CHAPTER – 1

SOLUTIONS
Q1. The experimental molar mass of an electrolyte will be less than its calculated value because of the value of Van’t Hoff
factor:

a) Less than 1 b) greater than 1 c) 1 d) 0

Q2. Van’t Hoff factor for K2SO4 solution, assuming complete ionization is

a) 1 b) 3 c) 13 d) 2

Q3. Van’t Hoff factor for Na2SO4.10H2O solution, assuming complete ionization is

a) 1 b) 3 c) 13 d) 2

Q4. A compound CaCl2.6H2O undergoes dissociation in water. The Van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ is:

a) 9 b) 6 c) 3 d) 4

Q5. A compound undergoes complete tetramerization in a given organic solvent. The Van’t Hoff factor ‘I’ is:

a) 4 b) 0.25 c) 0.125 d) 2

Q4. Isotonic solutions have the same

a) Density b) refractive index c) osmotic pressure d) volume

Q5. Assertion (A): when NaCl is added to water, a depression in freezing point is observed.

Reason (R): the lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.

Q6. Identify which liquid will have a higher vapour pressure at 90oC if the boiling points of two liquids A and B are 140oC and
180oC, respectively.

Q2. Answer the following:

a) Why is elevation of boiling point a colligative property?

b) On mixing liquid X and Y, the volume of the resulting solution decreases. What type of deviation from Raoult’s law is
shown by the resulting solution?
What change in temperature would you observe after mixing liquids X and Y?

Q3. What happens when:

a) A pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on the solution side separated from solvent by a semipermeable
membrane?
b) Acetone is added to pure ethanol?

Q3. a) why freezing point depression of 0.1M sodium chloride solution nearly twice that of a 0.1M glucose solution?

b) what is molality of a solution?

c) calculate the osmotic pressure of urea (molar mass = 60 g/mol) at 273K of a 5% solution. [given: R=0.0821 atm K-1 mol-1]

d) write two characteristics of positively deviated solution. Give one example

e) calculate the mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% by mass in carbon tetrachloride.

Q4. A 4% solution (w/w) of sucrose (M = 342 g/mol) in water has a freezing point of 271.15 K. calculate the freezing point of
5% glucose (M = 180 g/mol) in water. [Given: freezing point of pure water = 273.15 K]

Q5. Ishan’s automobile radiator is filled with 1kg of water. How many grams of ethylene glycol (Molar mass = 62 g/mol) must
Ishan add to get the freezing point of the solution lowered to -2.8oC. Kf for water is 1.86 K Kg mol-1

Q6. What type of deviation from Raoult’s law is shown by ethanol and acetone mixture? Give reason.
Q7. Boiling point of water at 750 mm Hg pressure is 99.68oC. How much sucrose (Molar mass = 342 g/mol) is to be added to
500 g of water such that it boils at 100oC ? (Kb for water = 0.52 K Kg mol-1)

Q8. State Henry’s law and write its any two application.

Q9. State Henry’s law. Calculate the solubility of CO2 in water at 298 K under 760mm Hg.

(KH for CO2 in water at 298 K is 1.25 x 106 mm Hg)

Q9. What type of deviation from Raoult’s law is shown by a mixture of ethanol and acetone? Give reason.

Q10. Define Azeotrope. What type of azeotrope is formed by negative deviation from Raoult’s law? Give an example.

Q11. If benzoic acid (M=122 g/mol) is associated into a dimer when dissolved in benzene and the osmotic pressure of a
solution of 6.1 g of benzoic acid in 100 ml benzene is 6.5 atm at 27oC, then what is the percentage association of benzoic acid?

(given : R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1)

Q12. The freezing point of a solution containing 5g of benzoic acid (M = 122 g/mol) in 35g of benzene is depressed by 2.94 K.
What is the percentage association of benzoic acid if it forms a dimer in solution? (Kf for benzene = 4.9 K kg mol-1)

Q12. For a 5% solution of urea (Molar mass = 60 g/mol), calculate the osmotic pressure at 300K. [R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1]

Q13. Visha took two aqueous solutions- one containing 7.5g of urea (Molar mass = 60 g/mol) and the other containing 42.75 g
of substance Z in 100 g of water, respectively. It was observed that both the solutions froze at the same temperature. Calculate
the molar mass of Z.

Q14. Calculate the mass of ascorbic acid (Molar mass = 176 g/mol) to be dissolved in 75 g of acetic acid, to lower its freezing
point by 1.5oC. (Kf = 3.9 K kg mol-1)
 CHAPTER – 2
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Q1. What is true about the cell constant of a conductivity ell?

a) It changes with change of electrolyte

b) It changes with change of concentration of electrolyte.
c) It changes with temperature of electrolyte.
d) It remains constant for a given cell.

Q2. Dilution affects both conductivity as well as molar conductivity. Effect of dilution on both is as follows:

a) Both increase with dilution

b) Both decrease with dilution
c) Conductivity increases whereas molar conductivity decreases on dilution.
d) Conductivity decreases whereas molar conductivity increases on dilution.

Q3. Which of the following cell is used in hearing aids?

a) Mercury cell b) H2-O2 fuel cell c) dry cell d) Ni-Cd cell

Q4. Which of the following cell was used in Apollo space programme?

a) Mercury cell b) H2-O2 fuel cell c) dry cell d) Ni-Cd cell

Q5. Write the Nernst equation for the following cell reaction:

Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq.) → Zn2+ (aq.) + Cu(s)

How will the Ecell be affected when concentration of

a) Cu2+ ions is increased and

b) Zn2+ ions is increased?

Q5. Corrosion of iron is:

a) A decomposition process
b) A photochemical process
c) An electrochemical process
d) A reduction process

Q6. In a lead storage battery

a) PbO2 is reduced to PbSO4 at the cathode.

b) Pb is oxidised to PbSO4 at the anode.
c) Both electrodes are immersed in the same aqueous solution of H2SO4
 d) All the above are true.

Q6. How many Faradays are required to reduce 1 mol of MnO4- to Mn2+?

a) 4 b) 3 c) 6 d)5

Q7. Assertion (A): Λm for weak electrolytes shows a sharp decrease when the electrolytic solution is diluted.

Reason (R): for weak electrolytes, degree of dissociation increases with dilution of solution.

Q8. Assertion (A): limiting molar conductivity (Λom) is obtained by the extrapolation of the Λm versus C1/2 curve of strong
electrolyte.

