Test Booklet Code

No. :
ANKHA
E2 This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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E2 2
1. Which of the following amine will give the 3. Match the following and identify the correct
carbylamine test ? option.

(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+

Ca(HCO3)2
(1)
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
hardness of deficient hydride
water

(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas

(2)
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
structure

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

2. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of 4. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
the product. Its structure is : benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1)
(1) 0.20 K

(2) 0.80 K

(3) 0.40 K
(2)
(4) 0.60 K

5. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using

Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
(3) anode will be :

(1) Hydrogen gas

(2) Oxygen gas

(4) (3) H2S gas

(4) SO2 gas

 3 E2
6. Identify compound X in the following sequence of 8. Identify the correct statement from the
reactions : following :

(1) Wrought iron is impure iron with

4% carbon.

(2) Blister copper has blistered appearance due

to evolution of CO2.

(3) Vapour phase refining is carried out for

Nickel by Van Arkel method.

(4) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of

shapes.

(1) 9. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a

secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
the following ?

(1) −I effect of −CH3 groups

(2) +R effect of −CH3 groups

(3) −R effect of −CH3 groups

(2)
(4) Hyperconjugation

10. Urea reacts with water to form A which will

decompose to form B. B when passed through
Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed.
What is the formula of C from the following ?
(3)
(1) CuSO4

(2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(3) Cu(OH)2

(4) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(4)

11. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains

7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is :
7. Which one of the followings has maximum number
of atoms ? [Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40]

(1) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108] (1) 9 bar

(2) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24] (2) 12 bar

(3) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16] (3) 15 bar

(4) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7] (4) 18 bar

E2 4
12. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) 16. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic in the following reaction ?
radius is : CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
(1) +4 to +4
3 (2) 0 to +4
(1) × 288 pm
4 (3) −4 to +4
(4) 0 to −4
2
(2) × 288 pm
4 17. Match the following :
4 Oxide Nature
(3) × 288 pm
3 (a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
4
(4) × 288 pm (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
2
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option ?
13. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) 100 s
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) 200 s (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) 500 s 18. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
monoxide ?
(4) 1000 s
(1) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(2) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
14. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium (3) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin.
(1) Isopropyl alcohol
(4) It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
(2) Sec. butyl alcohol
19. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
(3) Tert. butyl alcohol which property of colloidal solution ?
(4) Isobutyl alcohol (1) Viscosity
(2) Solubility
(3) Stability of the colloidal particles
15. Which of the following set of molecules will have
zero dipole moment ? (4) Size of the colloidal particles

(1) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 20. Which of the following is the correct order of
1,4-dichlorobenzene increasing field strength of ligands to form
(2) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon coordination compounds ?
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (1) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
(3) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, (2) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(3) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
(4) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (4) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
 5 E2
21. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form 25. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone
pent-2-ene is : in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(a) β-Elimination reaction (1) Aldol condensation
(2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(3) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(4) Cross Aldol condensation
(d) Dehydration reaction
26. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has
(1) (a), (b), (c)
−O−O− linkage ?
(2) (a), (c), (d) (1) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
(3) (b), (c), (d) (2) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(4) (a), (b), (d) (3) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(4) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
22. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
27. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
gas under adiabatic condition is :
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
(1) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0 crystallise(s) ?
(2) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0 (1) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0 (2) Only NaCl
(3) Only MgCl2
(4) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(4) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2

23. Identify the incorrect statement. 28. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
(1) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
(2) The transition metals and their compounds
are known for their catalytic activity due to (1)
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
states and to form complexes.
(3) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals.

(4) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24− (2)

and Cr2O72− are not the same.

24. Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium (3)

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium

(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
(1) (a), (i)
(2) (b), (ii) (4)
(3) (c), (iii)
(4) (d), (iv)
E2 6
29. Identify the correct statements from the 33. An increase in the concentration of the reactants
following : of a reaction leads to change in :

(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream (1) activation energy

and frozen food. (2) heat of reaction
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six (3) threshold energy
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(4) collision frequency
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline. 34. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas. of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) 1

(2) (a) and (c) only (2) 2

(3) 3
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) 4
(4) (c) and (d) only

35. The mixture which shows positive deviation from

Raoult’s law is :
30. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
option is : (1) Ethanol+Acetone

(1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0 (2) Benzene+Toluene

(3) Acetone+Chloroform
(2) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0
(4) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0

(4) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0 36. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
reaction.

