Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row

Exam Type: EPT-4_(EAPCET)

Course Name: JB
Maximum Marks: 160
Exam Date: 02ND September 2024
Exam Duration: 3.00 Hours

MATHEMATICS
𝐴 𝐵
11. 𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶 = 180∘ ⇒ cos2 2 + cos2 2 +
(Maximum Marks: 80) 𝐶
cos2 ⁡ =
 This section contains EIGHTY (80) questions. 2
𝐴 𝐵 𝐶
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and (4) (1) 1 + 2sin⁡2 sin⁡2 sin⁡2
ONLY ONE of these four option is correct 𝐴 𝐵 𝐶
 Marking scheme: +1 If ONLY the correct option is (2) 1 + 2cos⁡2 cos⁡2 cos⁡2
chosen, 0 In all other cases 𝐴 𝐵 𝐶
(3) 2 + 2sin⁡2 sin⁡2 sin⁡2
1. cos⁡𝐴 + cos⁡(120∘ + 𝐴) + cos⁡(120∘ − 𝐴) = 𝐴 𝐵 𝐶
(4) 2 + 2cos⁡2 cos⁡2 cos⁡2
(1) 1 (2) -1 (3) 0 (4) 2
2. sin⁡(𝜃 + 𝛼) = cos⁡(𝜃 + 𝛼) ⇒ tan⁡𝜃 = 12. 𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶 = 180∘
1−tan⁡𝛼 1+tan⁡𝛼 ⇒ sin2 ⁡𝐴 + sin2 ⁡𝐵 + sin2 ⁡𝐶 =
(1) 1+tan⁡𝛼 (2) 1−tan⁡𝛼
(1) 1 + cos⁡𝐴cos⁡𝐵cos⁡𝐶
1+sin⁡𝛼 1+Cos⁡𝛼
(3) 1−sin⁡𝛼 (4) 1−Cos⁡𝛼 (2) 1 + sin⁡𝐴sin⁡𝐵sin⁡𝐶
3. If sin⁡(𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐶) = 1 and sec⁡(𝐴 + 𝐶) = 2, (3) 2(1 + cos Acos Bcos 𝐶)
𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 being acute angles then 𝐵 = (4) 2(1 + sin⁡𝐴sin⁡𝐵sin⁡𝐶)
(1) 90o (2) 45o 13. If the ratio of the roots of the equation
(3) 30 o
(4) 60o 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is m: n then
2𝜋 4𝜋 6𝜋 𝑚 𝑛 𝑏2
4. cos (2𝑛+1) + cos (2𝑛+1) + cos (2𝑛+1) + ⋯ (1) + =
𝑛 𝑚 𝑎𝑐
2𝑛𝜋 𝑚 𝑛 |𝑏|
+cos⁡( )= (2) √( 𝑛 ) + √(𝑚) =
2𝑛 + 1 √𝑎𝑐
1 1
(1) 2 (2) − 2 𝑚 𝑛 𝑏2
(3) √( ) + √( ) =
3 3 𝑛 𝑚 𝑎𝑐
(3) 2 (4) − 2 𝑚 𝑛 𝑎2
sin⁡𝜃+sin⁡2𝜃 (4) 𝑛
+ 𝑚 = 𝑏2
5. 1+cos⁡𝜃+cos⁡2𝜃
=
𝜃 𝜃
14. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of the equation
(1) tan⁡2 (2) cot⁡2 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0, then the value of
(3) tan⁡𝜃 (4) cot⁡𝜃 1 1
+ =
𝜃 𝑎𝛼+𝑏 𝑎𝛽+𝑏
6. If sec⁡𝜃 − cos⁡𝜃 = 1, then tan2 ⁡ 𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 𝑎𝑏
2 (1) 𝑏𝑐 (2) 𝑎𝑐 (3) 𝑎𝑏 (4) 𝑐
(1) √5 + 2 (2) √5 − 2 15. If both the roots of 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 are
(3) 2 − √5 (4) 0 positive then
7. If 𝑥 = tan⁡15 , 𝑦 = cosec⁡75∘ and
∘
(1) Δ > 0, 𝑎𝑏 > 0, 𝑎𝑐 > 0
𝑧 = 4sin⁡18∘ then (2) Δ < 0, ab < 0, ac < 0
(1) 𝑥 < 𝑦 < 𝑧 (2) 𝑦 < 𝑧 < 𝑥 (3) Δ > 0, ab < 0, ac > 0
(3) 𝑧 < 𝑥 < 𝑦 (4) 𝑥 < 𝑧 < 𝑦 (4) Δ > 0, 𝑎𝑏 > 0, 𝑏𝑐 > 0
8. cos⁡𝑥 + cos⁡𝑦 = 1/3 16. If one root of the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0
sin⁡𝑥 + sin⁡𝑦 = 1/4⁡ where 𝑎, b, c are integers is √5 + 3, then the
⇒ sin⁡(𝑥 + 𝑦) other root is
(1) 7/25 (2) 25/24
(1) √5 − 3 (2) 3 − √5
(3) 25/7 (4) 24/25
9. sin⁡𝜃 = 𝑛sin⁡(𝜃 + 2𝛼) ⇒ (1 − 𝑛)tan(𝜃 + 𝛼) =
(3) −3 − √5 (4) 2√5 + 3
(1) (𝑛 + 1)tan⁡𝛼 (2) (𝑛 + 1)tan⁡𝛽
(3) (𝑛 − 1)tan⁡𝛼 (4) (𝑛 − 1)tan⁡𝛽 17. If a,b,c are positive real numbers, then the
number of real roots of the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 +
𝑏|𝑥| + 𝑐 = 0 is
10. The value of
2𝜋 4𝜋 8𝜋 14𝜋 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 0 (4) -1
cos⁡( 15 ) cos⁡( 15 ) cos⁡( 15 ) cos⁡( 15 ) =
(1) 1/16 (2) 3/4
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/12
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18. If one root of the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is 29. If ' 3 ' is a root of 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 − 24 = 0 it is also
double the other, then the relation between root of
𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 is ……… (1) 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 (2) 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 24 = 0
(1) 2𝑏 2 = 9𝑎𝑐 (2) 𝑏 2 = 𝑎𝑐 (3) 𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 + 6 = 0 (4) 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0
(3) 𝑏 2 = 3𝑎𝑐 (4) 𝑏 2 = 9𝑎𝑐 30. If the sum of the squares of the roots of
2
19. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of 𝑥 − 𝑥 + 2 = 0 then 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 − 3 = 0 is 10 then 𝑝 =
𝛼 3 𝛽 + 𝛼𝛽 3 = (1) ±2 (2) ±3
(1) -6 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) -5
(3) 10 (4) -3 31. If the difference of the roots of the equation
20. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 then 𝑥 2 − 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is equal to the differecne of
𝛼 𝛽 2 the roots of the equation x 2 − cx + b = 0 and
the value (𝛽 − 𝛼) is
𝑏 ≠ 𝑐, then 𝑏 + 𝑐 =
𝑏2 (𝑏2 −4𝑎𝑐) 𝑏 2 (𝑏2 +4𝑎𝑐)
(1) (2) (1) 0 (2) 2
𝑐 2 𝑎2 𝑐 2 𝑎2
𝑏2 (𝑏2 −2𝑎𝑐) 𝑏 2 (𝑏2 +2𝑎𝑐) (3) 4 (4) -4
(3) 𝑐 2 𝑎2
(4) 𝑐 2 𝑎2 32. If (a + 1), 3a, (4a + 2) are in A.P. then 7th term of
2
21. If 𝛼, 𝛽 are the roots of ax + 2bx + c = 0 then the series is
𝛼 𝛽
+ = (1) 10a + 4 (2) – 33
𝛽 𝛼
2(2𝑏2 −𝑎𝑐) 4(𝑏2 −𝑎𝑐) (3) 33 (4) 10a - 4
(1) 𝑎𝑐
(2) 𝑎𝑐 33. th
The 10 term of the sequence
4(𝑏2 −𝑎𝑐) 4(𝑏2 −𝑎𝑐)
(3) (4) √3, √12, √27, … … is
𝑎2 𝑐 2 𝑎
22. 2
Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 4, the value(s) of 𝑥 which (1) √243 (2) √300
satisfies 𝑓(1) + 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑓(1)𝑓(𝑥) is (3) √363 (4) √432
(1) 1 (2) 2 34. Which term of the sequence
(3) 1 or 2 (4) 1 and 0 (−8 + 18𝑖), (−6 + 15𝑖), (−4 + 12𝑖), … … is
23. If 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 and 𝑏𝑥 2 + 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑎 = 0
2 purely imaginary
have a common root and 𝑎 ≠ 0, then (1) 5th (2) 7th
𝑎 3 +𝑏3 +𝑐 3 (3) 8th (4) 6th
𝑎𝑏𝑐
=
35. The number of common terms to the two
(1) 1 (2) 2
sequences 17, 21, 25, ......417 and 16, 21, 26,
(3) 3 (4) 9
..... 466 is
24. The roots of the equation
(1) 21 (2) 19
(𝑎 + 𝑐 − 𝑏)𝑥 2 − 2𝑐𝑥 + (𝑏 + 𝑐 − 𝑎) = 0 are
𝑎+𝑐−𝑏 𝑏+𝑐−𝑎
(3) 20 (4) 91
(1) 1, 𝑏+𝑐−𝑎 (2) 1, 2𝑐 36. The sum of first 𝑛 natural numbers is
𝑏+𝑐−𝑎 2𝑐 𝑛(𝑛−1)
(3) 1, 𝑎+𝑐−𝑏 (4) 1, 𝑎+𝑐−𝑏 (1) 𝑛(𝑛 − 1) (2) 2
25. If the equation 𝑛(𝑛+1)
(3) 𝑛(𝑛 + 1) (4) 2
(𝜆2 − 5𝜆 + 6)𝑥 2 + (𝜆2 − 3𝜆 + 2)𝑥 1 1 1
+(𝜆2 − 4) = 0 is satisfied by more than two 37. The sum of the series 2
+ 3 + 6 +⋯… to 9
values of 𝑥 then 𝜆 = terms is
5 1
(1) 1 (2) -2 (1) − 6 (2) − 2
(3) 3 (4) 2 3
(3) 1 (4) − 2
26. If 𝑎 ∈ 𝑍 and the equation
(𝑥 − 𝑎)(𝑥 − 10) + 1 = 0 has integral roots, 38. Four numbers are in arithmetic progression. The
sum of first and last term is 8 and the product of
then the values of 'a' are
both middle terms is 15. The least number of
(1) 10, 8 (2) 12, 10
the series is
(3) 12, 8 (4) 10, 12
(1) 4 (2) 3
27. The harmonic mean of the roots of the equation
(3) 2 (4) 1
(5 + √2)𝑥 2 − (4 + √5)𝑥 + (8 + 2√5) = 0 is
39. The minimum number of terms of
(1) 2 (2) 4
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + ⋯. that add up to a number
(3) 6 (4) 8
exceeding 1357 is
28. If 𝛼 + 𝛽 = −2 and 𝛼 + 𝛽 3 = −56 then the
3
(1) 15 (2) 37
quadratic equation whose roots are is
(3) 35 (4) 17
(1) 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 16 = 0 (2) 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 15 = 0
(3) 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 12 = 0 (4) 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 8 = 0