Reason (R): Λom for weak electrolytes is obtained by using Kohlrausch’s law.

Q9. Out of zinc and tin, whose coating is better to protect iron objects?

Q2. Answer the following:

a) Predict the products of electrolysis of an aqueous solution of AgNO3 with silver electrodes.
b) How much electricity in terms of faraday is required for the oxidation of
i) 1 mole of H2O to O2
ii) 1 mole of FeO to Fe2O3

Q3. Answer the following questions based on electrochemical cells:

i) What will be the sign of ∆G for an electrochemical cell and an electrolytic cell?
ii) Standard electrode potentials of three metals X,Y and Z are 0.52V, -2.87V and -0.44V respectively. What will be the
order of reducing power of these metals?
iii) Calculate emf of the following cell at 25oC:
Fe I Fe2+ (0.001M) II H+ (0.01M) I H2(g) (1bar) I Pt (s)
EoFe2+/Fe = -0.44V and EoH+/H2 = 0.00V
iv) Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place:
2Al (s) + 3Ni2+ (0.1M) → 2Al3+ (0.01M) + 3Ni (s)
Calculate the emf if Eocell = 1.41V
v) How does molar conductivity vary with increase in concentration for strong electrolyte and weak electrolyte? How
can you obtain the limiting molar conductivity of weak electrolyte.

Q4. Eocell for the given redox reaction is 2.71V

Mg(s) + Cu2+ (0.01M) → Mg2+ (0.001M) + Cu(s)

Calculate Ecell for the reaction. Write the direction of flow of current when an external opposite potential applied is:

a) Less than 2.71V

b) Greater than 2.71V

Q5. a) A steady current of 2A was passed through two electrolytic cells X and Y connected in series containing electrolytes
FeSO4 and ZnSO4 until 2.8g of Fe deposited at the cathode of cell X. How long did the current flow? Calculate the mass of Zn
deposited at the cathode of cell Y.

[Molar mass: Fe = 56 g/mol , Zn = 65.3 g/mol, 1F= 96500 C/mol]

Q6. In the plot of molar conductivity (Λm) vs square root of concentration (C1/2), following curves are obtained for two
electrolytes A and B:

Answer the following:

i) Predict the nature of electrolytes A and B

ii) What happens on extrapolation of Λm to concentration approaching zero for

electrolytes A & B?
Q7. State:

a) Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.

b) Faraday’s first law of electrolysis.
c) Limiting molar conductivity
d) Fuel cell

Q8. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.2M KCl solution is 200 Ω. if the resistance of the same cell when filled with
0.05M KCl solution is 620 Ω, calculate the conductivity and molar conductivity of 0.05M KCl solution. The conductivity of 0.2M
KCl solution is 0.0248 Scm-1

Q9. Calculate the emf of the following cell:

Ni(s) + 2Ag+(0.01M) Ni2+ (0.1M) + 2Ag (s)

Given that Eocell = 1.05 V, log 10 = 1

Q10. a) The standard Gibbs energy (∆rGo) for the following cell reaction is -300 KJ/mol:

Zn(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)

Calculate Eocell for the reaction. [given: 1F = 96500 mol-1]

b) Calculate λom for MgCl2 if λo values for Mg2+ ion and Cl- ion are 106 S cm2mol-1 and 76.3 S cm2 mol-1 respectively.

Q10. Name the cell which:

a) Was used in Apollo Space programme

b) Is used in automobiles and inverters
c) Is suitable for hearing aids and watches.
d) Does not give a steady potential and is used in transistors.

Q11. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K:

Al (s) | Al3+ (0.001 M) || Ni2+ (0.1 M) | Ni (s)

[Given: EoAl3+/Al = -1.66 V , EoNi2+/Ni = -0.25 V , log 10 = 1]

Q12. With the help of a graph explain why it is not possible to determine Λom for a weak electrolyte by extrapolating the molar
conductivity (Λm) versus C1/2 curve as for strong electrolyte.

Q13. The molar conductivity of NH4+ and Cl- ion are 73.8 S cm2 mol-1 and 76.2 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The conductivity of
0.1M NH4Cl is 1.29 x 10-2 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity and degree of dissociation.

Q14. Calculate the half-cell potential at 298K for the reaction

Zn2+ + 2e- Zn

If [Zn2+] = 0.1 M and EoZn2+/Zn = -0.76 V

Q15. a) calculate the ∆Go for the reaction

Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) Zn2+ (aq) + Cu (s)

Given: Eo for Zn2+/Zn = -0.76 V & Eo for Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V

R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 , F = 96500 C mol-1

c) Give two advantages of fuel cells.

d) Out of the following pairs, predict with reason which pair will allow greater conduction of electricity:
• Silver wire at 30oC or silver wire at 60oC
• 0.1 M CH3COOH solution or 1 M CH3COOH solution
• KCl solution at 20oC or KCl solution at 50oC
e) Give two points of differences between electrochemical and electrolytic cells.

Q16. a) The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 M KOH solution of length 50 cm and area of cross-section 0.625 cm2 is
5 x 103 ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.
 b) Predict the product of electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuCl2 with platinum electrodes.

(Given: EoC2+/Cu = +0.34 V, Eo1/2 Cl2/Cl- = +1.36 V

EoH+/H2 = 0.00 V , Eo1/2 O2/H2O = +1.23 V)

c) calculate e.m.f of the following cell:

Zn (s)/Zn2+ (0.1 M) || (0.01 M) Ag+/Ag (s)

(Given : EoZn2+/Zn = -0.76 V, EoAg+/Ag = +0.80 V, log 10 = 1)

a) X and Y are two electrolytes. On dilution molar conductivity of ‘X’ increases 2.5 times while Y increases 25 times. Which
of the two is a weak electrolyte and why?
 CHAPTER – 3
CHEMICAL KINETICS
Q1. The rate of a reaction increases sixteen times when the concentration of the reactant increases four times. The order of
the reaction is :

a) 2.5 b) 2 c) 1.5 d) 0.5

Q2. For a zero-order reaction of the type A Products, the rate equation may be expressed as:

a) K = [A]o – [A] b) k = [A] – [A]O c) K = [A]o –[A] d) K = [A]o – [A] . t

t t 2t 2

Q3. The half-life for a zero order reaction equals:

a) 2K/R b) K/2R2 c) R2/2K d) R/2K

Q4. The number of molecules that react with each other in an elementary reaction is a measure of the;

a) Activation energy of the reaction

b) Order of the reaction
c) Stoichiometry of the reaction
d) Molecularity of the reaction

Q5. In a reaction, the initial concentration of the reactants increases four fold and the rate becomes sixteen times its initial
value. The order of the reaction is:

a) 2 b) 3.5 c) 1.5 d) 2.5

Q6. The slope in the plot of ln[R] Vs. time gives

a) +K b) +K/2.303 c) -K d) -K/2.303

Q6. Analyse the given graph, drawn between concentration of reactant vs. time.

a) Predict the order of reaction.

b) Theoretically, can the concentration of the reactant reduce to zero after infinite time? Explain.

