CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2022- 23)

PRE - MEDICAL : 2022

ALLEN MYSORE PRACTICE ASSESMENT
TEST - 08 Test Pattern: NEET
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 180 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
45 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
11. Question paper code given on Top right corner must be written and bubbled on OMR (Answer Sheet)
C
For Example: A B C A B C

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : BASIC MATHEMATICS & VECTORS

CHEMISTRY : CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

BOTANY : PHOTO SYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS

ZOOLOGY : ANIMAL TISSUES

 TEST-8_AMPA

1. The distance of the point (9, 12) from the origin is: 7. A vector points in the north-west direction. The
(1) 21 (2) 15 negative of this vector will point in which direction?
(3) 225 (4) 12 (1) North - East (2) South - East
dy (3) South - West (4) North - West
2. If y sin x cos x tan x then
dx 8. Given : A A cos i A sin j . A vector B , which
(1) cos x sin x sec 2 x is perpendicular to A , is given by
(2) cos x sin x sec x 2
(1) Bcos i Bsin j (2) Bsin i Bcos j
(3) cos x sin x co sec x 2

(3) Bcos i Bsin j (4) Bsin i Bcos j

(4) cos x sin x cosec 2 x
9. The magnitude of resultant of 3 vectors A,B & C
3. The minimum value of y 5x 2 2x 1 is:
(as shown in the figure) of equal magnitude 5 is
1 2
(1) (2) A
5 5
B
4 3
(3) (4)
5 5
4. The equation of the straight line shown here is 45
45 C
y
(1) 5 3 (2) 5 2
2
x
(3) 5 2 1 (4) 15
3
10. Let A and B be two vectors of equal magnitudes

2 units. A is directed towards north and B is

(1) 2x 3y 6 0 (2) 3x 2y 6 0
directed towards west. The direction of A B is
(3) 2x 3y 6 0 (4) 3x 2y 6 0
(1) North - East (2) South - West
5. Using binomial approximation, find the square root (3) South - East (4) North - West
of 0.96 to 2 places of decimal.
11. Equation of straight line is 2x 3y 5 . Slope of
(1) 0.94 (2) 0.98
the straight line is:
(3) 0.99 (4) 1.02
3 2
6. Area of shaded region between the two circles of (1) (2)
radii 2r and r is 2 3
2 3
2r (3) (4)
3 2

r dy
12. If y sin x ln x 2 e2x then will be:
dx
2 2
(1) cos x e 2x (2) cos x 2e 2x
x x
1 2 2 2
(1) r2 (2) r (3) cos x e 2x (4) cos x 2e 2x
2 x x
3 2
(3) r (4) 3 r 2
2

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 TEST-8_AMPA

13. If y e x .cot x then

dy will be dy
20. If y x 2 sin x, then will be –
dx dx
(1) e x cot x cos ec2 x (1) x 2 cos x 2x sin x (2) 2x sin x
(2) e x cos ec 2 x (3) x 2 cos x (4) 2x cos x
(3) e x cot x co sec 2 x dy
21. If y tan x.cos 2 x then will be –
dx
(4) e x cot x
(1) 1 2sin 2 x (2) 1 2sin 2 x
dy
14. If y x nx then will be: (3) 1 (4) 2sin 2 x
dx
(1) nx x (2) 1 nx 22. If Q 4v3 3v 2 , then the value of 'v' such that,
(3) nx (4) 1 there exist maxima of 'Q'.
15. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a 1
point is 16 N. If their resultant is normal to the smaller (1) 0 (2)
2
force and has a magnitude of 8 N. Then the forces
are 1
(1) 6N, 10N (2) 8N, 8N (3) (4) None of these
2
(3) 4N, 12N (4) 2N, 14N
dy
16. If the angle between the vectors A and B is , 23. If y 2sin 2 tan then will be –
d
the value of the product B A .A is equal to (1) 4sin cos sec tan
(2) 2sin 2 sec 2
(1) BA2 cos (2) BA2 sin
(3) 4sin sec2
(3) BA2 sin cos (4) Zero
(4) 2cos sec 2
17. If a1 and a 2 are two non-collinear unit vectors and
24. x 3 dx is equal to:
if a1 a2 3 , then the value of
x4
a1 a 2 . 2a1 a 2 is (1) 3x 2 (2) C
4
(1) 2 (2) 3/2
(3) 1/2 (4) 1 x4
(3) (4) 4x3
nx dy 4
18. If y then will be:
x dx 25. 2sin x dx is equal to :
1 nx 1 nx (1) 2 cos x C (2) 2 cos x C
(1) (2) 2
x x (3) 2 cos x (4) 2 cos x
1 nx nx 1 26. The sum of first 20 terms of the series
(3) 2 (4)
x x2 1, 3, 5, 7, 9............ is
19. Differentiation of sin x 2 3 w.r.t x is– (1) 400 (2) 100
(3) 55 (4) 110
(1) cos x 2 3 27. The sum of first 10 terms of the series
(2) 2x cos x 2 3 2, 6,18, 54............
(1) 210 (2) 310 1
(3) x 2 3 cos x 2 3
(3) 310 (4) 210 1
(4) 2x cos 2x 3