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40. If a, b, c, d, e, f are in A.P., then the value of 50. 2 sin   2 cos  is greater than
e – c will be 1
(1) 2 (c – a) (2) 2 (f – d) (1) (2) 2
2
(3) 2 (d – c) (4) d – c 1  1 
1 
41. If the roots of the equation (3) 2 2
(4) 2  2

x 3  12 x 2  39 x  28  0 are in A.P., then their

51. If cos 2  2sin 2  then   --------
common difference will be
(1) 300 (2) 600
(1)  1 (2)  2
(3)  3 (4)  4 (3) 450 (4) 900
42. If a, b, c, d, e are in A.P. then the value of 52. cos  3 sin  then  = -----
a+b+4c – 4d + e in terms of a, if possible is  2 4 5
(1) 4a (2) 2a (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3
(3) 3 (4) None of these
th
53. The general solution of sin x  cos x  1 is
100 100
43. If the 10 term of a geometric progression is 9
 
and 4th term is 4, then its 7th term is (1) 2n  , n  I (2) n  , n  I
4 9 3 4
(1) 6 (2) 36 (3) (4)
9 4  
(3) n  , n  I (4) 2n  , n  I
44. If y  x  x 2  x 3  x 4  .....  , then value of x will 2 3
be 
54. If sin   sin 3  sin 5  0, 0    Then
1 y 2
(1) y  (2)
y 1y   
1 y  
(3) y  (4) (1) 0, (2) 0,
y 1y 3 2
45. If x > 0, then the sum of the series  
(3) 1, (4) 2,
e  x  e 2 x  e 3 x ......  is 2 3
1 1 55. The solution set of
(1) (2) x
 5  4 cos   2 cos   1  0 in the interval
x
1e e 1
1
(3)
1
(4)  0, 2  is
1  e x 1  ex
46. The sum to infinity of the following series   2   2 
(1)  ,  (2)  ,  
2
1 1 1 1 1 1
  2  2  3  3  ....., will be 3 3   3 
2 3 2 3 2 3  2 4   2 5 
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3)  ,  (4)  , 
 3 3   3 3 
7 9
(3) (4) 56. The solution of sec 4  sec 2  2 is
2 2   
47. If |a|<1 and |b|<1, then the sum of the series (1) n  (2)  2n  1 ,  2n  1
2 2 10
a(a  b)  a 2 (a 2  b 2 )  a 3 (a 3  b 3 )  ..... upto  is
 
a ab a2 ab (3)  2n  1 (4)  2n  1
(1)  (2)  10 2
1  a 1  ab 1a 2
1  ab
b a b2 ab 57. The values of x in   ,   which satisfy the
(3)  (4) 
ab 1a 1  b 2 1  ab 1 cos x  cos2 x  cos3 x ......
48. If a, b and c are positive real numbers, then equation 8  43 are
 2  2
least value of (a  b  c) 1  1  1  is (1) , (2) ,
a b c 3 3 3 3
(1) 9 (2) 3  2 2 
(3) , (4)  ,
(3) 10/3 (4) None of these 3 3 3 3
49. If x 1  0, i  1,2,....., 50 and 58. The equation 4sin x  4sin x  a 2  3  0 has
2

x 1  x 2  .....  x 50  50 , then the minimum a solution if

1 1 1 (1) 2  a  2 (2) 1  a  1
value of   .....  equals to
x1 x 2 x 50 (3) 3  a  3 (4) 4  a  4
(1) 50 (2) (50)2
(3) (50)3 (4) (50)4