Q1. Assertion (A): The rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of reactant is doubled if it is a first-order reaction.

Reason I : Rate constant also doubles with twice an increase in the concentration of reactant.

Q3. Assertion (A): the units of rate constant of a zero order reaction and rate of reaction are the same
 Reason I: in zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants.

Q4. Assertion (A): The molecularity of the reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr appears to be 2.

Reason (R): Two molecules of the reactants are involved in the given elementary reaction.

Q5. Assertion (A): Hydrolysis of an ester follows first order kinetics.

Reason (R): Concentration of water remains nearly constant during the course of the reaction.

Q4. Will the rate constant of the reaction depend upon T if the Ea (activation energy) of the reaction is zero?

Q5. A first order reaction is 50% complete in 40 minutes. Calculate the time required for the completion of 90% of reaction.

[given : log2= 0.3010, log10=1]

Q2. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293K to 313K. calculate the energy of activation of
the reaction assuming that it does not changes with temperature. [log2 = 0.30 , log4= 0.6021] [R= 8.314 JK-1mol-1]

Q3. Show that for a first order reaction the time required for 99% completion of a reaction is twice the time required to
complete 90% of the reaction.

Q4. Define rate of reaction. Write two factors that affect the rate of reaction.

Q4. In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction was measured for different initial concentrations of A and B as
given below:

EXPERIMENT INITIAL [A] (M) INITIAL [B] (M) INITIAL RATE OF REACTION (M/min.)
No.
1 0.10 0.20 0.05
2 0.20 0.20 0.10
3 0.10 0.10 0.05
Write the rate law expression and calculate order of the reaction with respect to A and B?

Q5. For a reaction: 2H2O2 I- 2H2O + O2

Alkaline medium
the proposed mechanism is as given below:
step 1 : H2O2 + I- H2O + IO- (slow)
step 2 : H2O2 + IO- H2O + I- + O2 (fast)
i) Write rate law for the reaction.
ii) Write the overall order of reaction.
iii) Out of steps (1) and (2), which is rate determining step?
Q6. The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. If rate constant (K) is 4 x 10-3 MS-1, how
long will it take to reduce the initial concentration of NH3 from 0.1M to 0.064M.
Q7. A first order reaction takes 40 min. for 75% decomposition. Calculate rate constant.
[Given: log 2 = 0.30 , log 4 = 0.60]
Q8. Show that in case of a first order reaction, the time taken for completion of 99% reaction is twice the time
required for 90% completion of the reaction. (log 10 = 1)
Q9. The rate constant of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 700K to 720K. calculate the
activation energy for this reaction.
[log 2 = 0.30 , log 4 = 0.60, 2.303R = 19.15 JK-1mol-1]
Q10. The rate constant of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 300K to 320K. calculate the
activation energy for this reaction.
[log 2 = 0.30 , log 4 = 0.60, 2.303R = 19.15 JK-1mol-1]

Q11. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of N2O5 is given by the following equation:

Log K = 23.6 – 2 x 104 K

Calculate Ea for this reaction. [ R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1]

Q12. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of N2O5 is given by the following equation:

K = (2.5 x 1014 s-1) e(-25000K)/T

Calculate Ea for this reaction and rate constant if its half-life period be 300 minutes.

Q12. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of C2H5Cl at a constant volume:

C2H5Cl (g) C2H4 (g) + HCl (g)

EXPERIMENT Time (s-1) Total pressure (atm)

1 0 0.4
2 100 0.6
Calculate the rate constant. (given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)
 CHAPTER – 4
THE d & f BLOCK ELEMENTS
Q1. Which of the following ore is used to prepare KmnO4

a) Manganite b) pyrolusite c) haematite d) bauxite

Q2. Out of the following transition elements, the maximum number of oxidation states are shown by:

a) Sc (Z = 21) b) Cr (Z = 24) c) Mn (Z = 25) d) Fe (Z = 26)

Q2. Transition metals are known to make interstitial compounds. Formation of interstitial compounds makes the transition
metal

a) More hard b) more soft c) more ductile d) more metallic

Q3. Which of the following Cu2+ halide is not known:

a) CuBr2 b) CuI2 c) CuCl2 d) CuF2

Q4. The ions of metals of Group 12 (Zn, Cd and Hg) have completely filled d-orbitals and so they:

a) Behave like semiconductor

b) Are very high melting solids
c) Do not behave like transition metals
d) Behave like superconductors

Q2. Assertion (A): Cerium shows +4 oxidation state.

Reason I : Characteristic oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3.

Q3. Assertion (A): Zr and Hf are of almost similar atomic radii

Reason I: This is due to Lanthanoid contraction.

Q4. Assertion (A): Zr and Hf have almost identical radii

Reason (R): both Zr and Hf exhibit similar properties.

Q5. Assertion (A): EoCu2+/Cu Is positive (+0.34 V)

Reason (R): Copper has high ∆aHo and low ∆hydHo

Q6. Assertion (A): Transition metals have low melting points.

Reason (R): The involvement of greater number of (n-1)d and ns electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.
Q3. Give reasons:

a) Transition metals and their compounds show catalytic activities

b) Separation of a mixture of Lanthanoid elements is difficult
c) Zn, Cd and Hg are soft and have low melting point
d) Transition metals form alloys.
e) Why is Cu+ not stable in aqueous solution?
f) Cu2+ salts are coloured while Zn2+ salts are white.
g) Zn2+ salts are colourless while Ni2+ salts are coloured.
h) Cr2+ is a strong reducing agent.
i) Transition metals form interstitial compounds.
j) Eo value for (Mn2+/Mn) is negative whereas for (Cu2+/Cu) is positive.
k) Actinoids show irregularities in their electronic configuration.

