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 PRACTICE TEST-19 (Physics) 24.04.2022

1. The displacement of a particle executing S.H.M is 9. A body executing S.H.M. along a straight line has a
given by x = 0.01 sin 100 𝜋(t + 0.05). The time velocity of 3 ms–1 when it is at a distance of 4 m
period is from its mean position and 4 ms–1 when it is at a
(1) 0.01 s (2) 0.02 s distance of 3 m from its mean position. Its angular
(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.2 s frequency and amplitude are
(1) 2 rad s–1 & 5 m
2. A particle moves under force F = –5(x – 2)3. Motion (2) 1 rad s–1 & 10 m
of the particle is (3) 2 rad s–1 & 10 m
(1) Translatory (2) Oscillatory (4) 1 rad s–1 & 5 m
(3) S.H.M (4) All of these
10. The frequency of oscillation of a mass m suspended
3. For a particle showing motion under the force by a spring is 1. If length of spring is cut to one
F = –5(x – 2)2, the motion is third then the same mass oscillates with frequency
(1) Translatory (2) Oscillatory 2, then
(3) S.H.M. (4) All of these (1) 2 = 31 (2) 32 = 1
(3) 2 = 3 1 (4) 3 2 = 1
4. For a particle showing motion under the force
F = –5(x – 2), the motion is 11. Two particles executing S.H.M. of same frequency,
(1) Translatory (2) Oscillatory meet at x = +A/2, while moving in opposite
(3) S.H.M. (4) Both (2) & (3) directions. Phase difference between the particles is
(1) /6 (2) /3
5. A boy is swinging in a swing. If he stands, the time (3) 5/6 (4) 2/3
period will
(1) First decrease, then increase 12. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion,
(2) Decrease the amplitude is A and time period is T.
(3) Increase The maximum speed will be
(4) Remain same (1) 4 AT (2) 2A/T
A 2A
6. Time period of a simple pendulum in a freely falling (3) 2 (4)
T T
lift will be
(1) Finite (2) Infinite
13. A particle is executing S.H.M.. with amplitude A
(3) Zero (4) All of these and has maximum velocity v0. Its speed at
displacement 3A/4 will be
7. If effective length of a simple pendulum is equal to 7 v0
radius of earth (R), time period will be (1) v0 (2)
4 2
R 2R
(1) T =  (2) T = 2 3
g g (3) v0 (4) v0
2
R R
(3) T = 2 (4) T = 2
g 2g 14. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
d 2x
8. A particle is executing S.H.M. with time period T. according to equation 4 + 320 x = 0. Its time
dt 2
If time period of its total mechanical energy is T  period of oscillation is
then T /T
2 
(1) 2 (2) 1/2 (1) s (2) s
5 3 3 2
(3) Zero (4) Infinite
 2
(3) s (4) s
2 5 3
[1]
15. The plot of velocity (v) versus displacement (x) of a 20. The time period of oscillations of a simple
particle executing simple harmonic motion is shown pendulum is 1 minute. If its length is increased by
in figure. The time period of oscillation of particle 44%. then its new time period of oscillation will be
is (1) 96 s (2) 58 s
(3) 82 s (4) 72 s

21. If the length of a clock pendulum increases by 0.2%

due to atmospheric temperature rise, then the loss in
time of clock per day is
(1) 86.4 s (2) 43.2 s
(3) 72.5 s (4) 32.5 s

(1) s (2) s
2 22. A simple pendulum is oscillating in a trolley moving
(3) 2 s (4) 3 s on a horizontal straight road with constant
acceleration a. If direction of motion of trolley is
taken as positive x direction and vertical upward
16. A particle of mass 10 g is undergoing S.H.M. of
direction as positive y direction then the mean
amplitude 10 cm and period 0.1 s. The maximum
position of pendulum makes an angle
value of force on particle is about
g
(1) 5.6 N (2) 2.75 N (1) tan −1   with y axis in +x direction
(3) 3.5 N (4) 4 N a
a
(2) tan −1   with y axis in –x direction
17. A particle of mass 4 kg moves simple harmonically g
such that its PE(U) varies with position x, as shown.
a
The period of oscillations is (3) tan −1   with y axis in +x direction
g
g
(4) tan −1   with y axis in –x direction
a

23. The shape of graph between time period of a simple

pendulum and its length is
2  2 (1) Straight line
(1) s (2) s
25 5 (2) Parabolic
4 2 2 (3) Hyperbolic
(3) s (4) s
5 5 (4) Elliptical

18. The kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle 24. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is suspended
executing S.H.M. are equal, when displacement in about its end. Time period of small angular
terms of amplitude ‘A’ is oscillations is
A
(1) A/2 (2)
2
A 2
(3) (4) A 2
3

l 2l
19. A block is resting on a piston which executes simple (1) 2 (2) 2
harmonic motion with a period 2.0 s. The maximum g g
velocity of the piston, at an amplitude just sufficient 2l l
for the block to separate from the piston is (3) 2 (4) 2
3g 3g
(1) 1.57 ms–1 (2) 3.12 ms–1
(3) 2.0 ms–1 (4) 6.42 ms–1

[2]
25. A block of mass m hangs from three springs having 29. In a simple harmonic wave, minimum distance
same spring constant k. If the mass is slightly between particles in same phase always having
displaced downwards, the time period of oscillation same speed, is
will be  
(1) (2)
4 3

(3) (4) 
2

30. The tones that are separated by three octaves have a

frequency ratio of
m 3m (1) 3 (2) 6
(1) 2 (2) 2
3k 2k (3) 8 (4) 16
2m 3k
(3) 2 (4) 2 31. On the superposition of the two waves given as
3k m
 
y1 = A0 sin(t − kx) & y2 = A0 cos  t − kx +  ,
 6
26. A pulse is generated at lower end of a hanging rope
of uniform density and length L. The speed of the the resultant amplitude of oscillations will be
pulse when it reaches the mid point of rope is A0
(1) 3A0 (2)
2
3
(3) A0 (4) A0
2

32. Two waves of amplitudes A0 and xA0 pass through

(1) 2gL a region. If x >1, the difference in the maximum and
minimum resultant amplitude possible is
(2) gL (1) (x + 1)A0 (2) (x – 1) A0
gL (3) 2x A0 (4) 2 A0
(3)
2
33. Which of the following represents a standing wave?
gL
(4) (1) y = A sin (t − kx)
2
(2) y = Ae–bx sin (t − kx + )
(3) y = A sin kx sin (t − )
 y
27. A wave is represented by x = 4cos  8t −  , where (4) y = (ax + b) sin( t – kx)
 2
x and y are in metre and t in second. The frequency
of the wave (in s–1) is 34. The equation of standing wave in a stretched string
4 8  x 
(1) (2) is given by y = 5sin   cos (40t ), where x and y
   3
2  are in cm and t in second. The separation between
(3) (4) two consecutive nodes is (in cm)
 4
(1) 1.5 (2) 3
(3) 6 (4) 4
28. If u is instantaneous velocity of particle and v is
velocity of wave, then
35. In a stationary wave
(1) u is perpendicular to v (1) Strain is maximum at nodes
(2) u is parallel to v (2) Strain is minimum at nodes
(3) | u | is equal to | v | (3) Strain is maximum at antinodes
(4) Amplitude is zero at all points
(4) | u | = (slope of wave form) | v |