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59. If x    ,   such that   1 

69. cos  2Tan 1    
y  1  cos x  cos 2 x  cos3 x  ..... and   5 
12 24 26 13
8 y  64 , then y  (1) (2) (3) (4)
13 25 25 12
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
 3
60. If sin x  cos x  0 then sinx = 70. tan  2Tan 1  
 4
5 1 5 1
(1) (2) 24 3
2 8 (1) (2)
7 7
5 1 5 1 3 7
(3) (4) (3) (4)
8 2 56 8
61. cos sin 1  2cos 2   1  cos 1 1  2sin 2    71. The number of one-one functions that can be
(1) 0 (2) 1 defined from A  4,8,12,16 to B is, then
 n(B)=
(3) -1 (4)
2 (1) 7 (2) 8
The domain of log e sin  x  is
1 (3) 9 (4) 10
62.
72. The number of injections that are possible from
(1) (0,1] (2) (0, 2] A to itself is 720, then n (A) =
(3) (0, ) (4) (, 0) (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
The range of cot  x  is
1
If f  x   x, g  x   2 x  1 and h  x   x  1
2
63. 73.
(1) R (2)  0,   then  hogof  x  
   (1) x2  2 (2) 2 x2  1
(3)  0,   (4)   , 
 2 2 (3) x2  1 
(4) 2 x 2  1 
64. The domain of cos1 2x is If f from R into R defined by f  x   x  1 ,
3
74.
(1)  1,1 (2)  1/ 2,1/ 2  then f 2, 0, 7 
1

(3)  0,1/ 2 (4) 1,1/ 2  (1) 1,1, 2 (2) 0,1, 2

1
65. If x   2 , the principle value of sin 1 x is (3) 1, 2 (4) 0, 2
x
  3 75. If f  x  is a function such that
(1) (2) (3)  (4)
4 2 2 f  xy   f  x   f  y  and f  2   1 then
 5 1  f  x 
66. cos 1   
 4  (1) x 2 (2) 2 x
3 2 (3) log2 x (4) log x 2
(1) (2)
10 5 tan   x 
  76. The domain of f  x   is
(3) (4) 1  sin   x    x 2 
5 15
(1)  0,   (2) R
67. cos 1 
 1 
 2
1

  sec  2   (3)  , 0  (4) Z

(1)  (2) 20
3 x
77. The domain of f  x   is
5
(3) (4)  x
4 (1)  ,   (2)  , 0    0,  
cot  sin 1  63 / 65    ____
(3)  2, 2  (4)  3,3 
68.
(1) 16/63 (2) 63/16
(3) 11/63 (4) 63/11

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Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row


 x   x 2  then the value of
84. At the maximum height of a projectile, the
78. If f  x   sin  velocity and acceleration are
3 
(1) parallel to each other
   (2) antiparallel to each other
f   is
 3 (3) perpendicular to each other
(4) inclined to each other at 450
3
(1) 1 (2) -1 (3) 0 (4) 85. A body is projected from a point with different
4 angles of projections 200, 350, 450, 600 with
1
79. The range of f  x   is theR1, R2, R3 and R4. Identify the correct order in
5  3cos 2 x which the horizontal ranges are arranged in
3  increasing order
(1)  0,1 (2)  ,1 (1) R1,R4,R2,R3 (2) R2,R1,R4,R3
4 
(3) R1,R2,R4,R3 (4) R4,R1,R2,R3
1  1 1  86. The area under the velocity-time graph between
(3)  ,1 (4)  , 
4  8 2  any two instant t  t1 and t  t2 gives the
The range of f  x   3 x  7 x  10 is distance convered in time  t  t2  t1
2
80.
 70   71  (1) only if the particle moves with a uniform
(1)  ,   (2)  ,   velocity
3  12 
(2) only if the particle moves with a uniform
 70 
(3)  0,   (4)  ,  acceleration
 3  (3) only if the particle moves with an acceleration
increasing at a uniform rate
(4) in all cases irrespective of whether the motion
PHYSICS is one of uniform velocity, or of uniform
acceleration or of variable acceleration
(Maximum Marks : 40) 87. A person in lift which ascends up with
 This section contains FORTY (40) questions.
acceleration 10ms-2 drops a stone from a height
 Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and (4)
ONLY ONE of these four option is correct 10 m. The time of descent is ( g = 10ms-2 )
 Marking scheme : +1 If ONLY the correct option is (1) 1 s (2) 2 s
chosen, 0 In all other cases (3) 1.5 s (4) 0.5 s
81. At the maximum height of a body thrown 88. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed V0 at
vertically up an angle of projection  . From the same point
(1) Velocity is not zero but acceleration is zero. and at the same instant a person starts running
(2) Acceleration is not zero but velocity is zero. v0
with a constant speed 2to catch the ball . Will
(3) Both acceleration and velocity is zero. 2
(4) Both acceleration and velocity are not zero. the person be able to catch the ball ? If yes, what
82. Two bodies of different masses are dropped should be the angle of projection ?
simultaneously from the top of a tower. If air (1) yes,600 (2) yes,300
resistance is proportional to the mass of the body, (3) no (4) yes,450
then, 89. A stone of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity ‘u’
(1) the heavier body reaches the ground earlier. at an angle 450 to the horizontal. It angular
(2) the lighter body reaches the ground earlier. momentum about the point of projection when it
(3) both the bodies reach the ground is at its highest point
simultaneously. mu 3 mu 2
(4) cannot be decided. (1) (2)
4 2g 4g
83. From the top of a tower two bodies are projected
with the same initial speed of 40ms–1, first body mu 2mu 3
(3) (4)
vertically upwards and second body vertically 2 g
downwards. A third body is freely released from 90. The parabolic path of a projectile is represented
the top of the tower. If their respective times of
x x2
flights are T1, T2 and T3, identify the correct by y   in MKS units : Its angle of
descending order of the times of flights. 3 60
(1) T1, T2, T3 (2) T2, T3, T1 projection is (g = 10ms-2)
(3) T2, T1, T3 (4) T1, T3, T2 (1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 600 (4) 900