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28. The sum of infinite terms of the series 1

34. dx
1 1 1 1 x
1, , , , ,..........
3 9 27 8
(1) x c (2) 2 x c
3 2 1
(1) (2) c 2 32
2 3 (3) 3 (4) x c
2x 2 3
4 3
(3) (4) 35. Vector R is the resultant of the vectors A and B .
3 4
29. The maximum value of 5sin is Ratio of minimum value of R and maximum value
12 cos
(1) 7 (2) 7 1 |A|
of R is . Then may be
4 |B|
(3) 13 (4) 17.
30. Cos 106° = 3 5
(1) (2)
7 7 5 3
(1) (2)
25 25 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
18 18
(3) (4) 36. sin t dt
25 25

1 dy cos t sin t
31. If y then the value of at x = 2 is (1) C (2) C
2
x 4 dx
(3) cos t (4) cos t C
1
(1) 2 (2)
16 37. The average value of y x 2 in the interval
1 2 x 2 is
(3) 4 (4)
4 4
(1) 12 (2)
2x 1 dy 3
32. y
x 2 dx 16 20
(3) (4)
1 3 3 3
(1) x 2
2 (2) x 2
2
38. If a particle moves point P (2, 3, 5) to Q(3, 4, 5). Its
displacement vector be
1 4
(3) 2 (4) (1) ˆi ˆj 10kˆ (2) ˆi ˆj 5kˆ
x 2 x 2

33. If resultant of two unit vectors aˆ and bˆ is also a unit (3) ˆi ˆj (4) 2iˆ 4ˆj 6kˆ

vector, then magnitude of difference of aˆ and bˆ is 39. Two vectors A & B have magnitudes 3 units & 4
(1) Zero (2) 1 units. A B 6 units. Then the angle between
(3) 3 (4) 2 A B and A B is

(1) 60° (2) 30°

(3) 90° (4) 45°

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 TEST-8_AMPA

40. Two forces of magnitudes 10N & 12N act on a body 46. If ˆi, ˆjand kˆ are unit vectors along X, Y & Z axis
at an angle of 60° to each other. The resultant of respectively, then tick the wrong statement :
these two forces is
(1) ˆi ˆj 0 (2) ˆi ˆj kˆ
(1) 91 2 (2) 2 91
(3) ˆi.jˆ 1 (4) Both 1 and 3
(3) 91 (4) 20
47. Sum of 1 + 2 + 3 + 4.... + 10 is :-
41. The diagonals of a parallelogram are given by
(1) 110 (2) 55
4iˆ 3j and 2k . The area of the parallelogram is (3) 120 (4) 50
48. Equation of straight line having slope 2 and having
(1) 2 units (2) 10 units
intercept 3 on y axis is
(3) 5 units (4) 15 units
(1) y 2x (2) y 2x 3
42. Three vectors each numerically equal to 8 units are
acting as shown in the figure. The resultant of these (3) y 2x 3 (4) y 2x
vectors is
49. The coordinates of a particle moving in XY-plane
60 vary with time x a cos t and y a sin t .The
8 8 locus of the particle is a :-
(1) Straight line (2) Circle
60 60 (3) Parabola (4) Ellipse
8 50. Calculate slope of shown line :-
(1) 16 units (2) 8 units
(3) 0 (4) 24 units
43. Two vectors A & B have magnitudes 4 units and
8 units respectively. Angle between A & B is 120°.

The angle made by A B with A is

(1) 90° (2) 60°
1 1
(3) 100° (4) 75° (1) (2)
5 5
44. The resultant of three vectors A, B & C is zero.
3
Then the value of is (3) 1 (4)
4

C 51. alkadienes are functional group isomers of -

A (A) Alkynes (B) Alkenes
10 3
(C) Alkenynes (D) Cycloalkenes
B (1) A and B (2) B and C
10 (3) A and D (4) C and D
(1) 75° (2) 45° 52. The correctly matched pairs of the following are given
(3) 30° (4) 60° by the sets :
45. A (A) Neopentane – position isomer of isopentane
2i 4j 5k , B 4i 2 j 3k than A B
(B) Isopentane – three primary carbon atoms
(1) 12i 14 j 2k (2) 2i 14j 12k (C) isobutylene – no secondary carbon

