VISIONIAS

www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4709 (2025)

Q 1.C
• Context: Scientists have detected existence of high-frequency plasma waves in the Martian Upper
Atmosphere with novel narrowband and broadband features that can help to understand plasma processes
in the Martian plasma environment.
• Plasma waves are collective oscillations of charged particles in a plasma, a state of matter composed
of ionized atoms and free electrons.
o These waves arise due to the interaction between the electric and magnetic fields generated by the
charged particles.
• These waves are a type of electromagnetic wave that propagates through plasma, a state of matter
characterized by ionized atoms or molecules. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Plasma is "fourth state of matter," after solid, liquid, and gas.
o It is formed when a gas is subjected to extreme conditions, such as high temperatures or strong electric
fields.
o Under these conditions, the atoms of the gas become ionised, meaning they lose or gain electrons.
• The Earth's magnetosphere is a region of charged particles surrounding our planet, influenced by
the Earth's magnetic field. Within this region, various plasma waves are observed. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• These waves can cause rapid changes in the electric and magnetic fields within the plasma, leading to
short-time scale fluctuations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 2.C
• Recent context: India has submitted nominations of three cities - Indore, Bhopal and Udaipur - for Wetland
City Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention.
• The Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) is a voluntary scheme initiated by the Ramsar Convention
on Wetlands in collaboration with the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It recognizes cities that have demonstrated exceptional commitment and action towards the conservation
and wise use of their urban wetlands.
• The WCA aims to:
o Promote the importance of wetlands in urban areas
o Encourage innovative approaches to wetland conservation and management
o Share best practices and facilitate knowledge exchange among cities
o Raise awareness about the multiple benefits of wetlands for urban communities
• Currently, no Indian city has been accredited under the Wetland City Accreditation program. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has submitted the following
three Indian cities for WCA:
o Indore
o Bhopal
o Udaipur
• One of the key objectives of WCA is to raise public awareness about the importance and benefits of
wetlands.
o WCA campaigns and outreach efforts inform citizens about the importance of wetlands and the role
they play in urban environments.
1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o By encouraging cities to integrate wetland conservation into their planning processes, WCA helps
reduce wetland loss and degradation.

Q 3.C
• Dr. Ambedkar said in the Constituent Assembly that "by parliamentary democracy, we mean 'one
man, one vote". Almost as an act of faith, the founding fathers decided to opt for universal adult suffrage
with every adult Indian without any distinction at once having equal voting rights. This was particularly
remarkable in the context of the vast poverty and illiteracy of the Indian populace. Even in the advanced
democracies of the West, franchise was extended only gradually.
• Our constitution ensures Universal Adult Franchise to all citizens. Elections to the Lok Sabha, the State
Assemblies and, to the three-tier Gram panchayats are held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. Every
adult citizen, irrespective of caste, religion or sex enjoys equal rights to vote.
o The age of voting rights was changed from 21 years to 18 as per the 61st amendment of the
constitution in 1988. Only those found guilty of certain election offences and those who were mentally
unsound are denied voting rights. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 4.D
• Article 50 of the Indian Constitution explicitly directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary
from the executive in the public services of the State, ensuring the independence of the judiciary.
• Article 43A deals with the participation of workers in the management of industries.
• Article 42 directs the state to make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• Article 51 deals with the promotion of international peace and security.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 5.B
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution. The 86th
Amendment Act 2002 later added the 11th Fundamental Duty to the list. The Fundamental Duties in
the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR. Hence statement 4 is not
correct.
• Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the
Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable. The Constitution does not
provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is not legal sanction against their
violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation. Eg. No person can
disrespect the National flag, Constitution of India and the National Anthem under the Prevention of Insults
to National Honour Act, 1971.Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Fundamental duties help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a
law. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds
that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be
‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such
law from unconstitutionality. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 6.B
• The inclusion of the term 'socialist' in the preamble of the Indian constitution was widely debated in the
Indian constituent assembly.
• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (chairman of the drafting committee) argued that it is against the very grain of
democracy to decide in the Constitution what kind of society the people of India should live in.
• He further added that it is perfectly possible today, for the majority people to hold that the socialist
organisation of society is better than the capitalist organisation of society. But it would be perfectly possible
for thinking people to devise some other form of social organisation which might be better than the socialist
organisation of today or of tomorrow.
• Therefore, it was incorrect for the Constitution to tie down the people to live in a particular form and not
leave it to the people themselves to decide it for themselves. Eventually, the final text of the preamble
omitted the word 'socialist'.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 7.C
• Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting
Committee set up on August 29, 1947. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing
a draft of the new Constitution. It consisted of seven members. They were:
o Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
o N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
o Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
o Dr. K.M. Munshi
o Syed Mohammad Saadullah
o N. Madhava Rau (He replaced B.L. Mitter who resigned due to ill-health)
o T.T. Krishnamachari (He replaced D.P. Khaitan who died in 1948). Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.
• The Drafting Committee, after taking into consideration the proposals of the various committees, prepared
the first draft of the Constitution of India, which was published in February, 1948. The people of India were
given eight months to discuss the draft and propose amendments. In the light of the public comments,
criticisms and suggestions, the Drafting Committee prepared a second draft, which was published in
October, 1948. The Drafting Committee took less than six months to prepare its draft. In all it sat only for
141 days.
• Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor (Legal advisor) to the Constituent Assembly.
He was not a member of the Drafting committee.

Q 8.A
• Plutocracy
o It is a government-controlled exclusively by the wealthy either directly or indirectly. A plutocracy
allows, either openly or by circumstance, only the wealthy to rule. This can then result in policies
exclusively designed to assist the wealthy, which is reflected in its name (comes from the Greek words
"Ploutos" or wealthy, and "Kratos" - power, ruling). Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• Kleptocracy, a government or state in which those in power loot state resources for private benefit. Hence
pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Technocracy is a proposed system of governance in which decision-makers are selected on the basis of
their expertise in a given area of responsibility, particularly with regard to scientific or technical knowledge.
Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

Q 9.B
• The Soft State is a term introduced by Gunnar Myrdal in his book 'Asian Drama'.
• It describes a general societal “indiscipline” prevalent in South Asia and by extension much of the
developing world - in comparison to kind of modern state that had emerged in Europe.
• A major causal factor was colonial powers' destruction of many of the traditional centers of local power and
influence and failure to create viable alternatives.
• Coupled with this was the development of an attitude of disobedience to any authority which was central to
the nationalist politics resistance. This attitude persisted after independence.
• Such soft states are seen as unlikely to capable of imposing the right development policies and would be
unwilling to act against corruption at all levels.
• The policy of ‘soft state’ means a lenient attitude of the state towards social deviance. Soft states do not
take coercive actions, even if the situation demands.
• This soft state policy weakens the capacity of the state in enforcing the rule of law. Not taking coercive
decisions increases the crime rate, violence, corruption etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In India, this policy is being followed in the post-independence period. as a result of the destruction of
strong local powers during the colonial period.
• Compared to soft state, soft power refers to a state which does not or posses minimal military power. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.

Q 10.A
• The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India. It has jurisdiction over the State of West
Bengal and the Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The High Court building''s design
is based on the Cloth Hall, Ypres, in Belgium. The seat of the Calcutta High Court is at Kolkata, capital of
West Bengal. As per the Calcutta High Court (Extension of Jurisdiction) Act, 1953, the Calcutta High
Court''s jurisdiction was extended to cover Chandernagore (now called Chandannagar) and the Andaman
3 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 and Nicobar Islands as of 2 May 1950. The Calcutta High Court extended its Circuit Bench in Port
Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and in Jalpaiguri, the headquarter of the Jalpaiguri
division of West Bengal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Gauhati High Court, formerly known as the High Court of Assam, was established on 5th April, 1948.
The Assam High Court initially had its sittings at Shillong but shifted to Gauhati on 14th August, 1948.
Later on, the Assam High Court came to be known as the High Court of Assam and Nagaland on the
constitution of the state of Nagaland but was renamed as Gauhati High Court in 1971 by the North-Eastern
Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. The Principal Seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati,
Assam. Apart from the Principal Seat, the High Court has 3(three) outlying Benches. These are the
Kohima Bench for the State of Nagaland (established on 1.12.1972), Aizawl Bench for the State of Mizoram
(established on 5.7.1990), and Itanagar Bench for the State of Arunachal Pradesh (established on
12.8.2000). The Gauhati High Court was a common High Court of seven States of North East India until
23.03.2013, the functioning date of separate High Courts in Meghalaya, Manipur, and Tripura. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence option (a) is the correct option.

Q 11.A
• Himachal Pradesh: In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th state of
the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh. This followed the demand for a separate ‘Sikh
Homeland’ (Punjabi Subha) raised by the Akali Dal under the leadership of Master Tara Singh. On the
recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the Punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the
unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill
areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh. In 1971, the union territory of
Himachal Pradesh was elevated to the status of a state (18th state of the Indian Union).
• Mizoram: Like several other northeastern states of India, Mizoram was previously part of Assam until
1972, when it was carved out as a Union Territory. It became a state only in 1987.
• Odisha: Odisha was never a Union Territory. It became a separate state in 1936 after being separated from
Bihar.
• Sikkim: Till 1947, Sikkim was an Indian princely state ruled by Chogyal. In1947, after the lapse of British
paramountcy, Sikkim became a ‘protectorate’ of India, whereby the Indian Government assumed
responsibility for the defence, external affairs and communications of Sikkim. After Sikkim desired for a
greater association with India, it was accorded the special status of an 'associate state' of the Indian Union
under the 35th Amendment of the Indian Constitution (1974). In a referendum held in 1975, they voted for
the abolition of the institution of Chogyal and Sikkim becoming an integral part of India. Consequently, the
36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) was enacted to make Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian
Union (the 22nd state). It was never a Union Territory before attaining statehood.
• Manipur: After the independence of India in 1947, the Princely State of Manipur was merged with the
Indian Union on October 15, 1949. It was placed under Part-C of the fourfold classification of the states.
By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act(1956) (following
which the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were
abolished), Manipur was made a Union Territory. It became a full-fledged state in 1972.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 12.A
• Article 143 of the Indian Constitution deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It
empowers the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public
importance that has arisen or is likely to arise.
• The Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in the Constitution of India is sourced from the
Government of India Act, 1935 wherein the provision of Section 213(1) of the Government of India Act,
1935 conferred an advisory function upon the Federal Court. First Draft Constitution, the Constitutional
makers reproduced the provision of the 1935 Act after substituting “President’ for ‘Governor-General’ and
‘Supreme Court’ for ‘Federal Court’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The advisory jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court to provide expert legal opinion to assist the
President in the exercise of his functions, but the opinion itself is not binding on the President. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
• The Constitution under Article 143 authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court
in the two categories of matters:

4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 • On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise. Supreme
Court can refuse to tender its opinion for these matters.
• On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad,
or other similar instruments. For these matters, Supreme Court is bound to provide its opinion.
Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 13.C
• The Government of India Act 1915 was an act of the Parliament of Britain, which consolidated prior
Acts of Parliament concerning British India into a single act. It was passed in July 1915 and went into
effect on 1 January 1916. Hence the option (c) is the correct answer.
• The act repealed 47 prior acts of Parliament, starting with an act of 1770, and replaced them with a single
act containing 135 sections and five schedules. It was introduced first to the House of Lords, where it was
referred to a joint committee of Parliament chaired by Lord Loreburn. The committee removed several
provisions which went beyond the simple consolidation of existing law.
• The Government of India Act 1915 and its supplemental act the following year made the English statute
law relating to India easier to understand, and therefore easier to amend.
• The Government of India Act of 1915 bought about one firm reform and this was with regards to the
jurisdiction of the High Courts. It was held in this act that no High Court could exert original jurisdiction
over matters concerning---Revenue, or any act done concerning or relation to it.

Q 14.B
• On June 3, 1947, Lord Mountbatten, the Viceroy of India, put forth the partition plan, known as
the Mountbatten Plan. The plan was accepted by the Congress and the Muslim League. Immediate effect
was given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act of 1947. The features of the Act are:
o It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August
15, 1947.
o It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and
Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
o It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any constitution for
their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament, including the Independence act
itself.
o It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty
relations with tribal areas from August 15, 1947.
o It granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Dominion of
Pakistan or to remain independent.
o It provided for the governance of each of the dominions and the provinces by the Government of
India Act of 1935, till the new Constitutions were framed. The dominions were however authorised to
make modifications in the Act. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o It designated the Governor-General of India and the provincial governors as constitutional (nominal)
heads of the states. They were made to act on the advice of the respective council of ministers in all
matters.

Q 15.B
• The Global Cooperation Barometer Report is published by World Economic Forum (WEF) in
collaboration with McKinsey & Company. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• About Global Cooperation Barometer:
o It is a tool for leaders to better understand the contours of cooperation broadly along five pillars namely:
Trade and capital, Innovation and technology, Climate and natural capital, Health and wellness, lastly
Peace and security.
• About World Economic Forum (WEF):
o It was established in 1971 as a not for profit foundation
o It aims to engage political, business, cultural and other leaders to shape global, regional & industry
agenda.
o Other major reports published by WEF incude, The Future of Growth Report, Global Risk Report, The
Future of Global Fintech Report etc.

