NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA SAMITI

SHILLONG REGION

SAADHANA PROGRAM
2024-2025

PRACTICE PAPERS
For
CLASS X

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE

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Sr. No Name of Resource Persons Role
Sh. Rajesh Kumar Varma, Principal
1 Coordinator
PM Shri School JNV Biswanath, Assam
Sh. Niranjan Sarmah ,PGT- Geography
2 Member
PM Shri School JNV Biswanath, Assam
Sh. Momin Hazarika ,PGT- Geography
3 Member
PM Shri School JNV Biswanath
Sudhanshu Rai ,PGT- History
4 Member
PM Shri School JNV Biswanath
B.K Majudeka ,TGT- Social Science
5 Member
PM Shri School JNV Biswanath
Neeraj Kumar Meena ,TGT – Social Science
6 PM Shri School JNV Lakhimpur Member

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 INDEX

Unit-wise Practice Question Paper

Sr.No Set No. Unit No. Unit Name Page No.

1 Set -1 I India & Contemporary World 8-20
2 Set -2 II Contemporary India 21-106
3 Set -3 III Democratic Politics 107-133
4 Set -4 IV Understanding Economic 134-146
Development

Whole Syllabus Practice Paper

1 Set -1 147-156
2 Set -2 157-172
3 Set -3 173-189
4 Set -4 190-211
5 Set -5 212-242

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 CLASS -X

SUBJECT – SOCIAL SCIENCE

QUESTION PAPER DESIGN ( BLUEPRINT )

1)SUBJECT WISE WEIGHTAGE

SUBJECT SYLLABUS MARKS PERCENTAGE

HISTORY  The rise of nationalism in Europe 18+2 25%

 Nationalism in India
 The making of global world
 Print culture and the modern
world
 map pointing
POLITICAL  Power sharing 20 25%
SCIENCE  Federalism
 Gender, religion and cast
 Political parties
 Outcomes of democracy

GEOGRAPHY  Resources and development 17+3 25%

 Forest and wildlife resources
 Water resources
 Agriculture
 Minerals and energy resources
 Manufacturing industries
 Lifelines of national economy
 Map pointing
ECONOMICS  Development 20 25%
 Sectors of the Indian economy
 Money and credit
 Globalisation and the Indian
economy

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 2)WEIGHTAGE TO TYPE OF QUESTIONS

TYPE OF QUESTIONS MARKS PERCENTAGE

(80)

1 Mark MCQs (20×1) 20 25%

(Inclusive of assertion, reason , differentiation and stem)

2 Marks narrative questions (4×2) 8 10%

( Knowledge , understanding, application, analysis, evaluation,
synthesis and create)
3 Marks narrative questions ( 5×3) 15 18.75%
( Knowledge, understanding, application, analysis, evaluation,
synthesis and create)
4 Marks case study questions (3×4) 12 15%
( Knowledge, understanding, application, analysis, evaluation,
synthesis and create)
5 Marks narrative questions (4×5) 20 25%
( Knowledge, understanding, application, analysis, evaluation,
synthesis and create )
Map pointing 5 6.25%

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3) WEIGHTAGE TO THE COMPETENCIES LEVEL

S.No COMPETENCIES MARKS PERCENTAGE

Remembering and understanding: exhibiting memory 24 30%
of previously learned material by recalling facts, terms,
1 basic concepts and answers; demonstrating understanding
of facts and ideas by organizing, translating, interpreting,
giving descriptions and stating main ideas
2 Applying: solving problems to new situations by applying 11 13.25%
acquired knowledge, facts techniques and rules in a
different way.
3 Formulating, analysing, evaluating and creating : 40 50%
examining breaking the information into parts by
identifying motives or causes ; making inferences and
finding evidence to support generalizations ; presenting
and defending opinions by making judgements about
information, validating ideas or quality of work based on a
set of criteria ; compiling information in a different way
buy combining elements in a new pattern or proposing
alternate solutions
4 Map skills 5 6.25%
Total 80 100%

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 JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA BISWANATH

Class –10th

Subject – History

Time: 3hr Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Read the following instructions careful and follow them:

1. The question paper contains 37 questions. Al questions are compulsory.

2. Question paper is divided into five sections- Section A, B, C, D and E
3. SECTION A- Question numbers 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
4. SECTION B – Question numbers 21 to 24 are very short answer type questions. Each
question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
5. SECTION C- Question numbers 25 to 29 are short answer type questions. Each question
carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
6. SECTION D – Question number 30 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question
carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
7. SECTION E- Question number 34 to 36 are case-based/Source-based questions with 3
sub- questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
8. SECTION F- Question no 37 is map skill based question with two parts 37 (i) History (2
marks) and 37 (ii) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.
Section A
(Multi Choice Question) 20X1=20
Q 1. The idea of La Patrie means ___________ 1
a. Motherland
b. Fatherland
c. Citizens
d. Monarchy
Q 2. Who made the famous remarks, ‗When France sneezes, the rest of Europe
catches a cold‘? 1
a. Metternich
b. Mazzini
c. Garibaldi
d. Louis Philippe
Q 3. What did the customs union or zollverein do? 1
a. Abolished tax
b. Abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over
thirty to two
c. Abolished tariff charges and reduced the currencies to five.

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 d. Only abolished tariff barriers
Q 4. Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, in his series of four prints (1848) visualized his
dream of a world as: 1
a. A world made up of ‗democratic and social republics‘
b. A world with one absolute ruler
c. A world made up of one nation, one world
d. A world following one religion, one language
Q 5. Oudh Kisan Sabha was set up and headed by: 1
a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
d. Lal Lajpat Rai
Q 6. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with
the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848, Identify its name from among the
following options. 1

a. Marianna
b. Philip Veit
c. Germania
d. None of the above
Q 7. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following
movements? 1
a. Khilafat Movement
b. Militant Guerrilla Movement in Andhra Pradesh
c. Peasants Movement of Awadh
d. Plantation Workers Movement in Assam
Q 8. Romanticism refers to 1
a. Cultural movement
b. Religious movement
c. Political movement
d. Literary movement
Q 9. Which of the following statements are true about Satyagraha?
1
a. Satyagraha is not a physical force

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 b. It is a weapon of the weak.
c. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary.
d. Both (a) and (c)
Q 10. Certain events are given below, choose the appropriate chronological order.
1
i. Coming of Simon Commission to India
ii. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session
iii. Government of India Act 1919
iv. Champaran Satyagraha
a. (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)
b. (i)-(ii)-(iv)-(iii)
c. (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)
d. (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii)
Q 11. Who is the author of the book ‗Hind Swaraj‘(1909)? 1
a. Bhagat Singh
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Subhash Chandra Bose
d. Mahatma Gandhi
Q 12. Why was Alluri Sitarama Raju well known? 1
a. He led the militant movement of tribal peasants in Andhra Pradesh.
b. He led a peasant movement in Avadh.
c. He led a Satyagraha movement in Bardoli.
d. He set up an organization for the uplifment of the dalits
Q 13. Whose name is associated with ‗The folkore of Southern India? 1
a. Bipin Chandra Pal
b. Natesa Sastri
c. Abanindranath Tagore
d. Baba Ramchandra
Q 14. Precious metals, particularly______ from mines located in present-day Peru and
Mexico enhanced Europe‘s wealth and financed its trade with Asia.
1
a. Copper
b. Bauxite
c. Iron Ore
d. Silver
Q 15. Study the picture and answer the question that follows: 1

Identify the two leaders with Mahatma Gandhi.

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 a. Maulana Azad and Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b. Nehru and Jinnah
c. Shaukat Ali and Gopa Krishana Gokhale
d. Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Azad
Q 16. The silk routes linked Asia with 1
a. Europe
b. Africa
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. America
Q 17. Bengal Gazette was: 1
a. A weekly magazine, first to be edited by an Indian
b. A weekly English magazine edited by James Hickey from 1780, described
as a commercial paper open to all, influenced by none
c. First English magazine brought out by Raja Rammohan Roy
d. A weekly magazine, edited by James Hickey from 1780 in English
Q 18. Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‗Gulamgiri‘?
1
a. Raja Rammohan Roy
b. Jyotiba Phule
c. Balgangadhar Tilak
d. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
Q 19. Which one among the following is an autobiography of Rashasundari Devi?
1
a. Amar Jiban
b. Amar Jyoti
c. Amar Jawan
d. Amar Zindagi

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 Q 20. Who said, ―Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.‖? 1
a. Charles Dickens
b. Louise-Sebastian Mercier
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Martin Luther
Section - B
(Very Short Answer Type Question) 4X2=8
Q 21. Why did Gandhiji launch the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain any
two reason 2
Q 22. What did the idea of Satyagraha emphasize? 2
Q 23. Which two underground societies were formed by Giuseppe Mazzini?
2
Q 24. What was the Rowlett Act of 1919? 2
Section - C
(Short Answer Type Question) 5X3=15
Q 25. What changes were introduced after the French Revolution in France?
3
Q 26. Explain any three provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.
Or
What was the impact of Treaty of Vienna (1815) on European people? Write any
three points. 3
Q 27. How had the First World War created a new economic situation in India? Explain
with three examples. 3
Q 28. (i) Name the two Persian newspapers published in India. 3
(ii) Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878?
Q 29. ‗With the printing press a new public emerged in Europe‘. Justify the statement.
3
Or
How did a new reading pubic emerge with the printing press? Explain.
Section - D
(Long Answer Type Question) 4X5=20

Q 30. What led the colonial government to pass the vernacular Press Act of 1878? How
did it affect the vernacular newspapers?
Or
Why was Vernacular Press Act passed? Explain about his Act. 5
Q 31. ―Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field, he
had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more
rational and efficient.‖ Analyse the statement with arguments. 5

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 Q 32. How had the female figures become an allegory of the nation during nineteenth
century in Europe‘ Analyse. 5
Q 33. ―Nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal democratic sentiment by the
last quarter of the nineteenth century in Europe.‖ Analyse the statement with
example.
Or
―The idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of nationalism in the first half of
nineteenth century became a narrow creed with limited ends.‖ Examine the
statement. 5

Section - E
(Case Based Question) 3X4=12

Q 34. After the Revolt of 1857, the attitude to freedom of the press changed. Enraged
Englishmen demanded a clamp down on the ‗native‘ press. As vernacular
newspapers became assembly nationalist, the colonial government began debating
measures of stringent control. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed,
modeled on the Irish Press Laws; it provided the governments with extensive
rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. From now on the
government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different
provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and
if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing
machinery confiscated.
(i) On which rule was the ‗Vernacular press Act‘ based? 1
(ii) Why did the attitude of the British change towards the freedom of press after
the Revolt of 1857? Explain 1
(iii) Explain any two impacts of passing the ‗Vernacular Press Act,‖ 2
Q 35. Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by
a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional
institutions of state and society like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies,
property and the family-should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did
not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they
realized, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernization could in fact
strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power
more effective and stronger, a modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic
economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic
monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had
collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe.
The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The
delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the objects of undoing most

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 of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. The
Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was
restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future.
(i) Describes European conservative ideology? 1
(ii) What are the purpose to convene Vienna of Congress in 1815?
1
(iii) What did conservatives focus on at the Congress of Vienna? 2

Q 36. ‗It is said of ―passive resistance‖ that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power
which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is
not passive resistance, indeed it calls for intense activity,. The movement in South
Africa was not passive but active……….
‗Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why
this force is called Satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns
the flame of love…
Nonviolence is the supreme dharma….‘it is certain that India cannot rival Britain
or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god and they can all them
become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India
can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own...‘
(i) Why did Gandhiji consider nonviolence as supreme dharma? 1
(ii) How was Gandhian Satyagraha taken by the people who believed in his
philosophy? 1
(iii) Why was Gandhian Satyagraha considered as a move way to resist injustice?
2
Section - F
(Map Based Question) 1X5=5
Q 37. Map based question
Three places a, b, c, d and e are marked on the outline political map of India.
Identify these places with the help of following information and write their correct
names on the lines marked near them.
(a) A Place in Punjab where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place 1
(b) A place where Cotton Mill workers Satyagraha took place. 1
(c) Place where Indian National Congress held its session in September, 1920.
1
(d) The Place where violence erupted during the Non-Cooperation Movement
leading to its withdrawal. 1
(e) Place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law in 1930. 1

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 Answer Key
Section A
(Multi Choice Question) 20X1=20
Ans 1. b
Ans 2. a
Ans 3. b
Ans 4. a
Ans 5. a
Ans 6. c
Ans 7. c
Ans 8. a
Ans 9. d
Ans 10. d
Ans 11. d
Ans 12. a
Ans 13. b
Ans 14. d
Ans 15. d
Ans 16. c
Ans 17. b
Ans 18. b
Ans 19. a
Ans 20. a

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 Section - B
(Very Short Answer Type Question) 4X2=8
Ans 21. (i) Economic depression of 1929.
(ii) Arrival of Simon Commission without any Indian representative.
(iii) Vague offer of Dominion status by the British, failed to satisfy Indians.
(iv) Decisions taken in the Lahore session of the Congress in 1929.
(v) Tax on salt by Britishers.
Ans 22. The idea of Satyagraha emphasized the power of truth. It suggested that if the
cause was true and struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not
necessary to fight the oppressor.
Ans 23. (i) Young Italy in Marseilles
(ii) Young Europe in Berne.
Ans 24. It gave the British government enormous powers to repress political activities, and
allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
Section - C
(Short Answer Type Question) 5X3=15

Ans 25. (i) A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform
laws for all citizens within its territory.
(ii) Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of
weights and measures were adopted.
(iii) The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasized
the motion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.
(iv) A new French flag, the tricolor, was chosen to replace the former royal
standard.
Ans 26. (i) Bourbon dynasty was restored to power in France.
(ii) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(iii) The kingdom of Netherlands was set-up in North and Genoa was added to
Piedmont in the South.
(iv) Prussia was given new territories on its western frontier.
(v) Austria was given control of Northern Italy
(vi) Russia was given part of Poland and Prussia was given a part of Saxony.
Ans 27. (i) Its speeded up the process of industrialization.
(ii) It led to a huge rise in the defence expenditure of the Government of India.
(ii) It created cloth, rails, etc.) and caused a decline of imports from other countries
into India.
Ans 28. (i) (a) Jam-i-Jahan Nama (b) Shamsul Akbar

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 (ii) If provided the government with expensive rights to censor and editorials in the
Vernaculars press.
Ans 29. (i) Wider sections of people started having an easy access to books.
(ii) Books were printed in large numbers with greater ease.
(iii) The prices fell and they became affordable for large public.
(iv) The hearing public and reading public became intermingled.
Section - D
(Long Answer Type Question) 4X5=20
Ans 30. (i) The vernacular press Act was passed because the vernacular newspaper were
assertively nationalist. They openly criticized and debated the government policies.
(ii) The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was passed which empowered the
government to censor reports and editorials.
(iii) The government kept a regular tract of vernacular newspapers, if a report
was judged seditious, the newspaper was warned and if warning was ignored
appropriate actions were taken.
Ans 31. ―Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France, but in administrative field, he had
incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more
rational and efficient‖
(i) All privileges based on birth were removed.
(ii) Established equality before law.
(iii) Right to property was given.
(iv) Simplified administrative divisions.
(v) Feudal system was abolished and freed peasants from serfdom and
manorial dues
(vi) Guild restrictions were removed.
(vii) Transport and communication systems were improved.
Ans 32. (i) In olden times, the best way to present an ideas was through symbolic
personifications. This was the most common and appealing way to invite
people‘s attention.
(ii) From 1789, females appeared in paintings as symbol of liberty and
revolution.
(iii) During the French Revolution, many symbolic personifications of
‗Liberty‘ and Reason appeared. Marianne was the female figure
invented by artists in the nineteenth century as represent the French
nation. Her characters were drawn from those of Liberty and the
Republic-the red cap, the tricolored, the cockade
(iv) Statues of Marianne were erected in pubic place to remained the public
of the national symbol of identity and to persuade them to identify with
it
(v) Marianne images were marked on come and slumps.
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Ans 33. (i) Sentiment of Nationalism in the first half of the 19 th century:

(ii) Towards the last quarter of the 19th century, nationalism could not retain
its idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of the first half of the century,
but became a narrow belief with inadequate ends.

(iii) Major European powers manipulated the nationalist aspirations to further

their won imperialist aims.

(iv) Source of nationalist tension in Europe was the area called Balkans.

(v) Idea of romantic nationalism in the Balkan together with disintegration of

the ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.

(vi) One by one, European nationalities broken away from its control and
declared independence.
Section - E
(Case Based Question) 3X4=12
Ans 34. (i) Irish Press Law
(ii) The government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published
in different provinces.
(iii) (a) The act gave the British government powers to warn, seize printing
presses, and suppress publications of vernacular newspapers if they were
deemed seditious.
(b) The act excluded English-language publicatins.it elicited strong and
sustained protests from a wide spectrum of the Indian populace.
(Any five point to examined)
Ans 35. (i) It was elected by the body of active citizens.
(ii) It formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
(iii) When the news of the events in France reached the different cities of
Europe, students and other members of educated middle classes began
setting up Jacobin clubs. Their activities and campaigns prepared the way
for the French armies which moved into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland
and much of Italy in the 1790s.
Ans 36. (i) Gandhiji adopted nonviolence as a philosophy and an ideal way of life.
According to him philosophy of nonviolence is not a weapon of the weak; it is a
weapon, which can be tried by all.
(ii) A Satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his
destruction. In the use of Satyagraha, there is no ill-will.
(iii) (a) One could win the battle through nonviolence.
(b) This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

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 (c) People- including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the truth,
instead of being forced to accept truth through the use of violence.
Section - F
(Map Based Question) 1X5=5
Ans 37. (a) Amritsar (Punjab)
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chauri Chaura
(e) Dandi

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 CBSE Class 10 Social Science Syllabus 2024-2025

Below is mentioned the unit-wise weightage for CBSE class 10 Social Science exam 2024-25:

History (India and the Contemporary World - II)

Chapter Marks
Section Chapter Name
No. Allocated
I. Events and
I The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
processes
II Nationalism In India
18 + 2 map
The Making of a Global World
pointing *
(To be evaluated in the Board
Examination - Subtopics:1 to 1.3
Pre Modern World to Conquest,
Disease and Trade)
III Interdisciplinary project as part
II. Livelihoods, of multiple assessments
Economies and (Internally assessed for 5 marks
Societies Sub topics 2 to 4.4 The nineteenth
century (1815-1914) to end of
Bretton Woods & the beginning of
―Globalisation.‖
The Age of Industrialization
IV (To be assessed as part of Periodic
Assessments only)
III. Everyday * Marks as
Print Culture and the Modern
Life, Culture and V mentioned
World
Politics above
Geography (Contemporary India - II)
Chapter No. Chapter Name Marks allocated
1. Resources and Development
2. Forest and Wildlife Resources
3. Water Resources
17 + 3 map
4. Agriculture
pointing
5. Minerals and Energy Resources
6. Manufacturing Industries
7. Lifelines of National Economy

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 Only map pointing to be evaluated in the
Board Examination
Interdisciplinary project as part of multiple
assessments
(Internally assessed for 5 marks)
Political Science (Democratic Politics - II)
Unit no Chapter No Chapter Name Marks allocated
I 1 Power - sharing
2 Federalism
Gender, Religion
II 3
and Caste 20
III 4 Political Parties
Outcomes of
IV 5
Democracy
Economics (Understanding Economic Development)
Marks
Chapter No. Chapter Name
allocated
1. Development
2. Sectors of the Indian Economy
3. Money and Credit
20
Globalisation and The Indian Economy
To be evaluated in the Board Examination:
4.
What is Globalization?
Factors that have enabled Globalisation
Interdisciplinary project as part of multiple
assessments
(Internally assessed for 5 marks) ·
Production across the countries ·
Chinese toys in India
World Trade Organisation
The Struggle for a Fair Globalisation
5. Consumer Rights (Project Work)

Geography — CONTEMPORARY INDIA-II

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 Chapter Page Droppe d
No. Topics /Chapte r
Chapter 1: 2–3 Types of Resources,
Resources 11–12 Box information
and
Developm en
t
From second paragraph
Chapter 2: of ‗Flora and Fauna in
Forest and 14–18 India‘ to ‗The
Wildlife Himalayan Yew in
Resources Trouble‘, box
information, Figs 2.1
and 2.2
Contribution of
agriculture to the
Chapter 4: 43–46
Agriculture national economy,
employment and output,
Impact of globalisation
on agriculture
Contribution of industry
to national economy,
paragraphs from cotton
textiles (India exports...
fibre industry), Jute
textiles (Challenges...
Chapter 6: 64–66 products), Sugar industry
Manufacturing 68–69 (Major... baggase),
Industries 71–73 Iron Steel industry (In
2019... consumer of
steel; Though... and
discuss), Cement
industry
(Improvement... industry)
and Activity (pg. 72),
Table
6.1, Figs 6.1, 6.2 and
6.5

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 QUESTION PAPER DESIGN
Subject Wise Weightage

Subject Syllabus Marks (80) Percentage

History  The Rise of 18+2 25%

Nationalism in
Europe.
 Nationalism in
India:
 The Making of a
Global World Sub
topics1 to 1.3
 Print Culture and
the Modern World
 Map pointing
Political Science  Power – sharing 20 25%
 Federalism
 Gender, Religion
and Caste
 Political Parties
 Outcomes of
Democracy
Geography  Resources and 17+3 25%
Development
 Forest and
Wildlife Resources
 Water Resources
 Agriculture
 Mineral& Energy
resources
 Manufacturing
industries.
 Lifelines of
National Economy
(map pointing)
 Map pointing
Economics  Development 20 25%
 Sectors of the
Indian Economy
 Money and Credit
 Globalization and
The Indian Economy
Sub topics:
 What is

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 Globalization?
 Factors that have
enabled
Globalisation

Page 47 of 65 Social Science Syllabus IX-X 2024-25

Weightage to Type of Questions

Type of Questions Marks Percentage

(80)

1 Mark MCQs (20x1) 20 25%

(Inclusive Of Assertion, Reason, Differentiation &Stem)

2 Marks Narrative Questions (4x2) 8 10%

(Knowledge,Understanding,Application,Analysis,Evaluation,S
ynthesis & Create)

3 Marks Narrative Questions (5x3) 15 18.75%

(Knowledge,Understanding,Application,Analysis,Evalu
ation,Synthesis & Create)

4 MARKS Case Study Questions (3x4) 12 15%

(Knowledge,Understanding,Application,Analysis,Evaluation,S
ynthesis & Create)

5 Mark Narrative Questions (4x5) 20 25%

(Knowledge,Understanding,Application,Analysis,Evaluation,S
ynthesis & Create)

Map Map Pointing 5 6.25%

Class 10 Geography Map Items

Chapter Areas to be located on map

 Identify Major Soil Types
Geography Unit Wise Sample Paper

Locating and Labelling:

Water Resources
 Salal
 Bhakra Nangal

25 | P a g e
  Tehri
 Rana Pratap Sagar
 Sardar Sarovar
 Hirakud
 Nagarjuna Sagar
 Tungabhadra

Identify:

 Major areas of Rice and Wheat

Agriculture  Largest/ Major producer states of
Sugarcane, Tea, Coffee, Rubber, Cotton
and Jute

Identify:
a. Iron Ore mines

 Mayurbhanj
 Durg
 Bailadila
 Bellary
 Kudremukh

b. Coal Mines

 Raniganj
 Bokaro
 Talcher
 Neyveli
Minerals and Energy Resources
c. Oil Fields

 Digboi
 Naharkatia
 Mumbai High
 Bassien
 Kalol
 Ankaleshwar

Locate & label: Power Plants

a. Thermal

 Namrup
 Singrauli

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  Ramagundam

b. Nuclear

 Narora
 Kakrapara
 Tarapur Kalpakkam

I.Manufacturing Industries (Locating and

Labelling only)
Cotton Textile Industries:
a. Mumbai
b. Indore
c. Surat
d. Kanpur
e. Coimbatore
Iron and Steel Plants:
a. Durgapur
b. Bokaro
c. Jamshedpur
Manufacturing Industries
d. Bhilai
e. Vijayanagar
f. Salem
Software Technology Parks:
a. Noida
b. Gandhinagar
c. Mumbai
d. Pune
e. Hyderabad
f. Bengaluru
g. Chennai
h. Thiruvananthapuram
Locating and Labelling:
a.Major sea ports

 Kandla
 Mumbai
 Marmagao
Lifelines of National Economy
 New Mangalore
 Kochi
 Tuticorin
 Chennai
 Vishakhapatnam
 Paradip

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  Haldia

b.International Airports:

 Amritsar (Raja Sansi - Sri Guru Ram

Dass jee)
 Delhi (Indira Gandhi)
 Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji)
 Chennai (Meenam Bakkam)
 Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose)
 Hyderabad (Rajiv Gandhi)

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 Geography Unit Wise Sample Paper
Answer key
Resource and Development
MCQ
1.
The pattern of the net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per cent of
the total area in _______.
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Punjab
Answer: (d) Punjab
2.Land which is left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years is known as ________.
(a) Culturable waste land
(b) Barren land
(c) Pastures
(d) Fallow Lands
Answer: (a) Culturable waste land

3.Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing
Answer: (d) Over irrigation

4.In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?

(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer: (d) Uttarakhand

5.Resource planning is essential for _________ existence of all form of life

(a) Ecological balance
(b) Exploitation
(c) Sustainable
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Sustainable

6.In which of the following states black soil is predominantly found?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
Answer: (b) Maharashtra

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7.Material in the environments which have the potential to satisfy the human need but human
being don‘t have appropriate technology to access them are called
(a) Potential resource
(b) Developed resource
(c) Stocks
(d) Reserve
Answer: (c) Stocks

8.The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted _______ for achieving
Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
(a) Agenda 20
(b) Agenda 21(Ans)
(c) Agenda 19
(d) Agenda 22
Answer: Option (b)

9.Why is resource planning necessary in India?

(a) Due to large availability of resources
(b) Due to limited availability of resources
(c) Due to enormous diversity in the availability of resources
(d) Due to corruption and mismanagement
Answer: (c) Due to enormous diversity in the availability of resources

10.Geothermal energy in Puga valley and Parvati valley are

(a) Stock resource
(b) Reserve resource
(c) Developed resource
(d) Potential resource
Answer: (c) Developed resource

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. What is Agenda 21? List its two principles.
Ans :
Agenda 21 was adopted at first International Earth Summit held in 1992 at Rio de Janerio Brazil.
The two principles are as follows:
a. To combat environmental damage, pov¬erty, disease through global cooperation on common
interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.
b. Every local government should draw its own local
Agenda 21.
2. Why is it essential to have resource planning? Explain any three reasons.
Ans :
a. If the present trend of resource depletion by few individuals continues, the future of our planet
is
in danger.

30 | P a g e
b. Planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.
c. Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to
global ecological crises.
3. In India, some regions are rich in certain types of
resources but deficient in some other resources‖. Do
you agree with the statement? Support your answer
with any three examples.
Ans :
Yes, there are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other
resources.
a. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits.
b. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.
c. Rajasthan is endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources.
d. Ladakh has rich cultural heritage but lacks in water resources and infrastructure.
27. Distinguish between red soil and laterite soil stating any three points of distinction.
Ans :
Red soil Laterite soil
1. Red soil develops on Laterite soil develops crystalline igneous in areas with high rocks in
areas of low temperature and heavy rainfall.
2. Red soil is found in Laterite soil is mainly parts of Odisha and found in Karnataka,
Chhattisgarh, southern Kerala and the hilly parts of the middle of areas of Odisha and
Ganga plain and along Assam the piedmont zone of the Western ghats.
3. Red soil develops a In laterite soil, humus reddish colour due content is very low to diffusion
of Iron in crystalline andmetamorphic rocks
28. Which is the main cause of land degradation in Gujarat, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh?
How can it be checked? Explain.
Ans :
The main cause of land degradation is large scaleovergrazing
Measures to check include:
a. Afforestation and proper management of grazing.
b. Planting of shelter belts of plants.
c. Stabilization of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes.
d. Control on overgrazing.
29. Describe any three measures of controlling land degradation.
or
Explain any three steps taken to solve the problem of land degradation in India.
Ans :
a. Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help to some extent.
b. Planting of shelter belts, control on over-grazing, stabilisation of sand dune by growing thorny
bushes.
c. Proper management of wastelands, control of mixing activities, proper discharge and disposal
of
industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land and water degradation in
industrial
and sub-urban areas are some of the methods to check land degradation.
30. Mention any three features of arid soils.

31 | P a g e
Ans :
Features of arid soils :
1. Arid soils range from red to brown in colour.
2. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
3. Due to dry climate, high temperature, evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and
moisture.
4. The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar because of the increasing calcium
content
downwards. (Any three).
31. ‗Land is a natural resource of utmost importance‘. Justify the statement with appropriate
arguments.
Ans :
a. We live on land, we perform our economic activities on land and we use it in different ways.
b. It supports natural vegetation, wildlife, human life, economic activities, transport and
communication systems.
c. It is an asset of a finite magnitude.
32. Indiscriminate use of resources had led to numerous problems.‘ Justify this statement.
Ans :
Resources are vital for human survival and it was believed that resources are free gift of nature.
The
indiscriminate use of resources led to the following problems:
a. To satisfy the greed of few individuals, depletion of resources has continued.
b. Due to the accumulation of resources in few hands, the society gets divided into two segments,
e.g., rich and poor.
c. Indiscriminate use of resources has ‗ led to ecological crises, e.g., ozone layer depletion, land
degradation, global warming and environmental pollution.
33. How can you contribute to minimize the pollution.
Explain.
Ans :
We can contribute to minimize the pollution by:
a. Planting more plants and trees.
b. Using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar and wind energy.
c. Using public transport instead of personal car/motor bike etc.
d. Saving water and electricity.
34. Define the following terms: a. Current fallow land b. Other than current fallow
c. Cultural waste land
Ans :
a. Current fallow land: Left uncultivated / for one orless than one agricultural year.
b. Other than current fallow: Left uncultivated for past 1 to 5 agricultural years.
c. Cultural waste land: Left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years.
35. Explain any three human activities responsible for land degradation in India.
or
How are human activities responsible for the degradation of land?
Ans :
a. Mining: Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars in

32 | P a g e
 states such as Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. Deforestation due to
mining
has caused severe land degradation.
b. Over irrigation: Over irrigation in the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, has
caused water logging and increase in salinity of soil.
c. Overgrazing: Overgrazing in states such as Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and
Maharashtra is a huge cause due to cattle population
d. Industries: Mineral processing industry like grinding of limestone for cement industry and
calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust. This retards the
process of infiltration of water into the soil.
e. Industrial waste: Industrial effluents also have become a major source of land degradation.
36. Suggest any three methods of soil conservation suitable to Indian conditions.
or
What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in hilly areas?
Ans :
Methods of soil conservation:
a. Ploughing along the contour lines can decrease the speed of water flow down the slopes.
b. Step or terrace cultivation on slopes restricts erosion. Western and Central Himalayas have
well-developed terrace farming.
c. Strip cropping: Here large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow
between
the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind.
d. Shelter belt plantation: Trees are planted in rows. These shelter belts have led to the
stabilisation of sand dimes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
37. What is meant by the term ―resource‖? List the types of resources classified on the basis of
its ownership.

Ans :
a. Resource: Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs,
provided, it is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable is
known as a resource.
b. Types of resources on the basis of ownership are:
Individual, community, national and international.
38. Distinguish between the renewable and nonrenewable resources.
Ans :
a. Renewable resources: Resources which can be renewed or reproduced by mechanical, physical
or chemical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources, e.g., solar and wind
energy, water, forests and wildlife, etc.
b. Non-renewable resources : These occur over very long geological times. Minerals and fossil
fuels are examples of such resources. These resources take millions of years in their formation.
Some of the resources like metals are recyclable and some of them such as fossil fuels cannot be
recycled and
get exhausted with their use.
39. Distinguish between stock and potential resource. Give one example of each.
Ans :
Stock Potential resources:

33 | P a g e
1. They are found in the They are found in a environment. region.
2. They are not accessed due They have not to the lack of technology. been utilized or developed.
3. Example: Water is a Example: Rajasthan compound of two 1 and Gujarat have
inflammable gases— enormous potential hydrogen and oxygen, for the development which can
be used as a of wind and solar rich source of energy but they are But we do not have the yet to be
developed required technical know- for various reasons how to use them for this
purpose.
40. Distinguish between Khadar and Bangar soil.
or
How are alluvial soils formed? How is Bangar different from Khadar?
Ans :
Alluvial soil: It is soil formed by the sediments deposited by river water.
S.No Khadar soil Bangar soil
1. It is a new alluvial It is an old alluvial soil.
2. Lower concentration Higher concentration of kankar nodules. of kankar nodules.
3. It has more fine It has less fine particles. particles.
4. It is more fertile. It is less fertile.
41. Explain any three factors responsible for soil formation.
Ans :
a. The parent rock is the first factor which provides the basic material for the formation of soil.
b. Climate breaks the parent rock into small pieces.
c. Vegetation: Plant and animal organisms help in the weathering of the rocks slowly but
continuously
d. Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and
glaciers, activities of decomposers, etc., contribute to the formation of soil.
e. Chemical and organic changes take place in the soil.
42. Which geographical factors are responsible for the evolution of black soil? Why is it
considered the most suitable for growing cotton?
Ans :
a. Climatic conditions along with present rock material are important factors for making of black
soil. The parent rock is volcanic rock.
b. It is ideal for growing cotton because of the following reasons:
c. It has capacity to hold moisture.
d. It is rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate
and potash.
e. Deep cracks in the soil help in aeration.
43. Mention any two human activities which are responsible for the process of soil erosion.
Explain the two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India?
Ans :
Two human activities which are responsible for the process of soil erosion are deforestation and
overgrazing, mining, construction, etc. Types of Soil Erosion :
a. Gullies: The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels/gullies. The
unfit land caused by gullies is called bad land or ravines.
b. Sheet erosion: water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. The top soil is washed
away
.This process is known as sheet erosion.