(3) 2i 14j 12k (4) 2i 3j 5k (D) Isoprene – two primary carbons

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 TEST-8_AMPA

(1) A and B (2) B and C 60. The number of geometrical isomers in the following
(3) C and D (4) A and D compound is :-
53. The number of primary alkanols, secondary alkanols (1) 4 (2) 3
and tertiary alkanols possible with the formaula (3) 2 (4) 5
C4H10O is given by the set - 61. Geometrical isomerism exhibited by :-
(1) 2, 1, 0 (2) 1, 2, 1 (1) C2 H5 Br (2) (CH)2 (COOH)2
(3) 2, 1, 1 (4) 2, 1, 2 (3) CH3 CHO (4) (CH2)2(COOH)2
54. Which of the following shows functional isomerism –
(1) CH3 CH2Cl and CH3 CH2Br 62. CH3 CH2–CH2–CH3 and
(2) CH 3 CHBr 2 and CH2BrCH2Br
(3) C2H5 OC2H5 and CH3OC3 H7 CH3–CH2 CH2–CH3 are :-
(4) CH3CH2CHO and CH3 COCH3
(1) Chain isomer (2) Position isomer
55. Keto –enol tautomerism is observed in -
(3) Metamer (4) Functional isomer
O O
63. Ring chain isomer of cyclo pentane is / are:
(1) H5C6 – C – H (2) H5C6 – C – CH3
O
(1) (2)
(3) H5 C6 – C – C6 H5 (4) All of these
56. How many primary amines are possible for the
formula C4H11N:- (3) (4)
(1) 1 (2) 2
64. Given compound shows which type of isomerism
(3) 3 (4) 4
57. The number of asymmetric carbon atoms and the O
number of optical isomers in CH3(CHOH)2 COOH S—O and
are respectively:-
(1) 3 and 4 (2) 1 and 3 O
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 2 and 3 O
58. Select the S-configuration from the following:- S—O
O
Cl CH3
(1) Identical
(1) Br F (2) Cl H (2) Positional isomerism
(3) Metamerism
H CH2CH3 (4) Functional group isomerism
CH2CH 3 COOH 65. In which of the following has minimum torsional strain
and minimum Vander waal strain.
(3) H CH3 (4) H OH
CH3
CH3 CH3
CH2OH CH3 H H

59. Which of the following compound exhibit geometrical

isomerism :- CH3 H
CH3 CH3
H CH3
(1) 2-Methyl-1-pentene CH3
I II
(2) 2-Methyl-2-pentene
(3) 2-Hexene
(4) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene

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 TEST-8_AMPA

NC NC
CH3
CH3 CH3 70. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2 and CH3–C–CH3 are
CH3 H
CH3

H H
(1) Chain isomers (2) Positional isomers
H CH3
CH3 (3) Both (4) None
CH3 CH3
III IV 71. What should be the general formula of a cyclic
hydrocarbon having one double bond –
(1) I (2) II (1) CnH2n (2) CnH2n–2
(3) III (4) IV (3) CnH2n+2 (4) CnHn+1
66. In plane clockwise rotation of the projection formula
72. The IUPAC name of the following structure is
(A) of a compound by 90º and 180º yields the
projection formulae (B) and (C) respectively:- CH3
CH3 — C = C — C CH3
CHO H CH2OH
CH3 CH3— CH2
H OH HOCH2 CHO OH H
(1) 1, 1, 2, 5-Tetramethyl-1-penten-3-yne
CH2OH OH CHO (2) 2, 3-Dimethyl-2-hepten-4-yne
(A) (B) (C)
(3) 2, 3-Dimethyl-4-heptyne-2-ene
Which of the following statement is not correct (4) 5, 6-Dimethyl-3-heptyn-4-ene
about (A), (B) and (C) :- 73. Which of the following is the systematic IUPAC
(1) A and B are enantiomers name of line bond structral formula given below
(2) A and C are identical
(3) B and C are enantiomers HO
(4) A and C are enantiomers
67. The number of stereoisomers possible for 2,3-
pentanediol is :-
(1) Two (2) Three (1) 3,4- Dimethyl-2-buten -4-ol
(3) Four (4) Five (2) 1, 2-Dimethyl-2-butenol
68. The number of primary secondary and tertiary (3) 3-Methyl pent-3-en-2-ol
amines possible with the molecular formula C3H9N (4) 2,3-Dimethyl-3-pentenol
respectively :-
74. IUPAC name of allyl chloride is -
(1) 1, 2, 2 (2) 1, 2, 1
(1) 3-Chloro-1-propene (2) 1-Chloro-2-propene
(3) 2,1,1 (4) 3,0,1
(3) 1-Chloro-3-propene (4) 3-Propenyl Chloride
69. Which of the following will not show geometrical
isomerism :- 75. Which of the following compound has wrong IUPAC
name –
Me (1) CH3 CH2 CH2COOCH2CH3 Ethyl butanoate
(1) (2) Me
(2) CH3 — CH — CH2 — CHO 3-Methyl butanal
CH3
Me
(3) Cl (3) CH3 — CH — CH — CH3 2-Methyl-3-butanol
OH CH3
(4) Cl–CH=C=C=CH–Cl
O
(4) CH3 — CH — C — C2H5 2-Methyl 3-pentanone
CH3

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 TEST-8_AMPA
76. Toluene has :–
(1) 6 s and 3 p bond (2) 9 s and 3 p bond
(3) 9 s and 6 p bond (4) 15 s and 3 p bond (3) (4)
77. Rank of the following three compounds in decreasing
order of basicity . 81. Arrange following compounds in decreasing order
O of electrophilic substitution.
||
NHCCH 3 NH2 NH2 CH3
| | |
CH3 H—C—CH3
I II III
(i) (ii)

(1) III > I > II (2) III > II > I

CH3 H
(3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I
78. What is the decreasing order of stability of the ions ? CH3—C—CH3 H—C—CH3
+
I H3C H C (iii) (iv)

CH3
(1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) iii > iv > ii > i (3) i >
+ iv > ii > iii (4) i > ii > iv > iii
II H3C HC
82. Which of the following carbonium ion is most stable ?
O CH3
CH 3 C2 H 5
| |
+ (1) CH 3 C (2) C 2 H 5 C ( 3 )
III H3C HC | |
CH 3 C2 H 5
CH3
O
CH 3 C2 H 5
| |
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I CH 3 C (4) C 2 H 5 C
(3) III > I > II (4) II > I > III | |
H H
79. Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic
substitution reactions of the following compounds 83. Rank the following in order of stability (lowest to
highest) :
CH3

(I) (II)
(a) (b)

Cl NO2 (III) (IV)

(c) (d) (1) IV < II < III < I (2) IV < III < II < I
(3) I < III < II < IV (4) IV < II = III < I
(1) a > b > c > d (2) d > c > b > a
(3) b > a > c > d (4) b > c > a > d
80. Which of the following has longest C – O bond:

(1) (2)

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89. Decreasing order of –I effect of the triad [– NO2,
CD 3 CH 3
| |
84. CD 3 C CD 3 CH 3 C CH 3 NH3 , – CN] is -
(I ) ( II)
(1) NH3 > –NO2 > –CN
Which of the following statements is correct :
(1) I is more stable than II
(2) NH3 > –CN > –NO2
(2) II is more stable than I
(3) Both are equally stable
(3) –CN > –NO2 > NH3
(4) Stability criterion cannot be applied in this case.
85. Select correct statement:
(4) –NO2 > –CN > NH3
(1) –NO2 and –COOH group activates benzene
nucleus for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites. 90. The stabilization due to resonance is maximum in-
(2) –NH 2 and –OMe group activates benzene
nucleous for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites. (1) (2)
(3) –NH2 and –COOH group activates benzene
nucleous for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites.
(3) (4)
(4) –NO 2 and –OMe group activates benzene
nucleous for attack of E+ at o– and p– sites.
86. Which one of the following is the most acidic? 91. The IUPAC name of is:

(1) (2) (1) 2-chlorocarbonyl ethylbenzoate

(2) 2-carboxyethyl benzoyl chloride
(3) ethyl-2-(chlorocarbonyl) benzoate
(3) (4) CH2=CH–CH3
(4) ethyl-1-(chlorocarbonyl) benzoate
87. Which is stable carbanion?
92. The IUPAC name of is
CH2 s
(1) (2) p-NO 2 C6 H 4 CH 2
(1) 3-Methyl cyclo-1-butene-2-ol
(2) 4-Methyl cyclo-2-butene-1-ol
s s
(3) p-OCH.3 –C6H4 CH2 (4) p-CH3. .–C6 H 4 CH 2 (3) 4-Methyl cyclo-1-butene-3-ol
.. O . .. O .. (4) 2-Methyl cyclo-3-butene-1-ol
.. + 93. The most acidic ‘H ’
88. (I) H—C—OH
.. (II) H—C = .OH
.
.. . (Z)
.. O . .. O+.. (W) HO OH
.. .. H
(III) H—C—OH
.. (IV) H—C—OH
.. ..
+ CH2OH(X) is :
O O
Increasing order of stability is– OH
(Y)
(1) I < III < II < IV (2) IV < III < II < I Vitamin-C
(3) III < IV < II < I (4) II < IV < III < I (1) X (2) Y
(3) Z (4) W

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97. In Iso-octane, number of 1°H, 2°H & 3°H are :-
OH CH3 OH CH3
94. I CH3–C–N II CH3 –C–N
CH3 CH3
OH CH3
III CH3–C=N
CH3
(1) 1°H = 15, 2°H = 2, 3°H = 1
The stability order of these canonical structures
(2) 1°H = 10, 2°H = 1, 3°H = 1
is : (3) 1°H = 10, 2°H = 2, 3°H = 2
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I (4) 1°H = 15, 2°H = 1, 3°H = 1
(3) I > III > II (4) III > I > II 98. IUPAC name of the compound
95. In the following compounds
OH OH

(I) (II)

CH3
(1) Propanoic ethanoic anhydride
OH OH (2) Ethanoic propanoic anhydride
(3) Methanoic ethanoic anhydride
(III) (IV) (4) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride
NO2 99. Which of the following is homocyclic compound?
(1) Phenol (2) Thiophene
NO2 (3) Furan (4) Pyridine
The order of acidity is : 100. Isopropyl alcohol is :-
(1) III > IV > I > II (1) CH3 – CH 2 – CH 2 – OH
(2) I > IV > III > II
(3) II > I > III > IV
(2)
(4) IV > III > I > II
96. Find out total number s and p bonds respectively in
following compound.
(3)

(4)

(1) 14, 2 (2) 15,3 101. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
(3) 9, 3 (4) 12, 2 described by using algae
(1) Chlorella (2) Spirogyra
(3) Cladophora (4) Chlamydomonos
102. Reaction centre in photosystem is formed by
(1) Chl - b (2) Chl - a
(3) Carotene (4) Xanthophyll

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103. Name of the scientist who pointed out the importance (3) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
of different wavelength of light using a green algae (4) Statement-I is incorrect; statement-II is correct
and aerobic bacteria : 111. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation the last electron
(1) Priestley (2) Ingen Hausz acceptor is
(3) K.V.Thimann (4) Englemann (1) H2O (2) ADP
104. Which element are present in OEC (Oxygen evolving (3) NADP + (4) Fd
complex) 112. The no. of light Quanta (or) photons required for the
(1) Only Mn++ (2) Only Cl– evolution of 1 molecule of O2 in photosynthesis
(3) Only Ca++ (4) Mn++, Cl–, Ca++
105. The first step in photosynthesis is : (1) 4 (2) 1
(1) Synthesis of ATP
1
(2) Photolysis of water (3) 8 (4)
8
(3) Photo excitation of chlorophyll
113. How many of the given statements is/are correct
(4) Synthesis of carbohydrate for cyclic photophosphorylation?
106. The process which makes major difference between I. Only PS-I is functional.
C3 & C4 plants is
II. Occurs in grana and stroma thylakoids.
(1) Photorespiration (2) Respiration
III. Occurs by using 700nm light.
(3) Glycolysis (4) Calvin Cycle IV. Synthesis of both ATP and NADPH occurs.
107. Which of the following was not used in Priestley's V. Electrons are circulated between both
bell jar experiment? photosystem.
(1) Mint plant (2) Candle (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Mouse (4) Aquatic plants (3) One (4) Four
108. Following is the absorption spectrum of 114. During chemiosmosis the proton gradient breaks
photosynthesis. Identify X, Y and Z. when
(1) Proton moves across membrane through
X plastoquinone
Y (2) Movement of proton occurs from stroma to
lumen
Z
(3) pH of lumen increases
(4) Movement of proton occurs from lumen to
stroma
X Y Z 115. Which of the following (labelled as A, B, C, D) shows
(1) Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a conformational change for the synthesis of energy
(2) Chlorophyll-a Carotenoids Chlorophyll-b packed molecule during chemiosmosis?
(3) Chlorophyll-b Phycobillins Carotenes NADP
+

(4) Chlorophyll-a Carotenes Xanthophyll

NADPH
A B C
109. Water soluble pigment is
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Xanthopyll
+
(3) Carotenoids (4) Phycobilins H+
H
H+ Lumen
H+
110. Statement-I – PS II absorbs 680 nm of light. Thylakoid
membrane
Statement-II – PS I is located on non-appressed stroma
region of grana thylakoid & stroma lamellae. D

Choose the correct statement. ADP ATP

(1) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect

(1) A (2) C
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) D (4) B

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116. Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis involves 125. Select incorrect statement for chlorophyll-a.
synthesis of food, more accurately, ______ and (1) Porphyrin head consist of tetrapyrrole ring
occurs in ______.
(2) Head contains non-ionic Mg
(1) Lipid, Thylakoids
(3) Gives blue green colour in chromatogram
(2) Sugars, Stroma
(4) Differs from Chl-‘b’ in possessing CHO group
(3) ATP & NADPH, Thylakoids
in IInd Pyrrole ring.
(4) Glucose, Matrix
126. A sharp decline in rate of photosynthesis when light
117. The number of ATP consumed for fixation of one
wavelength > 680 nm was given to Chlorella by
CO2 by maize and rice plants is respectively
Emerson is
(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, 3
(1) Warburg effect
(3) 5, 3 (4) 5, 5
(2) Red drop effect
118. CO2 is released in mitochondria of A plants during B
(3) Emerson enhancement effect
(1) A – C3
(4) Pasture effect
B – Calvin cycle
(2) A – C3 127. Mobile electron carriers in ETS of chloroplast are
B – Photorespiration (1) UQ, Cyt. f (2) PQ, PC
(3) A – C4 (3) Fd, PQ (4) Cyt. b, PC
–
128. Primary e acceptor in PS-I is
B – Photorespiration
(4) A – C4 (1) Phaeophytin
B – Hatch and Slack pathway (2) Plastocyanin
119. Kranz anatomy is present in plants which shows (3) Cytochrome
(1) High productivity (4) An iron-sulphur protein
(2) Chloroplast monomorphism 129. Common feature of both cyclic and non-cyclic
(3) Sensitivity to high temperature photophosphorylation is
(4) Succulent behaviour (1) Development of proton gradient across the
thylakoid membrane
120. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required to form
one molecule of sucrose? (2) Photolysis of water to release O2
(1) Six (2) Twelve (3) Reduction of NADP+
(3) Two (4) Four (4) Accumulation of protons in stroma
121. Scotoactive stomata are associated with 130. CAM plants differ from C4 plants in
(1) C3 plants (2) C4 plants (1) Possessing dimorphic chloroplasts
(3) CAM plants (4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Absence of Kranz anatomy
122. The major limiting factor for photosynthesis is (3) Presence of double carboxylation
(1) Light (2) CO2 (4) Formation of OAA as first stable product
(3) Temperature (4) H2O 131. In plants having 4-C compound as first stable product
of biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis
123. In majority of plants, the light saturation occurs at
(1) Larger number of agranal chloroplasts occur
(1) 70% of full sunlight (2) 10% of full sunlight in bundle sheath cells
(3) 5% of full sunlight (4) 25% of full sunlight (2) RuBisCO is absent in mesophyll cell
124. What is incorrect for photosynthesis? chloroplasts
(1) Photosynthesis is the secondary source of all (3) Photorespiration does not occur as they have
food on earth CO2 concentrating steps
(2) It is a physico-chemical process (4) All are corrrect
(3) Photosynthetically active radiation is
400-700 nm
(4) Releases oxygen as a by-product

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139. Agranal chloroplasts are found in
132. Photorespiration is a wasteful process and occurs in
all C3 plants when (1) Mesophyll of pea leaves
(1) Atmospheric temperature and light intensity (2) Bundle sheath of mango leaves
is high (3) Mesophyll of maize leaves
(2) The enzyme RuBisCO acts as oxygenase (4) Bundle sheath of sugarcane leaves
instead of carboxylase 140. Isotopes employed to study the process of
(3) RuBP upon oxygenation produces a 2-C photosynthesis reaction.
compound phosphoglycolate (1) S35 and P32 (2) C14 and O18
(4) More than one option is correct (3) N14 and Co60 (4) N14 and O18
133. C4 plants are able to tolerate saline conditions because 141. In light reaction of photosynthesis oxygen comes
of from -
(1) CO2 fixation is separated by space (1) Water (2) CO2
(2) Presence of organic acids (3) Soil (4) Atmosphere
(3) Presence of granal chloroplasts in mesophyll 142. Which of the following does not participate the light
cells reaction synthesize onlly ATP:-
(4) Presence of low temperature sensitive (1) PS-II (2) PS-I
enzyme pyruvate phosphate dikinase (3) Cyt C (4) Plastoquinone
134. Productivity of which crop can be increased if grown 143. Name the scientist, who first pointed out that plants
in CO2 enriched atmosphere is/are purify air by bell jar experiment
(1) Tomato, sorghum (1) Stephen hales (2) J.V. Sachs
(2) Bell pepper (3) J. Pristley (4) Jan Ingenhousz
(3) Bell pepper and sugarcane 144. The most effective wavelenth of visible light in
(4) Sugarcane and maize photosynthesis in the region of which of the
135. Calvin cycle of C4 plants operates in : following?
(1) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts (1) Green (2) Yellow
(2) Stroma of chloroplasts in mesophyll cells (3) Red (4) Violet
(3) Bundle sheath cells chloroplasts 145. Which of the following photosynthesis bacteria have
(4) The statements is wrong both PS-I & PS-II?
136. Photorespiration takes place in - (1) Purple sulphur bacteria
(1) Chloroplast, mitochondria, E.R (2) Cyanobacteria
(2) Mitochondria, peroxisome, Golgi (3) Purple non sulphur bacteria
(3) Bundle sheath chloroplasts, Peroxisome (4) Green sulphur bacteria
Plastids 146. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have
(4) Chloroplast, peroxisome, mitochondria been instrumental in the discovery of
137. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (1) Oxidative phosphorylation
(1) Occurs in stroma lamella only (2) Photophosphorylation and non- cyclic electron
transport
(2) Involves PS II only
(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously
(3) Is not associated with splitting of water
(4) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron
(4) Results in the formation of ATP, transport
NADPH+H+ and liberation of O2
138. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction
(1) ATP (2) FADH + H+
(3) NADPH + H+ (4) Oxygen

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147. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have 153. Compound epithelium is found in:
(1) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several (1) Wall of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs
chloroplasts (2) Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(2) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few (3) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of
chloroplasts pancreatic ducts
(3) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no (4) Lining of stomach and intestine
chloroplasts
154. Tubular parts of Nephrons of kidney have :
(4) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large
(1) Squamous epithelium
number of chloroplasts
(2) Cuboidal epithelium
148. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory
losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows (3) Columnar epithelium
high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures (4) Compound epithelium
and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. 155. The moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx have :
In which of the following physiological groups would (1) Squamous epithelium
you assign this plant?
(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(1) Nitrogen fixer (2) C3
(3) Columnar epithelium
(3) C4 (4) CAM
(4) Compound epithelium
149. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
156. Which tissue is most abundant and widely distributed
photosynthesis, which of the following statements
in the body of complex animals ?
is not correct?
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue
(1) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10%
of full sunlight (3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue
(2) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 157. The inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate and fallopian tubes have :
(3) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with (1) Squamous epithelium
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have (2) Cuboidal epithelium
much lower temperature optimum (3) Ciliated epithelium
(4) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be (4) Compound epithelium
grown in CO2- enriched atmosphere for higher
158. Read the following statements (A - D) :
yield
(A) Blood circulation is absent
150. The process which makes major difference between
C3 and C4 plants is (B) It originates from all three germinal layers
(1) Glycolysis (2) Calvin cycle (C) The cells are compactly packed with little
intercellular matrix
(3) Photorespiration (4) Respiration
(D) The cells are arranged in an uniform layer
151. In which tissue, cells are compactly packed with
little intercellular matrix ? How many statements are correct about epithelial
tissue :
(1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue
(1) Two (2) Four
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue
(3) Three (4) One
152. Which cell junction help to stop substances from
leaking across a tissue ? 159. In all connective tissue the cells secrete fibres of
structural proteins, except:
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone
(3) Adhering junction (4) Interdigitation
(3) Blood (4) Areolar tissue
160. Tendons and ligaments are example of :
(1) Areolar connective tissue
(2) Adipose connective tissue
(3) Dense regular tissue
(4) Dense irregular tissue
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161. How many are an example of simple squamous 165. Match column - I with column - II :
epithelium in the list given below :
Air sac of lungs
Inner lining of blood vessels
Germinal epithelium
Lining of stomach and intestine
Bowman's capsule
Tubular parts of Nephron
Moist surface of Buccal cavity
Visceral and Parietal Peritoneum
Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands
(1) Four (2) Five
(1) A (ii), (iii), (viii); B (v), (vii); C (i), (vi);
(3) Six (4) Seven
D (iv), (ix)
162. Match the column-I with column-II:
(2) A (iii), (viii), (ii); B (iv), (vii); C (i), (vi);
D (v), (ix)
(3) A (i), (iii), (vii); B (ii), (iv); C (v), (ix);
D (vi), (vii)
(4) A (ii), (iii) ; B (iv), (vii), (viii); C (i), (vi);
D (v), (ix)
166. Softest tissue of body is :
(1) Bone (2) Blood
(3) Cartilage (4) Muscle
(1) A c, e; B a, b; C d; D f 167. Identify figure - I and figure - II respectively
(2) A c, e;B b; C a; D d, f
(3) A a, c; B b, f; C d; D e
(4) A c; B b; C a, e; D d, f
163. Which is not an example of specialised connective
tissue ?
(1) Blood (2) Bones
(3) Cartilage (4) Tendons (1) Areolar tissue, Adipose tissue
164. Areolar connective tissue is : (2) Dense regular tissue, Dense irregular tissue
(1) Yellow Bone marrow (3) Dense irregular tissue, Dense regular tissue
(2) Tendon and Ligaments (4) Adipose tissue, Areolar tissue
(3) Dermis of skin 168. Which of the mammalian tissue is associated with
filteration and diffusion ?
(4) True vocal cords
(1) Simple columnar (2) Simple squamous
(3) Stratified squamous (4) Stratified columnar
169. In connective tissue, cells that produce and secrete
fibres are :
(1) Mast cells (2) Fibroblast cells
(3) Macrophages (4) Adipose cells

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170. Find out the correct match : 173. The four sketches (A, B,C and D) given below
represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option
given along with its correct location and function :

(1) A (i), (iii), (viii); B (iv), (vii), (v);

C (ii), (vi)
(2) A (iii), (viii); B (i), (iv), (v), (vii);
C (ii), (vi)
(3) A (iii), (v), (viii); B (i), (iv), (vii);
C (ii), (vi)
(4) A (iii), (v), (viii); B (i), (iv), (viii);
C (ii), (vi), (vii)
171. Read the following (A- D) statements.
(A) It is made of more than one layer (multilayered)
of cells.
(B) It has a limited role in secretion and absorption
(C) Their main function is to provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stress
(D) It covers the dry surface of the skin and the
moist surface of buccal cavity 174. Read the following (A-D) statements :
How many of the above statements are correct for (A) Tight junctions help to stop substances from
compound epithelium ? leaking across a tissue.
(1) Four (2) Three (B) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep
(3) Two (4) One neighbouring cells together.
172. Read the following (A-D) statements : (C) The simple epithelium consists of two or more
(A) Connective tissue are most abundant and widely cell layers and has protective function.
distributed in the body of complex animals. (D) The columnar epithelium is made of a single
(B) They are named connective tissues because of layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
their special function of linking and supporting How many of the above statements are correct ?
other tissues/organs of the dody.
(1) Four (2) Three
(C) They range from soft connective tissues to
specialised types, which include cartilage, bone, (3) Two (4) One
adipose and blood.
(D) The cells of connective tissue secrete modified
polysaccharides, which accumulate between
cells and fibres and act as matrix.
How many of the above statements are correct for
connective tissue :
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One