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Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row
91. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is (1) straight line
5 (2) parabola
y  10 x    x 2  m  . The maximum height (3) rectangular hyperbola
9
(4) circle
reached is
98. A cyclist free-wheels from the top of a hill,
(1) 36m (2) 24m
gathers speed going down the hill, applies his
(3) 45m (4) 9m
brakes and eventually comes to rest at the
92. Two stones are projected with the same speed
bottom of the hill. Which one of the following
but making different angles with the horizontal.
energy changes take place?
Their horizontal ranges are equal. The angle of
(1) Potential to kinetic to heat energy

projection of one is and the maximum height (2) Kinetic to potential to heat energy
3 (3) Chemical to heat to potential energy
reached by it is 102m. Then the maximum height (4) Kinetic to heat to chemical energy
reached by the other in metres is 99. Statement -1: Graph between potential energy of
(1) 336 (2) 224 a spring versus the extension or compression of
(3) 56 (4) 34 the spring is straight line
93. Inside a railway car a plumb bob is suspended Statement -2: Potential energy of a stretched or
from the roof and a helium filled balloon is tied by compressed spring proportional to square of
a string to the floor of the car. When the railway extension or compression
car accelerates to the right, then (1) 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct
(1) both the plumb bob and balloon move to the explanation of 1
left (2) 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is not the correct
(2) both the plumb bob and balloon move to the explanation 1
right (3) 1 is true and 2 is false
(3) plumb bob moves to the left and the balloon (4) 1 is false and 2 is true
moves to the right 100. Assertion (A): the kinetic energy of a body is
(4) plumb bob moves to the right and the balloon quadrupled, when its velocity is doubled
moves to the left Reason (R) : Kinetic energy is proportional to
94. Action and reaction can never balance out square of velocity.
because (1) A and R are correct and R is the correct
(1) they are equal but not opposite always explanation of A
(2) they are unequal in magnitude even though (2) A and R are correct and R is not the correct
opposite in direction explanation A
(3) though they are equal in magnitude and (3) A is true and R is false
opposite 4) A is false and R is true
in direction they act on different bodies 101. A weight lifter jerks 220 kg vertically through 1.5
(4) they are unequal in magnitudes meters and holds still at that height for two
95. A man is stranded in the middle of a perfectly minutes. The works done by him in lifting and in
smooth ‘island of ice’ where there is no friction holding it still are respectively
between the ground and his feet. Under these (1) 220J, 330J 2) 3234 J, 0
circumstances (3) 2334 J, 10 J 4) 0, 3234 J
(1) he can reach the desired corner by throwing
any object in the same direction 102. A lawn roller is pulled along a horizontal surface
(2) he can reach the desired corner by throwing through a distance of 20 m by a rope with a force
any object in the opposite direction of 200 N. If the rope makes an angle of 60° with
(3) he has no chance of reaching any corner of the vertical while pulling, the amount of work
the island done by the pulling force is
(4) he can reach the desired corner by pursuing (1) 4000 J (2) 1000 J
on the ground in that direction
(3) 2000 3 J (4) 2000 J
96. The change in kinetic energy per unit ‘space’
(distance) is equal to 103. A man weighing 80 kg climbs a staircase carrying
(1) power (2) momentum a 20 kg load. The staircase has 40 steps each of 25
cm height. If he takes 20 seconds to climb, the
(3) force (4) pressure
work done is
97. If the momentum of a particle is plotted on X-axis
(1) 9800 J (2) 490 J
and its kinetic energy on the Y-axis, the graph is a 5
(3) 98 x 10 J (4) 7840 J
Resonance Hyderabad Page 6
Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row
a. Both blocks A and B can be at rest for any
104. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform magnitude of F
acceleration. What is the ratio of kinetic energies b. B can be at rest A moves down for smaller
at the end of 1st, 2nd and 3rd seconds of its magnitude of F
journey? c. Both A and B will move down for smaller
(1) 1 : 8 : 27 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 magnitude
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 3 : 2 : 1 d. A can be at rest and b moves down for larger
105. An electric motor in a crane while lifting a load magnitude of F
produces a tension of 4000 N in the cable
attached to the load. If the motor is winding the
cable at the rate of 3 m s-1, the power of the
motor expressed in kilo watt units must be
(1) a & b are correct (2) c & d are correct
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 12 (4) 6
(3) a & d are correct (4) b & c are correct
106. It is easier to pull a lawn roller than to push it
111. A knife with sharp edge is more effective than a
because pulling
blunt knife because
(1) Involves sliding friction
(1) the pressure increases due to decrease in
(2) Involves dry friction
surface of contact
(3) Increases the effective weight
(2) the force increases due to decrease in
(4) Decreases normal reaction
surface of contact
107. Three bodies P, Q and R slide down along three
(3) its velocity ratio decreases
different frictionless inclined planes, starting from
(4) it gets blunt due to long use
rest from the respective tops of the planes. If the
112. A book sits on horizontal top of a car as the
respective lengths and angles of inclination of the
car accelerates horizontally from rest. If the
planes are 4m and 30o, 2m and 45o, 2m and 60o
and VP, VQ and VR are the respective speeds when static coefficient of friction between car top
they reach the bottoms. Arrange them in and the book is 0.45, the maximum acceleration
decreasing order of magnitude the car can have for the book not to slip is
(1) VR, VQ, VP (2) VP, VQ, VR (1) 3.92 ms–2 (2) 4.41 ms–2
–2
(3) VP, VR, VQ (4) VQ, VR, VP (3) 4.9 ms (4) 9.8 ms–2
108. Identify the correct order in which the value of 113. A uniform chain of length ‘L’ hangs partly from a
normal reaction increases object is placed on table which is kept in equilibrium by friction. The
rough horizontal surface maximum length that can stand without slipping
is ‘l’, then the coefficient of friction between the
a. the object is pushed with the force F at an
table and the chain is
angle  with horizontal
b. the object is pulled with the force F at an angle l2 l l L 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 with horizontal L l L Ll l
c. The object is pushed down with the force F
normally 114. A vehicle of mass M is moving on a rough
d. The object is pushed up with the force F horizontal road with a momentum P. If the coef
normally ficient of friction between the types and the road
(1) a, b, c, d (2) d, b, a, c is  , then the stopping distance is
(3) a, c, b, d (4) b, d, c, a P P2
109. A : The time of ascent for a body projected to (1) (2)
2μMg 2μMg
move up a rough inclined plane is less than the
time of descent P2 P
(3) (4)
R : The retardation for upward motion is more 2μM 2g 2μM 2 g
than the acceleration for down motion 115. A force of 1 N acts upon a mass of 1 kg for 1
(1) Both A and R are incorrect second and gives it a momentum P1 and kinetic
(2) Both A and R are correct energy E1. The same force acts upon the same
(3) A is correct but R is not correct explanation of mass for a displacement of 1 m and gives it a
A momentum P2 and kinetic energy E2. Then, which
(4) A is correct but R is correct explanation of A of the following is correct?
110. Two blocks A and B are pressed against a (1) P1= P2, E1= E2 (2) P1> P2, E1> E2
vertical wall by applying a horizontal force ‘F’. (3) P1< P2, E1< E2 (4) P1> P2, E1< E2
There is no friction between A and B. The