34 | P a g e
44. Differentiate between stock and reserve stating two points of difference.
Ans :
a. Stock: Materials, which have the potential to satisfy human beings but human do not have
the appropriate technology to access these, are termed as stock. We do not have the required
technical ‗know-how‘ to use them for a specific purpose, e.g., water which is a compound of two
inflammable gases hydrogen and oxygen and can be a rich source of energy. We do not know
how
to use them.
b. Reserves: These are subset of the stock. They can be put into use with existing know-how but
their use has not been started. For e.g., river water is used as a source of hydroelectricity but
to a limited extent. Thus, the water in the dams, forests, etc., are reserves which can be used in
the
future.
45. Explain the types of resources on the basis of exhaustibility with the help of examples.
Ans :
a. Renewable resources: Resources which can be renewed or reproduced by mechanical, physical
or chemical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources, e.g., solar and wind
energy, water, forests and wildlife, etc.
b. Non-renewable resources: These occur over very long geological times. Minerals and fossil
fuels are examples of such resources. These resources take millions of years in their formation.
Some of the resources like metals are recyclable and some of them such as fossil fuels cannot be
recycled and
get exhausted with their use.
46. What are the three stages of resource planning in India ?
Ans :
a. Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
b. Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and , institutional
set up for implementing resource development plans.
c. Match the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
47. Enumerate any three features of ‗regur‘ soil.
Ans :
Feature of ‗regur‘ soil :
a. Regur soil is also known as black soil.
b. It is ideal for growing cotton, so it is also known as ‗black cotton soil‘.
c. It is made up of extremely fine clayey material.
d. It is rich in soil nutrients, calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.
e. It develops cracks in hot weather. It can hold moisture and is sticky when wet.
48. Describe any five distinct characteristics of ‗Arid soils‘.
Ans :
a. Arid soils range from red to brown in colour.
b. Sandy in texture and saline in nature.
c. Evaporation is faster, soil lacks humus and moisture.
d. Soil occupied by Kankar.
e. Kankar restricts the infiltration of water.
49. Why is soil considered as a resource? Explain with five arguments.
Ans :

35 | P a g e
Soil is considered as a resource because :
a. It is used to satisfy our needs.
b. It is the most important renewable natural resource.
c. It is the medium of plant growth.
d. It supports different types of living organisms on the Earth.
e. It is the base of our life.
50. What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give four main features of
this type ofsoil.
Ans :
Alluvial soil is found in the entire northern plain It is the most widely spread soil of India. Main
features of alluvial soil:
a. It is formed by the deposition of materials brought down by the Himalayan rivers.
b. It is highly fertile.
c. It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
d. It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
51. Explain resource planning. What are the steps involved in resource planning?
or
Why is resource planning essential in India?
or
What is resource planning? Why is resource planning essential? Explain it with three reasons.
Ans :
Resource planning is a procedure of proper utilisation of resources. Resource planning is
important because :
a. Resources in India are not evenly distributed. Some parts of the county are rich in one resource
but deficient in other important resources which are essential. For example, Rajasthan is rich in
solar and wind energy but lacks water resource. Jharkhand is rich in minerals and coal deposits
but lack in industrialisation. This is the reason why resource planning is essential. An effective
resource planning will help in effective use of the resources available in the environment.
b. Secondly, most of the resources present in our environment are limited. Therefore, if these
resources are not preserved or not used rationally we will be in great trouble. For example :
Petrol
is a limited resource and it cannot be renewed. Exhaustion of petrol will create huge chaos in the
country as we are extensively dependent on the petrol.
c. Thirdly, resource planning is important because it minimises the wastage or over utilisation
of resources. The very first step of resource planning is to make a list of resources available
in the environment. This helps us to assess which resources should be used and how much it
should
be used to prevent over utilisation and minimise wastage.
52. Provide a suitable classification for resources on the basis of ownership. Mention main
features of any three types of such resources.
Ans :
On the basis of ownership resources can be classified into the following categories :
a. Individual resources : Resources owned by a person or an individual are called individual
esources.
For example-land owned by farmers, and houses are individual resources.

36 | P a g e
b. Community resources : Resources owned by a particular community or a society are called
community owned resources. For example- Graveyard, grazing land, ponds, burial grounds
and park ark community owned resources.
c. National resources : Resources owned by an individual nation are called national resources.
For example -Government land, roads, canals and railways are national resources.
d. International resources : Resources regulated or governed by an international body are called
international resources. For example-Ocean and sea beyond 200 km of the exclusive economic
zone belongs to open sea or ocean. No individual country can utilise these resources without the
permission of international bodies.
53. Explain the resources on the basis of origin and exhaustibility.
Ans :
Resources on the basis of origin :
a. Biotic resources : Resources obtained from the environment are called biotic resources. For
example-trees, animals and insects.
b. Abiotic resources : Resources obtain from non- living things present in our environment are
termed as abiotic resources. For example-earth, air, water, metals, rocks, etc.
Resources on the basis of exhaustibility :
a. Renewable resources : The resources which have the ability to renew them over period of time
or can be reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes are known as renewable
resources. For example-solar and wind energy, water, forest and wildlife, etc.
b. Non-renewable resources : Resources which cannot be renewed or reproduced by any
physical,
chemical or mechanical process are known as non- renewable resource. For example- water,
wind,
tidal energy, etc.
54. List the problems caused due to indiscriminate use of resources by human beings.
Ans :
Resources are essential for human survival. Initially, people believed that the resources are the
free gift of nature. Therefore, they continuously exhausted the resources available in the
environment without taking any preventive measures. As a matter of fact, theyfaced economic,
social and ecological problems. The major problems that cropped up due to over-exploitation,
irrational consumption and indiscriminate use of resources are :
a. Exhaustion of resources : Due to over exploitation and irrational consumption, the resources
exhausted at a rapid pace leaving very little or nothing for the future generation.
b. Concentration of resources : Concentration of resources in a few hands is also a major issue.
The people with the maximum resources will use them for their own benefits leaving others
empty
handed. This will create a situation of have and have nots. This situation of have and have nots
is unfavourable for the growth of the country as a whole.
c. Global ecological crisis : Global warming, depletion of ozone layer, population and land
degradation are global ecological crises. This crisis situation is also an after effect of irrational or
over utilisation of resources.
55. How do technical and economical developments led to more consumption of resources ?
Ans :
These days, technical and economical developments gain a colossus space. The government is
also focusingmore on technical and economical growth to make our county a fully developed

37 | P a g e
country. In this process of technical and economical growth, the resources of our country are
exhausting rapidly. Technological and economical developments have led to such
rapidconsumption of resources because of the following reasons :
a. New and improved equipments are introduced with the development of technology, which
ultimately lead to an increase in the use of natural resources.
b. The technological advancement is attributed to the growth of a developing country. People
of an economically developing nation consume more resources. Hence, we can safely say that
an
improvement in economic development of a nation will directly result in the increase of its
people‘s
consumption of resources.
c. Development of new technologies is widely seen in developing economies. Due to economic
development, the bright minds get an opportunity to experiment with their ideas. As a matter of
fact, various materials are converted in to useful resources. This creates an atmosphere, which
will see a steady increase in consumption of such available resources.
56. ‗Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent
need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving‘. Suggest and
explain any three measures to solve this burning problem.
Ans :
Energy is an essential requirement for economic development. The strategy of economic
development that India has adopted since independence necessarily required increasing amount
of energy consumption. As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been rising. To take
care of this concern, various measures that need to be adopted are as follows :

a. We need to increase the use of renewable energy resources like solar, wind power, biogas,
tidal
energy and geothermal energy. This will decrease the dependence on non-renewable sources.
b. We have to adopt a cautious approach for judicious use of our limited energy resources. F or
example, as a concerned citizen we can use public transport system in place of an individual
vehicle.
c. Another measure that needs to be adopted is promotion of energy conservation, e.g., switching
off electrical devices when not in use, using power saving devices. Thus, consumption of energy
in all forms has been rising all over the country.
57. What is meant by ‗Land Resource‘ ?
Ans :
We live on land and it satisfies our needs in all the possible ways. Land resource, thus is, of
much
importance for us which includes forests, mountains, plains, plateaus and islands. These support
naturalvegetation, wild life, economic activities, and transportand communication systems.
Therefore, it is necessary for us to use these resources in a wise manner and with careful
planning, we should develop holistic and ecological approach towards economic development
without compromising the ability of resources to future generations to meet their needs. Though
we have the right to meet our present needs by consuming natural resources, we should not
deprive the future generations from it.
58. Explain land use pattern in India and why the land under forest not increased much since
1960-61.

38 | P a g e
Ans :
Land in India has been divided into different categories with reference to usage. Different
categories of land are:
a. Farming land which is used for farming.
b. Forest land which comes under forest area
c. Land meant for grazing
d. Non-farminglandwhichisusedforindustrialization
e. Waste lands, such as rocky areas and deserts The irrational use of forest land has degraded
the available land area, and has made conservation of forests difficult. Human actions such as
deforestation, mining and quarrying have contributed to the slow growth rate of forests. Thus,
land under forest has increased by only about 4% since 1960-61.
a. The use of natural resources has been increased with the development of the technology in the
country.
b. Over utilisation of soil due to development in technology.
c. Growth in the quality of production and better services to the people.
d. Improvement in the process of mining.
e. Demand for more resources due to urbanisation.
59. What do you understand by the term ‗land degradation‘ ? Which human activities lead to
land degradation ? What are the measures to solve the problems of land degradation ?
Ans : Land resource is fixed and cannot be increased. Land resource has been used since the
ancient time. This continuous usage of land over a long period of time, without taking necessary
steps to conserve and manage it has resulted in land degradation. As a matter of fact, the quality
of the land has become inferior due to regular loss of fertility and irregular usage. Human
activities have also contributed towards land degradation. There are :
a. Deforestation i.e., cutting down of forests.
b. Over grazing.
c. Mining i.e., extraction of valuable minerals from the soil.
d. Mineral processing like grinding of limestone.
e. Faulty methods of cultivation and over-irrigation.
These damages can be prevented with the help of these measures :
a. Afforestation and proper management of grazing.
b. Plantation of shelter and stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes in windy and
arid areas like the deserts of Rajasthan.
c. Proper management of wasteland and control of mining activities.
d. Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and waste after treatment in industrial
and suburban areas.
60. How can the problem of land degradation be solved ?
Ans :
Land degradation has become a major problem today.We have shared our land with the past
generationsand will have to do with the future generations. There are many ways to solve the
problem of land degradation. Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help in
solving the problem of land degradation. Planting shelter belts of plants, control on over grazing,
stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes are also some of the methods to check
land degradation. Proper management of waste lands, control of mining activities, proper
discharge

39 | P a g e
and disposal of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land and water
degradation in industrial and suburban areas.
61. What is the purpose of ‗Land Utilisation‘ ?
Ans :
Land resources are used for the following purposes :
a. Forests.
b. Land not available for cultivation :
(1) Barren and waste land.
(2) Land put to non-agricultural uses, e.g.,
buildings, roads, factories, etc.
c. Other uncultivated land :
(1) Permanent pastures and grazing land.
(2) Land under miscellaneous tree crops groves.
(3) Cultural waste land‘left uncultivated for more
than 5 years.
d. Fallow lands:
(1) Current fallow land left without cultivation
for one or less than one agricultural year.
(2) Other than current fallow land, left
uncultivated for the past one to five years.
e. Net sown area, sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as
gross cropped area.
62. What are the main types of soil found in India ? Which type of soil is the most widespread
and important soil of India ? Describe in detail about this soil type.
Ans :
The main types soil found in various parts of Indiaare as follows :
a. Alluvial soil
b. Black soil
c. Red and yellow soil
d. Laterite soil
e. Arid or Desert soil
f. Forest and Mountainous soil.
Alluvial Soil :
Alluvial soil is the most fertile and extensively foundsoil in India. This type of soil is found near
the river banks and is deposited by the rivers of India. The Indus, the Ganga and the
Brahmaputra are the three main rivers which are responsible for its deposition and have created
the entire northern plains. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow
corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the
Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers. Alluvial soil is more common in
pediment plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai. Alluvial soil is very fertile because it contains
potash, phosphoric acid and lime in adequate amount. This is why the areas where alluvial soil is
found are densely populated, for example, the northern plains and the eastern coastal plain are
densely populated and the most productive regions of India. The mineral content of the alluvial
soil makes it ideal for the growth of paddy, wheat, other cereals and pulses and sugarcane. The
alluvial soil consists of various

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proportions of sand, silt and clay. They are coarse in the upper reaches of the river valley
especially near the break of slope and in pediment plains like Duars,Chos and Terai. Every year
during annual floods alluvial soils are renewed. The Alluvial soil is of two types-Khadar and
Bangar.
63. What are the four main factors which help in the formation of soil ?
Ans :
The main factors that help in soil formation are :
a. Parent rock : It influences the colour and texture of the soil. The mineral content of the soil
also
depends on the parent rock from which it is formed.
b. Climate : It influences the rate and types of weathering and erosion of the rocks. Weathering
of the parent rocks due to climatic factors and natural forces leads to disintegration of rocks.
Subsequently, this leads to the formation of soil.
c. Time : It determines the maturity of the soil. Soil is a living system. It takes millions of years
to
form soil upto a few centimetres in depth.
d. Relief: This refers to the landscape position and the slopes. Steep and long slopes mean water
will
run down faster and potentially erode the surfaces of the slopes. The effect will be poor soils on
the
slopes, and richer deposits at the foot of the slopes.

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 CHAPTER 2

Forest and Wild Life

MCQ
1.Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna?
(a) Agricultural expansion
(b) Large -scale developmental project
(c) Grazing and fuel wood collection
(d) Rapid industrialisation and Urbanisation
Answer: (c) Grazing and fuel wood collection
2.Teak Monoculture has damaged the natural forests in
(a) Ganga Plain
(b) South India
(c) Brahmaputra Plain
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) South India
3.Several virgin forests preserved in the pristine form are called ___
(a) Sacred Forests
(b) Sacred Groves
(c) Sacred Trees
(d) Sacred Plants
Answer: (b) Sacred Groves
4.Which of the following categories of forests and wastelands belongs to government,
private individuals‘ communities?
(a) Protected Forests
(b) Reserved Forests
(c) Unclassed Forests
(d) Open Forests
Answer: (c) Unclassed Forests

5.Which one is considered as Primary Producers in an ecological system

(a) Forest
(b) Animals
(c) Sun
(d) Humans
Answer: (a) Forest

6.The Buxar tiger reserve is situated in which of the following states?

(a) west Bengal
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan

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(d) Goa
Answer: (d) forest conservation

7.Which of the following states has the largest area under Permanent Forests?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Assam
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh

8.Which of the following conservation strategies does not directly involve community
participation?
(a) Joint forest management
(b) Beti Bachao Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement
(d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: (d) Demarcation of Wildlife sanctuaries

9.In which one the following states Periyar tiger reserves located?
(a) Kerala
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (a) Kerala

10.Which one of the following is an endangered species of Manipur?

(a) Blue sheep
(b) Asiatic Buffalo
(c) Sangai
(d) Cattle
Answer: (c) Sangai

Two Marks questions

10. Name the tiger Reserve which is seriously threatened by dolomite mining activity. Write in
short about the problem.
Ans :
The Bauxa tiger Reserve in West Bengal.
11. What are the greatest degrading factors in the view of foresters and environmentalists ?

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Ans :
The greatest degrading factors behind the depletion of forests in the view of foresters and
environmentalists are grazing and wood - fuel collection.
12. Which factors have led to a decline in India‘s biodiversity ?
Ans :
Habitat destruction, hunting, poaching, over exploitation, environmental pollution, poisoning and
forest fires are the factors that have led to a decline in India‘s biodiversity.
13. What are the causes of environmental destruction ?
Ans :
Unequal access, inequitable consumption of resources and differential sharing of responsibility
for environmental well - being are the causes of environmental destruction.
14. How is the biological loss, the loss of cultural diversity?
Ans :
These losses have marginalized and impoverished many indigenous and other forest dependent
communities, who directly depend on various components of the forest and wildlife for food,
drink, medicine, cultural, spirituality, etc.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

16. What is the main reason for the depletion of flora and fauna ? or
State the factors responsible for the depletion of flora and fauna.
Ans :
We, human beings have transformed nature into a resource, obtaining directly and indirectly
from the forest and wildlife- wood, barks, leaves, rubber, medicines, dyes, food, fuel, fodder,
manure etc. So it is we ourselves who have depleted our forests and wildlife. The greatest
damage inflicted on Indian forests was due to expansion of the railways, agriculture, commercial,
mining activities and scientific forestry. Even after independence, agricultural expansion
continues to be one of the major causes of depletion of forest resources. Between 1951 and 1980,
according to the Forest Survey of India, over 26,200 sq.km of forest area was converted into
agricultural land all over India. Substantial parts of the tribal belts, especially in the north-eastern
and central India, have been deforested by shifting cultivation.
17. ―Conservation of rapid decline in wildlife population and forestry has become essential.‖
Explain.
or
Why do we need to conserve our forests and wildlife resources ? Explain any two steps taken by
the
communities to protect our forest and wildlife resources.
or
Why is conservation of forests and wildlife necessary ? In what way have conservation projects
changed in the recent years ?*

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or
Assess the need for the conservation of forests and wildlife in India.
Ans :
Conservation of forest and wildlife is important because-
a. Loss of cultural diversity : The loss of forest and wildlife is not just a biological issue but it is
also
correlated with cultural diversity. There are many forest-dependent communities, which directly
depend on various components of the forests and wildlife for food, drinks, medicines, etc. Many
of the tribal communities like Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras, etc. have lost their habitat
because of the destruction of forests.
b. Complex web of living organisms : We humans along with all living organisms form a
complex
web ecological system in which we are only a part and very much dependent on this system for
our
own existence. For example, the plants, animals and micro-organisms recreate the quality of the
air we breathe, the water we drink and the soil that produce our food without which we cannot
survive.
c. Large scale destruction of forests : Between 1951 and 1980, according to the Forest Survey of
India, over 26,200 sq. km of forest area was converted into agricultural lands all over India.
18. Describe the different type of plants and animal species found in India.
or
Explain any five different categories of existing plants and animal species based on the
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
with examples.
Ans :
a. Normal species : These include those whose population levels are considered to be normal for
their survival, such as cattle, sal, pine, rodents, etc.
b. Endangered species : These include those species which are in danger of extinction. The
several of
such species is difficult if the negative factors that have led to a decline in their population
continue
to operate. For example, black buck, crocodile, Indian wild ass, etc.
c. Vulnerable species : These include the species whose population has declined to levels from
where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors
continue to operate. For example, blue sheep, gangetic dolphin, etc.
d. Rare species : They may move into the endangered or vulnerable category for example,
Himalayan
brown bear, wild Asiatic buffalo.
e. Endemic species : These are found in some particular areas usually isolated by natural or
geographical barriers. For example, Andaman teal, Nicobar prigo.

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19. Differentiate between endangered and vulnerable species with examples.
Ans :
We can classify the different species of plants and animals on the basis of International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources(IUCN).
a. Endangered species - These are the species which are in danger of extinction. The survival of
such
species is difficult if the negative factors that have led to a decline in their population continue
to
operate. Animals like black buck, crocodile, Indian wild ass, Indian Rhino, lion tailed macaque,
sangai
(brow anter deer in Manipur) fall in this category.
b. Vulnerable Species - These are species whose population has declined to levels from where it
is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue
to
operate. The examples of such species are blue sheep, Asiatic elephant, Gangetic dolphin, etc.
20. How are coloal forest policies responsible for the depletion of forests ?
Ans :
Some of the environmental activists say that the promotion of a few favored species in many
parts of India has been carried through the ironically termed ―enrichment plantation‖, in which a
single commercially valuable species was extensively planted and other species eliminated. For
instance teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in South India and Chir Pine
plantations in the Himalayas have replaced the Himalayan oak and Rhododendron forests. Large
scale
development projects have also contributed to a great extent to the loss of forests. Many
environmentalists and foresters hold the view that the greatest degrading factors behind the
depletion of forests are grazing and fuel wood collection. Besides, the expansion of the
railways, agriculture, commercial, mining activities and scientific forestry during colonial period
are
responsible for the depletion of forest.

21. How is overpopulation responsible for environmental degradation ?

Ans :
The causes of environmental destruction are unequal access, inequitable consumption of
resources and differential sharing of responsibility for environmental well-being. Over
population in third world countries isoften cited as the cause of environmental degradation.
However, an average American consumes 40 times more resources than an average Somalian.
Similarly,
the richest five percent of the Indian society probably causes more ecological damage because of
the amount they consume than the poorest 25 percent. The former shares minimum

46 | P a g e
responsibilities for environmental well¬being. If we talk about India, over half of India‘s natural
forests are gone, one third of its wetlands drained out, 70 percent of its surface Water bodies
polluted, 40 percent of its mangroves wiped out and with continued hunting and trade of wild
animals and commercially valuable plants, thousands of plant and animal species are heading
towards extinction and who
is to blame ? This is only the result of overpopulation and increasing demands.
22. Poverty is the outcome of environmental destruction. Discuss.
Ans :
The destruction of forest and wildlife is not just a biological issue. The biological loss is strongly
correlated with the loss of cultural diversity. Such losses have increasingly marginalized and
impoverished many indigenous and other forest dependent communities,
who directly depend on various components of the forest and wildlife for food, drinks, medicine,
culture, spirituality, etc. Within the poor, women are affected more than men. In many societies
women bear the major responsibility of doing household work. This results in serious health
problems for women and negligence of home and children because of theincreased hours of work
and also has serious social implications. The indirect impact of degradation such as drought or
deforestation induced floods, etc. Also hits the poor the hardest. Poverty in these cases is a
direct outcome of environmental destruction.
23. What steps have been taken by the government for the conservation of forest and wildlife in
India? Explain.
or
Write any three effective practices towards conserving forests and wildlife.
or
Explain any three measures taken by the Indian Government to protect wildlife.
Ans :
a. National parks, biosphere and wildlife sanctuaries : To protect the biodiversity, the Indian
government has established 100 national parks, 515 sanctuaries and 17 biosphere reserves.
b. The Indian Wildlife Protection Act: The Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in
1972,
with various provisions for protecting habitats. An all India list of protected species was also
published. The thrust of the program was towards protecting the remaining population of certaip
endangered species by banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats and restricting
trade in wildlife.
c. Project for protecting specific animals : The central government has also announced several
projects for protecting specific animals which were greatly threatened, including the tiger, the
one-horned rhinoceros, the Kashmir stag or hangul, the three types ofcrocodiles-the freshwater
crocodile, the saltwater crocodile and the Gharial, the Asiatic lion and others.
d. Forest Policy : India is one of the few countries which has a forest policy since 1894. It was
revised
in 1952 and again in 1988. The main plank of the forest policy is protection, conservation and

47 | P a g e
 development of forests. e. Forest Research Institutes : Indian government has created many
forest Research Institutes for the research, protection and development of the forests. IFS
Dehradun is the oldest research institution of the country.
24. Write a note on good practices towards conserving forest and wildlife.
Ans :
Humans have realized the importance of forest and wildlife for their existence. Therefore,
various steps are being taken to conserve the forest and wildlife :
a. The government has adopted policies to protect wildlife, land, fresh water and air.
b. Implementationof,theIndianWildlife(Protection) Act which has enlisted wildlife species that
need
special attention, c. Setting up of National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries to protect endangered
species. Under the Wildlife Act of 1980 and 1986, several insects have also been included in
the list of protected species.
d. Organising community awareness programmes such as vanmahotsav, etc.
25. Describe how communities have conserved and protected forests and wildlife in India ?
Ans :
India has a diverse culture and religious beliefs. Many traditional communities still live in the
forests
and depend upon them for their livelihood. These communities are working hand in hand with
the
government to conserve forests. For example in Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers
fought against mining activities. In Alwar district of Rajasthan, local communities belonging to
five villages have set their own rules and regulations in 1,200 hectares of forest land. They have
named it as the Bhairodev Dakav ‗Sonchuri‘. Hunting is not allowed in these lands.
26. Name some conservation movements which have contributed towards the conservation of
flora and fauna.
Ans :
Famous Conservation Movements are :
a. Chipko Movement : The famous Chipko Movement was started in the Himalayas to resist
deforestation in several areas. To save indigenous species, it has opted for community
afforestation.
It has made attempt to revive the traditional conservation methods or develop new methods of
ecological farming.
b. Beej Bachao Andolan : Farmer‘s and citizen‘s group in Tehri have shown that adequate levels
of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals is possible and are also
economically viable.
c. Joint Forest Management (JFM): It furnishes a good example for involving local Communities
in the management and restoration of degraded forests. The programme has been in formal
existence since 1988 when the state of Odisha passed the first resolution for joint forest

48 | P a g e
 management. It depends on the formation of local institutions that undertake protection
activities
mostly omdegraded forest land managed by the forest department. In return, the community
members Ire entitled to benefits like non-timber forest produce and share in the timber harvested
by successful protection.
27. The role of few communities in India to conserve and protect wildlife cannot be over
emphasized. Comment on this.
Ans :
Few communities in India can have a major role in counserving and protecting the wildlife in the
following ways:
a. As forests are home to some of the traditional communities, in some areas of India, local
communities along with government officials are struggling their best to conserve the forests
and
habitats of wild life recognizing that only this will secure their own long term livelihood.
b. In Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan, villagers have fought against mining by citing the
Wildlife
Protection Act.
c. In many areas, villagers themselves are protecting habitats and rejecting any government
involvement.
d. The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares
of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‗Sonchuri‘, declaring their own set of rules and regulations
which do not allow hunting and are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
28. Explain Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks of India.
Ans :
Wildlife Sanctuary : A wildlife sanctuary is a declared protected area where very limited human
activity is allowed. The ownership of this type of protected area lies either in the hands of
government or in any private organization or person provided the regulations are governed by the
government. Inside a wildlife sanctuary, the hunting of animals is completely prohibited. The
trees cannot be cut down for any purpose; especially the clearing of forest for agriculture is
completely banned. But the general public could see or use it up to a certain extent so that the
wildlife
is not disturbed. National Park : National park was first introduced in 1969. It has a defined
boundary
through which no person can go into the park without an approval. Only an approved person can
enter into a national park. In wildlife sanctuary, where limited activities are allowed like
collecting fuel wood, fruits, medicinal plants in small scale, no human activities are allowed in
national parks. The national parks are more restricted for the people.

49 | P a g e
 CHAPTER 3
Water Resources

MCQs
1.The Hirakud project was built in _______ basin.
(A) Indus
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Ganga
(D)Ravi
Answer: (B) Mahanadi

2.Which one of the following is not a source of freshwater?

(a) Oceans
(b) Surface run off
(c) Ice-sheets
(d) Groundwater
Answer: (b) Surface run off

3.Which state has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses
across the state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

4.During whose reign were the dams, lakes and irrigation system built extensively?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Akbar
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Chandragupta Maurya

5.Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?

(a) Chenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj

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Answer: (c) Krishna

6.Which of the following multipurpose projects is found in the Satluj-Beas River basin?
(a) Hirakud Project
(b) Damodar Valley Corporation
(c) Bhakra Nangal Project
(d) Rihand Project
Answer: (c) Bhakra Nangal Project

7.Name the village where almost all the house traditionally had tankas.
(a)Rajasthan
(b) Odisha
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d)Maharastra
Answer: (a) Rajasthan

8.The first multi-purpose project of India was

(a) Sivasamudram
(b) Damodar Valley
(c) Hirakud
(d) Rajasthan Canal
Answer: (b) Damodar Valley

9.Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on

(a) River Krishna
(b) River Mahanadi
(c) River Kaveri
(d) River Narmada
Answer: (d) River Narmada

10.Tehri dam Andolan is mainly concerned with the state of?

(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c)Jharkhand
(d)None of these
Answer: (a) Uttarakhand

Two Marks Questions

24. What was the main purpose of launching multi-purpose projects in India after independence?

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Ans :
The main purpose of launching multi¬purpose projects after independence was that they would
integrate development of agriculture with rapid industrialization.
25. Name two techniques of rooftop rainwater harvesting.
Ans :
a. Construction of tanks so as to store the rainwater
b. Collection of excess rainwater in the dugwell

26. What is the need of rainwater harvesting ?

Ans :
Rainwater harvesting is needed to provide it for agriculture, collect drinking water, irrigate the
fields
and to moisten the soil.
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
27. Mention any four main objectives of multi -purpose river valley projects. Name any two
Multipurpose Projects of India.
or
What is a multipurpose river valley project? Mention any four objectives of it.
Ans :
A project where many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another is known as
multipurpose project. It is built for irrigation, power generation, water supply, flood control,
recreation, etc.
28. Water scarcity in most cases is caused by over exploitation, excessive use and unequal
access to water among, different social groups. Explain the meaning of the statement with the
help of examples
Ans :
We can understand the meaning of the above statement through these examples:
a. After a heavy downpour, a boy collects drinking water in Kolkata.
b. A Kashmiri earthquake survivor carries water in the snow in a devastated ‗ village.
c. A Rajasthani woman balances her matka and travels large distances to collect water.
29. Explain the working of underground tanks as a part of roof top rainwater harvesting system
practised in Rajasthan.
or
How were the underground tanks beneficial to the people of Rajasthan? Explain. Or Discuss how
rainwater harvesting in semiarid regions of Rajasthan is carried out.
Ans :
a. In semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan almost all the houses traditionally had underground
tanks for storing drinking water.
b. They are extremely reliable source of drinking water when other sources are dried up. This is
considered the purest form of natural water.

52 | P a g e
c. The tanks can be as large as big rooms.
d. The tanks were part of the well- developed rooftop rainwater harvesting system.
e. The tanks were built inside the main house or the courtyard giving cooling effect to the rooms
in the summer.
f. Those tanks were connected to the sloping roofs of the houses through a pipe.
g. Rain falling on these rooftops would travel down the pipe and stored in these underground
tanks.
h. Usually first: rain water is not collected to clean the rooftop and the pipe. (Any three)
30. Why did Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim dams as the ‗temples of modern India‘? Explain any
three reasons.
Ans :
Jawaharlal Nehru proclaimed the dams as the ―templesof modern India‖ because
a. They eliminate or reduce flooding.
b. Provide water for agriculture.
c. Provide water for human and industrial consumption.
d. Provide hydroelectricity for houses and industries.
31. How have intensive industrialization and urbanization posed a great pressure on existing
freshwater resources in India. Explain.
or
How does urbanization and urban lifestyle lead to over exploitation of water resources?
Explain.[CBSE 2013]
or
How have intensive industrialization and urbanization posed a great pressure on existing
freshwater resources in India? Explain.
Ans :
Post independent India witnessed intensive industrialisation and urbanisation.
a. Arrival of MNC‘s: Apart from fresh water they require electricity which comes from
hydroelectric
power.
b. Multiplying urban centers with large and dense populations and urban life styles have not
only
added to water and energy requirements, but have further aggravated the problem.
c. Large-scale migration from rural to urban areas is causing over exploitation of water
resources.

32. Describe any three traditional methods of rainwater harvesting adopted in different parts of
India.
or
Describe any three different rainwater harvesting systems practised in India.
or

53 | P a g e
―Rainwater harvesting system is viable alternative both socially, economically and
environmentally‖.
Support the statement with three examples.
Ans :
a. In hilly and mountainous regions, people build diversion channels like ‗gul‘ or ‗kul‘ in
Western
Himalaya for agriculture.
b. Roof-top rainwater harvesting was commonly practised to store drinking water particularly in
Rajasthan.
c. In West Bengal, people develop inundation channels to irrigate their fields.
d. In semi-arid regions agricultural fields are converted into rainfed storage structures that
allowed the water to stand and moist the soil
33. List any three advantages and three disadvantages of multipurpose river project. or
What are the advantages and disadvantages of multipurpose river project.
Ans :
Advantages:
a. These are the main source of power generation.
b. They provide us neat, pollution free and cheapest energy which is the backbone of industry
and
agriculture.
c. These projects control the floods because water can be stored in them. These projects have
converted many, ‗rivers of sorrows‘ into ‗rivers of boon‘.
d. These projects are the main source of irrigation and also help in conserving soil.
Disadvantages:
a. Due to the construction of dams, there are no adequate floods in the river. Because of this,
the soil of the downstream region does not get nutrient rich silt.
b. Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate for spawning, i.e., to
produce eggs.
c. It resulted in displacement of local communities. The local people often have to give up their
land
and livelihood and their meagre access and control over resources for the greater need of the
nation.
34. What is Bamboo Drip Irrigation? Mention any two features of it.
Ans :
Bamboo Drip Irrigation system is a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and spring water by
using
bamboo pipe and transporting water from higher to lower regions through gravity.
Features:
a. 18-20 liters of water enters the bamboo pipe system, get transported over hundreds of meters
and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute at the site of the plant.

54 | P a g e
b. The flow of water into the pipes is controlled by manipulating the pipe positions.
35. Highlight any three hydraulic structures as part of water management programmes initiated
in ancient India along with the period when they were built.
Ans : Sophisticated hydraulic structures like dams built of stone rubble, reservoirs or
lakes, embankments and canals for irrigation were built in various regions‘ of
the country.
a. A sophisticated water harvesting system channelling the flood water of river Ganga was
built at Sringaverapura near Allahabad in the 15th century BC.
b. Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh, Bennur in Karnataka, Kolhapur in Maharashtra and
Kalinga
in Odisha have evidences of irrigation structures.
c. In the 11th century, Bhopal Lake, one of the largest artificial lakes of its time was built.
d. The tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was constructed by Iltutmish in the 14th century to supply water
to
the Siri Fort Area.
36. Why is groundwater a highly overused resource?
Ans : Groundwater is a highly overused resource because of the following reasons:
a. Due to large and growing population and consequent greater demands for water and
unequal access to it.
b. To facilitate higher food grain production for large population, water resources are being over
exploited to expand irrigated areas and dry season agriculture.
c. In the housing societies or colonies in the cities, there is an arrangement of own ground water
pumping devices to meet water needs.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
37. Why is roof-top water harvesting important in Rajasthan? Explain.
Ans :Roof top water harvesting is important in Rajasthan because:
a. It was commonly practised to store drinking water.
b. The rainwater can be stored in the tanks till the next rainfall, making it an extremely reliable
source of drinking water when all other sources are dried up, particularly in the summers.
c. Rain water, or palar pani, as commonly referred to in these parts, is considered the purest form
of
natural water.
d. Many houses construct underground rooms adjoining the ‗tanka‘ to beat the summer heat as
it would keep the room cool.
e. Some houses still maintain the tanks since they do not like the taste of tap water.

38. Explain any three reasons responsible for water scarcity in India.
or
Water is available in abundance in India. Even then scarcity of water is experienced in major
parts of the country. Explain it with four examples.

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Ans :
a. The availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to the variations in
seasonal and annual precipitation.
b. Over-exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to water among different social groups.
c. Water scarcity may be an outcome of large and growing population and consequent greater
demands for water. A large population means more water to produce more food. Hence, to
facilitate higher food-grain production, water resources are being over exploited to expand
irrigated areas for dry-season agriculture.
d. Most farmers have their own wells and tubewells in their farms for irrigation to increase their
production. But it may lead to falling groundwater levels, adversely affecting water availability
and
food security of the people. Thus, inspite of abundant water there is water scarcity.
39. Describe any four traditional methods of rainwater harvesting adopted in different parts of
India.
Ans :
Methods of rainwater harvesting used in India are:
a. Guls and Kuls: People built guls and kuls in hilly and mountainous regions to divert water.
These
are simple channels. They are mainly used in the Western Himalayas.
b. Roof top rainwater harvesting: Commonly practised to store drinking water in Rajasthan.
c. Inundation Channels: These channels developed in the flood plains of Bengal to irrigate fields.
d. Khadins and Johads: In arid and semi-arid regions, some agricultural fields were converted
into rain fed storage structures. These structures are found in Rajasthan.
e. Tankas: The tankas were built inside the main house or the courtyard. They were connected to
the sloping roofs of the houses through a pipe. Rain falling on the rooftops would travel down
the pipe and was stored in these underground ‗tankas‘. The first spell of rain was usually not
collected as this would clean the roofs and the pipes. The rainwater from the subsequent
showers
was then collected. The rainwater can be stored in the tankas.
40. Why are different water harvesting systems considered a viable alternative both socio-
economically and environmentally in a country like India?
Ans :
Keeping in view the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi¬purpose projects,
water harvesting system is considered a viable alternative both socio-economically and
environmentally.1. In ancient India also along with the sophisticated
hydraulicstructures,thereexistedanextraordinary
tradition of various water harvesting systems.
2. People adopted different techniques in different areas. In hilly regions people built diversion
channels like the ‗guls‘ or ―kuls‘ for agriculture.
3. Roof-top rainwater harvesting was commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in

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 Rajasthan.
4. In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields.
Khadins, Johads and Tanks are the forms of rainwater harvesting practised in Rajasthan.

CHAPTER 4
Agriculture

MCQs
1.Which of the following conditions is not a feature of primitive subsistence farming?
(a) Fertility of soil
(b) Monsoon
(c) Favourable atmosphere
(d) Sufficient capital
Answer: (d) Sufficient capital

2.Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture, where a single crop is grown on
a large area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture
(b) plantation Agriculture
(c) horticulture
(d) Intensive Agriculture
Answer: (b) plantation Agriculture

3.Which of the following type of economic activity is agriculture?

(a) Secondary
(b) Primary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Organized
Answer: (b) Primary

4.Which one of the following is a rabi crop?

