culture, the Mississippian, named after the
river along which many of its earliest villages were located. This
complex civilization dominated the Southeast from about A.D. 700
20 until shortly before the Europeans began arriving in the sixteenth
century.
At the peak of its strength, about the year 1200, it was the most
advanced culture in North
America. Like their Hopewell predecessors, the Mississippians became
25 highly skilled at growing food, although on a grander scale. They
developed an improved strain of corn, which could survive in wet soil
and a relatively cool climate, and also learned to cultivate beans.
Indeed, agriculture became so important to the Mississippians that it
became closely associated with the Sun – the guarantor of good crops.
Many tribes called themselves "children of the Sun" and believed
their omnipotent priest-chiefs were descendants of the great sun god.
Although most Mississippians lived in small villages, many others
inhabited large towns. Most of these towns boasted at least one major
flat-topped mound on which stood a temple that contained a sacred
flame. Only priests and those charged with guarding the flame could
enter the temples. The mounds also served as ceremonial and trading
sites, and at times they were used as burial grounds.

Question 11: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The C. The early people and cultures of the United States
development of D. The construction of burial mounds
agriculture
B. The locations
of towns and
villages
 Question 12: Which of the following resulted from the rise of agriculture in the
southeastern United States?
A. The development of trade in North America
B. The establishment of permanent settlements
C. Conflicts with other Native American groups over land
D. A migration of these peoples to the Rocky Mountains.
Question 13: What does the term "Adena-Hopewell" (line 6) designate?
A. The early locations of the Adena-Hopewell culture.
B. The two most important nations of the Adena-Hopewell culture.
C. Two former leaders who were honored with large burial mounds.
D. Two important trade routes in eastern North America.
Question 14: The word "bartering" in line 9 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. producing C. transporting
B. exchanging D. loading
Question 15: The word "supplanted" in line 12 is closest in meaning to_______________________.
A. conquered C. replaced
B. preceded D. imitated
Question 16: According to the passage, when did the Mississippian culture reach its
highest point of development?
A. About A.D. C. About A.D. 1200
400 D. In the sixteenth century
B. Between A.D.
400 and A.D. 700
Question 17: According to the passage, how did the agriculture of the Mississippians
differ from that of their Hopewell predecessors?
A. The Mississippians produced more durable and larger crops of food.
B. The Mississippians sold their food to other groups.
C. The Mississippians could only grow plants in warm, dry climates.
D. The Mississippians produced special foods for their religious leaders.
Question 18: Why does the author mention that many Mississippians tribes called
themselves "children of the Sun" (line 21-22)?
A. To explain why they were obedient to their priest-chiefs.
B. To argue about the importance of religion in their culture.
C. To illustrate the great importance they placed on agriculture.
D. To provide an example of their religious rituals.
Question 19: The phrase "charged with" in line 25 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. passed on C. interested in
B. experienced at D. assigned to
Question 20: According to the passage, the flat-topped mounds in Mississippian towns
were used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT__________.
A. religious C. sites for commerce
ceremonies D. burial sites
B. meeting places
for the entire
community

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 15 minutes on Questions 21-30, which are based on Reading
Passage 3
Line All mammals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse
their calves for some twenty months, until they are about to give birth
again and their young are able to find their own food. The behavior of
feeding of the young is built into the reproductive system. It is a
5 nonselective part of parental care and the defining feature of a mammal,
the most important thing that mammals-- whether marsupials, platypuses,
spiny anteaters, or placental mammals -- have in common.
But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point
of hatching or birth, feed their young. Most egg-guarding fish do not, for
10 the simple reason that their young are so much smaller than the parents
and eat food that is also much smaller than the food eaten by adults. In
reptiles, the crocodile mother protects her young after they have hatched
and takes them down to the water, where they will find food, but she does
not actually feed them. Few insects feed their young after hatching, but
15
some make other arrangement, provisioning their cells and nests with
caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with their venom and
stored in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a
supply of fresh food when they hatch.
20 For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental
care. Animals add it to their reproductive strategies to give them an edge
in their lifelong quest for descendants. The most vulnerable moment in
any animal's life is when it first finds itself completely on its own, when it
must forage and fend for itself. Feeding postpones that moment until a
young animal has grown to such a size that it is better able to cope. Young
that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much
greater fraction of their full adult size. And in the meantime those young
are shielded against the vagaries of fluctuating of difficult-to-find
supplies. Once a species does take the step of feeding its young, the young
become totally dependent on the extra effort. If both parents are removed,
the young generally do not survive.