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175. Identify the glands (A) and (B) shown below and 179. Which of the following is correctly matched pair ?
select the right option for location and function :

180. How many statements are correct for Basement

membrane ?
(i) Secreted by epithelium and connective tissue
(ii) Cellular and living
(iii) Composed by glycoprotein and
mucopolysaccharide
(iv) Highly permeable
(1) 3 (2) 2
176. Which of the following is correct match of epithelial (3) 1 (4) 4
tissue ? 181. How many of following is composed of columnar
epithelium and it's modification ?
Bileduct, Gall bladder, PCT, Collecting tube,
Ependymal epithelium, mesothelium, Stomach,
Intestine.
(1) 3 (2) 5

177. Read the following statements having two blanks (3) 4 (4) 2
(A) and (B) : 182. Mammalian bone differs from cartilage due to
Function of....(A)....is to move particles is a specific presence of:
direction over the epithelium. They are present in (1) Collagen (2) Blood vessels
the inner surface of hollow organs like....(B).... .
(3) Lymph vessels (4) Haversian canal
The one correct option for the two blanks is :
183. How many statements are correct for cartilage ?
(A) Cartilage is a specialised connective tissue
(B) Matrix is solid and pliable
(C) Martix does not resist compression
(D) Cells are enclosed in lacunae
(E) Vertebrate embryo contains cartilage
178. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ? (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 2
184. Select the correct statement:

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185. Which of the following statements about cell junctions 188. How many statements are correct about columnar
are correct : epithelium ?
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together A. It is composed of a single layer of tall and
with little intercellular materials. slender cells.
(ii) In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction B. Their nuclei are located at the base.
provide both structural and functional link C. It is commonly found in ducts of Glands and
between its individual cells. tubules parts of Nephrons.
(iii) Tight junction help to stop substances from D. Their free surface may have microvilli.
leaking across a tissue.
E. They cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep
surface of buccal.
neighbouring cells together
F. They are found in the living of stomach and
(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels
intestine and help in secretion and absorption.
between cells for passage of ions, small
molecules and sometimes big molecules. (1) Three (2) Four
(1) (ii) and (iii) (3) Five (4) Two
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) 189. Pick the odd one in each series and select the correct
(3) (iv) and (v) option :
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (vi) and (v) A. Salivary gland, sweat gland, tear gland, thyroid
gland
186. Match column-I with column-II and find the correct
option : B. Blood, Tendon, Bone, Cartilage
C. Monocyte, Lymphocyte, Erythrocyte,
Neutrophils
D. Collegen fibres, Reticular fibres, Elastic fibres,
Fibroblast cells

(1) A = i, B = ii, C = iii, D = iv, E = v

(2) A = iii, B = i, C = iii, D = iv, E = ii
(3) A = iii, B = i, C = iv, D = v, E = ii
(4) A = ii, B = i, C = iv, D = v, E = iii
187. Study the figure I and II carefully and identify the
190. Consider the following four statements and select
structures A, B and C respectively which are related
the correct option which question are True (T) and
with specialized connective tissues :
Which Questions are False (F) ?
A. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibres.
B. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate, embroys
are replaced by bones in adults.
C. In the dense regular connective tissue the
collagen fibres are present in rows between
many parallel bundles of fibres.
D. Simple epithelium covers the dry surface of the
skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx,

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197. Dermis of the skin is ___
(1) an areolar tissue
(2) an adipose tissue
(3) a dense irregular tissue
(4) a dense regular tissue
191. Which cell junction perform cementing to keep 198. Cytochrome is found in___
neighbouring cells together ? (1) Brown fat (2) White fat
(1) Hemidesmosomes (3) areolar tissue (4) dense regular tissue
(2) Adhering junctions 199. ____ is more stretchable, since it lacks basement
(3) Gap junctions membrane.
(4) Inter digititation (1) Urothelium
192. Which of the following tissues is non-vascular ? (2) Transitional epithelium
(a) Skeletal muscles (3) Simple epithelium
(b) Dense reticular tissue (4) Both 1 and 2
(c) Cartilage 200. Perichondrium is absent in ___Cartilage
(d) Epithelium (1) Hyaline (2) Elastic
(e) Tendons (3) White fibro (4) Calcified
(1) (c) and (d) only (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
193. The epithelium which protects against mechanical
and osmotic shocks is present in all, except:
(1) Vagina
(2) Larger ducts of pancreas
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Tubular parts of nephron
194. Which of the following is not considered a connective
tissue?
(1) Adipose tissue (2) Cartilage
(3) Muscle (4) Blood
195. Select the correct statement about epithelial tissue.
(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of two
distinct layers of cells as well as nuclei
(2) Pseudostratified epithelium consists of two
distinct layers of cells as well as nuclei
(3) Simple squamous epithelial lining of blood
vessels is called mesothelium
(4) Mesothelium is derived from embryonic
mesoderm
196. Which cells in an animal tissue secrete both white
collagen fibers and yellow elastin fibers?
(1) Histiocytes (2) Fibroblasts
(3) Mast cella (4) Adipocytes

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