(a) Rice
(b) Gram
(c) Millets
(d) Gram
Answer: (b) Gram

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5.Which of the following are plantation crops?
(a) Rice and maize
(b) Wheat and pulses
(c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane
(d) Rice and Wheat
Answer: (c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane

6.Choose the correctly matched pair about the agriculture in India from the following options:
(a) Rabi crops are sown- October to December
(b) Gram- paddy crops
(c) Aus, Aman and boro- Government schemes
(d) Kisaan credit card – Increased the production
Answer: (a) Rabi crops are sown- October to December

7.Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a
large area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture
(b) Plantation Agriculture
(c) Horticulture
(d) intensive Agriculture
Answer: (b) Plantation Agriculture

8.What is ―boro‖?
(a) kharif crop
(b) zaid crop
(c) Rabi crop
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) kharif crop

9.Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as:
(a) Sericulture
(b) Aquaculture
(c) Viticulture
(d) Pisciculture
Answer: (a) Sericulture

10.Name the crop grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country.
(a) Kharif Crop
(b)Rabi Crop

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(c) Zaid
(d)None of the above
Answer: (a) Kharif Crop

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

22. ―Dense and efficient network of transport is a pre- requisite for local and national
development‖. Analyse the statement.
Ans :
a. The pace of development of country depends upon the production of goods and services as
well
as their movement over space. Therefore efficient means of transport are pre-requisite for
national
development.
b. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient an d fast
moving
transport system.
c. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of our economy with the
help of dense and efficient network of transport in the country. It has enriched our life and added
substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.
23. Which are the two main cropping seasons in India? Mention their growing and harvesting
periods.
Ans :
The two main cropping seasons are Rabi and Kharif:
a. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April
to June.
b. Kharif crops are sown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and
harvested in September-October.
24. What are the growing conditions required for the main staple food crop of India? Mention the
main growing regions.
Ans :
Growing conditions required for rice:
a. High temperature (above 25°C). It is a Kharif crop.
b. High humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.
Main growing regions: Northern plains, northeastern India, Coastal areas, deltaic plains and
river valleys.
25. Describe the institutional and technical changes introduced in the field of agriculture in India
in the recent years.
or
What were the attributes of the comprehensive land development programme initiated in India in
the decade 1980 and 1990.

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 or
Describe any three technological and institutional reforms made in the field of agriculture in
India.
Ans :
a. Land reforms: collectivization, . consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of
zamindari.
b. Agricultural reforms: Green revolution and White revolution.
c. Land development programmes : Provision for crop in surance against drought, flood, cyclone
etc., establishment of Grameen banks, Cooperative societies and banks for providing loans.
d. Issuing of Kissan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, etc.
e. Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio and TV.
26. Explain any two geographical conditions required for the cultivation of pulses. Name any
two important pulses producing states.
or
Why the pulses are mostly grown in rotation with other crops? Name any two major pulse
producing
states?
Ans :
Pulses are mostly grown in rotation with other crops because:
a. Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
b. Being leguminous crops, all these crops Major pulse producing states are : Madhya
Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
27. Give an account of oilseeds in India. State the importance of groundnut and name the states
where it is grown.
or
Describe the uses of oilseeds? Which state is thelargest producer of groundnut?
Ans :
Importance:
a. Are edible and used as cooking medium.
b. Used as raw material in production of soap, cosmetics and ointment.
c. India-largest producer.Groundnut: a. Kharif crop. Accounts half of the total oilseed
production.
c. State: Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
28. ―The Government of India has introduced various institutional and technological reforms to
improve agriculture in the 1980s and 1990s‖. Support this statement with examples.
or
Compare intensive subsistence farming with that of commercial farming practiced in India.
Ans :
a. In the 1980s and 1990s, a comprehensive land development programme was initiated, which

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included both institutional and technical reforms.
b. Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease establishment of
Grameen banks for providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest were some
important steps in this direction.
c. Kissan Credit Card (KCC), personal accident insurance scheme are some other schemes
introduced by the government of India for the benefit of the farmers.
d. Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on the
radio and television.
e. The government also announces minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices
for important crops to check the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen.
Or
Intensive Subsistence Commercial Farming
1. This type of farming In this type of farming is practised in areas single crop is grown on
of high population a large area. pressure on land.
2. It is labour-intensive The main characteristic farming, where high of this type of farming
doses of biochemical is the use of higher inputs and irrigation doses of
are used for obtaining modern inputs e.g. higher production. HYV seeds, chemical
fertilisers, insecticidesand pesticides in order to obtain higher productivity.
3. Though the ‗right of In commercial farming inheritance leading to plantation has an
the division of land interface of agriculture among successive and industry. It covers
generation has large tracts of land rendered land-holding using capital intensive
size. Uneconomical the inputs, with the help of farmers continue to migrant labourers.
take maximum output from thd limited land in the absence of alternative source of
livelihood.
4. In this type of farming Crops are mainly crops are grown for grown for the market
family consumption. or used in industry as raw material.
5. Rice, wheat, maize, Tea, coffee, sugarcane, are mainly grown with rubber, banana etc. are
the help of traditional grown with the help of tools. modern inputs.
29. What are millets? Give brief description of the climatic conditions and producing states of
the millets grown in India.
Ans :
Millets are coarse grains but have high nutritional value e.g., ragi-rich in iron, calcium. a. Jowar-
Rain fed crops mostly grown in moist area. States producing-Maharashtra, Karnataka and MP.
b. Bajra-grown well on sandy soils and shallow black soil. States producing- Rajasthan,
Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Haryana and UP.
c. Ragi-grown well in dry region on red, black, sandy and loamy soils.
States producing-Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim.
30. Which crop is known as the ‗golden fibre‘? Explain any two geographical conditions
essential for the cultivation of this crop. Mention its any four uses.

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Ans :
a. Jute is called the golden fibre.
b. Geographical conditions:
c. Grows well in drained fertile soil of the flood plains where the soil is renewed every year.
d. High temperature is required during the time of growth. Uses: Can be used to manufacture
gunny bags, mats, ropes, yam, carpets and other artefacts.
31. Name any four oilseeds produced in India. Explain the importance of oilseeds in our day-to-
day life.
Ans :
(i) Groundnut (ii) Mustard
(iii) Coconut (iv) Sesamun
(v) Soyabean, sunflower; etc.
Importance of oilseeds:
Most of these are edible in the form of oil. Used as raw material for manufacturing paints,
varnishes, soaps, perfumes etc, oil cake is used as cattle feed. Oil cake is also used as a fertiliser.
32. Mention any two geographical conditions required for the growth of maize crop in India.
Describe any three factors which have contributed to increase in maize production.
Ans :
Geographical conditions required for the growth of maize crop in India:
a. It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C.
b. It grows well in alluvial soil. Use of modern inputs such as HYV seeds, fertilisers
and irrigation have contributed to the increasing production of maize.
33. Explain any three geographical conditions required for the growth of rice in India. How is it
possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall? Explain with examples.
Ans :
Three geographical conditions for the growth of rice:
a. It requires high temperature, (above 25°C).
b. Annual rainfall above 100 cm.
c. High humidity
d. It is possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall with the help of irrigation in Punjab and
Haryana.
34. Why has the agriculture sector in India got a major setback in spite of increase in the GDP
growth rate?
Ans :
a. More and more land is used for construction of factories, warehouses and shelters which
reduced
the land under cultivation. b. Soil gets degraded by the use of pesticides,
fertilizers, over irrigation, etc., which leads to water logging and salinity.
c. Today Indian farmers are facing a big challenge from international competition.
d. Our government is reducing the public investment in agriculture, subsidy on fertilizers have

62 | P a g e
 decreased.
e. Reduction in import duties on agricultural products have proved detrimental to agriculture
in the country.
35. What are the climatic conditions required for the growth of rice?
Ans :
Climatic conditions required for the growth of rice:
a. It is a Kharif crop which requires high temperature (above 25°C).
b. High humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.
c. In the areas of less rainfall, it grows with the help of irrigation.
d. It is grown in the plains of north and north-easten India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
e. Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to
grow rice in areas of less rainfall such as Punjab and Haryana.
36. Suggest any five measures to enhance the agricultural production in India. or
Explain any five institutional and technical reforms brought by the government to improve the
condition of Indian Agriculture.
or
Describe any five steps taken by the government of India to increase the productivity of
agriculture in India.
Ans :
1. Land reforms: Collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of
zamindari.
2. Agricultural reforms: Green revolution and White revolution.
3. Land development programmes: Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone,
etc, establishment of Grameen banks, Cooperative societies and banks for providing loans.
4. Issuing of Kissan Credit Card and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme, etc.
5. Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio and TV.
6. Government announces Minimum Support Price (MSP) and remunerative and procurement
prices to check exploitation.
7. The government provides HYV seeds and fertilisers.
8. Government provides technical assistance and training for farmers.
9. Soil testing facilities, cold storage and transportation facilities are provided by
government for farmers.
37. Define plantation agriculture. Explain any four characteristics of plantation agriculture.
Ans :]
Plantation Agriculture: It is a type of commercial farming practised in tropical and sub-tropical
regions. It was introduced by the British in India.
Characteristics:
a. A single crop is grown over large area.
b. It is capital intensive and done with migrant labour.

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c. All produce is used as raw material in industries such as tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane,
banana,
etc.
d. Plantation has interface of agriculture and industry both.
38. ―Wheat and rice farming in India are fairly different from each other‖. Support the statement
with five suitable examples.
or
Wheat and rice farming in India are fairly different from each other. Explain.
Ans :
Basis of Weat Rice difference
1. Rainfall 50-75 cm Above 100 cm
2. Temperature 15o cm Above 25o cm
3. Area wise North and Planes of north Distribution North-west and north-west part of the
country
4. Type of Rabi Kharif Crop
5. M a j o r Punjab West Bengal Producer
39. Distinguish between primitive subsistence farming and commercial farming by stating five
points of distinction.
Ans
Subsistence farming Commercial farming
1. It is practised on small It is practised on a patches. large scale.
2. Farming depends on Irrigation facilities Irrigation are available.
3. Primitive tools are used. Modern technology is used.
4. Production is low. Production is high.
5. No costly fertilisers are Chemical fertilisers used. are used.
6. Family members provide Labourers are hired. labour.
7. Only cereals and other Commercial crops food crops are grown are grown.
40. Describe any four geographical conditions required for the growth of tea. Mention the two
major tea producing states of South India.
or
Name the important beverage crop introduced by theBritish in India. Explain the geographical
conditionsneeded for its cultivation. Write any two important states where it is grown.
or
In which agricultural production, India is the leading producer as well as exporter in world?
Describe
the geographical requirements for its growth and development.
or
What are the soil type, climatic conditions and rainfallconditions required for the cultivation of
tea? Writetwo states of India where tea grows.
Ans :

64 | P a g e
a. Tea: Grows well in tropical and sub¬tropical climates.
b. Soil type: Deep and fertile, well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matters.
c. Climate: Warm and moist, frost-free climate throughout the year.
d. Rainfall: Frequent showers throughout the year.
e. Two states: Assam, West Bengal, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand,
Andhra
Pradesh, Meghalaya and Tripura.
41. Describe four geographical conditions required for the growth of sugarcane. Name two major
sugarcane producing states of North India.
or
What geographical conditions are required for thecultivation of sugarcane? Name two largest
producingstates of sugarcane.
Ans :
Geographical conditions required for the growth ofsugarcane in India:
a. It is a tropical as well as sub-tropical crop so it requires a hot and humid climate with a
temperature of 24°C to 27°C.
b. It requires an annual rainfall between 75 to 100 cm.
c. It can be grown on a variety of soils.
d. Major sugarcane producing states of North
e. India are : Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana.
42. Which are the two major cotton producing states of North India ? Describe four geographical
conditions required for the growth of cotton.
or
Describe the geographical conditions required for the cultivation of cotton.
Ans :
Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are the two major cottonproducing states of North India.
Geographical conditions required for the cultivationof cotton:
a. It grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau.
b. It requires high temperature.
c. It requires light rainfall or irrigation.
d. It requires 21 frost free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
43. Explain Rubber cultivation in India under the following heads:
a. Importance
b. Geographical conditions
c. Producing states.
Ans :]
a. Importance: Many industries depend upon rubber as their raw material especially transport
industry.
b. Geographical conditions:
(i) It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions it is also grown in tropical and sub

65 | P a g e
 tropical areas.
(ii) It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature
above 25°C.
c. Rubber producing states are Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
and
Garo hills of Meghalaya.
44. Explain any four features of primitive subsistence agriculture in India.
Ans :
Features of primitive subsistence agriculture in Indiaare:
a. It is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools.
b. Tools which are used are basically traditional tools such as hoe, dao and digging stick.
c. This type of agriculture totally depends upon monsoon.
d. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift to another plot of land.
45. What is intensive subsistence farming? Write three features of intensive farming.
Ans :
Intensive subsistence farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land. In this
type of farming, the agricultural production is increased by using high doses of biochemical
inputs and better agricultural inputs.
Features of intensive farming:
a. High yielding variety (HYV) seeds and modem chemical inputs and irrigation are used to
increase
the production.
b. The per hectare yield is very high.
c. More than one crop is cultivated during a year. 46. Compare the geographical conditions
required for the production of cotton and jute. [CBSE 2012]
Ans :
Cotton Jute
1. Cotton requires Jute requires 30°. more than 21°C of temperature. temperature
2. Rainfall: 50-100 cm Rainfall: Near about 150 cm.
3. Frost free days are Hot and humid climate must during Picking is required. days
4. Loamy and black soil is Well-drained fertile required. loamy soil is required.
5. Mainly grown in Grown in eastern states Maharashtra and of the country. Gujarat.
47. Why is agriculture called the mainstay of Indianeconomy?
or
What is the importance of agriculture in Indian economy?
Ans :
a. Agriculture is the mainstay of Indian economy because about 67% of our population depends
directly or indirectly on agriculture.
b. It provides raw materials to the industries. c. India earns foreign exchange by exporting
agricultural products.

66 | P a g e
d. It contributes about 29% to the gross domestic product.
e. It provides food to over 1250 million population. 48. Why has Indian agriculture started a
decline in the trend of food production? How can we overcome this problem?
Ans :
Indian agriculture started a decline in the trend of food production because:
a. More and more land is used for construction of factories, warehouses and shelters have
reduced the land under cultivation.
b. Soil gets degraded by the use of pesticides, fertilizers, over-irrigation, etc. which leads to
water logging and salinity.
Remedial Measures:
a. Use of agricultural techniques which are environmentally sustainable.
b. Use of biotechnology in modifying different crops and increase the yield per hectare. It
reduces dependence on insecticides and also require less water.

CHAPTER 5
Mineral and Energy Resources
MCQ
1.Which ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Pyrite
(c) Goethite
(d) Hematite
Answer: (d) Hematite

2.Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin

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(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum
Answer: (d) Gypsum

3.Aluminium is obtained from

(a) bauxite
(b) limestone
(c) copper
(d) manganese
Answer: (a) bauxite

4.Koderma , in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which of the following minerals

(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
(d) Copper
Answer: (b) Mica

5.Which one of the following is largely derived from ocean water?

(a) Bauxite
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Mica
Answer: (b) Magnesium

6.Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks ?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Sedimentary rocks

7.Which one of the following minerals are formed by decomposition of rocks , leaving a residual
mass of weathered material ?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Gold
(d) Zinc
Answer: (b) Bauxite

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8.Which of the following place is known as lignite deposit?
(a) Khetri
(b) Neyveli
(c) Bailadila
(d) Bokaro
Answer: (b) Neyveli

9.Which one of the following features is not true about copper?

(a) India is deficient in the reserve and production of copper.
(b) It is reliable, ductile and a good conductor.
(c) It is a ferrous ore.
(d) It is mainly used in electrical cables and electronic goods.
Answer: (c) It is a ferrous ore.

10.Gold, silver, and platinum are example of

(a) Ferrous minerals
(b) Precious minerals
(c) Non-essential minerals
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Precious minerals
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS
19. Name the gulfs that provides ideal conditions for
utilising tidal energy in India.
Ans :
Gulf of Khambhat and Gulf of Kuchchh in Gujarat provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal
energy in
India.
21. How power resources are classified?
Ans : Power resources may be broadly categorised intoconventional and non-conventional
esources.
22. What are conventional sources of energy?
Ans : Conventional sources of energy generally non-renewable sources of energy which have
been in common use for a long time. Example: firewood, coal, natural gas, etc.
23. What is biogas energy?
Ans :
Bio gas is produced from shrubs, farm waste, animal and human wastes.
24. Name any one nuclear power station found in India.
Ans : Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu.
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

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26. How is mining activity hazardous? Explain.
or
How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and environment? Explain.
or
―Mining affects health and environment both.‖Comment.
or
How is mining activity hazardous? Explain.
Ans :
The mining activity is injurious to the health of the miners and environment as:
a. The dust and noxious fumes inhaled by miners make them vulnerable to pulmonary diseases.
b. The risk of collapsing mine roofs.
c. Inundation on coal mines are a constant threat to miners.
d. The water sources in the region get contaminated due to mining.
e. Dumping of waste and slurry leads to degradation of land, soil and increase in stream and river
pollution.
27. Why is mica considered the most important mineral in electric and electronic industries?
Give three reasons.
or
How is mica one of the most indispensable minerals ? Explain any three points.
Ans :
Mica is:
a. Excellent dielectric in strength and has low power loss factor.
b. It has insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.
c. Most indispensable mineral used in electric and electronic industries.
28. Which are the two main minerals used to obtain nuclear energy? Name any two states where
these minerals are found.
Ans :
Nuclear or atomic energy is obtained by altering the structure of bn atom; When such an
alteration is made, much energy is released in the form of heat and this is used to generate
electric power.
a. Uranium and Thorium are used for generating atomic or nuclear power.
b. They are available in Jharkhand and Rajasthan.
29. ―How is geo-thermal energy produced ? Explain.
Ans :]
The earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth. Where the geothermal gradient is
high,
high temperatures are found at shallow depths.Groundwater in such areas absorbs heat from the
rocks and becomes hot. It is so hot that when it rises to the earth‘s surface, it turns into steam.
This steam is used to drive turbines to generate electricity.
30. Name the non-metallic mineral which can split easily into thin sheets. Mention its uses.

70 | P a g e
Ans :
Mica is the non-metallic mineral which can be split easily into thin sheets.
Mica is used in:
a. Electric and electronic industries: Mica is used in these industries due to its excellent dielectric
strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.
b. Plastic industry uses mica as an extender and filler.
31. Why is conservation of minerals important? How can we conserve minerals?
Ans :
Conservation of minerals is important for the following reasons:
a. Minerals are exhaustible.
b. They are limited.
c. Minerals have manifold uses.
d. Growth of industrialisation has accelerated the extraction of minerals.
We can conserve minerals by making an efficient use of them and using recyclable sources of
energy
wherever possible.
32. Why is energy required for all activities ? How can energy be generated?
Ans :
a. Energy is a basic requirement for economic development.
b. Every sector of the national economy needs input of energy.
c. Consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country.
d. Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortage have raised uncertainties about the
security of energy supply in future. Energy can be generated from fuel minerals
like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium and from lectricity.
33. What are the two main ways of generating electricity? How are they different from each
other? Explain.
Ans :
Thermal Electricity & H y d r o Electricity
1. It is obtained by using It is produced coal, petroleum and from water, natural gas.
2. It is a non-renewable It is a renewable resource.
3. It causes pollution. It does not cause pollution.
4, It is expensive in the long It is cheaper in run. the long run.
34. ―Natural gas is considered an environment friendly fuel.‖ Explain the statement in two
points.
Ans :
Natural gas is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material.
a. It can be transported easily through pipelines.
b. Pipelines have helped in setting up fertilizer plants and power plants on its way.
c. Natural gas is a clean source of energy.
d. It is an environment friendly fuel because of the low carbon emission.

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35. Name the mineral ore from which aluminium is extracted. Why is it gaining importance?
Give its
distribution in India.
Ans :
a. Bauxite.
b. Aluminium is gaining importance because of its extreme lightness, good conductivity and
great
malleability. It combines the strength of metals such as Iron.
c. It is mainly found in Amarkantak Plateau, Maikal Hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-
Katni.
Koraput district in Odisha has large deposits. Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state.
Others are Gujarat, Maharashtra and Jharkhand.
36. Explain any three different forms in which minerals generally occur.
Ans :
a. Minerals occur in the form of veins and lodes (In igneous and metamorphic rocks).
b. In sedimentary rocks, a number of minerals occur in beds and layers.
c. As residual mass of weathered material.
d. As alluvial deposits in ocean waters.
37. Describe any three important uses of coal as a source of energy.
Ans :
Importance of coal as a source of energy in India are:
a. Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India.
b. It provides a substantial part of the nation‘s energy needs.
c. It is used for power generation.
d. It supplies energy to industry as well as for domestic needs.
38. Why is it essential to use renewable sources of energy?
Ans :
a. Non-renewable sources are going to exhaust such as coal, petrol, natural gas etc. They can
cause
environmental pollution therefore, we have to use‘ renewable resources.
b. India has abundance of solar energy, wind, water and biomass.
c. Rising prices of oil and gas and their shortage have raised uncertainties about energy resources
in the future.
39. Describe any three non-conventional sources of energy.
Ans :
Non-conventional sources of energy are:
a. Solar Energy: India is a tropical country. It has enormous possibilities of trapping solar energy.
Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar energy is rapidly
becoming
popular in rural and remote areas.

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b. Wind Energy: India now ranks as a ‗wind super power‘ in the world. The largest wind farm
cluster is located in Tamil Nadu from Nagercoil to Madurai. Apart from these, Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra and Lakshadweep have important wind farms.
Nagercoil and Jaisalmer are well-known for effective use of wind energy in the country.
c. Biogas: Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to produce biogas for domestic
consumption in rural areas. Biogas plants using cattle dung are known as ‗Gobar Gas Plants‘ in
rural India. These provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved
quality
of manure.
40. Which are the potential sources of biogas? State any four benefits of biogas.
Ans :
Potential sources of biogas are: Shrubs, farm wastes, animal waste, human waste, etc.

Four benefits of biogas are:

a. Its calorific value is high.
b. It burns without smoke, causing no pollution.
c. It is the cheapest gaseous fuel.
d. Biogas plants provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved quality
of
manure.
41. Explain three factors that make mineral extractions commercially viable.
Ans :
a. The minerals content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration.
b. The type of formation or structure in which they are found determines the relative cases with
which mineral ores may be mined.
c. The mineral should be close to the market so that the transportation cost is low.
42. What are the uses of copper? Name the two leading copper producing states of India.
Ans :
Uses of copper:
a. In manufacturing electrical cables.
b. In electronic industries.
c. In chemical industries.
The two leading copper producing states of India are Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
43. What are ‗placer deposits‘? Give examples of minerals found in such deposits.
Ans :
a. Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and base of hills.
These
deposits are called ‗placer deposits‘.
b. They generally contain minerals which are not corroded by water.

73 | P a g e
c. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are examples of some important minerals found in ‗placer
deposits‘.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
44. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to
conserve them.
or
Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any three methods to conserve
them.
Ans :
Reasons for Conservation:
a. The strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon minerals.
b. The process of mineral formation is slow.
c. They are non-renewable.
Methods to conserve:
a. Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable manner.
b. Improved technology needs to be constantly evolved to allow use of low grade ore at low cost.
c. Recycling of metals using scrap metals.
d. Wastage in the mining and processing should be minimised.
45. Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India.
Ans :
Importance of Petroleum:
a. Petroleum is the major energy source in India.
b. Provides fuel for heat and lighting.
c. Provides lubricant for machinery.
d. Provides raw material for a number of manufacturing industries.
e. Petroleum refineries act as nodal industry for synthetic textile, fertilizer and chemical
industries.
Its occurrence:
a. Most of the petroleum occurrences in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps.
b. In regions of folding, anticline or domes, it occurs where oil is trapped in the crest of the
upfold.
c. Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
46. ―Which minerals are used to obtain nuclear energy ?
Name all the six nuclear power stations of India.
Ans :]
The minerals which are used to obtain this energy are:
(i) Uranium and (ii) Thorium.
The six nuclear power stations of India are
(i) Narora nuclear power station
(ii) Kakrapara nuclear power station.

74 | P a g e
(iii) Tarapur nuclear power station.
(iv) Kaiga nuclear power station.
(v) Kalpakkam nuclear power station.
(vi) Rawat Bhata nuclear power station.
47. ―Conservation of minerals is the need of the hour‖.
Support the statement with five facts.
Ans :]
Conservation of minerals is the need of the hour:
1. Minerals are considered to be the backbone of the economy.
2. Industry and agriculture depend on mineral deposits.
3. The substances manufactured from them also depend on mineral deposits.
4. Total volume of workable mineral deposits is very less-only 1% of the earth‘s crust.
5. Mineral resources are being consumed rapidly, and minerals require millions of years to be
created and concentrated.
6. The geological processes of mineral ; formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are
infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption.
7. Minerals resources are finite and non¬renewable.
8. The rich mineral deposits of our country are extremely valuable but short-lived possessions.
48. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Give two broad
measures for it. As concerned citizens, how can you help to conserve
energy?
Ans :]
Twin planks/measures:
(i) Promotion of energy conservation.
(ii) Increased use of renewable energy sources. As concerned citizens we can do our bit by:
(i) Using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
(ii) Switching off electricity when not in use.
(iii) Using power-saving devices.
(iv) Using non-conventional sources of energy.
49. ―There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources.‖ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.
Ans :
Need to use renewable energy resources are:
(i) The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly
dependent
on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas.
(ii) Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the
security of energy supply in future.
(iii) Has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
(iv) Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems.

75 | P a g e
(v) Hence, there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources like solar energy, wind, tidal,
biomass and energy from waste material.
50. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its
different forms.
Ans :
Abundantly available fossil fuel in India is coal. Importance of its different forms are:
a. Peat has low carbon and high moisture content and low heating capacity
b. Lignite is a low grade brown coal which is soft with high moisture content. It is used for
generating
electricity.
c. Bituminous is the most popular coal of commercial use. It has a special value for smelting iron
in
blast furnaces.
d. Anthracite is the highest quality hard coal.
51. Why is energy needed? How can we conserve energyresources? Explain.
Ans :
Energy is required for all activities. It is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel
vehicles and to drive machinery in industries.
To conserve energy resources:
1. Need to develop a sustainable path of energy development, i.e., energy development but not
at the cost of environment or needs of future generation.
2. Judicious use of limited energy resources.
3. Wastage of minerals should be minimised.
4. Modem technology should be used for the exploitation of energy resources.
5. Export of energy resources should be minimised.
6. Use of substitutes in order to save energy resources.
7. Encourage recycling of energy resources.
52. ―How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion.
or
Why is solar energy fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas of India? Explain.
Ans :
a. India is a tropical country therefore it receives sunlight in abundance throughout the year.
b. Solar plant can be easily established in rural and remote areas.
c. It will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes which in turn
will
contribute to environmental conservation and adequate quantity of manure.
53. How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestions.]
Ans :
Biogas to solve energy problem:
1. Availability of raw material.

76 | P a g e
2. Awareness to be created about biogas.
3. It will reduce the burden on conventional sources of energy.
4. Educate the rural people about the use of biogas.
5. It is a renewable source of energy.
6. Eco-friendly.
7. Model structures to be introduced by the government agencies at a subsidised rate.
54. ―Minerals are indispensable part of our lives‖. Support the statement with example.
Ans :
Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives:
a. Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a big ship, all are made
from
minerals.
b. The railway lines and the tarmac (paving) of the roads, our implements and machinery too are
made from minerals.
c. Cars, buses, trains, aeroplanes are manufactured from minerals and run on power resources
derived from the earth.
d. Even the food that we eat contains minerals.
e. In all stages of development, human beings have used minerals for their livelihood, decoration,
festivities, religious and ceremonial rites.
55. Explain any three values which inspire us to conserve our energy resources.]
Ans :
Values:
a. Our responsible behaviour will lead us to conserve energy resources.
b. Our sustainable thinking which inspires us to preserve and protect the resources for the future
generation.
c. Our consciousness towards our environment will inspire not to over-utilize the resources and
exploit them.
56. What efforts are required to use mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner?
Explain in three points.
Ans :
Following efforts have to be made to use mineral in a planned and sustainable manner:
a. Recycling of metals: We should recycle the metal or metal-made products to prevent its
scarcity.
For example: Used steel blade should be sent for recycling, so that the steel can be used again for
other purposes.
b. Improved technologies need to be evolved: Traditional technologies should be replaced with
new and improved technologies, so that the wastages can be minimised.
c. Use of substitute or alternative resources: The resources which cannot be recycled or reused
should be replaced with the recyclable resources, e.g. Use of green gas instead of coal for
cooking purpose.

77 | P a g e
57.‘‖India is presently one of the least energy efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt
cautious approaches for the judicious use of our limited energy resources.‖ Analyse this
statement. or
Explain any three steps to be taken to conserve the energy resources.
or
How can we save our limited energy sources? Suggest any three ways for its judicious use.
Ans :
The statement is right to a great extent. Therefore, we need to adopt a cautious approach for the
judicious use of energy resources.
1. Need to develop a sustainable path of energy development, i.e., energy development but not
at the cost of environment or needs of future generation.
2. Judicious use of limited energy resources,
3. Wastage of minerals should be minimised,
4. Modem technology should be used for the exploitation of energy resources.
5. Export of energy resources should be minimised.
6. Use of substitutes in order to save energy resources.
7. Encourage recycling of energy resources.
58. Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent
need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving. Suggest and
explain any three measures to solve this burning problem.
or
In the present day energy crisis, which step will you take for saving energy?
Ans :
The following steps can be taken for saving energy:
1. Judicious use of energy resources.
2. Use of public transport/ car pool.
3. To use bicycle for short distances.
4. Switching off electrical gadgets when not in use.
5. Regular cleaning of gas burners and switching off the gas regulator when not in use.
6. Avoid using refrigerator/ A. C. when not needed.
7. Creating awareness in neighbourhood with catchy slogans.
8. As India has been blessed with abundance of sunlight, water, wind and biomass, we must use
these to overcome present day energy crisis. (Any three)

78 | P a g e
 CHAPTER 5
Mineral and Energy Resources
MCQ
1.Which ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Pyrite
(c) Goethite
(d) Hematite
Answer: (d) Hematite

2.Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum
Answer: (d) Gypsum

3.Aluminium is obtained from

(a) bauxite
(b) limestone

79 | P a g e
(c) copper
(d) manganese
Answer: (a) bauxite

4.Koderma , in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which of the following minerals

(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
(d) Copper
Answer: (b) Mica

5.Which one of the following is largely derived from ocean water?

(a) Bauxite
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Mica
Answer: (b) Magnesium

6.Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks ?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Sedimentary rocks

7.Which one of the following minerals are formed by decomposition of rocks , leaving a residual
mass of weathered material ?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Gold
(d) Zinc
Answer: (b) Bauxite

8.Which of the following place is known as lignite deposit?

(a) Khetri
(b) Neyveli
(c) Bailadila
(d) Bokaro
Answer: (b) Neyveli

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9.Which one of the following features is not true about copper?
(a) India is deficient in the reserve and production of copper.
(b) It is reliable, ductile and a good conductor.
(c) It is a ferrous ore.
(d) It is mainly used in electrical cables and electronic goods.
Answer: (c) It is a ferrous ore.

10.Gold, silver, and platinum are example of

(a) Ferrous minerals
(b) Precious minerals
(c) Non-essential minerals
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Precious minerals
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS
19. Name the gulfs that provides ideal conditions for
utilising tidal energy in India.
Ans :
Gulf of Khambhat and Gulf of Kuchchh in Gujarat provide ideal conditions for utilising tidal
energy in
India.
21. How power resources are classified?
Ans : Power resources may be broadly categorised intoconventional and non-conventional
esources.
22. What are conventional sources of energy?
Ans : Conventional sources of energy generally non-renewable sources of energy which have
been in common use for a long time. Example: firewood, coal, natural gas, etc.
23. What is biogas energy?
Ans :
Bio gas is produced from shrubs, farm waste, animal and human wastes.
24. Name any one nuclear power station found in India.
Ans : Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu.
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
26. How is mining activity hazardous? Explain.
or
How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and environment? Explain.
or
―Mining affects health and environment both.‖Comment.
or
How is mining activity hazardous? Explain.
Ans :

81 | P a g e
The mining activity is injurious to the health of the miners and environment as:
a. The dust and noxious fumes inhaled by miners make them vulnerable to pulmonary diseases.
b. The risk of collapsing mine roofs.
c. Inundation on coal mines are a constant threat to miners.
d. The water sources in the region get contaminated due to mining.
e. Dumping of waste and slurry leads to degradation of land, soil and increase in stream and river
pollution.
27. Why is mica considered the most important mineral in electric and electronic industries?
Give three reasons.
or
How is mica one of the most indispensable minerals ? Explain any three points.
Ans :
Mica is:
a. Excellent dielectric in strength and has low power loss factor.
b. It has insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.
c. Most indispensable mineral used in electric and electronic industries.
28. Which are the two main minerals used to obtain nuclear energy? Name any two states where
these minerals are found.
Ans :
Nuclear or atomic energy is obtained by altering the structure of bn atom; When such an
alteration is made, much energy is released in the form of heat and this is used to generate
electric power.
a. Uranium and Thorium are used for generating atomic or nuclear power.
b. They are available in Jharkhand and Rajasthan.
29. ―How is geo-thermal energy produced ? Explain.
Ans :]
The earth grows progressively hotter with increasing depth. Where the geothermal gradient is
high,
high temperatures are found at shallow depths.Groundwater in such areas absorbs heat from the
rocks and becomes hot. It is so hot that when it rises to the earth‘s surface, it turns into steam.
This steam is used to drive turbines to generate electricity.
30. Name the non-metallic mineral which can split easily into thin sheets. Mention its uses.
Ans :
Mica is the non-metallic mineral which can be split easily into thin sheets.
Mica is used in:
a. Electric and electronic industries: Mica is used in these industries due to its excellent dielectric
strength, low power loss factor, insulating properties and resistance to high voltage.
b. Plastic industry uses mica as an extender and filler.
31. Why is conservation of minerals important? How can we conserve minerals?
Ans :

82 | P a g e
Conservation of minerals is important for the following reasons:
a. Minerals are exhaustible.
b. They are limited.
c. Minerals have manifold uses.
d. Growth of industrialisation has accelerated the extraction of minerals.
We can conserve minerals by making an efficient use of them and using recyclable sources of
energy
wherever possible.
32. Why is energy required for all activities ? How can energy be generated?
Ans :
a. Energy is a basic requirement for economic development.
b. Every sector of the national economy needs input of energy.
c. Consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country.
d. Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortage have raised uncertainties about the
security of energy supply in future. Energy can be generated from fuel minerals
like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium and from lectricity.
33. What are the two main ways of generating electricity? How are they different from each
other? Explain.
Ans :
Thermal Electricity & H y d r o Electricity
1. It is obtained by using It is produced coal, petroleum and from water, natural gas.
2. It is a non-renewable It is a renewable resource.
3. It causes pollution. It does not cause pollution.
4, It is expensive in the long It is cheaper in run. the long run.
34. ―Natural gas is considered an environment friendly fuel.‖ Explain the statement in two
points.
Ans :
Natural gas is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material.
a. It can be transported easily through pipelines.
b. Pipelines have helped in setting up fertilizer plants and power plants on its way.
c. Natural gas is a clean source of energy.
d. It is an environment friendly fuel because of the low carbon emission.
35. Name the mineral ore from which aluminium is extracted. Why is it gaining importance?
Give its
distribution in India.
Ans :
a. Bauxite.
b. Aluminium is gaining importance because of its extreme lightness, good conductivity and
great
malleability. It combines the strength of metals such as Iron.