Question 21: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The care that various animals give to their offspring.
B. The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food.
C. The methods that mammals use to nurse their young.
D. The importance among young mammals of becoming independent.
Question 22: The author lists various animals in line 5 to__________.
A. contrast the feeding habits of different types of mammals
B. describe the process by which mammals came to be defined
C. emphasize the point that every type of mammal feeds its own young
D. explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonselective
Question 23: The word "tend" in line 6 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. sit on B. move C. notice D. care for
Question 24: What can be inferred from the passage about the practice of animal
parents feeding their young?
A. It is C. It is dangerous for the parents.
unknown D. It is most common among mammals.
among fish.
B. It is
 unrelated to
the size of the
young.
Question 25: The word "provisioning" in line 11 is closest in meaning to__________.
A. supplying B. preparing C. building D. expanding
Question 26: According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have
food?
A. By storing food near their young.
B. By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars.
C. By searching for food some distance from their nest.
D. By gathering food from a nearby water source.
Question 27: The word "edge" in line 15 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. opportunity B. advantage C. purpose D. rest
Question 28: The word "it" in line 18 refers to_________.
A. feeding B. moment C. young animal D. size
Question 29: According to the passage, animal young are most defenseless
when__________.
A. their parents C. they are only a few days old
are away D. they first become independent
searching for
food
B. their parents
have many
young to feed
Question 30: The word "shielded" in line 20 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. raised B. protected C. hatched D. valued
 ĐẠI HỌC QUỐC GIA HÀ NỘI SAMPLE TEST
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC NGOẠI TIẾNG ANH B1
NGỮ
Ngày thi: / /201

BÀI THI: ĐỌC HIỂU

Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút

Directions: In this section of the test, you will read THREE different passages, each followed
by 10 questions about it. For question 1-30, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to
each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill the space
that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a
passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 45 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers
to the answer sheet.

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 15 minutes on Questions 1-10, which are based on Reading
Passage 1.

Lin Any type of regular, physical activity can improve your fitness and your
e health. The most important thing is that you keep moving. Exercise should be a
regular part of your day, like brushing your teeth, eating, and sleeping. It can be in
gym class, joining a sports team, or working out on your own. When you are ready
for regular exercise, keep the following tips in mind.
5 First, a good mental attitude is important, so stay positive and have fun. Let’s
start by finding an activity that you think is fun. You are more likely to keep with it if
you choose something you like. A lot of people find it more fun to exercise with
someone else, so see if you can find a friend or family member to be active with you.
Second, take it one step at a time. Small changes can add up to better fitness.
10 For example, walk or ride your bike to school or to a friend's house instead of getting
a ride. Get on or off the bus several blocks away and walk the rest of the way. Use the
stairs instead of taking the elevator or escalator.
Third, get your heart pumping. Whatever you choose, make sure it includes
aerobic activity that makes you breathe harder and increases your heart rate. This is
15
the best type of exercise because it increases your fitness level and makes your heart
and lungs work better. It also burns off body fat. Examples of aerobic activities are
basketball, running, or swimming.
Last, don't forget to warm up with some easy exercises or mild stretching
20 before you do any physical activity. This warms your muscles up and may help
protect against injury. Stretching makes your muscles and joints more flexible too. It
is also important to stretch out after you exercise to cool down your muscles.
To conclude, your goal should be to do some type of exercise every day. It is
best to do some kind of aerobic activity without stopping for at least 20 to 30 minutes
each time. Do the activity as often as possible, but don't exercise to the point of pain.
 1. What question does the passage answer?
A. What can I do to get more fit?
B. What is the best type of exercise?
C. Is mental health more important than physical one?
D. How can students balance life and study?
2. According to the passage, the most important thing is that you should ________.
A. do exercise after you brush your teeth
B. do mental exercise such as meditation
C. take exercise as part of your daily routine
D. train yourself with different aerobic activities
3. What is the basis for choosing an activity?
A. Your mood B. Your interest C. A funny friend D. An
active sibling
4. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT recommended?
A. Getting a ride B. Cycling C. Going on foot D. Using
the stairs
5. What does the word “it” in Line 15 refer to?
A. What you choose B. Aerobic activity C. Your heart D. Your
heart rate
6. According to the passage, aerobic activity does NOT increase ________.
A. your fitness level B. your heart rate C. your lung capacity D. your
body fat
7. What does the word “this” in line 21 refer to?
A. Forgetting to warm up or stretching the body
B. Warming up with some easy exercises or mild stretching
C. Doing any physical activity including mild stretching
D. Protecting against injury caused by aerobic exercises
8. It is necessary to make gentle movements ________ doing aerobic activities.
A. before B. after C. while D. before
and after
9. According to the passage, it is advised to ________.
A. overcome the pain to increase your fitness level
B. stop exercising before you feel painful
C. do easy exercise for less than half an hour
D. rest for a day when you start doing exercise
10. What is the tone of the passage?
A. Encouraging B. Humorous C. Critical D.
Disappointing