[3]
36. A 12 m long vibrating string has the speed of wave 44. Input signal to a common emitter amplifier having
48 m/s. To what frequency it will resonate? a voltage gain of 1000 is given by
(1) 2 cps (2) 4 cps vi = (0.04 V) sin (t + /2). The corresponding
(3) 6 cps (4) All of these output signal is
(1) (40 V ) sin (t + /2)
37. The length of a sonometer wire is 0.75 m and (2) (0.004 V ) cos (t + /2)
density 9 × 103 Kg/m3. It can bear a stress of
8.1 × 108 N/m2 without exceeding the elastic limit. (3) (4V ) cos (t − /2)
The fundamental frequency that can be produced in (4) (4V ) sin (t − /2)
the wire, is
(1) 200 Hz (2) 150 Hz 45. For a transistor amplifier power gain and voltage
(3) 600 Hz (4) 450 Hz gain are 7.5 and 2.5 respectively. The value of the
current gain will be
38. An aluminium rod having a length 100 cm is (1) 0.33 (2) 0.66
clamped at its middle point and set into longitudinal (3) 0.99 (4) 3
vibrations.
Let the rod vibrate in its fundamental mode. The 46. In a silicon transistor, a change of 7.89 mA is the
density of aluminium is 2600 kg/m3 and its Young’s emitter current produces a change of 7.8 mA in the
modulus is 7.8 × 1010 N/m2. The frequency of the collector current. What change in the base current is
sound produced is necessary to produce an equivalent change in the
(1) 1250 Hz (2) 2740 Hz collector current?
(3) 2350 Hz (4) 1685 Hz (1) 9 mA (2) 0.9 mA
(3) 0.09 mA (4) Zero
39. The string of a violin has a frequency of 440 cps. If
the violin string is shortened by one fifth, its 47. Which of the following gates corresponds to the
frequency will be changed to truth table given below?
(1) 440 cps (2) 880 cps
A B Y
(3) 550 cps (4) 2200 cps
1 1 0
40. A wire of length one metre under a certain initial 1 0 1
tension emits a sound of fundamental frequency 256 0 1 1
Hz. When the tension is increased by 1 kg wt, the
0 0 1
frequency of the fundamental node increases to 320
Hz. The initial tension is (1) NAND (2) NOR
(1) 3/4 kg wt (2) 4/3 kg wt (3) XOR (4) OR
(3) 16/9 kg wt (4) 20/9 kg wt 47. (1)
y = A, B
41. In case of closed pipe which harmonic the pth
overtone will be
(1) 2p + 1 (2) 2p – 1 48. Write down the boolean expression for output Y of
a system shown in figure
(3) p + 1 (4) p – 1

42. The pitch of an organ pipe is highest when the pipe

is filled with
(1) Air (2) Hydrogen
(3) Oxygen (4) Carbon dioxide
(1) AB + AB
43. A closed pipe of length 10 cm has its fundamental
frequency half that of the second overtone of an (2) ( A + B )( A + B)
open pipe. The length of the open pipe (3) AB + AB
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (4) AB + ( A + B )
(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
[4]
49. Liquid crystal display monitors are made of 50. Which of the following cannot be obtained from an
(1) Monocrystals (2) Single crystals IC?
(3) Liquid crystals (4) Polycrystals (1) Resistor (2) Diode
(3) Inductor (4) Capacitor

[5]
 ANSWER KEY
1. (2) 26. (3)
2. (2) 27. (1)
3. (1) 28. (4)
4. (4) 29. (1)
5. (2) 30. (3)
6. (2) 31. (3)
7. (4) 32. (4)
8. (4) 33. (3)
9. (4) 34. (2)
10. (3) 35. (1)
11. (4) 36. (4)
12. (4) 37. (1)
13. (1) 38. (2)
14. (3) 39. (4)
15. (1) 40. (3)
16. (4) 41. (1)
17. (4) 42. (2)
18. (2) 43. (3)
19. (2) 44. (3)
20. (4) 45. (4)
21. (1) 46. (3)
22. (2) 47. (1)
23. (2) 48. (3)
24. (3) 49. (3)
25. (2) 50. (3)

[6]
 HINT AND SOLUTIONS
1. (2) 8. (4)
x = 0.01sin 100 ( t + 0.05) Total mechanical energy will never change so
Here  = 100 T
T =   =
2 2 1 T
T= = = = 0.02 s 9. (4)
 100 50
v =  A2 − x 2
2. (2) v1 = 3 m/s x1 = 4 m
F = –5(x – 2) 3
v2 = 4 m/s x2 = 3 m
Acceleration is negative when (x – 2) is positive
and positive when (x – 2) is negative. 3 =  A2 − 4 2 …(i)
Hence it is an oscillatory motion about x = 2. 4 =  A2 − 32 …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
3. (1) A = 5 m and  = 1rad / s
F = –5(x – 2)2
The motion depicts a non uniform translatory 10. (3)
motion as the acceleration just keeps increasing in
kold
the negative direction. This is because (x – 2) is old =
always positive. m
When divided into 3 parts the spring constant of
smaller parts
4. (4)
Force varies linearly with time with respect to  kfinal = 3kold
–(x – 2).  final = 3old
F  – (x – 2)  = 2
Hence motion of the particle is an S.H.M.
Hence final = 3old  2 = 31
5. (2)
A swing is like a pendulum. So 11. (4)
x = A sin t
l
T = 2 When displacement
g
A
When the boy stands the C.O.M. will become x=
2
higher. Thus ‘l’ will become shorter and so
A
according to the equation of time period. Time = A sin ( t +  )
period will decrease. 2
1
sin −1 = t + 
6. (2) 2
l t +  = 30 or 150
T= When particles are in opposite direction at one lime
g
phase is 30° and at the other 150°. So phase
In a freely falling lift g = 0.
difference is 120°.
Hence T = infinite.
12. (4)
7. (4) Maximum speed is given by
1 v = A
T = 2
 1 1 2
g +  and =
R I T
R 2
I =R T = 2 Hence v = A
2g T

[7]
13. (1) 17. (4)
Mass = 4 kg
v =  A2 − x 2
1 2
3 Maximum P.E. = kA
x= A 2
4
1
1=  k  (0.2) 2
9 A2 2
v =  A2 −
16 2
=k
7 0.04
v = A
16 k = 50 N/m
7 m
or v = v0 as ( v0 = A) T = 2
4 k
4
T = 2
14. (3) 50
d 2x 2 2
4 2
+ 320 x = 0 = s
dt 5
4 a = −320 x
a = −80 x 18. (2)
Since a = − x in S.H.M.
2 1 2
Total energy = kA
2
80 = 2 When P.E. is half of total energy P.E. = K.E.
16  5 =  1 2 1
 kx = k ( A2 − x 2 )
or = 4 5 2 2
2 2  x 2 = A2 − x 2  2 x 2 = A2
T= = = s
 4 3 2 5 A
x=
2
15. (1)
A = 10 cm A = 0.4 m/s 19. (2)
= 0.1 m Period (T ) = 2 s
  = 4 rad/s 2
=
=  rad/s
2  2
T= = s
4 2 When block just represent from a piston, maximum
acceleration must be equal to g.
16. (4) g = −2 X
T = 0.1 m = 0.01 kg Acceleration is maximum when x = A
  = 20 rad/s g = −2 A
Amplitude A = 0.1 m 9.8
or A=
a = − x 2
2
Maximum acceleration = −2 A Maximum velocity = A
9.8
Maximum force = −m2 A = 2 

Fmax = −0.01  (20) 2  0.1 9.8
= m/s
Fmax = −0.001  4002 = –3.95 N 
or –4 N approximately = 3.119 m/s = 3.12 m/s

[8]
20. (4) 24. (3)
Let initial length be I1 This is the case of a physical pendulum.
144
Final length I 2 = I1  T = 2
lcom
100 mgLcom
I1
T1 = 2 L mL2
g Lcom = lcm =
2 3
I1 144
T2 = 2  2l
g 100 T = 2
3g
or T2 = 1.2 T1
T1 = 60 s 25. (2)
So T2 = 72 s The first two springs are in parallel.
So, keq of 1st 2 will be = 2k
21. (1) Then it becomes
The springs 2k and k are in series.
I
Time period = 2 2k  k
g So, keq =
2k + k
T I 2k  k 2
= = k
T I 3k 3

T I m
T = 2
l + l  Δ keq
T = T
l 3m
 T = 2
 1 
T  = T 1 +  Δ  Δ = 0.002 2k
 2 
1 26. (3)
ΔT = T  − T = T  Δ = T  0.001
2 T
v=
Time lost in time t is 
1
ΔT = t = 1 day = 24 × 3600 s = 86400 s Weight of the string below the rope stretching it =
2 L
g
 ΔT  2
ΔT =  t
 T  This is equal to T at the middle.
ΔT = 0.001 86400 L g
 Velocity at middle =
ΔT = 86.4 s 2
gL
22. (2) =
2
T sin  = ma …(i)
T cos  = mg …(ii)
27. (1)
Dividing (i) and (ii)
 y
a x = 4cos   8t − 
T cos  =  2
g
Comparing with x = A sin (kx − t )
a
 = tan −1   =8
g
and  =2f
. (2)
8
f =
2
4
f =