83 | P a g e
c. It is mainly found in Amarkantak Plateau, Maikal Hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-
Katni.
Koraput district in Odisha has large deposits. Odisha is the largest bauxite producing state.
Others are Gujarat, Maharashtra and Jharkhand.
36. Explain any three different forms in which minerals generally occur.
Ans :
a. Minerals occur in the form of veins and lodes (In igneous and metamorphic rocks).
b. In sedimentary rocks, a number of minerals occur in beds and layers.
c. As residual mass of weathered material.
d. As alluvial deposits in ocean waters.
37. Describe any three important uses of coal as a source of energy.
Ans :
Importance of coal as a source of energy in India are:
a. Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India.
b. It provides a substantial part of the nation‘s energy needs.
c. It is used for power generation.
d. It supplies energy to industry as well as for domestic needs.
38. Why is it essential to use renewable sources of energy?
Ans :
a. Non-renewable sources are going to exhaust such as coal, petrol, natural gas etc. They can
cause
environmental pollution therefore, we have to use‘ renewable resources.
b. India has abundance of solar energy, wind, water and biomass.
c. Rising prices of oil and gas and their shortage have raised uncertainties about energy resources
in the future.
39. Describe any three non-conventional sources of energy.
Ans :
Non-conventional sources of energy are:
a. Solar Energy: India is a tropical country. It has enormous possibilities of trapping solar energy.
Photovoltaic technology converts sunlight directly into electricity. Solar energy is rapidly
becoming
popular in rural and remote areas.
b. Wind Energy: India now ranks as a ‗wind super power‘ in the world. The largest wind farm
cluster is located in Tamil Nadu from Nagercoil to Madurai. Apart from these, Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra and Lakshadweep have important wind farms.
Nagercoil and Jaisalmer are well-known for effective use of wind energy in the country.
c. Biogas: Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to produce biogas for domestic
consumption in rural areas. Biogas plants using cattle dung are known as ‗Gobar Gas Plants‘ in
rural India. These provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved
quality

84 | P a g e
 of manure.
40. Which are the potential sources of biogas? State any four benefits of biogas.
Ans :
Potential sources of biogas are: Shrubs, farm wastes, animal waste, human waste, etc.

Four benefits of biogas are:

a. Its calorific value is high.
b. It burns without smoke, causing no pollution.
c. It is the cheapest gaseous fuel.
d. Biogas plants provide twin benefits to the farmer in the form of energy and improved quality
of
manure.
41. Explain three factors that make mineral extractions commercially viable.
Ans :
a. The minerals content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration.
b. The type of formation or structure in which they are found determines the relative cases with
which mineral ores may be mined.
c. The mineral should be close to the market so that the transportation cost is low.
42. What are the uses of copper? Name the two leading copper producing states of India.
Ans :
Uses of copper:
a. In manufacturing electrical cables.
b. In electronic industries.
c. In chemical industries.
The two leading copper producing states of India are Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
43. What are ‗placer deposits‘? Give examples of minerals found in such deposits.
Ans :
a. Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and base of hills.
These
deposits are called ‗placer deposits‘.
b. They generally contain minerals which are not corroded by water.
c. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are examples of some important minerals found in ‗placer
deposits‘.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
44. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to
conserve them.
or
Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any three methods to conserve
them.
Ans :

85 | P a g e
Reasons for Conservation:
a. The strong dependence of industry and agriculture upon minerals.
b. The process of mineral formation is slow.
c. They are non-renewable.
Methods to conserve:
a. Minerals should be used in a planned and sustainable manner.
b. Improved technology needs to be constantly evolved to allow use of low grade ore at low cost.
c. Recycling of metals using scrap metals.
d. Wastage in the mining and processing should be minimised.
45. Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India.
Ans :
Importance of Petroleum:
a. Petroleum is the major energy source in India.
b. Provides fuel for heat and lighting.
c. Provides lubricant for machinery.
d. Provides raw material for a number of manufacturing industries.
e. Petroleum refineries act as nodal industry for synthetic textile, fertilizer and chemical
industries.
Its occurrence:
a. Most of the petroleum occurrences in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps.
b. In regions of folding, anticline or domes, it occurs where oil is trapped in the crest of the
upfold.
c. Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.
46. ―Which minerals are used to obtain nuclear energy ?
Name all the six nuclear power stations of India.
Ans :]
The minerals which are used to obtain this energy are:
(i) Uranium and (ii) Thorium.
The six nuclear power stations of India are
(i) Narora nuclear power station
(ii) Kakrapara nuclear power station.
(iii) Tarapur nuclear power station.
(iv) Kaiga nuclear power station.
(v) Kalpakkam nuclear power station.
(vi) Rawat Bhata nuclear power station.
47. ―Conservation of minerals is the need of the hour‖.
Support the statement with five facts.
Ans :]
Conservation of minerals is the need of the hour:
1. Minerals are considered to be the backbone of the economy.

86 | P a g e
2. Industry and agriculture depend on mineral deposits.
3. The substances manufactured from them also depend on mineral deposits.
4. Total volume of workable mineral deposits is very less-only 1% of the earth‘s crust.
5. Mineral resources are being consumed rapidly, and minerals require millions of years to be
created and concentrated.
6. The geological processes of mineral ; formation are so slow that the rates of replenishment are
infinitely small in comparison to the present rates of consumption.
7. Minerals resources are finite and non¬renewable.
8. The rich mineral deposits of our country are extremely valuable but short-lived possessions.
48. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Give two broad
measures for it. As concerned citizens, how can you help to conserve
energy?
Ans :]
Twin planks/measures:
(i) Promotion of energy conservation.
(ii) Increased use of renewable energy sources. As concerned citizens we can do our bit by:
(i) Using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
(ii) Switching off electricity when not in use.
(iii) Using power-saving devices.
(iv) Using non-conventional sources of energy.
49. ―There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources.‖ Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.
Ans :
Need to use renewable energy resources are:
(i) The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly
dependent
on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas.
(ii) Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the
security of energy supply in future.
(iii) Has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
(iv) Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems.
(v) Hence, there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources like solar energy, wind, tidal,
biomass and energy from waste material.
50. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its
different forms.
Ans :
Abundantly available fossil fuel in India is coal. Importance of its different forms are:
a. Peat has low carbon and high moisture content and low heating capacity
b. Lignite is a low grade brown coal which is soft with high moisture content. It is used for
generating

87 | P a g e
 electricity.
c. Bituminous is the most popular coal of commercial use. It has a special value for smelting iron
in
blast furnaces.
d. Anthracite is the highest quality hard coal.
51. Why is energy needed? How can we conserve energyresources? Explain.
Ans :
Energy is required for all activities. It is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel
vehicles and to drive machinery in industries.
To conserve energy resources:
1. Need to develop a sustainable path of energy development, i.e., energy development but not
at the cost of environment or needs of future generation.
2. Judicious use of limited energy resources.
3. Wastage of minerals should be minimised.
4. Modem technology should be used for the exploitation of energy resources.
5. Export of energy resources should be minimised.
6. Use of substitutes in order to save energy resources.
7. Encourage recycling of energy resources.
52. ―How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion.
or
Why is solar energy fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas of India? Explain.
Ans :
a. India is a tropical country therefore it receives sunlight in abundance throughout the year.
b. Solar plant can be easily established in rural and remote areas.
c. It will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dung cakes which in turn
will
contribute to environmental conservation and adequate quantity of manure.
53. How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestions.]
Ans :
Biogas to solve energy problem:
1. Availability of raw material.
2. Awareness to be created about biogas.
3. It will reduce the burden on conventional sources of energy.
4. Educate the rural people about the use of biogas.
5. It is a renewable source of energy.
6. Eco-friendly.
7. Model structures to be introduced by the government agencies at a subsidised rate.
54. ―Minerals are indispensable part of our lives‖. Support the statement with example.
Ans :
Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives:

88 | P a g e
a. Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a big ship, all are made
from
minerals.
b. The railway lines and the tarmac (paving) of the roads, our implements and machinery too are
made from minerals.
c. Cars, buses, trains, aeroplanes are manufactured from minerals and run on power resources
derived from the earth.
d. Even the food that we eat contains minerals.
e. In all stages of development, human beings have used minerals for their livelihood, decoration,
festivities, religious and ceremonial rites.
55. Explain any three values which inspire us to conserve our energy resources.]
Ans :
Values:
a. Our responsible behaviour will lead us to conserve energy resources.
b. Our sustainable thinking which inspires us to preserve and protect the resources for the future
generation.
c. Our consciousness towards our environment will inspire not to over-utilize the resources and
exploit them.
56. What efforts are required to use mineral resources in a planned and sustainable manner?
Explain in three points.
Ans :
Following efforts have to be made to use mineral in a planned and sustainable manner:
a. Recycling of metals: We should recycle the metal or metal-made products to prevent its
scarcity.
For example: Used steel blade should be sent for recycling, so that the steel can be used again for
other purposes.
b. Improved technologies need to be evolved: Traditional technologies should be replaced with
new and improved technologies, so that the wastages can be minimised.
c. Use of substitute or alternative resources: The resources which cannot be recycled or reused
should be replaced with the recyclable resources, e.g. Use of green gas instead of coal for
cooking purpose.
57.‘‖India is presently one of the least energy efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt
cautious approaches for the judicious use of our limited energy resources.‖ Analyse this
statement. or
Explain any three steps to be taken to conserve the energy resources.
or
How can we save our limited energy sources? Suggest any three ways for its judicious use.
Ans :
The statement is right to a great extent. Therefore, we need to adopt a cautious approach for the
judicious use of energy resources.

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1. Need to develop a sustainable path of energy development, i.e., energy development but not
at the cost of environment or needs of future generation.
2. Judicious use of limited energy resources,
3. Wastage of minerals should be minimised,
4. Modem technology should be used for the exploitation of energy resources.
5. Export of energy resources should be minimised.
6. Use of substitutes in order to save energy resources.
7. Encourage recycling of energy resources.
58. Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent
need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving. Suggest and
explain any three measures to solve this burning problem.
or
In the present day energy crisis, which step will you take for saving energy?
Ans :
The following steps can be taken for saving energy:
1. Judicious use of energy resources.
2. Use of public transport/ car pool.
3. To use bicycle for short distances.
4. Switching off electrical gadgets when not in use.
5. Regular cleaning of gas burners and switching off the gas regulator when not in use.
6. Avoid using refrigerator/ A. C. when not needed.
7. Creating awareness in neighbourhood with catchy slogans.
8. As India has been blessed with abundance of sunlight, water, wind and biomass, we must use
these to overcome present day energy crisis. (Any three)

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 CHAPTER 6
Manufacturing Industries

MCQ
1.The first Jute mill was set up in ...............
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai
Answer: (c) Kolkata
2.Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) HAIL
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC
Answer: (b) SAIL
3._________pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is
drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
(a) Thermal
(b) Industrial
(c) Noise
(d) Air
Answer: (a) Thermal
4.Molasses are used to make
(a) rum
(b) rubber
(c) ethanol
(d) all of the above

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Answer: (a) rum
5.Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material?
(a) Aluminum smelting
(b) Cement
(c) Paper
(d) Steel
Answer: (a) Aluminum smelting
6.Oil India Ltd is a ________ type of industry on the basis of ownership?
(a) Public sector
(b) Private sector
(c) Joint sector Industry
(d) Cooperative sector Industry
Answer: (c) Joint sector Industry
7.Which one of the following organizations is responsible for the marketing of steel of the public
sector undertaking?
(a) TISCO
(b) IISCO
(c) BHEL
(d) SAIL
Answer: (d) SAIL

8.Which out of the following is a mineral based industry?

(a) Sugar
(b) Tea
(c) Cotton
(d) Petrochemicals
Answer: (d) Petrochemicals
9.Which of the following areas has most of the integrated steel plants in India?
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Bundelkhand Plateau
(c) Meghalaya Plateau
(d) Chotanagpur Plateau
Answer: (d) Chotanagpur Plateau
10.India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods at second place as an exporter after
_________.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer: (a) Bangladesh

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THREE MARKS QUESTIONS
7. How has the ever increasing number of industries in India made worse position by exerting
pressure on
existing fresh water resources? Explain.
Ans :
a. Industries apart from being heavy users of water also require power to run them.
b. Today large industrial houses are as common place as the industrial units of many MNCs are
exerting pressure on freshwater sources.
c. Industrialisation followed by the urbanisation multiplying the problems of water scarcity and
exerting pressure on water sources causing their depletion.
8. Why do we have maximum concentration of iron and steel industry in Chota Nagpur Plateau
region? Give
any three regions.]
or
Why has the Chota Nagpur Region maximum concentration of iron and steel industries? Explain
any three.
Ans :
Factors responsible for concentration of iron and steel industries in Chhota Nagpur Plateau:
a. Low cost of iron-ore
b. High grade raw material in proximity.
c. Cheap labour.
d. Vast growth potential in the home market.
e. Good transport connectivity.
f. Availability of water resources.
Ans :
9. India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able to
perform to our full
potential.‖ Suggest and explain any three measures to get full potential.
Ans :
India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world, yet we are not able to
perform to our full
potential largely due to:
a. High costs and limited availability of cooking coal.
b. Lower productivity of labour.
c. Irregular supply of energy and d. Poor infrastructure.
10. ―Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector.‖ Support the statement with arguments.
Ans :
Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector:
a. Agriculture provides raw material to industries.

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b. Agriculture provides market for industrial products.
c. Agriculture helps boost new industrial products.
d. The industries such as cotton, jute, silk, woollen textiles, sugar and edible oil, etc., are based
on agricultural raw materials.
11. Describe any three major problems faced by the weaving and processing sectors in cotton
textile industry.
or
Describe any three major problems faced by cotton textile industry in India.
Ans :
Problems of cotton textile industry are:
a. Although production has increased, it is still not enough and imports are needed.
b. Erratic power supply and outdated machinery.
c. Low output of labour.
d. Stiff competition from synthetic fabrics.
12. Why is there a tendency for the sugar mills to concentrate in Southern states of India in
recent years ? Give three reasons.
Ans :
Shifting of sugar industries to Southern states is because:
a. Sugarcane that grows there has a higher sucrose content.
b. Favourable climate provides longer crushing period and growing season.
c. Cooperatives are successful in these states.
d. Modem mills have more crushing capacity.
13. Analyse any three major challenges faced by the sugar industry in India.
Ans :
Major challenges of sugar industry are:
a. Seasonal nature of the industry.
b. Old and inefficient methods of production.
c. Transport delay in reaching sugar factories and the need to maximise the use of bagasse.
14. Define the term manufacturing. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw materials
used.
Ans :
Definition: ―Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more
valuable
products is called manufacturing.‖
Classification:
a. Agro-based: Cotton, woollen, jute, silk textile, etc.
b. Mineral-based: Iron, steel, cement etc.
15. Explain any three factors which were responsible for the concentration of cotton textile
industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat in early years.
Ans :

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a. Availability of raw cotton. b. Ready markets are available.
c. Well-developed means of transportation. d. Abundant skilled
and unskilled labour at cheap rate.
e. Moist climate which is suitable for the cotton industry.
16. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one
another? Explain with examples.
Ans :
(i) Classification of the industries on the basis of capital investment:
(a) Small Scale Industry (b) Large Scale Industry
(ii) Difference: If the investment is more than one crore on any industry, it is considered as a
large scale
industry. For example, Iron and Steel Industry/ Cement Industry (any other relevant example).
While the investment is less than one crore on an industry, it is considered as a small scale
industry e.g., Plastic industry, toy industry.
17. Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each other?
Ans :
According to their main role:
a. Basic or key industries which supply their products or raw materials to manufacture other
goods e.g., Iron and steel and copper smelting, aluminium smelting.
b. Consumer industries that produce goods for direct use by consumers-sugar, toothpaste, paper,
sewing machines, fans etc,
18. Examine the impact of liberalisation on automobile industry of India.
Ans :
Impact of liberalisation on automobile industry are:
a. Multi-utility vehicles have been introduced.
b. The coming of new and contemporary models.
c. Healthy growth of the market.
d. FDI in new technology.
e. Aligned the industry with global development.
f. Industry has experienced a quantum jump.
19. Mention the various measures taken by the government to boost the production of jute goods.
Ans :
Various steps taken by the government to boost the production of Jute are:
a. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity.
b. Improvement of quality.
c. Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare.
20. Explain the factors responsible for localisation of jute textile mills mainly on the banks of the
river Hugh.
Ans :
Factors responsible for their location in the Hugli basin are as follows:

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a. Proximity of the jute producing areas,
b. Inexpensive water transport, supported by a good network of railways, roadways and
waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills,
c. Abundant water for processing raw jute,
d. Cheap labour from West Bengal and adjoining states of Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.
e. Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking, insurance and port facilities for export of
jute goods.
21. ―Many of our spinners export cotton yarn while apparel manufacturers have to import
fabric.‖ Explain
this statement with appropriate reasons.
Ans :
a. The weaving, knitting and processing units cannot use much of the high quality yarn that is
produced in the country. Therefore, many of our spinners export cotton yarn while apparel/
garment manufacturers have to import fabric.
b. If weaving sector is improved, then yarn can be used in the country and garments can be
exported to earn foreign exchange for the country.
22. ―Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country‘s
development‖. Examine
the statement.
Ans :
a. Steel production is the backbone of any country‘s economy since it is the basic unit for the
development of the nation.
b. Almost every industry depends on iron and steel for its manufacturing and production.
c. In today‘s era of globalisation, consumption of goods is increasing. Thus, it can be concluded
that growth in production of steel is regarded as the index of country‘s development.
23. ―Environmental degradation has been seen everywhere.‖ Explain any three values that can
help to prevent environment degradation.]
Ans :
Steps to minimise environmental degradation:
a. Optimum utilisation of equipments, adopting latest techniques.
b. Upgrading existing equipments.
c. Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilization.
d. Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance.
e. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, water recycling system and
liquid waste management.
24. Describe any five factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industry in and
around Chota Nagpur Plateau region.
Ans :
Factors responsible for concentration df iron and steelindustries in Chhota Nagpur Plateau:
a. Low cost of iron-ore

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b. High grade raw material in proximity,
c. Cheap labour.
d. Vast growth potential in the home market.
e. Good transport connectivity.
f. Availability of water resources.
25. Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early
years? Explain.
Ans :
Cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years because:
a. Availability of raw cotton e.g. belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
b. Nearness to market.
c. Transport
d. Port facilities
e. Cheap labour
f. Moist climate.
26. What challenges are faced by the jute textile industries in India? Mention the main objectives
of National
Jute Policy, 2005.
Ans :
Problems faced by jute mills:
a. Stiff competition in international market from countries like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines,
Egypt, etc.
b. Stiff competition from synthetic fibre
c. Products need to be diversified. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the
objective of increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices and enhancing the
yield per hectare.
27. ―The iron and steel industry is the basic as well as heavy industry.‖ Support the statement
with three points.
or
Why is iron and steel industry called a basic industry? Explain.
Ans :
Iron and steel industry is the basic industry as:
a. All the other industries depend on it for their machinery.
b. Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods.
c. It provides variety of consumer goods.
d. Construction material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipments, are the gift of iron
and steel industry.

28. What is the importance of the Information Technology Sector for the Indian economy?
Explain.

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Ans :
The importance of IT sector is as follows:
a. It has provided employment to over one million people.
b. This industry is said to be a major foreign exchange earner.
c. It has helped in the growth of the service sector.
d. It provides employment to innumerable men and women.
29. What is the meaning of manufacturing industry? Why is it considered the backbone of
economic development? Give two reasons.
Ans :
Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable
products is called
manufacturing.
It is considered as backbone of development because:
a. It not only helps in modernising agriculture but also forms the backbone of our economy.
b. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from
our country.
30. Why is cotton textile industry the largest industry in India today? Give any three reasons.
Ans :
a. Cotton textile industry contributes 14 percent of the total industrial production.
b. It provides employment to 35 million persons directly, the second largest after agriculture.
c. It earns foreign exchange of about 24.6 percent (4 percent of GDP).
31. What are the three main reasons for shifting of the sugar mills to Maharashtra in recent years.
Ans :
There are three main reasons which are as follows:
a. The cane produced has a higher sucrose content.
b. The cooler climate which ensures a longer crushing season.
c. The cooperatives are more successful in this state.
32. Explain any three factors responsible for the locationof cotton textile industry in Mumbai and
Ahmedabad.
Ans :
a. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities,
b. cheap labour and;
c. moist climate have caused the concentration of cotton textile industries in Mumbai and
Ahmedabed region.
33. Distinguish between an integrated steel plant and a mini steel plants stating three points of
distinction.
Ans :
a. An integrated steel plant is larger than a mini steel plant.
b. Mini steel plant use steel scrap and sponge iron while Integrated steel plant use basic raw
materials

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 i.e. iron ore for making steel.
c. Mini steel plant produces mild and alloy steel while integrated steel plant produces only steel.
34. Mention any two factors that have contributed to a healthy growth of the automobile industry
in India.
Name two centres where this industry is located.
Ans :
a. The introduction of new and contemporary models stimulated the demand for vehicles in the
market.
b. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) brought in new technology and aligned the industry, with
global
developments. The two centres 1 of automobile industry are Jamshedpur and Gurgaon.
35. Examine what are the causes of industrial pollution of freshwater resources.
Ans :
Freshwater sources are polluted by organic and inorganic wastes and efflue nts discharged by
industries
into rivers. The main culprits are paper and pulp, chemical, textile, petroleum refineries,
tanneries
industries etc.

36. Suggest any three measures to reduce the industrial pollution of freshwater resources.
Ans :
a. Minimising use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive
stages.
b. Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
c. Treatment of hotwater and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

37. Suggest any three steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by the industrial
development in
India.
or
Explain any three steps to be taken to minimize environmental degradation by industries.
Ans :
Three steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in
India are:
Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes eight times the quantity of
freshwater.
1. Minimizing use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive
stages.
2. Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirement.

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3. Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.
4. Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with
electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators.
5. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
6. Machinery and equipments can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers.
7. Almost all machineries can be redesigned
8. to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise.
38. Why is the economic strength of a country measured by the development of manufacturing
industries?
Explain with examples.
Ans :
The economic strength of a country is measuredby the development of manufacturing industries.
Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in general and economic
development in
particular mainly because:
a. Manufacturing industries not only help in modernising agriculture, which forms the
backbone of our economy, but also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural
income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sector.
b. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from
our country.
c. It was also aimed at bringing down regional disparities by establishing industries in tribal and
backwards areas.
d. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce, and brings in much needed
foreign exchange.
e. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of furnished goods of higher
value are prosperous.
39. Describe the importance of manufacturing.
or
Describe the importance of manufacturing sector in countries like India.
Ans :
The economic strength of a country lies in the development of manufacturing industries because:
a. Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture which forms the backbone of our
economy.
b. It reduces the heavy dependence of people on agriculture sector and creates jobs in secondary
and tertiary sectors.
c. It is necessary for the removal of unemployment and poverty.
d. It brings down regional disparities.
e. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and enhances prosperity.
f. It brings much needed foreign exchange

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40. What are software technology parks? State any two points of significance of information
technology industry in India.
Ans :
Software Technology Park: Software technology parks provide single window service and high
data
communication facility to software experts.Significance of IT industry:
a. A major impact of this industry has been on
employment generation. Upto 31 March, 2005, the IT industry employed over one million
persons.
b. It is encouraging to know that 30 percent of the people employed in this sector are women.
c. This industry has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last two or three years because
of
its fast growing Business Processes Outsourcing (BPO) sector.
d. The continuous growth in the hardware and software is the key to the success of IT industry
in India.
41. ―The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing
industries.‖
Support the statement with arguments.
Ans :
Role of manufacturing industries in the economic development:
1. Manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of development.
2. All round development depends on industries,
3. Industries help in modernising agriculture,
4. Reduces the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs.
5. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from
the country.
6. It aims at bringing down regional disparities.
7. Expansion of manufactured goods.
8. Trade and commerce brings in much needed foreign exchange.
9. India‘s prosperity lies in increasing and diversifying of its manufacturing industries as quickly
as possible.
42. Evaluate the factors which are responsible for the location of jute industry in West Bengal.
or
Describe any five factors responsible for the concentration of jute mills along the banks of the
Hugh river.
Ans :
Factors for the concentration of jute mills in West Bengal:
a. Proximity of the jute producing areas.
b. Inexpensive water transport.
c. Abundant water.

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d. Cheap and skilled labour.
e. Port facilities.
f. Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking and insurance facilities,
43. ―Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand‖. Validate the statement.
or
―Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand‖.Justify the statement by giving any three
arguments.
Ans :]
After an industrial activity starts, the urbanisationfollows.
a. Sometimes industries are located in or near the cities.
b. Cities provide markets for manufactured goods.
c. Cities provide various services like banking and insurance etc.
44. Classify industries on the basis of source of rawmaterial. How are they different from each
other?
Ans :
On the basis of sources of raw material industries are classified as:
(a) Agro Based Industries.
(b) Mineral Based Industries.
These industries are different from each other on following basis:
a. Agro Based Industries:
(1) Draws their raw materials from agricultural products.
(2) e.g.: Textiles-Cotton, jute, silk and woolen, Rubber, sugar, coffee, tea and edible oil etc.
b. Mineral Based Industries:
(1) Draws their raw materials from minerals.
(2) e.g., Iron and steel, cement, machine tools, petrochemicals etc.
45. ―The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in
the value
chain.‖ Justify the statement.
or
―Textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy‖ Support the statement with
appropriate
arguments.
Ans :
The textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy, because it contributes:
a. Significantly to industrial production (14 percent).
b. It generates employment (35 million persons directly).
c. Earns foreign exchange (about 24.6 percent).
d. It contributes to a larger amount towards GDP (4 percent).
Only industry in the country which is self- reliant and complete in the value chain i.e., from raw
material

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to the highest value added products.
46. What is the manufacturing sector? Why is it considered the backbone of development?
Interpret the reason.
Ans :
Definition of Manufacturing Sector: Production of goods in large quantities after processing
from
raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing.It is considered as backbone of
development because:
a. It not only helps in modernising agriculture but also forms the backbone of our economy.
b. Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from
our country.
c. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce.
d. Countries that transform their raw materials into a wide variety of finis hed goods of higher
value
are prosperous.
47. Explain any five factors affecting the location of a industry.
Ans :
The factors affecting the location of an industry:
a. Availability of raw material.
b. Availability of cheap labour.
c. Availability of capital and bank facilities,
d. Availability of power and other infrastructure.
e. Proximity to markets.
f. Availability of adequate and swift means of transport.
48. How does industry pollute the environment? Explain with three examples.
Ans :
Industries are responsible for three types of pollution i.e.
a. Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases, such as
sulphur
dioxide and carbon monoxide. Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories.
b. Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged
into
rivers. The main culprits in this regard are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum
refineries and electroplating industries that let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals
like
lead and mercury, pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber,
etc.,
into the water bodies.

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c. Noise pollution is due to industrial and construction activities. Machinery, factory
equipment,
generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills cause hearing problems and irritation.
49. What is manufacturing sector? Describe four types of manufacturing sector on the basis of
ownership.
Ans :
Production of goods in large quantities after processing raw materials to more valuable products
is called
manufacturing.
Four types of manufacturing sector on the basis ofownership are:
a. Public sector owned by Govt, agencies. For example, BHEL, SAIL, etc,
b. Private sector owned by individuals or a group of individuals. For example, TISCO, Bajaj
Auto Ltd, Dabur Industries, etc.
c. Joint sector jointly owned by the state and individuals. For example, Oil India Ltd, etc.
d. Cooperative sector is owned by and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials,
workers or both. For example Amul, Mother Dairy, OMFED, sugar industry and coir industry,
etc.
50. Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation
(NTPC) for
preserving the natural environment and resources.
Ans :]
The pro-active approach adopted by the NationalThermal Power Corporation (NTPC) for
preserving the natural environment:
a. Optimum utilisation of equipment, adopting techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
b. Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
c. Green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose
vehicles
for afforestation.
d. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system
and liquid waste management.
e. Ecological monitoring, reviews and online database management for all its power stations.
51. Describe the various physical and human factors responsible for the location of industries.
latest
Ans :
Physical Factors:
a. Availability of raw materials : Ideal location should be near the sources of raw materials.
b. Power resources: Power resources like coal and electricity must be available for the industry.
c. Water and favourable climate.
Human Factors:
a. Cheap and efficient labour,

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b. Capital and bank facilities,
c. Good market,
d. Transport facility.
52. ―Agriculture and industry are complementary to each other.‖ Explain with four examples.
Ans :
a. Agro industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
b. Industries depend on agriculture for their raw materials.
c. Industries sell their products such as irrigation pumps, fertilisers, etc., to the farmers.
d. Industries have made the production processes of agriculture very efficient.
53. Explain any five measures to control industrial pollution in India.
Ans :
Five ways to reduce industrial pollution are listed below:
a. Restructuring the manufacturing processes to reduce or eliminate pollutants, through a process
called pollution prevention.
b. Creating cooling ponds, which are man¬made and are designed to cool the heated waters from
industries by evaporation, condensation and radiation.
c. Filtration of sewage in water treatment plants attached to industries.
d. Instructing industries to be set-up far from residential areas.
e. Backing the constitutional provisions by a number of laws-acts, rules, and notifications.
54. How do industries pollute water? Suggest any two measures to control water pollution.
Ans :
Most important are the industrial effluents that are discharged into rivers. They are both organic
and
inorganic. Coal, dyes, pesticides, fertilisers, plastic are some common pollutants of water.
Industrial wastes
containing toxic metals pollute the water. Suggestions to control water pollution:
a. Water should be reused and recycled to maximise its usage.
b. Rainwater should be harvested to meet water requirements.
c. Hot water and effluents should be treated before releasing in river and ponds.
d. Overdrawing of groundwater reserves by industry where there is a threat to ground water
resources
also need to be regulated legally.
55. Classify the industries on the basis of ownership and give one example of each category.
[CBSE 2012]
Ans :
Category Examples
1. Public Sector Industries BHEL, SAIL, etc
2. Private Sector Industries Tata Steel, Bajaj Auto Ltd.
3. Joint Sector Industries Oil India Ltd.
4. Cooperative Sector Sugar Industry in Industries Maharashtra.

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56. Distinguish between large scale and small scaleindustries. Give two examples each,
Ans :
Large Scale Industries:
a. Manufacture large quantities of finished goods.
b. The quantity of raw material and capital investment is large.
c. Example: Iron and steel industry, cotton textile industry.
Small Scale Industries:
a. Manufacture small goods.
b. No huge quantity of raw material or capital is required.
c. Example: Garment industry, soap making industry.
57. Why is India not able to perform to her full potential in iron and steel production? Explain
any three reasons.
Ans :
India is an important producer of iron and steel but still it has failed to perform to its potential
due to following reasons:
a. Shortage of raw material
b. Lower productivity of labour
c. Shortage of power
d. Poor infrastructure
e. Lower investment in research and
f. Development

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 CLASS-X
SUBJECT – CIVICS
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

PREPARED BY: MR. NEERAJ KUMAR MEENA

TGT ( SOCIAL SCIENCE)
JNV, LAKHIMPUR, ASAAM
TIME : 3 HOURS M.M – 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:

1. This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Question paper is divided into five sections- Section A, B, C, D and E.
3. SECTION A- Question number 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each question
carries 1 mark.
4. SECTION B- question number 21 to 25 are very short answer type questions. Each
question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
5. SECTION C- question number 26 to 31 are short answer type questions. Each question
carries 3 marks. Answer to these question should not exceed 60 words.
6. SECTION D- question number 32 to 35 are long answer type questions. Each question
carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
7. SECTION E- question number 36 to 38 are Case-based/ Source-based questions with 3
sub questions . Each question carries 4 marks.
8. In addition to these, NOTE that internal choices are also given. Read the choices
carefully.

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 SECTION:A

(Multiple choice questions ) (20×1= 20)

Q1) Which of the given options is not included in the state‘s list?

a) National Defence
b) Law and Order
c) Agriculture
d) Education

Q2) When speaking of gender divisions, it usually refers to

a) The unequal role assigned by society to men and women

b) Biological difference between men and women
c) Unequal child sex ratio
d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies

Q3) Power shared among governments at different levels is also called

a) Vertical distribution
b) Horizontal distribution
c) Slant distribution
d) Straight distribution

Q4) The first political experiment in liberal democracy took place in—

a) Germany
b) France
c) Italy
d) Great Britain

Q5) Which countries follow the unitary system of government?

a) Belgium, Spain and India
b) USA Japan and Belgium

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 c) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka
d) France, Germany and India

Q6) The constitution of India

a) Divided power between centre and state in two lists
b) Divided power between centre and state in three lists
c) Specified the powers of the state and left the residuary power with the centre
d) Listed the powers of the state and left the undefined powers of the state

Q7) Which of the following statements is true?

a) In a democracy, the majority and minority opinions are not permanent.

b) In a democracy, it is also necessary that rule by the majority does not become

rule by the majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group.

c) Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of

being in the majority at some point in time.

d) All of the above.

Q8) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or
Assembly elections in four states and wins at least _____________ in the Lok Sabha is
recognised as a national party.

a) One seat

b) Two seats

c) Four seats

d) Three seats

Q9) Which of the following is an outcome of democratic rights?

a) Censorship of the media

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 b) Surveillance of citizens

c) Protection from discrimination

d) Strict control of political parties

Q10) ______ region has the highest representation of women in their national parliaments.

a) Pacific

b) Americas

c) Middle-east

d) Nordic countries

Q11) In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and_____

a) central authority

b) states

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

Q12) The Equal Remuneration Act of _______ provides that equal wages should be paid to
equal work.

a) 1986

b) 1976

c) 1966

d) 1972

Q13) In India seats are reserved for women in

a) Lok sabha

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 b) State legislative assemblies

c) Panchayati Raj bodies

d) Cabinets

Q14) Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in _______.

a) 1948

b) 1947

c) 1949

d) 1958

Q15) How many recognised national parties are there in India Presently according to Election
commission ( March 2024 ) ?
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
Q16) Which industrialist attacked colonial control over Indian economy and supported the Civil
Disobedience Movement?
(a) Dinshaw Petit
(b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Seth Hukumchand
Q17) What is the meaning of ‗Alliance‘?
(a) Two parties together form the government.
(b) Leftist and Rightist together form the government.
(c) When state and national parties together form the government.
(d) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting election and
winning power

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Q18) The ‗Simon Commission‘ was boycotted because
(a) there was no British Member in the Commission.
(b) it demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.
(c) there was no Indian Member in the Commission.
(d) it favoured the Muslims over the Hindus.
Q19) Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below:
I. it is the very spirit of democracy
II. it reduces the possibility of conflict between the social groups
III. It brings transparency in the governance
IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties
a) I, II and IV
b) II, III and IV
c) I, III and IV
d) I, II and III
DIRECTION: Mark the correct choice

Q20) Assertion: A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992 by amending the
constitution.
Reason: Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and
active
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) both assertion and reason are false.

SECTION :B
(Very short answer type questions) ( 5×2=10)

Q21) A) Establish the relationship between Democracy and Development.

OR
B) Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.

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Q22) In which list of the Indian constitution does the Education come? Why?
Q23) ―Caste has not still disappeared from contemporary India‖. Write two examples to justify
the statement.
Q24) Explain two functions of the opposition party.
Q25) State two agreements through which federations have been formed.

SECTION : C
( Short answer type questions )
(6×3=18)

Q26) A) Do you think that Decentralisation is the means to minimise the conflicts?
Why?
OR
B) Describe any three steps taken by the Indian government towards
decentralization of power in 1992.
Q27) What is meant by a ‗National political party ‗? State the conditions required
to be a National Political Party .
Q28) Suggest any three measures to enhance the participation of women in
politics.
Q29) How can communalism pose a great threat to Indian Democracy?
Q30) How do social division affects politics? Explain with examples.
Q31) Explain three most effective ways in which the pressure groups and
movements influence the politics of a country.