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 15 minutes on Questions 11-20, which are based on Reading
Passage 2

Lin Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World
e War is the country’s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in
1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada’s population passed
the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The
depression of the 1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up
5 process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950s,
 producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951
to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada’s
history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies were being settled.
Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s supported a growth in the
10 population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and
an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28
per thousand, one of the highest in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It
continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this
15 decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was
also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school
longer, more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles
or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size
of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend
20
toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the
time of the Industrial Revolution.
Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the
increase in the first half of the 1960s was only nine percent), another large population
25 wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were
born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.
11. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society
B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in post-war Canada
D. Standards of living in Canada
12. The word “five” in line 3 refers to ________.
A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages
13. The word “surging” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising
14. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s ________.
A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married
C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high
15. The word “trend” in line 11 is closest in meaning to________.
A. Tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive
16. The word “peak” in line 14 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D.
maximum
17. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population
growth after 1957 EXCEPT ________.
A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses
18. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution
________.
A. families were larger B. population statistics were
unreliable
C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad
19. The word “it” in line 25 refers to ________.
A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half
 20. The phrase “prior to” in line 26 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. behind B. since C. during D.
preceding

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 15 minutes on Questions 21-30, which are based on Reading
Passage 3

Lin The first 35 years of motion picture history are called the silent era, even
e though films were accompanied by the music of pianists or organists or small
orchestras of house musicians, because there was no practical means for recording
and playing back recorded dialogue or music in synchronization with the reel of
film. Films of this era progressed from very basic to much more elaborate in the years
5 1894 to 1928 that booked the era of silent films. The films of this era can quite
logically be divided into three phases: the primitive era (1894- 1907), the transitional
era (1908- 1917), and the mature era (1918- 1928).
The primitive era began when the Kinetograph and the Kinetoscope,
inventions created in Thomas Edison’s New Jersey laboratory in 1892 to film and to
10 view short sequences respectively, were used to create and present 30-second
vignettes of novelty acts in U.S. and European cities in 1894. (A) An alternative to
Edison’s equipment, the Cinematographe, was developed by Auguste and Louis
Lumiere, the Cinematopgraphe was a camera that was lighter than Edison’s and could
be easily converted into a projector, and it was this machine that turned the motion
15
picture into a worldwide phenomenon. (B) The Lumieres held the first public
screening of their motion pictures in Paris in 1895. (C) For the next few years, the
films created were rather short and primitive, each film consisted of a single shot
from a lone stationary viewpoint. (D)
20 The period from 1908 to 1917 was known as the transitional era. In this era,
motion pictures changed from a primitive form of recreation to a well-respected part
of popular culture. Actors developed in their ability to convey ideas without words,
and creative intertitles provided commentary and narrative between sections of
frames. Filming techniques were developed, with the introduction of such stylistic
25 devices as close-ups and long shots. Films became much longer, and the film topics
expanded considerably from the earlier scenes of real life to include film adaptations
of popular and classic literature plays. During this period, newspapers also began
carrying reviews of films so that audiences would know which films were worth