[9]
28. (4)   
or y2 = A0 sin  t − kx + + 
u may be perpendicular or parallel to v depending  6 2
on whether it is a transverse or longitudinal wave. 2
y = A sin kx − t Ar2 = A02 + A0.2 2 A02 cos
6
dy
= A cos kx − t −1
Ar2 = 2 A02 + 2 A02 
dt 2
dy
=v  Ar = A0
dt
u = − A cos kx − t 32. (4)
 Amplitudes are A0 and xA0
|v|=
k  Maximum amplitude where they are in phase
Slope of y = Asin kx − t are A0 + xA0
dy Minimum amplitude xA0 – A0
= Ak cos kx − t Difference between the two = 2A0
dx
dy dy
=| v | 33. (3)
dx dx
In a standing wave, the amplitude is an oscillating
u = |v| (slope of waveform) function of x in :
y = A sin kx sin (t − )
29. (1)
A sin kx represents the amplitude and is of the
y = Asin(t − kx) correct form to be a standing wave.
dy
= A cos(t − kx) x
y = 3sin cos 40t
dt 3
Take x = 0 and x = x1
V1 = A cos(t ) 34. (2)
V2 = A cos(t + kx) x
y = 5sin cos 40t
|V1| = |V2| 3
| cos(t ) | = | cos(t + kx) | At the nodes the values of x is such that y = 0.
Taking position 1 at x = 0 to make sine function

 kx = zero; the value of sine function will be zero node
2 x
 for = .
or x = | 3
4  x=3
Hence, shortest distance between two nodes is
30. (3) 3 cm.
Each octaves is double the frequency of the
previous octave. 35. (1)
If initial frequency is f. Where the slope of wave is higher the strain will be
Final frequency = 2 × 2 × 2f or 23 f or 8f higher.
 Frequency ratio = 8 : 1.
36. (4)
31. (3) nv
v = 48 m/s, l = 12 m, f =
Resultant amplitude is given by Ar2 = A12 + A22 2l
+2 A1 A2 cos  f = 2n (where n = 1, 2, 3 .....)
Hence answer is (4).
y1 = A0 sin(t − kx)
 
y2 = A0 cos  t − kx + 
 6

[10]
37. (1) T 256
l = 0.75 m  = 9 × 103 Kg/m3 = [Dividing (i) by (ii)]
T + 10 320
Limiting stress = 8.1 × 108 N/m2
T (16)2
Let area be equal to A. or =
T + 10 (16)2  (20)2
Tension (T) = Stress × Area = 8.1 × 108 × A
Mass l length (µ) = A T 162
or =
T 8.1  108  A T + 10 (20)2
Velocity (v) = =
 9  103  A or 400 T = 256 T2 + 2560
or 144 T = 2560
8.1  105
= 2560
9 or T=
144
= 9  104 = 3  102 m/s 2560
or T=
V 16  9
Maximum fundamental frequency =
2l 160
or T= Newton
300 9
= = 200 Hz
2  0.75 16
= kg.wt
9
38. (2)
y 7.8  1010 41. (1)
v= = = 5480 ml In case of closed pipe the pth overtone will be
 2600
2p + 1 harmonic.
Since rod is clamped at the middle, the middle
point is a pressure antinode and free ends are nodes.
42. (2)
In the fundamental mode there are no other nodes
and antinodes. The length of the rod is therefore v= f
half the wavelength. =  is constant for an organ pipe
So,  = 2l = 2m RT
v=
v 5480 M
Frequency = = = 2740 Hz
 2 1
v=
M
39. (4) v is maximum when M is least. Thus, velocity of
v sound in air is maximum when M is least.
Fundamental frequency = 440 cps =
2l 1
Since f  v so f 
v 5v M
If l is made one fifth or
2  l / 5 2l Hence, frequency is maximum when M is least.
v Hence, among options answer is H
Since = 440
2l
v 43. (3)
5 = 5  440 = 2200
2l l = 0.1 m
v
Fundamental frequency of pipe ( f1 ) = or
40. (3) 4l
Let tension be T v
f1 =
T 1 0.4
f1 =  = 256 ... (i )
 2l Frequency of 2nd overtone of open pipe 2 :
3v
T + 10 1 f2 =
f2 =  = 320 .... (ii ) 2l
 2l
2 f2 = f2

[11]
 v 3v 46. (3)
2 =
0.4 2l IE = 7.89 mA
l = 0.3 IC = 7.8 mA
I E = IC + I B
44. (4)  I B = 0.09 mA
Av = 1000
Vi = 0.004 sin(t + 90) 47. (1)
V0 = ? y = A, B
V
Av = 0
Vi
48. (3)
V0 = Av × Vi = 1000 × 4 × 10–3 = 4
 
V0 = 4 sin  t − 
 2

45. (4)
Power gain = Voltage gain  Current gain
Y = AB + A.B
Amplifier power gain = 7.5
and voltage gain is 2.5
49. (3)
7.5
Current gain = =3
2.5
50. (3)
IC consists of many passive components like R and
C (not L).

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[12]
 Practice Test-19 24-04-2022
CHEMISTRY

Section (A) 11. A compound was found to contain nitrogen and

oxygen in the ratio, nitrogen 28 g and 80 g of
1. Carbon monoxide on heating with sulphur gives:
oxygen. The formula of the compound is:
(1) COS (2) SO2
(1) NO (2) N2O3
(3) SO3 (4) None of these
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4
2. The relative Lewis acid character of boron trihalides
is in the order 12. Which of the following is correct?
(1) BI3 > BBr3 > BF3 > 𝐵Cl3 wt.
(1) Meq. = N  Vin mL =  1000
(2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 Eq. wt.
(3) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
wt.
(4) BCl3 > BF3 > BI3 > BBr3 (2) Eq. = N  Vin L =
Eq. wt.
3. There are two H-bridge bonds in diborane molecule (3) Equal equivalent or milli equivalent of
because there are: reactants react to give same eq. or Meq. of
(1) Only 12 electrons products
(2) 14 electrons (4) All of the above
(3) 2 electrons less than required for bonding
(4) Two electrons more than required for bonding 13. 1.0 g of pure calcium carbonate was found to require
50 mL of dilute HCl for complete reactions. The
4. Name of structure of silicates in which three oxygen strength of the HCl solution is given by:
atoms of [SiO4]4– are shared is (1) 4 N (2) 2 N
(1) Pyrosilicate (3) 0.4 N (4) 0.2 N
(2) Sheet silicate
(3) Linear chain silicate
14. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is
(4) Three dimensional silicate
approximately
5. Diborane reacts with water to form: (1) 6 × 1023 (2) 2 × 1023
23
(1) HBO2 (2) H3BO3 (3) 1.5 × 10 (4) 1 × 1023
(3) H3BO3 + H2 (4) H2
15. For preparing M/10 solution of H2SO4 in one litre
6. The weakest acid is we need H2SO4:
(1) HI (2) HBr (1) 9.8 g (2) 49.0 g
(3) HCl (4) HF (3) 4.8 g (4) 0.09 g

7. In the preparation of H2SO4: 16. A solution of two liquids boils at a temperature

(1) SO2 is dissolved in H2SO4 more than the boiling point of either of them. Hence,
(2) SO2 is dissolved in water the binary solution shows
(3) SO3 is dissolved in conc. H2SO4 (1) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) SO3 is dissolved in dilute H2SO4 (2) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) No deviation from Raoult’s law
8. Which element is most metallic?
(4) Positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s
(1) Phosphorus (2) Arsenic
law depending upon the composition
(3) Antimony (4) Bismuth

9. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give: 17. Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25°C.
(1) HI (2) HOI It form an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole
(3) HOIO2 (4) HOIO3 fraction of A is 0.8. If the vapour pressure of the
solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25°C, the vapour
10. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3? pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25°C is
(1) KI (2) FeSO4 (1) 28 mm (2) 56 mm
(3) KMnO4 (4) K2MnO4 (3) 70 mm (4) 140 mm