SECTION: D
( Long answer type questions ) (4×5=20)

Q32)A) What challenges did central -state relations in India face before the 1990s?
Why is power sharing between centre and State more effective today?
OR
B) What is the meaning of ‗Secularism‘? How does the constitution make
India a secular state ? Explain.
Q33) A) How Majoritarianism has increased the feeling of alienation among the
Shri Lankan Tamils? Explain .

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 OR
B) What is the rationale for decentralization of power? Explain the structure
of Rural local government in India.
Q34) A) Political and social divisions must not be allowed to mix . Substantiate
this statement with five arguments.
OR
B) Name five countries of the world which have already faced or are facing
the problems of social divisions. What type of social division are they
facing? Also explain the causes of those social divisions.
Q35) A) ―An ideal government would not only keep itself away from corruption
but also make fighting corruption and black money a top priority‖. Justify
the statement.
OR
B) Examine any two institutional amendments made by different institutions
to reform political parties and their leaders.

SECTION:E
( Case- based / Source- based questions ) (3×4=12)

Q36) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow

SOURCE:

India is known for its diverse culture, but this diversity can sometimes lead to challenges. India‘s
population is composed of various religious, linguistic, and cultural groups. In the context of
India‘s democracy, the government and its institutions are built to represent this diversity,
ensuring that every group has a voice in the decision-making process. A central feature of Indian
democracy is the recognition of this diversity, which is reflected in the country's policies, laws,
and institutions. This is important to ensure that no group is marginalized and that each
community can participate in the democratic process.

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However, ensuring equality and justice for all groups, especially minorities, remains a challenge.
The Indian Constitution provides for affirmative actions and safeguards to protect minority
rights, prevent discrimination, and promote equal opportunities in education, employment, and
political participation. These measures are aimed at creating a fairer society, where everyone,
irrespective of their social, religious, or linguistic background, can benefit from the democratic
processes.
Despite these protections, India faces tensions due to the misuse of identity politics, which
sometimes lead to communal tensions or social unrest. The task of reconciling the country's
diverse identities with the need for unity remains an ongoing challenge for Indian democracy.

Questions
1. What is the central feature of Indian democracy, as mentioned in the source? 1
2. Why are affirmative actions and safeguards important in India‘s democracy? 1
3. Explain the challenge that India faces in reconciling its diversity with the need for unity. 2

Q37) Read the extract carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Case Study: Gender Discrimination in Education

In a small rural village in India, there is a government school that caters to both boys and girls.
The school is known to have an established tradition of promoting education for all children.
However, in practice, gender discrimination is still prevalent.
Most of the village's boys attend school regularly, while many girls are discouraged from
continuing their education after a certain age. Parents believe that educating boys will help them
secure better jobs, while girls should be taught household chores in preparation for marriage.
Some families do not see the value in educating their daughters beyond basic literacy, as they
feel it is unnecessary for them to pursue higher studies or professional careers.
In the classroom, while teachers do their best to treat all students equally, societal norms and
expectations influence their teaching methods. Boys are often encouraged to participate in class
discussions, whereas girls are expected to remain passive listeners. When it comes to
extracurricular activities like sports and leadership roles, boys dominate, and girls are seldom
given the same opportunities to showcase their talents.

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Despite the efforts of the school administration to promote gender equality, local customs and
family expectations continue to impede the progress of girls in education. NGOs have started
working in the village, organizing awareness programs about the importance of educating girls
and challenging traditional gender roles.

Questions:
1. Why are many girls in the village discouraged from continuing their education beyond a
certain age? 1
2. What role do societal norms play in the classroom according to the case? 1
3. In what ways can gender discrimination in education be addressed in such villages? 2

Q 38) Read the extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Power Sharing in Democratica

In a country named ―Democratica,‖ the population is diverse, consisting of various ethnic,
linguistic, and religious groups. The two largest groups are the ―Lyndians‖ who form 60% of the
population and the ―Gulans‖ who make up 40%. The Lyndians are predominantly Christian,
while the Gulans follow Islam. The country has been governed for many years by the Lyndian
community, but recent demands for more political representation and autonomy from the Gulan
community have raised concerns about national unity.
To address the situation, the government of Democratica decided to implement a power-sharing
arrangement. Under this arrangement, the country‘s political system is restructured to include
proportional representation for both communities. Additionally, a new federal system is
introduced, ensuring that power is shared between the central government and the regional
governments, which will be formed based on the linguistic and cultural identity of different
regions. The system also ensures that both the Lyndian and Gulan communities have equal
representation in the cabinet and legislature. This move is aimed at promoting peace, fairness,
and national integration while preventing the concentration of power in any one group.
However, the policy has not been without challenges. While some members of the Gulan
community have welcomed the power-sharing initiative, others fear that it might not go far
enough to meet their demands for autonomy. On the other hand, some Lyndian leaders feel

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threatened by the idea of giving equal power to the Gulan community, fearing it might reduce
their control over the country‘s resources and governance.

Questions:
1. What is the main objective of introducing a power-sharing arrangement in Democratica? 1
2. How does the federal system of government in Democratica help in power-sharing?
1
3. What could be a possible challenge of implementing the power-sharing arrangement in
Democratica? 2

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 MARKING SCHEME

SUBJECT – CIVICS

PREPARED BY- MR. NEERAJ KUMAR MEENA

TGT SOCIAL SCIENCE

JNV, LAKHIMPUR, ASSAM

General Instructions:

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand
the spot evaluation guidelines carefully
2. ―Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its‘ leakage to
public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect
the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action
under various rules of the Board and IPC.‖
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not
be done according to one‘s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme
should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers
which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be
assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class -X,
while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand given
answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the
nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have
their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded
accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero
after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be
given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual
evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‗X‖ be
marked.

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 Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is
correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are
committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note ―Extra Question‖.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only
once.
11 A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer
deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per
day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:- Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect
answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the ―Guidelines for
spot Evaluation‖ before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment
of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head
Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out

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 strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SAMPLE PAPER

Marking Scheme

Class X - Civics

MM:80

S.No Values Point Page Marks

no
Section A 20×1=20
Multiple Choice Questions
1 A)National Defence 1

2 B) Biological difference between men and women 1

3 A)Vertical distribution 1

4 B) France 1

5 C) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka 1

6 B) Divided power between centre and state in three lists 1

7 D) All of the above 1

8 C) Four seats 1

9 C) Protection from discrimination 1

10 D) Nordic countries 1

11 A)Central authority 1

12 B) 1976 1

13 C) Panchayati Raj bodies 1

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 14 A)1948 1

15 B) Six 1

16 B) Purshottamdas Thakurdas 1

17 D) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of 1

contesting election and winning power.

18 A)There was no British Member in the Commission. 1

19 D) I, II and III 1

20 A)Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct 1
explanation of assertion

Section B 5×2=10

Very short answer type questions

21 A)Establish the relationship between Democracy and 2×1=2
Development
Democracy and development are closely related, with democracy
having a positive impact on economic and social development.
Democracy is based on principles like freedom, justice, and citizen
participation, and it can lead to development by:
 Promoting political stability
 Ensuring policy certainty
 Protecting property rights
 Creating a positive environment
 Allowing citizens to express their views
 Enabling citizens to fight for justice
 Allowing citizens to freely express their ideas

( Any two points to be explained)

OR
B) Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a
secular state.
India is a secular state because of the following constitutional
provisions:
Freedom of religion
The Constitution guarantees the freedom to practice, profess, or
propagate any religion, or not to follow any.
No official religion
The Constitution does not declare any religion as the official religion
of India.
Non-discrimination

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 The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the
basis of their religion.
Fundamental rights
The Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights that are based on
secular principles.
State strategy
The state is not ruled by a religious group and does not support any
one religion. The state also makes exceptions for religious
communities to respect the sentiments of all religions.

A secular state treats all its citizens equally, regardless of religion.

( Any two points to be explained)

22 In which list of the Indian constitution does the Education come? 2×1=2
Why?
Education is in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution.
Reason:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved education from the
State List to the Concurrent List. This allows both the central
government and the states to legislate on education.

 Concurrent List
The Concurrent List is one of three lists in the 7th Schedule
of the Constitution that divides powers between the Union
and State governments. The other two lists are the Union List
and the State List.

 Right to Education
In 2002, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act added
Article 21A to the Constitution, making the Right to
Education a fundamental right.

(Any two points to be explained)

23 Caste has not still disappeared from contemporary India‖. Write 2×1=2
two examples to justify the statement.
Arguments:
i) Most people marry within their own caste or tribe.
ii) Untouchability has not ended despite provisions in the
constitution.

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 iii) Effects of centuries of advantages and disadvantages continue
to be felt today.
iv) A large mass of low caste people still do not have access to
education
(Any two points to be explained)

24 Explain two functions of the opposition party. 2×1=2

The Opposition‘s main role is to question the government of the day
and hold them accountable to the public. In legislature, the Opposition
Party has a major role and must act to discourage the party in power
from acting against the interests of the country and the common man.
They hustle to present themselves as a suitable alternative
government. Following are the functions of opposition parties :
(i) They question the ruling government and make them
accountable to the public.
(ii) Their role is to ensure that the government should not take
any step which is against the interest of the public.
(iii) Their duty is to check and ensure that the action of the
ruling party is for the benefit of the masses and to support
the government in such things. They, thus, facilitate
formation of public opinion and are a way in which the
schemes of government are checked and communicated to
the public
(Any two points to be explained)

25 State two agreements through which federations have been 2×1=2

formed. Give an example of each.

(i) ‗Coming together‘ federations—This agreement induces

independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit,
so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase
their security.

(ii) ‗Holding together‘ federations — In this agreement, a large

country decides to divide its power between the constitue nt States and
the national government. The Central Governments tend to be more
powerful vis-a-vis the states. Often different constituent units of the
federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted special
powers,

Section C 6×3=18

Short answer type questions

26 A)Do you think that Decentralisation is the means to minimise the 3×1=3
conflicts? Why?

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 Yes, decentralization can help reduce conflict by sharing power
between the central government, states, and local governments.
Decentralization can help by:

Local problem-solving: Local governments can address many issues

at the local level.

Direct participation: People can directly participate in decision-

making.

Democracy: Decentralization can help realize democracy principles.

Reducing inequities: Decentralization can help reduce perceived or

actual inequities between regions or between the central government
and a region
(Any three points to be explained)

OR

B) Describe any three steps taken by the Indian government

towards
decentralization of power in 1992.
(i) Constitution mandate to hold regular elections to local
government bodies.
(ii) Reservation of seats in the elected bodies and the executive
heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes.
(iii) Reservation of at least one-third of all positions for
women.
(iv) Creation of an independent institution called the State
Election Commission in each state to Conduct panchayat
and municipal elections.
(v) The state governments are required to share some powers
and revenue with local Government bodies.

(Any three points to be explained )

27 What is meant by a ‗National political party ‗? State the 3×1=3

conditions required
to be a National Political Party .
A party that secures at least six per cent of total votes in Lok Sabha
elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four
seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party. A political
party is called a national party if :
(i) It secures at least six per cent (6%) of the valid votes

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 polled in any four or more states, at a general election to
the House of the People or, to the State Legislative
Assembly,
(ii) In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the
People from any State or States.

28 Suggest any three measures to enhance the participation of 3×1=3

women in
Politics.
i) Women should be given proper education so that they are
aware of their rights and duties and participate actively in
all political occasions.
ii) Every woman should be self-reliant so that she enjoys a
respectable position in the society and is confident about
her meaningful contribution to politics as well.
iii) It should be legally binding to have a fair proportion of
woman in the elected bodies. That is why 1/3 rd of seats in
local government bodies in panchayats and in
municipalities are now reserved for women.

( Any other correct points also to be

considered)

29 How can communalism pose a great threat to Indian Democracy? 3×1=3

i) The most common expression of communalism lies in our
everyday beliefs. These routines involve belief in the
superiority of one‘s religion above other religions.
ii) A communal wind often leads to a quest for political
dominance of one‘s own religious community; it can take a
form of a desire to create a separate political unit.
iii) Political mobilization based on religion is another form of
communalism. This involves the use of sacred symbols
religious leaders emotional appeal to bring the followers of
one religion together in the political arena.
iv) Sometimes communalism takes its most ugly form of
violence riots and massacres. India and Pakistan suffered
some of the worst communal riots at the time of partition.
(Any three points to be considered)

30 How do social division affects politics? Explain with examples 3×1=3

Social division affect politics in the following ways:
(i) It strengthens the idea of communal politics.
(ii) Government mainly supports the majority community, by
denying the rights of minority community.
(iii) Politics of social division is very normal and can be

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 healthy, it allows people to express their grievances.
(iv) Its outcome depends on how people perceive their identity,
or how political leaders raise their demands, and it depends
on how the government react to demands of different
groups.
( Any three points to be explained)

31 Explain three most effective ways in which the pressure groups 3×1=3
and
movements influence the politics of a country.
Pressure groups and movements exert pressure on government
policies in the following ways :
i) They conduct meetings and rallies to draw the attention of
the media and government.
ii) They organise strikes and dharnas to stop the normal
functioning of the government.
iii) Sometimes some noted persons of the pressure groups like
the business groups or professionals participate in the
official meetings and offer advice to the government.
iv) Sometimes it is also noted that pressure groups are either
formed or led by political parties. Political parties pressure
groups and movements influence those in power. These are
agents machines and processes in politics which are
designed to wield power over those in power in order to
control the outcome of distribution of resources.
(Any three points to be explained)

Section D 4×5=20

Long answer type questions

32 A)What challenges did central -state relations in India face before 5×1=5
the 1990s?Why is power sharing between centre and State more
effective today?

Before the 1990s, central-state relations in India faced several

challenges, primarily due to the centralization of power. . Some of the
key challenges included:
Centralization of Power: The central government had significant
control over state affairs, particularly through the use of Article 356
(President's Rule), which allowed the Centre to dismiss state
governments and dissolve legislative assemblies. This often led to
resentment in states, particularly when the political party at the Centre
was different from that in the state.
Disputes over Resources: The distribution of financial resources
between the Centre and the states was a contentious issue. States often

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 felt that they did not receive a fair share of resources, particularly
from central taxes and grants, which affected their development and
autonomy.
Language and Cultural Issues: Regional languages and cultural
differences created tensions. States felt that the imposition of Hindi as
the national language and the centralization of educational and
administrative policies ignored their regional diversity.
Political and Regional Discontent: Several states, especially those
with distinct regional identities, like Tamil Nadu and Punjab, often felt
marginalized by the central government. The central government's
lack of sensitivity towards regional aspirations led to political
instability and even unrest in some regions.

However, after the 1990s, power-sharing between the Centre and the
States became more effective due to the following factors:

Economic Reforms (1991): The liberalization of the Indian economy

in the early 1990s led to greater economic autonomy for states. States
were given more control over their economic policies and
development, as decentralization became a focus in order to foster
growth and improve regional development.
Strengthened Federal Framework: The federal structure of India
became more balanced with the introduction of new policies aimed at
enhancing state participation in decision- making. The establishment of
institutions like the Finance Commission and the Planning
Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog) aimed to ensure a fairer
distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States.
Political Decentralization: The rise of regional political parties and
coalitions gave states more power in national politics. The shift from a
one-party dominant system to coalition governments in the 1990s
meant that the Centre had to engage more with states to form and
maintain governments, leading to better cooperation.
Devolution of Powers: Constitutional amendments, such as the 73rd
and 74th Amendments (1992), promoted decentralization by
empowering local governments at the village, town, and district
levels, making governance more inclusive and responsive to local
needs
( Any five points in all to be explained)

OR

B) What is the meaning of ‗Secularism‘? How does the

constitution make
India a secular state ? Explain.

127 | P a g e
 Secularism is the idea that the state should be neutral and separate
from religion, and that all religions should be treated equally. The
Constitution of India established India as a secular state by:
 Separating religion from the state

The state does not promote or display any religion in

government spaces, and does not enforce any religion on
individuals.

 Treating all religions equally

The state does not give any special status to any religion, and
the law treats all religions equally.

 Protecting religious freedom

The state cannot take away an individual's religious freedom,
and prohibits discrimination based on religion.

 Allowing state intervention

The state can intervene in religious matters to ensure equality within
religious communities

33 A) How Majoritarianis m has increased the feeling of alienation 5×1=5

among the
Shri Lankan Tamils? Explain .
Sri Lankan Tamils felt alienated because:
i) Government adopted majoritarian measure to establish
Sinhala Supremacy. In 1956 an Act was passed to
recognise Sinhala as the only official language thus
disregarding Tamil.
ii) The governments followed preferential politics that
favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and
government jobs.
iii) A new Constitution stipulated that the state shall protect
and foster Buddhism.
iv) Sri Lankan Tamils felt that none of the major political
parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive
to their language and culture.
v) As a result the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil
communities strained overtime and it soon turned into a
Civil War

OR

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 B) What is the rationale for decentralization of power? Explain
the structure
of Rural local government in India
THE RATIONALE BEHIND DECENTRALIZATION-
i) Large number of problems and issues are best settled at the
local level because people have better knowledge of their
local problems.
ii) It helps in promoting direct participation.
Structure of Rural Local Government :
i) Zila Parishad: All the mandals in a district together
constitute the Zila Parishad. Most of the members are
elected and headed by a chairperson.
ii) Panchayat Samiti or Mandal or Block: The members of
this body are elected by the entire panchayat members in
that area. A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to
form this government body.
iii) Gram Panchayat: A council consisting of several ward
members often called Panch. The president is called
sarpanch. It is the decision-making body for the entire
village

34 A) Political and social divisions must not be allowed to mix . 5×1=5

Substantiate
this statement with five arguments.
i)Democracy involves competition among various political parties.
Their competition tends to divide any society. If they start competing
in terms of some existing social divisions it can make social division
into political division and lead to conflict violence or even
disintegration of a country.

ii) Hundreds of civilians militants and security forces were killed in

the fight between Unionists and Nationalists and between the security
forces of the UK and the Nationalists. It was only in 1998 that the UK
government and the Nationalists reached a peace treaty after which
the nationalists suspended their armed struggle.

iii)Political competition along religious and ethnic lines led to the

disintegration of Yugoslavia into six independent countries.

iv)In a democracy it is only natural that political parties would talk

about the social divisions make different promises to different
communities look after due representation of various communities and
make policies to redress the grievances of the disadvantaged
communities.

v)Social divisions affect voting in most countries. People from one

129 | P a g e
 community tend to prefer some party to others. In many countries
there are parties that focus only on one community.

OR

B) Name five countries of the world which have already faced or

are facing
the problems of social divisions. What type of social division are
they
facing? Also explain the causes of those social divisions.

Several countries around the world have faced or are currently facing
issues of social divisions, often along lines of religion, ethnicity, or
class. Here are five such countries:
India: Social divisions in India are marked by caste, religion, and
ethnicity. The caste system, though officially abolished, continues to
influence social mobility and opportunities. Communal tensions,
especially between Hindus and Muslims, are also prominent. The
causes include historical discrimination and unequal distribution of
resources.

Sri Lanka: Ethnic divisions between the Sinhalese majority and

Tamil minority have led to decades of civil war. These divisions arose
from historical power imbalances and discrimination against Tamils.

Belgium: Social divisions in Belgium are between the Flemish-

speaking north (Flanders) and French-speaking south (Wallonia).
These linguistic and regional divisions are rooted in historical
economic disparities and cultural differences.

Nigeria: Ethnic and religious divisions between the Muslim north and
Christian south have been a source of conflict. Colonial borders,
resource distribution, and historical tensions fuel these divisions.

United States: Social divisions in the U.S. are often along racial lines,
particularly between African Americans and white Americans.
Slavery, segregation, and systemic racism have perpetuated these
divisions.

In all cases, social divisions arise from historical inequalities, colonial

legacies, and economic disparities
( Any other examples also to be included )
35 A) ―An ideal government would not only keep itself away from 5×1=5
corruption but also make fighting corruption and black money a
top priority‖. Justify

130 | P a g e
 the statement.
An ideal government should make fighting corruption a top priority
because corruption can lead to social evils, demotivate citizens, and
hinder the optimal allocation of resources:
Social evils: Corruption and black money can lead to poverty,
inflation, and poor political ethics.
Demotivation: Corruption can demotivate citizens from re-electing
their representatives.
Resource allocation: Corruption and black money can hinder the
optimal allocation of resources.

Some ways to fight corruption include-

 Creating a code of conduct for politicians, legislatures, and
bureaucrats, and strictly enforcing it
 Giving the judiciary more independence and initiatives on
corruption issues
 Setting up special courts to take up corruption issues and
promoting speedy trials
 Allowing the law and order machinery to work without
political interference
 Creating awareness against corruption in society through
NGOs and media

( Any five points to be explained)

OR

B) Examine any five institutional amendments made by different

institutions
to reform political parties and their leaders
i) The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs
and MPs from changing parties. This was done because
many elected representatives were indulging in defection
in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now if
any MLA or MP changes parties he or she will lose the
seat in the legislature.
ii) The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the
influence of money and criminals. Now it is mandatory
for every candidate who contests elections to file an
affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases
pending against him. The new system has made a lot of
information available to the public. But there is no system
of check if the information given by the candidates is
true.
iii) The Election Commission passed an order making it
necessary for political parties to hold their organizational
elections and file their income tax returns.

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 iv) The parties have started doing so but sometimes it is mere
formality. It is not clear if this step has led to greater
internal democracy in political parties.
v) The 44th Amendment (1978): This amendment curtailed
the arbitrary use of the Emergency provisions by
empowering the judiciary to review proclamations,
making political leadership more accountable
(Any other amendments also to be considered)

Section E 3×4=12

Case based questions

36 1)What is the central feature of Indian democracy, as mentioned 1+1+2=4
in the source?
The central feature of Indian democracy is the recognition of its
diversity, ensuring that every group has a voice in the decision-making
process.

2) Why are affirmative actions and safeguards important in

India‘s democracy?
Affirmative actions and safeguards are important to protect minority
rights, prevent discrimination, and promote equal opportunities for all
groups.

3) Explain the challenge that India faces in reconciling its

diversity with the need for unity.
India faces the challenge of balancing its diverse religious, linguistic,
and cultural identities with the need for national unity. Although the
Constitution provides measures to protect minority rights, the misuse
of identity politics can lead to communal tensions and social unrest,
making it difficult to maintain harmony and equality in the country.

37 1)Why are many girls in the village discouraged from continuing 1+1+2=4
their education beyond a certain age?
Many girls are discouraged from continuing their education because
parents believe that educating boys will lead to better job
opportunities, while girls are expected to learn household chores in
preparation for marriage.

2) What role do societal norms play in the classroom according to

the case?
Societal norms influence the classroom environment by encouraging
boys to participate in discussions, while girls are expected to remain
passive. Boys are also given more opportunities for extracurricular
activities like sports and leadership roles.

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 3) In what ways can gender discrimination in education be
addressed in such villages?
Gender discrimination can be addressed by promoting awareness
about the importance of educating girls, involving local communities
in changing traditional mindsets, providing equal opportunities for
both boys and girls in education and extracurricular activities, and
ensuring that both genders are treated equally in the classroom.
Additionally, local government and NGOs can work together to offer
scholarships or incentives for girls to attend school and continue their
education.

38 1)What is the main objective of introducing a power-sharing 1+1+2=4

arrangement in Democratica?
The main objective of introducing a power-sharing arrangement in
Democratica is to promote fairness, ensure equal political
representation for both the Lyndian and Gulan communities, and
maintain national unity by preventing the concentration of power in
any one group.

2) does the federal system of government in Democratica help in

power-sharing?
The federal system in Democratica helps in power-sharing by dividing
power between the central government and regional governments
based on linguistic and cultural identities, ensuring that different
groups have representation and autonomy at the regional level.

3) What could be a possible challenge of implementing the power-

sharing arrangement in Democratica?
A possible challenge in implementing the power-sharing arrangement
in Democratica is that some members of the Lyndian community
might feel threatened by losing control over political power and
resources. At the same time, some Gulan community members may
feel that the new arrangement does not go far enough in meeting their
demands for greater autonomy and equal rights, leading to
dissatisfaction and potential conflict.

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 ECONOMICS

CHAP 1. Development
CHAP 2. Sectors of the Indian Economy
CHAP 3. Money and Credit
CHAP 4. Globalization and the Indian Economy

MULTIPLE CHOICE Questions:

1. Which of the following are developmental goals of a prosperous farmer? Choose the correct
from the given options.

I. Better wages II. Higher support prices for crops

III. Assured high family income IV. More days for work

Options : (a) Only I and II are correct (b) Only II and IV are correct (c)
Only II and III are correct (d) Only I and IV are correct

2.Which one of the following is the preceding Government Agency of NITI Aayog?

(a) Planning Commission (b) Election Commission

(c) University Grants Commission (d) Union Public Service Commission

3. Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals.

Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect

Options: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

4. Assertion : Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio in secondary
stage is 47%.

Reason : More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary education.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.

134 | P a g e
 (d) Both assertion and reason are false.

5. ___is the number of deaths per 1,000 live births of children under one year of age. The rate for
a given region is the number of children dying under one year of age, divided by the number of
live births during the year, multiplied by 1,000.

(a) Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) (b) Post-Neonatal Mortality Rate (PNMR)

(c) Infant mortality rate (IMR) (d) Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR)

6. Which one of the following is an example of organized sector activities?

(a) A farmer irrigating his field (b) A handloom weaver working in her
house

(c) A headload worker carrying cement (d) A teacher taking classes in a government
school

7. Which one of the following is an activity of the unorganized sector?

(a) A teacher teaching in a school.

(b) A worker going to work in a big factory.

(c) A doctor treating patients in a hospital.

(d) A daily wage labourer working under a contractor.

8. Assertion : Employment opportunities in the organized sector have been expanding slowly.
Reason : Many organized sector enterprises work in the manner of unorganized sector. and the
organized sectors don‘t want to give high wages to the workers.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

9. Which of these can be an indicator of economic growth for a country?

(a) Balance of payment position

(b) Increase in government spending on defence

(c) increase in labour productivity

135 | P a g e
 (d) demographic changes

10.Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Service sector contributes more than half of the GDP of India.

(b) The scope of attracting tourists is limited as there is hardly any place of tourist attraction
in India.

(c) As an economy grows, first service sector grows and then agriculture and industrial sector
grows.

(d) None of the above

11. All the banks act as mediator between .......... and .......... .

(a) rural people, urban people (b) literates, illiterates

(c) people, government (d) depositors, borrowers

12. Assertion: The terms of deposit are same for all credit arrangements.

Reason: Credit arrangements are very complex process so to remove the complexities same
terms of deposits are used.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

13. Why do lenders often require collateral before lending loan? Choose the most suitable option
from the following.

(a) To lower interest rates for borrowers (b) To establish personal relations

(c) To increase their profit margins (d) To mitigate the risk of loan
default

14. Assertion : Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits.
Reason : The difference between what is charged from borrowers and what is paid to depositors
is their main source of income.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true; but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

136 | P a g e
15. Most of the agricultural labourers like Mohan depend upon loans from informal sector.
Which of the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) There are govt. bodies to supervise informal sector
(b) Money lenders ask for a reasonable rate of interest
(c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high
(d) Money lenders use fair means to get their money back
16.The past two decades of globalization has seen rapid movements in :
(a) Goods, services and people between countries.
(b) Goods, services and investments between countries.
(c) Goods, investments and people between countries.
(d) All of the above
17..Arrange the process of globalization in order of occurrence
1. Govt opens up the Economy for Foreign Players
2. Large big Indian companies emerges as multinationals
3. New Opportunity for the IT sectors
4. Various outsource jobs shifted to India
Options :
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 1, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
18. Assertion : Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the
domestic markets.
Reason : Foreign trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

19. A company that owns or controls production in more than one country is called
(a) big company (b) international company
(c) foreign company (d) multinational company
20. Choose the correct option to fill the blank. Removing barriers or restrictions on business and
trade set by the government is called as_____.
(a) Disinvestment (b) Special Economic Zones
(c) Liberalization (d) Foreign Direct Investment

VERY SHORT QUESTION: 2 MARKS 2*4=8

1―Money facilitates trade by eliminating the inefficiencies of barter.‖ Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.

2.Why do banks and cooperative societies need to lend more ? Explain.

Q3. Discuss, write any two negative impacts of Globalisation.

Q.4.What is the role of MNCs in the globalisation process?

137 | P a g e
SHORT QUESTION: 3 MARKS 3*6=18

Q 1.Describe any three public facilities needed for development. 3

Q.2. Suggest some ways which can be helpful in creating employment in rural areas.
3

Q.3.Study the sources given below and answer the questions that follows: 1*3=3

Over a long time (more than hundred years), and especially because new methods of
manufacturing were introduced, factories came up and started expanding. Those people who
had earlier worked on farms, now began to work in factories in large numbers. People began
to use many more goods that were produced in factories at cheap rates. Secondary sector
gradually became the most important in total production and employment. Hence, over time, a
shift had taken place. This means that the importance of the sectors had changed.
The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely
outside the control of the government. There are rules and regulations, but these are not
followed. Jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime,
paid leave, holidays, leave due to sicknessetc. Employment is not secure. People can be
asked to leave without any reason. When there is less work, such as during some seasons,
some people may be asked to leave. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer.
This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing
small jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair work. Similarly, farmers work on their
own and hire labourers as and when they require.
More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in
agriculture, producing only a quarter of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and
tertiary sectors produce three fourth of the products whereas they employ less than half of the
people. Does this mean that the workers in agriculture are not producing as much as they
could? What it means is that there are more people in ag-riculture than is necessary. So, even
if you move a few people out, production will not be affected. In other words, workers in
agricultural sector are underemployed.
Question :
1. This means that the importance of the sectors had changed. Which sector has lost its
prior importance?
2. Why do most people engage in unorganized sector in spite of it‘s bad working
conditions?
3. ―What it means is that there are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even
if you move a few people out, production will not be affected‖. What type of employment or
unemployment situation is referred by this statement?

Q.4 What is skill development? How does it help in creating employment?

3

138 | P a g e
Q.5.Over the past few decades, the number of banking institutions in India has increased,
enhancing financial inclusion. As a result, banking has become a fundamental part of India‘s
financial system.

Why has the banking sector become so important in India? Support your answer by giving
any three reasons.

Q 6 What is WTO ? What is its main aim ? Mention any one of its limitation.
3

SHORT QUESTION: 4 MARKS 4*6=24

Q 1. What does sustainability of development mean ? How can sustainable development be

achieved? 4

Q 2.Why is literacy essential for the economic development? Explain. 4

Q.3.Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
4

HUMAN DEVELOPMENT REPORT: Once it is realised that even though the level of
income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to
think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so
useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education
indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are among them. Over
the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with
income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and
per capita income. It would be interesting to look at certain relevant data regarding India and its
neighbours from Human Development Report 2006.

I. On what basis the UNDP compares countries on Human Development?

1
ii. Explain Human development briefly.
1
iii. Mention other aspects that should be considered in measuring human development.
2

. Q 4.Read the source given below and answer questions hat follow by choosing the most
appropriate option: The table above shows the estimated number of workers in India in the
organized and unorganized sectors. Read the table carefully.

Fill in the missing data and answer the questions that follow.
139 | P a g e
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 2 242
Secondary 9 54 63
Tertiary 76
Total 28 398

Questions : i. What is the number of persons engaged in the unorganized sector?

ii. Which is the most important sector that provides the most jobs to the people?

iii. How many workers are working in the tertiary sector ?

iv. Which organised sector is most important and why ?

Q 5. How does Government attract foreign investment? Explain different ways. or Mention any
three steps which have been taken by the Government of India to attract foreign investment in
recent years ?

6.2004, Ford Motors was selling 27, 000 cars in the Indian markets, while 24,000 cars were
exported from India to South Africa, Mexico and Brazil. The company wants to develop Ford
India as a component supplying base for its other plants across the globe.
1+1+1+1=4
Questions :
1. Why is Ford Motors an MNC?
2. How much did Ford Motors invest in India?
3. Where did Ford Motors establish its firstplant in India?
4. Name two countries who import Ford Motors manufactured in India.
LONG QUESTION: 5*2=10

Q.1. How can consumers and producers be benefited from ‗foreign trade‘? Explain with
examples. 5

Q.2..Analyse any five positive effects of globalisation on the Indian economy.

5

140 | P a g e
 Economics

CHAP 1. Development
CHAP 2. Sectors of the Indian Economy
CHAP 3. Money and Credit
CHAP 4. Globalization and the Indian Economy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION ANSWER:

1.ANS: (c) Only II and III are correct

2.ANS: (a) Planning Commission

3.Ans:(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.

4.Ans: c) Assertion is true, but reason is false

5.Ans: (c) Infant mortality rate (IMR)

6.Ans : (d) A teacher taking classes in a government school

7.Ans : (d) A daily wage labourer working under a contractor

8.Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

9.Ans : (c) increase in labour productivity

10. Ans : (a) Service sector contributes more than half of the GDP of India

11.Ans (d) depositors, borrowers

12.Ans (d) Both assertion and reason are false

13.Ans :(d) To mitigate the risk of loan default

14.Ans:(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

15.Ans: (c) Cost of informal loans to the borrower is quite high.

16.Ans: (b) Goods, services and investments betweencountries.

17.Ans: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4

141 | P a g e
18.Ans: (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
19.Ans: (d) multinational company
20.Ans: (c) is correct option.

VERY SHORT QUESTION ANSWER: 2 MARKS 2*4=8

1.Ans: Money provide a common medium of exchange, making transactions simple and
more efficient than barter. It eliminates the need for a double coincidence of want, shows
for easy valuation of goods, and facilities saving and investment, thereby boosting economic
activity.

2.Ans : Banks and cooperative societies need to lend more because :

(1) This would lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow cheaply for a variety
of needs.
(2) People could grow crops, so business, set up small-scale industries etc.
3.Ans : Foreign 2012 Negative impacts of Globalisation :

(1) There are a number of industries such as toys, tyres, batteries, plastics, dairy products,
vegetable oils where, the small manufacturers have been hit hard due to foreign competition.

(2) Thousands of uneducated and unskilled labourers have become jobless due to closure of
various units.

4.Ans : Role of MNCs in process of globalisation :

Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries. MNCs are
playing a major role in the globalisation process. More and more goods and services, investments
and technology are moving between countries. Most regions of the world are in closer contact
with each other than a few decades ago.

SHORT QUESTION ANSWER: 3 MARKS 3*6=18

1.Ans :, Public facilities needed for development are as follows:

1. Pollution free environment : Government should take care to provide pollution free
environment by setting industries outside residential areas, by keeping check on vehicles, by
planting more trees etc.

142 | P a g e
 2. Government should open more schools and colleges so that most of the children get
educated and should also arrange it at most nominal cost.

3. Collective security for the whole locality : It should be government‘s responsibility to

provide security to the people for the localities as a whole.

2.Ans : Some measures to create employment in rural areas are :

1. By promoting rural industries like craft industry and other small scale industry.

2. By providing them skill based training.

3. By supporting them financially to establish self-employment

3. Ans : 1. Primary sector

2. Because the opportunity to work in organized sector is very less in India. Again,
engagement in that sector involves more human resource, which is also very less here.

3. Disguised unemployment.

4. Ans: Skill development is the development of a particular skill with proper professional
training. Way to creating employment: A trained person can get employment easily than the
non-skilled labour.

1. Suppose the government opens new schools to educate people, the teachers will be
required to run the schools.

2. A study conducted by the Planning Commission estimates that nearly 20 lakh jobs can be
created in the education sector alone.