5 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 16.A
• Flexibility of the Constitution is the unitary feature of the Indian constitution.The process of constitutional
amendment is less rigid than what is found in other federations. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended
by the unilateral action of the Parliament, either by simple majority or by special majority. Further, the
power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Centre. In US, the states can also
propose an amendment to the Constitution.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Rigid Constitution is the federal feature of the Indian constitution. The division of powers established by
the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its
amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are
concerned with the federal structure (i.e., Centre–state relations and judicial organi-sation) can be
amended only by the joint action of the Central and state governments. Such provisions require for
their amendment a special majority of the Parliament and also an approval of half of the state
legislatures. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q 17.D
• Context: Prime Minister on January 22, 2024 announced the ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’, a
government scheme under which one crore households will get rooftop solar power systems.
• A rooftop solar system is a photovoltaic system installed on the roof of a building to generate electricity
from sunlight. It consists of solar panels, an inverter, and optionally a battery storage system.
• There are two main types of rooftop solar systems:
o On-Grid: This is the most common and affordable option. It connects to the electrical grid and sends
any excess energy you generate back to the grid for credits.
o Off-Grid Solar System: This system is completely independent of the electrical grid and requires battery
storage for backup power It's ideal for remote locations but typically more expensive due to the
batteries. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Working:
o The core component of these photovoltaic cells in a solar rooftop system are layers of doped silicon
crystal-based semiconductor materials. A positive charge is created by the bottom layer of the cell, that
is laden with boron which bonds with silicon. While the negative charge is created by the top layer that
is doped with phosphorus. An electric field is produced by the movement of the surface between these
two layers called the P-N junction.
o Solar photovoltaic panels convert sunlight directly into electricity through the photovoltaic effect.
o The electricity generated by solar PV panels is direct current (DC). Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
o However, most electrical devices and appliances use alternating current (AC), it must be converted from
DC to AC using an inverter.
Q 18.D
• A particular class of appeals may not follow the general hierarchy of the courts and tribunals. Article 136 of
the Indian Constitution allows the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment or
order in any matter or case made by any court or tribunal in the country. The Special Leave Petition shall
not apply to any judgment or order handed down by any court or tribunal involving the armed forces. This
is the only exclusion as is given in the clause 2 of Article 136. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Appeal by special leave is a power that has to be exercised only under exceptional circumstances, and the
supreme court has laid down the principle according to which this extraordinary power shall be used, for
example, in cases where there has been a violation of the principle of natural justice. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• Article 136 bestows the Supreme Court discretion to entertain appeals in suitable situations not otherwise
provided for in the Constitution. The SC may exercise this discretionary power to grant special leave to
appeal any judgment or decree or may refuse to grant the leave since this is not a matter of right. Hence
statement 3 is correct.

Q 19.A
• The Portuguese ruled Dadra and Nagar Haveli territory until its liberation in 1954. Subsequently, the
administration was carried on till 1961 by an administrator chosen by the people themselves. It
was converted into a union territory of India by the 10th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1961.
• In 1987, three new States of Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa came into being as the 23rd, 24th and
25th states of the Indian Union respectively. Arunachal Pradesh had also been a union territory from
1972. It became a full fledged state in 1987.

6 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 • In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th state of the Indian Union,
and the union territory of Chandigarh. This followed the demand for a separate ‘Sikh Homeland’
(Punjabi Subha) raised by the Akali Dal under the leadership of Master Tara Singh. On the recommendation
of the Shah Commission (1966), the Punjabi-speaking areas were constituted into the unilingual state of
Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged
with the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh. In 1971, the union territory of Himachal Pradesh
was elevated to the status of a state (18th state of the Indian Union).
• In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the
state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving
Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of
Assam in 1961.
• Hence the correct chronological order is 1-4-3-2.

Q 20.A
• Context: End-to-end encryption (E2E) is a method of protecting digital information by transforming it into
an unreadable format, and it has significant implications for privacy and security.
• Encryption is the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext.
o Ciphertext is unintelligible to anyone who does not have the key to decrypt it.
o Encryption is used to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access.
• End-to-End Encryption (E2EE) is a security mechanism that ensures that data transmitted between two
parties remains private and inaccessible to any third parties.
• Working:
o Key Generation: The communicating devices generate a unique encryption key, which is shared
securely between them.
o Encryption: The sender's device encrypts the data using the shared encryption key. The encrypted data
is then transmitted to the receiver.
o Decryption: The receiver's device uses the same encryption key to decrypt the received data. Only the
intended recipient can access the decrypted content.
• Public Key
o A publicly available key that can be used by anyone to encrypt a message.
o Anyone possessing the public key can encrypt a message, but only the holder of the corresponding
private key can decrypt it.
o Used to encrypt messages that need to be shared securely with multiple parties.
• Private Key
o A secret key that is kept confidential by the owner.
o Used to decrypt messages that have been encrypted with the corresponding public key.
o Only the holder of the private key has the ability to decrypt the encrypted message.
o Protects the confidentiality of messages by ensuring that only authorized parties can access them.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 21.D
• The Ninety-second Amendment of the Constitution of India amended the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali languages, thereby raising the total
number of languages listed in the schedule to 22.
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution originally included 14 languages.
o Sindhi was included by the 21st Amendment, enacted in 1967; and
o Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment in 1992, raising the total
number of languages to 18.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 22.D
• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) enshrined in part IV of the Indian Constitution aim
to establish a welfare state. They guide the state in making laws and policies that ensure social and
economic welfare and justice for all citizens. Hence, statement I is not correct.
• The DPSPs aim to establish social and economic democracy rather than political democracy. Political
democracy is established through the Fundamental Rights, whereas the DPSPs aim to create conditions
that allow for social and economic equality and justice. Hence, statement II is correct.

7 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 23.A
• Context: With just two speakers, Madhika language in Kerala with no script is on the brink of extinction
• The Madhika language is a tribal language spoken in the southern part of India, specifically by the
Chakaliya community in Kerala. The community was nomadic and worshippers of Thiruvenkatramana
and Mariamma. They migrated to northern Malabar from the hilly regions of Karnataka centuries
ago. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Initially, they were recognised as Scheduled Tribe, but were later included in the Scheduled Caste category
in Kerala. The mention of the community can be found in the book Caste and Tribes of Southern India.
• Madhika is a language with no script and is a blend of Telugu, Tulu, Kannada, and Malayalam. Despite
sounding similar to Kannada, it can bewilder listeners due to its diverse linguistic influences. Madhika is
largely influenced by Havyaka Kannada, an old form of Kannada.
• The neglect of Madhika is attributed to the social stigma associated with the Chakaliya community. They
were considered untouchables. Due to the lack of documentation (no script) and the passing of older
speakers, there is a significant risk that Madhika may not survive beyond individuals.
• According to UNESCO, any language whose youngest speakers are grandparents and older, and they speak
the language partially and infrequently is considered " Critically endangered." However, despite facing a
high risk of extinction, the Madhika language has not been classified as critically endangered. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.

Q 24.B
• Context: UN officials have urged countries to reconsider their decision to suspend the funding for the
United Nations agency for Palestinian refugees (UNRWA).
• UNRWA stands for UN Relief and Works Agency for Palestinian Refugees in the Near East. It was founded
in 1949 to provide aid to about 700,000 Palestinians who were forced to leave their homes in what is now
Israel during the 1948 Arab-Israeli war. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• UNRWA operates in Gaza and the Israeli-occupied West Bank, as well as Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan —
countries where the refugees took shelter after their expulsion. According to UNRWA’s website, it runs
education, health, relief and social services, microfinance and emergency assistance programmes inside and
outside refugee camps based in the aforementioned areas. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions by donor states like the US. It also gets a
limited subsidy from the UN, which is used only for administrative costs. Currently, around 5.9 million
Palestine refugees — most of them are descendants of original refugees — access the agency’s services.
The Associated Press reported that in Gaza, where some 85% of the enclave’s 2.3 million people have fled
their homes after the latest Israel-Hamas conflict, over 1 million are sheltering in UNRWA schools and
other facilities. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 25.B
• A democratic polity can be classified into two categories - monarchy and republic. In case of a monarchy,
the head of the state enjoys a hereditary position. In contrast, in the case of a republic, the head of the state
is always elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period. For example, in the case of India, the head of state
i.e. president is indirectly elected.
• The India Independence Act of 1947 created two Dominion States - India and Pakistan. While Pakistan
remained a British Dominion until 1956, India ceased to be a Dominion and declared herself a Republic
with the commencement of the Indian Constitution on 26 January 1950. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The head of the Indian republic is a president who is elected for a fixed term by the electoral college of
representatives of the people. In the case of a republic, all citizens are equal in the eyes of the law. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• A republic also means that the political sovereignty is vested in the people and not in a single individual
like king. The Republican nature of Indian states that all public offices being opened to every citizen
without any discrimination. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Republics and democracies both provide a political system in which citizens are represented by elected
officials who are sworn to protect their interests.
Q 26.C
• Recent context: The first meeting of the Social Audit Advisory Body (SAAB) was held on 18th January
2024 at conference hall, Dr Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.
• The Social Audit Advisory Body is set up in the National Institute of Social Defence (NISD). NISD
function under the Department of Social Justice & Empowerment (DoSJE), Ministry of Social Justice
8 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 and Empowerment. It will guide the Ministry in institutionalizing social audits for its various schemes. It
will promote capacity building of the members of Social Justice Cell of the Social Audit Units. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
• Representatives from key ministries and academic institutions, including the Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare, Department of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Women and Child Development, Department
of Social Justice & Empowerment, Ministry of Rural Development, National Institute of Rural
Development, Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Delhi School of Social Work and Indian Institute of Public
Administration are members of this advisory body. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 27.D
• The preamble promises justice to all citizens. The concept of justice in Preamble is indeed very wide.
It is not confined to the narrow legal justice as administered by the court. Justice is defined as social,
economic and political. The preamble gives precedence to social and economic justice over political one.
• Social justice implies that all citizens are treated equally irrespective of their status in society as a result of
accident of birth, race, caste, religion, sex, title, etc.
• Article 15 prohibits discrimination or disability in the matter of access to public places. Article 17
envisage to abolish untouchability. Hence fundamental rights encompass the idea of social justice
very well.
• Article 38 directs the state to strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and promotion as
effectively as it may, a social order in which justice, social, economic, and political, shall inform all the
institutions of the national life.
• Provisions for the humane condition of work, maternity relief, leisure, reduction of wide disparities,
promoting of economic interest and a decent standard of living for the workers, weaker section and
backward classes, minimum wage, banning of forced labour (Article 23 and 43) were all directed towards
social justice.
• Article 51A(e) says that every citizen of India to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of
women. Also, Article 51A(k) says that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or
guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the
age of six and fourteen years.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 28.D
• The Directive Principle of State Policies listed in Part 4 of the Constitution are non-justiciable, meaning
they are not enforceable by any court. However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and
aim to establish social and economic democracy.
• Post-independence, India was grappling with issues like poverty, inequality and socio-economic injustice.
The government aimed to implement land reforms, nationalizations of industries, and other socio-economic
policies to achieve the goal enshrined in the DPSP.
• The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act introduced Article 31C, originally protecting laws made to give
effect to the principles specified in Articles 39(b) and 39(c), but being challenged on the grounds of violating
Articles 14 and 19.
o Article 39(b) - The state shall ensure that the ownership and control of the material resources of the
community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.
o Article 39(c) - The state shall secure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the
consideration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act expanded the scope of Article 31C to include all DPSPs rather
than just those in Article 39(b) and 39(c). The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case upheld the
validity of the original Article 31C [limited to Article 39(b) and 39(c)] but struck down the 42nd
Amendment's expansion of Article 31C.
• So, Articles 14 and 19 can be violated for implementation of only DPSP in Articles 39(b) and 39(c), not
any other DPSP. Also, the implementation of articles 39(b) and 39(c) is limited by the basic structure
doctrine and other fundamental rights except 14 and 19. Hence statement-I is incorrect.
• The Supreme Court in Minerva Mills v. Union of India case invalidated certain provisions of the 42nd
Amendment which sought to curtail the power of judicial review and make DPSP supreme over fundamental
rights. The court held that a harmonious balance between fundamental rights and DPSP is a part of the basic
structure of the constitution. Neither can be prioritized at the expense of the other.Hence statement-II is
correct.