seeing. By 1917, a major shift in the film industry had occurred. France had been the
30 world’s leading exporter of films prior to World War I, but the war had decimated the
film industry in France. By 1917, the United States had assumed leadership in the
motion picture industry, and the sleepy town of Hollywood, California, which had
been used as a winter shooting site for filmmakers from the East Coast as early as
1907, had become the seat of the filmmaking industry. By 1920, Hollywood boasted
35 a clique of movie stars with worldwide fame, and, as the decade progressed, fan
magazines and gossip columns devoted to publicizing both the public and private
lives of the stars flourishes. The 1920s were also a time of great expansion of the
Hollywood studios, as Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer (MGM) was created form a merger to
form the largest studio in Hollywood, as Universal, Paramount, and Fox became
40 firmly establishes as studios, and as the small company Warner Brothers, which was
to grow immensely in later decades, introduced a series of films featuring the canine
 star Rin Tin Tin.
However, by the end of 1920s, the era of silent films ended abruptly. Edison
and other inventors had introduced technology for creating motion pictures with
45 sound at various times throughout the early decades of the twentieth century, but
those early devices could not ensure good enough sound quality and amplification to
induce studios to try any of them out. Finally, Warner Brothers took a chance with
the 1927 film, The Jazzz Singer, which starred popular recording artist Al Jolson and
featured both singing and talking. When The Jazzz Singer became a tremendous hit,
50 Warner Brothers and Fox immediately converted to producing motion pictures with
sound, the other large studios, believing that talking pictures might be only a passing
fad, continued making silent pictures for one more year. When it became clear that
talking pictures were the future of film rather than a passing fad, the remaining
studios converted to the exclusive production of talking film a year later, by
55
1929, all of the films produced in Hollywood studios were talking pictures, and
the era of silent films was over.
21. The phrase “in synchoronization with” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. in time with B. in agreement with
C. as many times as D. on top of
22. The author includes the last sentence in paragraph 1 in order to ________.
A. describe events leading up to the events in the following paragraphs
B. provide examples showing that there were many different types of silent films
C. announce the organization of the passage
D. present a concluding idea to summarize paragraph 1
23. It is implied in paragraph 2 that ________.
A. the Kinetoscope was invented some time before the Kinetograph
B. the Kinetoscope was used to view films created with the Kinetograph
C. the Cinematographe could create films but could not be used to view them
D. The cinematographe was used to view films created with the Kinetograph
24. In which space (marked A, B, C or D in the passage), will the following sentence fit?
“They depicted short every scene of people taking part in outdoor activities, laborers
working at a construction site, and travelers scurrying through a train station.”
A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D)
25. The word “convey” in line 22 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. communicate B. understand C. transport D. contradict
26. It is NOT true according to paragraph 3 that Hollywood ________.
A. was the leading producer of films before World War I
B. was used as a winter site for films early in the twentieth century
C. was a small town prior to the success of the film industry
D. took over the role of leader in the film industry from France.
27. The word “seat” in line 34 could be best replaced by ________.
A. chair B. basis C. center D. success
28. The word “them” in line 47 refers to ________.
A. early decades B. early devices
C. sound quality and amplification D. studios
29. According to paragraph 4, The Jazz Singer ________.
A. was produced by Fox Studios
B. was the last great silent film
C. featured a famous Hollywood movie star
 D. was extremely successful
30. In the last paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence:
When it became clear that talking pictures were the future of film rather than a passing fad,
the remaining studios converted to the exclusive production of talking film a year later, by
1929, all of the films produced in Hollywood studios were talking pictures, and the era of
silent films was over.
A. After studios were sure that pictures with sound were going to be successful, they
converted to talking pictures relatively quickly.
B. The future of film was presented in a series of talking films that were produced in
Hollywood for release in 1929.
C. The era of silent films ended when the exclusive production for making talking
pictures was granted to Hollywood studios.
D. It was clear to studios that talking pictures were only a fad, so they decided not to
produce them until sometimes in the future.
 READING HANDOUT 5
Time allowance: 50 minutes
Number of questions: 30

Directions: In this section you will read THREE different passages. Each one is followed by
10 questions about it. For questions 1-30, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to
each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions
following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers
to the answer sheet.