Q4. Complete the following reactions:

a) 2MnO4- + 16H+ + 5S2- →

b) Cr2O72- + 8H+ + 3NO2- →

Q5. Write the balanced chemical equations involved in the preparation of KmnO4 from pyrolusite ore (MnO2).

Q6. Following ions of 3d-transition series are given:

Ti4+, V3+, Cr3+, Mn3+

(Atomic number: Ti=22, V=23, Cr=24, Mn=25)

Identify the ion which is:

a) Most stable in aqueous solution.

b) A strong oxidising agent.
c) Colourless in aqueous solution.

Give suitable reason in each.

Q6. Write the balanced ionic equations showing the oxidising action of acidified dichromate (Cr2O72-) solution with:

a) Fe2+ b) Sn2+

Q5. Write the ionic equations for the oxidizing action of MnO4- in acidic medium with

a) I- ion
b) Fe2+ ion

Q5. How will you convert Na2CrO4 to Na2Cr2O7

Q6. When MnO2 is fused with KOH in the presence of KNO3 as an oxidizing agent, it gives a dark green compound (A).
compound (A) disproportionate in acidic solution to give purple compound (B). an alkaline solution of compound (B) oxidises KI
to compound (C) whereas an acidified solution of compound (B) oxidises KI to (D). identify (A),(B),(C) & (D).

Q7. Answer the following

a) Ce(III) is easily oxidised to Ce(IV)

b) Eo(Mn2+/Mn) is -1.18 V. why is this value highly negative in comparison to neighbouring d-block elements?
c) Which element of 3d series has lowest enthalpy of atomisation and why?
d) What happens when sodium chromate is acidified?
e) Zn, Cd and Hg are soft metals. Why?
f) Why is permanganate titration not carried out in the presence of HCl?
g) The lower oxides of transition metals are basic whereas the highest are amphoteric/acidic. Give reason.
h) Name two oxometal anions of the 3d series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its
group number.
i) What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of K2Cr2O7?
j) Name a member of Lanthanoid series which is well-known to exhibit +4 oxidation state.
k) Name two elements of 3d series which show anomalous electronic configuration.
l) Copper (I) compounds are white whereas Copper (II) compounds are coloured
 m) Chromates change their colour when kept in an acidic solution.
n) Zn, Cd, Hg are considered as d-block elements but not as transition elements.
Q8. a) calculate the spin-only moment of Co2+ (Z = 27) by writing the electronic configuration of Co and Co2+

b) give three points of difference between lanthanoids and actinoids.

c) give reason and select one atom/ion which will exhibit asked property:

• Sc3+ or Cr3+ (exhibit diamagnetic behaviour)

• Cr or Cu (high melting and boiling point)

Q9. a) Account for the following:

i) Transition elements have higher enthalpies of atomisation.

ii) Separation of a mixture of Lanthanoid elements is difficult.
iii) The EoM2+/M value for copper is positive.

b) Define transition elements. Which of the d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements? Why
transition metals generally form coloured compounds?

Q9. Following ions are given:

Cr2+, Cu2+, Cu+, Fe2+, Fe3+, Mn3+

Identify the ion which is

a) A strong reducing agent.

b) Unstable in aqueous solution.
c) A strong oxidising agent
Give suitable reason in each.
 CHAPTER – 5
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Q1. Which of the following will give a white ppt. upon reacting with AgNO3

a) K2[Pt(en)2Cl2] b) [Fe(H2O)3Cl3] c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

Q2. The pair [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O will show:

a) Linkage isomerism b) solvate isomerism c) coordination isomers d) ionization isomerism

Q3. [Co(NH3)5NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3 exhibit:

a) Linkage isomerism b) ionization isomerism c) optical isomerism d) coordination isomerism

Q4. The compounds [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 , [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O exhibit:

a) Linkage isomerism b) geometrical isomerism c) ionization isomerism d) hydrate isomerism

Q5. The pair [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Br2 and [Co(NH3)4Br2] Cl2 will show

a) Linkage isomerism b) coordinate isomerism c) ionization isomerism d) hydrate isomerism

Q6. How many ions are produced from the complex [Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 in solution?

a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

Q5. The crystal field splitting energy in tetrahedral crystal field (∆t) is equal to:

a) (4/9) ∆o b) (9/4) ∆o c) (4/3) ∆o d) 2 ∆o

Q3. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic. Why? (given atomic No. of Fe=26)

Q4. In which of the following does the central atom exhibit an oxidation state of +3?

a) K2[Ni(CN)4] b) K4[Fe(CN)6] c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3- d) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

Q5. Assertion (A): Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds because of ambidentate ligand.

Reason (R): Ambidentate ligand like NO2 has two different donor atoms i.e. N and O.

Q6. Give the formulae of the following compounds;

 a) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
b) Hexaammineplatinum (IV) chloride

Q7. I) on the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if ∆o < P

II) Using valence bond theory, predict the hybridization and magnetic character of [Ni(CN)4]2- (atomic no. of Ni=28)

III) Write the formula of the following complex using IUPAC norms: Dichloridobis (ethane-1,2-diamine) cobalt (III)

Q8. When a co-ordination compound NiCl2.6H2O mixed with AgNO3, 2 moles of AgCl are precipitated per mole of the
compound. Write

a) Structural formula of the complex

b) Secondary valency of ‘Ni’ in the complex
c) IUPAC name of the complex.

Q4. Answer the following:

a) Write the IUPAC name of the complex: [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4

b) On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration of d6 ion, if ∆o < P
c) What is the difference between Homoleptic and Heteroleptic complexes?
d) Write the coordination isomer of [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4]
e) Draw structures of geometrical isomers of [Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]
f) Using IUPAC norms, write the formula of the complex: potassium tetracyanidonickelate(II)

Q5. Answer the following questions:

a) Explain the type of hybridization in [Fe(CN)6]3- on the basis of valence bond theory. (given: atomic no. of Fe = 26)
b) Draw the geometrical isomers of [PtCl2(en)2]2+ ion.
c) [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why?
d) Name the type of isomerism when ambidentate ligands are attached to central metal ion. Give one example of
ambidentate ligand.

Q5. Write IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2]. Draw structure of geometrical isomers for this complex.