9 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 29.B
• Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under Ministry of Communications has unveiled
the 'Sangam: Digital Twin' initiative, an unparalleled venture inviting Expressions of Interest (EoI) from
industry pioneers, startups, MSMEs, academia, innovators and forward-thinkers. Digital Twin technology
offers a solution by creating virtual replicas of physical assets, allowing for real-time monitoring, simulation
and analysis for experimental iterations and feedback loop to adapt to the changes for achieving the best
outcomes. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• It aims to demonstrate practical implementation of innovative infrastructure planning solutions, to develop
a model framework for facilitating faster and more effective collaboration and to provide a future blueprint
that may serve as a roadmap to scale and replicate successful strategies in future infrastructure projects.
• Sangam: Digital Twin is a PoC distributed in two stages to be conducted in one of the major cities of India.
First stage is Exploratory for clarity of horizon and creative Exploration to unleash potential. Second stage
is for practical demonstration of specific use cases generating a future blueprint that may serve as a roadmap
to scale and replicate successful strategies in future infrastructure projects through collaboration.
• The initiative comes in the backdrop of past decade's breakthroughs in communication, computation and
sensing in the era of techade striving for the vision 2047. India has witnessed advancements in
computational technologies, platforms, services and high-speed connectivity.
• 'Sangam: Digital Twin' symbolizes a collaborative leap towards reshaping infrastructure planning and
design, combining the prowess of 5G, IoT, AI, AR/VR, AI native 6G, Digital Twin and next-gen
computational technologies with the collective intelligence of public entities, infrastructure planners, tech
giants, startups, and academia to break the silos and engage in a whole-of-nation approach.

Q 30.C
• Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be
amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state
legislatures by a simple majority. If one or some or all the remaining states take no action on the bill, it
does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed. There is no
time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.
• The following provisions can be amended in this way:
o Election of the President and its manner. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
o Supreme Court and high courts.
o Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
o Goods and Services Tax Council.
o Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Representation of states in Parliament.
o Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself). Hence
option 3 is correct.
• The majority of the provisions in the Constitution need to be amended by a special majority of the
Parliament, that is, a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of
the members of each House present and voting. The provisions which can be amended by this way
includes:
o Fundamental Rights;
o Directive Principles of State Policy. Hence option 4 is not correct.
o All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.

Q 31.C
• MERITS OF THE PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM: The parliamentary system of government has the
following merits:
o Harmony Between Legislature and Executive- The greatest advantage of the parliamentary system
is that it ensures harmonious relationship and cooperation between the legislative and executive organs
of the government. The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work. As a
result, there is less scope for disputes and conflicts between the two organs.
o Responsible Government- By its very nature, the parliamentary system establishes a responsible
government. The ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and
commission. Unlike in the Presidential form of government, the Parliament exercises control over
the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no
confidence motion, etc. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

10 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o Prevents Despotism- Under this system, the executive authority is vested in a group of individuals
(council of ministers) and not in a single person. This dispersal of authority checks the dictatorial
tendencies of the executive. Moreover, the executive is responsible to the Parliament and can be
removed by a no-confidence motion.
o Ready Alternative Government- In case the ruling party loses its majority, the Head of the State can
invite the opposition party to form the government. This means an alternative government can be
formed without fresh elections. Hence, Dr Jennings says, ‘the leader of the opposition is the alternative
prime minister’.
o Wide Representation- In a parliamentary system, the executive consists of a group of individuals (i.e.,
ministers who are representatives of the people). Hence, it is possible to provide representation to all
sections and regions in the government. The prime minister while selecting his ministers can take this
factor into consideration.
• DEMERITS OF THE PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM- In spite of the above merits, the parliamentary
system suffers from the following demerits:
o Unstable Government- The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government. There is no
guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority
legislators for their continuity and survival in office. A no-confidence motion or political defection or
evils of multiparty coalition can make the government unstable. The Government headed by Morarji
Desai, Charan Singh, V P Singh, Chandra Sekhar, Deva Gowda and I K Gujral are some such examples.
On the other hand, the Presidential system provides a stable form of government. It establishes a stable
executive which does not depend upon the fluctuating will of the legislature especially in case of
coalition governments. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o No Continuity of Policies- The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and
implementation of long-term policies. This is due to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. A
change in the ruling party is usually followed by changes in the policies of the government. For example,
the Janata Government headed by Morarji Desai in 1977 reversed a large number of policies of the
previous Congress Government. The same was repeated by the Congress government after it came back
to power in 1980.
o Dictatorship of the Cabinet -When the ruling party enjoys absolute majority in the Parliament, the
cabinet becomes autocratic and exercises nearly unlimited powers. H J Laski says that the parliamentary
system gives the executive an opportunity for tyranny. Ramsay Muir, the former British Prime Minister,
also complained of the ‘dictatorship of the cabinet’. This phenomena was witnessed during the era of
Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi.
o Against Separation of Powers- In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are
together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive. As
Bagehot point out, ‘the cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative
departments together.’ Hence, the whole system of government goes against the letter and spirit of the
theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Government by Amateurs -The parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency
as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection
of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external
talent. Moreover, the ministers devote most of their time to parliamentary work, cabinet meetings and
party activities

Q 32.B
• The Gram Nyayalayas Act of 2008 establishes Gram Nyayalayas as the lowest tier of the judiciary for rural
areas.
o Under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008, it is for the State Governments to establish Gram Nyayalayas
in consultation with the respective High Courts. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o A gram nyayalaya shall be presided by a Nyaya Adhikari appointed by the state government in
consultation with the High Court. The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are
strictly judicial officers and will be drawing the same salary, deriving the same powers as First Class
Magistrates working under High Courts. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The state governments shall establish one or more gram nyayalayas for every panchayat or group of
contiguous panchayats at an intermediate level.
o The Act provides for mobile courts to be held periodically at villages where the parties reside.
o The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the
First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Act.

11 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rules made by the
High Court. In criminal cases, the court shall follow procedures for summary trials. Hence statement
3 is correct.
o Appeals in civil and criminal cases shall be heard by the senior civil judge and the assistant sessions
judge, respectively. Further appeals are not permitted.

Q 33.C
• Context: Recently, the World Economic Forum released the Future of Growth Report 2024.
• The Future of Growth Report 2024
o The Future of Growth Report 2024, published by the World Economic Forum in January 2024, focuses
on assessing economic growth beyond just GDP. It introduces a multidimensional framework to assess
the quality of economic growth across 107 countries globally.
o It characterizes nations’ economic growth across four dimensions: Innovativeness; Inclusiveness;
Sustainability; and Resilience. The data and analysis presented may be used by a wide range of
stakeholders to identify areas to improve, trade-offs to resolve or synergies to exploit.
o While every country has a unique growth pathway shaped by a wide range of circumstantial factors, the
report highlights seven distinct “growth pathway archetypes,” with the aim to identify countries most
closely related in their growth characteristics and facing similar constraints and opportunities.
• Findings:
o High-income economies score high on innovation and inclusion, while lower-income economies on
sustainability.
ü India, along with Kenya scored high on sustainability.
o The report highlighted a significant economic slowdown, estimated to fall to the lowest rate in three
decades by 2030.
o Most countries' economic growth is neither sustainable nor inclusive.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

12 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
Q 34.C
• The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the
Constitution. This Act has been amended so far four times. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) also
provided for the Commonwealth Citizenship. But, this provision was repealed by the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, 2003.Acquisition of Citizenship. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of
acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
• If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India and not the Constitution
specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India. Such persons
become the citizens of India from the notified date. For example, when Pondicherry became a part of
India, the Government of India issued the Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962, under the Citizenship Act,
1955. Thus both the statements are incorrect.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 35.C
• Context: The first ever survey puts India’s snow leopard count at 718.
• Lion
o Scientific Name: Panthera leo
o Social structure: Lions live in prides, which are groups of related females and their cubs, led by one
or more dominant males.
o Ecosystems:
ü Africa: Lions are found in a wide range of ecosystems throughout sub-Saharan Africa, including:
Savannahs.
ü Asia: The Asiatic lion is found only in the Gir Forest National Park in India. This ecosystem is a
dry deciduous forest.
• Snow leopard
o It is a large cat native to the high mountains of Central Asia.
o Coat: Their most striking feature is their thick, luxurious coat. It's a greyish-white color with dark grey
rosettes (spots) and a white underside. This coloration provides excellent camouflage in their snowy
mountain habitat.
o Habitat:
ü Mountains: Snow leopards inhabit high-altitude mountain ranges, including the Himalayas, Tian
Shan, Pamir, and Kunlun Mountains. They prefer rocky areas with cliffs, caves, and dense
vegetation for shelter and hunting.
ü Altitude: They are found at elevations ranging from 2,500 to 5,500 meters, where temperatures are
extremely cold and winters are harsh.
o Scientific Name: Panthera uncia
o IUCN Status: Vulnerable
o Darjeeling Zoo in India is indeed known for its successful breeding program for snow leopards, a highly
endangered species. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
• Cheetah
o It is a large cat native to Africa and parts of Iran. Known for its incredible speed and agility, it is the
fastest land animal on Earth.
o Reproduction: Cheetah females typically give birth to 2-5 cubs. Cubs remain with their mother for
about 18 months, learning essential hunting skills.
o Scientific Name: Acinonyx jubatus
o IUCN Status: Vulnerable
• Siberian Tiger
o Scientific Name: Panthera tigris altaica.
o Geospatial Variation: They inhibit the cold-climate forests of the Primorye and Khabarovsk territories
of far-eastern Russia as well as northeastern China.
o IUCN status: Endangered

Q 36.D
• When a Judge of a High Court in India (including the Chief Justice of that High Court) wishes to
resign from office, they must submit their resignation to the President of India. This process is
governed by Article 217(1) of the Constitution of India, which states: "A Judge of a High Court may, by
writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office."
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

13 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 37.C
• The preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution, which was moved in
the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946.
• The Preamble to the Constitution is a reflection of the core constitutional values that embody the
Constitution. It declares India to be a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic committed to
Justice, Equality, and Liberty for the people. It serves as a guiding light, outlining the ideals and objectives
of the Constitution. Moreover, it plays a crucial role in the interpretation and application of
constitutional provisions, providing a lens through which the Constitution's intent can be understood.
• In the BeruBari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held the view that the Preamble cannot be a part of
the Constitution but later in the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court opined that the
Preamble is part of the Constitution and is subject to the amending power of the parliament as are any other
provisions of the Constitution, provided the basic structure of the Constitution is not destroyed.
• This view was later reaffirmed in the LIC Vs Government of India case wherein, the Supreme Court
has once again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution but is not directly
enforceable in a court of justice in India. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Preamble does not grant substantive rights and is not enforceable in the courts and is neither a
source of power nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. Hence, statement II is not correct.

Q 38.B
• Context: A Falcon 9 rocket carrying 23 Starlink spacecraft lifted off from Cape Canaveral Space
Force Station on 14th January, 2024.
• Starlink is the name of a satellite network developed by the private spaceflight company SpaceX to provide
low-cost internet to remote locations. A Starlink satellite has a lifespan of approximately five years and
SpaceX eventually hopes to have as many as 42,000 satellites in this so-called mega constellation. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• It is launched by SpaceX, a private American aerospace company founded by Elon Musk. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
• Starlink's goal is to provide high-speed internet access to remote and underserved areas around the
globe.
o SpaceX is a private space exploration and aerospace company founded by Elon Musk. They design,
manufacture, and launch rockets and spacecraft, including the Falcon 9 launch vehicle used for Starlink.
• Starlink, SpaceX's satellite internet constellation, is placed in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) because it
offers several advantages over higher orbits like geostationary orbit (GEO): Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
• Advantages
o Lower Latency
o Higher Bandwidth
o Reduced Signal Interference
o Easier to Deploy and Maintain
o Global Coverage

Q 39.B
• The Indian Constitution under part III provides several fundamental rights to individuals which can
be categorized into six broad categories viz. Right to equality (Article 14-18), Right to freedom (Article
19-22), Right against exploitation (Article 23-24), Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28), Cultural
and educational rights to minorities (Article 29-30), Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32).
• Some of the fundamental rights are granted only to citizens:
o Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth [Art 15]
o Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment [Article 16]. Hence, option 2 is correct.
o Freedoms of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession [Article 19].
Hence, option 3 is correct.
o Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities [Article 29]
o Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions [Article 30]. Hence, option
5 is correct.
• Some of the fundamental rights, on the other hand, are available to any person on the soil of India —
citizen or foreigner (except enemy aliens):
o Equality before the law and equal protection of the laws [Article 14]. Hence, option 1 is not
correct.
14 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o Protection in respect of conviction against ex post facto laws, double punishment, and self-
incrimination [Article 20]; Hence, option 4 is not correct
o Protection of life and personal liberty [Article 21]
o Right to elementary education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years [Article 21A]
o Protection against Arbitrary Arrest and Detention (Article 22)
o Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion (Article 25)
o Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26)
o Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion (Article 27)
o Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28)

Q 40.A
• Public order is one of the three grounds on which the state can restrict freedom of religion under
Article 25 and Article 26. Public order is also one of the grounds for restricting freedom of speech
and expression and other fundamental rights under Article 19.
• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees certain fundamental freedoms to all citizens, such as
the freedom of speech and expression, the right to assemble peacefully, the right to form associations
or unions, etc. However, these rights are not absolute and can be restricted under certain conditions. Article
19(2) specifically mentions the grounds on which these freedoms can be restricted, which
include: Security of the State, Friendly relations with foreign states, public order, Decency and morality,
Contempt of court, Defamation, and Incitement to an offense. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Article 21 states that No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to
procedure established by law. However, the Constitution doesn’t provide public order as a limitation
upon Article 21. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
• Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees all persons the right to freedom of conscience and the right
freely to profess, practice, and propagate religion subject to public order, morality, and health.
Hence, option 3 is correct.
• Article 26 grants religious denominations and sections thereof certain rights to manage their religious
affairs freely, subject to certain limitations viz. public order, health, and morality. Hence, option 4 is
correct.
• Public order is normally equated with public peace and safety. According to List 2 of the Seventh Schedule
of the Constitution, the power to legislate on aspects of public order rests with the states.
• What affects public order is contextual and is determined by the state. But courts have broadly interpreted
it to mean something that affects the community at large and not a few individuals.
• In Ram Manohar Lohia vs State of Bihar (1965), the Supreme Court held that in the case of ‘public order’,
the community or the public at large has to be affected by a particular action. “The contravention of law
always affects order but before it can be said to affect public order, it must affect the community or the
public at large. One has to imagine three concentric circles, the largest representing ‘law, and order’, the
next representing ‘public order’ and the smallest representing ‘security of State’.”