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Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row
116. A goods train moves steadily on a level track
with a velocity 108 kmph. Snow falls vertically
CHEMISTRY
(Maximum Marks : 40)
on to it, and accumulates at a constant rate of
 This section contains FORTY (40) questions.
10 kg s-1. The additional power required in order  Each question has FOUR options (1), (2), (3) and (4)
to maintain the train’s speed despite the snow is ONLY ONE of these four option is correct
(1) 4.5 kW (2) 9.0 kW  Marking scheme : +1 If ONLY the correct option is
(3)18.0 kW (4) 2.25 kW chosen, 0 In all other cases
117. The kinetic energy of a moving body is given by 121. 10 lts of N2 and 30 lts of H2 combine to form –––
K = 2v2, K being in joules and v in m/s. It’s ––––––––––––– lts of NH3.
momentum when traveling with a velocity of 2 m (1) 20 (2) 40
s-1 will be (3) 30 (4) 10
(1) 16 kg m s-1 (2) 4 kg m s-1 122. The number of atoms present in 4.25 grams of
(3) 8 kg m s-1 (4) 2 kg m s-1 NH3 is approximately
118. The pulley shown in the figure is massless and (1) 11023 (2) 1.5 1023
frictionless and the motion of the bodies is (3) 2 1023 (4) 6 1023
frictionless. The acceleration produced in the 123. How many water molecules are there in one
system will be drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room
temperature?
(1) 6.023 1010 (2) 1.084 1018
(3) 6.023 1023 (4) 4.84 1017
124. Largest number of molecules are present in
F F (1) 36 g H2O (2) 28 g CO
(1) (2)
M m (3) 46 g C2H5OH (4) 54 g N2O5
F F 125. Emperical formula of a compound is CH2 and its
(3) (4) molecular weight is 84. The molecular formula
M m M m
of the compound is
119. A mass 'M' hangs by two strings making angles
(1) C4H8 (2) C6H6
 and  to the vertical. The strings are (3) C6H8 (4) C6H12
connected through frictionless pulley to two 126. An organic compound contains 40 % C, 6.66%H.
masses m1 The empirical formula of the compound is
and m2. If the system is in equilibrium, the ratio of (1) CH2 (2) CH2O
m1 : m2 is (3) CHO (4) CHO2
127. Which of the following names is wrong
(1) Cl2O7 : dichlorine heptoxide
(2) N2O4 : dinitrogen tetroxide
(3) NO2 : nitrogen peroxide
(4) BaO2 : barium peroxide
128. 60 gms of lime stone on heating produced 22
gms of CO2. The percentage of CaCO3 in
(1) sin  : sin  (2) sin  : sin  limestone is
(3) cos  : cos  (4) cos  : cos  (1) 80% (2) 60%
120. If m1=20Kg, m2=30Kg, m3=50Kg, and (3) 83.3% (4) 87.66%
F = 200N, What are the tensions T1 and T2? 129. How much volume of CO2 at S.T.P is liberated
by the combustion of 100 cm3 of propane
(C3H8)?
(1) 100 cm3 (2) 200 cm3
(3) 300 cm3 (4) 400 cm3

(1) 160N,100N (2) 100N,160N 1

130. In the EQU ℎ𝑣 = ℎ𝑣𝑜 + 2 𝑚𝑒 𝑣 2 , 𝑣𝑜 is known as
(3) 160N,0 (4) 100N,0
(1) work function
(2) velocity of ejected electron
(3) threshold frequency
(4) frequency of photon

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Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row
131. The spectrum with all wavelengths may be (4) high metallic character
(1) absorption spectrum 141. Electronegativity is the property related to
(2) emission spectrum (1) Isolated atom in gaseous state
(3) continuous spectrum (2) Isolated atom in solid state
(4) discontinuous spectrum (3) Inert gas
(4) bonded atoms in a molecule
132. In hydrogen spectrum, the spectral line of 142. The element with high electronegativity is
Balmer series having lowest wavelength is (1) Chlorine (2) Sulphur
(1) H𝛼 – line (2) H𝛽 - line (3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
(3) H𝛾 - line (4) H𝛿 -line 143. Diagonal relationship is quite pronounced in the
133. The ratio between potential energy and total elements of
energy of an electron in H-atom according to (1) 2nd and 3rd periods (2) 1st and 2nd periods
Bohr atom (3) II and III groups (4) 3rd and 4th periods
(1) 1 : -1 (2) 1 : 1 144. The electronic configuration of an element is
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2: 1 1s22s22p63s23p3. The atomic number of the
134. Bohr’s model of atom can explain the spectrum element which is just below the above element
of all except in the periodic table is
(1) H (2) He+ (1) 49 (2) 31
(3) Li ++
(4) He (3) 34 (4) 33
135. Assertion(A): Each principal level of quantum 145. Least ionic compound among the following is
number n contains a total of n sub levels (1) NaCl (2) KCl
Reason(R): Each orbital can hold two electrons (3) CsI (4) LiI
and each sub level of quantum number l 146. Which of the following is not an ionic
contains a total of 2l+1 orbitals compound
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (1) CaC2 (2) NaH
correct explanation of (A) (3) BeCl2 (4) BF3
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the 147. Molecule which contains 4 bonded pairs and 2
correct explanation of (A) lone pairs of electrons on the central atom is
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) XeF2 (2) CO2
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (3) XeF4 (4) SF6
136. The maximum probability of finding electron in 148. The covalency of central atom is maximum in
the dxy orbital is (1) HCN (2) NH4+
(1) Along with x - axis (3) PCI5 (4) H2O
(2) Along the y - axis 149. Molecule having maximum number of covalent
(3) At an angle of 450 from the X and Y axis bonds is
(4) At an angle of 900 from the x and y axis (1) NH4OH (2) NH4Cl
137. Largest particle among the following is (3) CO(NH2)2 (4) CH3OH
(1) Cl– (2) K+
++
(3) Ca (4) S2– 150. Dative bond is present in
138. The radii of F, F-, O and O2- are in the order (1) Carbon monoxide (2) Carbon dioxide
(1) O2->F–>O>F (2) O2–>F–F>O (3) Nitric oxide (4) Chlorine monoxide
(3) F–> O2–> F>O (4) O2–>O>F–>F
139. The first ionization potential of four consecutive 151. Which of the following molecule does not have
elements, present in the second period of the a linear arrangement of atoms
periodic table are 8.3, 11.3, 14.5 and 13.6 eV (1) H2S (2) C2H2
respectively. Which one of the following is the (3) BeH2 (4) CO2
first ionization potential (in eV) of nitrogen?
(1) 13.6 (2) 11.3 152. Which of the following has distorted
(3) 8.3 (4) 14.5 tetrahedron shape
140. The low electron affinity value of nitrogen is due (1) SiH4 (2) CCl4
to (3) H2O (4) CHCl3
(1) small size 153. Strongest hydrogen bond is present in
(2) high nuclear charge (1) Ammonia (2) Water
(3) half-filled 2p sublevel (3) Hydrogen fluoride (4) Ethyl alcohol