[1]
18. As a result of osmosis, the volume of the concentrated 25. The pressure and temperature of 4dm3 of carbon
solution: dioxide gas are doubled, then the volume of carbon
(1) Gradually decreases dioxide gas would be
(2) Gradually increases (1) 2 dm3 (2) 3 dm3
3
(3) Suddenly increases (3) 4 dm (4) 8 dm3
(4) None of these
26. The rate law for the reaction
19. Which of the following concentration units is RCl + NaOH → ROH + NaCl is given by Rate =
independent of temperature? k[RCl]. The rate of this reaction
(1) Normality (2) Molarity (1) Is doubled by doubling the concentration of
(3) Molality (4) % w/v NaOH
(2) Is halved by reducing the concentration of RCl
20. Calculate the molal depression constant of a solvent by one half
which has freezing point 16.6℃ and latent heat of (3) Is decreased by increasing the temperature of
fusion 180.75 Jg–1. the reaction
(1) 2.68 (2) 3.86 (4) Is unaffected by change in temperature
(3) 4.68 (4) 2.86
27. The rate constant of a reaction increases by 5%
21. Calculate the total pressure in a 10.0 L cylinder when its temperature is raised from 27℃ to 28℃.
which contains 0.4 g helium, 1.6 g oxygen and 1.4 The activation energy of the reaction is?
g nitrogen at 27°C. (log 1.05=0.02118)
(1) 0.492 atm (2) 49.2 atm (1) 36.6 kJ/mol
(3) 4.92 atm (4) 0.0492 atm (2) 16.6 kJ/mol
(3) 46.6 kJ/mol
22. Which of the following is a Boyle’s plot at very low (4) 26.6 kJ/mol
pressure?
28. A first order reaction is carried out with an initial
concentration of 10 mole per litre and 80% of the
(1) (2) reactant changes into the product. Now if the same
reaction is carried out with an initial concentration
of 5 mol per litre the percentage of the reactant
changing to the product is:
(1) 40 (2) 80
(3) 160 (4) Cannot be calculated
(3) (4) None of these
29. The equivalent mass of H3PO4 in the following
reaction is H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHPO4 + 2H2O
(1) 98 (2) 49
(3) 32.66 (4) 40
23. A flask filled with CCl4 was weighed at a
temperature and pressure. The flask was then filled 30. What is the order of a reaction which has a rate
with oxygen at the same temperature and pressure. expression rate = k[A]3/2 [B]–1?
The mass of CCl4 vapour would be about: 3
(1) The same as that of the oxygen (1) (2) Zero
2
(2) One-fifth as heavy as oxygen
1
(3) Five times as heavy as oxygen (3) (4) None of these
(4) Twice as heavy as oxygen 2

24. The deviation from the ideal gas behaviour of a gas 31. Ionic solids with Schottky defects contain in their
can be expressed as structure:
p pV (1) Equal number of cations and anion vacancies
(1) Z = (2) Z = (2) Interstitial anions and anion vacancies
VRT nRT
(3) Cation vacancies only
nRT VR
(3) Z = (4) Z = (4) Cation vacancies and interstitial cations
pV pT

[2]
32. A compound MpXq has cubic close packing (ccp) 40. When an acidified solution of ferrous ammonium
arrangement of X. Its unit cell structure is shown in sulphate is treated with KMnO4 solution, the ion the
figure. The empirical formula of the compound is: gets oxidised is
(1) Fe2+ (2) SO2–
4
(3) NH4+ (4) MnO–4

41. 0.52 g of dibasic acid required 100 mL of 0.1 N

NaOH for complete neutralization. The equivalent
weight of acid is:
(1) MX (2) MX2 (1) 26 (2) 52
(3) M2X (4) M5X14 (3) 104 (4) 156

33. If the distance between Na+ and Cl− ions in sodium 42. In the following reaction,
chloride crystal is X pm, the length of the edge of MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
the unit cell is 2 mol MnO2 reacts with 4 mol of HCl to form 11.2
(1) 4 X pm (2) X/4 pm L Cl2 at STP. Thus, per cent yield of Cl2 is
(3) X/2 pm (4) 2 X pm (1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 100% (4) 75%
34. The ratio of cations to anion in a closed pack
tetrahedral void is: 43. Following solutions at the same temperature will be
(1) 0.414 (2) 0.225 isotonic:
(3) 0.02 (4) None of these (1) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 0.18
g of glucose in one litre water
35. A compound alloy of gold and Cu crystallises in a (2) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 0.18
cubic lattice in which the gold atoms occupy the g of glucose in 0.1 litre water
lattice points at the corners of a cube and the copper (3) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and
atoms occupy the centres of each of the cube faces. 0.585 g of NaCl in one litre water
What is the empirical formula of this compound? (4) 3.42 g of cane sugar in one litre water and 1.17
(1) AuCu3 (2) Au3Cu g of NaCl in one litre water
(3) Au2Cu3 (4) AuCu
44. Mole fraction of solute in benzene is 0.2 then find
Sections (B) molality of solution
36. Lead may be replaced from its salt solution by: (1) 3.2 (2) 2
(1) Cu (2) Au (3) 4 (4) 3.6
(3) Ag (4) Mg
45. Air at sea level is dense, this is a practical
37. Which one shows most pronounced inert pair effect? implementation of
(1) Si (2) Sn (1) Boyle’s law (2) Charles’ law
(3) Pb (4) C (3) Avogadro’s law (4) Dalton’s law

38. Nitric acid whether diluted or concentrated: 46. 0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a
(1) Reacts with Al to give H2 container. A hole was made in the container. After
3 h, the order of partial pressures in the container
(2) Reacts with Al to give NO2
will be
(3) Reacts with Al to give NH4NO3
(1) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4
(4) Hardly affects Al
(2) pSO2 > pCH4 > pH2
39. NH3 can be collected by the displacement of: (3) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4
(1) Mercury (2) Water
(4) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2
(3) Brine (4) Conc. H2SO4

[3]
47. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, the rate 49. Which arrangement of electrons leads to anti-
d[NH3 ] ferromagnetism?
= 2 × 10–4 M s–1. Therefore, the rate (1)    
dt
d[N 2 ] (2)    
− is given as: (3) Both (1) and (2)
dt (4) None of these
(1) 10–4 M s–1 (2) 104 M s–1
–2 –1
(3) 10 M s (4) 10–4 s M–1 50. Which of the following will show anisotropy?
(1) Glass (2) BaCl2
48. The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways (3) Wood (4) Paper
as follows
1 d[C] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]
+ =− =+ =−
2 dt 5 dt 3 dt dt
The reaction is
(1) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
(2) B + 5D → 3A + 2C
(3) 4A + 2B → 2C + 3D
1
(4) B + D → 4A + 2C
2

[4]
 ANSWER KEY
Section (A) 18. (2) Sections (B)
1. (1) 19. (3) 36. (4)
2. (2) 20. (2) 37. (3)
3. (3) 21. (1) 38. (4)
4. (2) 22. (4) 39. (1)
5. (3) 23. (3) 40. (1)
6. (4) 24. (2) 41. (2)
7. (3) 25. (3) 42. (2)
8. (4) 26. (2) 43. (2)
9. (3) 27. (1) 44. (1)
10. (3) 28. (2) 45. (1)
11. (3) 29. (2) 46. (2)
12. (4) 30. (3) 47. (1)
13. (3) 31. (1) 48. (2)
14. (1) 32. (2) 49. (2)
15. (1) 33. (4) 50. (2)
16. (1) 34. (2)
17. (4) 35. (1)

[5]
 Hints and Solution

Section (A) 7. (3)

1. (1) Follow contact process for H2SO4.
Heat
CO + S ⎯⎯⎯ → COS (Carbonyl sulphide)
8. (4)
Metallic character increases down the group.
2. (2)
BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
9. (3)
This order can be easily explained on the basis of
the tendency of the halogen atom to back donate its 10HNO3 + I2 → 2HIO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
lone pair of electrons to the empty p-orbital of the
boron atom through pπ-pπ bonding. 10. (3)

(a)
3. (3)
Diborane possesses four B–H covalent bonds and
two three centred two electrons B–H–B or hydrogen
(b)
bridge bonds. These bonds are also known as
banana bonds.
(c) KMnO4 + O3 → no reaction
Because in KMnO4, oxidation state of Mn is +7.
4. (2)
Hence, it is the highest oxidation state of Mn,
The structure of silicates has been found with the
so KMnO4 is not oxidized by ozone.
help of X-ray diffraction technique. All silicates
have tetrahedral SiO4−
4 ion as a basic building unit
i.e., all silicates are composed of many units. (d)
Tetrahedral shape of [SiO4 ]4− ion is due to 𝑠𝑝3
hybridisation of Si-atom. Sheet silicates are formed 11. (3)
when three oxygen atoms (bridging O-atoms) of 28
each (SiO4 )4− unit are shared. Hence, the general g atoms of N = =2
2𝑛−
14
formula of sheet silicates is (Si2 O5 )n
80
g atoms of oxygen = =5
16