31. Paper chromatography is an example of : Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose

(1) Adsorption chromatography If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at

300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
(2) Partition chromatography will be :

(1) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)

(3) Thin layer chromatography
(2) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(4) Column chromatography
(3) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
(4) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
32. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
good yield by Wurtz reaction ?
37. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
(1) n-Hexane
(1) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (2) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose

(3) n-Heptane (3) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose

(4) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose
(4) n-Butane
 7 E2
38. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+ 44. The following metal ion activates many enzymes,
ion is : participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the
(1) 3.87 BM transmission of nerve signals.
(2) 4.90 BM
(1) Iron
(3) 5.92 BM
(2) Copper
(4) 2.84 BM
(3) Calcium
39. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
(4) Potassium
(1) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(2) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(3) polybutadiene 45. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
175
(4) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) 71 Lu , respectively, are :

(1) 71, 104 and 71

40. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ?
(2) 104, 71 and 71
(1) Serine
(2) Alanine (3) 71, 71 and 104

(3) Tyrosine (4) 175, 104 and 71

(4) Lysine

46. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a

41. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ? non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(2) Sodium stearate
(1) 10×103 J
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(4) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate (2) 12×103 J

(3) 24×103 J
42. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH) 2 is (4) 48×103 J
2×10−15.
(1) 2×10−13 M
47. For transistor action, which of the following
(2) 2×10−8 M
statements is correct ?
(3) 1×10−13 M
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
(4) 1×108 M have same doping concentrations.

(2) Base, emitter and collector regions should

43. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
have same size.
(1) He2
(3) Both emitter junction as well as the collector
(2) Li2 junction are forward biased.
(3) C2
(4) The base region must be very thin and lightly
(4) O2 doped.
E2 8
48. Which of the following graph represents the 50. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for
copper ?

(1) A B Y
(1)
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(2) A B Y
(2) 0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
(3) A B Y
0 0 1
(3)
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(4) A B Y
0 0 1
(4)
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

51. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz

ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly :
49. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3,
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. (1) 1.7 A
The magnitude of electric field in this region is : (2) 2.05 A
(3) 2.5 A

(1) zero (4) 25.1 A

52. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of

(2) 0.5 N/C 249 kPa and temperature 278C.
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1)
(1) 0.5 kg/m3
(3) 1 N/C
(2) 0.2 kg/m3
(3) 0.1 kg/m3
(4) 5 N/C (4) 0.02 kg/m3
 9 E2
53. Taking into account of the significant figures, what 58. The solids which have the negative temperature
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ? coefficient of resistance are :
(1) 9.9801 m
(1) metals
(2) 9.98 m
(3) 9.980 m (2) insulators only
(4) 9.9 m (3) semiconductors only

54. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular (4) insulators and semiconductors
diameter d and number density n can be expressed
as : 59. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
1 frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
(1) What will be the photoelectric current if the
2 n πd
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
1
(2) (1) doubled
2 n πd2
1 (2) four times
(3)
2 n2 πd2
1 (3) one-fourth
(4)
2 n2 π2 d2 (4) zero

55. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a

magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The 60. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
permeability of the material of the rod is :
source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
phase difference between current and voltage
(1) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1 π
is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
(2) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1 3
π
(3) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1 the phase difference is again between current
3
(4) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1 and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :

56. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of (1) zero

16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the (2) 0.5
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the
(3) 1.0
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
angle of 608 with the dipole axis is : (4) −1.0

 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0  61. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
(1) 50 V of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is
(2) 200 V the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm
(3) 400 V from the centre of the sphere ?
(4) zero
 1 
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
57. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.  4 π0 
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
equal to half the radius of the earth ? (1) 1.28×104 N/C
(1) 48 N (2) 1.28×105 N/C
(2) 32 N
(3) 1.28×106 N/C
(3) 30 N
(4) 24 N (4) 1.28×107 N/C
E2 10
62. Find the torque about the origin when a force of 235
66. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
∧
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons
∧
2k m . and :
144
∧ (1) 56 Ba
(1) 6i N m
91
∧ (2) 40 Zr
(2) 6j Nm
101
(3) 36 Kr
∧
(3) −6 i N m 103
(4) 36 Kr
∧
(4) 6k N m
67. The phase difference between displacement and
63. A charged particle having drift velocity of acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of motion is :
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
(1) π rad
of :
(1) 2.25×1015 3π
(2) rad
2
(2) 2.5×106
π
(3) 2.5×10−6 (3) rad
2
(4) 2.25×10−15 (4) zero

64. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one 68. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
If the refractive index of the material of the prism wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal resistance wire is :
to : (1) 1.0×10−2 m

A (2) 1.0×10−1 m
(1) (3) 1.5×10−1 m
2µ
2A (4) 1.5×10−2 m
(2)
µ
69. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
(3) µA and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
µA the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
(4) tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
2
of water that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 2.5 g
65. The quantities of heat required to raise the
temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii (2) 5.0 g
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the (3) 10.0 g
ratio : (4) 20.0 g

27 70. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field

(1)
8 and magnetic field components to the intensity of
9 an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
(2) electromagnetic waves)
4
3 (1) c:1
(3) (2) 1:1
2
5 (3) 1:c
(4)
3 (4) 1 : c2
 11 E2
71. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation 76. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively
between coherent sources is halved and the are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length
distance of the screen from the coherent sources is 1 m with negligible mass.
doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
(1) double
particle is nearly at a distance of :
(2) half
(1) 33 cm
(3) four times
(4) one-fourth (2) 50 cm

(3) 67 cm
72. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at (4) 80 cm
the centre of the solenoid is :
(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1) 77. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
(1) 6.28×10−4 T material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
(2) 3.14×10−4 T decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz.
(3) 6.28×10−5 T If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
frequency of B will be :
(4) 3.14×10−5 T
(1) 523 Hz
73. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a (2) 524 Hz
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of (3) 536 Hz
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2)
(4) 537 Hz
(1) 360 m
(2) 340 m
78. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
(3) 320 m connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
(4) 300 m an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly
74. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not
opened. The process is :
valid ?
(1) Hydrogen atom (1) isothermal

(2) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (2) adiabatic

(3) Deuteron atom (3) isochoric
(4) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(4) isobaric

75. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas

is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute 79. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a
temperature) dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
1 The permittivity of the medium is :
(1) kBT
2
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2)
3
(2) kBT (1) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
2
5 (2) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2
(3) kBT
2
(3) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2
7
(4) kBT (4) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2
2
E2 12
80. An electron is accelerated from rest through a 85. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
potential difference is :
(1) 10 V (1) 0.01 mm
(2) 102 V (2) 0.25 mm
(3) 103 V (3) 0.5 mm
(4) 104 V (4) 1.0 mm

81. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging 86. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is
from a fixed support. The length of the wire 10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its (1) 6
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is : (2) 0.6
MgL1 (3) 0.06
(1) (4) 0.006
AL
Mg(L1 − L)
(2) 87. The color code of a resistance is given below :
AL
MgL
(3) AL1
MgL
(4) A(L1 − L)

82. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
(1) 08 < ib < 308 are :
(2) 308 < ib < 458
(1) 470 kΩ, 5%
(3) 458 < ib < 908
(2) 47 kΩ, 10%
(4) ib = 908
(3) 4.7 kΩ, 5%
83. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the (4) 470 Ω, 5%
ends of a massless string. The string passes over
88. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope
acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
due to gravity (g) is : (1) 3.66×10−7 rad
(2) 1.83×10−7 rad
(3) 7.32×10−7 rad
(4) 6.00×10−7 rad

89. The increase in the width of the depletion region

in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) forward bias only
(1) g
(2) reverse bias only
(2) g/2
(3) g/5 (3) both forward bias and reverse bias
(4) g/10 (4) increase in forward current

84. Dimensions of stress are : 90. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
(1) [ M L T−2 ] (1) 4.5×1016 J
(2) [ M L2 T−2 ] (2) 4.5×1013 J
(3) [ M L0T−2 ] (3) 1.5×1013 J
(4) [ M L−1 T−2 ] (4) 0.5×1013 J
 13 E2
91. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) 94. Select the correct events that occur during
of organisms which have evolved due to changes inspiration.
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
action ?
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(1) (a) and (b)
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
(2) (c) and (d)
like dogs.
(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(1) only (a) (4) only (d)