Q 41.A
• The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, based on their
content, The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) in the Indian Constitution can be classified
into three broad categories: Socialistic Principles, Gandhian Principles, and Liberal-Intellectual
Principles. These classifications help in understanding the various aspects and objectives that the DPSPs
aim to achieve.
• Socialistic Principles: These principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of
a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards the
welfare state. They direct the state:
o Article 38: To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice-social,
economic, and political to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
o Article 39: To secure:
ü the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
ü the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
ü prevention of the concentration of wealth and means of production;
ü equal pay for equal work for men and women;
ü preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
ü opportunities for the healthy development of children and the protection of childhood and youth
against exploitation and moral and material abandonment.

15 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o Article 39A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
o Hence, option 3 is correct.
o Article 41: To secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment,
old age, sickness, and disablement.
o Article 42: To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
o Article 43: To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life, and social and cultural opportunities for
all workers
o Article 43A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
o Article 47: To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public
health.
• Gandhian Principles: These principles are based on Gandhian ideology. They represent the program
of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. To fulfill the dreams of Gandhi,
some of his ideas were included as Directive principles. They require the State:
o Article 43: To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas.
o Hence, option 1 is not correct.
o Article 43B: To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and
professional management of cooperative societies.
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles: The principles included in this category represent the ideology of
liberalism. They direct the state:
o Article 48: To organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
o Article 48A: To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests, and wildlife.
o Hence, option 4 is not correct.

Q 42.D
• The Supreme Court has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can
decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by
appeal.
• Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more
States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on
the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law
or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution
gives the Supreme Court extensive original jurisdiction for enforcing Fundamental Rights.
• Two points should be noted concerning the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. One, the
dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right
depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from it. Two, any suit brought before the
Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a state cannot be entertained under this.
• Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following:
• A dispute arises from any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, Sanad or other
similar instrument.
• A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction
does not extend to such a dispute.
• Inter-state water disputes.
• Matters referred to the Finance Commission.
• Adjustment of certain expenses and pensions between the Centre and the states.
• Ordinary dispute of a Commercial nature between the Centre and the states.
• Recovery of damages by a state against the Centre.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 43.A
• DISTINCTION BETWEEN INDIAN AND BRITISH MODELS
o The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system.
However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects:
o India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the
State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen)
enjoys a hereditary position.
o The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is
not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal
system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
16 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of
the Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of
Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In India, a person who
is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six
months. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such
system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts
of the Head of the State. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
o ‘Shadow cabinet’ is an unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the opposition
party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial office. There is no
such institution in India.

Q 44.A
• Absolute monarchy - It is that form of government where the ruler has full powers to rule over the
country without being bound by any laws above his own authority and with no organised opposition
allowed. Some examples of absolute monarch in the modern world are Saudi Arabia, Brunei and Swaziland.
o Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Dictatorship - Dictatorships are always authoritarian. It is a form of government where an absolutist or
autocratic ruler assumes sole power. It may be in times of emergency or otherwise. Often dictatorship
may result from a seizure of power in a coup through means of arms, but sometimes a person getting to the
top through the ladder of democratic elections may also turn a dictator. Dictatorship erodes all constitutional
restrains. Some of the modern time dictators have been Augusto Pinochet of Chile, Fidel Castro of Cuba.
o Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Totalitarianism - A totalitarian state attempts to control nearly every aspect of personal economic
and political life of the citizens. Benito Mussolini, was the first to use the word totalitarian to describe his
dictatorship positively. Totalitarian government prohibits all activities which are contrary to regime goals.
It aims at radical restructuring of society to create a new economic order such as communism or institute
racism such as Nazism or reconstitute human nature through fundamentalist extremist religions as by
Talibans. Totalitarian rulers enjoy power through secret police, propaganda and suppression of dissent. The
main examples of regimes considered totalitarian are Nazi Germany, Fascist Italy, Communist China under
Mao, etc.
o Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• Authoritarian- It is distinguished from totalitarian, both in degree and scope. Authoritarian
administration is less intrusive and not necessarily backed by the use of force. Typically, the
government in an authoritarian regime is run by an elite group that uses repressive means to stay in
power. However, unlike totalitarian regimes, there is no desire or ideological justification for the state to
control all aspects of a person's life.Totalitarian government stand to be revolutionary and intend to change
the basic structure of society, authoritarian ones tend to be conservative.

Q 45.B
• Direct democracy comprises a form of democracy wherein all citizens can directly participate in the
political decision making process.
• In the context of the modern State structures, it is sometimes considered possible to reinvent some
characteristics of direct democracy through devices like the following:
o Initiative - Right of people to accept or reject the legislative proposal for legislation. Hence, pair 1 is
not correctly matched.
o Recall - Right of people to call back their representative through petition. Hence, pair 2 is correctly
matched.
o Plebiscite - Right of people to express their opinion on a particular political issue. Hence, pair 3 is not
correctly matched.
o Referendum - Right of people to accept or reject the legislative proposal passed by the legislature
thereby giving a veto to the people on government legislation. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Q 46.B
• The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration,
naturalisation and incorporation of territory.
• By Birth -
o A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by
birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
17 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o A person born in India on or after 1st July 1987 is considered as a citizen of India only if either
of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Further, those born in India on or after 3rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India only if both
of their parents are citizens of India or one of whose parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an
illegal migrant at the time of their birth.
o The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship
by birth.
• By Descent-
o A person born outside India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 10th December 1992 is a citizen
of India by descent, if his father was a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
o A person born outside India on or after 10th December 1992 is considered as a citizen of India if either
of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
o From 3rd December 2004 onwards, a person born outside India shall not be a citizen of India by
descent, unless his birth is registered at an Indian consulate within one year of the date of birth
or with the permission of the Central Government, after the expiry of the said period. An
application, for registration of the birth of a minor child, to an Indian consulate shall be accompanied
by an undertaking in writing from the parents of such minor child that he or she does not hold the
passport of another country. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Q 47.B
• Constitution of the NALSA:
o The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987. It is a statutory body. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Functions:
o The functions of the NALSA is to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes
and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act.
• Article 39A:
o The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal
opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in
any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of
economic or other disabilities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Other related provisions or articles:
o Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality
before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. So
free legal aid related provisions are implicitly included in Article 14 and 22(1).

Q 48.C
• Context: Indian women in their 30s are embracing egg freezing, preserving fertility.
• Oocyte cryopreservation is a process that involves preserving a woman's unfertilized eggs (oocytes)
for future use in reproductive technologies.
• This process has gained popularity as a way to delay childbearing or to preserve fertility in women facing
medical treatments that may impact their reproductive health.
• Benefits of Oocyte Cryopreservation for Pregnancy:
o Preserves fertility: Allows women to postpone childbearing or have children later in life.
o Provides options for women with fertility issues: Egg cryopreservation can provide an alternative for
women who cannot conceive naturally or through other fertility treatments.
o Enhances success rates: Freezing eggs at a young age can improve the chances of successful IVF due
to the higher quality of eggs.
• Egg freezing is an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) that involves preserving a woman's
reproductive potential by extracting, freezing, and storing her eggs (oocytes).
o Process:
ü Egg Retrieval: Eggs are retrieved from the ovaries through a minimally invasive surgical
procedure called transvaginal ultrasound-guided oocyte retrieval.
ü Egg Preparation: The retrieved eggs are examined under a microscope and prepared for freezing.
ü Freezing: Using an advanced freezing technique called vitrification, the eggs are rapidly cooled to
extremely low temperatures (around -196 degrees Celsius) in a liquid nitrogen tank. This process
minimizes damage to the eggs.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

18 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 49.A
• The writ jurisdiction of Indian courts is a fundamental aspect of the country's legal framework, providing a
robust mechanism for the protection of Fundamental Rights and ensuring administrative justice. The Indian
Constitution empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs. The types of writs that
Supreme Court and High Courts can issue are : Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari,
and Quo Warranto.
• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power to issue writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously referred to Article 32 as the
"heart and soul" of the Constitution because it provides the right to constitutional remedies, which
ensures that citizens can directly approach the Supreme Court if their Fundamental Rights are
violated.
• Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights as well as for any other purpose. This makes the writ jurisdiction of High Courts
broader than that of the Supreme Court, as they can address violations of legal rights in addition to
Fundamental Rights. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under Article 32(3) Without prejudice to the powers conferred on the Supreme Court under Article 32(1)
and Article 32(2), Parliament has the authority to empower other courts, by law, to issue directions,
orders, or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights within their local jurisdiction, similar to
the powers exercised by the Supreme Court under Article 32(2). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Unlike the other 4 writs, the writ of Quo Warranto can be sought by any interested person and not
necessarily by the aggrieved person. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 50.D
• The parts of Indian Constitution which have bearing on right to education are:
o Fundamental Rights: As per Article 21A, making education for children aged 6-14 years a
fundamental right. It was brought under part III of the Indian constitution through the 86th
Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2002. Hence, option 1 is correct.
o Directive Principles of State Policy: As per Article 45, which focuses on early childhood care and
education for children below 6 years of age. This provision of early childhood care and education
was brought into the Indian constitution through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. Hence,
option 2 is correct.
o Fundamental Duties: As per Article 51A(k), placing a duty on parents or guardians to ensure
their children or wards between 6-14 years of age receive education. This fundamental duty was
added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Q 51.B
• The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and
in the states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system at the Centre and Articles 163 and 164 in the states.
• Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature of
relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government. The parliamentary system of
government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. The
presidential system of government, on the other hand, is one in which the executive is not responsible to the
legislature for its policies and acts, and is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect of its
term of office.
• The parliamentary government is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or
Westminster model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, India among others.
It is described as ‘Westminster model of government’ after the location of the British Parliament,
where the parliamentary system originated. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Bicameralism is a federal feature and not a parliamentary of the Constitution of India. The
Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Rajya Sabha) and a Lower
House (Lok Sabha). The Rajya Sabha represents the states of Indian Federation, while the Lok Sabha
represents the people of India as a whole. The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is
required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue
interference of the Centre. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

19 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 52.C
• The state is an independent, sovereign government exercising control over a certain spatially defined and
bounded area, whose borders are usually clearly defined and internationally recognized by other states.
• There are four defining features of a State: Territory, Sovereignty, A form of Government and a
population.
• States are tied to territory
o Sovereign or state as absolute ruler over territory
o Have clear borders
o Defends and controls its territory within those borders
o Is recognized by other countries (diplomatic recognition, passports, treaties, etc.)
• States have bureaucracies staffed by state’s own personnel
o Has a national bureaucracy staffed by government personnel (legal system, educational system,
hierarchical governmental units, etc.)
• States monopolize certain functions within its territory (sovereign)
o Controls legitimate use of force within its territory
o Controls money at the national scale (prints currency; collects taxes)
o Makes rules within its territory (law, regulations, taxes, citizenship, etc.)
o Controls much information within its territory
o States try to form nations within their borders (through symbols, education, ‘national interest,’ etc.).
• A nation is a group of people who see themselves as a cohesive and coherent unit based on shared
cultural or historical criteria.
o Nations are socially constructed units, not given by nature.
o Their existence, definition, and members can change dramatically based on circumstances.
o Nations in some ways can be thought of as “imagined communities” that are bound together by notions
of unity that can pivot around religion, ethnic identity, language, cultural practice and so forth.
o The concept and practice of a nation work to establish who belongs and who does not (insider vs.
outsider). Such conceptions often ignore political boundaries such that a single nation may “spillover”
into multiple states. Furthermore, states ≠ nations: not every nation has a state (e.g., Kurds; Roma;
Palestine). Some states may contain all or parts of multiple nations.
• Nation-State is the idea of a homogeneous nation governed by its own sovereign state—where each state
contains one nation. This idea is almost never achieved.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 53.C
• Recent context: Recently, the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) has successfully completed the first
test of high altitude pseudo satellite vehicle.
o NAL is a premier aerospace research institution in India under the Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR).
• A High Altitude Pseudo-Satellite Vehicle (HAPS) is an aircraft-like vehicle that operates at extremely
high altitudes (typically above 65,000 feet) in the stratosphere. It combines aspects of both satellites
and aircraft.
• Pseudo-Satellite Characteristics:
o High Altitude: Flies well above commercial airliners, providing a constant line of sight to a large area
below.
o Long Duration: Can remain airborne for weeks or even months, providing persistent surveillance or
communications coverage. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Wide-Area Coverage: Can cover an extensive geographical area, offering satellite-like coverage
without the need for a constellation of satellites.
• Aircraft-Like Characteristics:
o Solar-Powered: Utilizes solar panels to generate electricity, eliminating the need for frequent
refueling. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Near-Geostationary: Can operate in a near-geostationary position, providing a relatively fixed position
over a specific area.
o Flexible Payload: Can carry a variety of payloads, including communication equipment, sensors, or
surveillance cameras.
• HAPS technology can significantly enhance India's border surveillance and remote communications
capabilities.

