LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGIST (LEC)

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (CDI)

POST-LECTURE EXAMINATION

1. This process is concerned with the identity, location and arrest of a person who is suspected of a crime and
simultaneously identifies, collects, preserves and evaluates evidence for the purpose of bringing such a person to justice.
a. Investigation
b. Criminal investigator
c. Crime Probe
d. Prober

2. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime committed by
Vincent?
a. Parricide
b. Murder
c. Homicide
d. None of them

3. This is a very vital factor in criminal investigation and in molding professional investigators.
a. Instrumentation
b. Training
c. Police Tools
d. Tools of Criminal Investigation

4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things can be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, facilitate,
and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives of criminal investigation.
a. Information
b. Criminalistics
c. Instrumentation
d. Interview/Interrogation

5. The term investigation came from the Latin word ___ which means to track or to look into or trace.
a. Invistigare
b. Investiger
c. Investigare
d. Investigate

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the responsibilities of a crime prober?

a. To ascertain the guilt of the offender by means of gathering critical items to prove it.
b. To keep the anonymity of the person who did such unlawful act
c. To take a person into custody in order that such person can face the complaint brought before him/her
d. To Identify, Locate, and arrest a person who commits crime

7. Whose stories about a fictional character who contributed to the appreciation of forensic science in the solution of
criminal cases?
a. Francis Galton
b. William Shakespeare
c. Sherlock Holmes
d. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle

8. In this kind of surveillance, the subject is aware that he is being followed; wherein the subject is a material witness and
must be protected from harm or other undesirable influences.
a. Close Tail
b. Casing
c. Rough Tail
d. Roping

9.This is the stage of the investigation where there is strict observance of the “MIRANDA DOCTRINE”
a. Miranda VS Arizona
b. Crime Scene Investigation
c. Interview & Interrogation
d. Custodial Investigation

10. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confessions which are usually a/ an___.
a. judicial
b. extrajudicial
c. prosecutorial
d. admission

11. As an investigator, what is your primary job before ascertaining how an offense has been committed?
a. By conducting an interview with the witness surrounding the commission of the crime
b. By discovering whether or not an offense has been carried out
c. By undergoing interrogation against the perpetrator to find out what crime was committed
d. By making judgment using the evidence presented in the court

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12. Legally, when is death considered to have occurred?
i. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
ii. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
iii. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
a. 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3

13. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by
friction against a hard rough surface is___________________.
a. Contusion
b. Abrasions
c. Patterned wound
d. Hematoma

14. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death is___________________.
a. livor mortis
b. levor mortis
c. lavor mortis
d. None of these

15. The following are the element of homicide EXCEPT

a. A killing exists
b. The killing was done by means of self defense
c. The killing is neither murder, parricide, nor infanticide
d. The accused did the act without legal justification and with intent to kill

16. A public safety officer who is tasked to conduct the investigation of all criminal cases as provided for and embodied
under the Revised Penal Code/Criminal Laws and Special Laws which are criminal in nature. A well-trained, disciplined
and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and responsibilities is called a Criminal
Investigator as stated in the Philippine National Police Manual. What is an act committed or omitted in violation of a public
law?
a. Criminal Investigator
b. Investigator
c. Crime
d. Felony

17. P/Lt. Ford Zyrus, an investigator who has an uncanny way of determining the identity of a guilty party, is always being
asked for help when it comes to investigation. At what particular cardinal point of investigation is P/Lt. Zyrus good at?
a. What
b. Who
c. Why
d. How

18. What aggravating circumstance is present when the offended party was not given the opportunity to make a defense?
a. Employing means to weaken the defense
b. Means to afford impunity
c. Taking advantage of superior strength
d. Treachery

19. A and B are husband and wife. While working as a security guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night and decided to go
home around midnight and saw B having sexual intercourse with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and hacked the latter to
death. As a Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any would you charge against A?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. None because A is exempted from criminal liability pursuant to Article 247 of the RPC

20. Interrogation is commonly applied to a suspect who is reluctant to give information to the investigators. Is there an
instance where a witness may be interrogated?
a. No, only those suspect under custody
b. Yes, if he is a hostile witness
c. No, he is just a witness
d. Yes, depends on the interrogator's mood

21. A killed B using fire. What crime did the latter commit?
a. Murder
b. Arson with Homicide
c. Arson
d. No crime committed

22. This kind of wound is produced by sharp edged instruments.

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 a. Incised wound
b. Lacerated wound
c. Stabbed wound
d. Puncture wound

23. Produced by a blunt instrument., this kind of wound is characterized by irregular or jagged patterned wounds.
a. Incised wound
b. Lacerated wound
c. Stabbed wound
d. Puncture wound

24. Means which are unsanctioned by the rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of
fact.
a. Document
b. Corpus Delicti
c. Evidence
d. None of the above

25. The following crimes provided below are included in the category of Destruction of Life, EXCEPT
a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
c. Homicide and murder
d. Parricide

26. This refers to the manner in which the criminals perpetrated or accomplished the crime.
a. Pattern of Crime
b. Crime Mode
c. Modus Operandi
d. Trends of Crime

27. Death due to stab wounds is a combination of stabbing and ____:

a. Choking
b. Cutting
c. Slicing
d. Lacerating

28. The statement as to cause of death made by a person who has been physically injured, who has given all hope of
recovery and who subsequently dies of such injury is
a. Information
b. Dying Declaration
c. Res Gestae
d. Hearsay Evidence

29. If the gun was fired upward, there will be_____ on the suspect.
a. equal gun powder residue
b. More gun powder residue
c. Less gun powder residue
d. No Gun powder residue

30. It involves the first exposure of the criminal offense to the investigative process. It serves as the foundation of the
case, therefore it must be a proper foundation or the entire investigation is in jeopardy. This is called
a. Preliminary Investigation
b. Follow-up Investigation
c. Final Investigation
d. Either of the three

31. Any knowledge derived from any source which can be used as a basis or as a means for decision making to facilitate
the successful termination of a criminal investigation is called
a. Intelligence
b. Information
c. Instrumentation
d. all of the above

32. These are examples of data that could be used by the investigator to his investigation.
a. Statements from witnesses, suspects, and victims and pieces of evidence
b. Pieces of evidence and result of crime laboratory tests
c. Laboratory examinations of evidence
d. Statement of witnesses

33. In investigation, the act of listening to conversations without the use of any device is
a. Surveillance
b. Electronic Surveillance
c. Eavesdropping
d. Hearing Aid

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34. One method in criminal identifications wherein the investigator shows to a witness a variety of faces that may not
necessarily represent the face of the criminal. The photograph shown to the witness only represents different facial
features.
a. fingerprints
b. rogues gallery
c. general photograph method
d. cartography

35. Interrogation environment should be soundproof, no windows or views, and distraction should be kept at its minimum
during the interrogation process. Television may be on but be sure the volume is at its minimum.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. any of the three

36. It is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity (a cover story) in order
to obtain information.
a. Investigation
b. Tactical Interrogation
c. Roping
d. a and b

37. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the
identities or activities of subjects.
a. Observational Ability
b. Surveillance
c. Shadowing
d. Tailing

38. One method in criminal identification where latent prints from the crime scene are compared with the actual print of the
suspect. If the two are the same, the latent prints belong to the suspect.
a. fingerprints
b. rogues gallery
c. general photograph method
d. cartography

39. An act to prohibit and penalize wire tapping and other related violations of the privacy of communication and for other
purposes.
a. R.A. 4100
b. R.A. 4200
c. R.A. 4300
d. R.A. 4400

30. Under the Military, ________of information are gathered through overt method while _______are gathered through
covert method.
a. 80-85%; 15-20%
b. 80%; 20%
c. 99%; 1%
d. 90%; 10%

41. The following are purposes of interrogation, EXCEPT

a. To learn the identity of victims
b. To develop information that will lead to the recovery of the fruits of the crime
c. To develop additional leads for the investigation of the crime
d. To discover details of any other crime in which the suspect participated

42. Police Officer Ponso noticed that there was insufficient information he gathered when he interviewed one witness at
the crime scene. He also needs to clarify some information that is not clear to him so he tried to contact the witness and
asked for some questioning again. This is at what stage of investigation?
a. Preliminary
b. Follow-up
c. Final
d. Conclusion

43. One technique in interrogation wherein the subject is placed in the proper frame of mind. The investigator provides
emotional stimuli that will prompt the subject to unburden himself by confiding.
a. Emotional Approach
b. Sympathetic Approach
c. Mutt and Jeff Approach
d. Jolting Approach

44. The formal systematic questioning of a criminal suspect for the purpose of securing confession.
a. custodial investigation

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 b. custodial inquiry
c. interrogation
d. interview

45. The questioning of witnesses, suspects and offended parties.

a. Information
b. Interview and Interrogation
c. Instrumentation
d. Investigation

46. The most common form of evidence and it is obtained through interview and interrogation is
a. common evidence
b. documentary evidence
c. physical evidence
d. testimonial evidence

47. The sketch that pictures the scene of the crime with its nearest surroundings (e.g. house with a garden) is
a. Sketch of Locality
b. Sketch of Ground
c. Sketch of Detail
d. Sketch of the Scene

48. Juan was arrested by police officers and brought him to the police station. He was tortured and was forced to admit
the crime charged against him. As a result he confessed. What type of confession was made?
a. Judicial Confession
b. Non-judicial Confession
c. Extrajudicial Confession
d. Involuntary confession

49. This involves the process of allowing a witness to select the primary suspect from a group of chosen persons (suspect
and innocent person).
a. dactyloscopy
b. show-up
c. police line
d. none of the above

50. Alberto, while being interrogated at the crime scene by Police Officer 01 Jessie Pil entered confession. Stating that
“yes, I shot him (the victim) with my caliber 50 firearm”. This is an example of ___________.
a. Judicial Confession
b. Non-judicial Confession
c. Extra Confession
d. Involuntary confession