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Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row
154. Boyle’s temperature of various gases are given
below:
Gas TB,K
H2 117
He 23
CH4 498
O2 406
Which can be liquefied most easily?
(1) H2 (2) He
(3) CH4 (4) O2
155. At STP the density of a gas (molecular weight
45) in grams per litre is (E-1996)
(1) 2 (2) 22.4
(3) 11.2 (4) 1000
PV
156. For an ideal gas a plot of VsT will look like
RT

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
157. Equal moles of sulphuridoxide and oxygen are
kept in a vessel at 27oC. The total pressure of
the mixture is 2 atmospheres. The partial
pressure of sulphur dioxide is
(1) 1 atm (2) 3 atm
(3) 2 atm (4) 0.5 atm
158. The value of compression of two gases, the
rate of diffusion through a fine hole is given by
𝑟 𝑃 𝑀 𝑟 𝑃 𝑀
(1) 𝑟1 = 𝑃1 √𝑀1 (2) 𝑟1 = 𝑃1 √𝑀2
2 2 2 2 2 1

𝑟1 𝑃 𝑀 𝑟1 𝑃 𝑀
(3) 𝑟2
= √𝑃1 𝑀1 (4) 𝑟2
= √𝑃1 𝑀2
2 2 2 1

159. The ratio between the r.m.s velocity of H2

at 50 K and R.M.S velocity of O2 at 800K will be
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 1/4

3
160. An open vessel at 270 C is heated until 53 of
5
the air in it has been expelled. The temperature
to which the vessel must be heated to achieve
this (in0C) is
(1) 750 (2) 300
(3) 600 (4) 477

*****
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Re s on a n c e H y d e r a b a d – E d u c a t i n g f or B e t te r t om o r row

Exam Type: EPT-4_(EAPCET)

Course Name: JB
Maximum Marks: 160
Exam Date: 02ND September 2024
Exam Duration: 3.00 Hours

KEY SHEET

MATHEMATICS
1) 3 2) 1 3) 3 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 1 8) 4 9) 1 10) 1

11) 3 12) 3 13) 2 14) 2 15) 3 16) 2 17) 3 18) 1 19) 1 20) 1

21) 1 22) 3 23) 3 24) 3 25) 4 26) 3 27) 2 28) 4 29) 3 30) 1

31) 4 32) 1 33) 2 34) 1 35) 3 36) 4 37) 4 38) 4 39) 2 40) 3

41) 3 42) 4 43) 1 44) 4 45) 4 46) 3 47) 2 48) 1 49) 1 50) 4

51) 1 52) 1 53) 3 54)1 55) 3 56) 2 57) 4 58) 1 59) 2 60) 4

61) 1 62) 1 63) 2 64) 3 65) 2 66) 2 67) 4 68) 1 69) 1 70) 1

71) 4 72) 2 73) 4 74) 1 75) 3 76) 2 77) 2 78) 3 79) 4 80) 2

PHYSICS
81) 2 82) 3 83) 4 84) 3 85) 1 86) 4 87) 1 88) 1 89) 1 90) 1

91) 3 92) 4 93) 3 94) 3 95) 2 96) 3 97) 2 98) 1 99) 4 100) 1

101) 2 102) 3 103) 1 104) 3 105) 3 106) 4 107) 3 108) 2 109) 4 110) 2

111) 1 112) 2 113) 3 114) 3 115) 3 116) 1 117) 3 118) 3 119) 2 120) 2

CHEMISTRY
121) 1 122) 4 123) 1 124) 1 125) 4 126) 2 127) 3 128) 3 129) 3 130) 3

131) 3 132) 4 133) 4 134) 4 135) 2 136) 3 137) 4 138) 1 139) 4 140) 3

141) 4 142) 3 143) 1 144) 4 145) 4 146) 4 147) 3 148) 3 149) 3 150) 1

151) 1 152) 4 153) 3 154) 3 155) 1 156) 4 157) 1 158) 2 159) 3 160) 4

Resonance Hyderabad Page 1