3. Similarly, if we have to improve the health situation, we need many more doctors, nurses,
health workers, etc. to work in various parts of our country.

5.Ans: The banking sector become so important in India because:

i. Financial inclusion( Explain)

ii. credit provision

iii. Safe money management

6. Ans : (1) WTO is an organisation dealing with rules of international trade.

(2) Its main aim is to liberalize international trade. It establishes rules regarding
international trade and sees that these rules are obeyed.

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 (3) Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the
developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers

SHORT QUESTION ANSWER: 4 MARKS 4*6=24

1.Ans : Sustainability of development is an important issue because :

1. Suppose presently, a particular country is quite developed. We would certainly lik

this level of development to go up further or atleast be maintained for future generations.

2. Since, the second half of the 20th century, a number of scientists have been warning that
the type and levels of development are not sustainable.

3. Groundwater is an example of renewable resource. But if we use more than what is

replenished by nature, then we would be overusing this resource.

4. Once the non-renewable resources would be exhausted, we won‘t be able to use them in
future. So, using the resources judiciously will help in maintaining the sustainability of
development of our ecosystem.

2. Ans : Delhi 2014 Literacy is essential for economic development because it :

1. gives knowledge and skill and generates employment.

2. develops the ability to implement modern technology and establishes new enterprise.

3. reduces health cost by making people aware about sanitation, hygiene, different kinds of
illness and ways to prevent them.

4. does researches to invent better technologies to improve productivity and follows the path
of sustainable development.

3.Ans: 1. Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the
educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

2.Human development is a process of enhancing the range of people‘s choices, increasing

their opportunities for education, health care, income, and empowerment. It also covers the full
range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, political, and social
freedom. (Any other relevant points)

3.Yes, there other aspects as well like- Life expectancy, access to public facilities such as
water, sanitation, roads, electricity etc.

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4.Ans:

i.The number of people engaged in the unorganized sector is 370 million.

ii. Primary sector is the most important sector that provides the most jobs to the people?

iii. 93 million.

iv. Tertiary sector is most important organised becuse more workers are here than any other
organized sector.

5.Ans : (1) Special Economic Zones have been set up to have world-class facilities such as cheap
electricity, roads, transport, storage, etc.

(2) The companies set up their units in SEZs which are exempted to pay tax for initial period
of five years.

(3) Labour laws are made flexible.

(4) Instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire worker‘s ‗flexibility‘ for short
periods when there is intense pressure of work.

6.Ans:
1. Ford Motors is an MNC because its production is spread over 26 countries of the world.
2. < 1700 crores.
3. Chennai.
4. Mexico and Brazil.

LONG QUESTION ANSWER: 5*2=10

1. Ans : Comp 2018 Consumers and producers both are benefitted from foreign trade:

(1) The basic function of foreign trade is to create opportunities for the producers to reach
beyond domestic markets (markets of their own countries), both for selling their goods and for
buying raw materials.

(2) Producers can compete with other manufacturers in foreign markets. Import of goods allows
buyers to have more choice of goods produced in other countries also.

(3) ‗Foreign Trade‘ has facilitated the travel of goods from one market to another. It is one way
of expanding the choice of goods for the buyers.

(4) Producers of different countries have to compete in different markets.

(5) Prices of similar goods in two markets in two different countries become almost equal.

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2. Ans : OD 2010 The visible impacts of globalisation on Indian economy can be described in
the following ways :

(1) There is a wide choice of goods and services in the market. For e.g., The latest models of
digital cameras, mobile phones and television made by the leading manufacturers of the world
are available in the markets. These products are affordable as well as within reach of the people.

(2) Several improvements in the transportation technology has made much faster delivery of
goods across long distances possible and that too on lower rates.

(3) The improvement in information and tele-communication technology is even more

remarkable. The invention and use of computer, internet, mobile phone, fax, etc., has made
contact with each other around the world quite easy.

(4) New jobs have been created in industries where MNCs have invested such as electronics,
fast foods, cell phones etc

(5) Some Indian companies have become multinational by themselves due to globalisation, such
as Tata Motors (automobiles), Ranbaxy (Medicines), Infosys (Computer and Information
Technology) and L & T (construction).

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 JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA BISWANATH

Class –10th

Subject – Social Science

Sample Paper 1

Time: 3hr Marks: 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Read the following instructions careful and follow them:

9. The question paper contains 37 questions. Al questions are compulsory.

10. Question paper is divided into five sections- Section A, B, C, D and E
11. SECTION A- Question numbers 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
12. SECTION B – Question numbers 21 to 24 are very short answer type questions. Each
question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
13. SECTION C- Question numbers 25 to 29 are short answer type questions. Each question
carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
14. SECTION D – Question number 30 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question
carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
15. SECTION E- Question number 34 to 36 are case-based/Source-based questions with 3
sub- questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
16. SECTION F- Question no 37 is map skill based question with two parts 37 (i) History (2
marks) and 37 (ii) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.
Section A

(Multiple Choice Question) 20X1=20

Q 1. A Short season in between Rabi & Kharib season is knowns as 1

a. Aus
b. Boro
c. Zaid
d. None of these
Q 2. Ballari-Chitradurga-chikkamagaluru Tumakuru belt in Karnatka has large reserve of
1
a. Iron ore
b. Copper

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 c. Uranium
d. Granite
Q 3. Which of following categories of resource can we put tidal energy. 1
a. Renewable Resources
b. Non-renewable resources
c. Actual resources
d. Potential resources
Q 4. India is the largest producer of raw jute & Jute goods at second place as an exporter after
1
a. Bangladesh
b. Pakistan
c. China
d. Srilanka
Q 5. Match column- I with column II and choose correct option 1
Column -I Column – II

I. Ferrous A. Coal
II. Non – Ferrous B. Granite
III. Non – metallic C. Bauxite
IV. Energy D. Cobalt

I II III IV

(A). B D C A

(B). D C B A

(C). A B D C

(D). C D B A

Q 6. Which of following is key indicator to measure a country‘s development? 1

a. Primary Production
b. Secondary Production
c. Gross domestic product

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 d. Net domestic product
Q 7. On which of following basis does the united nation development programme (UNDP)
Publish the ―Human Development Report‖ 1
a. Manufacturing infrastructure & Health
b. Education health & per capita income
c. National income health & Banking
d. Gross domestic product technology & Innovation
Q 8. The process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries through movement
of goods & services investment and technology between countries is called as.
1
a. Privatization
b. Globalization
c. Liberalization
d. Competition
Q 9. Choose the correct option list I (example) List II (Sector) 1
a. Courier Tertiary Sector
b. Fisherman Secondary
c. Carpenter Primary
d. Transporter Secondary
Q 10. Employment figure of a country are base on data collected. 1
a. National sample survey organization.
b. NREGA 2005 – National Rural employment guarantee Act 2005
c. I.L.O.- International Labour Organization
d. Census of India
Q 11. In a self-help group, most of decisions regarding saving & loan activities are taken by.
1
a. Bank
b. Members
c. Government
d. Non- Government organization

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Q 12. An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money goods or services in
return for promise of future payment refers to.
1
a. Debt
b. Deposit
c. Credit
d. Collateral
Q 13. Which of following statements are true about MNCS? 1
a. MNC is a company that owns or control production in more than one nation.
b. MNC set up offices and factories for production in region where they can get
cheap labour and other resource.
c. This is done so that the cost of production is low and MNC can get greater profit.
d. All of above.
Q 14. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using codes
given below. 1
i. It is good for democracy
ii. It creates harmony in different groups.
iii. It brings transparency in governance.
iv. It brings social – political competition among parties.
Q 15. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B
1
Column A Column B

I. Information technology 1. Concurrent List

II. Police 2. Union List
III. Education 3. State List
IV. Defence 4. Residuary subject
a. I – 4, II – 3, III – 1 IV – 2
b. I – 3, II – 4, III – 1 IV – 2
c. I – 4, II – 1, III – 3 IV – 2
d. I – 4, II – 2, III – 1 IV – 3
Q 16. Identify the correct option 1
1 The Act was passed by Imperial Legislative council.

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 2 It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
3 It empowered the government to detain political prisoners
a. Rowlatt Act
b. Vernacular Press Act
c. Government of India Act
d. Inland Emigration Act
Q 17. Who founded the swaraj party within congress? 1
a. Subhash Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Acharya Kriplani and J.P Narayan
c. C.R Das & Motilal Nehru
d. None of the above
Q 18. Which one of following countries has one Party system? 1
a. United states of America
b. United Kingdom
c. India
d. China
Q 19. Image based Question 1

Name the artist of the above image,

(a) Freederic Sorrieu

(b) Mazzini
(c) Garibaldi
(d) None of these
Q 20. Which one of following hosted Vienna congress in 1815? 1

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 a. Chancellor Duke Metternich
b. Ernst Renan
c. William I
d. None of the above
Section - B

(Very Short Answer Type Question) 4X2=8

Q 21. Describe any two main features of alluvial soil found in India 2
Or

What type of soil is found in river deltas of eastern coast? Give three main features of
this type of soil.

Q 22. What does Feminist mean? What are feminist movements? 2

Q 23. What may be a developmental goal of a rich farmer? 2
Q 24. Explain the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka? 2
Section - C

(Short Answer Type Question) 5X3=15

Q 25. Analyse three reasons for slowing down of Non-Cooperation movement in cities.
3
Q 26. Describe the importance of an equitable distribution of resources in society.
3
Q 27. Highlight any three challenges faced by jute industry. 3
Q 28. Describe any three features of ‗unitary government‘ 3
Q 29. (i) What do you mean by the tern ‗collateral‘? 3
(ii) Recognize the situation when both the parties in a barter economy have to agree to
sell and buy each other‘s commodities. What is it called?
Section - D
(Long Answer Type Question) 4X5=20
Q 30. How are the democratic governments better than the other forms of governments?
Justify the statement. 5
Or
―Democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government.‖
Analyse the statement with arguments.
Q 31. Highlight any five benefits of organized sector, with examples. 5
Q 32. Explain the reasons for concentration of iron and steel industries in and around
Chotanagpur region. 5

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Q 33. How do we feel the impact of globalization on our daily life? Explain with examples.
5
Section - E
(Case Based Question) 3X4=12
Q 34. ―The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links
between distant parts of the world. The name ‗silk routes‘ points to the importance of
West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route, Historians have identified several
silk routes, over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking
Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They are known to have existed since before the
Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century. But Chinese pottery also
travelled the same route, as did textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In
return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia. Trade and
cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early Christian missionaries almost
certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries
later. Much before all this, Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several
directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
i. What is meant by the ‗Silk Routes‘? 1
ii. What else travelled these routes other than traders? 1
iii. What routes were identified by the historians? What exchange did Europe return
to Asia in the form trade? 2
Q 35. Gutenberg was the son of a merchant and grew up on a large agricultural estate. From
his childhood he had seen wine and olive press. Subsequently, he learnt the art of
polishing stones, became a master goldsmith, and also acquired the expertise to create
lead molds used for making trinkets. Drawing on this knowledge, Gutenberg adapted
existing technology to design his innovation. This Olive press provided the moulds for
the printing press, and moulds were used for casting the metal types for the letters of
the alphabet. By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book he printed was
the Bible. About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them. By
the standards of the time this was fast production, the new technology did not entirely
displace the existing art of producing books by hand; In fact, printed books at first
closely resembled the written manuscripts in appearance and layout. The metal letters
imitated the ornamental handwritten styles. Borders were illuminated by hand with
foliage and other patterns, and illustrations were painted. In the books printed for the
rich, space for decoration was kept blank on the printed page. Each purchaser could
choose the design and decide on the paining school that would do the illustrations.
iv. Which was the first publication that Gutenberg printed?
1
v. What were the two main characteristics of these printed books?
1
vi. Who invented the printing press? 2
Q 36.
In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to
choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and

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 necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making that affects them all.
Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a
government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and
expectations of the citizens. Some people think that democracy produces less effective
government. It is, of course, true that non-democratic rulers are very quick and efficient
in decision making and implementation, whereas, democracy is based on the idea of
deliberation and negotiation. So, some delay is bound to take place. But, because it has
followed procedures, its decisions may be both more acceptable to the people and more
effective. Moreover, when citizens want to know if a decision was taken through the
correct procedures, they can find this out. They have the right and the means to
examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency. This factor is
often missing from a non- democratic government. There is another aspect in which
democratic government.
(i) What do you mean by Right to Vote? 1
(ii) What is the most basic outcome of democracy? 1
(iii) What makes the government legitimate? 2
Section - F
(Map Based Question) 1X5=5
Q 37. (a) Two place (A) and (B) have been marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify them with the help of the following information and write other correct name of
the lines drawn near them: 2
a. The place where Gandhiji started Satyagraha for indigo peasants.
b. The place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following
with suitable symbol: 3

i. Naharkatiya – Oil field

ii. Talcher – Atomic Power Plant
iii. Tuticorin – Major Sea Port

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155 | P a g e
 JAWAHAR NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA BISWANATH

Class –10th

Subject – Social Science

Sample paper 1 Answer Key

Time: 3hr Marks: 80

Answer Key

Section A

(Multi Choice Question) 20X1=20

Ans 1. c Ans 16. a

Ans 2. a Ans 17. c

Ans 3. a Ans 18. d

Ans 4. a Ans 19. a

Ans 5. a Ans 20. a

Ans 6. c

Ans 7. b

Ans 8. b

Ans 9. a

Ans 10. a

Ans 11. b

Ans 12. c

Ans 13. d

Ans 14. a

Ans 15. a

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 Section - B

(Very Short Answer Type Question) 4X2=8

Ans 21.
i. It is widely spread over northern plains by three Himalayan River systems the Indus Ganga &
Brahmaputra.
ii. Alluvial soil is rich in potassium phosphoric acid & lime.
iii. It has high water retention capacity
iv. It is high fertile soil

Ans 22. Feminist can be a woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for men &
women. Feminist movement aims at equal right and opportunities for women & men more radical
women‘s movement aimed at equality, both in personal & family life.

Ans 23.
i. Assurance of high income.
ii. Higher support prices for crops.
iii. Can settle children abroad.
iv. Expects more hard work at chap payment.

Ans 24. The Sinhala speakers were 74 percent and Tamil two sub group Srilankan Tamil & Indian Tamil.

Section - C

(Short Answer Type Question) 5X3=15

Ans 25.
i. Khadi cloth was often more expensive than the cloth produced in mills. Poor people could not
afford to buy Khadi cloth.
ii. Boycott of British institutions also passed a problem as there were no alternative India institutions.

iii. Students and teachers began trickling back to government schools.

iv. Even lawyers resumed work in government courts.

Ans 26. Importance of equitable distribution of resources:

i. For a sustained quality of life.
ii. To eliminate the difference between rich and poor in the society
iii. To reduce poverty

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 iv. To maintain Global Peace.
v. To prevent our planet earth from danger.

Ans 27.
(i) Stiff competition with Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand in the
international market.
(ii) There is competition with synthetic fibre that is cheaper.
(iii) There is also a concern about increasing productivity and improving the quality of jute
products.

Ans 28. Features of Unitary Government:

(i) All powers are centralized in the hands of the central government.
(ii) The sub-units are subordinate to Central Government.
(iii) The Central Government can pass an order to provincial or the local government.
(iv) Centre and state government are separately answerable to the people.

Ans 29.
vi. It is an asset that the borrower owns and uses this guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid
vii. This is known as doble coincidence of wants.
Section - D

(Long Answer Type Question) 4X5=20

Ans 30. Democracy is a better form of government compared to other alternative form of governments
because:
(i.) Democratic governments have formal constitution, unlike other forms of government.
(ii.) They hold regular elections.
(iii.) They have political parties.
(iv.) Democracy guarantees rights of citizens.
(v.) Democratic governments allow room to correct mistakes.
(vi.) Democratic governments accommodate social diversities.
(vii.) Promotes equality amount citizens.
(viii.) Enhances the dignity of the individual.
(ix.) Improves the quality of decision-making process.
(x.) Provides a method to resolve conflicts.

Ans 31. The benefits of organized sector:

(i.) The organized sector covers those enterprise or palaces of work where the terms of employment
are regular and therefore people have assured work.
(ii.) They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations.

154 | P a g e
 (iii.) The laws are followed such as Factory Act. Minimum wages Act, payment of Gratuity Act, shops
and Establishment Act etc.
(iv.) Workers in organized sector enjoy security of employment and are expected to work only a fixed
number of hours. For more work, they are paid overtime.
(v.) They get paid leave during holidays.
(vi.) They get medical benefits.
(vii.) The factory manager has to ensure facilities like drinking water and safe working environment.

Ans 32. The reasons for the concentration of iron and steel industries in and around the Chotanagpur
plateas are-
(i.) Availability of iron are- the region is close to the iron mines thus the raw material can be easily
transported to the industries.
(ii.) Proximity of other raw material- limestone and cooking col is also readily and easily available for
production.
(iii.) Good transport system- The region is well connected through railways as well as roadways
facilitating easy transportation of the raw material as well as the distribution of finished products.
(iv.) Availability of Labour – Cheap and skilled Labour is easily available from the states of Uttar
Pradesh Bihar and Jharkhand.
(v.) Port facilities – Kolkata port nearby facilitates the export of the finished foods.
(vi.) The industry has immense scope for development in the home market.

Ans 33. Impact of Globalization:

(i.) Globalization and greater competition among producers has been of advantage to consumers.
(ii.) Greater choice before consumers.
(iii.) Availability of standard quality products at lower price.
(iv.) Improvement in living standard.
(v.) Foreign investments have increased in many areas like cell phones, automobiles and electronics.
(vi.) New jobs have been created.
(vii.) Several of the factories have shut down rendering many workers jobless.
(viii.) Globalization as have also created job insecurity.

Section - E

(Case Based Question) 3X4=12

Ans 34. (i) It points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes travelling on the various routes.
(ii) Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim
preachers a few centuries later.

(iii) Over land and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe are
northern Africa. Gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.

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Ans 35. (i) Bible
(ii) (a) The metal letters imitated the ornamental handwritten styles.

(b) Borders were illuminated by hand with foliage and other patterns, and illustrations were
painted.

(iii) Johannes Gutenberg

Ans 36.
(i) People's right to choose their own rulers is called as the Right to Vote.
(ii) The most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is
accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. Some
people think that democracy produces less effective government.
(iii) Free and fair elections.
Section - F

(Map Based Question) 1X5=5

Ans 37.

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 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)

CLASS X – SESSION 2024-25

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions

in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks

Each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.

Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.

Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions

and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History

(2 marks) and 37 b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been

provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for ―Competency Based Question‖. 50% weightage allocated for

Competency-based questions.

SECTION -A

Multiple choice Questions

1. Nationalism brought about in Europe the emergence of

(a) The Nation State

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(b) The Modern State

(c) Multinational Dynastic State

(d) Alliances formed among many European states

2. Assertion: In 1917, Gandhiji organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of the

Kheda district of Gujarat.

Reason: The peasants were affected by crop failure and plague epidemic. They could not

pay the revenue and were demanding that revenue collection be relaxed.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false

(d) Both assertion and reason are false

3. The ‗Simon Commission‘ was boycotted because

(a) there was no British Member in the Commission.

(b) it demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.

(c) there was no Indian Member in the Commission.

(d) It favoured the Muslims over the Hindus.

4. In the picture of Bharat Mata, the mother figure is shown as

(a) dispensing learning food and clothing

(b)The mala in one hand emphasizes her ascetic quality.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Only (b).

5. Which of the following is not true about development?

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(a) Different people usually have same goals.

(b) Different people can have different goals.

(c) Different people can have different as well as conflicting goals.

(d) Different people can have different as well as conflicting goals regarding national development.

6. Which of the following comes under the tertiary sector?

(a) communication

(b) transport

(c) banking

(d) all of these

7. What does the term ‗Collateral‘ mean in the context of loans?

(a). Interest charged on loans

(b) Loan repayment period

(c). Security against loans

(d). Credit history of borrower

8. Which sector in India has benefitted the most from globalisation?

(a). Agriculture

(b). Manufacturing

(c ) Services

(d). All sectors have benefitted equally

9.What is the most important factor that has stimulated globalisation ?

(a) Spread of education

(b) Population explosion

(c) Rapid improvement in technology

(d)Urbanisation.

10. Resources that consume long geological time for their formation are called:

(a) Reserve

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(b) Non-renewable resources

(c) Renewable resources

(d) Community resources.

11. Assertion: Forests plays a key role in the ecological system.

Reason: Forest are the primary producers on which all other living beings depend.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

12.Which state has largest area under permanent forest?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Odisha

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Bihar

13. . Assertion : In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public policies.

Reason : India has federal system.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of

assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

14. Which of the following subject is included in the residuary power?

(a) Agriculture

(b) Computer software

(c) Police

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(d) Irrigation

15. The federal system of government has dual objectives to

(i) safeguard and promote the unity of the country

(ii) Increase power of particular linguistic groups

(iii) accommodating regional diversity.

(iv) Provide special power to particular religions.

(a) Only (i)

(b) (iii) and (iv)

(c) Only (iii)

(d) (i) and( iii)

16. Some states like Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland in India enjoy a special status under the
constitution of India ?

(a) Article 370

(b) Article 371

(c) Article 379

(d) All of the above

17. Which of the following statements is not true regarding feminist movements?

(a) There were agitations in different countries for the extension of voting rights to women.

(b) Agitations demanded enhancing the political and legal status of women and improving their educational and
career opportunities.

(c) Agitations not demanded equal participation of women in public affairs and vote.

(d) Radical women‘s movements aimed at equality in personal and family life.

18. In which system of elected bodies about one-third seats are reserved for women?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) State Assemblies

(c) Panchayats and Municipals

(d) None of these

19. The components of a political party are

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(i) The leaders

(ii) The active members

(iii) The leaders, the active members, and the followers

(iv) The followers

(a)Only (ii)

(b) Only (iii)

(c) (i) and (iv)
(d)None of these

20. Which of the following statements is not true about democracy?

(a) It allows room to correct mistakes

(b). It brings improvement in the quality of decision making

(c ) It worries about the majorities and public opinion

(d) Decision making is much faster and quicker

SECTION -B

Very Short Answer type questions

21. The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links

between distant parts of the world.‖ Explain the statement with any two examples.

Or

List some few food items that travelled from far away places to India.

22. Why is it important for us to improve our weaving sector instead of exporting yarn in large quantities?

23. Why power is share in democracy essential? Explain.

24. Why were the linguistic states created? What are their advantages?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (SECTION -C.)

25. How did a new reading culture bloom in China? Explain.

26. In what way can employment be increased in urban areas?

Or

Describe the role played by National Rural Employment Guarantee Act in improving the employment situation in
India.

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27. Explain the difference in employment conditions in organised and unorganised sectors.

28. Explain any three disadvantages of slash and burn agriculture?

29. Which are the cause of communalism?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION, SECTION –D

30. Explain any five social and administrative reforms introduced by Napoleon in the regions under his control.

Or

How did the ideology of ‗liberalism‘ affect the Europe in early nineteenth century? Explain.

31. ―Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country.‖ Support the statement with
examples.

Or

Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India? Explain.

32. What do you know about Agenda-21? What were its aims?

Or

How are resources classified into various types on the basis of their status of development? Give one example of
each type.

33. Why do we need political parties? Explain.

Or

―Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties all over the world.‖ Analyse
the statement.

SECTION –E CASE –BASED QUESTIONS

34. Read the passage and answer the questions below:

In the early 20th century, there were growing demands for self-rule, and leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak,
Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai advocated for 'Swaraj' (self-rule). Tilak was a key leader who emphasized
the need for more radical methods of resistance. He was a vocal critic of the British government and believed that
freedom could only be achieved through direct action." His slogan "Swaraj is my birthright" inspired many to
demand self-rule. He emphasized the importance of self-reliance and national pride.

"The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920. He urged people to boycott foreign
goods, institutions, and honours, and also to reject the British educational system. The movement aimed to make
the British leave India by means of peaceful, non-violent resistance. However, it was called off by Gandhi after
the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, where a mob killed 22 policemen." Gandhiji believed that the violence was
against the principles of non-violence.

1. Who were the key leaders advocating for 'Swaraj' during the early 20th century?

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 2. What was Bal Gangadhar Tilak‘s approach towards achieving freedom?

3. What was the main objective of the Non-Cooperation Movement?

4. Why did Gandhi call off the movement in 1922?

35. Study the given table carefully, and answer the questions that follow Country

Human Development Index of India and its Neighbours

Country Per Capita Life Literacy rate Gross HDI

Income in expectancy for 15 + yrs enrolment
US at birth population ratio for Rank in the
three levels world
India 3239 64 61 60 126
Myanmar 1097 61 90 48 130
Pakistan 2325 63 50 35 134
Bangladesh 1896 63 41 53 137
Nepal 1549 62 50 61 138
Sri Lanka 4890 74 91 69 93

1. What are the components of human development?

2. Why is Sri Lanka‘s rank higher than India?

3. What is the per capita income of India?

4. Which country has the highest per capita income?

36. Read the passage and answer the questions below:

Water is a crucial natural resource for all living organisms, and it plays an essential role in agricultural and
industrial development. It is required for irrigation in farming, cooling in industries, and the processing of raw
materials. It is also needed for drinking, sanitation, and livestock. Without sufficient water, agricultural
productivity would decrease, and industrial activities would be hindered. In India, water resources are primarily
derived from rivers, lakes, and groundwater. However, in many regions, these water resources are being depleted
due to overuse and contamination. Rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Godavari are lifelines for millions of
people, providing water for drinking, irrigation, and industrial use. Yet, many of these rivers are becoming
polluted, affecting both the quality and availability of water. In addition to surface water, India also depends on
groundwater, but excessive extraction of groundwater for irrigation has led to a significant drop in the water table
in many areas. Over-extraction also causes the depletion of groundwater reserves, leading to water scarcity and
problems for both agriculture and drinking water supply. Pollution, especially from industrial effluents, untreated
sewage, and agricultural runoff, severely affects the quality of water in rivers, making it unsafe for drinking,
irrigation, and wildlife. This has raised concerns about the sustainability of water resources in the country,
especially with the increasing population and changing climate patterns.

1. Why is water considered an essential resource for agricultural and industrial development?

2. What are the primary sources of water resources in India?

3. What are the consequences of excessive groundwater extraction in India?

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 4. What challenges do Indian rivers face regarding water availability and quality?

SECTION -F

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them on the map
and write their correct names on the line drawn near them.

A. Jallianwala Bagh Incident

B.Calling of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Namrup Thermal Power Plant

D. Gandhinagar Software Technology Park

E. Tungabhadra dam

F. An International Airport in Delhi NCR.

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 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

ANSWERS

SECTION –A

1.(a) The Nation State

2. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

3. (a) there was no British Member in the Commission.

4. (c) Both (a) and (b)

5. (a) Different people usually have same goals.

6. (d) all of these

7. (c). Security against loans

8. (c ) Services

9. (c) Rapid improvement in technology

10. (b) Non-renewable resources

11. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

12. (c) Madhya Pradesh

13. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of

assertion

14. (b) Computer software

15. (d) (i) and( iii)

16. (b) Article 371

17. (c) Agitations not demanded equal participation of women in public affairs and vote.

18. (c) Panchayats and Municipals

19. b) Only (iii)

20. (d ) Decision making is much faster and quicker.

ANSWERS .SECTION -B

21. 1) Trade of spices from India and Southeast Asia to Europe and in return trade of precious metals such as gold
and silver from Europe to Asia.

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(2) At the same time, Christian missionaries travelled same route to Asia.

Or

(i) Tomato and sweet potatoes

(ii) Potatoes and groundnuts

(iii)Maize and chilli

22. (1) Improvement in the weaving sector will generate more employment opportunities.

With improvement in weaving sector better quality of fabric and cotton products can be produced.

(2) Value is added at every stage from fibre to yarn and fabric to garment.

(3) It will help us to earn more foreign exchange (any two )

23.1) Power provides social and economic justice to the people.

2) Power sharing helps in division of power at various levels of government.

3) Power sharing also help to reduce the possibility of conflict between social

4) Power sharing helps in raising the level of HDI (Human Development Index (any two )

24. The linguistic states were created to ensure that the people who spoke the same language

lived in the same state.

(1) It has made the country more united and stronger.

(2) It has also made administration easier.

ANSWERS (Section –C)

25. (1) By the 17th century, an urban culture bloomed in China, the use of print diversified.

(2) Print was no longer used only by scholars and officials.

(3) Merchants used print in their everyday life, as they collected trade information.

Reading became a leisure habit.

26. . 1.Reforms in the educational system to make it vocational at the school stage.

Moreover, habit of self-sufficiency is to be cultivated among them.

2. Concrete action will have to be taken to promote decentralization and dispersal of

industrial activities.

3. Promotion of small scale industries and encouragement to self-employment by banks.

Or

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1.Government of India recently made a law implementing the Right to Work. It is called National Rural
Employment guarantee Act, 2005 (NREGA, 2005).

2. All those who are able to work and are in need of work have been guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year
by the government.

3. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment allowances to the people.

27.

Working conditions in organized sector Working conditions in unorganized sector

1. High salaries are provided 1. . Low salaries.
2. Job security. 2. No Job security.
3. Working conditions are good. 3. Working conditions are poor.

28..There are many disadvantages of slash and burn agriculture

1.It causes soil degradation and soil erosion .

2.It causes a massive loss to plants due to burning

3.It causes air pollution due to the production of harmful substances.

29. Causes of communalism :

(1) Religion is taken as the basis of the nation

(2) When one religion is discriminated against other.

(3) Demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another

ANSWERS SECTION –D

30. Napoleon finished the imperialism and reformed social and administrative rule in the regions under his
control. For this purpose he took the following steps:

(1) He made the administration logical and successful.

(2) He developed the code known as Napoleonic code 1806 with the help of which he abolished the special
rights which were given to the people on the basis of birth. According to him, all are equal in the eyes of law. The
right of capital and asset is equal to all.

(3) Napoleon made the administrative division simple. He abolished the dictatorship.

(4) He set free the peasants from Zamindari and land slavery.

(5) In the towns he set free to all union labours and small and petty labourers.

(6) He improved all the laws regarding transport and communication.

Or

(1) The term liberalism derives from the Latin root liber which means free

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(2) It stood for freedom of the individual and equality for all before the law but they were against universal
suffrage

(3) It stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges

(4) It stood for constitution and representative government through parliament

(5) It also stressed the inviolability of private property

(6) It stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of
goods and capital

31. Bank plays an important role in the economic development of the country in many ways :

(1) Bank provides loan in rural area for crop production ultimately resulting in the development of many places.

(2) Bank provides loan to create fixed assets that will create employment opportunities.

(3) It acts as a link between savers and investors.

(4) Banks accepts the deposit and pay an amount as interest on the deposit which mobilises savings.

(6) Bank uses major portion of these deposits to extend loan for various profitable events.

31. The formal sources of credit need to be expanded in India because of the following reasons :

(1) Compared to the formal lenders, most of the informal lenders change a much higher interest on loan. Thus,
the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher.

(2) Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan.
Hence, the borrowers have less income left for themselves. It sometimes means, the amount to be repaid is greater
than the income of the borrower. This can lead to increasing debt and debt trap. People who may wish to start an
enterprise may not do so because of the high cost of borrowing.

(3) People will be protected from coercion, humiliation and persecution that generally inflicted by formal sources
like, moneylenders, landlords, etc.

(4) This would also lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow cheaply for a variety of needs.

(5) Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country‘s development.

32. Agenda-21 : It is the declaration signed by world leaders in 1992 at the United Nation‘s Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), which took place at Rio-de-Janeiro, Brazil.

Aims : It aims at achieving Global Sustainable Development.

It is an agenda to combat the environment damage, poverty and diseases through global co-operation on common
interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.

One major objective of the Agenda-21 is that every local government should drawn its own local Agenda-21.

Or

On the basis of the status of development resources can be classified into four types.
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(1).Potential resources : These include resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised. For
example, solar and wind energy in Rajasthan and Gujarat respectively.

(2) Developed resources : These include resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been
determined for utilization. For example, coal, iron, manganese, etc.

(3) Stock : Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not
have the appropriate technology to access them are called stock. For example, geothermal energy.

(4) Reserves : Resources which can be put into use with the help of existing technical ‗know-how‘ but their use
has not been started. These can be used for meeting future requirements. For example, water in dams, forests, etc.

33. The needs of the political parties are as follows:

(1) Parties contest elections. In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by
political parties.

(2) Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.

(3) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.

(4) Parties form and run governments. The big policy decisions are taken by political executive that comes from
the political parties.

(5) Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power, by voicing different
views and criticizing government for its failures or wrong policies.

(6) Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues. Parties sometimes launch movements for the
resolution of problems faced by people. Often opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take.

Or

(1) There is the concentration of power in the hands of one or few leaders at the top.

(2) Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings and do not conduct internal
elections regularly.

(3) Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party.

(4) They do not have means or the contacts needed to influence the decisions.

(5) As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.

(6) Since one or few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership, find it
difficult to continue in the party.

(7) More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important.

SECTION –E ( CASE BASED)

34. 1. The key leaders advocating for 'Swaraj' during the early 20th century were Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin
Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai.

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2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak‘s approach towards achieving freedom was more radical compared to others. He believed
in direct action, and his slogan "Swaraj is my birthright" inspired many to demand self-rule. He emphasized the
importance of self-reliance and national pride.

3. The main objective of the Non-Cooperation Movement was to force the British to leave India by means of non-
violent resistance, including boycotting foreign goods, schools, courts, and administrative services.

4. Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, where a mob set
fire to a police station and killed 22 policemen. Gandhi believed that the violence was against the principles of
non-violence, and thus, the movement had to be suspended.

35. 1. Per capital income, longevity and education.

2. Because Sri Lanka leads in all components like the per capita income, education and longevity.

3. $ 3,239.

4. Sri Lanka, i.e., 4890

36. 1 Because it is required for irrigation in farming, cooling in industries, and the processing of raw materials. It
is also needed for drinking, sanitation, and livestock.

2. The primary sources of water resources in India are rivers, lakes, and groundwater.

3. Led to a significant drop in the water table, particularly in areas with high agricultural demand and leading to
water scarcity for agriculture, industries and drinking water supply.

4. Indian rivers face two major challenges: depletion of water availability and pollution. Pollution, especially from
industrial effluents, untreated sewage, and agricultural runoff, severely affects the quality of water in rivers,
making it unsafe for drinking, irrigation, and wildlife.

SECTION-F

37. (a) and (b)

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172 | P a g e
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 3

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)

CLASS X SESSION 2024-25

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions

in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks

each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.

Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.

Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions

and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History

(2 marks) and 37 b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been

provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever

necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for ―Competency Based Question‖. 50% weightage allocated for

competency-based questions.

SECTION -A

Multiple choice Questions

1.Which of the given aspects signifies the image of ‗Germania‘.

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(a)Fold and Cultural Tradition

(b)Austerity and Asceticism

(c)Revenge and Vengeance

(d)Heroism and Justice

2. What was one of the main reasons behind Mahatma Gandhi‘s decision to take up the Khilafat Issue?

(a) To bring more unity among Hindus and Muslims.

(b) To bring more unity among Hindus and Christians.

(c) To bring more unity among Christians and Muslims.

(d) None of the above.

3. Who formed the ‗Swaraj Party‘ within the Congress?

(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru

(b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose

(d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

4.The figure of Bharat Mata is shown with a trishul , , standing beside a lion and an elephant as

(a) symbol of power

(b) symbols of power and authority

(c) Symbol of Goddess

(d) None of these

5. Which one of the following is not a base for preparation of Human Development Index (HDI)

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(a) Literacy rate

(b) Life expectancy

(c) Industrialization

(d) Per capita income

6. Which of the following activities does not belong to the tertiary sector?

(a) transport

(b) agriculture

(c) banking

(d) communication

7. What term describes deposits in bank accounts that can be withdrawn by the account holder at any time?

(a) Fixed deposits

(b) Savings

(c) Demand deposits

(d) Demand drafts

8. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called:

(a) Liberalisation

(b) Investment

(c) Fovourable trade

(d) Free trade

9. Which of the following factors significantly contribute to the process of globalisation? Select the correct
options.

1. Expansion of Multinational Corporations (MNCs).

2. Advancements in information and communication technology.

3. Nationalisation and trade barriers.

4. Cross-border movement of people for jobs and education.

(a) Statements 1 and 2 are appropriate.

(b) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are appropriate.

(c) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are appropriate

(d) Only statement 3 is appropriate.

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10. What percentage of our land should be under forest according to the National Forest Policy (1952)?

(a) 30

(b) 29.5

(c) 33

(d) 38.5

11 Arrange the following in the correct sequence of the different categories of existing plants and animal species
according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN):

(i) Rare Species

(ii) Vulnerable Species

(iii)Endangered Species

(iv)Normal Species

(a) 4, 2, 3, 1

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

(c) 2, 1, 3, 2

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

12. Unclassed forests are mainly found in

(a) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(b) All north-eastern states and parts of Gujarat

(c) Punjab and Haryana

(d) West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh

13. Assertion : Power should reside with one person and group located at one place in a

democracy.

Reason : If the power is dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and enforce it.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

14. Which of the following states in India enjoys a special status?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

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(b) Mizoram

(c) Nagaland

(d) All of the above

15. Which of the following is not an example of ‗coming together‘ federations?

(a) Switzerland

(b) India

(c) USA

(d) None of the above.

16. Due to their peculiar social and historical circumstances, the Constitution of India gives special status to some
Indian states.

(i) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Punjab

(ii) Arunachal Pradesh, Rajasthan

(iii) Mizoram, Nagaland and Maharashtra

(iv) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland

(a) only (i)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

© only (iv)

(d) (i) and (iii)

17. Patriarchal society means ________.

(a) A society dominated by men

(b) A society dominated by women

(c) A society where there is equality between men and women

(d) None of the above

18.‘ Equal Wages Act‘ signifies;

(a) An Act which signifies that all work inside the home is done by the women of the family

(b). A radical law against the discriminatory attitude and sexual division of labour

(c). Law that deals with family related matters.

(d). Law provides that equal wages should be paid for equal job for both men and women

19. Who among the following recognises political parties in India?

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(a) Election Commission

(b) President of India

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Supreme Court

20. A democratic government is:

(a) A legitimate government

(b) A responsive government

(c An accountable government

(d). All of the above

SECTION -B

Very Short Answer type questions

21. The pre-modern world shrank greatly in the 16th century‖. Why? Explain .

or

How did Silk Routes link the world ? Explain with two suitable examples..

22. Explain any two objectives of the National Jute Policy 2005.

23. Why is horizontal distribution of power sharing important? Explain

24. Write any two features of Holding together federation.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (SECTION -C.)

25. Examine any three effects of Print culture on the French Revolution.

26. How does public sector contribute in developing nation?

Or

What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? How do we count the various goods and services for calculating Gross
Domestic Product ? Explain with examples.

27. Do you agree that workers are exploited in the unorganised sector? Support your answer with any three
arguments

28. Why is India called an agricultural country ?

29. Explain the factors that have led to the weakening of the caste system in India.?

(SECTION -D.)

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.30. ―The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, was a patchwork of many different regions and
people.‖ Justify the statement with suitable examples.

Or

What were the similarities between the process of unification of Germany and Italy ? Write in detail.

31. Why do the rural borrowers depend on the informal sector of credit ? What steps can be

taken to encourage them to take loans from the formal sources ? Explain.

Or

Describe the significance of the Reserve Bank of India.

32. What is soil erosion ? Write two human activities that lead to soil erosion.

Or

Why is sustainability important for development ? Explain.

33. Suggest and explain any five ways to reform Political Parties in India.

Or

Discuss the main policies of the Communist Party of India and the Communist Party of

India (Marxist).

SECTION –E (CASE BASED )

34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions.

Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation. History and fiction,
folklore and songs, and popular prints and symbols all played a part in the making of nationalism. Finally, in the
twentieth century, the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. Bankim
Chandra Chattopadhyay created the image, and in the 1870s, he wrote ‗Vande Mataram‘ as a hymn to the
motherland and as a symbol of unity and patriotism.

Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm,
composed, divine and spiritual. In late-nineteenth-century India, nationalists began recording folk tales sung by
bards, and they toured villages to gather folk songs and legends. These stories and songs connected people across
regions by highlighting shared cultural traditions and values, thereby fostering a sense of collective identity and
unity among Indians, regardless of their ethnic or regional backgrounds During the Swadeshi movement in
Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was designed, It represented the unity of different religious and
regional communities in India which had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India and a crescent
moon representing Hindus and Muslims. By 1921, Gandhiji designed the Swaraj flag, a tricolour (red, green and
white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian ideal of self-help,ideals of self-reliance,
self-help, and the promotion of hand-spun cloth (khadi).

1. How did the image of Bharat Mata become associated with Indian nationalism?
2. What role did folk tales and songs play in the development of nationalism in India?
3. What was the significance of the tricolour flag designed during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal?
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 4. What was the symbolism behind the Swaraj flag designed by Gandhiji in 1921?
35. Read the passage given below and answer the questions.

Population trends and dynamics can have an enormous effect on prospects for poverty reduction and sustainable
development. Poverty is influenced by – and influences – population dynamics, including population growth, age
structure, and rural-urban distribution. All of this has a critical impact on a country‘s development prospects and
prospects for raising living standards for the poor. Investments in better health, including reproductive health, are
essential for individual security and for reducing mortality and morbidity (the condition of suffering from a
disease or medical condition), which in turn improve a country‘s productivity and development prospects. in
classifying countries. Countries with per capita income of US $ 12,056 per annum and above in 2017, are called
rich countries and those with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income countries. India comes
in the category of low middle income countries because its per capita income in 2017 was just US $ 1820 per
annum.

Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are replenished by nature as in the case of
crops and plants. However, even these resources may be overused. For example, in the case of groundwater, if we
use more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource.

1.What do you mean by economic development? 1

2. Why India comes in the category of low middle income countries? 1

3.Why groundwater is the best example of renewable resources? 2

36. Read the passage given below and answer the questions.

Dam, structure built across a stream, a river, or an estuary to retain water. Dams are built to provide water for
human consumption, for irrigating arid and semiarid lands, or for use in industrial processes. They are used to
increase the amount of water available for generating hydroelectric power, to reduce peak discharge of floodwater
created by large storms or heavy snowmelt, or to increase the depth of water in a river in order to improve
navigation and allow barges and ships to travel more easily. Dams can also provide a lake for recreational
activities such as swimming, boating, and fishing. Many dams are built for more than one purpose; for example,
water in a single reservoir can be used for fishing, to generate hydroelectric power, and to support an irrigation
system. Water-control structures of this type are often designated multipurpose dams. Jawaharlal Nehru proudly
proclaimed the dams as the ‗temples of modern India‘ as it was felt that, the construction of large dams would
solve many problems of India.

1. What is a dam ?

2. Why do we call them multi-purpose projects ?

3. What is the value and importance of Multi-purpose projects ? Explain with examples.

4. Who proclaimed dams as the temple of Modern India and why?

SECTION –F MAP WORKS

37. 14. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the outline map of India. Identify them and write their
correct names on the line drawn near them.

A. The place associated with the Congress session of September 1920.

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 B .The place where a violent incident caused Mahatma Gandhi to call off the Non- Cooperation
Movement.

(b) On the same outline map of India label any three of the following with suitable symbols.

C. Noida Software Technology Park

D. A dam located in Mahanadi river

E. An airport in Chennai

F. Tarapur nuclear power plant

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 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3 ANSWERS

SECTION -A

1. (d) Heroism and Justice.

2. (a) To bring more unity among Hindus and Muslims.
3. (d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
4. (b) symbols of power and authority
5. (c) Industrialization
6. (b) agriculture
7. (c) Demand deposits
8. (a) Liberalisation
9. (b)- Statements 1, 2 and 3 are appropriate
10. (c) 33
11. (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
12. (b) All north-eastern states and parts of Gujarat
13. (d) Both assertion and reason are false

14.(d) All of the above

15. (b) India

16. (c) only (iv)

17. (a) A society dominated by men

18. (d). Law provides that equal wages should be paid for equal job for both men and women.

19. (a) Election Commission

20. (d). All of the above

SECTION -B

21. (i) Because European sailors found a sea route to Asia and successfully crossed the western ocean to
America.

(ii) The Portuguese and the Spanish conquest and colonialisa tion of America was decisively under way by the
mid-16th century.

or

Role and importance of Silk Routes in linking the world :

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(i) The Silk Routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural

links between distant parts of the world.

(ii) The name ‗Silk Routes‘ points to the importance of west-bound Chinese silk

cargoes along this route.

22. 1. Mandatory use of jute packaging has shown rise in the internal demand.

2. Stress is laid on diversification of jute products.

3. In 2005 National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing

productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and

enhancing the yield per hectare. (any two )

23. The horizontal distribution of power sharing

is important as -1) Distribution of power keeps different organs at the same level specifying their

functions.

(2) It create a system of checks and balance between different organs of the government.

24. 1) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government

(2) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states.

SECTION -C

25. The impact of the print culture on the French Revolution are:

(1) Print created the possibility of the wide circulation of ideas. Those people who disagreed with established
authorities could now print and circulate their ideas. Through the printed message, they could persuade people to
think differently.

(2) Print led to the faster mobilization of the masses towards the political ideas of freedom, liberty, justice and
other ideals for which French revolutionaries were fighting.

(3) Print also helped in highlighting the draconian decisions of the established political institutions like monarchs
and people belonging to higher estates. This led to the awakening of the people, and

they became a part of the revolution.

26. Three examples are :

a) Railways : The government has taken this up for the following reasons :

(i) Only the government can invest large sums of money on a public project with long gestation period.
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(ii) To ensure and provide transportation at cheap rates.

(b) Electric power generation by NTPC The government has taken this up to provide electricit y at a reasonable
rate to consumers.

(c) AIIMS : To provide quality health services at a reasonable rate was the main purpose of the government to
start this, besides medical education

Or

GDP is the market value of final goods and services produced in a country in a year.

1. The final value of goods and services produced in a sector is calculated.

2. Only the final value of a product or service is taken into account to avoid double counting. For

Rs. 10 and then baker after converting it into a bread sells to a consumer for Rs. 20. Here the final product is
bread, so Rs. 20 should be added not Rs. 8 + Rs. 10 + Rs. 20 = Rs. 38.

3. Similarly, the final value of products or services produced is calculated.

27. 1. This sector does not follow government rules and regulations.

2. Low salary; minimum wages not fixed and there is no regular employment.

3. There is no provision of overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness, etc.

4. There is no job security. People may be asked to leave without any reason, or when there is less
work or on the whim of the employer (any Three)

28. Due to following reasons our country (India) is called an agricultural country :

(1) Two-third of its population is engaged in agricultural activities (farming, rearing of animal, fisheries etc.).

(2) Agriculture is a primary activity which produces most of the food, consumed.

(3) It also produces raw-material for various industries based on agricultural production.

(4) Some agricultural products like tea, coffee, spices, etc., are an examples

SECTION -D

29. 1) The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to
reverse the injustices of the caste system. Yet caste has not disappeared from contemporary India. Some of the
older aspects of caste have persisted. Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe.

(2) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste. So, every candidate and
party needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community to win elections.

(3) The voters have strong attachment to political parties which is often stronger than their attachment to their
caste or community.

(4) People within the same caste or community have different interests depending on their economic condition.
Rich and poor or men and women from the same caste often vote very differently.
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30. (1) In mid-eighteenth century, there was no ‗nation-states‘ as we know them today.

(2) Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons whose rulers had their
autonomous territories.

(3) Even Eastern and Central Europe were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of which lived
diverse people.

(4) They did not see themselves as sharing a collective identity or a common culture. Different languages were
spoken. People belonged to different ethnic groups.

(5) The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary was a patchwork of many different regions and people
which included the Alpine regions — the Tyrol Austria and the Sudetenland as well as Bohemia where the
aristocracy was predominantly German-speaking.

(6) In Hungary, half of the population spoke Magyar and other local dialects.

(7) In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. Within the boundaries of the empire, a mass of subject peasant people
also lived.

Or

The main points of similarity between the unification of Germany and Italy:

(1) Both the countries (Italy and Germany) were divided into small states which lacked unity.

(2) Napoleon Bonaparte encouraged (indirectly) unification and nationalism in these two countries.

(3) The Vienna Congress (of 1815) again divided these countries into smaller states.

(4) Both suffered the reactionary policies of Austria.

(5) Efforts (by the revolutionaries) were made in 1830 C.E. and 1848 C.E. but failed.

31. The rural borrowers depend on informal sector of credit because:

(1) There is no need for collateral and complicated paper work. The moneylenders and landowners continue to
extend loans at high interest rates to defaulters even if previous loan is unpaid.

(2) They are hesitant and unsure about the functioning of the bank.

(3) They may not have access to banks in their village. Steps to encourage to take loans from formal

Sources .

(1) Set up more banks in the rural areas to save them from the moneylenders‘ high rate of interest and debt trap.

(2) Cheap and easily available credit should be provided for self-employment like small-scale industries or
business.

(3) Setting up of cooperatives and encourage Self-Help Groups.

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 Or

The significances of the Reserve Bank of India are discussed below:

(1) It issues currency notes on behalf of the central government.

(2) It supervises the functioning of formal source of loan.

(3) It monitors the banks and ensure that they maintain minimum reserves as per the guidelines of Central Bank.

(4) It also sees that banks give loans not just for profit making to traders but also to small borrowers, small
cultivators etc.

(5) Periodically banks have to submit information to RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what
interest rates etc.

32. Removal of top soil at a large scale from one place to another by some natural agents, such as wind, water
and air or human activities is known as soil erosion.

Causes of Soil Erosion:

(1) The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels as gullies. The soil becomes .unfit for
cultivation.

(2) Deforestation in particular, leads to the frequency of floods which cause extensive damage to our soils.

(3) In dry and sandy areas, wind is the main cause of soil erosion. Exposed, loose sandy soil (top soil) is easily
blown away by wind and deposited in other areas.

(4)Reckless felling of trees and overgrazing destroy the vegetation cover which provides protective cover to the
soil. It does not protect the soil now.

Or

The issue of sustainability is important for development because:

(1) With the passage of times the generation changes and with this change society wants more and more benefits
from the resources which are present in our nature.

(2) The increasing needs of people decaying things day by day and excessive use is making things worse. If the
speed of using resources remains same then the available resources will be exhausted soon and our coming
generation will stay deprived from all kind of needs.

(3) The growth and development should be done by keeping in mind the future usage.

(4) If resources will not be sustained for future then our natural resources will be exhausted after some time and
upcoming generations will not be able to take the advantage of these natural resources.

(5) This concept stresses the role of the environment as capital.

33. Political Reforms to Strengthen Democracy:

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(1) To prevent defection, the law has been made so that if any MLA/MP changes his/her party, he/she will lose
his/her seat in the legislature.

(2) It has been made mandatory by the Supreme Court that every candidate who is contesting an election, has to
file an affidavit giving details of his/ her property and criminal cases pending against him/ her.

(3) The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational
elections and file their Income Tax Returns.

(4) A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties. e.g., following constitution,
maintaining register of its members, holding internal elections.

(5) It should be made mandatory for the parties to give one-third of their party tickets to women candidates.

(6) In each party, there should be a quota for women in the decision- making bodies of the party.

Or

The main policies of the above given parties are the following:

(1) These parties are against the imperialism and capitalism.

(2) They want to establish democracy of the type in which there should be the government of the peasants and
labourers, i.e. proletariats.

(3) To nationalise all the banks, insurance companies and big industries.

(4) To provide free and compulsory education.

(5) To provide equal democratic right to women.

SECTION-E (CASE BASED )

34. 1. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay created the concept of Bharat Mata in his song "Vande Mataram" in the
1870s, which celebrated the motherland as a symbol of unity and patriotism.

2. Folk tales and songs played a significant role in the development of nationalism in India.These stories and
songs connected people across regions by highlighting shared cultural traditions and values, thereby fostering a
sense of collective identity and unity among Indians.

3. It represented the unity of different religious and regional communities in India.

4. Symbolizing Gandhiji's ideals of self-reliance, self-help, and the promotion of hand-spun cloth (khadi).

35. 1. The economic development is the process of improving economic well-being and quality of life of a nation,
region or local community.

2. India comes in the category of low middle income countries because its per capita income in 2017 was just US
$ 1820 per annum.

3. The groundwater is the best example of renewable resources because these resources are replenished by nature
as in the case of crops and plants.

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36.1.A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, often creating a reservoir,
lake or impoundment. It refers to the reservoir rather than the structure.

2.Dams are built for various purposes like irrigation, electricity generation, water supply for domestic and
industrial uses, flood control, recreation, fish breeding. Therefore, dams are called multi- purpose projects where
many uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another.

3.The Multi-purpose projects are very valuable in the development of the country. These projects are useful for
irrigation as well as for electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control,
recreation, inland navigation and fish-breeding. For example, the Bhakra-Nangal Project water is being used both
for hydel power production and irrigation. Similarly, the Hirakud project integrates conservation of water with
flood control.

4.Jawaharlal Nehru proudly proclaimed the dams as the ‗temples of modern India‘ as it was felt that, the
construction of large dams would solve many problems of India. It would result in the generation of electricity,
would provide water for irrigation to the farmers, supply water to household and industries. Main purpose of
launching multipurpose river projects in India was to combine development of agriculture and village economy
with rapid industrialisation and urbanisation.

SECTION-F MAP WORKS

37. .

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 CLASS-X
SUBJECT – SOCIAL SCIENCE
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 4

PREPARED BY: MR. NEERAJ KUMAR MEENA

TGT ( SOCIAL SCIENCE)
JNV, LAKHIMPUR, ASAAM
TIME : 3 HOURS M.M – 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:

9. This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.

10. Question paper is divided into five sections- Section A, B, C, D and E.
11. SECTION A- Question number 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
12. SECTION B- question number 21 to 24 are very short answer type questions. Each question carries 2
marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
13. SECTION C- question number 25 to 29 are short answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
Answer to these question should not exceed 60 words.
14. SECTION D- question number 30 to 33 are long answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
15. SECTION E- question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/ Source-based questions with 3 sub- questions.
Each question carries 4 marks.
16. SECTION F- question no 37 is map skill based question with two parts 37(i) History ( 2 marks ) and
37(ii) Geography ( 3 marks ) . This question carries total 5 marks
17. In addition to these, NOTE that internal choices are also given. Read the choices carefully.

SECTION:A

( Multiple choice questions ) (20×1= 20)

Q1) On which of the following issues did the Narmada Bachao Andolan first focus?

e) Benefits of irrigation to landless farmers

f) Environmental issues related to submergence of trees under the dam water
g) Rehabilitation of the people displaced due to construction of the dam
h) Economic issues of wastage of money for the construction of the dam.

Q2) Which one of the following was experienced during the great depression in 1929?
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 e) Increase in production and income.
f) Increase in employment and trade.
g) Increase in unemployment and a decrease in production.
h) Increase in export and unemployment

Q3) Which of the statement is an example of horizontal sharing of power?

e) Power-sharing between different organs of the government

f) Power-sharing between different political parties
g) Power-sharing between different levels of the government
h) Power Sharing between different states

Q4) What is the full form of UNDP?

e) United States National Development Project

f) Union National Global Development
g) United Nations Global Development Network
h) Union of Nations for Global Development

Q5) Forests and wastelands belonging to both government and private individuals
and communities are called ______
a) Reserved Forests
b) Protected Forests
c) Unclassed Forests
d) Private Forests
Q6) Who presided over the December 1929 Session of the Congress at Lahore and what was its demand?
e) Jawaharlal Nehru. The demand was for Poorna Swaraj or full independence
f) Subhas Chandra Bose and ―Poorna Swaraj‖ was its demand
g) Mahatma Gandhi. He asked for peaceful transfer of power by the British
h) Jawaharlal Nehru, the demand was for more representation of Indians in the Councils

Q7) Identify the distinguishing feature of the Federal system:

a) Power is distributed among the legislature, executive and judiciary

b) Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government

c) Government power is divided between different levels of government.

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 d) The national government gives some power to the provincial government

Q8) The share of tertiary sector to the GDP has increased but the contribution of

which sector to employment is highest at present?

a) Primary

b) Tertiary

c) Secondary

d) Both A and C

Q9) What is the ratio of the population of Northern Ireland between Catholics and Protestants? Catholics:
Protestants

a) 46: 54

b) 43 50

c) 44:53

d) 45 : 51

Q10) Which one of the following is not true regarding the impact of the First World War on India?

a) Defence expenditure resulted in increased taxes.

b) Forced recruitment of soldiers was introduced in the villages

c) Income tax was introduced and customs duties increased

d) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act

Q11) Information and communication technology has been a major factor for the

process of ____

a) Generation

b) Growth

c) Economy

d) Globalisation

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Q12)What is meant by the term ‗inclusive growth‘?

a) Growth that benefits only the rich

b) Growth that benefits all sections of society

c) Growth that benefits the poor

d) None of the above

Q13) Match the following with the appropriate reason people might borrow money for:

A) Auto rickshaw driver. I) To buy a house

B) A businessman whose factory has been closed ii) To buy a new shop for him

C) Small trader iii) To revive his business

D) Govt. servant iv) To buy a new vehicle

a) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i

b) A – ii, B – I, C – iii, D – iv

c) A – I, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv

d) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i

Q14) In dealing with social divisions which one of the following statements is not correct about democracy?
a) Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics.
b) In a democracy it is possible for communities to voice their grievances in a peaceful manner.
c) Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity.
d) people cannot express their views in Democracy.
Q15) The term ‗Galley‘ refers to
(a) A corridor or long passage where family portraits are hung
(b) A metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed
(c) A long, low built ship with one deck, propelled by oars and sails
(d) A scarecrow
Q16) Which of the following statements does not support the view of some .
historians that Print Culture was the basis for the French Revolution?

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(a) Print culture led to the spread of ideas of enlightened thinkers and encouraged questioning, critical reasoning
and rule of reason rather than tradition
(b) It led to a public culture of debate, discussion, new ideas of social revolution
(c) Print did not directly shape the people‘s minds but opened up the possibility of thinking differently
(d) It aroused hostility against monarchy, its mentality and mocked it
Q17) The condition for a political party to be recognized as a national party is:
(a) It must secure at least 6 percent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states.
(b) It must win at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Q18) Choose the correct statement.
(a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(d) None of these

DIRECTION: Mark the correct choice from Q19-20 from the following options
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Q19) Assertion(A): In Gujarat, the Sabarmati-basin farmers were agitated and almost caused a riot over the
higher priority given to water supply in urban areas, particularly during droughts.

Reason (R): Inter-state water disputes are also becoming less common with regard to sharing the costs and
benefits of the multi-purpose project.
Q20) Assertion: India has experienced some significant changes in the contribution to GDP by the primary
sector.
Reason: In terms of GDP, the service sector emerged as the largest producing sector in India

SECTION :B
(Very short answer type questions) ( 4×2=8)

Q21) A) Describe the reasons behind 1830s‘ reputation as Europe‘s ― great

economic hardship‖. Give justification

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 OR
B) What is Erasmus‘s concept of printing?
Q22) Democracy is more effective than its other alternatives.‖ Justify the
statement.
Q23) Name any two major fibre crops grown in India. Describe the conditions
required to grow these crops
Q24) Describe any two primary goals of French Revolutionaries.

SECTION : C
( Short answer type questions ) (5×3=15)

Q25) A) What are key differences between an open pit mine, a quarry and an
underground mine with shafts?
OR
B) Mention any three characteristics of ferrous group of minerals found in
India
Q26) How are local companies benefitted by collaborating with multinational
companies? Explain with examples.
Q27) Explain any three problems faced by Indian cotton weavers in the nineteenth
century.
Q28) How are some countries of the world facing the ‗challenge of expansion of
democracy‘? Explain
Q29) What is per capita income? Mention any two limitations of per capita income
as an indicator of development.

SECTION: D
( Long answer type questions ) (4×5=20)

Q30)A) ―Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country‘s development.‖
Assess the statement
OR

B) Why is there a pressing need to use renewable energy resources in India?

Explain any five reasons
Q31) A) Describe the role of industrialization in the economic development of a
region . Provide examples of how industrialization has impacted specific
areas in India.

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 OR
B) Explain reasons for the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India.
Q32) A) ―Gender division is not based on Biology but on social expectations and
stereotypes‖. Support the statement
OR
B) What was the Feminist Movement? Explain the political demands of the
Feminist Movement in India.
Q33) A) ―The print revolution had reformed the lives of people changing their
relationship to information and knowledge‖ . Analyse the statement.
OR
B) Describe the events of French Revolution which had influenced the people
belonging to other parts of Europe.

SECTION:E
( Case- based / Source- based questions ) (3×4=12)

Q34) Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
SOURCE:

In the early years after independence, India‘s leaders emphasized the need to build a democracy that was inclusive
and represented the interests of all its citizens. To achieve this, the Indian Constitution was drafted with a focus on
promoting social equality, political justice, and economic development. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
reflects these core values, stating that the country is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, committed
to ensuring justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity to all its people. This vision was grounded in the idea that the
Indian state should be committed to the welfare of every citizen, irrespective of caste, religion, gender, or
economic background.
One of the key features of the Indian democracy is its system of regular elections. Elections allow citizens to
exercise their right to vote and choose their representatives. This gives people the power to influence decisions
and hold their leaders accountable. However, in a country as diverse and large as India, elections are not just a
way to express political preferences, but also a method of managing diversity. They provide a platform for
different political parties, based on various ideologies and interests, to present their views and seek support.
India‘s electoral system, known as the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system, allows candidates who receive the
most votes in a constituency to win a seat in the legislature. Despite its effectiveness in ensuring stable
governments, the FPTP system has often been criticized for not accurately reflecting the diversity of votes,
especially in a country where political preferences can be highly fragmented.
Questions:
1) What is the primary purpose of regular elections in India? 1
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2) What does the Preamble of the Indian Constitution emphasize about the state? 1
3) How does India‘s electoral system manage its diversity? Explain briefly. 2

Q35) Read the extract carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Case Study: Impact of Climate on Agriculture in India

India‘s agricultural practices are deeply influenced by the country‘s diverse climate zones. The northern region
experiences a temperate climate, while the southern and western regions are characterized by tropical and arid
climates. This variation in climate plays a crucial role in determining the types of crops that can be grown in
different parts of the country.
In the northern plains, where the climate is mainly moderate, crops like wheat, rice, and sugarcane thrive. The
availability of irrigation from rivers like the Ganges and the Indus further supports agricultural activities. The
monsoon season in this region, which lasts from June to September, is crucial for the cultivation of crops.
However, erratic rainfall patterns and late monsoons can cause droughts, leading to crop failure.
In contrast, the western Rajasthan region experiences an arid climate, with very little rainfall throughout the year.
In this region, crops like millet, barley, and pulses are grown, which are more drought-resistant. These areas
depend on the irrigation provided by canals and the use of modern water conservation methods to sustain farming.
In the southern parts of India, the tropical climate allows the cultivation of crops such as rice, cotton, and coconut.
These areas receive heavy rainfall during the monsoon season, but they are also vulnerable to natural calamities
like cyclones, which can damage crops and disrupt agricultural productivity.
Despite the diverse climate conditions, agriculture in India faces several challenges, such as irregular rainfall,
water scarcity, and the impact of climate change. Climate change is leading to unpredictable weather patterns,
altered monsoon timings, and extreme temperatures, which are further straining the agricultural sector and
threatening food security in the country.

Questions:
1) What is the main factor that determines the types of crops grown in different
regions of India? 1
2) Name two crops grown in the northern plains of India. 1
3) How does climate change affect agriculture in India? 2

Q 36) Read the extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Source:

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The Indian economy has been transitioning from a primarily agricultural economy to one that increasingly
includes industrial and service sectors. Agriculture, once the backbone of the Indian economy, now contributes a
smaller share to the country‘s GDP. The service sector, especially information technology (IT) and business
outsourcing, has seen rapid growth, transforming India into a global player in these areas. However, the shift
towards a more diversified economy has brought challenges such as unemployment, poverty, and income
inequality, particularly in rural areas. Despite the growth of industries, a large proportion of the population still
depends on agriculture, which remains vulnerable to factors like climate change, inadequate infrastructure, and the
lack of modern technology.

The government has Introduced various policies to address these issues, including programs aimed at improving
agricultural productivity, providing employment opportunities in non-agricultural sectors, and boosting the
manufacturing and service industries. Additionally, rural areas are being targeted for infrastructural development
to reduce the disparity between urban and rural economies.
Questions:
1) What has been the trend in the contribution of agriculture to India‘s GDP over time?
1
2) Which sector has seen rapid growth in India, transforming it into a global player?
1
3) Explain the challenges faced by the Indian economy despite the shift towards industrialization and service
sectors. 2

SECTION :F
(Map skill based Questions) ( 2+3=5 )
Q37) i) Following features are marked by A and B on the given political map of
India . Identify these features with the help of the following information
given and write their correct names in the marked place.
a) The place where Gandhiji started the Satyagraha in favour of cotton mill workers.
b) The place where the Indian National Congress session of September 1920 was held.
ii) On the same political map of India, locate and label any three of the
following with suitable symbols:
a) Bhakhra Nangal Dam
b) Tarapur atomic power station
c) Kochi port
d) Noida software technology park

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199 | P a g e
 PREPARED BY- MR. NEERAJ KUMAR MEENA

TGT SOCIAL SCIENCE

JNV, LAKHIMPUR, ASSAM

Sample paper 4 Answer key

General Instructions:

1.You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of the
candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of the
candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully
2. ―Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its‘ leakage to public in any
manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future of millions of
candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News
Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.‖
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done according
to one‘s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and
religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or
knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks
be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to
understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the nature of
Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own expression and if
the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the first day,
to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is
any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant
for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‗X‖ be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct and no
marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for different
parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be
followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may
also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be retained
and the other answer scored out with a note ―Extra Question‖.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has
to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day and
evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are
given in Spot Guidelines).
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in the past:-
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 Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly and clearly
indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked as cross
(X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the
candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board.
Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed
meticulously and judiciously
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the ―Guidelines for spot
Evaluation‖ before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title page,
correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the prescribed
processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that
they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.

ANNUAL EXAMINATION SAMPLE PAPER

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 Marking Scheme

Class X -Social Science (087)

MM:80

S.No Values Point Page Marks

no
Section A 20×1=20
Multiple Choice Questions
1 B) Environmental issues related to submergence of trees under the dam water 1

2 C) Increase in unemployment and a decrease in production. 1

3 A)Power-sharing between different organs of the government 1

4 C) United Nations Development Programme 1

5 C) Unclassed Forests 1

6 A)Jawaharlal Nehru. The demand was for Poorna Swaraj or full independence 1

7 C) Government power is divided between different levels of government. 1

8 A)Primary 1

9 C) 44:53 1

10 D) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act 1

11 D) Globalisation 1

12 B) Growth that benefits all sections of society 1

13 A)A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i 1

14 D) people cannot express their views in Democracy. 1

15 B) A metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed 1

16 C) Print did not directly shape the people‘s minds but opened up the possibility of 1
thinking differently

17 C) Both of these 1

18 No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups 1

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 19 C) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1

20 D) Both assertion and reason are false. 1

Section B 4×2=8

Very short answer type questions

21 A)Describe the reasons behind 1830s‘ reputation as Europe‘s ― great Economic 2×1=2
hardship‖. Give justification
The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship or crisis in Europe.
The following are the arguments to support this statement :
(i) There was an enormous increase in population all over Europe. As a result
unemployment became a common feature in most of the countries.
(ii) Migration of rural people to the cities further made the situation worse.
(iii) Due to population, the demand of foods increased. It led to the rise of food prices
( Any two points to be explained)
OR
B) What is Erasmus‘s concept of printing?
Erasmus‘s idea of the printed book:
1) He was critical of the print medium. He believed that though some books do provide
worthwhile knowledge others are simply a bane for scholarship. Erasmus accused
printers of publishing books that were not mere trifling but ―stupid slanderous
scandalous raving irreligious and seditious‖.
2)He also felt that large numbers of such books reduce the value of the quality
writings.
( Any two points to be explained)

22 Democracy is more effective than its other alternatives.‖ Justify the statement. 2×1=2
Democracy is more effective than its other alternatives:
(i)Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
(ii) It enhances the dignity of the individual. (iii) It also improves the quality of
decision-making.
(iv) It provides a method to resolve conflicts.
(v) It gives room to correct mistakes.
(vi) Democratic government is a legitimate government.
(vii) Democracy‘s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot
be ignored.
(Any two points to be explained)
23 Name any two major fibre crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required 2×1=2
to grow these crops
Two major fiber crops grown in India are cotton and jute, and the conditions required
to grow them are:
 Cotton
Grows well in the drier parts of the Deccan plateau in black cotton soil. It
requires:
1)High temperatures
2)Light rainfall or irrigation
3)Bright sunshine
 Jute
Grows well in well-drained, fertile soils in floodplains. It requires:
1)High temperatures
2)Heavy rainfall

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 3)Humid climate

24 Describe any two primary goals of French Revolutionaries. 2×1=2

Two primary goals of the French revolutionaries were to establish a representative
government and to promote liberty and equality:
 Establish a representative government

The revolutionaries wanted to overthrow the absolute monarchy and replace it

with a government where power was held by elected representatives.

 Promote liberty and equality

The revolutionaries wanted to promote liberty, equality, and fraternity for all
citizens, regardless of their social status. They adopted the slogan "Liberté,
Égalité, Fraternité" (Liberty, Equality, Fraternity).

Section C 5×3=15

Short answer type questions

25 A) What are key differences between an open pit mine, a quarry and an 3×1=3
underground mine with shafts?

Open pit mining

1. Done for those minerals which lie close to the surface of the earth
2. Used where commercially useful minerals are found near the surface.
3. Extracted using Earth moving machinery
Quarry
1. Used for mining minerals at shallow depths
2. Used for extracting building materials like stone and limestone.
3. Extracted using Earth moving machinery
Underground mining with shaft
1. Minerals which lie at great depths below the surface of the earth
2. Used where the minerals occurs as veins in hard rock deep below the surface of the
earth
3. Extracted using elevators which can carry people and mineral extracting equipment
deep into areas where minerals are available
OR
B) Mention any three characteristics of ferrous group of minerals found in
India.
Ferrous minerals are those metallic minerals that contain iron. Iron ore and
manganese are the examples of ferrous minerals.
- Characteristics:

1. They provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.

2. India exports substantial quantities of ferrous minerals after meeting her
internal demands.
3. Ferrous minerals account for about three fourths of the total value of the
production of metallic minerals

(Any other characteristics also may be considered)

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 26 How are local companies benefitted by collaborating with multinational 3×1=3
companies? Explain with examples
Benefits of Local Company by collaborating with MNC:
(i) MNCs provide money for additional investments like buying new machines
for faster production.
(ii) MNCs bring with them the latest technology for production.
(iii) They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised
their production
(iv) Some have gained from successful collaborations with foreign
companies.
(Any three to be explained)

27 Explain any three problems faced by Indian cotton weavers in the nineteenth century. 3×1=3
Indian cotton weavers faced many problems in 19 th century :
 Their export collapsed.
 The local market share being flooded by Manchester imports which were
produced by machines were cheap. Being cheap they attracted the buyers and
Indian textile could not compete with them.
 By 1860, Indian weavers faced a new problem. They could not get sufficient
supply of raw cotton of good quality. This happened because a civil war had
broken out in America and cotton supplies from the US to Britain were cut off
and Britain turned to India. As raw cotton from India increased, the price of raw
cotton shot up. Indian weavers were forced to buy raw cotton at a very high
price. So weaving did not remain profitable.
 Factories in India also produced goods at a mass scale which flooded the Indian
markets. Thus, the Indian weavers faced a tough time and it became difficult to
survive.
( Any three points to be explained)
28 How are some countries of the world facing the ‗challenge of expansion of 3×1=3
democracy‘? Explain.
Democracy is a form of government in which the people have the right to choose their
government and the government is accountable to these people. It is a form of
government by the people, for the people and of the people.
Some countries face the foundational challenge of establishing a democracy. The main
challenge is bringing down the existing nondemocratic regime like monarchy, tyranny,
socialism, authoritarianism etc.
 The main goal of establishing a democracy is keeping the military away from
controlling the governance in the country, making the state sovereign, providing
political freedom and establishing legal equality with the rule of law. The
principles of democracy also apply to private organizations.
 ‗Majority rule‘ is the dominant decision making method in a democratic form of
government. It gives all the voters full capacity to participate freely in the life
of their society.
 The foundational challenges of democracy faced by some countries also include
establishing a civilian control on all governments. Institutions by holding
proper elections and recognising people‘s choice and opportunity to change
rulers and also recognize their will.
For eg: Nepal had monarchy until recent times but it has now successfully abolished
this older nondemocratic regime and adopted democracy
29 What is per capita income? Mention any two limitations of per capita income as 3×1=3
an indicator of development.
Per capita income (PCI) is a measure of the average income earned per person in a
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 specific area or country. It‘s calculated by dividing the total income of an area by its
population.
The following are the limitations of per capita income:

1)The rise in per capita income is due to a rise in prices. An increase in physical output
has no contribution, therefore, it is not a reliable index of economic development.
2)The rich become richer and the poor become poorer because of the distribution of the
per capita.
3)The non-marketed goods and services are not taken into consideration while
calculating the per capita.
(Any other limitations can also be included)

Section D 4×5=20

Long answer type questions

30 A) ―Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country‘s development.‖ 5×1=5
Assess the statement
(i) People will earn more income when cheap and affordable credit will be
provided to them that will promote them to invest more in their work.
(ii) People would be able to avail loan for a variety of needs. It will protect
them from being exploited by informal sector.
(iii) As people get the cheap credit, they will invest more in agriculture, business
and small scale industries which will enhance the country‘s GDP.
(iv) More investment will automatically accelerate the economic development
of a country.
(v) Cheap credit will protect them from debt-trap and they will be able to
contribute in economic development of the country.
OR
B) Why is there a pressing need to use renewable energy resources in India?
Explain any five reasons.
Need to use renewable energy resources are:
1) The glowing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming
increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal oil and gas.
2) Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised
uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future.
3) Has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
4) Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems.
5) Hence there is a pressing need to use renewable energy sources like solar
energy wind tide biomass and energy from waste material.
(Any other needs can also be included)

31 A) Describe the role of industrialization in the economic development of a 5×1=5

region . Provide examples of how industrialization has impacted specific
areas in India.
Industrialization has had a significant impact on India‘s economy, including:
Job creation
Industrialization has created a large number of jobs in both small and large scale
industries. This has helped to reduce unemployment rates and increase community
income.
Economic growth
Industrialization has contributed to India‘s GDP growth, making it one of the world‘s
largest economies.

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 Urbanization
The growth of industries has led to rapid urbanization, with cities and towns
expanding.
Technological progress
Industrialization has brought technological progress to India.
Export quality
Industrialization has increased the quality of India‘s exports, which has brought in
more revenue for the country.
Balance of payments
Industrialization has helped to improve India‘s balance of payments through import
substitution and exports.
Agriculture
Industrialization has stimulated growth in other sectors, such as agriculture, through
increased mechanization.
Example of areas-
 Impact of industrialisation on working conditions of people
 Impact of industrialisation on agriculture and craft sectors.
 Impacts of industrialisation on social and mental aspects of people.

OR

B) Explain reasons for the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India.
Tertiary sector has become important in India because :
(i) Basic services like hospitals, education, post and telegraph, courts, etc. are
the responsibility of the government in developing countries.
(ii) Demand for services such as transport, trade, storage will increase with the
development of primary and secondary sectors.
(iii) Demand for tourism, shopping, private schools, private hospitals, etc.
increases with the increase in the level of income.
(iv) Rapid growth of services sector also benefitted from external demand such
as software industry and call centre services.
(v) Liberalisation of financial sector provided an environment for faster growth
of financial services.

32 A) ―Gender division is not based on Biology but on social expectations and 5×1=5
stereotypes‖. Support the statement

i) Gender division is a form of hierarchical social division based on social

expectation and stereotypes.
ii) Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of
women is housework and bringing up children.
iii) There is a sexual division of labour in most families where women do all
the household chores and men work outside the home.
iv) Majority of women do some paid work in addition to domestic labour both
in rural and Urban areas but work is not valued and does not get
recognition.
v) Women constitute half of the humanity their role in public life especially
politics is minimal in most societies.
vi) In our country women still lag behind men as ours is still a male-dominated
patriarchal society. Women face disadvantage discrimination and oppression
in various ways.

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 (Any five can be explained)

OR

B) What was the Feminist Movement? Explain the political demands of the
Feminist Movement in India.
These are the movements which are organised by various women organisations to
create equality for women in personal and family life. Feminist Movement was a
radical movement which demanded equality for women in personal and family life also
apart from politics, society and educational field.
 These feminist movements demand equal rights for women in all spheres of
life.
 There were agitations in different countries for the extension of voting rights to
women.
 The agitations demanded enhancing the political and legal status of women.
 The movements also demanded in improving the educational and career
opportunities for the women

33 A) ―The print revolution had reformed the lives of people changing their 5×1=5
relationship to information and knowledge‖ . Analyse the statement.
Yes, the print revolution changed people‘s relationship to information and knowledge
in many ways:
New reading culture
The print revolution created a new reading public and a culture of reading. It
transformed the hearing public into a reading public.
Increased access to knowledge
The print revolution made the ideas of scientists and philosophers more accessible to
the common people.
Freedom of opinion
The print revolution encouraged debates and discussions on written texts and freedom
of opinion on important issues.
New ways of thinking
The print revolution influenced people‘s perceptions and opened up new ways of
looking at things.
Impact on society
The print revolution fostered a culture driven by debate, sharing ideas, and discussion.
It was a boon for free thinkers and revolutionaries, who could now disseminate their
ideas freely without any censorship.
In this way , The print revolution was the shift from hand printing to mechanical
printing. It was not just a development, a new way of producing books, but it
transformed the lives of people.

OR

B) Describe the events of French Revolution which had influenced the people
belonging to other parts of Europe.

 The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French

Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute
monarch.
 When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined

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 to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized
the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French
people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They
were given the tri-colour flag, the three colours representing liberty,
equality and fraternity.

French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and
renamed the National Assembly.
2. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all
in the name of the nation.
3. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated
uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
4. Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of
weights and measures was adopted.
5. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and
written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the
French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help
them to become nations.

34 1)What is the primary purpose of regular elections in India?

The primary purpose of regular elections in India is to allow citizens to exercise their
right to vote and choose their representatives, giving them the power to influence
decisions and hold leaders accountable.

2) What does the Preamble of the Indian Constitution emphasize about the state?
The Preamble emphasizes that India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic
republic committed to ensuring justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for all its people.

3) How does India‘s electoral system manage its diversity? Explain briefly.
India‘s electoral system manages its diversity by providing a platform for various
political parties, based on different ideologies and interests, to present their views and
seek support from the people. Elections thus act as a way to reflect the diverse political
preferences of the population and ensure representation in the legislature.

Section E 3×4=12

Case based questions

35 1) What is the main factor that determines the types of crops grown in different 1+1+2=4
regions of India?
The climate of the region is the main factor that determines the types of crops grown.

2) Name two crops grown in the northern plains of India.

Wheat and rice.

3) How does climate change affect agriculture in India?

Climate change affects agriculture in India by causing unpredictable weather patterns,
altering monsoon timings, and leading to extreme temperatures. This results in crop
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 failures, water scarcity, and reduced agricultural productivity, threatening food security.
36 1) What has been the trend in the contribution of agriculture to India‘s GDP over 1+1+2=4
time?
The contribution of agriculture to India‘s GDP has decreased over time as the industrial
and service sectors have grown.

2) Which sector has seen rapid growth in India, transforming it into a global
player?
The service sector, particularly information technology (IT) and business outsourcing,
has seen rapid growth in India.

3) Explain the challenges faced by the Indian economy despite the shift towards
industrialization and service sectors.
Despite the growth in industrial and service sectors, the Indian economy faces
challenges such as unemployment, poverty, and income inequality, especially in rural
areas. A large part of the population still relies on agriculture, which is vulnerable to
climate change, lack of modern technology, and poor infrastructure. These issues create
disparities between rural and urban economies.

Section F 2+3=5

Map based questions

37 i) Following features are marked by A and B on the given political map of
India . Identify these features with the help of the following information
given and write their correct names in the marked place.

a) The place where Gandhiji started the Satyagraha in favour of cotton mill 1
workers.
b) The place where the Indian National Congress session of September 1920 1
was held.
( PLEASE SEE THE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)

ii) On the same political map of India, locate and label any three of the
following with suitable symbols:
a) Bhakhra Nangal Dam 3×1=3
b) Tarapur atomic power station
c) Kochi port
d) Noida software technology park
(PLEASE SEE THE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)

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211 | P a g e
 SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 5
CLASS X – 2024-25

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History(2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in
few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having
visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In
addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION A
MCQs (20x1=20)

1. Why did nationalists in late-nineteenth-century India focus on recording and preserving 1

folklore?

(A) To create new forms of artistic expression that reflected modern India.
(B) To restore a sense of pride in traditional culture and national identity
(C) To use folklore as a tool for economic development and modernization.
(D) To promote a uniform culture that could be adopted across all Indian regions.

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 2. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following 1
question?

What is the significance of 43 percent land under plains?

(A) It provides facilities for agriculture and industry.
(B) It provides facilities for tourism.
(C) It ensures perennial flow of some river.
(D) It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 2.
Transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive relationship
between …………………………………………. Choose the correct option from below.
(A) Nature and technology
(B) Nature, technology, and institutions
(C) Nature and institutions
(D) Environment and human beings

3. Read the data given below and answer the question. 1

State Infant mortality rate per 1000live Literacy rate%

births(2018) (2017-18)

A 30 82

B 7 94

As per the data given above, why state B has a low infant mortality rate?
(A) It has high per capita income.
(B) It has better infrastructure than state A
(C) It has good teachers and schools.
(D) It has health care and education for all.

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 4. Match list I and II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the lists: 1

List I List II
1. Reserved Forests a. North Eastern States

2. Protected Forests b. Andhra Pradesh

3. Unclassed Forests c. Haryana

Options:

(A) 1 (a), 2 (b), 3 (c)

(B) 1 (c), 2 (b), 3 (a)
(C) 1 (a), 2 (c), 3 (b)
(D) 1 (b), 2 (c), 3 (a)

5. Conservation of forest is a key to the survival of human mankind. Some of the 1

practices undertaken in India in this direction is Joint Forest Management. Identify
the correct information related to Joint Forest Management.

1. It involves local communities in the management and restoration of degraded forests.

2. The programme has been in formal existence since 1980.
3. Jharkhand passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management.

4. The members of local village communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like non
timber forest producers.

Options:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only

6. The people of Belgium have successfully dealt with their country‘s power sharing 1
problem and is leading a happy and peaceful life. Which route to federation have
they opted for?
(A) Coming together.
(B) Cooperative Federation
(C) Holding Together
(D) Competitive Federation

7. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes below in the 1
lists:
List I List II
1. Ethnic a. Either only one or two level government
2.Majoritrianism b. a violent conflict opposing groups within a country
3.Civil war c. Belief that the majority community should be able to rule a
country
4.Unitary system d. a social division based on culture

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 (A) 1.d), 2.a), 3. c), 4. b)
(B) 1.b), 2.d), 3. a), 4. c)
(C) 1.c), 2.a), 3. b), 4. d)
(D) 1.d), 2.c), 3. b), 4. a)

8. Mr. X has taken credit to make candles during the festive season. Choose the correct options 1
that defines the importance of credit from the given options:
i. it plays a vital and positive role in meeting his target and accelerating his income
ii. the credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses of production
iii. the credit helps him complete the production on time
iv. it helps him in exercising restraint and get into the habit of taking more credit

(A) Only 4
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2

9. The North-eastern States of India like Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradeshenjoys special 1
status in the Constitution of India because:
(A) The area has lush green forests.
(B) Literacy rates are very high.
(C) Due to their social and historical circumstances.
(D) As the people speak lot of different languages

10. Napoleon in the given picture is depicted as a postman. What do each letter falling from his 1
bag represent?

(A) Number of wars he fought

(B) Letters he posted to the monarchs
(C) Territories lost by him
(D) Areas conquered by him

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 Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieuof Q.10
Q. Which of the following symbol does the ―broken chains ―stand for?
(A) Freedom.
(B) Strength
(C) Willingness to make peace.
(D) Heroism

11. Which of the following factors significantly contribute to the process of globalisation? Select 1
the correct options.
1. Expansion of Multinational Corporations (MNCs).
2. Advancements in information and communication technology.
3. Nationalisation and trade barriers.
4. Cross-border movement of people for jobs and education.
Options:
(A) Statements 1 and 2 are appropriate.
(B) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are appropriate.
(C) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are appropriate
(D) Only statement 3 is appropriate

Options:
(A) Statements 1 and 2 are appropriate.
(B) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are appropriate.
(C) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are appropriate
(D) Only statement 3 is appropriate

12. Which of the following statements about Federalism in the Indian Constitution arecorrect? 1
1. India is declared as a Union of States.
2. Power-sharing between the Union and State governments is a basic feature.
3. The power-sharing arrangement is easy to change.
4. Changes in power-sharing require a 1/3rd majority in both houses of Parliament.

Options
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

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 13. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order leading up to the Civil 1
Disobedience Movement:
1. Boycott of the Simon Commission
2. Poorna Swaraj resolution passed
3. Letter with 11 demands sent to Viceroy Irwin
4. Salt March

Options:

(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4

14. In Indian Economy, the three sectors (Primary, Secondary and Tertiary) are interdependent. 1
However, the share of employment in the primary sector remains high. Most appropriate
explanation for this could be:
I. Government policies preferentially treat the primary sector
II. Indian economy is largely agrarian and majority of population is dependent on
agricultur
III. Inadequate service sector jobs force people to continue working in primary sectors
IV. Primary sector provides raw material for the secondary and tertiary sector.

Choose the correct option

(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only III and IV are true
(D) All are true

15 Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer 1
Statement I. By the 1870s, caricatures and cartoons were being published in Indian journals
and newspapers, commenting on social and political issues
Statement II: Some caricatures praised the educated Indians‘ fascination with Western
tastes and clothes, while others were looking forward to social change.
(A) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct.
(C) Both (I) & (II) are incorrect.
(D) Both (I) & (II) are correct

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 16. The frequent stories of remind us that no system is entirely without 1
shortcomings, even democracies. Identify the issue being referred to from the options
given.
(A) Poverty
(B) Black Marketing
(C) Terrorism
(D) Corruption

17. Which of the following is the main factor that led to the rise of multiple political parties 1
at the same level in India?
(A) A federal political system
(B) Varied economic conditions.
(C) Linguistic and regional diversity
(D) Low levels of literacy and political awareness

18 The result of greater foreign investment and greater foreign trade has been 1
across countries. Find the correct option from below.

(A) greater bifurcation of production and markets

(B) greater segregation of production and markets
(C) greater differentiation of production and markets
(D) greater integration of production and markets

19 Which of the following is the true meaning of 'Equal treatment of women' as a 1

necessary ingredient of a democratic society?
(A) Women are always treated with respect and dignity.
(B) It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights.
(C) Most societies across the world are now women dominated.
(D) Women are now treated as equals in the political arena.

20 Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer. 1
Statement I: A communal mindset can lead to efforts to secure political influence for a
specific religious group.

Statement II: Members of the majority community may seek to create a separate political
entity as a response to such dynamics.
(A) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect.
(B) Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
(C) Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
(D) Both (I) & (II) are correct

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 SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (4x2=8)

21 ―Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand‖. Justify 2
your answer with examples.

22 (A) ‗The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre -modern trade and cultural links 2
between distant parts of the world. ‘Substantiate the statement with illustrations.
OR
(B) "New crops can significantly impact survival and well-being." Provide evidence to
support this statement.

23 India with vast population and diversity represents a classic example of power sharing 2
that exemplifies the very spirit of democracy. Justify the statement.
24 "Local Government is an effective way to uphold the democratic principle of 2
decentralization." Justify this statement with valid points.

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (5x3=15)
25 ‗By the seventeenth century, as urban culture bloomed in China, the uses of print 3
diversified‘. Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.

26 (A) Mr.Y from a city in India visits a rural area and finds five people working in a small 3
agricultural farm. More than two people are not required to work in the farm and
removing the other three will not affect production. How can one solve this problem of
underemployment in rural areas? Explain.

OR
(B) Sunil and Raman did their graduation from the same college. Sunil got employed in an
unorganised sector and was not satisfied whereas Raman got employed in an organised
sector and was happy and satisfied. Identify three reasons for Sunil‘s dissatisfaction as
compared to Raman.

27 Define agricultural term used for cultivation of fruits and vegetables? Write its features 3
with reference to India.

28 Women empowerment has greatly improved their status in society over the years. Give any 3
three examples to prove the statement.

29 Over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the three sectors 3
has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary sector. As a result, in the year 2013-
14, the tertiary sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India replacing the
primary sector. Why do you think tertiary sector has become so popular in India? Support
your answer giving any 3 reasons

SECTION D

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 LONG ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (4X5=20)

30 (A)Analyse the measures adopted to prevent soil erosion caused due to natural forces. 5
OR
(B) ‗"Mohan recently bought a farm and wants to grow crops such as sugarcane, cotton,
and jowar. He is unfamiliar with the local soil types and climatic conditions.‖ Help
him identify the appropriate soil type and its properties for successful farming.

31 (A) ‗Romanticism, a cultural movement sought to develop a particular form of 5

nationalist sentiment.‘ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
(B) ‗The Treaty of Vienna depicted the spirit of conservatism.‘ Substantiate the
statement with key features of the treaty.
32 (A)Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.‘ Analyse the statement with 5
relevant points.

OR
(B)"Political parties today face several challenges that impact their democratic
functioning." Justify this statement.

33 (A) Miss X wants to start a savoury food store in her village. She wants to supplement her 5
income to raise the standard of living of her family. How, do you think, self-help
groups can help, support your answer with reasons?

OR
(B) Money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need for double
coincidence of wants. Justify the statement highlighting the significance of the
modern form of money in India.

SECTION E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (3X4=12)
34 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 1+2+
Emboldened with this success, Gandhi ji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide 1

Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919). This Act had been hurriedly
passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the
Indian members. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political
activities, and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws,
which would start with a hartal on 6 April.
i. Why did the British introduce the Rowlatt Act?
ii. Examine the effect of this Act on Indians.
iii. How did Mahatma Gandhi respond to the Rowlatt Act? Provide one reason for
his reaction.

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 35 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 1+1+
2
Given the abundance and renewability of water, it is difficult to imagine that we may
suffer from water scarcity. The moment we speak of water shortages; we
immediately associate it with regions having low rainfall or those that are drought
prone. We instantaneously visualise the deserts of Rajasthan and women
balancing many ‗matkas‘ (earthen pots) used for collecting and storing water and
travelling long distances to get water. True, the availability of water resources varies
over space and time, mainly due to the variations in seasonal and annual
precipitation, but water scarcity in most cases is caused by over-exploitation,
excessive use and unequal access to water among different social groups.

i. Give any one reason that could contribute to water scarcity in the future?
ii. Why a resident of Rajasthan would choose to install a submersible water pump?
iii. Why is water conservation crucial? Discuss any one key for effective water
management and conservation.

36 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 1+2+1
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT REPORT Once it is realised that even though the level of
income is important, yet it is an inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin
to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not
be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things. Health and
education indicators, such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Punjab, are
among them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be
widely used along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human
Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational
levels of the people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to
look at certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from Human Development
Report 2006.

i. On what basis the UNDP compares countries on Human Development?

ii. Explain Human development briefly.
iii. Mention other aspects that should be considered in measuring human development.

SECTION F
MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
37.a Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them 1+1
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where the Peasant Satyagraha took place.
B. Indian National congress session was held at this place in Sept. 1920.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question 37 (a).
A. Name the place where the Peasant Satyagraha took place
B. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in Sept1920.

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 37.b On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable 1+1
symbols. +1
i. A software Technology Park in Maharashtra.
ii. A coal mine in Jharkhand.
iii. The tallest dam in India.
iv. A seaport located in West Bengal.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieuof Q.
No. 37 (b)
Answer any three of the following.
i Name the tallest dam built in India. ii
Name a seaport in west Bengal.
iii Name the coal mine in Jharkhand.
iv Name the Software Technology Park present in the state of Maharashtra

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 MARKING SCHEME
CLASS X–2024-25
Sample paper 5 Answer key
Time Allowed: 3hrs Max. Marks:80

SECTION A
MCQs (20X1=20)

1. Ans- (B) To restore a sense of pride in traditional culture and national identity 1

2. Ans—(A)- It provides facilities for agriculture and industry 1

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieuof Q. No.
2.
(A) Ans—(B)- Nature, technology, and institutions

3. Ans-(D)- It has health care and education for all. 1

4. Ans—(D)- 1 (b), 2 (c), 3 (a) 1

5. Ans—(C)- 1 and 4 only 1

6. Ans-(C)- Holding Together 1

7. Ans- (D)- 1.d), 2.c), 3. b), 4. a) 1

8. Ans—(C)- 1, 2 and 3 1

9. Ans- (C)- Due to their social and historical circumstances 1

10. Ans—(C)- Territories lost by him 1

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No.
10

Ans—(A) Freedom.

11. Ans—(A)- Statements 1 and 2 are appropriate. 1

12. Ans—(A)- 1 and 2 1

13. Ans - (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 1

14. Ans—(B)- Only II and III are true 1

15 Ans—(A)- Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect. 1

16. Ans.—(D) - Corruption 1

17. Ans—(C)- linguistic and regional diversity 1

18 Ans—(D)- greater integration of production and markets 1

19 Ans—(B)- It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights. 1

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 20 Ans—(A)- Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect 1

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (4x2=8)

21 ―Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand‖. Justify 2
your answer with examples.
Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move hand in hand. For
instance, the agro-industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its
productivity. They depend on the latter for raw materials and sell their products such as
irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and
tools, etc. to the farmers.

22 Ans- The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links 2
between distant parts of the world. There were several silk routes, over land and by sea that
brought together regions of Asia, and linked Asia with Europe and northern Africa. They
existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the 15th century. The name
‗silk routes‘ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route.
1. Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia also travelled the same
route. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
2. Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Buddhism from India spread in several
directions through intersecting points on the silk routes. Early Christian missionaries
travelled this route to reach Asia and Muslim preachers took the same route a few centuries
later. (any 1 illustration)
OR
Ans—1. Europe‘s poor began to eat better and live longer with the introduction of the
humble potato.
2. Ireland‘s poorest peasants became so dependent on potatoes that when disease destroyed
the potato crop in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands died of starvation. Thus new crops
can significantly impact survival and well-being.

23 Ans. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing 2
power with those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have
a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed. A legitimate government is one
where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system.

24 Ans When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local 2
government, it is called decentralisation. The basic idea behind
decentralisation is that there are many problems and issues which are best settled at the local
level.
1. People have better knowledge of problems in their localities.
2. They also have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things
more efficiently.
3. Besides, at the local level it is possible for the people to directly participate in
decision making.

234 | P a g e
 4. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Local government is the best
way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self- government, or
self-rule. Local Government is thus an effective way to uphold the democratic principle of
decentralization. (Any two points)

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (5x3=15)

25 1. Print was no longer used just by scholar officials. Merchants used print in their 3
everyday life, as they collected trade information.
2. Reading increasingly became a leisure activity. The new readership preferred fictional
narratives, poetry, autobiographies, anthologies of literary masterpieces, and romantic
plays.
3. Rich women began to read, and many women began publishing their poetry and plays.
Wives of scholar-officials published their works and courtesans wrote about their lives.

26 If more men are working than required is called as disguised unemployment. In this case the 3
other three who are not required should take up different jobs that would increase the total
family income. For example, they can be employed in projects like building of dams,
canals or roads in the village.

1. Government can invest some money in transportation and storage of crops or make
better rural roads so that mini-trucks reach everywhere.

2. Promotion of industries like setting up a dal mill, opening a cold storage could give an
opportunity for farmers to store their products like potatoes and onions and sell them
when the price is good.

3. In villages near forest areas, they can start honey collection centres where farmers can
come and sell wild honey. It is also possible to set up industries that process vegetables
and agricultural produce like potato, sweet potato, rice, wheat, tomato, fruits, which
can be sold in outside markets and thus generate employment.

4. Government can plan to give loans at lower rates of interest to people in rural areas to
start something new thereby solving problems of underemployment.
(Any 3 points)
OR

1. Raman was happy because in the organised sector they enjoy security of employment.
They are expected to work only a fixed number of hours. If they work more, they have
to be paid overtime by the employer. They also get several other benefits from their
employers as they get paid leave, payment during holidays, provident fund, gratuity
etc. They are supposed to get medical benefits, and, under the laws, the factory
manager must ensure facilities like drinking water and a safe working environment.
When they retire, these workers get pensions as well.
2. Whereas Sunil was unhappy because the unorganised sector is characterised by small
and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. There are
rules and regulations, but these are not followed. Jobs here are low-paid and often not
regular. There is no provision for overtime, paid

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 leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc. Employment is not secure. People can be
asked to leave without any reason. When there is less work, such as during some
seasons, some people may be asked to leave.
3. A lot also depends on the whims of the employer. This sector includes many people
who are employed on their own doing small jobs such as selling on the street or doing
repair work.

27 Horticulture is a term used for the cultivation of fruits and vegetables. Some 3
features are—
1. India is one of the major producers of fruits and vegetables in the world
2. It is a producer of tropical and temperate fruits.
3. India produces 13% of the world‘s vegetables.

28 Women empowerment has taken leaps and bounds from yesteryears to the present. We 3
can see the following developments:
a. Passing of Women Reservation Bill, 2023
b. Improved literacy rates
c. Women have equal rights as men on their father‘s property.
d. Women could be seen in all the fields of development- science, economy,
education, media, corporate etc.
(Any other point can be considered)

29 Ans. 3
1. In any country several services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and
telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal
corporations, defence, transport, banks, insurance companies, etc. are required, these can
be considered as basic services. In a developing country the government must take
responsibility for the provision of these services.
2. The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services
such as transport, trade, storage and the like, as we have already seen. Greater the
development of the primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand for such
services.
3. As income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services
like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional training
etc. You can see this change quite sharply in cities, especially in big cities.
4. Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as those based on information
and communication technology have become important and essential. The production of
these services has been rising rapidly.
Nevertheless, the service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one
end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated
workers. At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services
such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc. These people barely
manage to earn a living and yet they perform these services because no alternative
opportunities for work are available to them. Hence, only a part of this sector is growing in
importance.
( Any THREE points)

SECTION D
LONG ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (4x5=20)

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 30 There are various measures which can be adopted to prevent soil erosion caused due to 2.5
natural forces. +2.5
1. Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
This is called contour ploughing.
2. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming.
3. Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the
crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip cropping.
4. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works in a similar way. Rows of such trees
are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed significantly to the
stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
5. Natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion.
(Any other relevant
point)

OR
Black soil is ideal for growing cotton, jowar and sugarcane.
1. This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap (Basalt) region spread over northwest
Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows.
2. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east direction along the Godavari and the
Krishna valleys.
3. The black soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material. They are well-
known for their capacity to hold moisture.
4. In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium,
potash and lime
5. These soils are generally poor in phosphoric contents
6. They develop deep cracks during hot weather, which helps in the proper
aeration of the soil.
7. These soils are sticky when wet and difficult to work on unless tilled immediately
after the first shower or during the pre-monsoon period.
(Any five points or relevant point)

31 The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and territorial 5
expansion. Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation: art and
poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings.
1. Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science
and focused instead on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings. Their effort was to
create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a
nation.
2. Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744- 1803)
claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people –
das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of
the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. So collecting and recording these forms of
folk culture was essential to the project of nation-building.

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 3. -The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was not just
to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message
to large audiences who were mostly illiterate. This was especially so in the case of
Poland, which had been partitioned at the end of the eighteenth century by the Great
Powers – Russia, Prussia and Austria.
4. Even though Poland no longer existed as an independent territory, national feelings
were kept alive through music and language. Karol Kurpinski, for example, celebrated
the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the
polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.
5. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After the
Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and the Russian
language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule
took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy
in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance. Polish was used
for Church gatherings and all religious instruction. As a result, a large number of priests
and bishops were put in jail or sent to Siberia by the Russian authorities as punishment
for their refusal to preach in Russian. The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of
the struggle against Russian dominance.
OR
Ans-- After the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit
of conservatism. The representatives of the four great European powers – Britain, Russia,
Prussia and Austria who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a
settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke
Metternich. The result was the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.

1. Its object was to undo the changes that had come about in Europe during the
Napoleonic wars and to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by
Napoleon and create a new conservative order in Europe. Conservatives believed that
established, traditional institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the
Church, social hierarchies, property, and the family – should bepreserved.
2. The Bourbon dynasty, (deposed during the French Revolution) was restored to
power. France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
3. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent it from
expansion in future. For example, kingdom of the Netherlands, which included
Belgium, was set up in the north. Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
4. Prussia was given territories on its western frontiers. Austria was given control of
northern Italy. The German confederation of 39 states set up by Napoleon was left
untouched.
5. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of
Saxony.

The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown byNapoleon and
create a new conservative order in Europe.

32 Ans--In a democratic set-up, political parties are required because without political parties: 5
1. Every candidate in the elections will be independent. No promises could bemade,
and the utility of the government formed will remain uncertain.
2. No one will be responsible for running the country. Elected representatives.

238 | P a g e
 will only be accountable to their constituency.
3. There will be no agency to gather and present different views on various issues to the
government.
4. No one will be responsible for bringing various representatives together to form a
responsible government.
5. There will be no mechanism to support the government, make policies and justify or
oppose them.
(Any other relevant point)
OR
Ans—
1. The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. All over the world, there
is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few
leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational
meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the
party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. They do not
have the means, or the connections needed to influence the decisions.
2. The second challenge of dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most
political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning,
there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those
who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour
people close to them or even their family members. In many parties, the top positions are
always controlled by members of one family.
3. The third challenge is about the growing role of money and muscle power in parties,
especially during elections. Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they
tend to use shortcuts to win elections. They tend to nominate those candidates who
have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the
political parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.
4. The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful
choice to the voters. To offer meaningful choice, parties must besignificantly
different. In recent years there has been a
decline in the ideological differences among parties in most parts of world. For
example- The difference between the Labour Party and the Conservative Party in
Britain is very little. They agree on more fundamental aspects but differ only in details
on how policies are to be
framed and implemented.
5. Not much difference between the leaders as well. They keep shifting from one party to
another.

(Any other relevant point)

33 Ans.-Self Help Groups help the poor to become self-reliant in terms of savings and generating 5
income.
1. Can avail the facilities of loans from formal sources like banks at a low rate of
interest.
2. They do not demand collateral and so she can easily access.
3. Self-help groups are exclusively meant for rural women like Miss X to make them
economically independent through self-employment opportunities.
4. This will help her to start and expand her business and thus improving the
standard of living.

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 5. Skill development: SHGs in India have also been successful in providing skill
development and training opportunities to women. Through training programs, she can
be equipped with the necessary skills to start and run a successful business.
6. Social empowerment. By providing a platform for women to come together, share
their experiences, and support each other, SHGs have empowered women to take
charge of their lives and become active participants in their communities.
(Any other relevant points)
OR
1. Ans.- In a barter system where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money,
double coincidence of wants is an essential feature. In contrast, in an economy where
money is in use, money by providing the crucial intermediate step eliminates the need
for double coincidence of wants.
2. People with the help of money can purchase whatever he needs. No goods or other
items are needed for exchange anymore. Since money acts as an intermediate in
the exchange process, it is called a medium of exchange.
3. Modern forms of money include currency — paper notes and coins. Unlike the things
that were used as money earlier, modern currency is not made of precious metals such
as gold, silver and copper. And unlike grain and cattle, they are neither of everyday
use. The modern currency is without any use of its own.
4. It is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the
government of the country. In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes
on behalf of the central government. As per Indian law, no other individual or
organisation is allowed to issue currency. Moreover, the law legalises the use of rupee
as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India. No
individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees. Hence, the rupee is
widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
(Any other relevant point)

SECTION E -CASE-BASED QUESTIONS ( 3x4=12)

34 1. Ans.-One of the primary reasons for the Rowlatt Act was to suppress the growing 1
nationalist movements and unrest in India. The Rowlatt Act gave the colonial
authorities all powers to arrest and detain individuals without trial, making it easier
to suppress political opposition and prevent further nationalist agitation.
2. Ans--The Act gave the authorities the power to prohibit public gatherings and
censor the press. 2
i This curbed the freedom of speech and assembly, as Indians were no longer free
to express their political views, hold public meetings, or publish materials critical of
British rule without risking arrest and prosecution.
ii Random arrests and detention powers under the Rowlatt Act led to widespread
misuse of power. Many political leaders, activists, and ordinary citizens were
arrested on suspicion of being involved in anti-British activities. This resulted in a
climate of fear, where people were afraid to voice their opinions against British
oppression.
1

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 3. Ans--Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws,
which would start with a hartal on 6 April. Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide
satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919).

35 1 Water scarcity in most cases is caused by over-exploitation, excessive use and

unequal access to water among different social groups. 1
2 People of Rajasthan have to travel long distances for collecting water, having a
submersible water tank would solve the purpose of water
3. Water conservation is crucial to provide clean water for humans to sustain life. 1
Conservation of water requires a lot concerted efforts from every person in the
world. We can take following steps:
a. Constructing sophisticated hydraulic structures like dams built of stone 1+1=
rubble, reservoirs or lakes, embankments and canals for irrigation. 2
b. Rain water harvesting
(Any one point required)
36 1. Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on 1
the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.
2.Human development is a process of enhancing the range of people‘s choices,
increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income, and 2
empowerment. It also covers the full range of human choices from a sound physical
environment to economic, political, and social freedom.
(Any other relevant points)
3.Yes, there other aspects as well like- Life expectancy, access to public facilities
such as water, sanitation, roads, electricity etc. 1

SECTION F - MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)

37.A A) Kheda-Gujarat. B) Calcutta 1

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu
of Question 37 part (a) and part (b). 1
(A) Name the place where the Peasant Satyagraha took place.
(B) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in
Sept 1920.
37B 1. A software Technology Park in Maharashtra. --Pune
2. A coal mine in Jharkhand. --Bokaro
3. The tallest dam in India. --Tehri Dam. 1
4. A seaport located in West Bengal --.Haldia
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu 1
of Q. No. 37 (b)
b. Answer any three of the following. 1
1. Name the tallest dam built in India. –Tehri Dam
2. Name a seaport in West Bengal. ---Haldia
3. Name the coal mine in Jharkhand. -Bokaro
4. Name the Software Technology Park present in the state of Maharashtra—Pune

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