51. DNA is a chemical substance found in all cells and individuals has a unique DNA and only __ shares the same DNA
pattern.
a. mother and child
b. father and child
c. brothers and sisters
d. identical twins

52. The muscular change upon death is about 20 to 30 minutes and is characterized by relaxation of the muscles and loss
of their natural tone.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity
b. Cadaveric spasm
c. Post mortem rigidity
d. Lividity

53. Evidence which changes quickly, such as skid marks, the wounds and bruises will heal and disappear before the case
comes into trial. Such evidence can be preserved by:
a. Pickling method and introduce in court
b. photography and introduce in court
c. casting and molding and introduce in court
d. all of the foregoing

54. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is elongated and the splashed wound to be concentrated
around one end. As a general rule, splashes and the extension of the drop of blood indicates:
a. route
b. flesh blood
c. dried stains
d. direction of movement

55. All are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by police officer who first responded to the crime
scene of murder committed indoors, EXCEPT:
a. keep the witness separated

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 b. discuss the crime with persons who witness the incident
c. record the time of discovery of crime
d. notify immediate superior officer but do not leave the scene

56. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever possible,
otherwise he should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This statement is
applicable to:
a. chain of custody of evidence
b. cardinal rules in investigation
c. Special crime investigation
d. to establish the quality of evidence

57. Articles and materials which are found in connection with the investigation and which aids in establishing the identity
of the perpetrators and the circumstance in which the crime was committed and assist in the prosecution of criminal.
a. corpus delicti
b. fruits of the crime
c. physical evidence
d. all of the above

58. The most simplest and effective way of showing the actual measurement and identifying a significant items of
evidence in their location at the scene is:
a. photograph
b. graphing
c. sketch
d. all of the above

59. Physical evidence is generally given weight by court because:

a. It speaks for itself
b. It is not affected by emotions
c. It cannot lie
d. all of the above

60. Wounds usually found at the hands of a victim who had been trying to deflect cuts as a means to survive.
a. hesitation cuts
b. incision wounds
c. defense wounds
d. cut

61. Professional criminals who organize carefully, plan with ingenuity, attack boldly and are equipped with sophisticated
fire power. Their main target is the vault of the bank and they put all the money inside a bag and escape is made.
a. bank robbery
b. payrolls robbery
c. armored vehicles robbery
d. bank messengers robbery

62. The process of recognizing, searching, collecting, preserving, and documenting physical evidence at the crime scene.
It covers the process of identifying and interviewing witnesses and/or victims at the crime scene, including on-the-spot
arrest of suspects. There are two primary objectives of this operation – to establish what happened and to identify the
responsible person/s. Establishing what happened and identifying the perpetrators can be achieved by carefully
documenting the conditions of the crime scene and recognizing all relevant physical evidence.
a. crime scene reconstruction
b. crime scene processing
c. crime scene documentation
d. crime scene investigation

63. A bizarre form of sexual pleasure. Persons who are susceptible to these accidents purposely cut off the supply of
blood to their brain while masturbating. The reduced oxygenation of the brain reportedly gives them a heightened sexual
experience. Occasionally, they die during such acts. But they do not intend to kill themselves.
a. violent masturbation
b. sexual asphyxia
c. asphyxia
d. masochism

64. The ___________ is done if the investigator is satisfied that all pieces of evidence have been recovered. Thus, the
investigator must evaluate the items recovered from the results of interrogation of the suspect/s and the interview of the
witnesses.
a. cordoning of the crime scene
b. turning over of the crime scene
c. release of the crime scene
d. cleaning of the crime scene

65. A method of interrogation that the first investigator appears to be rough, mean and dangerous while the second
intervenes by stopping the former.
a. Mutt and Jeff

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 b. Angel and Demon
c. Sweet and Sour
d. Rationalization

66. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means_____________________________.

a. Extent the estimate of the scene
b. Search physical evidence at the scene
c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the crowd to listen to their conversation
d. None of the above

67. One of the tools of criminal investigation which may be acquired and gathered by the investigator through knowledge
from other persons and places.
a. Interview
b. Information
c. Interrogation
d. Instrumentation

68. With treachery, taking advantage of superior strength, with the aid of armed men, or employing means to weaken the
defense or of means or persons to insure or afford impunity are some of the elements of the crime of Murder. As such, are
all these circumstances necessary to be present during the commission of the crime, for the killing to be considered a
consummated murder?
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. No
d. Sometimes

69. Mr. Police Officer, as a general rule, can you arrest a person with a warrant of arrest?
a. No, because that would be a violation of the 1987 Philippine Constitution, Article III, Section 1
b. Yes, by means of In Flagrante Delicto or Caught in the act
c. No, because you must have a warrant of arrest to apprehend a suspect.
d. Yes

70. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
c. Uncle, aunt, ward
d. Relatives, paramour

71. What is the distinct pattern of how the crime was committed and established by a series of crimes under more than
one classification?
a. Associative evidence
b. Confession
c. Modus operandi
d. Tracing evidence

72. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and is considered to be the simplest and the most effective way of
showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene. It is also the
one that is being presented in court proceedings as a reference of the crime scene.
a. Crime scene sketch
b. Rough sketch
c. Finished sketch
d. Direction sketch

73. The assisting lawyer on the subject must be:

a. Lawyer from PAO
b. Choice of his parents
c. Choice of the investigator
d. Competent lawyer of suspect’s choice

74. Accurate Investigation helps to ensure that only conduct which is in fact criminal is punished, and the innocent parties
will not be subjected to prosecution.
a. Community Safety
b. Deterrence to others
c. Future deterrence of offense
d. Protection of the innocent

75. When should the investigator evaluate the items recovered from the results of interrogation of the suspect/s and the
interview of the witnesses.
a. cordoning of the crime scene
b. turning over of the crime scene
c. release of the crime scene
d. cleaning of the crime scene

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76. Summary of the habits, peculiarities of behavior characterizing the operational procedure employed by certain
criminals.
a. Criminal Procedure
b. Planning
c. Modus Operandi
d. All of these

77. The person who is charged in carrying the task to accomplish the three-aim fold of investigation.
a. Investigator
b. Criminal acquaintances
c. Criminal investigation
d. Criminal Investigator

78. It is the role of the informers, EXCEPT:

a. Identifying the criminals or persons responsible for the crime.
b. Tracing or locating the criminal
c. Gathering of information that will lead to the location.
d. Arresting the suspect and turning over to the police for investigation.

79. Considered as the “Cardinal Points” to be answered in the course of investigation.

a. 5 W's and 1 H
b. 6 W’s and 2 H
c. 4 W’s and 1 H
d. 1 W and 5 H’s

80. The unit under the PNP charged with conducting field operation and technical investigation at the crime scene is:
a. SOCO
b. CIDG
c. Crime Laboratory Group
d. Forensic Group

81. This is for the effective identification of the location of criminals and objects through modern and special gadgets.
a. DNA test
b. Automatic Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS)
c. Global Positioning System (GPS)
d. All of these

82. The following are the people involved in the crime process, EXCEPT
a. Criminal
b. Victim
c. Witness
d. Prosecutor

83. A person who is the most difficult subject to deal with to testify.
a. Refusal to talk witness
b. Drunken witness
c. Boasting witness
d. Egoistic witness

84. Investigators P/Cpl. Mado R. Ugas and Pat. Lucky T. Tinio, proceed slowly at the same place along the path parallel
to one side of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle they turn and proceed back along a new lane but parallel to the
first move. What is the modified version of the search method that they exhibited?
a. Strip method
b. Spiral method
c. Zone method
d. None of the foregoing

85. The Golden Rule at the crime scene.

a. Cordon the area
b. Photograph the crime scene
c. Never touch any object at the crime scene unless photographed, noted, measured and indicated in the sketch
d. Conduct surveillance.

86. A Criminal Investigator is a person who is in charge of carrying out the objectives of the investigation such as to
identify the guilty party, to locate the guilty party and to provide evidence of his guilt. Thus, he performed the following
role;
1. Determine that the crime has been committed
2. Identify the victim and the offender
3. Locate and apprehend the suspect and present evidence of his guilt
4. Ensure that the criminal offenders are punished
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4

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87. The following are NOT tools of Investigation, EXCEPT
a. Information
b. Interview/Interrogation
c. Instrumentation
d. All of the foregoing

88. Under this act, the Crime Laboratory was established consisting of technical people tasked with processing and
collection of physical evidence at the crime scene. :
a. Scene Of The Crime Operations (SOCO)
b. Logistics Of The Crime Operation (LOCO)
c. Scene of the Gang operation (SOGO)
d. R.A. 8551

89. Crime committed along the road, street, or along the avenue.
a. Indoor crimes
b. Outdoor crimes
c. Heinous crimes
d. Street crimes

90. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the stiffening of the body after death
a. Regor mortis
b. Rigor mortis
c. Rogor mortis
d. All of the above

91. This is a suspect’s pattern or method of procedure in committing his/her crimes.

a. Modus Operandi
b. Treachery
c. Technique
d. Operation

92. Means sanctioned by the rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact.
a. Document
b. Corpus Delicti
c. Evidence
d. Testimony

93. The following are the rules in the admissibility of evidence, EXCEPT ONE
a. Relevancy
b. Individuality
c. Materiality
d. Competency

94. An SUV falls under what category of Physical evidence?

a. Indestructible Evidence
b. Movable Evidence
c. Fixed Evidence
d. Destructible Evidence

95. Physical evidence which may identify the criminal by means of clues or personal properties is known as:
a. Tracing evidence
b. Associative evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Real evidence