20 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 o By providing persistent observation, extending connectivity, and enhancing situational awareness,
HAPS will contribute to the safety and security of the nation while also promoting economic growth
and social progress in remote areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 54.C
• The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015, replaced the nomenclature of “Overseas Citizen of India” with
that of “Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder”.
• Cancellation of Registration as Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder -
o The Central Government may cancel the registration of a person as an overseas citizen of India
cardholder, if it is satisfied that
o the registration as an overseas citizen of India cardholder was obtained by means of fraud, false
representation or the concealment of any material fact; or
o the overseas citizen of India cardholder has shown disaffection towards the Constitution of India; or
o the overseas citizen of India cardholder has, during any war in which India may be engaged, unlawfully
traded or communicated with an enemy; or
o the overseas citizen of India cardholder has, within five years after registration, been sentenced
to imprisonment for a term of not less than two years;Hence , statement 1 is correct.
o it is necessary so to do in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of India,
friendly relations of India with any foreign country, or in the interests of the general public; Hence ,
statement 3 is correct.
o the marriage of an overseas citizen of India cardholder
o has been dissolved by a competent court of law or otherwise; or
o has not been dissolved but, during the subsistence of such marriage he has solemnised marriage
with any other person. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 55.A
• Context: 24.82 crore people escaped multidimensional poverty in last nine years. Findings of NITI Aayog’s
Discussion Paper ‘Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06’ give credit for this remarkable
achievement to significant initiatives of the government to address all dimensions of the poverty between
2013-14 to 2022-23.
• The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (NMPI) in India is published by NITI Aayog, not the
Ministry of Social Justice. The NMPI was developed with the support of the United Nations Development
Programme (UNDP) and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI). This index is an
important tool that enables the country to track its progress towards the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs), particularly SDG target 1.2, that aims to reduce poverty in all its dimensions. Hence statement 1
is not correct.
• The NMPI is not necessarily published annually. The frequency of publication may vary depending on data
collection and analysis timelines. The national MPI report outlines the remarkable progress made by India
in nearly halving multidimensional poverty between 2015-2016 and 2019-2021, highlighting the country’s
unwavering commitment to achieving the SDGs and its determined efforts to address poverty and improve
the lives of its citizens. It is commendable that India’s rural areas and its poorest states have shown the
fastest decline. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The national multidimensional poverty measures simultaneous deprivations across three equally weighted
dimensions of health, education, and standard of living that are represented by 12 sustainable development
goals-aligned indicators It retains the 10 original indicators of the global MPI model and has added
two indicators, viz., Maternal Health and Bank Account, in line with India’s national
priorities. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• As per the latest MPI report, Bihar has the highest percentage of Multidimensional poverty in
India. Hence statement 4 is correct.

21 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 56.B
• Context: During the 75th Republic Day celebration in Delhi, Tamil Nadu portrayed the rich history of the
state by highlighting the 'Kudavolai' (Kuda Olai) voting system.
• 'Kudavolai' System
o The Chola administration operated on democratic principles, fostering a flourishing Panchayat
system during their reign. The Uttaramerur inscriptions specifically reference the Kudavolai system as
a distinctive and notable aspect of village administration in the Chola dynasty.
o This system was a very notable and unique feature of the village administration of the Cholas. There
were 30 wards in each village. A representative for each ward was elected through Kudavolai system.
Names of the contestants from whom one could be chosen were written on palm leaf tickets. These
22 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 palm leaves were put into a pot and shuffled. A small boy picked up palm leaves one by one from the
pot. Persons whose name tickets were picked up by the boy were declared elected.
o Like that 30 members for thirty wards were elected. This kind of peculiar election system was called
kudavolai system. Out of the thirty elected members, twelve members were appointed to the Annual
committee, twelve members were appointed as the members of the Garden committee and six members
to the Tank committee.
o A person who could be chosen through Kudavolai system must have age from 35 to 70. He should
possess one veli land and of a house built in a taxable land on his own site. He should have knowledge
about Vedas and mantras. Persons who killed brahmins or women or cow or children were disqualified.
o Thieves, drunkards and people who had undergone punishments were also disqualified from contesting
election from kudavolai system. The people of the Chola Empire were more benefited by the Chola
administration. The best aspects of the Chola administration were followed by the rulers of the later
period.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 57.B
• Recent context: Union Health Minister has launched the Mannhit app.
• It is an initiative facilitating screening for mental health.
• The main objectives of the app are to:
o Improve access to mental health services in underserved areas.
o Reduce the stigma associated with mental health conditions.
o Provide early intervention and support for individuals with mental health issues.
o Promote mental well-being and resilience among the population.
• The Mannhit app is a significant step towards addressing the growing mental health challenges in India.
• It aims to make mental health services more accessible, affordable, and convenient, especially for those
living in rural and remote areas.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 58.D
• A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The President can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to
him in the same session for such removal.
• ·The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the
total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House
present and voting). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The grounds of removal are two–proved misbehavior or incapacity. Thus, a judge of a high court can be
removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement
3 is correct.
• The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of a high court
by the process of impeachment:
o A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of
Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
o The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.If it is admitted, then the Speaker/
Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate into the charges.
o The committee should consist of
ü the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
ü a chief justice of a high court, and
ü a distinguished jurist.
o If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from an incapacity, the
House can take up the consideration of the motion.
o After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an address is presented to
the president for removal of the judge.
o Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.
• From the above, it is clear that the procedure for the impeachment of a judge of a high court is the same as
that for a judge of the Supreme Court. It is interesting to know that no judge of a high court has been
impeached so far.

23 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 59.A
• The enactment of the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951 led to the insertion in the Constitution
of India, 1950, of one of the most controversial provisions in Indian constitutional history - Article 31B
and, correspondingly, the Ninth Schedule.
• Article 31B validates legislations from the day they are placed in the Ninth Schedule, although, such
legislations or its provisions may contravene Part III of the Constitution that provides for Fundamental
Rights.2 Further, such validation is notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court or tribunal
upholding the constitutional invalidity of the said legislation or its provisions 3 and Article 31A.
• In a bid to free India from the scourge of the zamindari system, the Constitution framers enacted
Article 31B with the intention of protecting land reform laws from judicial review on the touchstone
of the fundamental right to property (as it existed then). Initially, the Ninth Schedule consisted of thirteen
laws, each aimed at land reforms; today, it consists of a myriad collection laws covering reservation,
industries, trade and mines, etc.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 60.C
• Recent context: The President of India graced and addressed the 200th Janmotsav – Gyan Jyoti Parv
Smaranotsav Samaroh on the occasion of the birth anniversary of Maharshi Dayanand Saraswati on
February 12, 2024, at Tankara, Gujarat.
• About Swami Dayanand Saraswati:
o He was renowned social reformer and the founder of the Arya Samaj in 1875.
ü Arya Samaj is a reform movement of Vedic dharma and he was the first to give the call for Swaraj
as "India for Indian" in 1876.
o He revived vedic ideology through Arya Samaj and emphasized rational thinking and the rejection of
idolatry and monotheism.
o He strongly opposed child marriage, polygamy, and caste discrimination, while promoting widow
remarriage and women's education.
o He wrote a book called 'Satyarth Prakash', which encapsulates his reformist ideas and vision for a
reformed society.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 61.D
• The most extra-ordinary feature of the federal arrangement created in India is that many States get a
differential treatment. The size and population of each State being different, an asymmetrical
representation is provided in the Rajya Sabha. While ensuring minimum representation to each of the
smaller States, this arrangement also ensures that larger States would get more representation.
• In the case of division of powers, too, the Constitution provides a division of powers that is common to all
the States. And yet, the Constitution has some special provisions for some States given their peculiar social
and historical circumstances. Most of the special provisions pertain to the north eastern States (Assam,
Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, etc.) largely due to a sizeable indigenous tribal population with a
distinct history and culture, which they wish to retain (Art 371). However, these provisions have not been
able to stem alienation and the insurgency in parts of the region. Special provisions also exist for hilly States
like Himachal Pradesh and some other States like Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Sikkim.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 62.B
• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) enumerated in part IV (Article 36-51), as a unique
feature of the Indian Constitution, aims to guide the nation toward the establishment of a just and
equitable society. Embodying the ideals of social and economic democracy, they serve as a compass for
the governance of the country and aim to fulfill the goals of a welfare state.
• The idea for Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from
the Irish Constitution. DPSPs in India are inspired by the "Instrument of Instructions" found in the
Government of India Act, 1935. The Instrument of Instructions was a set of guidelines for the
governors and the rulers of Indian states on how to govern, although they were not enforceable by
the courts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under Article 36 of the Indian Constitution, the term State in Part IV of the Indian Constitution has
the same meaning as in Part III which covers Fundamental Rights. As per Article 12 under Part III of
the Indian Constitution, the state includes the Government and Parliament of India, and Government and
24 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 Legislature of each of the states, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the
control of the Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Directive principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the
courts for their violation. DPSPs are not automatically enforced and they require legislation for their
implementation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q 63.A
• Context: The report, Global Carbon Budget, pointed out that the global carbon emissions from fossil fuels
have reached an all-time high in 2023; increasing over the level calculated last year.
• The Global Carbon Project (GCP) is an international scientific research program that tracks the
global carbon cycle.
• Its annual report provides comprehensive data and analysis on global greenhouse gas emissions, carbon
sinks, and their implications for climate change.
• It is a Global Research Project of Future Earth and a research partner of the World Climate Research
Programme. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The GCP Report monitors three primary GHGs at the global level: Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Carbon dioxide (CO2)
ü It is the most significant GHG emitted by human activities, primarily from burning fossil fuels.
o Methane (CH4)
ü It is released from natural sources (e.g., wetlands) and anthropogenic activities (e.g., livestock
farming, natural gas leakage).
o Nitrous oxide (N2O)
ü It is emitted from agricultural practices (e.g., fertilizer application) and industrial processes

Q 64.A
• The "Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival" is a state festival of Arunachal Pradesh, which was initiated to
recognize and celebrate the efforts of the Nyishi hunters-turned-conservationists of hornbills.
• This unique festival is named after the Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary, home to several species of hornbills.
• The first time it was held was in 2015. The festival’s theme for 2024 was ‘Domutoh Domutoh, Paga hum
Domutoh’. It translates to ‘Let Our Hornbills Remain’ in the Nyishi language.
• The term "Paga" means hornbill in the Nyishi language. The Nyishi had formerly hunted hornbills and
used their bills to craft traditional headgear. They had later turned hornbill conservationists.
• The festival focuses on wildlife conservation, with a particular emphasis on hornbills. Four species of the
birds — Wreathed, Great Indian, Oriental Pied and the endangered Rufous-necked — are found in
the Pakke Tiger Reserve (PTR) of Arunachal Pradesh.
• Other objectives were to raise alternative sources of income for the region and to create awareness in the
rest of India about the wonders of PTR and its surrounding areas.
• This initiative underscores the importance of community-led conservation efforts and the harmonious
coexistence of humans and wildlife.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 65.A
• The features of the Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:
o It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all
British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and
trade with China. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
o It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
o It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
o It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
A sum of one lakh rupees was to be allocated annually for the promotion, revival, and encouragement
of literature, learning, and science among the native population of India.
o It authorised the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish
the persons for not paying taxes.
o Regulations made by the Councils of Madras, Bombay, and Calcutta were required to be presented
before the British Parliament, establishing a mechanism for parliamentary oversight.
o The act mandated the maintenance of separate accounts for commercial transactions and territorial
revenues, ensuring transparency and accountability.