Q6. Using IUPAC norms write the formulae for the following:

a) Hexaamminecobalt(III) sulphate
b) Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)

Q7. Wite the IUPAC names and hybridisation of the following complexes:

a) [Ni(CN)4]2- b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (Given: atomic no. of Ni = 28, Fe= 26)

Q7. Out of [CoF6]3- and [Co(en)3]3+ , which one complex is:

a) Paramagnetic b) more stable c) inner orbital complex d) high spin complex

[Given: atomic no. of Co = 27)

Q8. Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds

a) [Co(NH3)4Cl(NO2)]Cl
b) [PtCl2(en)2]2+
c) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
d) K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
e) [Co(en)2Br2]+
f) [Co(en)2(H2O)(CN)]2+

Q9. Read the case carefully and answer the questions that follows:

The oxidation number of the central atom in a complex is defined as the charge it would carry if all the ligands are removed
along with the electron pairs that are shared with the central atom. Similarly, the charge on the complex is the sum of the
charges of the constituent parts i.e. the sum of the charges on the central metal ion and its surrounding ligands. Based on this,
the complex is called neutral if the sum of the charges of the constituents is equal to zero. However, for an anion or cationic
complex, the sum of the charges of the constituents is equal to he charge on the coordination sphere.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

a) What is the secondary valence of Co in [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+

b) Define ambidentate ligand with an example.
c) What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
d) What type of isomerism is shown by [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl
e) Define chelate effect. How it affects the stability of complex?
f) Find the coordination number and oxidation state of chromium in Na3[Cr(C2O4)3]
g) Write the electronic configuration of d4 ion on the basis of crystal field theory when
• ∆o < P
• ∆o > P
h) Find the oxidation state and coordination number of the central metal ion in [Co(H2O)(CN)(en)2]2+
 CHAPTER – 6
HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
Q1. Which of the following is not correct?

a) In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation with π-electron of the ring.
b) The carbon-magnesium bond in Grignard reagent is covalent and non-polar in nature.
c) During SN1 reaction, the carbocation formed in the slow step being SP2 hybridised is planar.
d) Out of CH2=CH-Cl and C6H5CH2Cl, C6H5CH2Cl is more reactive towards SN1 reaction.

Q2. Which of the following is prepared by Swarts reaction?

a) Fluoroethane b) iodoethane c) chloroethane d) methylene chloride

Q3. The reaction of chlorobenzene with Mg in dry ether leads to the formation of compound X, which on hydrolysis gives

a) Benzene b) phenol c) methyl benzene d) benzoic acid

Q4. In which of the following reactions the treatment of chlorobenzene with Na in dry ether forms diphenyl.

a) Wurtz reaction b) wurtz-fittig reaction c) fittig reaction d) 16inkelstein reaction

Q5. A Grignard reagent may be made by reaction magnesium with

a) Methyl amine b) ethyl iodide c) diethyl ether d) ethyl alcohol

Q6. Which of the following is most reactive towards SN2 reaction?

a) C6H5C(CH3)C6H5Br b) C6H5CH(CH3)Br c) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br d) C6H5CH2Br

Q7. Auto-oxidation of chloroform in air and light produces a poisonous gas known as

a) Phosphine b) mustard gas c) phosgene d) tear gas

Q8. Out of which one is more reactive towards SN1 reaction?

Q7. How can you convert the following?

b) But-1-ene to 1-iodobutane
c) Benzene to acetophenone
d) Ethanol to propanenitrile

Q7. i) write the structure of major alkene formed by β-elimination of 2,2,3- trimethyl-3-bromopentane with sodium ethoxide
in ethanol.

e) which one of the compounds in the following pairs is chiral?

Or

f) identify (A) and (B) in the following:

 (A) Na/dry ether Mg/dry ether (B)

Q7. In which of the following molecules, C atom marked with asterisk is chiral?

Q3. Assertion: chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the presence of AlCl3

Reason: [AlCl4]- is the species that attacks the benzene ring in this reaction.

Q4. Assertion; electrophilic substitution reaction occurs slowly in haloarenes.

Reason: -I effect of the benzene ring.

Q5. Assertion: haloalkanes are polar and soluble in water.

Reason; haloalkanes do not form hydrogen bonds with water.

Q6. Assertion: it is difficult to replace chlorine by -OH in chlorobenzene in comparison to that in chloroethane.

Reason: C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double bond character due to resonance.

Q7. Assertion (A): inversion of configuration is observed when 1-Bromobutane is hydrolysed.

Reason I: the reaction is SN2 and proceed with the formation of transition state.

Q8. Assertion (A): inversion of configuration is observed in SN2 reaction.

Reason I: the reaction proceeds with the formation of carbocation.

Q7. Define ambident nucleophile with an example.

Q8. A) Out of (CH3)3C-Br and (CH3)3C-I which one is more reactive towards SN1 and why?

b) Write the product formed when p-nitrochlorobenzene is heated with aqueous NaOH at 443K followed by acidification.
c) Why dextro and laevo- rotatory isomers of Butan-2-ol are difficult to separate by fractional distillation?
Q9. Account for the following:

a) Haloalkanes react with AgCN to form isocyanide as main product.

b) Allyl chloride shows high reactivity towards SN1 reaction.
c) Haloarenes are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
d) Benzyl chloride is highly reactive towards SN1 reaction
e) (±)-Butan-2-ol is optically inactive, though it contains a chiral carbon atom.
f) Chloroform is stored n closed dark coloured bottles.

Q10. An alkyl halide (A) of molecular formula C6H13Cl on treatment with alc.KOH gives two isomeric alkenes (B) & (C) of
molecular formula C6H12. Both alkenes on hydrogenation give 2,3-dimethylbutane. Write the structures of (A),(B) & (C).

Q11. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:

The substitution reaction of alkyl halide mainly occurs by SN1 or SN2 mechanism. Whatever mechanism alkyl halides follow for
the substitution reaction to occur, the polarity of the carbon halogen bond is responsible for these substitution reactions. The
rate of SN1 reactions are governed by the stability of carbocation whereas for SN2 reactions steric factor is the deciding factor. If
the starting material is a chiral compound, we may end up with an inverted product or racemic mixture depending upon the
type of mechanism followed by alkyl halide. Cleavage of ethers with HI is also governed by steric factor and stability of
carbocation, which indicates that in organic chemistry, these two major factors help us in deciding the kind of product formed.

a) predict the stereochemistry of the product formed if an optically active alkyl halide undergoes substitution reaction by
SN1 mechanism.
b) Name the instrument used for measuring the angle by which the plane polarised light is rotated.
c) Predict the major product formed when 2-Bromopentane reacts with alcoholic KOH.
d) Give one use of CHI3
e) Write the structure of the products formed when anisole is treated with HI

Q12
 CHAPTER – 7
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
Q1. Which of the following observation is shown by 2-phenyl ethanol with Lucas reagent?

a) Turbidity will be observed with in five minutes.

b) No turbidity will be observed.
c) Turbidity will be observed immediately
d) Turbidity will be observed at room temperature but will disappear after five minutes.