96. It is the process of identifying witnesses of the unknown fugitives who are mixed with innocent persons formed before
the witness.
a. Police line – up
b. Process of identification
c. Physical identification
d. Selection process

97. An institution that develops a future police investigator in the field of crime detection and investigation.
a. National Bureau Investigation (NBI)
b. Philippine National Police Training Institute (PNPTI)
c. Department of Interior and Local Government (DILG)
d. National Forensic Science and Training Institute (NFSTI)

98. An isolated case wherein the investigator together with SOCO is not allowed to conduct immediate crime scene
investigation without the clearance or approval from the Bomb and Explosive unit.
a. Bombing
b. Drowning
c. Poisoning

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 d. Arson

99. A direct acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his guilt as to the crime charged.
a. Confession
b. Deposition
c. Admission
d. Acknowledgement

100. The person who provides the investigation with confidential information concerning a past crime or a
projected/planned crime and does not wish to be known.
a. Informer
b. Surveillant
c. Confidential
d. Confederates

101. These are articles and material which are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in establishing the
identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which, in general, assist in the
prosecution of the criminal.
a. Physical Evidence
b. Associative Evidence
c. Corpus Delicti
d. Tracing Evidence

102. This is the questioning of a person believed to possess knowledge that is in official interest to the investigator.
a. Interrogation
b. Interview
c. Recording
d. None of the above

103. Which of the following is not an investigative procedure to be undertaken on mutilated remain cases?
a. Take note of the time, date, place as well as the circumstances surrounding the recovery of the mutilated
remains
b. Seek the assistance of a medico legal officer
c. The investigator need NOT strive hard to recover other parts
d. Establish if possible the identification of the victim

104. This is otherwise known as the Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1974.
a. PD 532
b. PD 1612
c. PD 533
d. Art 122, RPC, Book II

105. A kind of death that is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the
vital functions of the body on account of disease, external stimulus, it may arise especially in hysteria, uremia, catalepsy
and electric shock.
a. Somatic Death
b. Molecular Death
c. Apparent Death
d. Clinical Death

106. An individual is said to be dead in the medical sense when one of the three vital functions is no longer performing
within the body.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes

107. The first action of an investigator upon arriving at the scene of the homicide is the --
a. Verification of the identity of the deceased
b. Verification of death
c. Interview of the first responder to the crime scene
d. Identification of possible witnesses

108. This is otherwise known as the study of dental evidence.

a. Forensic Pathology
b. Forensic Medicine
c. Forensic Chemistry
d. Forensic Odontology

109. The crime of parricide is penalized under what specific article of the Revised Penal Code of the Philippines?
a. Art 246
b. Art 247
c. Art 248
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 d. None of them

100. A public officer or employee when not being authorized by judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the
owner thereof is committing:
a. Illegal Entry
b. Trespass to Dwelling
c. Violation of Domicile
d. None of the above

111. It is the investigator’s responsibility to ensure that every precaution is exercised to preserve the evidence.
a. Tagging of evidence
b. Preservation of evidence
c. Evaluation of evidence
d. Releasing of evidence

112. The fundamental responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime scene is:
a. Interrogate the witnesses
b. Engage in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by the criminal
c. Remove of evidence which may prove importance to the case
d. Preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator

113. Which of the following is NOT a physical sign of deception?

a. Pulsation of the carotid (neck) artery
b. Excessive activity of the adam’s apple
c. Dryness of the mouth
d. None of them

114. Injury that will incapacitate the subject for more than 90 days.
a. Slight physical injury
b. Less serious physical injury
c. Serious physical injury
d. Mutilation

115. This wound is characterized by the removal of the superficial layer of the skin brought about by friction against a hard
rough surface.
a. Abrasion
b. Incised
c. Lacerated
d. Punctured

116. He was a New York chief of detective who popularized the Modus Operandi file in the late 19th century.
a. Allan Pinkerton
b. Thomas Byrnes
c. Henry Fielding
d. Alphonse Bertillon

117. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants, or his
spouse, is guilty of what crime?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. None of them

118. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide, EXCEPT:
a. The accused killed a person with justifying circumstances
b. The accused had the intention to kill which is presumed
c. The killing was not attended by any qualifying circumstances enumerated under Art. 248
d. The killing of the persons is neither parricide, murder nor infanticide

119. The purpose of scientific means available to determine how the crime was committed and what happened is to
__________.
a. Process Crime Scene
b. Collect Evidence
c. Preserve Evidence
d. Reconstruct the Scene

120. In this method of search, the area is considered as being approximately circular.
a. Strip Method
b. Spiral Method
c. Zone Method
d. Wheel Method

121. Which among the following words is best described as specific?

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 a. Cal .45 Revolver
b. Weapon
c. Firearm
d. Pistol

122. A person undergoing criminal investigation enjoys his three constitutional rights.
a. The right to oppose whatever the accusation on him
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
c. The right to oppose whatever accusation or him based on his constitutional right
d. The rights to remain silent, to counsel, and to be informed of the nature of the accusation

123. the lawful act of restraining a person believed to have committed a crime and placing him under custody is termed
as:
a. Imprisonment
b. Apprehend
c. Restraint
d. Detention

124. Maintenance made up of all those who had custody of the evidence since its acquisition by a police agency to ensure
continuous accountability defines ________.
a. Chain of Custody
b. Transfer of Evidence
c. Custodial Accountability
d. All of Them

125. Information must be filed in court if the prosecutor determined the existence of _________________.
a. Commission of crime
b. Prima facie evidence
c. Corpus delicti
d. Probable cause

126. Dismembered or cut up parts of the human body such as hand, feet, torso, sex organ, and others which are thrown
to different places to conceal a crime is called ______?
a. Chop-chop
b. Mutilated
c. Mutilated Remains
d. Mutilation

127. In police jargon, the collection of photographs of criminals taken by the police for identification purposes is _______?
a. Cartographic Files
b. Physical Line-Up
c. Rogues Gallery
d. Criminal Record

128. Alevosia is an aggravating circumstance of murder. Alevosia is the latin word for __________?
a. Heinous Intent
b. Sabotage
c. Cruelty
d. Treachery

129. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
a. Motive
b. Intent
c. Modus Operandi
d. Background

130. Its identification establishes indirectly proving other facts or circumstances from which, either alone or in connection
with other facts, the identity of the offender can be inferred.
a. Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence
b. Physical evidence
c. Circumstantial evidence
d. Testimony of witnesses

131. The following are the three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion to their
necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal action.
a. Criminalistics, Confession & Admission
b. Information, Interrogation & Instrumentation
c. Motive, Intent and Circumstantial evidence
d. Investigation, Criminalistics & Prosecution

132. It may be defined as the application of instruments and methods of physical science to the detection of crime.
a. Forensic Chemistry
b. Instrumentation
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 c. Criminalistics
d. All of the above

133. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is possible,
otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This statement is best
applicable to:
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Three tools in criminal investigation
c. Cardinal rules in criminal investigation
d. All of the above

134. The doctrine stating that evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible in evidence in court refers:
a. Silver platter doctrine
b. Miranda doctrine
c. Best evidence rule
d. Doctrine of the poisonous tree

135. It is the simplest and most common one used in diagramming crime scenes.
a. Exploded view
b. Cross projection sketch
c. Bird’s eye view
d. Elevation sketch

136. Which of the following is NOT among the rules to be observed in questioning.
a. Saving faces
b. Simplicity of the question
c. Accept implied answer
d. One question at a time

137. The following are the purposes of investigation EXCEPT ONE.

a. To establish that in fact a crime was committed
b. To identify and apprehend the victim
c. To recover stolen property
d. To assist the state in prosecuting the party charged with the offense

138. Corpus delicti means what?

a. Body of the crime
b. There is a crime
c. The body of the victim
d. All are correct

139. 1st statement: When a person kills another by means of shipwreck the crime is murder. 2nd statement: When the
killing was with evident premeditation the crime is murder.
a. Both statements are correct
b. Only the first statement is correct
c. Only the second statement is correct
d. Both statements are incorrect.

140. The application of the same or substantially the same pattern, plan, system of a particular offender in committing a
crime is known as.
a. Premeditation
b. Plan of action
c. Plan
d. Modus operandi

141. Some specific types of physical evidence should be considered at robbery scenes, and these are as follows,
EXCEPT:
a. Fingerprints
b. Trace materials
c. Stolen properties
d. Weapons used

142. It is the taking of personal property belonging to another, and with intent to gain, by means of violence against, or
intimidation of any person, or using force upon things.
a. Robbery
b. Brigandage
c. Theft
d. Kleptomania

143. The following are the elements of rape as provided by the anti-rape law, EXCEPT:
a. that the offender commits an act of sexual assault
b. the act of sexual assault is committed by inserting penis or any instrument or object

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 c. the act of sexual assault is accomplished by using force of intimidation, the woman is deprived of reason or
otherwise unconscious, by fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of authority, and the woman is under 12
years of age
d. having carnal knowledge by a man to a woman

144. When two or more persons come to an agreement concerning the commission of a crime, and decide to commit the
same, it is called as:
a. Band
b. Organized Criminal Group
c. Drug Syndicate
d. Conspiracy

145. This is otherwise known as the Anti-Torture Act of 2009.

a. RA 7438
b. RA 9745
c. RA 9165
d. RA 9708

146. In general, it may be stated that death has been caused by violence; an autopsy is always performed unless there is
adequate proof to the contrary.
a. True
b. False
c. Either
d. Neither

147. WHich is NOT true in the conduct of medico-legal autopsy?

a. It is conducted by a medico-legal officer
b. An autopsy should be performed at once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of
homicide.
c. The investigator on case can explain the autopsy findings as they progress
d. During the conduct of autopsy, an investigator can observe first hand and ask questions pertinent to the case
under investigation.