12. (4)

13. (3)
Meq. of HCl = Meq. of CaCO3;
1
 N  50 =  1000 or N = 0.4
50
14. (1)
Weight of NH3 = 4.25g
5. (3) We know that number of atoms in 1 mole or 17 g of
B2H6 + 6H2O → 2H3BO3 + 6H2 NH3 = 4 × 6.023 × 1023
∴ Number of atom in 4.25 g of
6. (4) 4  6.023  1023
NH3 =  4.25
HF is the weakest acid. 17
= 6.023 × 1023

[6]
15. (1) 21. (1)
1 0.4
Millimole of H2SO4 =  1000 = 100 Number of moles of He = = 0.1
10 4
w 1.6
  1000 = 100 Number of moles of oxygen = = 0.05
98 32
 w = 9.8 g 1.4
Number of moles of nitrogen = = 0.05
28
16. (1) Total moles in the 10.0 L cylinder at 27°C
= 0.1 + 0.05 + 0.05
17. (4) = 0.2 mol
p = PA X A + PB X B nRT 0.2  0.082  300
pT = = = 0.492 atm
V 10
 84 = 70  0.8 + PB  0.2
84 = 56 + PB  0.2 22. (4)
28
PB = = 140 mm 23. (3)
0.2
18. (2) At constant P, V and T, w  M.M
Osmosis a slow process occurs from dilute to
concentrated solution. 24. (2)
According to ideal gas equation
19. (3) pV = nRT
Molality depends only upon weights, not on n = number of moles of gas
volumes whereas other given concentration terms pV
depend upon the volume of solution. Volume of then, =1
nRT
solution increases with rise in temperature but
temperature does not affect the weights, therefore Therefore, the compressibility factor
molality is independent of temperature. pV
Z= =1
nRT
20. (2) For an ideal gas. For real gas Z may be either greater
Given, than one or less than one.

R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1

25. (3)
Tf = 273 + 16.6 = 289.6 K
p2 T
Given, = 2 2 = 2, V1 = 4 dm3 , V2 = ?
Lf = 180.75 Jg–1 p1 T1
kf = ? From gas equation
R.Tf2 p1V1 p 2 V2
kf = =
1000  Lf T1 T2
V1 p 2
8.314  (289.6)2 or =  T1 / T2
= V2 p1
1000  180.75
4 1
kf = 3.86  = 2 =1
V2 2
 V2 = 4 dm3

[7]
26. (2) 34. (2)
RCl + NaOH → ROH + NaCl r+
for tetrahedral void = 0.225 – 0.414;
Rate = k[RCl] r−
For this reaction rate of reaction depends upon the
concentration of RCl. r+
for triangular = 0.155 – 0.225
It means, the rate of reaction is halved by reducing r−
the concentration of RCl by one half.
35. (1)
27. (1) Au atoms are at eight corners of the cube. Thus, no.
k2 Ea T −T 8
of Au atoms in the unit cell = = 1 .
log =  2 1
k1 2.303 R T1  T2 8
Cu atoms are at the face centre of six faces.
105 Ea 1
log =  6
100 2.303  8.314 300  301 Therefore, its share in the unit cell = = 3 . Thus,
Ea = 36.65 kJ 2
formula is AuCu3.
Sections (B)
28. (2)
36. (4)
Time required to complete a definite fraction is
independent of initial concentration. Mg is placed above lead in electrochemical series.

29. (2) 37. (3)

Molecular weight The reluctance of the s-electrons of the valence shell
Equivalent weight = no.of replacable Hydrogen atoms to take part in bonding is called inert pair effect. It
98 increases on moving down in a group. Hence, Pb
= = 49
2 shows most pronounced inert pair effect.
30. (3) 38. (4)
Al becomes passive in HNO3.
31. (1) 39. (1)
Schottky defects are raised when one positive ion It reacts with rest of all reagents.
and one negative ion are missing from their
respective positions leaving behind a pair of holes.
These are more common in ionic compounds with 40. (1)
high co-ordination number and having almost Here, KMnO4 acts as an Oxidizing agent and
similar size of cations and anions. oxidizes Fe+2 → Fe+3
41. (2)
32. (2) Meq. of acid = Meq. of NaOH
MpXq has ccp structure, therefore, 0.52
 1000 = 100  0.1
1 1 E
X = 8 + 6 = 4
8 2  E = 52
1 42. (2)
M = 4 +1 = 2
4 MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
So, unit cell formula of the compound is M2X4 and 2 mol 4 mol 1 mol
the empirical formula of the compound is MX2. 4 mol 22.4 L
HCl is limiting reagent.
33. (4) But the yield is 11.2L
In NaCl, the length of the edge of the unit cell is 11.2
= 2 × distance between Na+ and Cl– ions hence,  % yield =  100 = 50%
22.4
a = 2X pm.

[8]
43. (2) 46. (2)
For isotonic solutions, 1 = 2 (and for non- 1
Rate of diffusion 
electrolytes also c1 = c2). molecular mass
 Order of diffusion : H2 > CH4 > SO2
44. (1) and amount left is in the order SO2 > CH4 > H2
Let moles of solute = x Hence, order of partial pressure is
Moles of 1000 g benzene pSO2 > pCH4 > pH2
1000
= = 12.82
78 47. (1)
x −d[N 2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
Mole fraction of solute = =
x + 12.82 dt 2 dt
x
0.2 =
x + 12.82 48. (2)
or 0.2(x + 12.82) = x B + 5D → 3A + 2C
or 0.2x + 2.564 = x d[B] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] 1 d[C]
2.564 = x – 0.2x − =− =+ =+
dt 5 dt 3 dt 2 dt
2.564
x= = 3.2
0.8 49. (2)
45. (1) Antiferromagnetic possess complementary dipoles
p1 p 2 alignment giving net dipole moment equal to zero.
= (at a constant temperature)
d1 d 2
This is the Boyle’s law 50. (2)
So, the case – “Air at sea level is dense” is studied Crystalline solids are anisotropic since, they exhibit
under Boyle’s law. different properties in all directions.

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[9]
 1

YAKEEN 2022
Practice Test – 19 (Zoology) 24-04-2022

SECTION – A 6. Study the following figures and identify the enzymes

Attempt All 35 Questions involved in step I and II.

1. Plasmid used to construct the first recombinant DNA

was isolated from which bacterium species?
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Thermus aquaticus
2. One of the key factors, which makes the plasmid the
vector in genetic engineering is
(1) its resistance to antibiotics (1) EcoRI and DNA Ligase
(2) Its resistance to restriction enzymes (2) Hind II and DNA Ligase
(3) its ability to carry a foreign gene (3) EcoRI and Hind II
(4) its ability to cause infection in the host. (4) Restriction endonuclease and exonuclease

3. Which of the following contains the key tools for 7. The flow chart given below represents the process of
recombinant DNA technology? recombinant DNA technology. Identify A, B, C and D.
(i) Restriction endonuclease, ligases, vectors
(ii) Ligases, host organism, polymerase enzymes Enzymes A and B cutting foreign
(iii) Vectors, Taq polymerase, primers DNA and vecor DNA respectively.
(iv) Restriction exonucleases, ligases, primers,
bioreactors
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)
4. The process of separation and purification of
expressed protein before marketing is called
(1) upstream processing
(2) downstream processing
(3) bioprocessing
(4) postproduction processing
5. Match column I with column II with respect to the
nomenclature of restriction enzyme EcoRI and select
the correct answer from the given codes.
Column I Column II (1) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-restriction
A. E (i) 1st in order of identification exonuclease, C-DNA ligase, D-Transformation
(2) A-restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction
B. co (ii) Name of genus
endonuclease, C-DNA ligase,
C. R (iii) Name of species
D-Transformation
D. I (iv) Name of strain (3) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) endonuclease, C-Hydrolase, D-Transformation
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (4) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) endonuclease, C-Hydrolase, D-Transduction
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
 2