Q2. Which of the following compounds is the correct order of boiling point:

a) Propan-1-ol < butan-2-ol < butan-1-ol < pentan-1-ol

b) Propan-1-ol < butan-1-ol < butan-2-ol < pentan-1-ol
c) pentan-1-ol < butan-2-ol < butan-1-ol < Propan-1-ol
d) pentan-1-ol < butan-1-ol < butan-2-ol < Propan-1-ol

Q3. Which of the following alcohol will not undergo oxidation?

a) Butanol b) butan-2-ol c) 2-methylbutan-2-ol d) 3-methylbutan-2-ol

Q4. Which of the following alkenes on acid catalysed hydration gives a tertiary alcohol?

a) 2-Butene b) 2-Methylpropene c) Propene d) 1-Butene

Q5. Reaction of 1-Phenyl-2-chloropropane with alc.KOH gives mainly:

a) 1-Phenylpropene b) 3-Phenylpropene c) 1-Phenylpropan-3-ol d) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol

Q6. When diethyl ether is heated with excess HI, it produces:

a) Ethanol b) iodoform c) methyl iodide d) ethyl iodide

Q4. Which of the following species can act as the strongest base?

a) OH- b) C6H5O- c) RO- d)

Q5. Out of the following alkenes, the one which will produce tertiary butyl alcohol on acid catalysed dehydration is:

a) CH3CH2CH=CH2 b) CH3CH=CH2 c) CH3-CH=CH-CH3 d) (CH3)2C=CH2

Q6. Assertion (A): p-methoxyphenol is a stronger acid than m-methoxyphenol.

Reason I: methoxy group exerts +R effect at both ortho and para position.

Q7. Assertion (A): p-methoxyphenol is a stronger acid than p-nitrophenol

Reason I: methoxy group shows +I effect whereas nitro group shows -I effect.

Q8. Assertion (A): (CH3)3C-O-CH3 gives (CH3)3C-I and CH3OH on treatment with HI

Reason (R): The reaction occurs by SN1 mechanism.

Q4. Answer the following:

a) Chemically distinguish between phenol and cyclohexanol

b) Illustrate hydroboration-oxidation reaction with example

Q5. How do you convert the following:

a) Phenol to anisole
b) Ethanol to propan-2-ol
c) Phenol to Salicylaldehyde
d) t-butylchloride to t-butylethyl ether
e) propene to Propanol
f) phenol to benzoquinone
g) anisole to p-bromoanisole
h) phenol to 2,4,6- tribromophenol

Q6. Write mechanism of the following reaction:

C2H5OH H2SO4 / 443 K CH2=CH2 + H2O

OR

Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.

Q7. Write the mechanism of the following reaction:

CH2=CH2 + H2O H+ CH3CH2OH

OR

Give the mechanism for the formation of ethanol from ethene.

Q7. Why phenol undergoes electrophilic substitution more easily than benzene?

Q8. Account for the following:

a) O-nitrophenol is more steam volatile than p-nitrophenol

b) t-butyl chloride on heating with sodium methoxide gives 2-methylpropene instead of t-butylmethylether.

Q9. Write the reaction involved in the following:

a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
b) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation of phenol.

Q10. Give simple chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and phenol.
Q11. a) write the mechanism of the following SN1 reaction:

(CH3)3C-Br Aq. NaOH (CH3)3C-OH + NaBr

g) write the equation for the preparation of 2-Methyl-2-methoxypropane by Williamson synthesis.

Q11. Give the structure of the major product expected from the following reactions:

a) Reaction of Ethanal with methyl-magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis

b) Reaction of Propanal with methyl-magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis
c) Hydration of But-1-ene in the presence of dil. Sulphuric acid.
d) Reaction of phenol with bromine water.
e) Reaction of phenol with Br2 in CS2
f) Reaction of propene with diborane followed by oxidation.

Q12. A) Write hydroboration-oxidation reaction with an example.

h) write the products of the following reaction:

+ HBr

c) why is p-nitrophenol more acidic than phenol?

d) what happens when phenol reacts with

• Conc HNO3
• CHCl3 in presence of aqueous NaOH followed by acidification?
i) write equations only:
• Why does the reaction of CH3ONa with (CH3)3C-Br give 2-Methylpropene and not (CH3)3C-OCH3?
 CHAPTER – 8
ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
Q1. Which aldehyde will give cannizzaro’s reaction?

a) CH3CH2CH2CHO b) (CH3)2CHCHO c) (CH3)3CCHO d) (CH3)2CHCH2CHO

Q2. C6H5CHO + CH3COCH3 OH- / ∆ C6H5CH=CH-COCH3

This reaction is known as:

a) Aldol-condensation
b) Cross-Aldol condensation
c) Cannizaro’s reaction
d) Friedel-Crafts reaction

Q3. What is the correct IUPAC name of the given compound?

a) 2,2-Dimethylbutanoic acid
b) 2-Carboxyl-2-methylbutane
c) 2-Ethyl-2-methylpropanoic acid
d) 3-Methylbutane carboxylic acid

Q3. Iodoform test is not given by

a) Ethanol b) ethanal c) pentan-2-one d) pentan-3-one

Q4. Assertion (A): Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.

Reason (R): The carboxyl group is activating and undergo electrophilic substitution reaction.

Q4. What happens when-

a) Propanone is treated with methylmagnesium iodide and then hydrolysed

b) Benzene is treated with CH3COCl in presence of anhydrous AlCl3 ?

Q3. Which of the following is an ‘Acetal’?

Q2. Answer the following:

a) Which acid from each of the following pairs would you expect to be a stronger acid and why:
CH3COOH OR CH2FCOOH
b) Arrange the following in decreasing order of their pKa value:
Benzoic acid, 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3,5-Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid

Q3. Answer the following:

a) Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
i) Ethyl chloride and Ethanal
ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
iii) Phenol and benzoic acid
iv) Benzaldehyde and ethyl benzoate
b) Write the reactions involved in the following
i) Hell-Volhard Zelinsky reaction
ii) Decarboxylation reaction
iii) Clemmensen reduction
c) wite the major product for the reactions:

Q5.
Q6.