25 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 66.D
• The Center has taken a significant step towards implementing the One Nation, One Election concept
by forming a committee led by former President Ram Nath Kovind.
• The high-level committee on “One Nation One Election” (ONOE), headed by former President Ram Nath
Kovind, submitted its report on simultaneous polls to President Droupadi Murmu on March 14.
o The ONOE plan aims to synchronize the timing of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections across
all states in India to reduce the frequency of election cycles nationwide.
• Historical Context: After the enforcement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950, the first-ever general
elections for both the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies occurred simultaneously in 1951–1952. This practice
continued for the following three Lok Sabha elections until 1967, streamlining the election process.
• In 1959, the cycle was disrupted as the Central government invoked Article 356 of the Constitution, leading
to the dismissal of the Kerala government due to a perceived failure of constitutional machinery. Subsequent
to 1960, defections and counter-defections among political parties led to the dissolution of several state
legislative assemblies. This fragmentation resulted in separate election cycles for the Lok Sabha and state
assemblies.
o Presently, only specific states such as Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha
conduct their assembly polls concurrently with the Lok Sabha elections. Hence, option (d) is the
correct answer.

Q 67.D
• A five-judge Bench of the Supreme Court, in a 3:2 verdict on petitions seeking the rights for members of
the LGBTQ community to marry and choose family, declined to legalize same-sex marriage. The verdict
poses the marriage equality question for the legislature. Without any central law, the judgment holds that
State legislatures can enact laws recognizing and regulating same-sex marriages; the Constitution under
Articles 245 and 246 empowers both the Parliament and the State to enact marriage regulations.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Court also refused to strike down or read words to interpret the Special Marriage Act (SMA) as
gender-neutral: doing so would both infringe upon the legislature’s role and have a “cascading” impact on
other laws. “If the Special Marriage Act is struck down, it will take the country to the pre-independence
era,” the verdict states. SMA, as a secular framework, was passed in 1954 to govern unions where the
state sanctions the marriage rather than the religion. The petitioners had argued that queer couples could
seek legal refuge in frameworks like the SMA and Foreign Marriage Act; creating marriage legislation only
for heterosexual couples would render both Acts discriminatory. However, the Court did not make that
finding.
• The verdict refused to afford legal recognition to same-sex marriages since marriage “as a social institution
predates all rights, forms of political thought and laws,” and there is no unqualified right to marry that
people can claim as a fundamental right. Unqualified rights are rights which cannot be balanced against the
needs of other individuals or against any general public interest. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Q 68.A
• Statement 1 is correct: A curative petition may be filed after a review plea against the final conviction
is dismissed. It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of justice, and to prevent abuse of process. A
curative petition is usually decided by judges in chamber, unless a specific request for an open-court hearing
is allowed. The concept of the curative petition is supported by Article 137 of the Indian Constitution. It
provides that in the matter of laws and rules made under Article 145, the Supreme Court has the power
to review any judgement pronounced by it.
• Every curative petition is decided on the basis of principles laid down by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok
Hurra Vs Ashok Hurra & another, 2002. The judgment held that technical difficulties and apprehensions
over the reopening of cases had to give way to a final forum for removing errors in a judgment where
administration of justice may be affected.
• Statement 2 is not correct: A curative petition must be accompanied by certification by a senior advocate,
pointing out substantial grounds for entertaining it. It must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior-
most judges, and the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of
the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed — as far as possible, before the same
Bench.

26 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 69.B
• Context: A new crowdfunded phone called the Minimal Phone is going back to basics with a throwback
design featuring a physical keyboard and black and white E Ink display.
• E-ink displays (also known as e-paper displays) are a type of electronic display that mimics the
appearance and reading experience of traditional paper.
• They are primarily used in e-readers, tablets, and other devices designed for reading text-heavy content.
• Advantages
o High readability: E-ink displays have a high contrast ratio that makes text clear and easy to read,
similar to traditional paper.
o Eye strain reduction: Unlike traditional LCD screens, e-ink displays do not emit blue light, which can
reduce eye strain and improve reading comfort. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Long battery life: E-ink displays consume very little power, allowing devices to have extended battery
life.
ü Once the image is set, the e-ink display consumes virtually no power to maintain the display,
unlike LCD and OLED displays, which require constant power to keep the backlight or self-
illumination elements active. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Durable: E-ink displays are durable and resistant to damage from scratches or drops. Environmentally
friendly: E-ink technology is energy-efficient and does not require backlighting, making it more
environmentally friendly than other display types.
• Disadvantages:
o Slow refresh rate: E-ink displays have a slower refresh rate than LCD screens, which can make it less
suitable for fast-moving content or animations.
ü Traditional LCD displays have refresh rates of around 60Hz.
ü In contrast, e-ink displays typically have refresh rates of around 1Hz or less. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.
o Limited color range: Most e-ink displays are only capable of displaying shades of gray or a limited
number of colors.

Q 70.B
• The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system.
However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects:
o India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the
State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain(that is, King or Queen)
enjoys a hereditary position.
o The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is
not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal
system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
o In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of the
Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament.
o Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In India, a person who
is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six
months.
o Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in
Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State.
o ‘Shadow cabinet’ is an unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the
opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial
office. There is no such institution in India.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 71.A
• Citizens are members of the political community enjoying full civil and political rights. Citizenship
comes with community and states commitment to honour the rights and the duties towards the community
and the nation. In the contemporary world, states provide a collective political identity to their members as
well as certain rights. Therefore we think of ourselves as Indians, or Japanese, or Germans, depending on
the state to which we belong. Citizens expect certain rights from their state as well as help and protection
wherever they may travel.
• The importance of full membership of a state can be appreciated if we think of the condition of the thousands
of people in the world who have the bad fortune to be forced to live as refugees or illegal migrants because

27 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 no state is willing to grant them membership. Such people are not guaranteed rights by any state and
generally live in precarious conditions. For them full membership of a state of their choice is a goal for
which they are willing to struggle, as we see today with Palestine refugees in the Middle East. Hence,
option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 72.B
• The District Court or Additional District Court exercises jurisdiction both on the original side and
appellate side in civil and criminal matters arising in the District. The district court has appellate
jurisdiction over all subordinate courts situated in the district in both civil and criminal
matters. Subordinate courts on the civil side (in ascending order) are the Junior Civil Judge Court, Principal
Junior Civil Judge Court, and Senior Civil Judge Court (also called sub-court). Subordinate courts, on the
criminal side (in ascending order of hierarchy), are First Class Judicial Magistrate Court and Chief Judicial
Magistrate Court. Certain criminal or civil matters cannot be tried by a court lesser than a district court.
This gives the District Court original jurisdiction in such matters. Appeals and Revision order overlying in
districts from the district courts lie to the High Court of the concerned state. Hence statement 1 is not
correct.
• The territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction in civil matters is usually set in concerned state enactments
on the subject of civil courts. On the criminal side, jurisdiction is exclusively derived from the criminal
procedure code. As per this code the maximum sentence a Sessions Judge of district court may award to a
convict is capital punishment. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 73.C
• This significant Act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857 - also known as the First War of
Independence or the ‘sepoy mutiny’. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of
India, abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of Government, territories and
revenues to the British Crown.
• The features of this Act were as follows:
o It provided that India, henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed
the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (Viceroy) was the
direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning, thus, became the first Viceroy of
India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of
Directors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over
Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British Cabinet and was responsible
ultimately to the British Parliament. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o It established a 15-member council of India to assist the Secretary of State for India. The council was
an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the Chairman of the council.
o It constituted the Secretary of State-in Council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in
India and in England.
Q 74.A
• A preamble serves as an opening declaration within a constitution, elucidating its underlying
philosophy and objectives. Its origin draws inspiration from the preamble of the United States
Constitution. Within a constitution, it articulates the aspirations of its architects, delves into the historical
backdrop of its formation, and encapsulates the fundamental values and principles guiding the nation. The
preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution, which was moved in the
Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946.
• The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) clarified that being a part of the
Constitution, the Preamble can be subjected to Constitutional Amendments exercised under Article
368, however, the basic structure cannot be altered.
• The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act, which has added three new words to the preamble- Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 75.C
• It is generally accepted that there are three main categories of governmental functions: (i) the legislative,
(ii) the Executive, and (iii) the Judicial. At the same time, there are three main organs of the Government in
state i.e. legislature, executive and judiciary.

28 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 • According to the theory of separation of powers, these powers and functions of the state must, in a free
democracy, always be kept separate and exercised by separate organs of the Government. Thus, the
legislature cannot exercise executive or judicial power; the executive exercise legislative or judicial power
of the Government.
• The separation of Power is a method of removing the amount of power in any groups hands, making it more
difficult to abuse. The premise behind the Separation of Power is that when a single person or group has a
large amount of power, they can become dangerous to citizens.
• The Indian constitution does not make any absolute or rigid separation of powers of three organs owing to
its pro responsibility approach rather than having stability at the centre stage.
• Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)
o Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a scheme that enables the
members of Parliaments (MP) to recommend developmental work in their constituencies with an
emphasis on creating durable community assets based on locally felt needs.
o The Supreme Court in 2010, ruled that there was no violation of the concept of separation of powers in
the MPLADS scheme. This was because the role of an MP, in this case, is recommendatory and the
actual work is carried out by the Panchayats and Municipalities which belong to the executive.
o Hence, option 1 is not correct.
• Inclusion of executive in a non-majority capacity in the commission for appointment of Judiciary
o The Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association case, 2016 ruled that presence of executive
members (either in a majority or non-majority capacity) in the National Judicial Appointments
Commission violated the independence of the judiciary. The Court held that the executive involvement
in the appointment of judges impinges upon the independence of the judiciary. This violates the
principle of separation of powers between the executive and judiciary, which is a basic feature of the
Constitution.
o Hence option 2 is correct.
• Authority of the Parliament to decide on the question and consequent punishment over breach of its
privilege
o One of the various manifestations of violation of principle of Separation of powers is when the
Parliament exercises judicial functions. While performing judicial functions, it can decide the
question of breach of its privilege and if proved, can punish the person concerned. While doing
so, the Parliament is the sole judge and Courts cannot generally question the decision of the Houses on
this point.
o Hence option 3 is correct.

Q 76.C
• The Kerala Assembly recently passed a resolution urging the Centre to rename the state as
“Keralam” in the Constitution and all office records.
• Article 3 of the Constitution of India states that Parliament may legally enlarge the territory of any
State, reduce the territory of any State, alter the boundaries of any State, and even change the name
of any State.
• Unlike in the case of renaming cities, to change the name of a state, approval from the Centre’s Ministry
of Home Affairs (MHA) is required. The proposal has to first come from the state government. The Union
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) then takes over and gives its consent after it receives No Objection
Certificates (NOCs) from several agencies such as the Ministry of Railways, Intelligence Bureau,
Department of Posts, Survey of India and Registrar General of India. If the proposal is accepted, the
resolution, introduced as a Bill in the Parliament, becomes a law and the name of the state is changed
thereafter. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of
Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
o Admission or establishment of new states.
o Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
o Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
• The Fifth Constitutional Amendment Act of 1955, empowered the President to prescribe a time limit
for a State Legislature to convey its views on proposed Central laws relating to the formation of new States
and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Hence statement 1 is correct.

29 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 77.B
• Recently, the Aadhaar-based payment system (ABPS) became mandatory for MGNREGS workers.
• AEPS, expanded as Aadhaar Enabled Payment System, is defined as a type of payment method. The service
is being offered by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). Aadhaar Pay is a payment system
which allows merchants to collect payments from a customer using his Aadhaar number and biometric
authentication. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS, ABPS has been in use since 2017. The system was first made mandatory
(by the Rural Development Ministry) with effect from Feb 1 2023 but, through several extensions, the
Centre allowed it until Dec 31 2023. With no extension granted to states beyond Dec 31, the ABPS became
mandatory from Jan 1 2024. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) supports online transactions by authenticating the customer's
biometrics at the point of transaction. AePS is a bank-led model that allows online interoperable financial
inclusion transactions at PoS (Micro ATM) through the Business correspondent of any bank using the
Aadhaar authentication. The only inputs required for a customer to do a transaction under this scenario are:
-
o Bank Name
o Aadhaar Number
o Biometrics captured during enrolment. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 78.B
• The appointment, posting, and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state
in consultation with the high court.
• A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following qualifications:
o He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government.
o He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
o He should be recommended by the high court for an appointment. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Q 79.B
• Recently, the Supreme Court of India held that there is no Fundamental Right to Reservation. Firstly,
in the case of Mukesh Kumar V. State of Uttarakhand [1]. In this case, an appeal was filed before the
Supreme Court of India regarding the reservation in promotion to the Scheduled Caste and
Scheduled Tribes in Public Services. It was held by the Court that there is no fundamental right to
the Reservation in the promotion to Claim by the people
• Article 16 of the Indian Constitution deals with equality of opportunity in the matter of public
employment. It specifically provided for non-discrimination in government employment on the grounds of
religion, race, caste, sex, decent, place of birth, residence, or any of them. It also allows for reservations in
appointment or post in favor of any backward class of citizens.
• Article 16 (4) is an enabling provision and confers a discretionary power on the state to make
reservations if required, but it confers no constitutional right upon the member of the backward classes to
claim reservation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The 77th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1995 inserted Article 16 (4A) enabling the state to make
reservations in promotion for SCs and STs. Further, the 85th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001
amended Article 16 (4A) again to allow for consequential seniority in promotion. The concept of
consequential seniority ensures that individuals from reserved categories who are promoted via reservation
policy retain their seniority over their peers from the unreserved category who are promoted later. The
Supreme Court in the M Nagraj case and the Jarnail Singh case upheld the constitutional validity of Article
16 (4A). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Article 16 prohibit discrimination in the matter of public employment only on the ground of religion, race,
caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence. It does not prevent the state to pick and choose from a
number of candidates, either for appointment or for promotion, on grounds of efficiency, discipline, and
others, except grounds which are provided in Article 16 itself. So, the discrimination based on discipline
and efficiency among citizens in matter of appointment by the state is not considered as a violation of
fundamental rights under Article 16.