148. A leading judicial decision of the US supreme court that established procedural guidelines for taking criminal
confessions.
a. Pp Vs Miranda
b. Mapp Vs Ohio
c. Miranda vs Arizona
d. None Of These

149. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the intent to kill the victim. if there is no intent to kill, the
offender is liable for-
a. Physical injury
b. Serious physical injury
c. Homicide
d. Consummated serious physical injury

150. A U.S. Supreme Court decision that leads to the birth of the doctrine of “fruit of poisonous tree”?
A. Mapp vs Ohio
B. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs US
C. Miranda vs Arizona
D. Nardone vs US

151. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic congestion or where “build up” usually occurs is
called_______________.
A. Gridlock
B. Congestion
C. Traffic jam
D. Bottleneck

152. What is the chronological arrangement of the color of the traffic lights from the top?
A. Yellow, red, green
B. Green, red, yellow
C. Red, yellow, green
D. Green, yellow, red

153. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light and sounding
a siren?
a. Stop the car abruptly
b. Continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging
c. Yield at the right of way and wait for the passage of the vehicle
d. Disregard the red light and siren

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154. The following are some reasons why people violate traffic laws, EXCEPT:
a. Ignorance of traffic laws, rules and regulation
b. Mental Disorder
c. Habitual traffic violators
d. None of these

155. Traffic lights are useful means of regulating traffic. It is chronologically arranged from top to bottom as red, yellow
and green. When approaching an intersection where the flashing yellow is on, the motorist should _____.
a. Stop and proceed with caution
b. Slow down and proceed with caution
c. Go faster so that you will not be beaten by the red light
d. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction

156. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to drive. What is the evidence that
you will ask him to show to prove that he is allowed by the Land Transportation Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on
public highways?
A. driver’s ID
B. franchise
C. driver’s license
D. operator’s license

157. An accident involving travel transportation on a traffic way.

A. traffic damage accident
B. motor traffic injury
C. accident
D. traffic accident

158. On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as the maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a man drives at 80
kph. If you are a traffic patrol officer assigned at the area, you may apprehend the driver for:
A. overspeeding
B. underspeeding
C. reckless driving
D. failure to slow down

159. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic light is on; however, a police officer suddenly proceeds to the
center and signals a motorist to stop. What should the motorist do?
a. Ignore the police officer and proceed with caution
b. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
c. Ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
d. Ignore the police officer and stop only when a second signal is made

160. A passage of wide sections cut through a hill or sea to shorten the circuitous roadway.
a. Skyway
b. Expressway
c. Subway
d. Tunnel

161. Used when a traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but was preoccupied at the time.
A. visual warning
B. written warning
C. verbal warning
D. oral warning

162. The most familiar traffic sign, it is red and white and it is eight -sided,
a. Stop sign
b. Warning sign
c. Informative sign
d. Identification sign

163. A Samaritan and a good and experienced driver who has no driver’s license brought a dying man to the hospital with
the neighbor’s car, can they charge him with a violation?
A. Maybe
B. It depends
C. No
D. Yes

164. Responsible for imposition of fines and penalties and adjudication of traffic related cases.
a. Courts
b. LTFRB
c. Police Traffic Supervision
d. LGU

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165. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide pedestrians with safety zones when
crossing:
A. Pedestrian
B. Lane
C. Crosswalk
D. Stop lines

166. Which of the following agencies is responsible for the registration of motor vehicles?
a. LTFRB
b. DOTr
c. LTO
d. MMDA

167. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the DPWH, City Engineer’s Office,
City or Municipal Council’s, etc.
A. Traffic Engineering
B. Traffic Education
C. Traffic Enforcement
D. Traffic Economy

168. A person who is carried or conveyed in a car, truck, train, airplane or other conveyance.
a. Driver
b. Passenger
c. Conductor
d. Pedestrian

169. One who goes or travels on foot or in a perambulator.

a. Driver
b. Passenger
c. Conductor
d. Pedestrian

170. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left”
B. “keep to the right”
C. none of these
D. “watch out”

171. The following are the primary aims of signal control, EXCEPT:
a. To reduce traffic conflicts and delays
b. To economize police time
c. To increase accident
d. None of these

172. Permit the driver to proceed into the intersection, but requires that the intersection's furthest crosswalk be cleared
before the red light appears.
a. Red Color sign
b. Yellow or Amber color signal
c. Green Color Signal
d. Blue Color Signal

173. The following agencies are involved in the traffic Enforcement, EXCEPT
a. DOTr
b. DENR
c. LTO
d. LTFRB

174. The following agencies are involved in traffic Management, EXCEPT

a. Department of public works and highways
b. Land Transportation Office
c. Metro Manila Development authority
d. None of these

175. 1st – Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a privilege

2nd – Driver’s License is issued to a person, who has all the qualification as provided by law
3rd – Driver’s License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are correct
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct

176. These are areas within the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical channels through which vehicular
traffic is guided.
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 a. traffic rules
b. pedestrian
c. traffic isle
d. traffic island

177. These are the lines usually white and yellow or a combination of yellow and white officially set on the roadway as
separation for motor vehicles traveling in the opposite direction.
a. motor vehicle line
b. traffic island
c. pavement markings
d. division island

178. As applied to a street or highway means the space occupied by two streets at the point where they cross each other.
Usually, this is the place where traffic direction and traffic control is needed.
a. intersection
b. roadway
c. traffic patrol
d. crosswalk

179. These are the raised portion in the middle of the traffic traversing in opposite directions and at the same time
preventing motorists from using the opposite lane for overtaking.
a. traffic island
b. pedestrian island
c. roadway
d. traffic lane

180. While this is obviously a court and prosecution function, the police provide influence on this step by acting as witness
to the prosecution or supplying additional evidence. This step determines the guilt or innocence of the accused.
a. Intersection
b. Apprehension
c. Adjudication
d. Law observation

181. It is that occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury, death, or property damage.
a. traffic injury
b. motor vehicle accident
c. accident
d. traffic accident damage

182. It is the first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
a. initial contact
b. disengagement
c. avoid contact
d. start of evasive action

183. Which of the following refers to the “Anti-Drunk and Drugged Driving Act of 2013”?
a. RA 10856
b. RA 10658
c. RA 10586
d. RA 10685

184. The following are exempted from the prescribed speed limits EXCEPT:
a. A Physician or his driver when the former responds to emergency calls.
b. The driver of a hospital ambulance on the way to and from the place of accident or other emergency
c. Any driver bringing a wounded or sick person for emergency treatment to a hospital, clinic, or any other similar
place.
d. The driver of a motor vehicle belonging to the armed forces

185. These are painted across pavement lanes at traffic signs or signals. Where these lines are present, you should stop
behind the stop line.
a. Rumble Strips
b. Stop Lines
c. Directional Arrows
d. None of the above

186. Tool marks, tire marks and foot impression, what kind of evidence are the following?
a. Trace evidence
b. Biological evidence
c. Associative evidence
d. Impression evidence

187. What is the modern procedure for coping with streets and highway traffic by improving road efficiency?
a. Traffic Engineering
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 b. Traffic Management
c. Traffic Education
d. Traffic Direction

188. Who makes the basic rules for using the road?
a. Educators
b. Police Officers
c. Law Makers
d. All of the above

189. If the driver is too fast in driving the car and it causes accidents and congestion, under what major cause of
congestion is this?
a. Physical Inadequacy
b. Poor Maintenance
c. Human Errors
d. Poor Control Measures

190. What Law Regulates the use of sirens, bells, horns, etc., By prohibiting the attachment of any siren, horn bell, etc. on
motor vehicles which produce unusual or startling sounds as well as blinkers and other similar devices unless the vehicle
belongs to the AFP, NBI, LTO, PNP, BJMP, Hospitals and Fire Departments and are specifically intended for use in
emergencies?
a. PD 603
b. RA 4136
c. RA 10586
d. PD 96

191. An act amending Republic Act No. 4136, otherwise known as the "Land Transportation and Traffic Code" extending
the Validity Period of Drivers' Licenses.
a. RA 10586
b. RA 10913
c. RA 10883
d. RA 10930

192. If you were given a license plate with last digits of 84, when should you register your vehicle?
a. Every January between 8-14
b. Every February between 1-7
c. Every April between 15-21
d. Every March between 22-31

193. You are a student driver using a legally issued permit for 25 days. If you were born in 2006 and today is 2024, using
the current applicable rules, can you now upgrade your permit to a non-professional driver’s license?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. It depends

194. During a traffic stop, you asked the PUJ driver his license which he promptly submitted. As you checked his non-
professional driver’s license, you noticed that something was out of order. What might be the concern?
a. The driver did not follow your instructions
b. The driver’s license is expired
c. The motor vehicle does not belong to the driver
d. The driver is not authorized to use the vehicle

195. What does the LTO Condition code no. 4 means?

a. Wear corrective lenses
b. Hearing aid required
c. With special equipment for upper/lower limbs
d. Daylight Driving only

196. No driver of a motor vehicle concerned in a vehicular accident shall leave the scene of the accident without aiding
the victim, EXCEPT under any of the following circumstances:
I. If he is in imminent danger of being seriously harmed by any person or persons by reason of the
accident;
II. If he reports the accident to the nearest officer of the law; or
III. If he has to summon a physician or nurse to aid the victim.

a. Statement no. 1 is correct while the rest are incorrect

b. Statement no. 2 is correct while the rest are incorrect
c. Statements no. 1, 2, and 3 are all correct
d. Statements no. 1, 2, and 3 are all incorrect

197. The unit of the PNP which is responsible to direct and control traffic, perform accident investigation, enforcement of
laws and issuing of citations.
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 a. Traffic Management Group
b. Highway Patrol Group
c. Logistics Support Service
d. Crime Detection and Investigation Group

198. In pursuant to RA 4136, this agency is tasked to enforce laws, rules and regulation governing the registration of
motor vehicles, operation of motor vehicle and traffic rules and regulation.
a. TMG
b. DOTr
c. LTFRB
d. LTO

199. Among the following, which is NOT considered to be an emergency vehicle?

a. Ambulance on emergency call
b. Vehicle with wounded or sick person
c. AFP/ PNP vehicle on official call
d. Vehicle registered to a physician

200. If you are the investigator, what particular physical evidence should be obtained in hit-and-run cases?
a. blood
b. fibers of clothing
c. debris
d. all of these

201. Which of the following is the “prima facie” existence of arson?

I. inflammable substance found in the premises
II. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
III. building insurance
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. I, II and III

202. Fire Investigator Ma Lou Wang found a burned body at a fire scene. He requested that such bodies be subjected to
autopsy. In the autopsy, they found out that the lungs and blood of the victim had no sign of abnormal quantities of carbon
monoxide. What should have been the reason?
a. because the victim died of suffocation
b. Because the victim was killed before he was burned
c. Because the victim died of burning
d. Because the victim died of asphyxia

203. Fire in which there are human casualties.

A. Deadly fire
B. Fatal fire
C. Spot fire
D. Arson

204. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called ___.
a. Oxidation
b. conduction
c. convection
d. radiation

205. It is one of the motives of the crime of arson, wherein the purpose is to distract police from other felonies being
committed.
A. concealment of crime
B. intimidation
C. emotional reasons
D. financial gain

206. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond the
designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
a. self- closing door
b. overloading
c. jumper
d. oxidizing material

207. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
A. Sulfides
B. Nitrates
C. Sulfur
D. Ammonia

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208. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids or gasses like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, and the likes.
a. Class D
b. Class C
c. Class A
d. Class B

209. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely
reason for taking this position?
a. The stream is projected farther
b. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
c. A backward force is developed which must be counteracted
d. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes

210. What is the most effective cooling agent for firefighting operations?
a. CO2
b. H20
c. dry powder
d. NaCl

211. If after the fire, materials or substances soaked in gasoline, kerosene, petroleum or other inflammables are found,
this constitutes _______________ in arson.
A. prima facie evidence
B. aggravating circumstance
C. corpus delicti
D. probable cause

212. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and
kerosene.
a. Accelerants
b. Timing device
c. Trailers
d. Stopper

213. In most cases, it is the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause of fire.
a. Evidence collection
b. Laboratory examination
c. Interrogation of suspects
d. Interview witnesses

214. These fires result from the burning of wood, paper, textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
A. Type “A”
B. Type “C”
C. Type “B”
D. Type “D”

215. Mechanical devices are strategically located in an installation or street where a fire hose is connected so that water
with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
a. fire hose box
b. hose reel
c. fire truck
d. fire hydrant

216. A fire extinguisher is very effective in suppressing fire because of the agent being inserted on it:
a. This statement is true
b. This statement is false
c. This statement is broad
d. This statement is contradictory

217. How do they describe water as a firefighting agent?

a. Considered as the Best fire fighting agent
b. Considered as the Excellent fire fighting agent
c. Considered as the Greatest fire fighting agent
d. All of the choices

218. If a fire investigator meticulously searched the fire scene, he is doing his responsibility which is:
a. Being an arsonist
b. Determining the cause of fire
c. Determining the origin of fire
d. Determining the readiness of men to fight fire

219. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of
different flammable vapor varies from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion
can begin.
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 a. Growth
b. Ignition
c. Fully Developed
d. Decay

220. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts
a. Ignition
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Radiation

221. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin.
a. Alligatoring
b. Crazing
c. Spalling
d. V pattern

222. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and density moves under
the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
a. Combustion
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Radiation

223. The term describes the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves.
a. Ignition
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Radiation

224. A pattern or network of fire, irregular lines commonly found in glass, or sometimes in wood.
a. Charring
b. Crazing
c. Alligatoring
d. Spalling

225. It is the willful and intentional setting of fire to destroy property and/or the preparation of a building for burning.
a. arson
b. fire
c. intentional fire
d. incendiary fire

226. These fires result from the burning of wood, paper, textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
a. Type “A”
B. Type “B”
c. Type “C”
d. Type “D”

227. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the occurrence of fire.
a. fire hazard
b. overloading
c. illegal connection
d. jumper

228. These are the detection methods used at the fire scene to determine presence of accelerants, EXCEPT.
a. visual observations
b. detection by scent
c. interview of witnesses
d. All of the above

229. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building structure or area which automatically
discharges water when activated by heat.
a. sprinkler system
b. hose box
c. standpipe system
d. hose reel

230. It is any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.

a. fire suppression
b. fire safety
c. fire prevention
d. abatement

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231. It is otherwise known as the Comprehensive Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008.
a. PD 1185
b. RA 9514
c. Art. 322 – 326, RPC
d. PD 1613

232. These are the elements of fire, EXCEPT:

a. fuel
b. oxygen
c. gas
d. heat

233. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?

a. Ignition point
b. Flash point
c. Temperature
d. Boiling point

234. If the fire is caused by flammable or combustible liquids, such as kerosene, gasoline, benzene, alcohol etc., It is said
to be classified as –
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire

235. This is the removing or transferring of people, livestock or property from a fire scene or those that are already directly
affected by fire.
a. Evacuation
b. Rescue
c. Confinement
d. Ventilation

236. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the
building is called
a. Sprinkle system
b. Vertical shaft
c. Vestibule
d. Standpipe system

237. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under the fire conditions.
a. Wood rack
b. Fire wall
c. Post wall
d. Fire trap

238. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach the same intersection from different directions,
creating a probability conflict, an officer directing traffic at the intersection must give preference to one and cause the
others to yield the right of way. Of the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given preferences over any
of the vehicle is the-
a. Ambulance
b. Police car
c. Fire truck
d. Wrecker

239. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is -

a. to see to it that the buildings are insured
b. to safeguard life
c. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free
d. to generate income for the government

240. The ____ shall be conducted as a prerequisite to grant permits and/or license by local governments or other
government agencies.
a. Fire safety inspection
b. Fire protection assembly
c. Fire alerting system
d. Fire service

241. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or
between two hard surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
a. static electricity
b. overheating of machine
c. friction heat
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 d. heat from arching

242. A murderer will set fire to a building to destroy all traces of the crime and make it appear that the victim perished in
the fire accidentally.
a. business rivalry
b. revenge
c. concealment of crime
d. insurance fraud

243. The colorless gas, insoluble in water and alcohol, that is formed from the incomplete combustion of carbon fuel such
as wood, oil, coal, kerosene and charcoal, also known as “silent killer” is
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Hydrogen sulfide
d. Hydrogen cyanide

244. The primary course of action in case of a fire.

a. pack up and flee
b. run for your life
c. call an ambulance
d. raise the alarm

245. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but causes asphyxia which lowers the proportion
of oxygen available for breathing.
a. carbon oxide
b. carbon monoxide
c. carbon paper
d. carbon dioxide

246. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

a. simultaneous fire
b. sudden sprinkler action
c. faulty electric wiring
d. unexplained explosion

247. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:
a. murder with arson
b. arson with murder
c. murder
d. arson

248. What is a portable metal device used to put out fires of limited size?
a. fire hose
b. fire hydrant
c. fire extinguisher
d. fire truck

249. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
a. Pyromaniac
b. Pyromania
c. Pyrotechnic
d. Pyrophobia

250. Aside from heat, another product of combustion are:

I. Light
II. Smoke
III. Gasses
IV. Oxygen
a. I, II and III
b. I and III only
c. I only
d. II and IV only

251. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means of dangerous drugs to the body by one person to another is
__________.
A. Drug use
B. Administer
C. Taking
D. Addict

252. This kind of drug was the one of the first to be used by mankind. This was used for many centuries for healing,
recreation, and in religious ceremonies.
a. Marijuana
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 b. Tobacco
c. Illicit drugs
d. Herbal drugs

253. These drugs are also called “Psychedelics”, a drug that causes hallucinations. Psychoactive drugs that cause
subjective change in perception, thought, emotion, and consciousness.
a. Stimulants
b. Downers
c. Hallucinogens
d. Narcotics/Opiates

254. The act was repealed by R.A. 9165.

a. R.A. 6524
b. R.A. 6325
c. R.A. 6452
d. R.A. 6425

255. MDMA is commonly known as Methylenedioxymethamphetamine. Which of the following is NOT one of the other
names of the drug? :
a. Joint
b. Eve
c. Love drug
d. XTC

256. The following are NOT included in the classification of drugs according to psychological effects, EXCEPT one;
a. Stimulants
b. Downers
c. Hallucinogens
d. All of the foregoing

257. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled
precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker is called:
A. Drug trafficking
B. Sale
C. Chemical diversion
D. Chemical smuggling

258. Drug trafficking, according to the Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, EXCEPT:
A. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
C. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
D. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession

259. It is the Agency of the Government that will take charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. NBI, Anti-Drug Task force
C. PNP Drug Enforcement Group
D. Philippine National Police

260. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are a menace to the community because they:
A. Are violently insane
B. Ruin their life/health
C. Flagrantly immoral
D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes

261. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing it and using it to meet
his problems and to escape from reality, he is _________.
A. Socially dependent on drugs
B. mentally dependent on drugs
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
D. Physically dependent on drugs

262. Addiction to drugs are caused by the following, EXCEPT:

A. People have generally different motivations in life. The young ones are very adventurous and some of them
have a strong attraction to drug-taking because this “Space” belongs to them so to speak. Thus, the “IN” thing
these days are drugs. To see drug abusers around seemed to be a common sight;
B. Through association with peer groups with a different outlook in life such as hippies, rebels etc.
C. Inexperienced doctors who might prescribe different drugs.
D. Morally upright individuals