Q7. Write chemical equations for the following reactions:

a) Propanone is treated with dil. Ba(OH)2

b) Acetophenone is treated with Zn(Hg)/conc. HCl
c) Benzoyl chloride is hydrogenated in presence of Pd/BaSO4

Q8. Give the plausible explanation for the following;

a) Glucose doesn’t give 2,4-DNP test.

b) The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary.
c) Starch and cellulose both contain glucose unit as monomer, yet they are structurally different.

Q8. Draw the structures of major product(s) in each of the following reactions:

Q9. (a) An organic compound (A) with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivatives, reduces Fehling solution and
undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzene dicarboxylic acid.

• Identify the compound (A) and write its IUPAC name.

• Write the reaction of compound (A) with :
a) 2,4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine
b) Fehling solution
• Write the equation of compound (A) when it undergoes Cannizzaro reaction.

(b) (i) Account for the following:

• The alpha (α)-hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones are acidic in nature.

• Oxidation of aldehydes is easier than ketones.

(ii) Arrange the following in:

• Decreasing reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction : propanal, acetone, benzaldehyde.

• Increasing order of boiling point: propane, ethanol, Dimethylether, propanal

(III) Give simple chemical test to distinguish between Benzoic acid and Benzaldehyde.

Q10. Write the products of the following reactions:

 j)
Conc. NaOH/∆

ii)

H2NNH-CO-NH2 H+

Q11. Do the following conversions in not more than two steps:

a) Toluene to benzoic acid

b) Benzaldehyde to 1-Phenylethanol

Q12. A) draw structure of the 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde.’

k) which acid of the following pair is stronger acid?

c) write the chemical equation involved in Rosenmund’s reduction.

d) why are α-hydrogen atoms of aldehydes and ketones acidic in nature?

e) write a chemical test to distinguish between Benzaldehyde and Benzoic acid.

Q13. Write the product(s) of the following reactions:

a)

PCC

b)

(CH3CO)2O

CH3COOH

c)

+ CH3MgBr H3O+

Q14. a) An organic compound (A) having molecular formula C4H8O gives orange red precipitate with 2,4-DNP reagent. It does
not reduce Tollen’s reagent but gives yellow precipitate of iodoform on heating with NaOH and I2. Compound (A) on reduction
with NaBH4 gives compound (B) which undergoes dehydration reaction on heating conc. H2SO4 to form compound (C).
compound (C) on ozonolysis gives two molecules of ethanal.

Identify (A), (B) and (C) and write their structures. Write the reactions of compound (A) with

i) NaOH/I2 ii) NaBH4

b) Give reasons:

• Oxidation of propanal is easier than propanone.

 • α-hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones is acidic in nature.
c) Draw structures of the following derivatives:
• Cyanohydrin of cyclobutanone
• Hemiacetal of ethanal
d) Write the major product(s) in the following:
• CH3-CH=CH-CH2-CN DIBAL-H / H3O+
• CH3-CH2-OH CrO3
e) How can you distinguish between propanal and propanone?

Q15. An organic compound ‘X’ with the molecular formula C5H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, does not reduce Tollen’s reagent
but gives positive iodoform test on heating with I2 in the presence of NaOH. Compound ‘X’ gives ethanoic acid and propanoic
acid on vigorous oxidation. Write the

a) Structure of the compound ‘X’

b) Structure of the product obtained when compound ‘X’ reacts with 2,4-DNP reagent.
c) Structures of the products obtained when compound ‘X’ is heated with I2 in the presence of NaOH.

Q16. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids are some of the important classes of organic compounds containing carbonyl
group. These are highly polar molecules due to higher electro-negativity of oxygen relative to carbon in the carbonyl group.
Aldehydes are prepared by dehydrogenation or controlled oxidation of primary alcohols and controlled reduction of acyl
halides. Ketones are prepared by oxidation of secondary alcohols and hydration of alkynes.

Aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition reactions onto the carbonyl group but carboxylic acid does not
undergo nucleophilic addition reaction. The alpha (α) – hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones are acidic. Therefore, aldehydes
and ketones having at least one α-hydrogen undergo Aldol condensation.

Aldehydes are easily oxidised by mild oxidising agents such as Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s reagent. Carboxylic acids are
prepared by the oxidation of primary alcohols, aldehydes and by hydrolysis of nitriles. Aromatic carboxylic acids are prepared
by side-chain oxidation of alkyl benzenes. Carboxylic acids are considerably more acidic than alcohols and most of simple
phenols.

a) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction:
CH3COCH3, CH3CHO, HCHO, C6H5COCH3
b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between Ethanal and Propanone.
c) Why carboxylic acid does not give nucleophilic addition reaction like aldehydes and ketones?
d) i) why α-hydrogen of aldehydes and ketones are acidic in nature?

ii) write the products in the following:

• KMnO4 , KOH /H+

 CHAPTER – 9
AMINES
Q1. Aliphatic amines are ___________ basic than ammonia but aryl amines are _______________ basic than ammonia.

a) More, less b) less, more c) more, more d) less, less

Q2. The reduction of ethanenitrile with sodium and alcohol gives:

a) 1-aminopropane b) 1-aminoethane c) Ethanoic acid d) Ethanamide

Q3. Out of the following, the strongest base in aqueous solution is;

a) Methylamine b) dimethylamine c) trimethylamine d) aniline

Q3. Assertion (A): monobromination of aniline can be conveniently done by protecting the amino group by acetylation.

Reason (R): Acetylation decreases the activating effect of the amino group.

Q2. The correct name of the given reaction is

Ar-N2+X- CuCN/KCN Ar-CN + N2

a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
c) Carbyl amine reaction
d) Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction

Q3. When nitrobenzene is heated with tin and conc. HCl, the product formed as:

Q2. Write an isomer of C3H9N which gives foul smell of isocyanide when treated with chloroform and ethanolic NaOH.

Q2. How will you convert;

a) Ethanoic acid into methanamine

b) Hexanenitrile into 1-aminopentane.
c) Nitrobenzene to aniline
d) Aniline to phenol

Q3. Answer the following:

a) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-crafts reaction.

b) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
c) Although amino group is o and p- directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a
substantial amount of m-nitroaniline.