8. Gel electrophoresis is used for 12. Read the following statements and select the correct
(1) construction of recombinant DNA by joining ones.
with cloning vectors (i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced when a
(2) isolation of DNA molecules in presence of DNA has been cut by different restriction
magnetic field enzymes.
(3) cutting of DNA into fragments (ii) Exonucleases make cuts at specific positions
(4) separation of DNA fragments according to their within the DNA.
size (iii) Hind II was the first restriction endonuclease to
be isolated.
9. Having become an expert on gel electrophoresis, you (iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to replicate
are asked to examine a gel. Where would you find the within bacterial cells by integrating its DNA
smallest segments of DNA? with bacterial DNA.
(1) Near the positive electrode, farthest away from (v) Presence of more than one recognition sites for
the wells a enzyme within the vector complicates the gene
(2) Near the negative electrode, close to the wells cloning.
(3) Near the negative electrode, farthest away from (1) (i), (iii) and (v) (2) (i) and (iv)
the wells (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) Near the middle, they tend to slow down after
the first few minutes 13. Match column I with column II and select the correct
answer from the given codes.
10. Which of the following steps should be performed by Column I Column II
a person in order to visualize the bands of DNA R
A. amp gene (i) Artificial plasmid
fragments obtained from gel electrophoresis? B. Separation of (ii) Selectable marker
(1) Exposure of DNA fragments to UV radiations. DNA fragments
(2) Staining with bromophenol blue followed by C. Hind III (iii) Electrophoresis
exposure to UV radiations. D. pBR322 (iv) Haemophilus
(3) Staining with ethidium bromide followed by influenzae
exposure to UV radiations. (1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) Person can see the bands without staining. (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
11. Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA (4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
(1) EcoRI – Production of sticky 14. The gene ‘rop’ present in pBR322 cloning vector,
ends codes for
(2) DNA ligase – Multiplication of (1) the proteins involved in the translation
rDNA molecules (2) the proteins involved in the replication of the
(3) ori – copy number plasmid
(4) Selectable maker – Identification of (3) the proteins involved in the synthesis of
transformations ampicillin only
(4) the proteins involved in the synthesis of
tetracycline only.
 3

15. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of E coli 18. Match the terms given in column I with their
cloning vector pBR322 and select the correct option. definitions in column II and select the correct answer
from codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Transformation (i) Sequences cut by
restriction enzymes
B. Recognition site (ii) Process by which
DNA fragments are
separated based on
their size
C. Gel (iii) Plasmid DNA that
A B C D electrophoresis has incorporated
(1) HindI EcoRI ampR ori human DNA
(2) HindI BamHI kanR ampR D. Recombinant (iv) Process by which
(3) BamHI Pstl ori ampR DNA bacteria take up
(4) EcoRI BamHI ampR ori pieces of DNA from
the environment
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
pBR322 vector? (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(1) It was the first artificial cloning vector (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez. (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(2) It is the most widely used, versatile and easily
manipulated vector. 19. Fill up the blanks and select the correct option.
(i) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases ____ only
(3) It has two antibiotic resistance genes tetR and
when the sequence ____ is present in the DNA
ampR. duplex.
(4) It does not have restriction site for Sal1. (ii) Distruption of the cell membranes can be
achieved by treating the bacterial cells, plant
17. If a person obtains transformants by inserting a cells and fungal cell with enzymes respectively
recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of _____, ____ and _____.
enzyme -galactosidase, he will separate out (iii) Since DNA has a ____ charge, it moves towards
the ____ of the electrophoretic chamber.
recombinants from non-recombinants by which of
(1) (i) G and A, GAATTC (ii) endonuclease,
the following observations?
cellulase, chitinase (iii) negative, anode
(1) Non-recombinant colonies do not produce any (2) (i) G and A, GAATTC (ii) lysozyme, cellulase,
colour whereas recombinants given blue chitinase (iii) positive, cathode
coloured colonies. (3) (i) G and A, GAATTC (ii) lysozyme, cellulase,
(2) Recombinant colonies do not produce any chitinase (iii) negative, anode
colour whereas non-recombinants give blue (4) (i) G and A GAAATC (ii) lysozyme, cellulase,
coloured colonies. chitinase (iii) positive, cathode
(3) Recombinants and non-recombinants both
20. Primers are
produce blue coloured colonies.
(1) chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are
(4) No colonies are formed due to insertional
complementary to the regions of DNA
inactivation.
(2) chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are
not complementary to the regions of DNA
(3) chemically synthesized, autonomously
replicating circular DNA molecules
(4) specific sequences present on recombinant
DNA.
 4

21. Bt toxin genes have been expressed in plants in order 26. How many recombinant therapeutics are being
to provide resistance against marketed in India?
(i) lepidopterans and fungi (1) 8 (2) 12
(ii) Animals and bacteria (3) 15 (4) 30
(iii) Bacteria and fungi
(iv) Coleopterans and dipterans 27. Given figure represents the maturation of pro-insulin
(v) lepidopterans into insulin. Identify the product A.
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (v) (4) (iv) and (v)

22. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which

contain insectidical protein. This protein
(1) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the
insect pest ultimately killing it
(2) Is activated by acidic pH of the gut of the insect (1) Polypeptide chain A
pest (2) Polypeptide chain B
(3) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself (3) Polypeptide chain C
resistant to this toxin (4) None of these
(4) All of these
28. An example of gene therapy is
23. The land reptile which went back into water to evolve (1) Production of injectible hepatitis B vaccine
into fish like reptiles: (2) Production of vaccines in food crops like
(1) Around 250mya e.g. Ichthyosaurs potatoes which can be eaten
(2) Around 300mya e.g. Therapsids (3) Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in
(3) Around 200mya e.g. Ichthyosaurs persons suffering from SCID
(4) Around 150mya e.g. Therapsids (4) Production of test tube babies by artificial
insemination and implantation of fertilized eggs.
24. CryllAb and crylAb produce toxins that control
29. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
A. α-1-antitrypsin (i) AIDS
B. Transposon (ii) Gene therapy
C. ELISA (iii) Emphysema
D. Retroviral vector (iv) Mobile genetic element
(1) Cotton bollworm and corn borer respectively
(1) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
25. RNA interference involves
(1) Synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse
transcriptase
(2) Silencing of specific mRNA due to
complementary RNA
(3) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
(4) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
 5

30. Match column I containing transgenic organisms 34. A is an improved breed of cattle and B is an improved
with their specific characteristics in column II and breed of chicken. Which of the following options
select the correct option from the given codes. correctly identifies A and B?
Column I Column II
A. Golden rice (i) Protein – enriched milk
B. Bt cotton (ii) Increased shelf life
C. Flavr Savr (iii) Enriched with vitamin A
D. Rosie cow (iv) High yield and pest
resistant
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) (1) A-Jersey, B-Leghorn
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) (2) A-Surti, B-Sangamneri
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (3) A-Marwari, B-Sirohi
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (4) A-Beetal, B-Jamunapari

31. Match column I with column II and select the correct 35. Fill up the blanks in the following paragraph by
option from the given codes. selecting the correct option.
Column I Column II Inbreeding increases (i) . Thus inbreeding is
A. Biopiracy (i) Effort to fix the non-functional necessary if we want to evolve a (ii) in any animal.
Inbreeding exposes harmful (iii) genes that are
gene
eliminated by selection.
B. Biopatent (ii) Gene silencing
(1) (i) heterozygosity, (ii) pure line, (iii) dominant
C. Gene therapy (iii) Illegal removal of biological
(2) (i) heterozygosity, (ii) breed, (iii) recessive
materials (3) (i) homozygosity, (ii) pure line, (iii) recessive
D. RNAi (iv) Right granted for biological (4) (i) homozygosity, (ii) breed, (iii) dominant
entities
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) SECTION – B
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) Attempt All 15 Questions
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) 36. The term “inbreeding depression” is related to
(1) Increased fertility and productivity
32. Which of the following dinosaurs had huge fearsome (2) Increased milk productin
dagger like teeth and was about 20 feet in height? (3) Reduced fertility and productivity
(1) Ichthyosaurs (2) Tyrannosaurus (4) Reduced milk productin.
(3) Pelycosaurs (4) Therapsids
37. A breed of cow is mated with closely related breed
33. Who proposed that the first form of the could have for five generations, It was found that production of
come from pre-existing non-living organic milk has reduced subsequently and the animals are
molecules? not keeping good health. Which of the following
(1) S.L. Miller methods of animal breeding can overcome this
(2) Oparin and Haldane problem?
(3) Charles Darwin (1) Hybridisation (2) Controlled breeding
(4) Alfred Wallace (3) Out-crossing (4) Cross breeding