PASSAGE 1: Questions 1-10

Doctors treat patients for free at clinic in Ha Noi
For 20 years, Dang Thi Nhan, 67, has been waking up about 30 minutes earlier
each day to bake cakes or prepare tea for two retired doctors in a clinic near her house in
Ha Noi's Giap Bat Ward. That is all Nhan can offer as thanks to doctors who provide free
health checks for herself, her paralyzed husband and their 43-year-old disabled son. "If
one day they cannot take care of themselves and need someone to look after, I will do it
voluntarily till the day they are gone," Nhan said.
The small clinic, situated on Kim Dong Street, has become familiar to many
people in Ha Noi. It was established in 1992 by Dr Truong Thi Hoi To, 84, a former
principal of Nam Dinh Medical College, Le Thi Soc, 87, a retired nurse from Saint Paul
Municipal Hospital, and Le Thanh Thuoc, the late deputy director of the Viet Nam
National Cancer Hospital, who died last year. The clinic used to open every Monday and
Thursday. However, after doctor Thuoc died and due to the deteriorating health of the
two other medics, the clinic now only opens on Monday mornings at 8 am. Patients not
only receive health checks, but they also receive free medicine. (A)
Since 2014, the clinic has treated about 8,500 patients, according to Giap Bat
ward's Red Cross Association. On its first days, the clinic faced numerous difficulties
due to lack of money. Mrs. To, founder of the clinic, had to spend her own pension and
encourage her children and relatives to donate money to purchase medical equipment
and medicine. The clinic also had to relocate seven times as To and her co-workers could
not afford high rents. Despite these difficulties, they never thought of giving up. "Being
able to help my patients brings me unspeakable joy. This is also my life target. It warms
my heart to see the happy faces of the patients," To said. (B)
Tran Thi Toan, 64, a patient from Nam Dinh Province, now works as a servant in
Ha Noi. She is grateful to doctor To and nurse Soc not just for the free treatment, but for
their caring manner. Toan said: "They give me meticulous treatment and clear, detailed
instruction as well as advise me on a healthy and happy lifestyle". Toan feels shy about
her job, so the doctors' care and compassionate attitude have become her inspiration in
life. (C)
To the doctors, the most precious thing they receive from their patients is
confidence in their skills, which can only be achieved through ethics and medical
excellence. "The success of a doctor does not lies in how much money they earn, but
how many people they help", Soc said. Sharing Soc's opinion, To said that "Medical
practitioners should not consider their profession as a tool to get rich. They should not
benefit from their patients' pain. Patients come first, not money." (D)
1. How old was Dang Thi Nhan when she first started to bake cakes or prepare tea for the
two doctors?
A. 20 C. 43
B. 67 D. 47
2. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ……………
A. two doctors C. health checks
B. husband and son D. cakes
3. The word "late" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ……………….
A. last-minute C. delayed
B. behind D. deceased
4. The word "its" in paragraph 3 refers to ……………..
A. Red Cross Association C. medicine
B. the clinic D. pension
5. Who probably did not work in a hospital before retirement?
A. Le Thi Soc C. Truong Thi Hoi To
B. Le Thanh Thuoc D. All of them
6. In which lines does the author mention about the bad health condition of the doctors at
the clinic…..
A. line 5 C. line 23
B. line 13 D. line 28
7. The word "donate" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by …………….
A. give C. keep
B. take D. get