Q4. Arrange the following compounds as directed:

a) In decreasing order of basic strength in aqueous solution:

C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
 b) In increasing order of solubility in water:
(C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2, C6H5NH2
c) In decreasing order of their pKb values:
C6H5NH2, C2H5NH2, NH3

Q4. Give the structures of A and B in the following sequence of reactions:

a) CHCOOH NH3/∆ A NaOBr B

b) C6H5NO2 Fe/HCl A NaNO2 + HCl B
c) C6H5N2+Cl- CuCN/∆ A H2O/H+ B

Q5. a) How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:

• Aniline and Ethanamine

• Aniline and N-methylaniline
b) Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their boiling points:
Butanol, Butanamine, Butane

Q4. Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling points:

(CH3)3N, C2H5OH, C2H5NH2

Q5. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound ‘B’ of molecular formula C6H7N which on
reacting with CHCl3 and alc. KOH produces a foul smelling compound ‘C’. write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds
A,B and C.

Q6. i) write a chemical test to distinguish between Dimethyl amine and Ethanamine.

ii) write the product formed when benzene diazonium chloride s treated with KI

Q7. A compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give a solid, insoluble in alkali. Identify ‘X’ and give
the IUPAC name of the product. Write the reaction involved.

Q8. Read the case carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Amines are usually formed from nitro compounds, halides, amides, imides, etc. they exhibit hydrogen bonding which
influences their physical properties. In alkyl amines, a combination of electron releasing, steric and hydrogen bonding factors
influence the stability of the substituted ammonium cations in protic polar solvents and thus effect the basic nature of amines.
In aromatic amines, electron releasing and withdrawing groups, respectively increase and decrease their basic character.
Influence of the number of hydrogen atoms at nitrogen atom on the type of reactions and nature of products is responsible for
the identification and distinction between primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Presence of amino group in aromatic ring
enhances reactivity of the aromatic amines. Aryl diazonium salts provide advantageous methods for producing aryl halides,
cyanides, phenols and arenes by reductive removal of the diazo group.

Answer the following questions:

l) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their pKb values in the aqueous solution:
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N

ii) aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline, though amino group is o/p directing. Why/

iii) an aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C7H6O2 on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms
compound ‘B’. compound ‘B’ on heating with Br2 and aqueous KOH gives a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C6H7N. write
the structure of A,B and C.

iv) complete the following reactions giving main products:

Q9. Arrange the following compounds as directed:

a) In increasing order of solubility in water:

(CH3)2NH, CH3NH2, C6H5NH2
b) In decreasing order of basic strength in aqueous solution:
(CH3)3N, (CH3)2NH, CH3NH2
c) In increasing order of the boiling point:
(C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, C2H5NH2
 CHAPTER – 10
BIOMOLECULES
Q1. Hypervitaminosis is caused due to:

a) A,B,C b) B,C,D c) A,D,E d) A,B,E

Q2. What are the hydrolysis products of lactose?

a) β-D-galactose and β-D-Glucose

b) α-D-Glucose and α-D-Glucose
c) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Fructose
d) none of the above

Q3. On hydrolysis, which of the following carbohydrates gives glucose and galactose?

a) Sucrose b) lactose c) maltose d) cellulose

Q4. On hydrolysis, which of the following carbohydrates gives only glucose?

a) Maltose b) sucrose c) lactose d) galactose

Q5. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes Pernicious anaemia?

a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin B12

Q6. The deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes ‘Rickets’?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin B d) Vitamin C

Q3. The specific sequence in which amino acids are arranged in a protein is called its

a) primary structure
b) secondary structure
c) tertiary structure
d) quaternary structure

Q8. An α-helix is a structural feature of

a) Sucrose b) Polypeptides c) Nucleotides d) Starch

Q4. Assertion (A): Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Reason (R): Sucrose has glycosidic linkage.

Q5. Write the name of the component of starch which is water soluble.
Q4.

Q3. Answer the following:

a) why cannot vitamin C be stored in our body?

b) What are reducing sugars?

Q4. What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents:

a) HI b) Br2 – H2O c) HNO3

Q5. What is the basic structural difference between glucose and fructose?

Q6. Write the products obtained after hydrolysis of lactose.

Q7. Differentiate between the following:

a) Amylose and amylopectin

b) Peptide linkage and glycosidic linkage
c) Fibrous proteins and globular proteins

Q8. write chemical reactions to show that open structure of D-glucose contains the following:

a) straight chain b) five alcohol groups c) aldehyde as carbonyl group

Q9. Write the reactions showing the presence of following in the open structure of glucose:

a) a carbonyl group b) Straight chain with six carbon atoms

Q9. Classify the following sugars into monosaccharides and disaccharides:

Sucrose, Lactose, Glucose, Fructose, Galactose and Maltose

Q10. Read the case carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Certain organic compounds are required in small amounts in our diet but their deficiency causes specific disease. These
compounds are called vitamins. Most of the vitamins cannot be synthesized in our body but plants can synthesize almost all of
them. So they are considered as essential food factors. However, the bacteria of the gut can produce some of the vitamins
required by us. All the vitamins are generally available in our diet. The term ‘vitamin’ was coined from the words vital + amine,
since the earlier identified compounds had amino group. Vitamins are classified into two groups depending upon their
solubility in water or fat namely-fat soluble vitamins and water soluble vitamins.

a) what is the other name of vitamin B6

b) Name the vitamin whose deficiency causes increased blood clotting time.
c) Xerophthalmia is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin? Give two sources of this vitamin.
 d) Why can’t vitamin C be stored in our body? Name the disease caused by the deficiency of this vitamin.

Q11. Read the case carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Living systems are made up of various complex biomolecules like carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, etc.
carbohydrates are optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or molecules which provide such units on hydrolysis. They
are broadly classified into three groups- monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides. Monosaccharides are held
together by glycosidic linkages to form disaccharides like sucrose, maltose or polysaccharides like starch and cellulose.

Another biomolecule: proteins are polymers of α-amino acids which are linked by peptide bonds. Ten amino acids are called
essential amino acids. Structure and shape of proteins can be studied at four different levels i.e. primary, secondary, tertiary
and quaternary, each level being more complex than the previous one.

Answer the following questions:

m) What is the difference between a glycosidic linkage and peptide linkage?

n) Which amino acids are called essential amino acids?
o) What are the common types of secondary structures of proteins? Write any two forces which stabilise the secondary
and tertiary structure of protein.
p) Define denaturation of protein with an example. During denaturation which structures of protein lose their biological
activity?