Q 80.C
• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution conferred certain positive rights in order to promote the ideal of liberty
held out by the preamble. Article 19 contains six fundamental freedoms which are guaranteed to the citizen.
They are freedom of speech and expression, freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms, freedom to

30 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 form association and union, freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India, freedom to reside and
settle in any part of the territory of India, freedom to practice any profession, occupation, trade or business.
However, these freedoms are not absolute and they are subjected to reasonable restrictions.
• Various Supreme Court pronouncements indirectly amended the Constitution and widened the scope of
these freedom time to time. For example, Naveen Jindal vs Union of India provided flying of the national
flag is a symbol of expression coming within the purview of Article 19, and PUCL vs Union of India
provided right to information is an integral part of freedom of expression.
• The Supreme Court in Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala established that the right to silence is an integral
part of the freedom of speech and expression granted by Article 19(1)(a). This recognition means that
individual cannot be compelled to speak or participate in speech against their will. Hence option 1 is
correct.
• The Supreme Court in the Zoroastrian Co-operation Housing Society case held that no citizen has a
fundamental right under 19(1)(c) to become a member of a voluntary association or a co-operative society.
His right is governed by the provision of the statute. So, the right to become or to continue being a member
of society is a statutory right not a fundamental right under article 19(1)(c). Hence option 2 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court in the TMA Pai Foundation case held that all citizens have a right to establish and
administer educational institutions under Article 19(1)(g) and the minorities have a special right under
Article 30. Hence option 3 is correct.
• In the Anuradha Bhasin case, the Supreme Court held that the freedom to practice any profession or
carry on any trade business or occupation over the medium of the Internet enjoys constitutional
protection under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution of India. Hence option 4 is correct.
• Article 19(1)(b) grants freedom to assemble peacefully without arms. So, this provision does not protect
violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies or one that causes breach of public peace or one that involves
arms. This right also does not include the right to strike. However, right to strike is a statutory right,
not a fundamental right. Hence option 5 is not correct.

Q 81.B
• Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
o form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of
states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
o increase the area of any state;
o diminish the area of any state;
o alter the boundaries of any state; and alter the name of any state.
• The decision of the Central Government in 1960 to cede part of a territory known as Berubari Union (West
Bengal) to Pakistan led to political agitation and controversy and thereby necessitated the Presidential
reference. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under
Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be
ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. Consequently, the 9th
Constitutional Amendment Act (1960) was enacted to transfer the said territory to Pakistan. Hence
option 2 is correct.
• The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act (2015) was enacted to give effect to the acquiring of certain
territories by India and transfer of certain other territories to Bangladesh in pursuance of the
agreement and its protocol entered into between the Governments of India and Bangladesh. Under this deal,
India transferred 111 enclaves to Bangladesh, while Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves to India. Hence
option 3 is correct.
• The 26th constitutional amendment was passed in 1971. It made many changes to the constitution which
also included the abolition of the privy purse system for former Indian princes. This amendment also
provides for the appointment of a commission to review the working of the Constitution every five years
and submit a report to the President of India. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• Seventy-Fifth Amendment Act, 1994 provided for the establishment of rent tribunals for the
adjudication of disputes with respect to rent, its regulation and control and tenancy issues including
the rights, title and interest of landlords and tenants. Hence option 4 is not correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 82.C
• The Collegium of judges is the Supreme Court’s invention. The term collegium is not mentioned in the
Constitution, which says judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President and
speaks of a process of consultation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

31 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 • The ‘First Judges Case’ (1981) ruled that the “consultation” with the CJI in the matter of appointments must
be full and effective. However, it rejected the idea that the CJI’s opinion, albeit carrying great weight, should
have primacy.
• The Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the Collegium system, holding that “consultation” really meant
“concurrence”. It added that it was not the CJI’s individual opinion, but an institutional opinion formed in
consultation with the two senior-most judges in the Supreme Court.
• On a Presidential Reference for its opinion, the Supreme Court, in the Third Judges Case (1998) expanded
the Collegium for the appointment of Supreme Court judge to a five-member body, comprising the CJI and
four of his senior-most colleagues. For the appointment of a High Court Judge, collegium comprises the
CJI and two senior-most judges. The proposal, however, is initiated by the Chief Justice of the High Court
concerned in consultation with two senior-most colleagues. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Q 83.C
• Article 3 authorises the Parliament to:
o form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of
states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
o increase the area of any state;
o diminish the area of any state;
o alter the boundaries of any state; and alter the name of any state.
• However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard:
o one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior
recommendation of the President; and
o two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature
concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. Hence statement-I is correct.
Further, the power of Parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or union
territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other state or union territory.
• The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept
or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh reference
to the state legislature every time an amendment to the bill is moved and accepted in Parliament. Hence
statement-II is not correct.

Q 84.C
• Recently, military regimes in Burkina Faso, Mali and Niger announced their immediate withdrawal
from West African bloc ECOWAS, citing the bloc as a threat. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• About ECOWAS:
o Ecowas is a regional political and economic union mainly former British and French colonies located
in west Africa. It was established in 1975 through the Treaty of Lagos.
o Members: Benin, Cabo Verde, Côte d’Ivoire, Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia,
Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Sénégal and Togo.
o Headquarter: Abuja, Nigeria.
o Aim: Promote co-operation and integration, leading to establishment of an economic union in West
Africa to raise living standards of its people, enhance economic stability, foster relations among
Member States. It aims to have a single common currency and create a single, large trading bloc in
western Africa.
o In 1990s & early 2000, it operated regional peacekeeping operation called, ‘ECOMOG’, led by
Nigeria.

Q 85.A
• The Supreme Court of India has delivered numerous judgments related to the Directive Principle of State
Policy (DPSP) outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. The DPSPs, although non-justiciable, provide
fundamental guidelines for the governance of a country and aim to establish social order cherished by social,
economic and political justice.
• The Supreme Court in Minerva Mills v. Union of India case invalidated certain provisions of the 42nd
Amendment which sought to curtail the power of judicial review and make DPSP supreme over fundamental
rights. The court held that a harmonious balance between fundamental rights and DPSP is a part of the basic
structure of the constitution.
• The Supreme Court in Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka held that charging capitation fees violates the right
to education under Article 21 read with the DPSP, particularly Articles 41 and 45. The court declared that

32 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 the state is obliged to provide education for its citizens and that access to education should not be restricted
by financial barriers.
• The Supreme Court of India in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India recognized the importance of protecting and
improving the environment as envisaged by Article 48A.
• The Supreme Court of India in Randhir Singh v. Union of India held that equal pay for equal work
mentioned under Article 39(d) is a constitutional goal that can be enforced in cases where the principle is
violated. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• The Supreme Court in SR Bommai v Union of India restricted the arbitrary dismissal of state
governments under Article 356. It emphasised that the Presidential Proclamation under Article 356
must be exercised with caution. Also, upheld the legislative power of Parliament to reform personal laws
and urged the government to enact a Uniform Civil Code to promote national integration. Hence pair 2 is
correctly matched.
• The Bandhua Mukti Morcha vs Union of India case primarily dealt with the issue of bonded labor and
the implementation of the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976. This act focused on ensuring the
welfare of workers and freeing them from inhumane conditions. The Supreme Court observed that it is the
state's responsibility to provide living wages to all workers, ensuring a decent standard of living. Hence
pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q 86.C
• The Part 4 of the Constitution (Article 36 – 51) contains the Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP). The
state is expected to follow these principles both in the matter of administration as well as in making of laws.
• Our constitution did not adhere to any particular “ism” but sought to effect a compromise between
individualism and socialism by eliminating the vices of unbridled private enterprise and interest by social
control and welfare measures as far as possible. This philosophy of Fabian Socialism became more
prominent under former Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi which led to amendment in our constitutions
and additions of more DPSPs.
• New DPSPs added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 are –
o Article 39A to provide free legal aid to the poor and to take other suitable steps to ensure equal justice
to all.
o Article 39(f) - Children are given opportunity and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in
conditions of freedom and dignity. Also provide protection against exploitation and, moral and material
abandonment.
o Article 43A to ensure the participation of workers in the management of industries and
undertaking.
• New DPSP added by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 –
o Article 38(2) - The state shall strive to minimize the inequalities in income and endeavour to
eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities, not only among guest individuals but also
among guest groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different locations.
• New DPSP added by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002 –
o It altered Article 45 making provisions for early childhood care and education for children below
the age of 6 years in place of erstwhile provisions for free and compulsory education until the age of
14 years.
• New DPSP added by the 97th Amendment Act, 2011 –
o Article 43B - The state shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning,
democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies.
o Recently, Supreme Court in Rajendra N. Shah v. Union of India case has struck down most part of the
97th Constitutional Amendment Act on the ground that it required ratification by at least one-half of
the state legislatures as per Article 368 (2) of the Constitution. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 87.B
• The Regulating Act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as
o it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India
Company in India;
o it recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and
o it laid the foundations of central administration in India.
• The features of this Act were as follows:
o It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor- General of Bengal’ and created an
Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor General was Lord Warren
Hastings.
33 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 o It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general
of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another. Hence
statement 1 is not correct.
o It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief
justice and three other judges. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting
presents or bribes from the ‘natives’. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of
Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.

Q 88.A
• Context: India started its four-year term as a member of the United Nations Statistical Commission from
January, 2024.
• About United Nations Statistical Commission (UNSC):
o The United Nations Statistical Commission, established in 1946, is the highest body of the global
statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the
world. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting
of statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their
implementation at the national and international levels.
o It oversees the work of the UN Statistics Division (UNSD).
o It acts as a functional commission of the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
o It consists of 24 member countries of UN elected by ECOSOC. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o India started its four-year term as a member of the UNSC from 2024. It won the election to the
global statistics body after a gap of nearly two decades. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The membership of India gains importance as the term corresponds with the time that a body will decide
on new norms for national accounts, which will paly important role in changing India's GDP calculations.

Q 89.D
• Constitutionalism - It is a complex set of ideas that is based on the principle that the powers of the
government are not absolute and are limited by a body of laws or a supreme law called the constitution.
Thus, the government has to subscribe to the body of laws for its legitimacy depends on it.
• Components:
o Rule of Law - Although many people have contributed to the principle of Rule of Law, principally
Dicey's contribution has been more seminal. Rule of Law has many components, but basically, it means
rule by law. It has many components namely:
o Supremacy of law: The country will be ruled not according to the whims and fancies of the ruler but
in terms of the principles of law and the ruler is also subjected to the law. The Supreme Court has also
said 'You may ever be so high, but the law is above you, the law is the king of kings'. Even the
Upanishads express similar sentiments namely mentioning the Dharma of the king. The natural
corollary of this postulate will be that the rule of the country has to be in accordance with law and hence
cannot be arbitrary. Thus the arbitrary exercise of power is prohibited too.
o Equality before Law: Dicey said that all sections of society are equally subject to law of the land as
administered through ordinary courts. Though in modern practice, steps related to affirmative action or
positive discrimination violate the strict application of this principle but are in tune with modern times.
• Features of Constitutionalism –
o Rule of law
o Separation of Power
o Rights of People
o Democracy
o Free media
o Independent Judiciary
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
• A democratic political system becomes a prerequisite for constitutionalism to flourish. A political system
which is in conformity with the principles of constitutionalism must of necessity, inter alia, provide
restraints and limitations on the exercise of powers by the organs of the State. Sovereignty belongs to the
people but constitutionalism forbids the people from attempting political change through violent means. It
has got to lay down a system of checks and balances.
34 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS
 • Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary is one such device and in case
of federal systems, distribution of powers between different tiers of government, is another. Arbitrary
powers in the hands of any individual or institution - even if conferred by a constitutional document - are a
negation of the concepts of constitutionalism, sovereignty of the people and basic rights of individual
citizens.