8. What has helped Mrs. Tran Thi Toan gain confidence in her life?
A. her job as a servant
B. her gratitude to all doctors
C. her healthy and happy lifestyle
D. doctors' caring manner and free treatment at clinic
9. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
"They treat me as a close member of their family. There is no discrimination between
the rich and the poor. Everyone is treated equally." She added.
A. (A)
B. (B)
C. (C)
D. (D)
10. The last paragraph indicates Mrs. Soc's opinion that a doctor is successful if ………
A. he/ she earns a lot of money
B. he/ she is confident in his/her skills
C. he/ she helps a lot of patients
D. he/ she benefits from their patients' pain
PASSAGE 2: Questions 11-20
To Get a Job in Your 50s, Maintain Friendships in Your 40s.
We hear it all the time: People who are over 50 take longer to find jobs than
younger people. Connie Wanberg, a professor at the Carlson School of Management at
the University of Minnesota, had long heard gloom-and-doom stories to that effect, but
she wondered how strong the data was to support them.
Very, as it turned out. According to a study by Professor Wanberg and others,
job seekers over 50 were unemployed 5.8 weeks longer than those from the ages of 30 to
49. That number rose to 10.6 weeks when the comparison group was from 20 to 29.
Professor Wanberg and three other researchers — Darla J. Hamann, Ruth Kanfer and
Zhen Zhang — arrived at those numbers by analyzing and synthesizing hundreds of
studies by economists, sociologists and psychologists.
But it is important not to jump to conclusions about the cause, Professor
Wanberg said. “It’s not very unusual for everybody to think that the reason for the
difficulty in finding jobs at 50s is discrimination,” she said. That can sometimes be the
case, but the reality is that the behavior required to find work does not play to many older
people’s strengths. Once they become aware of this, they can act to compensate.
In their study, the researchers found that older people on average had smaller
social networks than younger people, Professor Wanberg said. This is not necessarily bad
— as we age, many of us find that the quality of our relationships is more important than
the quantity. But in the job search process, the number of connections we maintain in our
professional and personal networks is often critical.
As people age, they also tend to stay in the same job longer, consistent with a
pattern of wanting to put down roots. During that time, the skills people have learned and
the job search strategies they once used may become outdated — especially as
technology evolves ever more quickly.
The cure for these drawbacks is fairly straightforward. Once you hit your early
40s, even if you are not looking for a job, work to learn new skills and stretch yourself,
Professor Wanberg said. Also, keep your networks strong by staying in touch with
former colleagues and classmates, along with current co-workers and clients whom you
don’t see regularly, she said.
Finding a job after 50 doesn’t have to be as discouraging as it is often portrayed
to be, Professor Wanberg said. Just recognize that some of the obstacles you face are
inherent to the aging process, she said. She stressed that her findings reflected only
averages and that individual behavior varies greatly. Certainly, many older people
maintain wide social circles and often learn skills. But in general, older job seekers must
take more steps to find employment than younger ones, she said.
Once older workers do find a new employer, they can use their knowledge,
wisdom and emotional intelligence — qualities that older people often possess in
abundance — to thrive in their new positions.