(2) (a) and (c) 95. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
(3) (b), (c) and (d) photorespiration leads to the formation of :
(4) only (d) (1) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(2) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
92. Match the following columns and select the (3) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
correct option.
(4) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
Column - I Column - II of 2-C compound
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
96. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters
ear and pharynx the human body is :
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the (1) Trophozoites
labyrinth (2) Sporozoites
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the (3) Female gametocytes
oval window (4) Male gametocytes

(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the 97. Which of the following statements about inclusion
basilar bodies is incorrect ?
membrane (1) They are not bound by any membrane.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles.
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) These represent reserve material in
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) cytoplasm.
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
98. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
93. Identify the wrong statement with reference to during :
immunity. (1) Pachytene
(1) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (2) Zygotene
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. (3) Diplotene
It is called “Active immunity”.
(4) Leptotene
(2) When ready-made antibodies are directly
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. 99. Ray florets have :
(3) Active immunity is quick and gives full (1) Inferior ovary
response.
(2) Superior ovary
(4) Foetus receives some antibodies from
(3) Hypogynous ovary
mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. (4) Half inferior ovary
E2 14
100. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments 105. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
can be visualized with the help of : Restriction Enzymes.
(1) Acetocarmine in bright blue light (1) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(2) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(2) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(3) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
sites.
(4) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering.

101. In which of the following techniques, the embryos (4) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
are transferred to assist those females who cannot ligases.
conceive ?
(1) ZIFT and IUT 106. Floridean starch has structure similar to :

(2) GIFT and ZIFT (1) Starch and cellulose

(3) ICSI and ZIFT (2) Amylopectin and glycogen

(4) GIFT and ICSI (3) Mannitol and algin

(4) Laminarin and cellulose

102. Select the option including all sexually transmitted
diseases.
107. Choose the correct pair from the following :
(1) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(1) Ligases - Join the two DNA
(2) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
molecules
(3) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(4) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
fragments

103. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
transport of oxygen. of DNA
(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
mainly related to partial pressure of O2.
positions within DNA
(2) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin.
108. Embryological support for evolution was
(3) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
disapproved by :
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(4) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin. (2) Alfred Wallace

(3) Charles Darwin

104. Identify the incorrect statement.
(4) Oparin
(1) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
mechanical support.
109. The first phase of translation is :
(2) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf. (1) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(3) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem (2) Recognition of DNA molecule
and is lighter in colour.
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(4) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
heart wood is dark in colour. (4) Recognition of an anti-codon
 15 E2
110. The plant parts which consist of two generations - 114. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
one within the other : of :
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther (1) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male from one country to another
gametes (2) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(c) Seed inside the fruit (3) Release of Green House gases
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (4) Disposal of e-wastes
(1) (a) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 115. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
(3) (c) and (d) (1) Repolarisation of auricles
(4) (a) and (d)
(2) Depolarisation of auricles
111. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
(3) Depolarisation of ventricles
in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(1) Zero (4) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) One
(3) Two 116. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
(4) Three spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
112. Match the following columns and select the crop.
correct option. (1) Cytokinin
Column - I Column - II
(2) Gibberellin
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
(3) Ethylene
second and
seventh ribs (4) Abscisic acid

(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the

117. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
Humerus Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle in one character with contrasting traits ?
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect (1) 4
with the sternum (2) 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) 14
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) 8
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 118. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
are exemplified by :
113. Match the following diseases with the causative (1) Ctenophora
organism and select the correct option.
(2) Platyhelminthes
Column - I Column - II
(3) Aschelminthes
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium (4) Annelida

(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella

119. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus is found in :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) lining of intestine
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) ducts of salivary glands
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) eustachian tube
E2 16
120. Which is the important site of formation of 126. The process of growth is maximum during :
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?
(1) Log phase
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Lag phase
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Senescence
(3) Golgi bodies
(4) Polysomes (4) Dormancy

121. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the 127. Presence of which of the following conditions in
transfer of electrons from : urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
(1) PS-II to Cytb6f complex (1) Uremia and Ketonuria
(2) Cytb6f complex to PS-I (2) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(3) PS-I to NADP+ (3) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(4) PS-I to ATP synthase
(4) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
122. Match the following concerning essential elements
and their functions in plants : 128. Select the correct match.
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (1) Haemophilia - Y linked
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (2) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
(c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll dominant trait
biosynthesis (3) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis recessive trait,
Select the correct option : chromosome-11

(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Thalassemia - X linked

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
129. Strobili or cones are found in :
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) Salvinia

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) Pteris

(3) Marchantia
123. The roots that originate from the base of the stem
are : (4) Equisetum

(1) Fibrous roots

130. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
(2) Primary roots the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(3) Prop roots
(1) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(4) Lateral roots
(2) A person will have only two of the three
124. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino alleles.
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask : (3) When IA and IB are present together, they
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C express same type of sugar.
(2) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C (4) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C
(4) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C 131. Identify the correct statement with reference to
human digestive system.
125. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. (1) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(1) Tyrosine (2) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
(2) Glutamic Acid alimentary canal.
(3) Lysine (3) Ileum is a highly coiled part.
(4) Valine (4) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
 17 E2
132. Which of the following would help in prevention of 136. Match the following :
diuresis ? (a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
(1) More water reabsorption due to activity
undersecretion of ADH
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(2) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone (c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin
fungi
(3) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
vasoconstriction
Choose the correct option from the following :
(4) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(a) (b) (c) (d)
133. Match the following with respect to meiosis : (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
137. The sequence that controls the copy number of the
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
linked DNA in the vector, is termed :
Select the correct option from the following : (1) Selectable marker
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Ori site
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Palindromic sequence
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Recognition site
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
138. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
134. Which of the following is not an inhibitory temperature
substance governing seed dormancy ? (2) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
(1) Gibberellic acid UV-B radiation
(3) High reflection of light from snow
(2) Abscisic acid
(4) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(3) Phenolic acid
(4) Para-ascorbic acid 139. According to Robert May, the global species
diversity is about :
135. Match the following columns and select the (1) 1.5 million
correct option.
(2) 20 million
Column - I Column - II (3) 50 million
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (4) 7 million
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence 140. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
deaminase sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
deficiency rams ?
(1) Out crossing
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
(2) Mutational breeding
infection
(3) Cross breeding
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(4) Inbreeding
thuringiensis
141. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits
(a) (b) (c) (d)
highest species diversity ?
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Western Ghats of India
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) Madagascar
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Himalayas
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) Amazon forests
E2 18
142. Match the following columns and select the 147. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
correct option. and caffeine are produced by plants for their :
Column - I Column - II (1) Nutritive value
(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon (2) Growth response
gill slits (3) Defence action
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes (4) Effect on reproduction
caudal fin 148. Which of the following statements are true for
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes the phylum-Chordata ?
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
(a) (b) (c) (d) head to tail and it is present throughout
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) their life.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) the embryonic period only.
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
143. Which of the following statements is not hollow.
correct ? (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
(1) In man insulin is synthesised as a Hemichordata, Tunicata and
proinsulin. Cephalochordata.
(2) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
(1) (d) and (c)
C-peptide.
(3) The functional insulin has A and B chains (2) (c) and (a)
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (3) (a) and (b)
(4) Genetically engineered insulin is produced (4) (b) and (c)
in E-Coli.
149. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
144. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector (Bt) is resistant to :
thuringiensis (1) Insect pests
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of (2) Fungal diseases
aquaticus first rDNA (3) Plant nematodes
molecule (4) Insect predators
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
150. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
tumefaciens in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are :
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins (1) Ammonia alone
typhimurium (2) Nitrate alone
Select the correct option from the following : (3) Ammonia and oxygen
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Ammonia and hydrogen
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 151. Match the following columns and select the
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) correct option.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Column - I Column - II
145. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
algae ? (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(1) Laminaria and Sargassum (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Anabaena and Volvox (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) Chlorella and Spirulina (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
146. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is (a) (b) (c) (d)
completed : (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) Prior to ovulation
(2) At the time of copulation (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) After zygote formation (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
 19 E2
152. Which one of the following is the most abundant 158. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
protein in the animals ?
(1) They have RNA with protein coat.
(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Collagen (2) They have free RNA without protein coat.
(3) Lectin (3) They have DNA with protein coat.
(4) Insulin
(4) They have free DNA without protein coat.
153. Identify the correct statement with regard to
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. 159. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
(1) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. place by :
(2) Reorganisation of all cell components takes (1) insects or wind
place.
(3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does (2) water currents only
not replicate its DNA. (3) wind and water
(4) Nuclear Division takes place.
(4) insects and water
154. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem. 160. The transverse section of a plant shows following
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow anatomical features :
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit surrounded by bundle sheath.
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
Select the correct option : tissue.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Identify the category of plant and its part :
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) Monocotyledonous stem

155. The ovary is half inferior in : (2) Monocotyledonous root

(1) Brinjal (3) Dicotyledonous stem
(2) Mustard
(4) Dicotyledonous root
(3) Sunflower
(4) Plum
161. Which of the following statements is correct ?
156. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
at :
H-bonds.
(1) Hilum
(2) Micropyle (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
H-bond.
(3) Nucellus
(4) Chalaza (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds.
157. The specific palindromic sequence which is
recognized by EcoRI is : (4) Adenine does not pair with thymine.
(1) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5' 162. Select the correct statement.
(2) 5' - GGAACC - 3' (1) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
(2) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(3) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
3' - GAATTC - 5' (3) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
(4) 5' - GGATCC - 3' adipocytes.
3' - CCTAGG - 5' (4) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
E2 20
163. Match the following columns and select the 167. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
correct option. of :
(1) Adaptive radiation
Column - I Column - II
(2) Convergent evolution
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias (3) Industrial melanism
pest (4) Natural selection
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion 168. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
symmetry and larva release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
with bilateral symmetry follicle ?
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (1) High concentration of Estrogen
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (2) High concentration of Progesterone
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Low concentration of LH
(4) Low concentration of FSH
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 169. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs
is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 6.6×10 9 bp, then the length of the DNA is
164. Match the following columns and select the approximately :
correct option. (1) 2.0 meters
(2) 2.5 meters
Column - I Column - II (3) 2.2 meters
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (4) 2.7 meters
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis 170. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release Column - I Column - II
histaminase, (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
destructive (b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
enzymes Gonadotropin
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules (hCG)
containing (c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
histamine glands
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Penis
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
165. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
few days because :
(1) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the 171. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen. Column - I Column - II
(2) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(3) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous butylicum
system while the rest is situated along the (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
ventral part of its body.
polysporum
(4) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
while the rest is situated along the dorsal (c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
part of its body. purpureus
166. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA (d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
helix during transcription. lowering agent
(1) DNA ligase (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) DNA helicase (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) DNA polymerase (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) RNA polymerase (3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 21 E2
172. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified 178. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
from : vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent
stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of :
(1) Squamous epithelial cells
(1) M phase
(2) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) G1 phase
(3) Chondrocytes
(3) S phase
(4) Compound epithelial cells
(4) G2 phase

173. Experimental verification of the chromosomal

179. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net
theory of inheritance was done by :
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
(1) Mendel of the following statements is correct ?
(2) Sutton (1) Gross primary productivity is always less
than net primary productivity.
(3) Boveri
(2) Gross primary productivity is always more
(4) Morgan than net primary productivity.
(3) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
174. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water productivity are one and same.
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
and in early morning is : (4) There is no relationship between Gross
primary productivity and Net primary
(1) Transpiration productivity.
(2) Root pressure
180. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge
(3) Imbibition digester for further sewage treatment ?
(4) Plasmolysis (1) Primary sludge
(2) Floating debris
175. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
peptide bond, respectively in their structure : (3) Effluents of primary treatment
(4) Activated sludge
(1) Chitin, cholesterol
(2) Glycerol, trypsin
-o0o-
(3) Cellulose, lecithin
(4) Inulin, insulin

176. Which of the following is not an attribute of a

population ?
(1) Sex ratio
(2) Natality
(3) Mortality
(4) Species interaction

177. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :

(1) protein into polypeptides
(2) trypsinogen into trypsin
(3) caseinogen into casein
(4) pepsinogen into pepsin
E2 22
Space For Rough Work
 23 E2
Space For Rough Work
E2 24
Space For Rough Work