38. The breeding carried out between animals of different

breeds is called
(1) Out-crossing (2) Cross-breeding
(3) Inbreeding (4) Both (1) and (2)
 6

39. The embryological support for evolution was 44. Match List-I with ist-II
disproved by whose keen observations? List-I List-II
(1) Karl Ernst Von Baer (a) Adaptive (i) Selection of resistant
(2) Ernst Haeckel radiation varieties due to excessive
(3) Charles Darwin use of herbicides and
(4) Alfred Walace pesticides
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in
40. MOET stands for evolution Man and Whale
(1) Multiple Ovulation and Egg Transfer Technology (c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly and
evolution Bird
(2) Multiple Ovary and Embryo Transfer Technology
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
(3) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
Anthropogenic
(4) Method of Egg Transfer Technology
action
Choose the correct answer from the options given
41. According to one of the most widely accepted
below.
theories, earth’s atmosphere before origin of life was
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Oxidising (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Oxidising along with H2 (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) Reducing with free O2 in small amount (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Reducing with oxygen absent in O2 form. (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

42. The given figure shows an example of 45. Embryological support for evolution was proposed
by
(1) Ernst Heckel
(2) Karl Ernst von Baer
(3) Charles Darwin
(4) Alfred Wallace

46. Which of the following feature is not of

Ramapithecus?
(1) Hairy, walked like gorilas and chimpanzees
(2) Existed 15mya
(1) Homologous organs (3) Ramapithecus was more man like
(2) Convergent evolution (4) After its extinction Dryopithecus came into
(3) Divergent evolution picture.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
47. The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and
43. Which of the following placental mammals appears to hunted with stone weapons was
be similar to a corresponding marsupial NUMBAT? (1) Ramapithecus
(1) Anteater (2) Bobcat (2) Australopithecus
(3) Mole (4) Wolf (3) Dryopithecus
(4) Homo erectus
 7

48. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia), the 50. Evolution of different species in a given area starting
black-coloured form became dominant over the light- from a point and spreading to other geographical
coloured form in England during industrial areas is known as
revolution. This is an example of (1) Adaptive radiation
(1) Natural selection whereby the darker forms were (2) Natural selection
selected (3) Migration
(2) Appearance of the darker coloured individuals (4) Divergent evolution
due to very poor sunlight
(3) Protective mimicry
(4) Inheritance of darker colour character acquired
due to the darker environment

49. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in

favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the
field of
(1) Biogeography
(2) Anatomy
(3) Embryology
(4) Palaeontology
 8

Answer Key
Section-A 26. (2)
1. (2) 27. (3)
2. (3) 28. (3)
3. (2) 29. (2)
4. (2) 30. (1)
5. (4) 31. (3)
6. (1) 32. (2)
7. (2) 33. (2)
8. (4) 34. (1)
9. (1) 35. (3)
10. (3) Section-B
11. (2) 36. (3)
12. (3) 37. (3)
13. (3) 38. (2)
14. (2) 39. (1)
15. (4) 40. (3)
16. (4) 41. (4)
17. (2) 42. (4)
18. (2) 43. (1)
19. (3) 44. (3)
20. (1) 45. (1)
21. (4) 46. (4)
22. (1) 47. (2)
23. (3) 48. (1)
24. (1) 49. (1)
25. (2) 50. (1)
 9

Hints and Solutions

Section-A 14. (2)

1. (2) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:199
Page Number:194 15. (4)
2. (3) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:199
Page Number:194 16. (4)
3. (2) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:199
Page Number:195 17. (2)
4. (2) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:200
Page Number:204 18. (2)
5. (4) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:196, 198, 199
Page Number:195 19. (3)
6. (1) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:196, 201
Page Number:196 20. (1)
7. (2) NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII,
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, Page Number:203
Page Number:197 21. (4)
8. (4) NCERT-12, Page No. 208
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, 22. (1)
Page Number:194 NCERT-12, Page No. 208
9. (1) 23. (3)
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, NCERT-12, Page No. 140
Page Number:198 24. (1)
10. (3) NCERT-12, Page No. 209
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, 25. (2)
Page Number:198 NCERT-12, Page No. 209
11. (2) 26. (2)
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, NCERT-12, Page No. 210
Page Number:197 27. (3)
12. (3) NCERT-12, Page No. 211
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, 28. (3)
Page Number:195, 198 NCERT-12, Page No. 211
13. (3) 29. (2)
NCERT TEXT BOOK OF BIOLOGY CLASS XII, NCERT-12, Page No. 213, 209, 211, 212
Page Number:195, 198, 199 30. (1)
NCERT-12, Page No. 208, 213
 10

31. (3) 41. (4)

NCERT-12, Page No. 209, 211, 213, 214 NCERT-12, Page No. 127
32. (2) 42. (4)
NCERT-12, Page No. 140 NCERT-12, Page No. 131
33. (2) 43. (1)
NCERT-12, Page No. 127 NCERT-12, Page No. 134
34. (1) 44. (3)
NCERT-12, Page No. 167 NCERT-12, Page No. 131, 133
35. (3) 45. (1)
NCERT-12, Page No. 167 NCERT-12, Page No. 129
Section-B 46. (4)
36. (3) NCERT-12, Page No. 140
NCERT-12, Page No. 167 47. (2)
37. (3) NCERT-12, Page No. 140, 141
NCERT-12, Page No. 168 48. (1)
38. (2) NCERT-12, Page No. 132
NCERT-12, Page No. 168 49. (1)
39. (1) NCERT-12, Page No. 133
NCERT-12, Page No. 129 50. (1)
40. (3) NCERT-12, Page No. 131, 132, 133
NCERT-12, Page No. 168

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 1

YAKEEN 2022
Practice Test – 19 (Botany) 24-04-2022

SECTION – A 7. Organisms living at the bottom of a lake are

Attempt All 35 Questions (1) Nekton (2) Benthos
(3) Plankton (4) Pelagic
1. Why does a bird sing?
(1) Operation of the voice box (syrinx) 8. Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis
(2) Vibrating bone by physiological (sometimes behavioural also)
(3) Bird need to communicate with its mate during means which ensure constant body temperature,
breeding season constant osmotic concentration, etc., are called
(4) Both 1 and 2 (1) Regulators (2) Conformers
(3) Migratory (4) Hibernating
2. What is the cause of annual variation in the intensity
and duration of temperature? 9. Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for
(1) Rotation of earth around sun many organisms particularly
(2) Tilt of axis of earth (1) Small animals (2) Shrews
(3) Annual variation in precipitation (3) Humming birds (4) All of the above
(4) Both 1 and 2
10. Heat loss or heat gain is the function of
3. What are the key elements that lead to so much (1) Surface area (2) Body volume
variation in the physical and chemical condition of (3) Body weight (4) Body size
different habitats?
(1) Physico-chemical components 11. The autotrophic components of the pond ecosystem
(2) Temperature, water, light and soil include
(3) Abiotic factors (1) Phytoplanktons
(4) All of the above (2) Some algae
(3) Floating, submerged and marginal plants found
4. Who determine to a large extent geographical at the edges
distribution chemical component of different (4) All of the above
species?
(1) Regional and local variations 12. In the pond ecosystem, decomposers are especially
(2) Physico-chemical components abundant
(3) The level of thermal tolerance (1) At the surface of the pond
(4) All of the above (2) In the bottom of the pond
(3) At the edges of the pond
5. Which one is the famous plant ecologist of India? (4) All of the above
(1) Charles Drawin
(2) Ramdeo Misra 13. An ecosystem contains
(3) Birbal Sahani (1) Producer (2) Consumers
(4) Jagdish Chandra Bose (3) Decomposers (4) All of the above

6. Ecology is study of relationships of 14. The basic requirement for any ecosystem to function
(1) Members of a family like and sustain is
(2) Man and environment (1) Photosynthesis
(3) Organisms and environment (2) Decomposition
(4) Soil and water (3) A constant input of solar energy
(4) Unidirectional flow of energy in food chain
 2

15. The breakdown of complex organic matter into 24. Species-Area relationship was given by
inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water and (1) British zoologist and geographer David Tilman
nutrients is (2) German botanist and geographer Alexander
(1) Fragmentation (2) Catabolism von Humboldt
(3) Metabolism (4) Decomposition (3) German naturalist and geographer Alexander
von Humboldt
16. Which of the following is an enzymatic process? (4) British naturalist and geographer Alexander
(1) Fragmentation (2) Leaching von Humboldt den
(3) Catabolism (4) All of the above
25. The relation between species richness and area for a
17. Humus is wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants, birds, bats,
(1) Completely decomposed organic matter freshwater fishes) turns out be a
(2) Partially decomposed organic matter (1) Rectangular parabola
(3) Partially decomposed inorganic matter (2) Rectangular hyperbola
(4) Completely decomposed inorganic matter (3) Straight line/linear
(4) Sigmoid
18. Detritus food chain begins with the
(1) Dead organic matter 26. The hyperbolic equation for the species area relation
(2) Detritus (1) Log C = log S + Z log A
(3) Death of an organism (2) Log S = log C + Z log A
(4) All of the above (3) Log S = log A + Z log C
(4) S = CAZ
19. Approximately how much of the solar energy that
falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to 27. Which scientist found that plots with more species
chemical energy by photosynthesis? showed less year to year variation in total biomass?
(1) 1–5% (2) 2–10% (1) David Tilman (2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) 30% (4) 50% (3) Robert May (4) Ernst Mayr

20. Which of the following is not a producer? 28. Smokestacks of thermal power plants, smelters and
(1) Spirogyra (2) Agaricus other industries release
(3) Volvox (4) Nostoc (1) Gaseous air pollutants
(2) Particulate pollutants
21. Term biodiversity was popularised by (3) Harmless gases
(1) Paul Ehrlich (2) David Tilman (4) All of the above
(3) Edward Wilson (4) Robert May
29. Electrostatic precipitator has electrode wires that are
22. Reserpine chemical is obtained from maintained at several thousand volts, which
(1) Roots of Cinchona (1) Produce a scrubber to remove SO2 gas
(2) Bark of Cinchona (2) Attract the dust particles
(3) Roots of Rauwolfia (3) Produce a corona that releases electrons
(4) Stems of Rauwolfia (4) Produce a corona that attach to dust particles

23. About the total number of species present on earth a 30. The expensive metals used in catalytic converters of
more conservative and scientifically sound estimate automobiles are
made by (1) Cadmium and Rhodium
(1) Robert May (2) Platinum, Palladium and Rhodium
(2) Robert Costanza (3) Lead and Cadmium
(3) Alexander von Humboldt (4) Copper and Cadmium
(4) Both 1 and 2
 3

31. Which one is not an advantage of CNG over diesel? 39. What parameters are used for tiger census in our
(1) Burns more efficiently country's national parks and sanctuaries?
(2) It is cheap (1) Pug marks only
(3) Cannot be adulterated (2) Pug marks and faecal pellets
(4) Ease to lay down pipelines for delivery (3) Faecal pellets only
(4) Actual head counts
32. Heavy metals are defined as elements with density
(1) >5 g/mm3 (2) < 5g/mm3 40. After exponential increase, population becomes
3
(3) > 5g/cm (4) < 5g/cm3 stagnant. The growth curve is
(1) J-Shaped (2) S-Shaped
33. In integrated waste water treatment cleaning occurs (3) Fluctuating (4) Circular
in
(1) Two stages (2) Three stages 41. In a biotic community, primary consumers are
(3) Four Stages (4) Five Stages (1) Carnivores (2) Omnivores
(3) Herbivores (4) Detrivores
34. FOAM stands for
(1) Farmer's of the American Marsh 42. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in
(2) Friend's of the American Marsh which ecosystem
(3) Farmer's of the Arcata Marsh (1) Forest (2) Marine
(4) Friend's of the Arcata Marsh (3) Grassland (4) Tundra

35. In domestic sewage, suspended solids, colloidal and 43. Succession is the characteristic of
dissolved materials constitute (1) Ecosystem (2) Community
(1) 10% (2) 1% (3) Population (4) Organism
(3) 99% (4) 0.1%
44. The total cost of the ecosystem services is about
SECTION – B (1) US $33 billion (2) US $18 billion
Attempt All 15 Questions (3) US $33 trillion (4) US $ 18 trillion

36. Stomata open at night in 45. Bali, Javan and Caspian are the three
(1) Succulents (2) Xerophytes (1) Species of tiger
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes (2) Species of Cheetah
(3) Species of lion
37. If the age distribution is plotted for the population, (4) Subspecies of tiger
the resulting structure is called
(1) Growth model 46. The reason why should we conserve biodiversity,
(2) Growth rate includes
(3) Age pyramid (1) Narrowly utilitarian
(4) Ecological pyramid (2) Broadly utilitarian
(3) Ethical
38. Under normal conditions, the most important factors (4) All of the above.
influencing population density are
(1) B and D 47. Bioprospecting is related to
(2) E and I (1) Narrowly utilitarian
(3) B, D and I (2) Broadly utilitarian
(4) B, D, E and I (3) Ethical
(4) All of the above
 4

48. The greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring 50. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
phenomenon that is responsible for heating of earth's between
surface and atmosphere. Without greenhouse effect (1) Late August and early October
the average temperature at surface of earth would (2) Early August and late October
have been (3) Late August and late October
(1) -15°C (2) 15°C (4) Early August and early October
(3) -18°C (4) 18°C

49. In Kyoto protocol, the major nations agreed to

reduce emission of greenhouse gases by
(1) 2008 (2) 2010
(3) 2012 (4) 2018
 5

Answer Key
Section-A 26. (4)
1. (3) 27. (1)
2. (4) 28. (4)
3. (4) 29. (3)
4. (3) 30. (2)
5. (2) 31. (4)
6. (3) 32. (3)
7. (2) 33. (1)
8. (1) 34. (4)
9. (4) 35. (4)
10. (1) Section-B
11. (4) 36. (1)
12. (2) 37. (3)
13. (4) 38. (1)
14. (3) 39. (2)
15. (4) 40. (2)
16. (3) 41. (3)
17. (2) 42. (2)
18. (4) 43. (2)
19. (1) 44. (3)
20. (2) 45. (4)
21. (3) 46. (4)
22. (3) 47. (1)
23. (1) 48. (3)
24. (3) 49. (3)
25. (2) 50. (1)
 6

Hints and Solutions

Section-A 16. (3)

1. (3) NCERT Pg. No-243
NCERT Pg. No-219
17. (2)
2. (4) NCERT Pg. No-244
NCERT Pg. No-222
18. (4)
3. (4) NCERT Pg. No-246
NCERT Pg. No-221
19. (1)
4. (3) NCERT Pg. No-245
NCERT Pg. No-222
20. (2)
5. (2) NCERT Pg. No-245
NCERT Pg. No-218 Agaricus is fungi

6. (3) 21. (3)

NCERT Pg. No-220 NCERT Pg. No-258

7. (2) 22. (3)

NCERT Pg. No-223 NCERT Pg. No-259

8. (1) 23. (1)

NCERT Pg. No-224 NCERT Pg. No-259

9. (4) 24. (3)

NCERT Pg. No-224 NCERT Pg. No-262

10. (1) 25. (2)

NCERT Pg. No-224 NCERT Pg. No-262

11. (4) 26. (4)

NCERT Pg. No-242 NCERT Pg. No-262

12. (2) 27. (1)

NCERT Pg. No-242 NCERT Pg. No-263

13. (4) 28. (4)

NCERT Pg. No-242 NCERT Pg. No-271

14. (3) 29. (3)

NCERT Pg. No-245 NCERT Pg. No-271

15. (4) 30. (2)

NCERT Pg. No-243 NCERT Pg. No-272
 7

31. (4) 41. (3)

NCERT Pg. No-272,273 NCERT Pg. No-246

32. (3) 42. (2)

NCERT Pg. No-276 NCERT Pg. No-248

33. (1) 43. (2)

NCERT Pg. No-277 NCERT Pg. No-250

34. (4) 44. (3)

NCERT Pg. No-277 NCERT Pg. No-255

35. (4) 45. (4)

NCERT Pg. No-274 NCERT Pg. No-263

Section-B 46. (4)

36. (1) NCERT Pg. No-265
NCERT Pg. No-225
47. (1)
37. (3) NCERT Pg. No-265
NCERT Pg. No-227
48. (3)
38. (1) NCERT Pg. No-281
NCERT Pg. No-228,229
49. (3)
39. (2) NCERT Conceptual
NCERT Pg. No-228
50. (1)
40. (2) NCERT Pg. No-282
NCERT Pg. No-230,231

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