263. A term used for any place used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drugs.
A. Overt laboratory
B. Clandestine laboratory
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 C. Den
D. Resort

264. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed under R.A.
9165.
A. Coddler
B. Cashier
C. Protector
D. Financier

265. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. Opiates
B. Narcotics
C. Heroine
D. Hallucinogens

266. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug
prevention and control.
A. DDB
B. PDEA
C. DOJ
D. DOH

267. The land or portions thereof and/or greenhouses on which any of said plants is cultivated or cultured shall be
confiscated and _______ in favor of the State, unless the owner thereof can prove lack of knowledge of such cultivation or
culture despite the exercise of due diligence on his/her part. If the land involved is part of the public domain, the maximum
penalty provided for under this Section shall be imposed upon the offender.
A. Escheated
B. Carried
C. Sold
D. Bid

268. The following are considered vices EXCEPT:

A. Raping
B. Prostitution
C. Gambling
D. Alcoholism

269. Penalty for planting of evidence pursuant to 9165.

A. Reclusion temporal
B. Reclusion perpetua
C. Life imprisonment
D. None of the above

270. It refers to a product consumed via smoking and manufactured out of cured and finely cut tobacco leaves which are
combined with other additives, then rolled or stuffed into a paper.
A. Cigar
B. Tobacco
C. Cigarette
D. Nicotine

271. __________ is an international big business enterprise being run by big-time transnational criminal syndicates who
oftentimes enjoy the protection of state authorities.
a. Illegal drug trading
b. Car napping
c. Kidnapping
d. Trafficking

272. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of a prohibited drug?
a. Cannabis sativa
b. Coca bush
c. Opium
d. Psilocybin

273. What is that state arising from repeated administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
a. Habituation
b. Drug Addiction
c. Drug dependence
d. Physical dependence

274. An analytical test using a device, tool or equipment with a different chemical or physical principle that is more specific
which will validate and confirm the result of the screening test.
a. Screening Test
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 b. Confirmatory test
c. Drug Test
d. Rapid test

275. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is administered, delivered,
stored for illegal purposes, distributed, sold or used in any form.
A. Den
B. Dive
C. Resort
D. All of the above

276. The alkaloids contained in the leaves of “Erythroxylon coca” a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia is:
a. Cocaine
b. Coca Plant
c. Codeine
d. none of the above

277. A substance used as a medicine or making medicine or in making medicines, which affects the body and mind and
have potential for abuse is:
a. Drug
b. Synthetic
c. Artificial
d. None of the above

278. Any act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with or without his/her knowledge, by
injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, or of committing any act of indispensable assistance to a person in
administering a dangerous drug to himself/herself unless administered by a duly licensed practitioner for purposes of
medication.
a. Administration
b. Administer
c. Use
d. Oral

279. This obtained from and Indian hemp plant known as “Cannabis Sativa” a strong, hardy annual shrub, which grows
wild in most temperate and tropic regions, is:
a. Marijuana
b. Narcotics
c. Hashish
d. Opium

280. This refers to the state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug is:
a. Drug Addiction
b. Drug abuse
c. Addiction
d. none of the above

281. This act is known and cited as the "Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002."
a. R.A. 9165
b. R.A. 6975
c. R.A. 6425
d. P.D. 9165

282. A painful reminder of disrupted body functions that could not be felt while intoxicated. It is the distress due to
excessive consumption of alcoholic beverages.
a. Hangover
b. Alcoholic Psychosis
c. Hang up
d. Overdose

283. A positive or negative impact depends on the quality of the peer group is:
a. Peer pressure
b. Curiosity
c. Ignorance
d. none of the above

284. Drugs that produces sleep or stupor and relieves pain due to its depressant effects on the Central Nervous System
is:
a. Narcotics
b. Morphine
c. Opium
d. Heroin

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285. Within ____ hours upon confiscation/seizure of dangerous drugs, plant sources of dangerous drugs, controlled
precursors and essential chemicals, as well as instruments/paraphernalia and/or laboratory equipment, the same shall be
submitted to the PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a qualitative and quantitative examination.
a. 24
b. 36
c. 72
d. 48

286. The _________ shall be tasked to license and accredit drug testing centers in each province and city in order to
assure their capacity, competence, integrity and stability to conduct the laboratory examinations and tests.
a. DOH
b. DOJ
c. DDB
d. PDEA

287. The following are short term effects of alcohol, EXCEPT:

a. Decrease in both and hearing acuity
b. Increases risk-taking behaviors
c. Interferes with sensorimotor coordination, as in tracking moving objects
d. Production and release of certain chemical regulators (hormones) are altered significantly

288. From among the following, which is correct?

a. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on June 7, 2002
b. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on July 4, 2002
c. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on March 2, 1972
d. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on July 4, 2002

289. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication without smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected
person is under the influence of:
a. Amphetamine drug
b. Barbiturates
c. Hallucinogens
d. Narcotics

290. The PDEA shall be headed by a _____ with the rank of Undersecretary, who shall be responsible for the general
administration and management of the Agency.
a. Chairman
b. Executive Director
c. Director General
d. Superintendent

291. The resolution passed by the Congress on February 28, 2022, that urged Philippine Amusement and Gaming
Corporation (PAGCOR) to suspend the license to operate e-sabong operators and immediately stop all related activities
indefinitely.
a. Resolution 966
b. Resolution 996
c. Resolution 696
d. Resolution 699

292. The first Director General of PDEA.

a. Moro Virgilio Lazo
b. Anselmo Avenido
b. Benjamin Acorda Jr.
c. Ricardo De Leon

293. In connection with the previous question, what shall be the rank of the PDEA Director General?
a. Secretary
b. Undersecretary
c. General
d. Chairman

294. Operation of drug syndicates manufacturing drugs are usually made secretly, which makes detection quite difficult.
Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
a. Hide –out operation
b. Clandestine Operation
c. Disguised operation
d. Confidentials

295. It is the Agency of the Government that will take charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs confiscated:
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
b. PNP Drug Enforcement Group
c. NBI, Anti-Drug Task force
d. Philippine National Police
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296. The title of RA 9165.
a. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
b. The Comprehensive Drugs Act of 2002
c. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
d. Comprehensive Drugs Act of 2002

297. A practitioner who shall prescribe any dangerous drug to any person whose physical or physiological condition does
not require the use or in the dosage prescribed herein shall be liable for:
a. Unlawful prescription of dangerous drugs
b. Unlawful dispensation of dangerous drugs
c. Unnecessary administration of dangerous drugs
d. Unnecessary prescription of dangerous drugs

298. Who among the following shall serve as permanent consultant of the board (DDB):
a. Director of the NBI
b. Chief of PNP
c. A and B
d. Director of PDEA

299. A drug syndicate is any organized group of _____ or more persons forming or joining together with the intention of
committing any offense enumerated by RA 9165:
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

300. A person who acts as an agent of prostitution.

a. Whore
b. Pimp
c. Maintainer
d. Sugar

301. As one of the basic parts of speech, these are words or group words that express time while showing an action, a
condition or the fact that something exists.
a. Noun
b. Pronoun
c. Adjective
d. Verb

302. What is a regular part of an officer’s job and just like any other skill in police work, writing it effectively is a skill that
must be learned and practiced?
a. English
b. Police Report
c. Police Report Writing
d. Technical Writing

303. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court.
a. Warrant
b. Warrant of Arrest
c. Search Warrant
d. Inquest

304. A part of a memorandum which is usually showing the official stationery/logo of the PNP office or station concerned.
a. Letterhead
b. Addressee
c. Subject
d. Signatory

305. An electronic reporting system that facilitates crime documentation, modernizes data storage and provides quick and
reliable transmission of crime information from lower units and NOSU’s of the PNP to the National Headquarters at Camp
Crame, Quezon City.
a. Police Blotter
b. PNP CIRAS
c. Police Clearance
d. PNP WCPC

306. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. A police report that carries lies or half truth statements, is still a police report
b. A police report can be submitted as time allows
c. Accurateness of a police report can be based partly on the use of our senses
d. Adverbs are modifiers
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307. A word or group of words that express a complete thought.
a. Adverb
b. Verb
c. Subject
d. Sentence

308. Which of the following best explains a police report ?

a. Daily operational occurrences
b. Exact narrations of facts
c. Police records
d. Reaffirming what took place

309. This is used by the police (or military) when communicating with those outside the parameters of the organization.
a. Memorandum
b. Civilian Letter
c. Investigation Report
d. Letter Order

310. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offence, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer
or other employee of the government or government institution in charge of the enforcement or execution of the law
violated.
a. Deposition
b. Complaint
c. Police Blotter
d. Information

311. One kind of writ issued to bring someone before a court or judge is called a ____.
a. Amparo
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Modus Operandi
d. Corpus Delicti

312. The following are the contents of a basic report, EXCEPT:

a. The heading of the letterhead of the organization
b. The date of the preparation or submission
c. The person or office to whom it is addressed or submitted.
d. The headlines in the newspaper

313. Which among the following is NOT the use of a report?

a. Used as legal documents in the prosecution of criminals
b. Serves as records for police administration in planning, directing and organizing the unit’s duties
c. Used as reference by related agencies in the service
d. Serves as reading materials for human consumption

314. The exact narration of facts which were discovered during the course of a crime investigation which serves as a
permanent record for future reference.
a. police report
b. initial report
c. spot report
d. progress report

315. The usage of reports wherein law enforcers exchange information among them as the crime investigated can be
useful from each other.
a. Used as reference by related agencies in the service
b. Useful to local media which usually have access to public documents for accurate statistics.
c. Used as legal documents in the prosecution of criminals.
d. Basis for research among students in Criminology, law enforcement, police administration and other related
areas.

316. The act of forming the words by letters.

a. paragraph
b. spelling
c. words
d. diction

317. The component of a sentence wherein you must name what you are talking about.
a. subject
b. sentence
c. predicate
d. paragraph

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318. The first paragraph in an investigative report writing which readily points out to the reader the statement of objective
of the report or the subject of the report, or what the case is all about.
a. introductory paragraph
b. police sentence
c. topic sentence
d. spelling

319. One of the essentials in the narrative which involves the people in the crime, such as the victim, the suspect and the
witness is known as:
a. character
b. setting
c. action
d. supporting

320. The report which is written and submitted whenever the case is solved and classified as closed.
a. initial report
b. progress report
c. final report
d. spot report

321. The means of editing and proofreading what you have written before it can be considered a finished product for
submission to higher officials.
a. gathering of facts
b. evaluate the report
c. write the report
d. organize the facts

322. The quality of good report writing which means brevity and specificity.
a. The report should be brief
b. The report should be objective
c. The report should be factual
d. The report should be relevant

323. The quality of good report writing which gauges the efficiency of a detective when he submits his investigative
reports on time or according to schedule.
a. The report should be up-to-date
b. The report should be brief
c. The report should be factual
d. The report should be objective

324. The quality of good report writing which avoids formulating preconceived theories in the investigation which will
cause twisting, warping the facts and affecting the report.
a. The report should be up-to-date
b. The report should be brief
c. The report should be factual
d. The report should be fair

325. When we divide words, the punctuation we usually used is known as:
a. period
b. hyphen
c. question mark
d. parenthesis

326. Some writers have the tendency to over capitalize especially when the objective is to emphasize. This refers to:
a. spelling
b. division of words
c. capitalization
d. punctuation

327. A part of the investigation report which presents the real truth respecting the matters investigated. Clear and
complete descriptions should be applied.
a. Introduction
b. Facts of the case
c. Subject
d. Conclusion

328. Brevity is one of the principles in good report writing so that in some instances, in order to conserve energies and
space, the use of some are allowed:
a. punctuation
b. abbreviations
c. spelling
d. capitalization

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329. The person who institutes action, calls the police, makes complaint or the first person contacted by the police is
called:
a. victim
b. suspect
c. complainant
d. witness

330. It contains the name of the officer, usually first name, middle name and the last name, and signed in ink, black or
blue-black.
a. authority line
b. signature
c. complimentary ending
d. enclosure

331. The report should relate exclusively to the stated objective, or function, or subject with which it is concerned. This
quality of report writing is called:
a. The report should be relevant
b. The report should be clear
c. The report should be brief
d. The report should be objective

332. It is the step of immediately and accurately, recording in your clipboard, not in your memory, the facts gathered.
a. gathering of facts
b. organizing of facts
c. recording of facts
d. writing the report

333. An investigative report, aside from being classified as formal, is also exhaustive. In order to be exhaustive, it must
contain all the facts. This quality of good report writing is called:
a. The report should be factual
b. The report should be clear
c. The report should be complete
d. The report should be objective

334. An advance information on a new or fresh case assigned to an investigator is called:

a. initial report
b. progress report
c. final report
d. good report writing

335. The following are types of report writers, EXCEPT:

a. Those who write without thinking
b. Those who write and think at the same time
c. Those who think first and write afterwards
d. Those who copy from the report of others

336. The status of the case which indicates that the investigation is continuing or the case is not yet closed.
a. on hold
b. closed
c. pending
d. synopsis

337. This refers to the notary’s statement that the affiant appeared before him on a certain day, took the oath and signed
the statement, also known as the “Subscribed and sworn to” clause.
a. venue
b. jurat
c. body of the affidavit
d. signature

338. A report done after an important incident took place in a certain area at a given time, could be verbal or written and
must be done or acted upon within 24 hours.
a. basic police report
b. special report
c. investigative police report
d. spot report

339. The basic step in investigative report writing wherein interview of witnesses and interrogation of suspects are
conducted.
a. gathering of facts
b. recording of facts
c. organizing of facts
d. writing the report

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340. The act defining certain rights of the person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation as well as the duties
of the arresting, detaining, and investigating officers, and providing penalties for violations thereof.
a. RA 4387
b. RA 7348
c. RA 7438
d. RA 7843

341. Refers to the complainant, who executes an affidavit of desistance, when he/she no longer wishes to pursue a case
against an accused or defendant in a court case. The complainant states that he/she didn’t really intend to institute the
case and he/she is no longer interested in testifying or prosecuting.
a. Affidavit of Complaint
b. Affidavit of Desistance
c. Affidavit of Arrest
d. Affidavit of Witness

342. It is a legal and binding document of written testimony of a witness as a way of evidence to be presented to the court.
It is usually filled out by a lawyer, and then filed as part of the case.
a. Affidavit of Complaint
b. Affidavit of Desistance
c. Affidavit of Arrest
d. Affidavit of Witness

343. A statement given under oath and penalty under perjury. It states facts and circumstances about the arrest, the
information which led to the arrest, and the observation made before and after the arrest. This is filled out by the arresting
officer
a. Affidavit of Complaint
b. Affidavit of Desistance
c. Affidavit of Arrest
d. Affidavit of Witness

344. In securing a government clearance, it refers to the document required to appeal when an individual is mistaken for
someone else who has a criminal record.
a. Affidavit of Complaint
b. Affidavit of Contest
c. Affidavit of Arrest
d. Affidavit of Denial

345. An order from the court that requires a person to testify before the ordering authority or face punishment.
a. Subpoena
b. Subpoena Ad Testificandum
c. Subpoena Duces Tecum
d. Summons

346. In relation to the previous question, what is an order that requires a person to bring physical evidence before the
ordering authority or face punishment
a. Subpoena
b. Subpoena Ad Testificandum
c. Subpoena Duces Tecum
d. Summons

347. An informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons
arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant of arrest, issued by the court for the purpose of determining
whether or not the said persons should remain under custody and correspondingly be charged in court
a. Preliminary Investigation
b. Initial Investigation
c. Inquest
d. Information

348. An order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines signed by a judge and directed to a peace
officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court is referred as
Search and Seizure Warrant. In what rule of the Criminal Procedure the statement is based on?
a. Search Warrant
b. Search and Seizure Warrant
c. Rule 113
d. Rule 126

349. Pursuant to Rule 113 of the Criminal Procedure, within _____ days after the expiration of the period, the officer to
whom it was assigned for execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the warrant;
a. Five
b. Ten
c. Fifteen
d. Twenty

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350. The following persons may make/effect/execute an arrest, EXCEPT:
a. Police Officer
b. Private Person
c. Sheriff
d. None of the foregoing

351. Any crime where a computer is used as a tool or as a target or incidental to the commission of a crime.
a. Crime
b. Cyberspace
c. Computer virus
d. Computer crime

352. The first “Ransomware attack” which was first targeted the healthcare industries that locks the user’s files and data
with a cryptographic key, and to unlock the data, users have to pay some ransom in the exchange for unlocking said key.
a. Lovebug
b. AIDS Trojan
c. Morris Worm
d. None of the following

353. A worm released in May of 2000 which is by far the most popular incidence of cybercrime in the Philippines that
resulted in an estimated US$5.5–8.7 billion in damages worldwide.
a. ILOVEYOU virus
b. IMISSYOU virus
c. SANAAKOPARIN virus
d. SANAAKONALANG virus

354. In connection with the previous question, as one of the aftermaths of the incident, the Philippine Legislation enacted
an act which was later known as the "Electronic Commerce Act”.
a. RA 10175
b. RA 7080
c. RA 3019
d. RA 8792

355. A higher form of hacking in which the unauthorized access culminates with the process of defeating the security
system for the purpose of acquiring money or information and/or availing of free services
a. Hacking
b. Virus
c. Worm
d. Cracking

356. Created pursuant to Republic Act No. 10175 or the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012, which is designated as the
Central Authority under the DOJ in all matters relating to international mutual assistance and extradition for cybercrime
and cyber-related matters
a. Anti-Cybercrime Group
b. Office of the Cybercrime
c. Anti-Computer Crime Office
d. Anti-Cybercrime Task Force

357. Refers to the process of identifying, labelling and securing electronic devices seized from a cybercrime scene.
a. Chain of Custody
b. Search and Seizure
c. Bag and Tag
d. Evidence Collection

358. The term which can refer to actual crime committed against nature, in the sense that the act is illegal by the country’s
law, or a moral crime that may not be illegal.
a. White Collar Crime
b. Blue Collar Crime
c. Pink Collar Crime
d. Green Collar Crime

359. The law that aims to achieve and maintain clean air that meets the National Air Quality guidelines values for criteria
pollutants, throughout the Philippines, while minimizing the possible associated impacts to the economy.
a. Republic Act No. 6969
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 9275

360. A remedy available to the citizens to assert their rights to a healthy and balanced ecology. More specifically, based
on Section 16, Article II of the 1987 Philippine Constitution, which says that the “state shall protect and advance the right
of the people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accord with the rhythm and harmony of nature.”
a. Writ of Amparo
b. Writ of Habeas Corpus
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 c. Writ of Nature
d. Writ of Kalikasan

361. The law which punishes cyber crime in the Philippines is:
a. RA 9762
b. RA 9262
c. RA 9267
d. none of the above

362. All the activities done with criminal intent in cyberspace. These could be either the criminal activities in the
conventional sense or could be activities, newly evolved with the growth of the new medium. Because of the anonymous
nature of the Internet, it is possible to engage into a variety of criminal activities with impunity and people with
intelligence have been grossly misusing this aspect of the Internet to perpetrate criminal activities in cyberspace.
a. internet fraud
b. cybercrimes
c. cyberspace felony
d. internet crimes

363. Unauthorized access into or interference in a computer system/server or information and communication system; or
any access in order to corrupt, alter, steal, or destroy using a computer or other similar information and communication
devices, without the knowledge and consent of the owner of the computer or information & communications system,
including the introduction of computer viruses and the like, resulting in the corruption, destruction, alteration, theft or loss
of electronic data messages or electronic document.
a. Virus
b. Trojan
c. Hacking
d. Phishing

364. The unauthorized copying, reproduction, dissemination, distribution, importation, use, removal, alteration,
substitution, modification, storage, uploading, downloading, communication, making available to the public, or
broadcasting of protected material, electronic signature or copyrighted works including legally protected sound recordings
or phonograms or information material on protected works, through the use of telecommunication networks, such as, but
not limited to, the internet, in a manner that infringes intellectual property rights.
a. Cyber Crime
b. Piracy
c. Hacking
d. Cracking

365. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without permission or knowledge of the
user.
a. Virus
b. Logic Bomb
c. Trojan Horse
d. Worm

366. “ICT” in the Electronics Commerce Act of 2000 stands for?

a. Information Connection Technology
b. Information Communication Technology
c. Internet Connection Technology
d. Internet Communication Technology

367. This attack, which became prominent in the 1970’s, reverse-engineered telephone tone frequencies used by
telephone companies to take advantage and make free calls over a long distance.
a. Wiretapping
b. Logic Bomb
c. Trojan Horse
d. Phreaking

368. A computer virus made by Robert Morris in the 1980's which caused huge destruction to the organizations through
the Internet with an estimated $10,000,000 in damages.
a. Lovebug
b. Morris worm
c. AIDS Trojan
d. Morris Hacking

369. The unit of PNP responsible for the investigation of all cybercrimes and other crimes in which Information and
Communications Technology (ICT) was used in the commission of criminal acts or the object of attack.
a. Directorate for Information and Communication Technology Management
b. Communications and Electronic Service
c. Information Technology Management Service
d. Anti-Cybercrime Group

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370. Upon determination of how the computer was utilized in the commission of the crime, and once the legal
requirements have been complied with, the following are the guidelines in the preservation of the seized computer,
EXCEPT
a. Secure the Scene
b. Turn ON the computer if it was found OFF
c. Consult a Digital Forensic Examiner
d. Immediately disconnect the computer from the network in cases of Ransomware attack

371. An order to disclose and accordingly, require any person or service provider to disclose or submit subscriber’s
information, traffic data, or relevant data in his/her controversial or is possession or control
a. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
b. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
c. Warrant to Search, Seize and Examine Computer Data
d. Warrant to Examine Computer Data

372. An order authorizing law enforcement authorities to search a particular place for items to be seized and/or examined
a. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
b. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
c. Warrant to Search, Seize and Examine Computer Data
d. Warrant to Examine Computer Data

373. RA 10175 was approved on

a. September 12, 2002
b. September 2, 2012
c. September 12, 2012
d. September 2, 2002

374. Refers to the computer systems, and/or networks, whether physical or virtual, and/or the computer programs,
computer data and/or traffic data so vital to this country that the incapacity or destruction of or interference with such
system and assets would have a debilitating impact on security, national or economic security, national public health and
safety, or any combination of those matters
a. Computer System
b. Cybersecurity
c. Cyber Infrastructure
d. Critical Infrastructure

375. Which of the following statements best describes a Service Provider?

a. A computer or a computer network, the electronic medium in which online communication takes place
b. An electronic, magnetic, optical, electrochemical, or other data processing or communications device, or
grouping of such devices, capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing, or storage functions.
c. Any public or private entity that provides to users of its service the ability to communicate by means of a
computer system
d. any information contained in the form of computer data or any other form that is held by a service provider,
relating to subscribers of its services other than traffic or content data and by which identity can be established

376. An order authorizing law enforcement authorities to carry out any or all of the following activities: (a) listening to, (b)
recording, (c) monitoring, or (d) surveillance of the content of communications, including procuring of the content of
computer data, either directly, through access and use of a computer system or indirectly, through the use of electronic
eavesdropping or tapping devices, at the same time that the communication is occurring
a. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
b. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
c. Warrant to Search, Seize and Examine Computer Data
d. Warrant to Examine Computer Data

377. The willful engagement, maintenance, control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any lascivious exhibition of
sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system, for favor or consideration
a. Pornography
b. Cybersex
c. Child Pornography
d. Computer Fraud

378. Any person who willfully abets or aids in the commission of any of the offenses enumerated in this Act shall be held
liable and shall be punished with imprisonment one (1) degree lower than that of the prescribed penalty for the offense or
a fine of at least One hundred thousand pesos (PhP100,000.00) but not exceeding Five hundred thousand pesos
(PhP500,000.00) or both. Abetting means what?
a. Hacking
b. Spying
c. Hindering
d. Assisting

379. As provided by RA 10175, who shall be the primary responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of the
law.
a. PNP
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 b. NBI
c. Anti-Cybercrime Group
d. All of them

380. An inter-agency body under the administrative supervision of the Office of the President, for policy coordination
among concerned agencies and for the formulation and enforcement of the national cybersecurity plan.
a. Anti-Cybercrime Group
b. Office of the Cybercrime
c. Cybercrime division under the National Bureau of Investigation
d. Cybercrime Investigation and Coordinating Center

381. In relation to the question above, who among the following is NOT part of the CICC?
a. NBI
b. PNP
c. DOST
d. DENR

382. CICC shall be headed by a Director General. The statement is?

a. Yes
b. No
c. True
d. False

383. This law is known as the ‘’Toxic Substances, Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control act of 1990’’
a. Republic Act No. 6969
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 9275

384. The ‘’Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999’’

a. Republic Act No. 6969
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 9275

385. The ‘’Ecological Solid Waste Management act of 2000’’

a. Republic Act No. 6969
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 9275

386. The law aims to protect the country’s water bodies from pollution from land-based sources (industries and
commercial establishments, agriculture and community/household activities). It provides for a comprehensive and
integrated strategy to prevent and minimize pollution through a multi-sectoral and participatory approach involving all the
stakeholders
a. Republic Act No. 6969
b. Republic Act No. 8749
c. Republic Act No. 9003
d. Republic Act No. 9275

387. An act to strengthen the food safety regulatory system in the country to protect consumer health and facilitate market
access of local foods and food products
a. Republic Act No. 10364
b. Republic Act No. 10175
c. Republic Act No. 10611
d. Republic Act No. 10591

388. The Writ of Kalikasan shall be filed where?

a. Court of Appeals
b. Regional Trial Court
c. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
d. Supreme Court

389. Within _____ days from the time the petition is submitted for decision, the court shall render judgment granting or
denying the privilege of the Writ of Kalikasan.
a. Twenty
b. Thirty
c. Fifty
d. Sixty

390. Responsible for the conservation, management, development, and proper use of the country’s environment and
natural resources.
a. PAGASA
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 b. PHIVOLCS
c. DENR
d. NDRRMC

391. Regarded by Interpol as the third largest illegal business in the world after drug and arms trafficking which raises a
serious threat for the world’s biodiversity survival.
a. Indiscriminate Logging
b. Wild Animal Traffic
c. Electronic Waste Mismanagement
d. Finning

392. This kind of environmental crime is most often caused by companies, factories and Public Administration. Fecal and
toxic waste coming from factories are dumped in rivers which cause the local wildlife to die or get ill and also find its way
to pollute the surrounding flora as well
a. Indiscriminate Logging
b. Waste Disposal
c. Electronic Waste Mismanagement
d. Dumping In Rivers And Aquifers

393. These illegal activities involve the environment, wildlife, biodiversity and natural resources. It covers the activities that
breach environmental legislation and cause significant harm or risk to the environment, human health or both.
a. Environmental Crime
b. Waste Disposal
c. Electronic Waste Mismanagement
d. Dumping In Rivers And Aquifers

394. Cut down on what you throw away. Follow the three "R's" to conserve natural resources and landfill space. The three
“R’s” refer to what?
a. Reduce, Reuse, Recover
b. Reuse, Recycle, Reintegrate
c. Reduce Recycle, Replant
d. None of them

395. This law is also known as "The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018"
a. Criminology
b. Criminologist
c. RA 6506
d. RA 11131

396. Pursuant to the previous question, when was RA 11131 approved?

a. July 1, 1972
b. November 8, 2018
c. November 15, 2018
d. November 30, 2018

397. As defined by RA 11131, which of the following describes a criminologist?

a. a natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration and an updated professional identification card as
criminologist issued by the Board and the Commission
b. the scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims, it also deals with the prevention, and solution of crimes
c. any person who is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination for criminologists
and is registered as such by the Board
d. a person who graduated with a B.S. in Criminology and passed the Criminologist Licensure Examination

398. Who is the incumbent chairperson of the PRC Board of Criminology?

a. Ramil Gabao
b. Warren Corpuz
c. Lani Palmones
d. None of the foregoing

399. Also in accordance with the previous question, who are the current members of the PRC Board of Criminology?
a. Ramil Gabao, Warren Corpuz, and Ruben Sta. Teresa
b. Lani Palmones, Warren Corpuz, and Ramil Gabao
c. Warren Corpuz, Ramil Gabao, and Lani Palmones
d. George Fernandez, Ramil Gabao, and Ruben Sta. Teresa

400. RA 11131 is also known as "The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018", signed/approved on November 8,
2018, published on November 15, 2018, and became effective on December 30, 2018. What did it do to the former law
which concerns the field of Criminology in the Philippines?
a. Amended
b. Abolished
c. Repealed
d. Suspended

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 --- Nothing follows ---
THANK YOU & GOOD LUCK

“By failing to prepare, you are preparing to fail”

- Benjamin Franklin

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