11. The word "gloom-and-doom" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by
…………….
A. hopeless C. cheerful
 B. interesting D. strange
12. According to the study, which age group has the least unemployed time?
A. less than 20 C. from 30 to 49
B. from 20 to 29 D. over 50
13. In the third paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence “It’s not very unusual
for everybody to think that the reason for the difficulty in finding jobs at 50s is
discrimination"?
A. People do not usually think about the cause of discrimination in finding jobs at
50s.
B. People do not usually think that discrimination is the reason for the difficulty at
50s.
C. People commonly believe that finding jobs at 50s causes discrimination.
D. People commonly believe that discrimination makes finding jobs at 50s difficult.

14. The word "their" in paragraph 4 refers to …………….

A. the researchers B. older people
C. social networks D. younger people
15. The word "critical" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ………………..
A. huge C. trivial
B. demanding D. important
16. What advice does Professor Wanberg give to over 50 year-old job seekers when
they are still at early 40s?
A. maintaining small but strong social networks
B. becoming aware of their strengths
C. learning new skills and keeping wide social circles
D. staying in the same job longer.
17. The word "these drawbacks" in paragraph 6 refers to ……………….
A. outdated skills and job search strategies
B. small numbers of connection networks
C. lost social circles with co-workers and clients
D. low quality and small quantity of relationships
18. What of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
A. Finding a job after 50 is not at all hopeless
B. Older people hardly learn new skills and maintain wide social networks
C. Older people often have many good qualities
D. Findings of the study does not hold true for all older people.
19. Which of the following would best describe Professor Wanberg's attitude towards
finding a job after 50?
A. hopeless C. optimistic
B. frustrated D. discouraging
20. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. To report the difficulties of finding jobs at 50s.
B. To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of 50 year-old job seekers.
C. To warn people against skipping jobs at later ages.
D. To raise awareness on the importance of maintaining social connections and
learning new skills at early stages.
PASSAGE 3: Questions 21-30
Vietnam is a development success story. Political and economic reforms launched
in 1986 have transformed the country from one of the poorest in the world, with per
capita income around US $100, to lower middle income status within a quarter of a
century with per capita income of around US$2,100 by the end of 2015.
Vietnam’s per capita GDP growth since 1990 has been among the fastest in the
world, averaging 5.5 percent a year since 1990, and 6.4 percent per year in the 2000s.
Vietnam’s economy continued to strengthen in 2015, with estimated GDP growth rate of
6.7 percent for the whole year.
Not only are incomes higher, but the Vietnamese population is better educated and
has a higher life expectancy than most countries with a similar per capita income. The
maternal mortality ratio has dropped below the upper-middle-income country average,
while under-five mortality rate has fallen by half, to a rate slightly above that average.
Access to basic infrastructure has also improved substantially. Electricity is now available
to almost all households, up from less than half in 1993. Access to clean water and
modern sanitation has risen from less than 50 percent of all households to more than 75
percent.
Vietnam’s Socio-Economic Development Strategy (SEDS) 2011-2020 gives
attention to structural reforms, environmental sustainability, social equity, and emerging
issues of macroeconomic stability. It defines three "breakthrough areas": (i) promoting
human resources/skills development (particularly skills for modern industry and
innovation), (ii) improving market institutions, and (iii) infrastructure development.
In addition to the elaboration of three SEDS breakthrough areas, the five-year
Socio-Economic Development Plan 2011-2015 focused on three critical restructuring
areas – the banking sector, state-owned enterprises and public investment -- that are
needed to achieve these objectives. The recent draft of the SEDP 2016-2020
acknowledges the slow progress of the reform priorities of the SEDP 2011-2015 and
emphasizes the need to accelerate these reforms in 2016-2020 to achieve the targets set in
the 10-year strategy.
Vietnam also faces an unfinished economic modernization and structural
transformation agenda. Part of this relates to maximizing the gains from the ongoing
structural transformations that have been a major contributor to growth since the early
2000s.
With agriculture still accounting for almost half the labor force, and with
significantly lower labor productivity than in the industry and services sectors, future
gains from structural transformation could be substantial. The transformation from state to
private ownership of the economy is even less advanced. The state also wields too much
influence in allocating land and capital, giving rise to heavy economy wide inefficiencies.
So, adjusting the role of the state to support a competitive private sector–led market
economy remains a major opportunity. This will be important for enhancing productivity
growth which has been stagnating for a long time. Vietnam needs more rapid
productivity growth to underpin sustained rapid growth in order to achieve its objective of
reaching upper middle income status in the next few decades.
21. It took Vietnam about ________ years to move from the poorest to the middle income
status.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
22. What was Vietnam’s per capita GDP growth rate in 2015?
A. 5.5%
B. 6.4%
C. 6.7%
D. 7.5%
23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of development in Vietnam?
A. The wide availability of electricity
B. The improved access to cleanliness
C. The larger number of people educated abroad
D. The small number of people dead after birth

24. According to the passage, nearly ________ of the households did NOT get access to
clean water in 2015.
A. a quarter
B. a half
C. two-thirds
D. three quarters
25. According to the passage, what is NOT an example of “breakthrough areas”?
A. transport
B. job training
C. toad markets
D. power supplies
26. What is NOT a focus of the Socio-Economic Development Plan 2011-2015?
A. investing in profitable private businesses
B. spending money on education and health
C. changing the sum charged for use of money
D. reforming the government’s companies
27. Which of the following can best replace the word “accelerate” in paragraph 5?
A. speed up
B. slow down
C. maintain
D. check
28. What does the word “stagnating” in the last paragraph mean?
A. making progress
B. missing opportunities
C. stopping developing
D. strengthening competitiveness

29. What is likely to be over-controlled by the government?

A. agriculture
B. heavy industries
C. services sectors
 D. private companies
30. What is the tone of the passage?
A. ironic
B. critical
C. humorous
D. disapproving