Q 90.D
• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to
organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
• The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief and the Senior most Hon'ble Judge, Supreme Court of
India is the Executive Chairman of the authority. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Free legal aid is the provision of free legal services in civil and criminal matters for those poor and
marginalized people who cannot afford the services of a lawyer for the conduct of a case or a legal
proceeding in any Court, Tribunal, or Authority. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A nationwide network has been envisaged under the Act for providing legal aid and assistance. National
Legal Services Authority is the apex body constituted to lay down policies and principles for making legal
services available under the provisions of the Act and to frame most effective and economical schemes for
legal services. It also disburses funds and grants to State Legal Services Authorities and NGOs for
implementing legal aid schemes and programmes. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 91.C
• Recently the Constitutional validity of Section 13 of the Family Courts Act, which prohibits lawyers from
appearing before Family Courts, has been challenged before the Rajasthan High Court.
• The Family Courts Act, 1984 was enacted to provide for the establishment of Family Courts with a
view to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family
affairs.
• Following are some provisions of the Act:
o The act provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with
the High Courts.
o It makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a
population exceeding one million.
o It provides that the parties to a dispute before a Family Court shall not be entitled, as of right, to be
represented by a legal practitioner. However, the Court may, in the interest of justice, seek the assistance
of a legal expert as amicus curiae. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It simplifies the rules of evidence and procedure so as to enable a Family Court to deal effectively with
a dispute.
o It provides for only one right of appeal which shall lie to the High Court. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 92.A
• The Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself under Article 129 of the Indian
Constitution, which states, "The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of
such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself."
• Article 142 (2) explicitly grants the Supreme Court the power to investigate and punish any person
for its contempt. While this primarily focuses on contempt of the Supreme Court itself, it is understood in
a broader context that the Supreme Court can exercise its authority to protect the judiciary's functioning at
all levels.
• In 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that it has the power to punish for contempt not only of itself but
also of high courts, subordinate courts, and tribunals functioning in the entire country.
• On the other hand, High Courts have been given special powers to punish contempt of subordinate courts,
as per Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Constitution of India does not explicitly define what constitutes contempt of court. This is defined
in the Contempt of Courts Act, of 1971. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• As per the Contempt of Courts Act 1971, contempt refers to the offense of showing disrespect to the dignity
or authority of a court.
• The act divides contempt into civil and criminal contempt:

35 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 • Civil contempt: It is willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes
of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
• Criminal contempt: It is any publication that may result in Scandalising the court by lowering its authority,
Interference in the due course of a judicial proceeding and obstruction in the administration of justice.
• Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Q 93.D
• Context: Allahabad High Court mandates that India, a member of the Apostille Convention, must accept
foreign apostille-authenticated documents.
• Apostille Convention
o The Convention of 5 October 1961 Abolishing the Requirement of Legalisation for Foreign Public
Documents, also known as the Apostille Convention, is an international treaty drafted by the Hague
Conference on Private International Law (HCCH). The Apostille Convention is intended to simplify
the procedure through which a document, issued in one of the contracting states, can be certified
for legal purposes in the other contracting states of the Convention i.e. facilitates the use of public
documents abroad.
o The purpose of the Convention is to abolish the traditional requirement of legalisation, replacing the
often long and costly legalisation process with the issuance of a single Apostille certificate by a
Competent Authority in the place where the document originates. The electronic Apostille Programme
(e-APP) was launched in 2006 to support the electronic issuance and verification of Apostilles around
the world.
o The Convention has over 125 Contracting Parties and has become one of the most widely applied
multilateral treaties in the area of legal cooperation, with several million Apostilles issued each year.
o India, since 2005, is a member of the Hague Convention. Apostille is done for personal documents like
birth/death/marriage certificates, Affidavits, Power of Attorney, etc. and educational documents like
degrees, diplomas, matriculation and secondary-level certificates etc. As India is a member of the Hague
Apostille Convention, 1961, no further attestation or legalization of a document apostilled by a member
country, should be required for using such apostilled document in India.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 94.B
• Direct democracy: It comprises a form of democracy wherein all citizens can directly participate in
the political decision-making process. Direct democracy in its traditional form is the direct rule by the
people over themselves. In the ancient Indian Village Republics and the Greek city states, all the citizens
assembled together and decided issues of governance. People, thus, exercised their power directly in
deciding matters of State and this kind of polity could be called direct popular or participatory democracy.
In this case, both legal and political sovereignty could be said to vest in the people.
• Such a system is only practical with relatively small numbers of people – in a community organisation
or tribal council, for example, the local unit of a trade union, where members can meet in a single room to
discuss issues and arrive at decisions by consensus or majority vote. Modern society, with its size and
complexity, offers few opportunities for direct democracy. Today, the most common form of democracy,
whether for a town of 50,000 or nations of 1 billion, is representative democracy, in which citizens elect
officials to make political decisions and formulate laws.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 95.D
• In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President while
in USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalised citizen is eligible for the office of President. Hence
statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
• India is a republic and the head is the President in whom all the executive power vests and in whose name
it is to be exercised. He is also the supreme commander of the armed forces. It has been held, however,
that unlike the US President our President is only a nominal or constitutional head of the executive;
he acts only with the aid and advice of the real political executive which is the Council of Ministers. The
Ministers are collectively responsible to the popular house of the Parliament i.e., the Lok Sabha.
Thus,following the British pattern the constitution of India has basically adopted both at the Union and State
levels, the parliamentary system of government with ministerial responsibility to the popular house as
against the US system of Presidential government with separation of powers and their nearly irremovable
President as the chief executive for a fixed term.

36 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 96.B
• The National Population Register (NPR)
o It is a Register of usual residents of the country. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o It is being prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State and National level.
o It is prepared under the provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of
Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
o It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR.
ü A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for
the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or
more.
o The objective of the NPR is to create a comprehensive identity database of every usual resident in the
country.
o The database would contain demographic as well as biometric particulars. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
• The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is the register containing names of Indian Citizens.

Q 97.B
• The central government appointed a Commission in 1978 to look into and recommend ways to improve the
conditions of the backward classes. This was the second time since Independence that the government had
appointed such a commission. Therefore, this commission was officially known as the Second Backward
Classes Commission. Popularly, the commission is known as the Mandal Commission, after the name of
its Chairperson, Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal. The Commission gave its recommendations in
1980. By then the Janata government had fallen. P. V. Narasimha Rao became Prime Minister in
1991. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Commission did a survey and found that these backward castes had a very low presence in both
educational institutions and in employment in public services. It therefore recommended reserving 27
per cent of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for these groups.
• In August 1990, the National Front government decided to implement one of the recommendations of
Mandal Commission pertaining to reservations for OBCs in jobs in the central government and
its undertakings. This decision sparked agitations and violent protests in many cities of north India.
The decision was also challenged in the Supreme Court and came to be known as the ‘Indira Sawhney
case’, after the name of one of the petitioners. In November 1992, the Supreme Court gave a ruling
upholding the decision of the government.
• The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act added Article 15(c) stating that the state is empowered to
make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes
of citizens or for the scheduled castes or the scheduled tribes regarding their admission to educational
institutions. In order to give effect to this provision, the Centre enacted the Central Educational
Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006, providing a quota of 27% for candidates belonging
to the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in all central higher educational institutions. Hence statement 2
is correct.

Q 98.B
• UNITARY FEATURES OF THE CONSTITUTION- The Indian Constitution also possesses the
following unitary or non-federal features:
o Strong Centre - The division of powers is in favour of the Centre and highly inequitable from the
federal angle. Firstly, the Union List contains more subjects than the State List. Secondly, the more
important subjects have been included in the Union List. Thirdly, the Centre has overriding authority
over the Concurrent List. Finally, the residuary powers have also been left with the Centre, while in the
US, they are vested in the states. Thus, the Constitution has made the Centre very strong.
o States Not Indestructible - Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial
integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state.
Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. Hence, the Indian Federation
is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”. The American Federation, on the other hand, is
described as “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”.
o Single Constitution- Usually, in a federation, the states have the right to frame their own Constitution
separate from that of the Centre. In India, on the contrary, no such power is given to the states. The
Constitution of India embodies not only the Constitution of the Centre but also those of the states. Both

37 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

 the Centre and the states must operate within this single-frame. The only exception in this regard is the
case of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own (state) Constitution.
o Flexibility of the Constitution- The process of constitutional amendment is less rigid than what is
found in other federations. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the
Parliament, either by simple majority or by special majority. Further, the power to initiate an
amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Centre. In US, the states can also propose an
amendment to the Constitution. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
o No Equality of State Representation- The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the
basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle
of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate
has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller
states. Hence, option 3 is correct.
o Emergency Provisions- The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies—national, state and
financial. During an emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into
the total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal
amendment of the Constitution. This kind of transformation is not found in any other federation.
o Single Citizenship- In spite of a dual polity, the Constitution of India, like that of Canada, adopted the
system of single citizenship. There is only Indian Citizenship and no separate state citizenship. All
citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy the same rights all over the
country. The other federal states like US, Switzerland and Australia have dual citizenship, that is,
national citizenship as well as state citizenship.
o Integrated Judiciary- The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the
Supreme Court at the top and the state high courts below it. This single system of courts enforces both
the Central laws as well as the state laws. In US, on the other hand, there is a double system of courts
whereby the federal laws are enforced by the federal judiciary and the state laws by the state judiciary.
o All-India Services- In US, the Federal government and the state governments have their separate public
services. In India also, the Centre and the states have their separate public services. But, in addition,
there are all-India services (IAS, IPS, and IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states.
The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Centre which also possess ultimate
control over them. Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under the
Constitution. Hence, option 4 is correct.
o Integrated Audit Machinery- The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India audits the accounts of
not only the Central government but also those of the states. But, his appointment and removal is done
by the president without consulting the states. Hence, this office restricts the financial autonomy of the
states. The American Comptroller-General, on the contrary, has no role with respect to the accounts of
the states.
o Parliament’s Authority- Over State List Even in the limited sphere of authority allotted to them, the
states do not have exclusive control. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the
State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest. This means that the
legislative competence of the Parliament can be extended without amending the Constitution. Notably,
this can be done when there is no emergency of any kind.
o Appointment of Governor -The governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President.
He holds office during the pleasure of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. Through
him, the Centre exercises control over the states. The American Constitution, on the contrary, provided
for an elected head in the states. In this respect, India adopted the Canadian system.
o Integrated Election Machinery- The Election Commission conducts elections not only to the Central
legislature but also to the state legislatures. But, this body is constituted by the President and the states
have no say in this matter. The position is same with regard to the removal of its members as well. On
the other hand, US has separate machineries for the conduct of elections at the federal and state levels.
o Veto Over State Bills -The governor is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the state
legislature for the consideration of the President. The President can withhold his assent to such bills not
only in the first instance but also in the second instance. Thus, the President enjoys absolute veto (and
not suspensive veto) over state bills. But in US and Australia, the states are autonomous within their
fields and there is no provision for any such reservation. Hence, option 2 is correct.

38 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 99.B
• The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. Muslim League boycotted the
meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan. The meeting was, thus, attended by only 211 members.
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly.
Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly.
• The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the Assembly:
o The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased.
o The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were assigned to
the Assembly, that is, making of the Constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the
country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. For the first time, the Constituent
Assembly met as Dominion Legislature on November 17, 1947 and elected G.V. Mavlankar as its
speaker. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and
when it met as the legislative body , it was chaired by G.V. Mavlankar. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• After the enactment of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 representatives of the princely states, who
had stayed away from the Constituent Assembly, gradually joined it. On April 28, 1947, representatives of
the six states were part of the Assembly. After the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan of June 3, 1947, for
the partition of the country, the representatives of most of the other princely states took their seats in the
Assembly. The members of the Muslim League from the Indian Dominion also entered the Assembly.
Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q 100.D
• With reference to the division of powers between the Centre and the states as provided in the Seventh
Schedule of the Indian Constitution, the matters of national importance and the matters which require
uniformity of legislation nationwide are included in the Union List. The matters of regional and local
importance and the matters which permit diversity of interest are specified in the State List.
• The matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but not essential
are enumerated in the concurrent list. Thus, it permits diversity along with uniformity.
• In US, only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the Constitution and the
residuary powers are left to the states. The Australian Constitution followed the American pattern of
single enumeration of powers. In Canada, on the other hand, there is a double enumeration– Federal and
Provincial, and the residuary powers are vested in the Centre. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for a three-fold enumeration, viz., federal, provincial and
concurrent. The present Constitution follows the scheme of this act but with one difference, that is, under
this act, the residuary powers were given neither to the federal legislature nor to the provincial legislature
but to the governor-general of India. In this respect, India follows the Canadian precedent. Hence statement
2 is not correct.

Copyright © by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS.

39 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS