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 SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
1. The AFCAT Question Paper will have 100 questions. All questions will be of
three marks each. For every correct answer the candidate will get three
marks and for every wrong answer one mark will be deducted under negative
marking. The total time allotted for the paper is two hours.
2. Each Question Paper will have questions from the following topics:
A. General Awareness
B. Verbal Ability in English
C. Numerical Ability
D. Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test

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(iii)
 CONTENTS
Previous Years’ Paper—1/2021 ............................................... 1-8
Previous Years’ Paper—1/2020 ............................................. 1-12
Previous Years’ Paper—2/2019 ............................................. 1-12
Previous Years’ Paper—2/2018 ............................................. 1-12
Previous Years’ Paper—1/2018 ............................................. 1-12
Previous Years’ Paper—2/2017 ............................................. 1-12
Previous Years’ Paper—1/2017 ............................................. 1-12

 NUMERICAL ABILITY .............................................................................. 1-96

Simplification; Powers and Roots, Square, Cube, Indices, Surds Squaring; LCM and HCF;
Ratio and Proportion; Partnership; Percentage; Average and Age Related Problems; Profit
& Loss; Simple Interest; Compound Interest; Alligation or Mixture; Time and Work; Time
and Distance; Streams; Races and Games; Mensuration-I; Mensuration-II; Series;
Approximate Values; Data Interpretation; Bar Graphs and Pie Charts.

 VERBAL ABILITY IN ENGLISH ............................................................. 1-104

Introduction; Spotting Errors; Sentence Completion; Synonyms and Antonyms; Ordering of
Words; Ordering of Sentences; Comprehension; Closet Test; Word Analogy.

 REASONING AND MILITARY APTITUDE TEST ................................... 1-152

Letter Analogy; Word Analogy; Coding & Decoding; Coding Language; Odd One Out;
Relationships; Arranging in Order; Calendar, Clock, Time, Distance; Rows and Ranks;
Number Problems; Permutations and Combinations; Artificial Values and Missing Numbers;
Logical Diagrams; Syllogism; Non-Verbal Analogy; Spotting Embedded Figures; Rotated
Blocks; Spatial Apperception Test; Temperament Test; Personality Test.

 GENERAL AWARENESS ........................................................................ 1-120

Indian History; Geography; Indian Polity; General Science; General Knowledge; Multiple
Choice Questions.

(iv)
 1
Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—1/2021*

1. Select the alternative to fill in the given blank. A. To make someone or something popular
B. To give a loan
We are ______ by her beauty.
A. Blowed over B. Blown at C. To earn big profits
D. To pay for your sins
C. Blowed D. Blown away
9. Select the most appropriate meaning for the
2. Select the opposite of “Kindle”:
given Idiom/Phrase.
A. Spark B. Extinguish
C. Ignite D. Torch To get cold feet:
A. To get too tired
3. Select the opposite of “Thrifty”: B. To go to the toilet
A. Frugal B. Sparing C. To feel too frightened
C. Extravagant D. Economical D. To feel too cold
4. Select the nearest of “Antipathy”: 10. Select the opposite of “Austerity”:
A. Liking B. Affinity A. Unimportance B. Exactness
C. Kindliness D. Animosity C. Formalness D. Rigidity
5. Select the nearest of “Truncate”: 11. Select the opposite of “Vividly”:
A. Elongate B. Decrease A. Sharply B. Vague
C. Extend D. Lengthen C. Distinctly D. Clearly
6. Select the most appropriate meaning for the 12. Select the nearest of “Facade”:
given Idiom/Phrase. A. Truth B. Actuality
To Bury the hatchet C. Reality D. Pretence
A. To bury a dead body
13. Select the most appropriate meaning for the
B. To leave someone/something.
given Idiom/Phrase.
C. To end a business deal.
D. To end a quarrel or conflict To miss the boat
A. To be patient
7. Select the most appropriate meaning for the B. To wait for something
given Idiom/Phrase. C. To work late in the night
To turn over a new leaf. D. To fail to take advantage of an opportunity
A. To forget someone
B. To write on a leaf 14. Select the most appropriate meaning for the
given Idiom/Phrase.
C. To make a fresh start
D. To plant a new tree To get cold feet
A. To get rid of something
8. Select the most appropriate meaning for the B. Lack of confidence or courage
given Idiom/Phrase. C. To get too cold
To give currency: D. To get rejected
* Based on memory. 1 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2021(1)—1
 2 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2021(1)—1-II

15. Select the nearest of “Eloquent”: 26. A candidate got 35% vote and lost the election
A. Inarticulate B. Apathetic by 450 votes. Then the number of the total
C. Introvert D. Expressive voter?
A. 1200 B. 1500
16. Select the nearest of “Pacify”:
C. 900 D. 1800
A. Inflame B. Calm
C. Provoke D. Enrage 27. A shopkeeper marked 30% more than the cost
price and gave a discount of 20%. Find the
17. Select the opposite of “Inevitable”:
profit percentage:
A. Avoidable B. Inescapable
A. 10% B. 12%
C. Assured D. Fated
C. 15% D. 20%
18. Select the nearest of “Elude”:
A. Meet B. Confront 28. What will be 292  2  100  24 equal to:
C. Avoid D. Encounter A. 504 B. 416
C. 480 D. 420
19. Select the most appropriate meaning for the
given Idiom/Phrase. 29. What will be 23 ÷ 46 × 7.5 + 512 – 251 equal
to:
To spill the beans
A. 250 B. 264.75
A. To reveal secret information
C. 261 D. 3.75
B. To learn how to cook
C. To have no money at all 30. A student deposits ` 8000 in a bank. He pays
D. To attract someone’s attention 10% of the interest as fee in the college and
remains ` 900. Find the rate of the interest?
20. Select the most appropriate meaning for the
A. 25% B. 12.5%
given Idiom/Phrase.
C. 6.5% D. 8%
To keep one’s head above the water
A. To be unable to sleep 31. A policeman started to chase a thief who was
B. To complete a task successfully running away from 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM. If the
C. To stay out of trouble speed of the police and the thief are 4.5 kmph
D. To learn to swim well and 6 kmph. Then find the time when
policeman catches the thief?
21. Select the opposite of “Belligerent”: A. 4 hr B. 5 hr
A. Hostile B. Friendly C. 6 hr D. 8 hr
C. Aggressive D. Threatening
32. A man deposits ` 3903 in a bank at 4% of
22. Select the opposite of “Vigilance”: interest rate in two schemes. And he gets an
A. Inattention B. Watchful equal amount after 7 years and 9 years. Then
C. Aware D. Alert find the amounts?
23. Select the opposite of “Blissful”: A. 1875 : 2028 B. 2028 : 1875
A. Euphoric B. Miserable C. 1301 : 2602 D. 2602 : 1301
C. Joyful D. Elated 33. A man goes 12 km upstream and 28 km
24. Select the nearest of “Industrious”: downstream in 5 hours. Find the speed of the
A. Careless B. Lethargic stream?
C. Diligent D. Indolent A. 2 kmph B. 1.6 kmph
C. 1.4 kmph D. 1.8 kmph
25. Select the nearest of “Mitigate”:
A. Diminish B. Intensify 34. A man goes 32 km upstream and 40 km
C. Aggravate D. Incite downstream in 10 hr. Again he goes 38 km
 3

upstream and 50 km downstream in 12 hr, A. 52 sec B. 54 sec

then find the speed of the stream? C. 56 sec D. 58 sec
A. 8 B. 10 42. A man bought two T.V. sets and sold at
C. 12 D. 15 ` 3,75,000 for each with 20% profit and 20%
35. If the average weight of 22 toys is increased loss. Then how much profit or loss gain by
by 2 if two of them whose average weight is that man?
one-third of the previous are removed. Then A. 4% gain
the average weight of 20 toys are? B. 4% loss
A. 30 B. 32 C. 8% gain
C. 28 D. 24 D. Neither profit nor loss
36. If profit is 40% for selling an item. If the cost 43. A girl goes 6 km against the stream and 10 km
price and selling price are increased by ` 50 with the stream at the same time. If the speed
and ` 20 then profit decreases to 20%. Find 5
of the stream is m/s , then speed of girl in
the cost price? 18
A. ` 100 B. ` 150 the still water?
C. ` 200 D. ` 120 A. 2 kmph B. 3 kmph
C. 4 kmph D. 6 kmph
37. A person buys petrol at the rate of 45, 60 and
90 rupees per litre for three successive years. 44. Yakshagana is a traditional dance and theatre
What is the average petrol he bought if he form of which state?
spent 6000 rupees per year? A. Karnataka B. Andhra Pradesh
A. 133.34 litre B. 120 litre C. Tamil Nadu D. Maharashtra
C. 100 litre D. 66.67 litre 45. Where is the capital of Zimbabwe?
38. If 10.99 × 10.99 + 10.99 × x + 0.03 × 0.03 then A. Abuja B. Makati
what should be the value of x for this to be C. Nairobi D. Harare
perfect square? 46. Indian Independence Act was passed on which
A. 0.08 B. 0.06 date?
C. 0.8 D. 0.6 A. 16 July, 1947 B. 3 June, 1946
C. 15 August, 1947 D. 14 August, 1947
39. If 28016 is divided by 412 then the quotient
is 68. Then what will the quotient when 28.016 47. The word SHIRT written as FUVEG then
is divided by 0.68? PARTY will be written as:
A. 0.412 B. 41.2 A. CNEGL B. DMFFM
C. 4.12 D. 412 C. BOEGL D. DMEKM
40. A man’s will has 35 L to be given to his 48. Sculptor : Atelier
daughters of ages 13 and 16 at the rate of 10% A. Painter : Portrait B. Miner : Quarry
when they both turn 21. They get the same C. Poet : Sonnet D. Man : House
amount, then what will be the amount that the 49. Vandalism : Property
elder daughter receives? A. Permission : Testimony
A. 17 L B. 20 L B. Implication : Crime
C. 25 L D. 30 L C. Perjury : Testimony
41. A man runs on a square track of 35 m in D. Testify : Reputation
length with a speed of 9 kmph. What is the 50. Hockey : Game :: Latin : ?
total time taken by him to complete a round A. Country B. Currency
of the track? C. Language D. Capital
 4

51. Newton : Force :: Pascal : ? 65. Venn diagram between girl, athlete and singer?
A. Work B. Energy
C. Pressure D. Weight
A. B.
52. Engine : Car
A. Lense : Microscope
B. Day : Night
C. Picture : Frame C. D.
D. Club : Member
53. India : Lotus :: Iris : ?
A. Australia B. Germany 66. Venn diagram instrumentalist, vionalist and
C. Japan D. France musician?
54. Cell : Cytology :: Insect : ?
A. Cymology B. Entomology A. B.
C. Phycology D. Physiognomy
55. Bihu : Assam :: Kathakali : ?
A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu C. D.
C. Andhra Pradesh D. Karnataka
56. Anthropology : Human Body :: Histology : ? 67. Venn diagram between men, rodents, living
A. Tissues of the body beings?
B. Fungus
C. Algae
D. History A. B.
57. Water : Oxygen :: Salt : ?
A. Hydrogen B. Hydrochloric Acid
C. Sodium D. Chlorine C. D.
58. Haemoglobin : Red :: Chlorophyll : ?
A. Black B. Blue
C. Green D. Yellow 68. Venn diagram between vertebrate, non-
vertebrate and turtle?
Directions (Qs. No. 59-64): Odd one out.
59. A. Superior B. Victory A. B.
C. Michigan D. Nile
60. A. Kiwi B. Kangaroo
C. Giant panda D. Royal bengal tiger
C. D.
61. A. Pancreas B. Pituitary
C. Thalamus D. Exocrine
69. Venn diagram between navy, commodore and
62. A. Temperature : Fahrenheit captain?
B. Distance : Meter
C. Newton : Force
D. Luminous : Candela A. B.
63. A. Nebula B. Red Giant
C. Dwarf D. Planet
64. A. Hirakud B. Sutlej C. D.
C. Bhakra Nangal D. Tehri
 5

Directions (Qs. 70 to 73): In each question, which Answer Figures:

one of the alternative figures will complete the
given figure pattern?
70. Pattern
A B C D
Alternative figures 75. Problem Figures:

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
71. Pattern Answer Figures:

Alternative figures
A B C D
76. Problem Figures:
A B C D
72. Pattern
1 2 3 4 5
Alternative figures Answer Figures:

A B C D
A B C D
73. Pattern 77. Problem Figures:

Alternative figures
1 2 3 4 5
Answer Figures:
A B C D
Directions (Qs. No. 74-78) : Each of the following
questions consists of five figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 A B C D
and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four 78. Problem Figures:
other figures marked A, B, C and D called the
Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the
Answr Figures which will continue the same series
as established by the five Problem Figures. 1 2 3 4 5
74. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

1 2 3 4 5 A B C D
 6

79. Joust is related to which sports? A. Australia B. Antarctica

A. Basketball B. Volleyball C. South America D. Africa
C. Tennis D. Baseball 90. Which metal is liquid at Room temperature?
80. India participated for the first time in the A. Bromine B. Sodium
Olympics in which year? C. Potassium D. Mercury
A. 1900 B. 1930 91. The Innermost and darkest part of the shadow
C. 1920 D. 1908 of an eclipse is known as:
81. Vault of death was performed by which Indian A. Totality B. Penumbra
athlete? C. Umbra D. None of these
A. Deepa Malik 92. Which gas has the highest concentration in
B. Hima Das the atmosphere?
C. Dipa Karmakar A. Oxygen B. Carbon Dioxide
D. Devendra Jhajharia C. Hydrogen D. Nitrogen
82. Santosh trophy is related to which sports? 93. The length of day and night is equal to which
A. Football B. Cricket day?
C. Tennis D. Badminton A. Summer solstice B. Equinox
83. Who is the first Indian badminton player to C. Winter Solstice D. All of these
win an Olympic medal? 94. Which Continent is also called White Conti-
A. Prakash Padukone B. Saina Nehwal nent?
C. P.V. Sindhu D. P. Kashyap A. North America B. Europe
84. Which of the following is not an organ of the C. Antarctica D. Australia
UN? 95. Where is the capital of Slovenia?
A. ECOSOC A. Ljubljana B. Tbilisi
B. UNSC C. Bratislava D. Tirana
C. General Assembly
96. Who was the Mughal Emperor when Shivaji
D. Permanent Court of Justice
founded the Maratha Empire?
85. Which of the following is an Advance heavy A. Muhammad Shah B. Bahadur Shah
attack Helicopter bought from USA? C. Aurangzeb D. Farrukhsiyar
A. Cheetah B. Kamov
97. Jama Masjid was built by:
C. Chinook D. Guardian
A. Shah Jahan B. Akbar
86. Who is the author of the book What if ? C. Jahangir D. Humayun
A. Randall Munroe B. Kate Beaton
98. Indus Valley Civilization belongs to which age?
C. Zach Weinersmith D. Douglas Adams
A. Paleolithic Age B. Bronze Age
87. Which of the following is the traditional cloth C. Mesolithic Age D. None of the above
painting in Bihar?
99. Who was the first woman CM of India?
A. Nirmal Paintings
A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Patachitra Paintings
B. Vijayalaxmi Pandit
C. Batik Art
C. Sucheta Kriplani
D. Madhubani Paintings
D. J. Jayalalitha
88. Which substance is used in Pencil?
100. Who was the first Viceroy of free India?
A. Graphene B. Graphite
A. Lord Mountbatten
C. Bitumen D. Charcoal
B. C. Rajagopalachari
89. The smallest Mountain Peak in the world is C. Lord Wavell
located in: D. Rajendra Prasad
 7

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B C D B D C A C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D D B D B A C A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A B C A B B A B B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B B A B C C B B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B C A D A A B C C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C A D B A A C C D C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C A B D D A D A C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B C B D C C C D B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C A B D C A D B A D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C D B C A C A B C A

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
26. Candidate got 35% and other candidate got 29. 23 ÷ 46 × 7.5 + 512 – 251
65% vote. 23
Then, 65% of x – 35% of x = 450   7.5  261  3.75 + 261  264.75.
46
Let number of voter be x 30. Let he deposits at r% of interest rate
30% of x = 450 8000  r  1
450 Then, Interest = = 80r
x=  100 , x = 1500. 100
30 He pays 10% as fee and 90% remains as ` 900.
27. Let the cost price = x 0.9 × 80r = 900  r = 12.5%.
Then, marked price = 1.4x 31. Let after t hr policeman catches the thief. They
And selling price = 0.8 × 1.4x = 1.12x both must have run an equal distance. So,
Hence, (t + 2) × 4.5 = t × 6  t = 6 hr.
Profit = 0.12x and profit percentage = 12%. 32. Let he deposits ` x and ` y in two schemes at
4% rate for 7 years and 9 years.
28. 292  2  200  24 Then, x + y = 3903 ...(i)
7 9
 841 – 400  24   441  24  4   4 
And, x 1   = y  1  100 
 21 × 24  504.  100   
 8

x 676 Quantity of petrol he bought in second year

= ...(ii)
y 625 6000
= l  100 l
After solving the above equations, we get 60
y = 1875 and x = 2028. Quantity of petrol he bought in third year
33. Let the speed of the man is x kmph and the 6000
= l  66.67l
speed of the stream is y kmph. Then 90
12 28 133.33  100  66.67
Time, 5=  So average = = 100 l.
xy xy 3
Or, x – y = 2.4 and x + y = 5.6
38.  10.99 × 10.99 + 10.99 × x + 0.03 × 0.03
After solving the above equations, we get the
speed of the stream is 1.6 kmph. 2 2 x
 (10.99)  (0.03)  2(10.99)  
34. Let the speed of the man is x kmph and the 2
speed of the stream is y kmph. Then For this to be a perfect square
32 40 x
10 =   16X + 20Y = 5 ...(i) = 0.03  x = 0.06.
xy xy 2

 1 1  28016
39. Given that = 68
 x  y  X, x  y  Y  412
  Dividing both side by 1000,
And,
28016 68
38 50 =
12 =   19X + 25Y = 6 ...(ii) 412  1000 1000
xy xy
28.016 0.68
By both equations, we get =
412 10
1 1
X =  x–y=4 28.016 412
xy 4 = = 41.2.
0.68 10
1 1
And, Y =   x + y = 20 40. Total amount = 35 L
x  y 20
Let he gives to younger and elder daughter of
After solving, we get the speed of the stream
amount are x and y. They take 8 years and
is 8 kmph.
5 years to be 21. The rate of interest is 10%,
36. Let the cost price = x then
Then, the selling price = 1.4x 8 5
 10   10 
New cost price = x + 50 x 1   = y 1  
New selling price = 1.4x + 20  100   100 
3
Now profit, x  10 
=  
(1.4 x  20)  ( x  50) y  11 
= 20%
x  50 y 1331
=
0.4 x  30 1 x 1000
=
x  50 5 As x + y = 35 L, then x = 15 L and 20 L.
2x – 150 = x + 50 41. The perimeter of the track = 4 × 35 = 140 m
x = 200. Speed of the man = 9 kmph = 2.5 mps
37. Quantity of petrol he bought in first year Total time is taken by him to complete around
6000 140
= l  133.33l =  56 sec.
45 2.5
_______________
 1
Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—1/2020*

1. Select the synonym of “Cajole”: A. Impugn B. Impagn

A. bash B. bully C. Impegn D. Impeign
C. wheedle D. decline Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): In these questions, four
2. Select the synonym of “Baulk”: alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase given in
A. accept B. pursue bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses
C. eschew D. increase the meaning of the idiom/ phrase given in bold.
3. Select the synonym of “Parochial”: 11. At close quarters:
A. conservative B. tremendous A. From a very short distance
C. liberal D. cosmopolitan B. To miss a big opportunity
C. To argue with someone
4. Select the synonym of “Jibe”: D. To fight over a trivial issue
A. sneer B. flatter
C. blarney D. request 12. Bring to book:
A. To gift a book to someone
5. Select the antonym of “Naive”: B. To keep an account of all the expenses
A. sophisticated B. artless C. To demand an explanation from
C. credulous D. callow D. To read a book enthusiastically
6. Select the antonym of “Sporadic”: 13. Blaze the trail:
A. random B. erratic A. To erase the evidences
C. steady D. uneven B. To start a movement
C. To put something on fire
7. Select the antonym of “Dodge”:
D. To win a case in the court
A. avoidance B. clear
C. evade D. confront 14. Hit below the belt:
A. To do something thoroughly
8. Select the antonym of “Enjoin”: B. To strike unfairly
A. direct B. counsel C. To end up in an awkward situation
C. forbid D. none of these D. To let someone commit mistakes
9. In the question, four words are given, out of Directions (Qs. No. 15-17): In the following
which only one word is correctly spelt. Find questions, out of the four alternatives choose the
the correctly spelt word. one which can be substituted for the given words/
A. Locuacious B. Lokuacious sentence.
C. Locvacious D. Loquacious
15. To delay or prevent someone or something by
10. In the question, four words are given, out of obstructing them:
which only one word is correctly spelt. Find A. to perturb B. to impede
the correctly spelt word. C. to irk D. to faze
* Based on memory. 1 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2020(1)—1
 2 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2020(1)—1-II

16. A period of time during which a person that 21. Courts should not be influenced by
might have a disease is kept away from other ____21____.
people so that the disease cannot spread: A. misconceptions B. facts
A. solitude B. seclusion C. theories D. None of these
C. quarantine D. desolate 22. While these observations are welcome, the
17. A heavy blow or the sound of such a blow. attitude of the defence lawyer in this case was
A. lop B. slop seriously ______22_________.
C. flop D. whop A. supplied B. problematic
C. minute D. edible
Directions (Qs. No. 18 & 19): In the following
question, a sentence has been given in Active/ Directions (Qs. No. 23-25): Read the passage
Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, carefully and choose the best answer to each
select the one, which best expresses the same question out of the four alternatives.
sentence in Passive/Active voice. Facing a shortfall of 2,277 doctors, Uttar
18. He gave me spectacles. Pradesh’s primary health centres (PHCs) have the
A. Spectacle was given to me. worst patient-doctor ratio. With 942 of these centres
B. Spectacles were given to me by him. working without electricity, regular water supply or
C. I was offered spectacles. all-weather motorable approach roads, the State’s
D. He had given me spectacles. PHCs has the worst infrastructure in the country.
The States that have shown poor PHC ratings
19. His sudden arrival surprised everyone.
include Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka and Bihar,
A. Everyone became surprised by his sudden show the Rural Health Statistics, 2018, quoted by
arrival. the Ministry.
B. Everybody is surprised by his sudden
The data note that while Uttar Pradesh requires
arrival.
3,621 doctors for its PHCs, the backbone of health
C. Everyone was surprised at his sudden
delivery, it has only 1,344 doctors, showing a deficit
arrival.
of 2,277. Though the sanctioned strength is 4,509,
D. Everyone were surprised at his sudden
there are 3,165 vacancies.
arrival.
The State also has the worst infrastructure with
Directions (Qs. No. 20-22): In the following passage 213 centres without electricity supply, 270 without
some of the words have been left out. Read the regular water supply and 459 without all-weather
passage carefully and choose the correct answer motorable approach roads. The States that have poor
for the given blank out of the four alternatives. infrastructure based on the same parameters include
In a recent ____20____, the Madras High Court Jammu and Kashmir, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam
ruled that courts should not be influenced by and Uttarakhand.
____21____ that children are likely to lie in cases In its reply, the Ministry noted that public health
of sexual abuse or that they are tutored by parents and hospitals being a State subject, all
to make false statements in court. While these administrative and personnel matters, including
observations are welcome, the attitude of the defence recruitment of doctors at the PHCs, lie with the
lawyer in this case was seriously _____22_______. State governments. The shortage of doctors in public
20. In a recent ____20____, the Madras High health facilities varies from State to State, depending
on their policies and context.
Court ruled.
A. report 23. Which state’s primary health centres (PHCs)
B. promotion have the worst patient-doctor ratio?
C. judgement A. Chhattisgarh B. Uttar Pradesh
D. notice C. Odisha D. Bihar
 3

24. Which among the following parameters is not 33. With which among the following sports the
used to rate the States that have poor term “half nelson” is associated?
infrastructure? A. Basketball B. Polo
A. Regular water supply C. Wrestling D. Rugby
B. Electricity supply
C. Medicine supply 34. Which among the following is the capital of
D. All-weather motorable roads Brunei?
A. Manila
25. How many doctors do Uttar Pradesh’s primary B. Hanoi
health centres have?
C. Phnom Penh
A. 1344 B. 3621
D. Bandar Seri Begawan
C. 4509 D. 2277
35. Which among the following gas is used in the
26. Where is headquarter of International Civil
Aviation Council is located? soda?
A. Montreal B. Paris A. Carbon dioxide
C. New York D. Washington D.C. B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
27. How many players are there in Kabaddi team? D. Sulphur dioxide
A. 7 B. 5
C. 12 D. 10 36. Who among the following is the author of
“One Indian Girl”?
28. With which among the following sports the
A. Durjoy Dutta B. Chetan Bhagat
“C.K Nayudu Trophy” is associated?
C. Ravinder Singh D. Amit Nangia
A. Basketball B. Cricket
C. Hockey D. Badminton 37. Who among the following has built the Sanchi
29. Which among the following city of India Stupa?
hosted first Asian games held in India? A. Ashoka B. Rudradaman
A. Bengaluru B. Hyderabad C. Amoghavarsha D. Krishnadevaraj
C. Kolkata D. New Delhi 38. Who among the following presided Haripura
30. Under which Delhi sultanate ruler, the territorial session of Indian National Congress in 1938?
expansion was maximum in India? A. Mahatma Gandhi
A. Alauddin Khilji B. Subhash Chandra Bose
B. Balban C. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Muhammad bin Tughlaq D. Rajendra Prasad
D. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
39. Which among the following the launch date
31. Which among the following is the 25th state of “Apple Satellite”?
of India? A. 19 May 1981 B. 19 June 1983
A. Goa C. 19 June 1981 D. 19 May 1983
B. Mizoram
C. Nagaland 40. Which among the follow ing is the
D. Arunachal Pradesh southernmost point of Indian territory?
A. Kanyakumari B. Indira Point
32. Who was the first sultan of Delhi to issue C. Kalapani D. Port Blair
coins in Delhi sultanate?
A. Iltutmish 41. Which among the following country is not the
B. Qutb al-Din Aibak part of G-7 countries?
C. Alauddin Khalji A. Canada B. Japan
D. Firoz Shah Tughlaq C. Germany D. Russia
 4

42. Which among the following is also known as 52. Where is Indian Military Academy is located?
silent killer gas? A. Dehradun B. Shimla
A. Carbon Monoxide C. Hyderabad D. Gaya
B. Sulphur Dioxide
53. Rangaswami Cup is associated with:
C. Nitrogen Dioxide
A. Wrestling B. Football
D. Nitrous Oxide
C. Hockey D. Golf
43. With which among the following sports the
name of “Yasin Merchant” is related? 54. Fundamental Rights of constitution is taken
A. Wrestling B. Snooker from which country?
C. Table Tennis D. Polo A. UK B. USA
C. Australia D. USSR
44. Which latitude is also known as greater circle?
A. Tropic of Cancer 55. “Joule” is the unit of __________.
B. Tropic of Capricorn A. Power B. Voltage
C. Equator C. Energy D. Current
D. Arctic Circle 56. A can do a work in 10 days. A work for 4 days
45. Who was the first cricketer to take hat trick in and B finished the remaining work in 9 days.
the test cricket? Together they will finish the work in how
A. Fred Spofforth B. Bapu Nadkarni many days?
C. Sir Ian Botham D. Wally Hammond A. 12 B. 6
C. 8 D. 10
46. With which among the following dance the
name “Sanjukta Panigrahi” is related? 57. P & Q completes the work in 10 days, Q & R
A. Kathak B. Kathakali in 15 days and R & P in 20 days. Find
C. Bharatnatyam D. Odissi individual time taken by them.
A. 12, 14, 72 B. 120, 24, 100
47. Which Gupta ruler was also known for playing
veena? 1
C. 120, 17 , 24 D. 15, 13011, 14
A. Chandragupta-II B. Samudragupta 7
C. Kumaragupta D. Skandagupta
58. Two trains start from Pune to Goa towards
48. Which among the following rivers fall in the each other at speed of 50 km/hr and 40 km/hr
Arabian sea? respectively at same time. Find at what distance
A. Narmada B. Luni they will meet from Pune if the total distance
C. Mahanadi D. Godavari between Pune and Goa is 600 km.
49. Bombay High famous for ________. 1000 800
A. mining B. petroleum A. km B. km
3 3
C. uranium reserve D. gold
50. Who was the last ruler of Mughal dynasty? 700
C. km D. 340 km
A. Farrukhsiyar 3
B. Bahadur Shah Zafar 59. The length of Head of a fish is 12 cm. The
C. Akbar II length of Tail is equal to Head’s length and
D. Shah Alam II 13rd of body length. Find the length of Body
51. With which among the following games if length of Body = Length of Head + Length
“Durand Cup” is associated? of Tail.
A. Football B. Cricket A. 24 cm B. 36 cm
C. Lawn Tennis D. Badminton C. 25 cm D. 20 cm
 5

60. Two bikes ride in opposite directions around 67. There are total five numbers. The average of
a circular track, starting at the same time from first four numbers is 26 and average of last
the same point. Biker A rides at a speed of four numbers is 25. Find the average of
16 km/hr and the biker B rides at a speed of difference of first and last number.
14 km/hr. If the track has a diameter of 30 km, A. 4 B. 6
after how much time (in hours) will the two C. 2 D. 2.5
bikers meet?
68. India borrowed a loan from IMF at the rates of
A. 3.14 hr B. 12 hr
6 per cent for first five year, 8 per cent for next
C. 4.5 hr D. 2.25 hr
five year and 10 per cent for beyond 5 years.
61. A person spend 20% on food, 20% of the If at the end of fifteen years the total amount
remaining on charity and 20% of the remaining paid was 144 billion U.S. dollars. Find the
on house and left with ` 576. Find the original amount borrowed in billion U.S dollars?
amount he had? A. 48 B. 58.75
A. ` 1100 B. ` 1125 C. 75 D. 65.45
C. ` 1200 D. ` 1340 69. The average of father and his twin son is 28.
62. Two man rows boat at speed of 5 km/hr and Find the age of father if the ratio of age of
10 km/hr toward each other and at a distance father and one son is 8 : 3.
of 20 km. Find how far apart in km all they A. 36 years B. 37.5 years
1 minute before they collide. C. 48 years D. 40 years
A. 250 m B. 120 m 70. A purchased a toy in ` 2400. He paid ` 1000
C. 240 m D. 380 m
in cash and remaining in two equal installments
63. A man buys 4 pizza and 3 burger for ` 4500 of ` 840 each per month. Find out the rate of
and 4 pizza and 6 burger for ` 6000 find how interest for each installment.
much should he pay to buy 1 pizza and A. 10% B. 20%
2 burger? C. 25% D. 12.5%
A. ` 2300 B. ` 2200 71. A man completes a certain journey by car. If
C. ` 1750 D. ` 2350
he covered 30% of the distance at the speed
64. A man buys two article of ` 560. He sells on of 20 km/hr. 60% of the distance at 40 km/hr
at 10% per cent loss and other at 15 percent and the remaining distance at 10 km/hr. His
profit and had no profit no loss. Find cost average speed is:
price of each article A. 35 B. 22
A. 280, 280 B. 330, 230 C. 30 D. 25
C. 336, 224 D. None of the above 72. There are X pens in the shop. If person A buys
65. Divide ` 6000 into two parts so that simple 20% and person B buys 15% from the
interest on first part for 2 year at 6% p.a. may remaining and C buys 10% of the remaining
be equal the simple interest on the second part pens then he is left with 612 pens. Then how
for 3 year at 8% p.a. much pen was there initially?
A. 2500, 3500 B. 4000, 2000 A. 1280 B. 870
C. 3000, 3000 D. 2200, 3800 C. 1000 D. 930
66. A cyclist starts at a speed of 8 km/hr and 73. If length of a rectangle is increased by 15%
second cyclist start after 2 hours at speed of and breadth is decreased by 10%. What will
12 km/hr. Find how much distance will the be impact on perimeter?
second cyclist travel? 20
A. 48 km B. 44 km A. % B. 7.5%
3
C. 36 km D. 51 km C. 12% D. 6%
 6

74. Seismology : Study of Earthquake : : 86. MJS : PLT : : NKW : ?

Penology : ? A. QMX B. QNK
A. Study of Pen C. WQM D. QNM
B. Study of Punishment of Crime
87. Which of the following represents:
C. Study of Stationery
D. Study of Exo-planets Earth, Sun, Moon?
75. Coal : Thermal Energy : : Water : ?
A. Hygro Energy B. Water Energy A. B.
C. Hematology D. Hydro Energy
76. One who collects coins : Numismatic : : One
who collects postage stamps : ? C. D.
A. Philatelist B. Bibliophile
C. Canophilia D. Astrogeology 88. Which of the following represents: Men,
77. Energy : Joule : : Current : ? Indian, Black hair?
A. Ohm B. Watt A. B.
C. Kelvin D. Ampere
78. Engineer : Machine : : Doctor : ? C. D.
A. Diseases B. Hospital
C. Patient D. Nurse 89. OPEN : NEOP : : TAPE : ?
79. Find the odd-one out from: A. EPTA B. PETA
A. Khora B. Khasi C. EPAT D. PEAT
C. Garo D. Mizo 90. Which of the following represents: warm
80. Which of the following does not belong to blooded animals, cold blooded animals,
North America? mammals?
A. Mexico B. Cuba
A. B.
C. Morocco D. Honduras
81. Mallet : Polo : : Break out : ?
A. Football B. Hockey C. D.
C. Cricket D. Rugby
91. 6, 11, 21, 36, ?
82. Vijay Hazare Trophy : Cricket : : Durand
A. 51 B. 41
Cup : ?
C. 56 D. 46
A. Football B. Hockey
C. Kho-Kho D. Kabaddi Directions (Qs. No. 92-94): In each question, which
one of the alternative figures will complete the
83. USA : Dollar : : Chile : ?
given figure pattern?
A. Pound B. Euro
C. Yuan D. Peso
84. France : Paris : : Ghana : ? 92. Pattern
A. Maputo B. Windhoek
C. Accra D. Kampala Alternative figures

85. Find the odd-one out from.

A. Colonel B. Commodore
C. Major D. Brigadier A. B. C. D.
 7

Answer Figures
93. Pattern
Alternative figures

A. B. C. D.
98. Problem Figure
A. B. C. D.

94. Pattern

Alternative figures
Answer Figures

A. B. C. D.
Directions (Qs. No. 95 & 96): In the questions A. B. C. D.
given below a figure is given. From the given Directions (Qs. No. 99 & 100): The second figure
alternatives select the one in which the given figure in the first unit of the Problem Figures bears a
is embedded. certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly,
one of the figures in the Answer Figures bears the
same relationship to the first figure in the second
95.
unit of the Problem Figures. Locate the figure which
would fit the question mark.
99. Problem Figures

A. B. C. D.

96. Answers Figures

A. B. C. D. A. B. C. D.
Directions (Qs. No. 97 & 98): In each question 100. Problem Figures
given below which one would be the mirror image
of the given figure when the mirror is placed along
the line shown in each figure.
97. Problem Figure Answer Figures

A. B. C. D.
 8

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A A A C D C D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C B B B C D B C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B B C A A C B D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A A C D A B A B C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A B C A D B A B B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A C B C B C A B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B A C C B A C D C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C A B D A D A A C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A D C B A A B A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C C B C A D D B D D

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
26. The International Civil Aviation Organization and gave up its territorial claim. Prime Minister
(ICAO) is a UN specialized agency, established Rajiv Gandhi helped pass the bill that made
in 1944 to manage the administration and Goa a full-fledged state, 26 years after the
governance of the Convention on International Portuguese-ruled territory officially became a
Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention). It’s part of India.
headquarter is located at Montreal, Canada. 32. Iltutmish was the third ruler of the Delhi
29. The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a Sultanate (1211 - 1236), belonging to the
continental multi-sport event held every four Mamluk dynasty. He was the first Sultan of
years among athletes from all over Asia. New Delhi to issue regular currency and declare
Delhi hosted first Asian games held in India Delhi as the capital of his empire in place of
from 4th to 11th March 1951. Lahore. He introduced the silver coin (tanka)
and copper coin (jital).
30. Muhammad bin Tughlaq and ruled for 26 years.
During his rule, Delhi Sultanate reached its 34. Brunei, a south east Asian country is a tiny
peak in terms of geographical reach, covering nation on the island of Borneo. It is surrounded
by Malaysia and the South China Sea. It's
most of the Indian subcontinent.
known for its beaches and biodiverse
31. On May 30th 1987, the Goa government rainforest, much of it protected within reserves.
accepted the 57th Constitutional Amendment The capital of Brunei is Bandar Seri Begawan.
 9 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2020(1)—2

35. Carbon dioxide is used in the soda. It comes 46. Sanjukta Panigrahi was a dancer from India,
in the form of the fizz that bubbles up when who was the foremost exponent of Indian
a can of soda is opened. It is added because classical dance Odissi. Sanjukta was the first
dissolved carbon dioxide is carbonic acid, Odia woman to embrace this ancient classical
which adds a pleasantly acidic flavour and an dance at an early age and ensure its grand
interesting mouth-feel. When it's not present, revival.
the drink tastes flat. 47. Samudragupta, the second emperor of the Gupta
37. Sanchi Stupa is a memorial built in the city of dynasty, is known to one of India’s best rulers.
Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh. It is located 46 km His brilliant leadership and valiant victories
from Bhopal. It is one of the oldest stone earned him the title of ‘Napoleon of India’. He
structures in India, and an important monument was a great musician and played the veena, an
of Indian architecture. It was originally Indian stringed instrument resembling the lyre
or lute, with great aplomb. He was also a highly
commissioned by the emperor Ashoka in the
intellectual person and an accomplished poet.
3rd century BCE. He commissioned the
inception of Stupas to redistribute the mortal 48. Narmada rises from Amarkantak Plateau near
remains of Lord Buddha. Anuppur district. It forms the traditional
boundary between North India and South India
39. The Ariane Passenger PayLoad Experiment
and flows westwards before draining through
(APPLE), was an experimental communication the Gulf of Khambhat into the Arabian Sea.
satellite with a C-Band transponder launched
by the Indian Space Research Organisation on 50. Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal
June 19, 1981 by Ariane, a launch vehicle of emperor. He became the successor to his father,
the European Space Agency (ESA) from Centre Akbar II on 28th September 1837. Following
Spatial Guyanais near Kourou in French his involvement in the Indian Rebellion of
Guiana. 1857, the British exiled him to Rangoon in
British-controlled Burma (now in Myanmar),
41. The Group of Seven (G7) is an international after convicting him on several charges.
intergovernmental economic organization
51. The Durand Football Tournament or Durand
consisting of the seven IMF—advanced
Cup is a football competition in India which
economies in the world: Canada, France,
was first held in 1888 in Annadale, Shimla. It
Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom
is co-hosted by the D urand Football
and the United States. Hence, Russia is not the Tournament Society (DFTS) and Osians. The
part of G-7 countries. Tournament is the oldest football tournament
42. Carbon monoxide (CO) is a gas that can kill in Asia and one of the oldest in the world.
a person quickly. It is called the “silent killer” 53. Rangaswamy Cup is associated with hockey.
because it is colourless, odourless, tasteless Introduced in 1928, the Rangaswami Cup, was
and non-irritating. If the early signs of CO originally known as Inter-Provincial
poisoning are ignored, a person may lose con- Tournament meant to pick up players for the
sciousness and be unable to escape the danger. national team for the Olympics.
44. The equator is the circle that is equidistant 54. The constitution of India borrowed the concept
from the North Pole and South Pole. It divides of Fundamental Rights from USA. Other
the Earth into the Northern Hemisphere and features borrowed from USA constitution are
the Southern Hemisphere. Of the parallels or independence of judiciary, judicial review,
circles of latitude, it is the longest, and the impeachment of the president, removal of
only 'great circle' (a circle on the surface of the Supreme Court and high court judges and post
Earth, centered on Earth's center). of Vice President.
 10

1 58. Here, distance = 600 km

56. A’s 1 day’s work = Relative speed = 50 + 40 = 90 km/hr
10
4 2 Distance 600 20
 A’s 4 day’s work =   Time = =  hour
10 5 Speed 90 3
2 3 20
Remaining work = 1 –  Hence, they will meet after hour
5 5 3
3 Distance they will meet from Pune
B’s 9 day’s work =
5
20 1000
3 1 = 50   km.
 B’s 1 day’s work =  3 3
5  9 15
1 1 3 2 59. Here, length of Head = 12 cm
 (A + B)’s 1 day’s work =   1
10 15 30 T=H+ of B
5 1 3
=  Given, B=H+T
30 6
Hence, together they will finish the work in 6 1
 B=H+H+ B
days. 3
1 1 2
57. (P + Q)’s 1 day’s work =  B – B = 2H  B = 2 × 12
10 3 3
1 3
(Q + R)’s 1 day’s work =  B = 24  = 36 cm
15 2
1 Hence, the length of body = 36 cm.
and, (R + P)’s 1 day’s work =
20 60. Given, Diameter of the track = 30 km
Adding, we get, 2(P + Q + R)’s 1 day’s work  2r = 30 km
1 1 1 6  4  3 13 Distance of the track = 2r = 30 km
=   = 
10 15 20 60 60 Relative speed = 16 + 14 = 30 m
13 Distance
(P + Q + R)’s 1 day’s work = 30 
120 Time = =
Speed 30
13 1 13 – 8
P’s 1 day’s work = –  =  hours = 3.14 hours
120 15 120
Hence, the two bikers meet after 3.14 hours.
5 1
=  61. Let the original amount = ` x
120 24
P’s time = 24 days 100 – 20 100 – 20 100 – 20
Then, x    = 576
13 1 13 – 6 7 100 100 100
Q’s 1 day’s work = –   80 80 80
120 20 120 120  x   = 576
100 100 100
120 1
Q’s time =  17 days 4 4 4
7 7  x    = 576
5 5 5
13 1 13 –12 1 576  125
R’s 1 day’s work = –    x=
120 10 120 120 64
R’s time = 120 days. = 9 × 125 = ` 1125.
 11

62. Distance = 5 + 10 = 15 km  36x = 144000

5 144000
= 15   60 meter = 250 m.  x=  4000
18 36
63. Let 1 Pizza = x and 1 burger = y  x = ` 4000
Then, 4x + 3y = ` 4500 ...(i) and ` (600 – x) = 6000 – 4000 = ` 2000.
and 4x + 6y = ` 6000 66. Distance travelled in 2 hours by first cyclist
 2x + 3y = ` 3000 ...(ii) = 2 × 8 = 16 km
From (i) – (ii), we get, Distance travelled in 6 hours
2x = 1500 = 6 × 8 = 48 km
or, x = ` 750 Distance travelled in 4 hours by second cyclist
From (ii), 3y = 3000 – 1500 = 1500 = 4 × 12 = 48
or, y = ` 500 Hence, Distance travelled by second cyclist
 1 Pizza + 2 burger = x + 2y = 48 km.
= 750 + 1000 = ` 1750. 67. The sum of first four numbers
64. Let C.P. of one article = ` x = 4 × 26 = 104
then, C.P. of other article = ` (560 – x) and the sum of last four numbers
According to question, = 4 × 25 = 100
100 – 10 100  15 The average of difference of first and last
x  (560 – x )  = 560 number
100 100
104 – 100 4
9 23 =   2.
 x   (560 – x )  = 560 2 2
10 20
9x 23 x P  6  5 P  8  5 P  10  5
  28  23 – = 560
68.    P = 144
10 20 100 100 100
9 x 23 x 30P 40P 50P
–     P = 144
 = 560 – 644 100 100 100
10 20
18 x – 23 x 120P
  P = 144
 = –84 100
20
 –5x = –84 × 20 120P  100P
 = 144
84  20 100
 x=  84  4  220P = 144 × 100
5
 x = ` 336 14400
 P=  65.45
and (560 – x) = 560 – 336 = ` 224 220
Hence, cost price of each article are ` 336 and Hence, the amount borrowed in billion U.S.
` 224. dollars = 65.45.
69. Let the present age of the father and the son
65. Let first part = ` x
be x and y years respectively.
Then, second part = ` (6000 – x)
Then, x + y + y = 28 × 3
x26 (6000 – x )  3  8
 =  x + 2y = 84 ...(i)
100 100
x 8 3x
 12x = 6000 × 24 – 24x Given, = y= ...(ii)
 12x + 24x = 144000
y 3 8
 12

From (i) and (ii), we get 115

Again, increased length = 20   23
3x 3x 100
x  2. = 84  x  = 84
8 4 90
4 x  3x and decreased breadth = 10  9
 = 84 100
4  Perimeter = 2 (23 + 9) = 64
 7x = 84 × 4
 Impact on Perimeter
84  4
 x= = 12 × 4 = 48 4 100 20
7 =  100% = % %.
60 15 3
Hence, the age of father = x years
74. Seismology is the study of earthquakes.
= 48 years. Similarly, Penology is the ‘study of the
70. The value of two equal installments punishm ent of crime and of prison
= 840 × 2 = ` 1680 management’.
and the remaining amount after paid 75. Coal produces Thermal Energy. Similarly,
= 2400 – 1000 = ` 1400 Water produces Hydro Energy.
 Interest = ` 16800 – ` 1400 76. One who collects coins is called Numismatic.
= ` 280 Similarly, One who collects stamps is called
Philatelist.
According to question,
77. Energy is measured in Joule. Similarly, Current
1400  2  r 280 is measured in Ampere.
= 280  r =  10%
100 28 78. Engineer is related to Machine in the same
Hence, the rate of interest = r = 10%. way Doctor is related Diseases.
 Distance  79. Khasi, Garo, Mizo are ethnic group from India.
71. Let the distance = 100 km Speed 
 Time  80. Morocco belongs to Africa continent. Other
Then, the average speed three belong to North America.
100 100 81. The term “Mallet” is used in Polo. Similarly,
= km/hr = “Break out” is used in Hockey.
30 60 10 3 3
   1 82. Vijay Hazare Trophy is a Cricket Tournament.
20 40 10 2 2
Sim ilarly, “Durand Cup” is a Football
100 100 Tournament.
=  = 25 km/hr.
31 4 83. Currency of USA is Dollar. Similarly, Currency
100 – 20 100 – 15 100 – 10 of Chile is Peso.
72. x    = 612
100 100 100 84. Capital of France is Paris. Similarly, Capital of
4 17 9 Ghana is Accra.
 x   = 612
5 20 10 85. Colonel, Major, Brigadier are Army ranks
612  25  10 36  25  10 whereas Commodore is a naval rank.
 x= =
17  9 9 86. M +3=P
= 4 × 25 × 10 = 1000 J+2=L
Hence, the number of pens in shop = x = 1000. S+1=T
73. Let the original length = 20 and breadth = 10 Similarly, N + 3 = Q
Then original perimeter = 2 (l + b) K+2=M
= 2 (20 + 10) = 60 W + 1 = X.
 1
Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—2/2019*

1. Who is the UEFA Winner 2019? 8. Which female athlete won Gold in 2014 CWG
A. Liverpool FC in Weightlifting (48 Kg)?
B. Valencia A. Babita Kumari
C. Tottenham Hatspur B. Jitu Rai
D. None of these C. Sanjita Chanu
2. How many overs are there in the 1st Power D. Kumukcham Sanjita
Play in T20 Cricket? 9. Which Satellite is being launched by NASA
A. 5 overs B. 6 overs to Mars in 2020?
C. 7 overs D. 9 overs A. Mars 2020 rover mission
3. Tunnel that Connects Jammu to Kashmir path: B. Artemis Program
A. Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel C. Artemis-2
B. Karbude Railway Tunnel D. All of these
C. Rohtang Tunnel 10. Satyamev Jayate is part of which Upanishad?
D. Chenani Nashri Tunnel A. Chandogya
4. Who was the 1st Governor General of India? B. Prashna
A. Lord William Bentinck C. Mundaka
B. C. Rajagopalachari D. Mandukya
C. Lord Curzon
11. ‘CANT’ is related to which sport?
D. Warren Hastings
A. Football B. Kabaddi
5. Who is writer of Life of Pie? C. Hockey D. Volleyball
A. Tom Clancy B. Anne Golon
12. Who is the writer of Padmavat Poem?
C. Yann Martel D. Joseph Heller
A. Ali Ahmad
6. Who is considered the father of Indian B. Ziauddin Barani
revolutionary ideas? C. Malik Muhammad Jayasi
A. Mahatma Gandhi D. Al-Biruni
B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Ras Bihari Bose 13. Name of ISROs Space Program with the highest
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak number of Satellites.
A. PSLV-C37 B. PSLV-C41
7. Who is known as the Bradman of Women’s C. PSLV-C40 D. PSLV-C36
Cricket?
A. Ellyse Perry 14. Which European league won UEFA 3 times in
B. Elizabeth Rebecca Wilson a row?
C. Poonam Raut A. Real Madrid B. Benfica
D. Heather Knight C. Milan D. None of these

* Based on memory. 1 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2019(2)—1

 2 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2019(2)—1-II

15. What is the Capital of Bosnia? Direction (Qs. No. 26-30): Each of the following
A. Azerbaijan B. Eritrea questions consist of problem figures followed by
C. Slovakia D. Sarajevo answer figures. Select a figure from amongst the
16. How many medals have been won by Micheal answer figures which will continue the same series
Phelps? or pattern as established by the problem figures.
A. 29 B. 28 26. Problem Figures
C. 25 D. 32
17. Which dynasty established the Ajanta & Ellora
caves?
A. Kanva Dynasty
B. Shunga Dynasty Answer Figures
C. Hindu Satavahana Dynasty
D. None of these
18. Which text of the Vedas refers to Medicine?
A. Atharvaveda B. Samaveda A. B. C. D.
C. Yajurveda D. Rigveda
27. Problem Figures
19. Which cricketer reached fastest 10000 runs in
ODI?
A. MS Dhoni B. Sachin Tendulkar
C. Virat Kohli D. Ricky Ponting Answer Figures
20. What is the Capital of Colombia?
A. Bogota B. Praia
C. Moroni D. Zagreb
21. Where is the Headquarter of WHO located? A. B. C. D.
A. Montreal, Canada B. New York, USA
C. Geneva, Switzerland D. Vienna, Austria 28. Problem Figures
22. The Khilafat Movement was merged with
which movement?
A. Quit India Movement
B. Non-Cooperation Movement Answer Figures
C. Swaraj Movement
D. None of these
23. Which lines run parallel to the equator?
A. Latitude B. Longitude
C. Both A and B D. None of these A. B. C. D.
24. Who Invented Electricity? 29. Problem Figures
A. Guglielmo Marconi
B. Wilhelm Rontgen
C. Joseph Henry
Answer Figures
D. Benjamin Franklin
25. Sun occupies how much percentage of area?
A. 98.0 B. 99.86
C. 90 D. 56 A. B. C. D.
 3

30. Problem Figures 34. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D.
Directions (Qs. No. 31-35): The second figure in
the first unit of the Problem Figures bears a certain 35. Problem Figures
relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the
figures in the Answer Figures bears the same
relationship to the first figure in the second unit of
the Problem Figures. Locate the figure which would Answer Figures
fit the question mark.
31. Problem Figures

A. B. C. D.
Directions (Qs. No. 36-40): In each of the following
Answers Figures questions, three words are alike in some manner.
Spot the odd one out.
36. A. Green B. Red
C. Colour D. Orange
A. B. C. D.
37. A. Stable B. Hole
32. Problem Figures C. Canoe D. Sty
38. A. Nose B. Eyes
C. Skin D. Teeth
39. A. Venus B. Moon
Answer Figures
C. Pluto D. Mars
40. A. Happy B. Gloomy
C. Lively D. Cheerful
A. B. C. D. Directions (Qs. No. 41-45): In the questions given
33. Problem Figures below establish the relationship between the two
words. Then from the given options select one which
has the same relationship as of the given two words.
41. Mania is to Craze as Phobia is to .....
Answer Figures A. Desires B. Hobbies
C. Want D. Fear
42. Stammering is to Speech as Deafness is to.....
A. Ear B. Hearing
A. B. C. D. C. Noise D. Silence
 4

43. Secretive is to Open as Snide is to..... Alternative figures

A. Forthright B. Hidden
C. Outcome D. Forward
44. Leash is to Pet as Handcuffs is to..... A. B. C. D.
A. Cunning B. Dacoits
C. Criminals D. Robbers
45. Ride is to Horse as Smoke is to..... 51. Pattern
A. Chimney B. Sparkling
C. Pipe D. Ashes Alternative figures

Directions (Qs. No. 46-49): The following questions

are based on the following diagrams. Circles
(irrespectives of the size or location) represent A. B. C. D.
objects. You have to identify which of the following
diagrams would represent best the relationship
between given terms. 52. Pattern

Alternative figures

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

46. Which of the above five diagrams would best A. B. C. D.
represent—M usicians, Instrumentalists,
Violinists?
A. (a) B. (b) 53. Pattern
C. (c) D. (e)
47. Which of the above five diagrams would best Alternative figures
represent—People, Painters, Boys?
A. (e) B. (d)
C. (a) D. (b)
A. B. C. D.
48. Which of the above five diagrams would best
represent—Mothers, Fathers and Teachers?
A. (a) B. (b)
54. Pattern
C. (d) D. (e)
49. Which of the above five diagrams would best Alternative figures
represent—Men, Women and Children?
A. (a) B. (c)
C. (e) D. None
A. B. C. D.
Directions (Qs. No. 50-54): In each question, which
one of the alternative figures will complete the 55. Which of the following would be the next
given figure pattern? number in the series 8, 15, 29, 57?
A. 99
B. 113
50. Pattern C. 103
D. 101
 5

56. Which of the following numbers will be 63. The price of cooking oil has increased by
inserted in place of the (?) mark? 25%. The percentage of reduction that a family
35 (78) 40 45 (97) 35 25 (?) 30 should effect in the use of cooking oil so as
A. 66 B. 56 not to increase the expenditure on this account
C. 67 D. 71 is:
A. 25% B. 30%
57. Find the missing term in the following:
C. 20% D. 15%
ACEG : DFHJ : : QSUV : ?
A. TVXY B. MNPR 64. In an examination 80% of the students passed
C. OQST D. KMNP in Mathematics and 70% passed in English,
58. If ‘BEARING’ is coded as 1234567. ‘RARE’ while 10% students failed in both the subjects.
will be coded as: If 360 students passed in both the subjects,
A. 4234 B. 4321 find the total number of students who appeared
C. 4345 D. 4342 in the examination.
A. 400 B. 600
59. If RADIO is coded as ‘UDGLR’, PHOTO will C. 630 D. 640
be coded as:
65. Two vessels A and B contain mixture of milk
A. OIPWR B. OTOPT
and water in the ratio 4 : 1 and 9 : 11
C. SKRWR D. SKPWR
respectively. They are mixed in the ratio of
60. A manufacturer sells a cooler to a distributor 3 : 2. Find the ratio of milk : water in the
at a profit of 18%. The distributor sells the resulting mixture.
same to a retailer at a profit of 20%. The A. 34 : 16
retailer, in turns sells it to a customer for B. 33 : 17
` 2124 thereby earning a profit of 25%. What C. 16 : 34
is the cost price for the manufacturer? D. 17 : 33
A. ` 1200
66. A vessel contains mixture of liquids A and B
B. ` 1300
in the ratio 3 : 2. When 20 litres of the mixture
C. ` 1400
is taken out and replaced by 20 litres of liquid
D. ` 1450
B, the ratio changes to 1 : 4. How many litres
61. A manufacturer’s list price of a table is ` 4750. of liquid A was there initially present in the
He sells it to a retailer with successive vessel?
discounts of 15% and 10% with terms : cash A. 12 litres
4, 2/20. If the retailer pays the bill on 10th B. 18 litres
day, what is his cost price? C. 24 litres
A. ` 1356.08 D. 22 litres
B. ` 3361.08
C. ` 3561.08 x 2  y 2  z 2  64
D. ` 4616.10 67. If = –2 and x + y = 32, then
xy  yz  zx
62. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper find the value of z.
prepared by mixing metals in proportions A. 5 B. 4
7 : 2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If equal quantities C. 3 D. 2
of the alloys are melted to form a third alloy 2 2 2
C, the proportion of gold and copper in C will 68. If a + b + c = 13, a + b + c = 69, then what
be: is the value of (ab + bc + ca).
A. 5 : 9 B. 5 : 7 A. 75 B. 69
C. 7 : 5 D. 9 : 5 C. 50 D. 60
 6

69. If 3 men and 5 women can do a piece of work 75. Start from his house one day Saurabh walks at
in 8 days and 2 men and 7 boys can do the 1
same work in 12 days. Find the number of a speed of 2 km/hr and reaches his school
2
boys, the work done by whom can equate the 6 minutes late. Next day he increases his speed
work done by 10 women. by 1 km/hr and reaches the school 6 minutes
A. 19 boys B. 21 boys early. What is the distance of the school from
C. 23 boys D. 15 boys his house?
70. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. 3
They worked together for 20 days and then B A. 2 km B. 1 km
4
left. After another 20 days, A finished the
1
remaining work. In how many days A alone C. 1 km D. 1 km
can finish the job? 2
A. 60 days B. 54 days 76. If a, b, c, d, e are five consecutive odd numbers,
C. 50 days D. 40 days their average is:
1 1 A. 5 (a + 4)
4 2 1
71. 7 4 ÷ ?
B.
abcde
1 1 1
3 1 2 5
2 7 1
2 C. 5(a + b + c + d + e)
1 D. None of these
5
5
77. A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as
1
A. 3 B. 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average
8 marks for the class got increased by half. What
C. 8 D. 1 is the number of pupils in the class?
1 1 1 1 A. 73 B. 40
72.    is simplified C. 50 D. 10
1 2  3 2  3  4 3  4  5 4  5  6
to: Directions (Qs. Nos. 78 to 81): In questions,
17 13 sentences given with blanks to be filled in with an
A. B.
30 30 appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are
11 7 suggested for each question. Choose the correct
C. D. alternative out of the four and indicate it by
30 30
blackening the appropriate oval [ ] in the Answer
73. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they
Sheet.
lost. If a win gives them 2 points and loss
(–1) point. If their score is 23, then how many 78. He was ______ by nature and so avoided all
matches in all have they played? company.
A. 40 B. 37 A. anti-social B. cordial
C. 20 D. 17 C. gregarious D. timid
74. Starting from a point at a speed of 4 km/hr a 79. The United Kingdom _____ England, Wales,
man reaches at a cerain place and returns back Scotland and Northern Ireland.
to the point from where he had started journey A. comprises B. combines
on bicycle at the speed of 16 km/hr. His C. comprises of D. consists
average speed during the entire journey will be: 80. Jyoti refused to be _____ by her long illness.
A. 6.4 km/h B. 8.4 km/h A. dispensed B. dispirited
C. 5.4 km/h D. 10 km/h C. dispersed D. dispatched
 7

81. Jim suffered a ____ of fortune. all the means of production and others have to sell
A. reversal B. revert their labour under conditions imposed upon them.
C. regress D. reverse The emphasis of capitalism being on the supreme
Directions (Qs. Nos. 82 to 84): In questions, some importance of material wealth, the intensity of its
parts of the sentences have errors and some are appeal is to the acquisitive tendency. It promotes
correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an worship of economic power with little regard to the
error and blacken the oval [ ] corresponding to means employed for its acquisition and the end that
the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free it serves. By its exploitation of human beings to the
from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) limits of endurance its concentration is on the largest
in the Answer Sheet. profit rather than maximum production. Thus, the
division of human society is done on the basis of
82. (A) We have finished our work/(B) three hours profit motive. All this is injurious to human dignity.
ago and have been waiting/(C) for you since And when the harrowed poor turn to the founders
then./(D) No error. of religion for succour, they rather offer a subtle
83. (A) A study is going under way/(B) to defence for the established order. They promise
determine the exact concentration/(C) of lead future happiness for present suffering. They conjure
in the water supply./(D) No error. up visions of paradise to soothe the suffering
majority and censure the revolt of the tortured men.
84. (A) Several guests noticed Mr. Sharma/(B)
The system imposes injustice, the religion justifies
falling back in his chair/(C) and gasping for
it.
breath. /(D) No error.
88. The passage indicates that the capitalist system
Directions (Qs. Nos. 85 to 87): In questions, four
is:
alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase
A. ambitious B. prosperous
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative
C. dehumanising D. fair
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/
Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet. 89. In a capitalist system of society each man
wishes:
85. ‘I am going to stay at home because I am
A. to produce maximum wealth
feeling under the weather today.’
B. to have visions of paradise
A. depressed B. irritated
C. unhappy D. sick C. to soothe the sufferings of other
D. to acquire maximum wealth
86. He and his neighbour are always at
loggerheads. Directions (Qs. Nos. 90 to 92): In questions, out of
A. abusing each other the four alternatives, choose the one which best
B. agree on everything expresses the meaning of the given word and mark
C. aloof from each other it in the Answer Sheet.
D. disagreeing on everything 90. RESURGENCE
87. Even in the middle of the fire he kept a level A. renewal B. reluctance
head. C. repletion D. relocation
A. was sensible B. was crazy 91. INGENUOUS
C. was self-centred D. was impulsive A. crafty B. candid
Directions (Qs. No. 88 and 89): Read the passage C. careless D. creative
carefully and answer these questions. 92. DAMP
The capitalist system does not foster healthy A. light B. wet
relations among human beings. A few people own C. clear D. complicated
 8

Directions (Qs. Nos. 93 to 95): In questions, choose due to its highly stimulating and ...(97)... engaging
the word opposite in meaning to the given word impact. It is for this reason that we are seeing an
and mark it in the Answer Sheet. increase in schools across the globe ...(98)... content
93. ZENITH provider programmes into their class curriculum to
A. shallow B. nadir ...(99)... lessons through video. Visual excursions
C. low D. bottom and school collaborations are ...(100)... by advances
in high definition video, high fidelity audio and
94. ARROGANT content sharing, allowing students to experience a
A. laughty B. proud richer and more stimulating learning experience.
C. selfish D. modest
96. A. help B. aiding
95. ECCENTRIC
C. prescribe D. feature
A. carefree B. peculiar
C. normal D. unusual 97. A. plus B. lonely
C. ably D. deeply
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100): In the following
passage there are blanks, each of which has been 98. A. incorporating B. pressing
numbered. These numbers are printed below the C. following D. parting
passage and against each, five words are suggested, 99. A. make B. demand
one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
C. impart D. vision
the appropriate word in each case.
Visual experiences can ...(96)... children, 100. A. dissolved B. enhanced
teenagers and even adults learn and absorb more C. measured D. failed

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B D A C D B D A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C A A D B C A C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B A D B C D D D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D A C D C C D B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B A C A A D D D B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D D A B B A D C A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C C B B B B C B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D D B A B D B D A B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A A D D D A C D A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B B B D C A D A C B
 9 (1660) ( AFCAT) 2019(2)—2

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
26. Clockwise, the circle is turned by 30° and also 42. Defect in speech causes stammering and in
one radial line segment is removed. hearing causes deafness.
27. The diagonal line segments are removed one 43. The related words are antonyms.
by one in a set order. 44. Leash is used to tie a pet, handcuffs to tie
28. The ‘V’ shape on the top left is rotated 90° criminals.
anticlockwise. The three figures at the bottom 45. Horse is the object of action ‘to ride’ and
are shaded one at a time beginning from the Chimney is the object of action ‘to smoke’.
right figure and moving to the left.
46. All violinists are instrumentalist and all
29. The circle and the dot are moved two and instrumentalists are Musician.
three sections clockwise respectively.
47. Some painters may be boys and some boys
30. The cross is turned 90° clockwise at each step. may be painters. But all painters and boys are
31. The triangle in the first figure is moved to the people.
centre of the second figure. Similarly, the two 48. Some mothers and some fathers may be
triangles joined at the apex are moved to the teachers but a father can not be a mother and
centre in answer figure. vice-versa.
32. The first figure is turned by 90° one of the 49. No diagram can represent the given words.
bars is removed and opposite sides of the
element attached to the bar are shaded to get
the second figure. 50.
33. The element at the bottom is moved to the
diagonal corner, the element in the top is
enlarged and moved to the centre and element
in the middle is reduced and moved to the 51.
bottom right corner.
34. The view of the cube is changed from top to
bottom. The design on the right side remains 52.
unchanged while the design on the left side is
changed.
35. The inner shape in the first figure is removed
to get the second figure. 53.
36. All others are types of colour.
37. Canoe is a boat. Other are resting places of
birds/animals. 54.
38. All others are sense organs.
39. All others are planets. 55. 8 15 29 57 ? 113

40. All others are expressions of joy. 8×2–1 15×2–1 29×2–1 57×2–1
41. The related words are snynonyms. Hence, required number = 113.
 10

57. A C E G : D F H J 63. Required reduction

+3 LM r  100OP
MN b100  rg PQ
=
+3
+3
F 25  100I % = 20%.
:
+3 =
H 125 K
Q S U V T V X Y
64. Here, percentage of students failed in
+3 Mathematics and English be 30% and 20%
+3 respectively.
+3 Percentage of students failed either one or
+3 both subjects
= 30 + 20 – 10
58. B E A R I N G R A R E
           = 40%
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 4 3 4 2 Hence, percentage of pass students
= 100 – 40
100 100 100 = 60%
60. Required C.P. =    2124
118 120 125 Now, 60% = 360
= ` 1200.
360
61. Here, retailer pays the bill on 10th day, so  100% =  100
60
discount will be 2%.
= 600.
Hence, required cost price
65. Fraction is Milk Water
85 90 98
=   × 4750 4 1
100 100 100 A:
5 5
142443
= 9 11
40 B :
20 20
= ` 3561.08.

F7 7 I FG 12  9 IJ FG 3  11 IJ
62. Gold in C = GH  JK
9 18
(3A + 2B) = A and B :
H 5 10 K H 5 10 K
33 17
21 7 10 10
= =
18 6 So, Ratio of milk : water in the resulting
FG 2  11IJ mixture = 33 : 17.
Copper in C = H 9 18 K 66. % of liquid B initially present in the vessel
2
15 5 = × 100 = 40%
= = 32
18 6
% of liquid B finally present in the vessel
7 5 4
 Gold : Copper = : = × 100
6 6 1 4
= 7 : 5. = 80%
 11

The second solution is liquid B which is being 68. (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
mixed and it has 100% liquid B.  ab + bc + ca
80% of liquid B present in the resultant
mixture may be taken as average percentage. =
b a  b  cg  e a
2 2
 b2  c2 j  b13g 2
 69
So, using rule of alligation on liquid B per 2 2
cent, we can write, 169  69
=
2
100
= = 50.
2
69. Here, (3 men + 5 women) × 8  (2 men + 7
boys) × 12
 40 women  84 boys
84
 10 women   10
or 1 : 2 40
The ratio of liquid left in the vessel to liquid = 21 boys
B being mixed = 1 : 2 Hence, work done by 10 women
Since the quantity of liquid B being mixed is = work done of 21 boys.
20 litres, the quantity of liquid left in the
vessel is 10 litres. 20 2
70. (A + B)’s 20 days’ work = 
Therefore, the total quantity of liquid initially 30 3
present in the vessel 2 1
Remaining part of work = 1 –  ,
= 10 + 20 3 3
= 30 litres which will be done by A alone in 20 days.
Quantity of liquid A Hence, whole work will be done by A alone
in 20 × 3 = 60 days.
3
= × 30 = 18 litres. 1 1
23 4 2
1
x 2  y 2  z 2  64 71. 7 4 
1 1 1
67. = –2 3 1 2+
xy  yz  zx 2 7 1
2+
 x2 + y2 + z2 – 64 1
5
= – 2 (xy – yz – zx) ...(i) 5
Now, (x + y – z) 2
29 9
–
= x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 (xy – yz – zx) 1
= 7 4
 (3z – z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2 (xy – yz – zx) 7 8 1
 2
(  x + y = 3z) 2 7 1
2
 x2 + y2 + z2 – 4z2 24
= –2 (xy – yz – zx) ...(ii) 5
From (i) and (ii), we get, 29  4 – 9  7
28 1
4z 2 = 64 = 
77–82 1
 z 2 = 16 2
14 5
 z = 4. 2
24
 12

116 – 63 74. Average speed during the entire journey

= 28  1 2 xy 2  4  16
49 – 16 1 = 
2 xy 4  16
14 53
8  16
24 = = 6.4 km/hr.
20
53
75. Let x km be distance of school from his house;
28  1 then
=
65 24
2 2x 2x 12
14 53 – =
5 7 60
53  14 1
=  4x 1
28  65 130  =
35 5
53
7
53 53  x=
=  4
130 130 3
53 130 = 1 km.
  1. 4
=
130 53 76. Clearly,
1 1 1 1 b = a + 2, c = a + 4, d = a + 6, e = a + 8
72.   
1 2  3 2  3  4 3  4  5 4  5  6  Required Average
120  30  12  6 a  (a  2)  ( a  4)  ( a  6)  ( a  8)
= =
1 2  3  4  5  6 5
5a  20
168 7 =
=  5
720 30 = (a + 4).
73. Let the number of matches, they lost be x. 77. Let the total number of pupils in the class be
Now, x; then,
(x + 3) × 2 – x × 1 = 23 83 – 63 1
 x = 17 =
x 2
Total number of matches
= (x + 3) + x 20 1
 =
= (17 + 3) + 17 x 2
= 37.  x = 40.
 1
Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—2/2018*

1. What is long jump record of Mike Powell? 9. How many timeouts can a team take in
A. 8.95 m B. 8.25 m Volleyball?
C. 9.35 m D. 7.85 m A. 5 B. 4
2. Who was the first women PM in the world? C. 6 D. 2
A. Indira Gandhi 10. When the Jallianwala Bagh M assacre
B. Benazir Bhutto happened?
C. Margret Alva A. 13 April, 1919 B. 23 June, 1919
D. Srimavo Bandaranaike C. 18 August, 1920 D. 13 July, 1921
3. Radcliffe Line is a demarcation line between 11. What is Daksh?
______. A. Nuclear Energy Operated Vehicle
A. India and Afghanistan B. Carbon Operated Vehicle
B. India and Pakistan C. Remotely Operated Vehicle
C. India and China D. None of these
D. India and Bhutan
12. What was the term used for measurement of
4. Who was the first posthumous recipient of Land in the Delhi Sultanate period?
Bharat Ratna? A. Masharat B. Masahat
A. Indira Gandhi C. Mutwakil D. Muzzarat
B. Rajeev Gandhi
13. Riga is the capital of which country?
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
A. Bosnia B. Japan
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Latvia D. Turkey
5. In which year Goa is taken by India? 14. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
A. 1961 B. 1968 A. Raja Rammohan Roy
C. 1965 D. 1971 B. Bipin Chandra Pal
6. Baltic Cup is associated with _______. C. Hare Krishna Devsare
A. Cricket B. Kabbadi D. Jyotiba Phule
C. Football D. Tennis
15. Where is Indira Point located?
7. Hook Pass is related to which game? A. Kerala
A. Basketball B. Badminton B. Tamil Nadu
C. Snooker D. Boxing C. Andaman and Nicobar
D. Lakshdweep
8. Hindu Sanskrit Book Natya Shastra is written
by: 16. JAXA is an aerospace agency of which country?
A. Patanjali B. Bharata Muni A. Sri Lanka B. Maldives
C. Ashvaghosh D. Tulsi Das C. Bhutan D. Japan

* Based on memory. 1 1660 ( AFCAT) 2018(2)—1

 2 1660 ( AFCAT) 2018(2)—1-II

17. When India became a member of Asian 27. At daggers drawn:

Development Bank? A. in bitter enmity B. in danger
A. 1954 B. 1966 C. in friendship D. in love
C. 1980 D. 1975 28. At sixes and sevens:
18. Which Vitamin is responsible for blood A. in order
clotting? B. in counting
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. in a state of confusion
C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin C D. countless
29. See eye to eye:
19. Which among the following is the oldest Veda?
A. Bitter enmity B. Fast friendship
A. Sam Veda B. Aayur Veda
C. Deep contempt D. Fully agree
C. Dhanur Veda D. Rig Veda
Directions (Qs. No. 30-34): In the following passage
20. Which Act is known as the Black Act? some numbered blank spaces are given. For each
A. Rowlatt Act numbered blank space answer choices are given.
B. Morley-Minto Act Pick out the one which is the most appropriate for
C. Khilafat Act that blank space. Keep the trend of the passage in
D. None of these mind.
21. Mont Blanc is situated in: A confusion about what secularism really means
A. Germany B. Italy and the use of the term to play present politics
C. United Kingdom D. Switzerland ___(30)___the ordinary people of all religions who
are proud of their religion and are perfectly willing
22. Kuril Island is a cause of dispute between:
to be___(31)___of the religions of others if they are
A. Japan and China
left in peace to do so. They ___(32)___at religion
B. China and Vietnam
as a right but as a ___(33)___personal need in order
C. Russia and Japan to make sense of a ___(34)___world, no matter
D. Japan and North Korea what the manner of its practice may be.
23. Lona is the term associated with which sports? 30. A. alienates B. originates
A. Boxing B. Tennis C. communicates D. dominates
C. Football D. Kabbadi
31. A. intolerant B. tolerant
24. Battle of Kannauj was fought in 1540 between: C. united D. adjusted
A. Akbar and Rana Pratap
32. A. have not looked
B. Akbar and Nisar Khan
B. have not viwed
C. Sher Shah and Humayun
C. have never looked
D. Humayun and Muzaffar Mirza D. have not visualised
25. Jude Felix is a famous Indian player in which 33. A. fundamental B. secular
of the following field? C. social D. elementary
A. Football B. Kabbadi
C. Tennis D. Hockey 34. A. spiritual B. convergent
C. convoluted D. convulsive
Directions (Qs. No. 26-29): Which word or words
Directions (Qs. No. 35-40): Choose the word which
explains the meaning of the following idioms.
is nearest in meaning to the given word.
26. By dint of:
35. Defunct
A. by talk of B. by means of A. False B. Extinct
C. by fight of D. by fall of C. Dubious D. Despot
 3

36. Brawn good at determining speeds of approaching objects,

A. Fear B. Complexion radar can show a pilot how fast nearby pilots are
C. Intelligence D. Vigour moving. The basic principle of radar is exemplified
by what happens when one shouts in a cave. The
37. Debilitate
echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person
A. Disable B. Divide
to determine the size of the cave. With radar,
C. Weaken D. Deplete
however, the waves are radiowaves instead of sound
38. Daunt waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light
A. Scold B. Intimidate about 300,000 kilometres in one second. A radar
C. Abuse D. Defy sends out a short burst of radio waves. Then it
39. Capricious receives the echoes produced when the waves
A. Caring B. Carping bounce off objects. By determining the time it takes
C. Cautious D. Erratic for the echoes to return to the radar set, a trained
technician can determine the distance between the
40. Umbrage radar set and other objects. The word “radar”, in fact
A. Chagrin B. Amity gets its name from the term “radio detection and
C. Harmony D. Pleasure ranging”. “Ranging” is the term for detection of the
Directions (Qs. No. 41-46): Choose the word which distance between an object and the radar set. Besides
is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word. being of critical important of pilots, radar is essential
for air traffic control, tracking ships at sea, and for
41. Tranquillity
tracking weather systems and storms.
A. Triviality B. Temerity
C. Agitation D. Tension 47. Which of the following best describes the tone
of the passage?
42. Brawny
A. Humorous B. Explanatory
A. Hefty B. Robust
C. Argumentative D. Imaginative
C. Sinewy D. Wimpy
48. What is the main topic of this passage?
43. Alleviate
A. Uses of Radar
A. Elevate B. Sharpen
B. History of Radar
C. Aggravate D. Promote
C. The Nature of Radar
44. Tenuous D. Alternatives of Radar
A. Powerful B. Enough
49. What might be inferred about radar?
C. Reasonable D. Sample
A. It takes the place of a radio
45. Copious B. It gave birth to the invention of the airplane
A. Unsatisfactory B. Unconvincing C. It developed from a study of sound waves
C. Poor D. Scanty D. It has improved navigational safety
46. Jettison 50. According to the passage, what can radar detect
A. Abandon B. Strengthen besides location of objects?
C. Retain D. Modify A. Speed B. Weight
Directions (Qs. No. 47-50): Read the following C. Size D. Shape
passages and answer the questions given below it. 51. If the difference between compound interest
A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In and simple interest on a certain sum of money
many conditions, such as flying at night and landing for 3 years at 10% is ` 77.5, find the sum.
in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, in alternative A. ` 2,500 B. ` 2,550
way of navigating. Since human eyes are not very C. ` 2,600 D. ` 2,700
 4

52. Two horses sold at ` 1200 each. The first one 59. The population of a village increase at the
is sold at 20% profit and the other one at 20% rate 5% per annum, if the population of village
loss. What is the overall % profit or loss. in 2016 is 1,80,500. Find the population of
A. 4% Profit B. 4% Loss village in 2014?
C. 3% Loss D. 3% Profit A. 2,00,000 B. 3,00,000
53. The initial price of a colour T.V. is three times C. 4,00,000 D. 6,00,000
of that music system, now if price of T.V. is 60. 60 kg of an alloy A is mixed with 100 kg of
increase by 10% and the price of music system an alloy B. If alloy A has lead and tin in the
is increase by 18%. Then find the profit/loss% ratio 3 : 2 and alloy B has tin and copper in
on buying eight colour T.V. and five music the ratio 1 : 4 then the amount of tin in the
system? new alloy is:
1 1 A. 36 kg B. 44 kg
A. 12 % Loss B. 33 % Profit C. 53 kg D. 80 kg
2 3
C. 23.38% Loss D. 11.38% Profit 61. 0.0081  0.0064  ?
5 A. 0.27 B. 0.17
54. The average of and 3.6% is: C. 0.57 D. 0.07
16
A. 0.124 B. 0.169 62. 729 ml of milk contains milk and water in the
C. 0.174 D. 2.173 ratio 7 : 2. How much water is to be added in
55. If the efficiency of A, B and C is in the ratio the mixture to make the ratio 7 : 3?
4 : 5 : 6. What is the ratio of the time in which A. 81 ml B. 83 ml
they complete the work? C. 71 ml D. 72 ml
A. 15 : 12 : 10 B. 12 : 10 : 15 63. The average age of a class of 39 students is 15
C. 15 : 10 : 12 D. None of these years. If the age of the teacher be included
56. The average marks of a class is 70, if average then the average increase by 3 months. Find
marks of fail students is 40 and pass students the age of the teacher.
is 80. Find the percentage of passing student? A. 15 years B. 20 years
A. 65% B. 55% C. 35 years D. 25 years
C. 25% D. 75% 64. A train 110 metres long is running with a
57. If the price of sugar is increased by 30% by speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a
how much percent a person must reduce his man who is running at 6 kmph in the direction
consumption in order to maintain the same opposite to that in which the train is going?
budget? A. 5 seconds B. 6 seconds
1 C. 7 seconds D. 10 seconds
A. 21% B. 21 %
3 65. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles
1 downstream than to travel the same distance
C. 23 % D. 33% upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water
13
is 10 mph, the speed of the stream is:
58. A man deposits ` 10000 on a bank for 2 years A. 2 mph B. 2.5 mph
at 16% per annum compounded half yearly. C. 3 mph D. 4 mph
Find the compound interest getting by the
man. 66. A man bought some oranges at ` 10 per dozen
A. ` 3604.88 B. ` 3502.89 and bought the same number of oranges at
C. ` 3714.25 D. None of these ` 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges at
 5

` 11 per dozen and gained ` 120. The total 73. If 18 binders bind 900 books in 10 days, how
number of oranges bought by him was: many binders will be required to bind 660
A. 30 dozens B. 40 dozens books in 12 days?
C. 50 dozens D. 60 dozens A. 22 B. 14
C. 13 D. 11
67. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30
and 60 days respectively. In how many days 74. A box contains 10 black and 10 white balls.
can A do the work if he is assisted by B and The probability of drawing two balls of the
C on every third day? same colour is:
A. 12 days B. 15 days 9 9
C. 16 days D. 18 days A. B.
19 38
10 5
( x – y)3  ( y – z )3  ( z – x )3 C. D.
68. The value of is 19 19
9( x – y)( y – z )( z – x )
equal to: 75. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series
1 1 1 1
A. 0 B.    .... is:
9 56 67 78
1 A. 0.16 B. 1.6
C. D. 1 C. 16 D. None of these
3
69. Three persons are walking from a place A to Directions (Qs. No. 76-80): The second figure in
another place B. Their speeds are in the ratio the first unit of the Problem Figures bears a certain
relationship to the first figure. Similarly, one of the
of 4 : 3 : 5. The time ratio to reach B by these
figures in the Answer Figures bears the same
persons will be:
relationship to the first figure in the second unit of
A. 4 : 3 : 5 B. 5 : 3 : 4
the Problem Figures. Locate the figure which would
C. 15 : 9 : 20 D. 15 : 20 : 12
fit the question mark.
70. The average age of husband, wife and their
76. Problem Figures
child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife
and the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The
present age of the husband is:
A. 35 years Answer Figures
B. 40 years
C. 50 years
D. None of these
A B C D
71. Which one of the following numbers will
61 62 63 64 77. Problem Figures
completely divide (4 + 4 + 4 + 4 )?
A. 3 B. 10
C. 11 D. 13
72. The LCM of two numbers is 45 times their
HCF. If one of the numbers is 125 and the sum Answer Figures
of HCF and LCM is 1150, the other number
is:
A. 215 B. 220
C. 225 D. 235 A B C D
 6

78. Problem Figures 83. Frame : Picture

A. Cup : Saucer B. Table : Floor
C. Chair : Room D. Roof : Building
84. Atom : Electron
Answer Figures A. Sun : Earth
B. Constellation : Satellite
C. Sputnik : Satellite
D. Neutron : Proton
85. Rickets : Bones
A B C D
A. Gout : Spleen
79. Problem Figures B. Malaria : Lungs
C. Jaundice : Eyes
D. Eczema : Skin
Directions (Qs. No. 86-90): In these tests figures X
Answer Figures is hidden in the option figures, find the correct
option.

A B C D 86.
80. Problem Figures

Answer Figures A B C D

87.
A B C D
Directions (Qs. No. 81-85): In the following
questions the words given bear a certain
relationship. Find out from the choices the words
with the same relationship.
A B C D
81. Water : Sand : : Ocean : ?
A. Island
B. River
C. Desert 88.
D. Waves
82. Bird : Fly : : Snake : ?
A. Timid
B. Clatter
C. Crawl
D. Hole A B C D
 7

96. Pattern

89.

Alternative figures

A B C D

A B C D
90. Directions (Qs. No. 97 and 98): From the four
logical Diagrams, select one which best illustrates
the relationship among three given classes in the
questions.

A B C D A.
Directions (Qs. No. 91-94): In each of the following
questions four words/number have been given out
of which three are alike in same manner word
while the fourth one is different. Choose the word B.
which is different from the rest
91. A. Admiral B. Colonel
C. Commodore D. Commander
92. A. Henri Becquerel B. Otto Hahn C.
C. Madam Curie D. Einstein
93. A. Prism B. Cube
C. Cone D. Square
D.
94. A. 2 B. 7
C. 19 D. 18 97. Thief, Criminal, Police.
Directions (Qs. No. 95 and 96): In each question, 98. Animals, Amphibian, Tortoise.
which one of the alternative figure complete the
given figure pattern. Directions (Qs. No. 99 and 100): In each of the
following questions, find out the alternative which
will replace the question mark.
95. Pattern 99. Ride : Horse : : Smoke : ?
A. Chimney B. Sparkling
Alternative figures C. Cigar D. Ashes
100. CUZA : HYCC : : NNJO : ?
A. TURS B. SRMO
A B C D C. TRMP D. SSNR
 8

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A D B C A C A B D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B C A C D B C D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C D C D B A C D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A A C B D C B D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C D C A D C B A D A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B D C A D C A A B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B A D B A D B C D B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B C D A A D D B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C C D D D A A D B B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D D D B D A C C B

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

The C.P. of second horse

Difference (100)3
51. Sum = 100
r 2 (300  r ) = 1200 
80
77.5(100) 3 = ` 1,500
=
(10)2 (300  10) Total C.P. of two horses
= 1,000 + 1,500
77.5  100  100  100 = ` 2,500
=
100  310 Therefore, Loss = ` 2,500 – ` 2,400
= ` 2,500. = ` 100
52. Total selling price of two horses 100
 % Loss =  100 = 4% Loss.
= 2 × 1200 2500
= ` 2,400 Shortcut Method:
The C.P. of first horse In this type of question where SP is given and
100 profit and loss percentage are same, there is
= 1200  = ` 1,000
120 always less and the % loss
 9 1660 ( AFCAT) 2018(2)—2

x2 1
= 55.  Efficiency 
100 Time
1 1 1
(20)2 tA : tB : tC = : :
 % loss = 4. 4 5 6
100
= 15 : 12 : 10.
53. Let the initial price of a music system = ` x
56. By Alligation Rule
Then, the price of a colour TV = ` 3x
Now, Total cost price of 80 colour TV and 5 Pass Student Fail Student
80 40
music system
= 8 × 3x + 5 × x 70
= 24x + 5x = 29x 30 : 10
Now, The price of a music system
Pass : Fail = 3 : 1
59 x  Passing student percentage
= x × 118% =
50
3
The price of a colour TV =  100
(3  1)
33 x
= 3x × 110% = 3
10 =  100
4
 Total S.P. of 8 colour TV and 5 music
system = 75%.

33 x 59 x 57. Decrease in consumption

= 8  5
10 50  R 
=   100  %
264 x 59 x 323 x  100  R 
=  
10 10 10
 30 
=   100  %
SP – CP 130 
% profit =  100
CP
1
= 23 %.
323 x 13
– 29 x
= 10  100 58.  Interest half yearly
29 x
16
323 x – 290 x  Rate (r) = %  8%
=  100 2
290 x
Time (t) = 2 × 2 = 4 years
= 11.38% profit.
 4 
r 
5 3.6 500  57.6  CI = P   1   – 1
  100 
16 100  1600  
54. Average =
2 2
 4 
8 
557.6 = 10000   1   – 1
=  0.174.   100  
3200
 10

62. Milk Water

  27  4 
= 10000 ×    – 1 7 2
 
 25  Same +1
7 3
 531441  Initial mixture = 7 + 2 = 9 unit
= 10000 ×  – 1
 390625  9 unit value = 729
1 unit value = 81.
 140816 
= 10000    63. Total age of 39 persons
 390625 
= 39 × 16 = 585 years
= ` 3604.88.
Average age of 40 persons
59. Population of Village in 2014 (i.e., 2 years = 15 years 3 months
ago)
61
2 = years
 5  4
180500 = x  1 –
 100  Total age of 40 persons

2  61 
 19  =   40 
180500 = x   4
 20 
= 610 years
361  Age of the teacher
180500 = x 
400 = 610 – 585
= 25 years.
180500  400
x= = 2,00,000. 64. Speed of train relative to man
361
= (60 + 6) km/hr
60. Quantity of tin in 60 kg of A = 66 km/hr
 2 5
=  60   kg = 24 kg   55 
5 =  66   m/sec =   m/sec
18 3
Quantity of tin in 100 kg of B  Time taken to pass the man
 1 3
=  100   kg = 20 kg 
5 =  110   sec = 6 sec.
55
Quantity of tin in the new alloy
65. Let the speed of the stream be x mph. Then,
= (24 + 20) kg = 44 kg.
Speed downstream = (10 + x) mph,
61. We can written this as Speed upstream = (10 – x) mph

81 64  9 
2
 8 
2 36 36 90
 =  – =
10000 10000      (10 – x ) (10  x ) 60
100  100 
2
 72x × 60 = 90(100 – x )
9 8 
2
x + 48x + 100 = 0
= 
100 100  (x + 50) (x – 2) = 0
= 0.09 + 0.08 = 0.17.  x = 2 mph.
 11

66. CP of 2 dozen oranges 70. Sum of the present ages of husband, wife and
= ` (10 + 8) child
= ` 18 = (27 × 3 + 3 × 3) years
SP of 2 dozen oranges = 90 years
= ` 22 Sum of the present ages of wife and child
If profit is ` 4, oranges bought = (20 × 2 + 5 × 2) years
= 2 dozen = 50 years
If profit is ` 120,  Husband’s present age
= (90 – 50) years
2  = 40 years.
oranges bought =   120  dozens
4
61 62 63 64
71. (4 + 4 + 4 + 4 )
= 60 dozens.
61 2 3
=4 × (1 + 4 + 4 + 4 )
67. A’s 2 days’ work
61
= 4 × 85
 1  1 60
=   2  =4 × (4 × 85)
 20  10
60
= (4 × 340)
(A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work
which is divisible by 10.
 1 1 1
=     72. Let HCF be h and LCM be l. Then,
20 30 60 
l = 45 h
6 1 and l + h = 1150
= 
60 10  45h + h = 1150
Work done in 3 days or h = 25
So, l = (1150 – 25) = 1125
 1 1 1 Hence, other number
=   
 10 10  5
 25  1125 
1 =  
Now, work is done in 3 days 125 
5
= 225.
 Whole work will be done in (3 × 5) = 15
days. 73. Let the required number of binders be x
Less books, Less binders (Direct
68. Since, (x – y) + (y – z) + (z – x) = 0
3 3 3 Proportion)
So, (x – y) + (y – z) + (z – x)
More days, Less binders (Indirect
= 3(x – y) (y – z) (z – x)
Proportion)
3( x – y)( y – z )( z – x ) 1
 Given exp. =  . Books 900 : 600 
9( x – y)( y – z )( z – x ) 3
 : : 18 : x
Days 12 : 10 
69. Ratio of speeds = 4 : 3 : 5.
 (900 × 12 × x) = (600 × 10 × 18)
1 1 1
 Ratio of times taken = : :
4 3 5 600  10  18
 x= = 11.
= 15 : 20 : 12. 900  12
 12

74. Total number of balls = 20 78. The design is turned by 90°, the two half parts
Let S be the sample space. Then, are turned against each other and joined by a
n(S) = Number of ways of drawing 2 balls out dot.
of 20 79. The dots are moved anticlockwise. One section
each.
20 (20  19)
= C2 =  190 80. Both the arrows are turned by 90° and moved
(2  1)
one step clockwise. The arrow touching the
Let E = event of drawing 2 balls of the same side is made free and the free arrow touches
colour the side.
10 10
n(E) = ( C2 + C2) 81. The related words are near opposites.
 10  9  82. Birds fly, snakes crawl.
= 2  90
 2  1  83. Frame confines a picture, roof confines a
building.
n(E) 84. Atom and electron are particles, so are neutron
 P(E) =
n(S) and proton.
90 85. Rickets is a disease of bones, eczema is a
= disease of skin.
190

9
= . 86.
19
75. Given expression
1 1 1 1 87.
=    ... 
56 6 7 78 24  25

 1 1   1 1   1 1  1 1
=  –    –    –   ...   –  88.
 5 6   6 7   7 8  24 25 

1 1  4
=  – –  0.16.
 5 25  25
89.
76. Each triangle in first figure is replaced by a
parallelogram in second figure.
77. Second figure contains all the diagonal lines 90.
that can be drawn inside the first figure.
 1
Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—1/2018*

1. Who invented Fountain Pen? 9. FIFA World Cup 2018 venue?

A. Petrache Poenaru A. Russia B. Brazil
B. Walter Hunt C. South Africa D. Germany
C. J.L. Beared 10. Indian Standard Time (IST) passes through?
D. William Gas A. Bhopal B. Ranchi
2. What is the size of Cricket Stump? C. Allahabad D. Raipur
A. 26 inches B. 28 inches 11. Gulf of Mannar is situated at:
C. 23 inches D. 18 inches A. Gujarat B. Tamilnadu
3. Who minted the coin of Laxmi Type? C. J & K D. None of these
A. Firoz Shah Tughlaq 12. Main reason of Indian Monsoon:
B. Skandagupta A. Seasonal reversal of winds
C. Chandragupta-II B. Retreating monsoon
D. Mohammad Gauri C. Cyclonic depression
4. Which country hosted Asian Games maximum D. All of these
number of times? 13. From which country, India brought transport
A. Japan B. China aircraft?
C. Thailand D. Belgium A. Russia
5. Places of Buddha Enlightenment? B. Israel
A. Bodhgaya B. Vaishali C. France
C. Rajagriha D. None of these D. United Stated of America (USA)
6. What is the dance of Gujarat? 14. India’s Youngest Grandmaster:
A. Bihu B. Lavani A. Parimarjan Negi
C. Garbha D. Ghumara B. Himanshu Sharma
C. Srinath Narayanan
7. Tulsidas was contemporary of which Mughal
D. Abhijeet Gupta
Emperor?
A. Jahangir B. Akbar 15. Uber Cup is related to which game?
C. Shahjahan D. Humayun A. Tenis B. Badminton
C. Football D. Hockey
8. Asian Games 2018 will be held in which
country? 16. Term used for stamp collection:
A. Hangzhou (China) A. Numismatics B. Stamping
B. Incheon (South Korea) C. Philately D. Ticketing
C. Doha (Qatar) 17. Mahatma Gandhi entered in politics from
D. Jakarta (Indonesia) which movement?
* Based on memory. 1 1660 ( AFCAT) ’18(1)–1
 2 1660 ( AFCAT) ’18(1)–1-II

A. Dandi March A. 5 hours B. 8 hours

B. Champaran Satyagraha C. 6 hours D. 9 hours
C. Khilafat Movement 28. A sum of ` 800 becomes ` 956 in 3 years at
D. Non-cooperation Movement a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of
18. Cricket Pitch length: interest is increased by 4%, what amount will
A. 22 yards B. 18 yards the same sum become in 3 years?
C. 25 yards D. 29 yards A. ` 1052 B. ` 1042
19. ICC Headquarter is situated in: C. ` 1024 D. ` 1025
A. Singapore B. London 29. The average age of 35 students in a class is
C. Vienna D. Dubai 16 years. Out of these students the average
20. First Women wrestler to win Commonwealth age of 21 students is 14 years. The average
Medal: age of remaining students is:
A. Babita Kumari B. Kavita Devi A. 15 years B. 17 years
C. Geeta Phogat D. Shakshi Malik C. 20 years D. 19 years
21. Yerevan is the capital of: 30. The difference between the cost price and sale
A. Armenia B. Tirana price is ` 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling
C. Baku D. Minsk price is:
A. ` 1200 B. ` 1440
22. Hoober Shot is related to which sports?
C. ` 1800 D. ` 2440
A. Football B. Badminton
C. Cricket D. Golf 31. ` 800 becomes ` 956 in 3 years at a certain
rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased
23. Book “Two Years Eight Months and Twenty- by 4% what amount will ` 800 become in
Eight Nights” is written by: 3 years?
A. Maria Sharapova A. ` 1020 B. ` 1052
B. Salman Rushdie C. ` 1282 D. ` 1080
C. Deepti Naval
D. Taslima Nasreen 4 (9A 3B)
32. If A/B = , then what is the value of .
24. Indian Economy (1950-1990) is: 3 (9A 3B)
A. Conservative 3 2
A. B.
B. Mixed 5 5
C. Both Conservative & Mixed 1 4
C. D.
D. Liberal 5 5
25. Strait of Hormuz is situated in: 33. 10 years ago the average age of a family of
A. Persian Gulf B. Argolic Gulf 4 member was 24, In mean time two child
C. Gulf of Aden D. None of these born by a gap of two years, what is the age of
26. A seller increases the cost price of an article younger child if the average age family is
by 30% and fixed the marked price as ` 286. same as it was 10 years ago.
But during sale he gave 10% discount to the A. 2 years B. 4 years
purchaser. Percentage of Profit will be: C. 3 years D. 5 years
A. 15 B. 20 34. A sum was invested for 3 years at simple
C. 17 D. 10 interest at a certain rate. Had it been invested
27. A plane can cover 6000 km in 8 hours. If at 4% higher rate of interest, it would have
the speed is increased by 250 kmph, then fetched ` 600 more. The sum is:
the time taken by the plane to cover 9000 km A. ` 4000 B. ` 4950
is: C. ` 5000 D. ` 5150
 3

35. The average salary of all the workers in a 42. A’s salary is 50% more than B’s. How much
workshop is ` 8000. The average salary of per cent is B’s salary less than A’s?
seven technicians is ` 12000 and average 1 1
salary of others is ` 6000. The total number of A. 63 % B. 43 %
4 4
workers in the workshop are 1 1
A. 20 B. 21 C. 53 % D. 33 %
3 3
C. 22 D. 23
43. The average weight of 50 boys in a class is
36. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at ` 20 per kg
45 kg. When one boy leaves the class, the
with 30 kg rice of another variety costing
average reduces by 100 g. Find the weight of
` 36 per kg. If he sells the mixture at ` 30 per
the boy who left the class.
kg his profit will be
A. 50 kg B. 50.8 kg
A. –7% B. 5% C. 49 kg D. 49.9 kg
C. 8% D. 10%
44. 20 litres of a mixture contains milk and water
37. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If
in the ratio 5 : 3. If 4 litres of this mixture is
each number is increased by 6 the ratio
replaced by 4 litres of milk, the ratio of milk
becomes 4 : 5. The difference between the to water in the new mixture would be:
numbers is: A. 2 : 1 B. 7 : 3
A. 1 B. 3 C. 8 : 3 D. 4 : 3
C. 6 D. 8
45. The mean of 50 observations was 36. It was
38. A can complete a work in 12 days, whereas A found later that an observation 48 was wrongly
and B together can complete the same work in taken as 23. The corrected new mean is:
9 days. How many days will it take B to A. 35.2 B. 34.1
complete the work? C. 36.5 D. 39.1
A. 24 days B. 16 days
46. Two trains travel in opposite directions at
C. 36 days D. 18 days
36 km/h and 45 km/h respectively. A man
39. Two trains are moving in the same direction at sitting in slower train passes the faster train in
the rate of 80 km/hr and 50 km/hr. The faster 8 seconds. The length of the faster train is:
train crosses a man in the slower train in A. 80 m B. 120 m
27 seconds. What is the length of faster train? C. 160 m D. 180 m
A. 225 m B. 180 m
47. A towel was 50 cm broad and 100 cm long.
C. 200 m D. 215 m When bleached, it was found to have lost 20%
40. A starts a business with ` 3500 and after of its length and 10% of its breadth. Find the
5 months B joins with A as his partner. After percentage of decrease in area?
a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. A. 32% B. 28%
What is B’s contribution in the capital? C. 33% D. 24%
A. ` 8000 B. ` 8500 48. The sum of the number of boys and girls in a
C. ` 9000 D. ` 7500 school is 150. If the number of boys is x, then
41. A boat travels upstream from B to A and the number of girls becomes x% of the total
downstream from A to B in 3 hours. If the number of students. How many boys are there
speed of the boat in still water is 9 km/h and in the school?
the speed of the current is 3 km/h, the distance A. 51 B. 65
between A and B is: C. 60 D. 95
A. 9 km B. 10 km 49. ‘A’ scored 30% marks and failed by 15 marks.
C. 11 km D. 12 km ‘B’ scored 40% marks and obtained 35 marks
 4

more than those required to pass. What is the 2 3 4 5

57. , , , ,......
pass percentage? 5 5 5 5 25
A. 33% B. 40% 6 7
C. 34% D. 48% A. B.
25 25
50. Two pipes ‘A’ and ‘B’ can fill a tank in 20 and 6 7
30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are C. D.
25 5 25 5
used together, then how long will it take to
fill the tank? 58. 3, 15, 39, 75,......,
A. 12 min B. 15 min A. 93 B. 101
C. 25 min D. 50 min C. 99 D. 123

Directions (Qs. 51–55): Each question consists of 59. 25, 25, 27, 22, 30, 19, 34, 16,.......
A. 39 B. 35
two words which have a certain relationship to
C. 32 D. 13
each other, followed by four pairs of related words.
Select the pair which has the same relationship. Directions (Qs. 60-64): In each of the following
questions find out the alternative which will replace
51. STORY : NOVEL
the question mark.
A. Sea : Ocean
B. School : University 60. Blizzard : Freeze : : ? : ?
C. Book : Dictionary A. Insult : Humiliation
D. Poetry : Drama B. Bad : Immoral
C. Caution : Careless
52. GRAIN : SALT D. Jealousy : Respect
A. Shard : Pottery B. Shred : Wood
C. Blades : Grass D. Chips : Glass 61. Graceful : Clumsy : : ? : ?
A. Horror : Sympathy
53. WAITER : TIP B. Laugh : Cry
A. Student : Marks C. Recapitulate : Synopsis
B. Worker : Bonus D. Encumber : Burden
C. Employee : Wages
D. Clerk : Bribe 62. Zenith : Nadir : : ? : ?
A. Indigent : Poverty B. Zeal : Eagerness
54. PAIN : SEDATIVE C. Success : Peak D. Genuine : Phony
A. Comfort : Stimulant
B. Grief : Consolation 63. Pedagogy : Teaching : : ? : ?
A. Telepathy : Emotions
C. Trance : Narcotic
B. Radiology : Sound
D. Ache : Extraction
C. Mycology : Fossils
55. LIGHT : BLIND D. Entomology : Insects
A. Speech : Dumb
64. Capriciousness : Reliability : : ? : ?
B. Language : Deaf
A. Heated : Boiling
C. Tongue : Sound
B. Tenacious : Practicality
D. Voice : Vibration
C. Arbitrary : Whimsical
Directions (Qs. 56-59): In the following questions D. Unreliable : Inhuman
a series is being given. Select from the alternatives
Directions (Qs. 65-68): Each of the following
the correct term to fill in the missing term.
questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures 1,
56. 5, 7, 10, 11, 15, 15, 20,.......... 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set while figures
A. 22 B. 19 A, B, C and D constitute the Answer Set. There is
C. 20 D. 21 a definite relationship between figures (1) and (2).
 5

Establish a similar relationship between figures (3) Answer Figures

and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the
Answer set that would replace the question mark
(?) in fig. (4).
65. Problem Figures
A B C D
Directions (Qs. 69–73): There are two sets of figures
? namely the Problem figures containing five figures
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and Answer Figures A, B, C, D. Select one
(1) (2) (3) (4) figure from the Answer figures which will continue
Answer Figures the same series as given in the Problem figures.
69. Problem Figures:

A B C D 1 2 3 4 5
Answer Figures:
66. Problem Figures

? A B C D
70. Problem Figures:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer Figures

1 2 3 4 5
Answer Figures:
A B C D
67. Problem Figures

A B C D
? 71. Problem Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer Figures
1 2 3 4 5
Answer Figures:

A B C D
68. Problem Figures A B C D
72. Problem Figures:

?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 2 3 4 5
 6

Answer Figures: 79. Intrepid

A. Timid B. Dauntless
C. Resolute D. Plucky
80. Repudiate
A B C D A. Abandon B. Abjure
73. Problem Figures: C. Accept D. Discard
Directions (Qs. 81-83) : A part of the sentence is
underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part which may improve the sentence.
1 2 3 4 5 Choose the correct alternative. In case no
Answer Figures: improvement is needed choose “No Improvement.”
81. Years ago, I met a man which was President
and Chairman of the board of a company.
A. No improvement B. Who
A B C D C. Whom D. Whose
74. Find odd one out: 82. Covering thirty kilometers in thirty minutes
25, 38, 55, 61, 85, 98 are not a great distance using a brand new car
A. 25 B. 85 A. aren’t a great distance
C. 61 D. 38 B. No imprevement
C. is no distance
75. In this diagram, a total number of 100 players
D. is not a great distance
play different games.
83. Where are you coming from?
A. do you come from
B. were you from
C. No improvement
D. you are coming from
Directions (Qs. 84-86): Out of the four alternatives,
choose the one which can be substituted for the
given word/sentences and indicate it in the Answer
How many players play Football and Hockey Sheet.
but not Cricket? 84. One who can not be corrected:
A. 20 B. 25 A. Indefatigable B. indolent
C. 15 D. 5 C. ineligible D. incorrigible
Directions (Qs. 76-80): Choose the word which is 85. Put side by side:
nearly opposite in meaning to the given word: A. Propose B. Depose
76. Obstinate C. Juxtapose D. Impose
A. Firm B. Steadfast 86. Chief of commander of army:
C. Amenable D. Tenacious A. Colonel B. Lieutenant
77. Profane C. Major D. General
A. Impious B. Secular Directions (Qs. 87-91): Which word or words
C. Blasphemous D. Holy explains the meaning of the following idioms:
78. Audacious 87. To meet one’s waterloo
A. Adventurous B. Cowardly A. A sure success
C. Defiant D. Impudent B. A big struggle
 7

C. A decisive defeat or failure A. work for international understanding and

D. A great chance harmony.
88. Sitting on the fence B. invent more powerful weapons.
A. Watch carefully C. turn to religion.
B. Sitting carelessly D. ban nuclear weapons.
C. Sitting carefully 94. The phrase ‘razor’s edge of destiny’ means a/an
D. Avoid making a decision A. enigma that cuts through the pattern of life
89. Gift of gab like the edge of a razor.
A. Ability to win at gambles B. critical situation that foreordains the future.
B. Ability to speak with eloquence and fluency C. sharp line of division that marks the
C. Ability to win gossips alternative courses of action in the future.
D. Ability to gabble D. destiny with sharp edges.

90. From hand to mouth 95. According to the writer, ‘wisdom’ on the
A. Eating too much razor’s edge of destiny means
B. Biting nails A. awareness that we stand poised precariously
C. Eating without spoon on the razor’s edge of destiny.
D. Satisfying only bare needs B. determination to ban nuclear weapons.
C. responsibility to the ‘unborn generations’.
91. Carry the day D. awareness of the basic values of life.
A. Win B. Lose
C. Waste time D. Utilize time 96. The author is concerned about the threat of
Directions (Qs. 92–96): Read the following passage nuclear weapons because he feels that
carefully and answer the questions given below it. A. a nuclear war will destroy hum an
civilization.
We stand poised precariously and challengingly on B. all countries are interlinked and one cannot
the razor’s edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy escape the consequences of what happens
of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us to another country.
completely if we fail to control them wisely. And C. the world is on the brink of disaster.
wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the D. his country is threatened by a nuclear war.
basic values of life; it means a vivid realization that
we are literally living in one world where we must Directions (Qs. 97-100): Select the most appropriate
either swim together or sink together. We cannot word from the options against each number:
afford to tamper with man’s single minded loyalty About sixty per cent of the human body is water. If
to peace and international understanding. Anyone, you could ...(97)... out a human being like a ...(98)...,
who does it is a traitor not only to man’s past and you would obtain about fifty litres of water. This
present, but also to his future, because he is water which is not like ...(99)... water because of the
mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations. substance it ...(100)... is necessary to the life of the
92. From the tone and style of the passage it human being.
appears that the writer is 97. A. work B. wrench
A. a prose writer with a fascination for images C. press D. squeeze
and metaphors. 98. A. mango B. lemon
B. a humanist with a clear foresight. C. fruit D. banana
C. a traitor who wishes to mortgage the
destiny of future generations. 99. A. usual B. ordinary
D. unaware of the global power situation. C. common D. normal
93. The best way to escape complete annihilation 100. A. dissolves B. carries
in an atomic war is to C. contains D. includes
 8

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B D C A C B D A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A D A B C B A D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C B A A C D A D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A C C B B C C A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D D D B C D B C A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D B B A B C D A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B D D B C B A D A A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C D D C C C D B A C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B D A D C D C D B D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B A B D A D B B C

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
26. Let, C.P. of the article = ` 100 6000
Marked price = ` 130 27. Speed of the plane = km/hr
8
When M.P. ` 130, then C.P. = ` 100 = 750 km/hr
When M.P. ` 286, then C.P. Now, Speed = 750 + 250
100 = 1000 km/hr
= 286
130 Distance
= ` 220 Time taken =
Speed
10 9000
Discount = 286 = ` 28.60
100 = = 9 hrs.
1000
S.P. = 286 – 28.60
28. S.I = A – P = 956 – 800 = ` 156
= ` 257.40
Profit = 257.40 – 220 SI 100
Rate of interest =
= ` 37.40 p t
37.40 156 100
Profit % = 100 = 17%. =
220 800 3
 9 1660 ( AFCAT) ’18(1)–2

13 A B
= % = 6.5% 9 3
2 9A 3B B B
=
9A 3B A A
Now, rate of interest 9 3
B B
13
= % 4% 4
2 9 3
3 12 3
21 =
= % 4 12 3
2 9 3
3
800 21 3 9 3
S.I. = = 252 = .
2 100 15 5
Amount = P + SI = 800 + 252
33. Total age of 4 members, 10 years ago
= ` 1052. = 24 × 4 = 96 years
29. Total age of 35 students = 35 × 16 = 560 years Total age of 4 members now
Total age of 21 students = 21 × 14 = 294 years = (96 + 10 × 4) = 136 years
Total age of 14 students = 560 – 294 = 266 years Total age of 6 members now
266 = (24 × 6) = 144 years
Average of 14 students = = 19 years.
14 Sum of the ages of 2 children
30. SP – CP = ` 240 = 144 – 136 = 8 years
Profit = ` 240 Let, the age of the younger child = x years
SP = CP + 240 Then, the age of the elder child = (x + 2) years
Profit x+x+2= 8
Profit % = 100 2x = 6 x=3
CP
Hence, the age of younger child = 3 years.
240
20 = 100 34. Let, the sum be ` x and original rate be R%
CP
240 100 x (R 4) 3 x R 3
CP = = `1200 Then, = 600
20 100 100
SP = 1200 + 240 = `1440. 3 Rx + 12x – 3 Rx = 600 × 100
12x = 600 × 100
SI 100 156 100
31. r= = 600 100
P t 800 3 x=
13 12
= %
2 = 5000
13 21 Sum = ` 5000.
New rate = 4 = %
2 2 35. Let total no. of workers = x
800 3 21 Total salary of x workers = ` 8000x
SI = = ` 252 Total salary of 7 workers = 7 × 12000 = ` 84000
2 100
Amount = P + SI = 800 + 252 = ` 1052. Total salary of remaining (x – 7) × 6000
According to the question.
A 4
32.  = 8000x = 6000x – 42000 + 84000
B 3 2000x = 42000
A 4 x = 21
=
B 3 Hence, total number of workers = 21.
 10

36. Total CP = (20 × 26 + 30 × 36) 41. Let the distance between A and B = x km.
= `520 + `1080 = `1600 According to the question,
Total SP = 30 × 56 = `1680 x x
= 3
Profit = 1680 – 1600 = `80 9 3 9 3
x x
Profit 80 = 3
Profit % = 100 = 100 = 5%. 12 6
CP 1600
x 2x
3x 6 4 = 3
37. 12
4x 6 5 3x = 36 x = 12.
16x + 24 = 15x + 30
x=6 Hence, the required distance = 12 km.
3x = 3 × 6 = 18 42. B’s salary is less than A’s by
4x = 4 × 6 = 24
50 50
Numbers are 18 and 24 100 = 100
Difference = 24 – 18 = 6. 100 50 150
38. A can do a work in 12 days 100 1
= = 33 % .
1 3 3
A’s 1 day work =
12 43. Total weight of 50 boys = 50 × 45 = 2250 kg
(A + B) can do the same work in 9 days Total weight of 49 boys = 49 × 44.9
1 = 2200.1 kg
(A + B)’s 1 day work =
9
The weight of the boy who left the class
1 1 4 3 1 = (2250 – 2200.1) kg
B’s 1 day work = = =
9 12 36 36 = 49.9 kg.
Hence, B can complete the work in 36 days.
44. Amount of milk in 20 l mixture
39. Relative speed of the trains
5
= 80 – 50 = 30 km/hr = 20 12.5 l
8
5 25
= 30 = m/s Amount of water in 20 l mixture
18 3
Distance = speed × time 3
= 20 7.5 l
25 8
= 27 = 225 m.
3 Now, After replacement 4 l mixture,
Hence, the length of the faster train = 225 m. 5
40. Let B’s contribution be x2 for (12 – 5) months Amount of milk in 4 l mixture = 4 2.5 l
8
= 7 months.
Then, t1 x 1 : t2 x 2 = 2 : 3 3
Amount of water in 4 l mixture = 4 1.5 l
12 × 3500 : 7 × x2 = 2 : 3 8
According to the question,
12 3500 2
= milk (12.5 2.5) 4 14
7 x2 3 7:3
water (7.5 l 1.5) 6
12 500 3 Hence, the ratio of milk to water in the new
x2 = = ` 9000.
2 mixture would be 7 : 3.
 11

45. Total value of 50 observations 165

Pass % =  100 = 33%.
= 50 × 36 = 1800 500
Increased value = 48 – 23 = 25
New total value = 1800 + 25 = 1825 1
50. Pipe A’s 1 min work =
20
1825 365
Correct new mean = = 36.5 1
50 10 Pipe B’s 1 min work =
30
46.  Two trains travelled in opposite direction 1 1
Relative velocity = (36 + 45) km/hr Pipe (A + B)’s 1 min work = 
20 30
5 45 32 5 1
= 81 × m/s =  
18 2 60 60 12
Required time = 12 minutes.
45
Length of the faster train = 8 180 m. 56. 5 7 10 11 15 15 20 19
2
+5 +5 +5
47. l = 100 cm, b = 50 cm
+4 +4 +4
Area = l × b = 100 × 50 = 5000 cm 2
20 2 1 3
New l = 100 –  100 = 80 cm 57.
100 5 5 5
10 3 1 4 4 1 5
b = 50 –  50 = 50 – 5 = 45 cm , ,
100 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 25
New Area = 80 × 45 = 3600 cm 2
5 1 6
Area decreased = 5000 – 3600 = 1400 cm 2 .
25 5 25 5
1400
% Area decreased =  100 = 28%.
5000 58. 3 15 39 75 123
48. x + x% of 150 = 150 +12 +24 +36 +48
x
x+  150 = 150 59. 25 25 27 22 30 19 34 16 39
100 +2 +3 +4 +5
–3 –3 –3
3x
x+ = 150
2 60. Blizzard and Freeze are synonymous word like
5x = 300 x = 60 that insult and humiliation are synonymous
Number of boys = 60. word.
49. Let no. of marks in the examination = x 61. Graceful and clumsy are antonymous word
According to the question, having opposite sense of meaning like that
30% of x + 15 = 40% of x – 35 laugh and cry are antonymous word.
10% of x = 50 62. Zenith and Nadir are antonymous like that
10 genuine and phony are antonymous.
 x = 50 x = 500
100 63. Pedagogy is branch of education system in
Minimum marks required to pass which we learn how to teach like that
30 entomology is branch of pathology to
=  500  15 = 150 + 15 = 165
100 insects.
 12

65. Lines connected to the dark points get reflected

in next figure only.
66. Symbol at top corner changes its orientation
diagonally opposite end, while symbol at
bottom corner shifted by 90° in anticlockwise 71. Arrangement of lines is left hand side
following change in layers of the symbol. (top arrangement and it is increasing in the pattern
to bottom and vice-versa). of 2, 3, 2, 3, 2, 3, ...
67. Empty figure is filled up by eight lines While arrangement of points is along right
sticks. hand side arrangement and it is increasing in
the pattern of 3, 2, 3, 2, 3, 2, ......
68. The orientation of two geometrical figure
72. Symbols in the 1st row changes according to
changes among itself and the area of inner
the following:
most figure darken with black.
‘ ’ ‘ ’ ‘ ’ ‘ ’ ‘ ’
69. In every next image, symbol is rotated by ’ ’ ’ ’ ’
180° and position changes in the sequence of So, required answer figure must contain first
90°, 45°, 45°. row as like ‘ ’.

70. In the given question symbols are changing 73. Symbols in the given figure changing their
their position in this pattern position according to the following

, ,

In next figure rotation is like and so on

Required answer figure pattern is

75. The number of players who play Football and

required answer pattern is Hockey but not Cricket = 15.
 1
Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—2/2017*
1. Which city is the capital of Uzbekistan? C. Indira Gandhi
A. Tashkent B. Astana D. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Dushanbe D. Ankara 10. Where is the prairie grassland located?
2. WH O (W orld Health Organisation) A. Australia B. Europe
headquarters is located in which city? C. North America D. Asia
A. Ankara (Turkey) 11. Atlas mountain is in which continent?
B. Geneva (Switzerland) A. Africa B. Asia
C. Paris (France) C. Europe D. Australia
D. New York (USA)
12. Where was the first conference of Indian
3. Mohiniyattam dance belongs to which of the National Congress was held?
following states? A. Lucknow B. Bombay
A. Gujarat B. Maharashtra C. Pune D. Calcutta
C. Kerala D. Odisha
13. From where Gandhiji started satyagraha?
4. Thomas cup is associated with which game? A. Champaran B. Kheda
A. Cricket B. Badminton C. Ahmedabad D. Bardoli
C. Football D. Tennis
14. International Date line passes through?
5. PV Sindhu won against which player in Indian A. Atlantic Ocean
Open 2017? B. Mid-Pacific Ocean
A. Carolina Marin B. Ratchanok Intanon C. Mediterranean Sea
C. Shiho Tanaka D. Koharu Yonemoto D. Indian Ocean
6. Who is appointed as Chief of Air Force? 15. Satpura Range extends towards?
A. BS Dhanoa B. Arup Raha A. Chhotanagpur Plateau
C. Bipin Rawat D. Ajit Doval B. Vindhyachal Parvat
7. Shams ud-din Iltutmish came from which C. Nilgiri
dynasty? D. Kardamom
A. Slave dynasty B. Mughal 16. Who was the Defence Minister of India during
C. Lodi D. Khilji the 1962 Indo-China war?
8. Which is the most abundant element in the A. Baldev Singh
universe? B. Kailash Nath Katju
A. Hydrogen B. Helium C. VK Krishna Menon
C. Carbon D. Oxygen D. Jagjivan Ram
9. Which of the following person is not a Bharat 17. Juan Manuel Santos won Nobel Prize in which
Ratna Awardee? field?
A. Gulzari Lal Nanda A. Literature B. Economics
B. Rajiv Gandhi C. Physics D. Peace
* Based on memory. 1 (1660) AFCAT—’17–1
 2 (1660) AFCAT—’17–1-II

18. Which state has won the Vijay Hazare Trophy 27. The value of (0.98)3 + (0.02)3 + 3(0.98)(0.02)
2016-17? – 1 is
A. Tamil Nadu B. Kerala A. 1.98 B. 1.09
C. Delhi D. West Bengal C. 1 D. 0
19. On which river, Baglihar dam is built? 28. Simplify the following:
A. Ravi B. Satluj 4 4 3 3
13 13 8 8
C. Chenab D. Narmada 7 7 7 7
20. “The old man and the sea” book is written by 4 3
13 8
which Nobel Prize winner? 7 7
A. 18 B. 22
A. Saul Bellow B. VS Naipaul
C. 20 D. 24
C. Gunter Grass D. Ernest Hemingway
29. A can complete a work in 12 days, whereas A
21. Which are the main gases present in Sun? and B together can complete the same work
A. Hydrogen and Helium in 9 days. How many days will it take B to
B. Hydrogen and Argon complete the work?
C. Argon and Helium A. 24 days B. 16 days
D. Hydrogen and Carbon Dioxide C. 36 days D. 18 days
22. Surface temperature of Sun is about? 30. 4 men or 7 women can do a work in 90 days.
A. 5000 degree celsius How many days will 8 men and 7 women
B. 5505 degree celsius together take to complete the same work?
C. 6000 degree celsius A. 10 days B. 20 days
D. 6500 degree celsius C. 25 days D. 30 days
23. Which of the radioactive material is largely 31. Two taps A and B can fill a cistern in 30 minute
associated with bone cancer? and 45 minute respectively. There is third
A. Radium-226 B. Thorium-232 exhaust tap C at the bottom of the tank. If all
C. Strontium-90 D. Iodine the taps are opened at the same time the cistern
will be full in 45 minute. In what time can
24. Acid rain contains exhaust tap C empty the cistern when full?
A. Sulphuric acid A. 30 min B. 15 min
B. Nitric acid C. 18 min D. 20 min
C. Both A and B 32. Two trains are moving in the same direction at
D. Sulphuric acid, nitric acid and hydrochlo- the rate of 80 km/hr and 50 km/hr. The faster
ric acid train crosses a man in the slower train in 27
25. Earth summit was held in: seconds. What is the length of faster train?
A. Stockholm in 1972 A. 225 m B. 180 m
B. Rio de Jeneiro in 1992 C. 200 m D. 215 m
C. Paris in 1992 33. If a man walks at a speed of 5 km/hr from his
D. New York in 1972 house to the railway station, he misses the
train by 5 minute. However, if he walks at a
26. Four bells ring together. If the bells ring at
speed of 6 km/hr, he reaches the railway station
intervals of 2, 5, 8 and 10 seconds
6 minute before the scheduled departure time
respectively, after what interval of time will
to the train. The distance between his house
they ring together again? and the railway station is equal to:
A. 40 sec. B. 20 sec. A. 5 km B. 5.5 km
C. 15 sec. D. 10 sec. C. 6 km D. 6.5 km
 3

34. A boat covers a distance from A to B down 42. Ramesh had ` 10000 with him. He lent some
stream and B to A upstream in 4 hours. If the rupees to P for 2 years at 15% per annum
speed of the stream is 2 km/hr and the speed simple interest. The remaining rupees were
of boat in still water is 4 km/hr, then the given to Q for the same time period at 18%
distance between A and B is: per annum simple interest. He found that the
A. 8 km B. 9 km interest from P was ` 360 more than that of Q.
C. 4 km D. 6 km How many rupees were given to Q?
35. 45% of a number is less than 19.8 from this A. ` 2000 B. ` 3000
number. The number is: C. ` 4000 D. ` 5000
A. 16 B. 13 43. The mean of 13 observations is 14. If the
C. 36 D. 20 mean of first 7 observations is 12 and that of
36. In a library 40% books are of English, 80% the last 7 observations is 16, then the value
of the rest books are of Hindi and remaining of the 7th observation is:
300 books are of other languages. The number A. 12 B. 13
of books in the library is: C. 14 D. 15
A. 2200 B. 1800 44. The average of runs of a batsman in 11 innings
C. 2500 D. 2800 is x , say. He scores 129 runs in 12th innings.
37. Mohan sold two calculators for ` 990 each. Now his average is increased by 9 runs. What
On one calculator he gained 10% and on the is the value of x ?
other he lost 10%, find his gain or loss in the A. 82 B. 45
transaction: C. 21 D. 48
A. 5% gain B. 5% loss
45. A starts a business with ` 3500 and after 5
C. 1% loss D. 1% gain
months B joins with A as his partner. After a
38. One third of a commodity is sold at 15% year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3.
gain, one fourth is sold at 20% gain and the What is B’s contribution in the capital?
rest is sold at 24% gain. If the total gain is A. ` 8000 B. ` 8500
` 62, then cost price is: C. ` 9000 D. ` 7500
A. ` 220 B. ` 310
46. A is older than B by 5 years. Seven years
C. ` 301 D. ` 202
hence, thrice A’s age shall be equal to four
5x 3y times that of B. The present age of A is:
39. If x : y = 9 : 11, then the value of
3x 5y A. 13 years B. 8 years
is: C. 9 years D. 7 years
A. 45 : 55 B. 18 : 22
47. The ratio of present ages of Mahesh and
C. 37 : 41 D. 39 : 41
Dinesh is 7 : 8. If 4 years ago the ratio of their
40. In a mixture of 60 litre, the ratio of ethanol ages be 5 : 6, then present age of Dinesh is:
to ether is 4 : 1. How much ether must be A. 10 years B. 12 years
added to the mixture to make this ratio 2 : 1? C. 14 years D. 16 years
A. 10 l B. 12 l
48. A vessel contains mixture of liquids A and B
C. 18 l D. 24 l
in the ratio of 3 : 2. When 20 litre of the
41. At certain rate of simple interest ` 2400 mixture is taken out and replaced by 20 litre
becomes ` 3264 in 4 years. If the rate of of liquid B, the ratio changes to 1 : 4. The
interest is increased by 1%, then the amount quantity of liquid A initially present in the
in the period will be: vessel was:
A. ` 3360 B. ` 3400 A. 18 l B. 28 l
C. ` 3280 D. ` 3600 C. 30 l D. 32 l
 4

49. Sudhir gets 3 marks for each correct answer 60. Repugnant
and loses 2 marks for each wrong answer. If A. Coercive B. Harsh
he answers 30 questions and gets 40 marks, C. Tyrannical D. Abhorrent
then number of correct answers is:
Directions (Q. Nos. 61 to 65): Choose the correctly
A. 25 B. 20
spelt word.
C. 15 D. 14
61. A. Satalite B. Setalite
50. Find odd one out:
C. Setallite D. Satellite
25, 38, 55, 61, 85, 98
A. 25 B. 85 62. A. Embarasment B. Emberasment
C. 61 D. 38 C. Embarrassment D. Embarrasment

Directions (Q. Nos. 51 to 55): Choose the word 63. A. Equanemity B. Equanimity
which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given C. Equanimety D. Equenimity
word: 64. A. Lackadaisical B. Leckadaisical
51. Obstinate C. Lackdaisical D. Lackadiasical
A. Firm B. Steadfast 65. A. Oubiquitous B. Obiquitous
C. Amenable D. Tenacious C. Ubiquitois D. Ubiquitous
52. Profane Directions (Q. Nos. 66 to 70): Which word or words
A. Impious B. Secular explains the meaning of the following idioms:
C. Blasphemous D. Holy
66. To meet one’s waterloo
53. Audacious A. A sure success
A. Adventurous B. Cowardly B. A big struggle
C. Defiant D. Impudent C. A decisive defeat or failure
54. Intrepid D. A great chance
A. Timid B. Dauntless
67. Sitting on the fence
C. Resolute D. Plucky
A. Watch carefully
55. Repudiate B. Sitting carelessly
A. Abandon B. Abjure C. Sitting carefully
C. Accept D. Discard D. Avoid making a decision
Directions (Q. Nos. 56 to 60): Choose the word 68. Gift of gab
which is nearest in meaning to the given word: A. Ability to win at gambles
56. Haggle B. Ability to speak with eloquence and
A. Despise B. Scorn fluency
C. Manifest D. Dispute C. Ability to win gossips
57. Unsociable D. Ability to gabble
A. Solitary B. Gracious 69. From hand to mouth
C. Elegant D. Urbane A. Eating too much
58. Deceitful B. Biting nails
A. Sublime B. Inert C. Eating without spoon
C. Crafty D. Torpid D. Satisfying only bare needs
59. Morose 70. Carry the day
A. Blithe B. Glum A. Win B. Lose
C. Gay D. Genial C. Waste time D. Utilize time
 5

Directions (Q. Nos. 71 to 75): Read the following 74. The need for a world government is all the
passage carefully and answer the questions given more urgent in modern times because
below it. A. all nations are sick and tired of wars
Men have never succeeded in keeping free from war B. scientific development has made national
in the past. Nor are they likely to do so in the future boundaries redundant
as they are organised in separate nation states, each C. nation states are equipped with deadly
able to plunge the world into war whenever the weapons to destroy one another
governor or the dictator, who happens to control D. civilisation has advanced so much that
the government, believes, however, wrongly, that internationalism has replaced the concept
he can obtain an advantage for himself and his of nationalism
country by so doing. Only some form of world 75. In order to have a world without war the
government which control all the world’s armed writer wants to
forces and against which no single nation or group A. eliminate clash of interest between nation
of nations could wage war since they would not states
have the wherewithal to do so, can finally save the B. rule out the possibility of a country being
world from war. ruled by a dictator
Secondly, science, by accelerating man’s speed of C. strengthen democracy
movement, has made the world into a single whole. D. deprive the nation states of direct control
Hence, any war, which broke out anywhere, will over their defence services
destroy the whole of civilisation and not merely Directions (Q. Nos. 76 to 80): In each of the
some part of it. That is why the new powers, following questions, four words have been given,
conferred upon man by science, increasingly demand out of which three are alike in some manner and
a world government if they are not to result in the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
man’s destruction.
71. According to the passage, one of the main 76. A. Asia B. Canada
achievements of science is C. Europe D. Africa
A. the invention of fast-moving vehicles 77. A. Sun B. Moon
B. the exploitation of natural resources of the C. Mars D. Universe
world
78. A. Ocean B. Water fall
C. integration of mankind into a single unit
C. Pond D. River
D. international control over nation states
72. According to the writer, wars occur because 79. A. Metre B. Swiss
A. some governments are run by thoughtless C. Litre D. Yard
dictators 80. A. Violine B. Sitar
B. large nations want to dominate small C. Flute D. Piano
nations Directions (Q. Nos. 81 to 85): Each of these
C. armed forces provoke them
questions given below contains three elements.
D. the interest of different nation states clash
These elements may or may not have some
very often
interlinkage. Each group of elements may fit into
73. The writer pleads strongly for the elimination one of these diagrams at (A), (B), (C) and (D). You
of war because it would have to indicate the group of elements which
A. destroy precious resources that can be used correctly fits into the diagrams.
for social development
81. Which of the following diagram correctly
B. lead to death and injuries on a large-scale
C. benefit the ruler or the dictator represents the relationship amongest
D. destroy the whole civilisation Tiger, Elephant, Animal ?
 6

A. B.
C. D.
C. D.
Directions (Q. Nos. 86 to 90): Each of the following
82. Which of the following diagram represents
one/two statements are followed by two conclusions.
the relationship among Citizens, Educated
Assuming that the given statements are true, you
and People?
have to decide which conclusion follows strictly
from the given statements. Select your answer from
A. B. the alternatives.
86. Statement: The increasing population of our
nation will lead to depletion of many essential
C. D.
resources.
Conclusions:
83. Which figure best represents the relation I. Population of our nation can be
among Man, Vegetables and Cow? controlled.
II. The nation will not be able to provide a
decent living to its citizens.
A. B. A. Neither I nor II follows
B. Only conclusion I follows
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Either I or II follows
C. D.
87. Statements:
I. Some books are mobile.
84. Which diagram best represents the relationship II. Some calculators are mobiles.
among classes given below?
Conclusions:
Government servants, Lecturers, Doctors I. Some mobiles are calculators.
II. Some mobiles are books.
A. Only conclusion I follows
A. B. B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
88. Statements:
C. D. I. No flower is a pot.
II. No pot is a garden.
Conclusions:
85. Which of the following figure represents the I. No flower is a garden.
relationship among Brinjal, Meat, Vegetables? II. All gardens are pots.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
A. B. C. Both conclusions I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
 7

89. Statements: Directions (Q. Nos. 93 to 95): In each of the

I. Some phones are watches. following questions, select the related word from
II. All watches are guns. the given alternatives.
Conclusions: 93. Hen : Egg : : Tree : ?
I. All guns are watches. A. Bark B. Seed
II. Some guns are phones. C. Leaves D. Fruit
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows 94. Window : Pane : : Book : ?
C. Either I or II follows A. Novel B. Glass
D. Neither I nor II follows C. Cover D. Page
90. Statements: 95. Nail Cutter : Nail : : Guillotine : ?
I. All furnitures are pens. A. Blade B. Head
II. All pens are pencils. C. Razor D. Knife
Conclusions: Directions (Q. Nos. 96 to 99): In each of the
I. Some furnitures are pencils. following questions, a series is given, with one
II. All pencils are furnitures. number missing. Choose the correct alternative from
A. Only I follows
the given ones that will complete the series.
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow 96. 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?
D. Neither I nor II follows A. 52 B. 56
91. Which answer figure will complete the C. 128 D. 48
question figure? 97. 9, 17, 31, 57, ?, 205
Question Figure: A. 102 B. 104
C. 107 D. 109
98. 2, 7, 17, 32, 52, 77, ?
A. 107 B. 91
Answer Figures: C. 101 D. 92
99. 30, 24, 19, 15, 12, ?
A. 6 B. 8
C. 10 D. 11
A. B. C. D. 100. In this diagram, a total number of 100 players
92. Which answer figure will complete the pattern play different games.
in the question figure?
Question Figure:

Answer Figures:
How many players play Football and Hockey
but not Cricket?
A. 20 B. 25
A. B. C. D. C. 15 D. 5
 8

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B C B A A A A A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A B B C D A C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B C C B A D B C D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A A B D C C C B D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C C C C A D A B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C D B A C D A C B D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D C B A D C D B D A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C A D C D B D C C C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C D A D C C C D B A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B B D B B C A C C

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
26. LCM of 2, 5, 8 and 10 4 3
2 2, 5, 8, 10 = (13 8) = 21 + 1 = 22.
7 7
5 1, 5, 4, 5
29. A can do a work in 12 days
1, 1, 4, 1 1
LCM = 2 × 5 × 4 = 40 A’s 1 day work =
12
Hence, the bells will ring together after 40 (A + B) can do the same work in 9 days
seconds. 1
27. (0.98)3 + (0.02)3 + 3 × 0.98 × 0.02 – 1 (A + B)’s 1 day work =
9
= (0.98)3 + (0.02)3 + 3 × 0.98 × 0.02 1 1 4 3 1
B’s 1 day work = = =
(0.98 + 0.02) – 1 9 12 36 36
= (0.98 + 0.02)3 – 1 = (1)3 – 1 = 1 – 1 = 0. Hence, B can complete the work in 36 days.
2 2 30. 4 men = 7 women
4 4 3 3 4 3
13 13 8 8 13 8 7
7 7 7 7 = 7 7 1 man = women
28.
4 3 4 3 4
13 8 13 8
7 7 7 7 7
8 men = 8 = 14 women
4 3 4 3 4
13 8 13 8
7 7 7 7 4 3 8 men + 7 women = 14 + 7 = 21 women.
= = 13 8
4 3 7 7  7 women can do a work in 90 days
13 8 1 woman can do the same work in 90 × 7 days
7 7
 9 (1660) AFCAT—’17–2

21 women can do the same work in x 3x

=4
90 7 6
= 30 days. 4x
21 =4
31. Taps (A + B)’s 1 min. work 6
x =6
1 1 5 1
= Hence, the distance between A and B = 6 km.
30 45 90 18
1 35. Let the number = x
Taps (A + B + C)’s 1 min. work = 45% of x = x – 19.8
45
Exhaust tap C’s 1 min. work 45
x = x – 19.8
1 1 2 5 3 1 100
= = = 45
45 18 90 90 30 x x = 19.8
1 100
Thus, tap C can empty th of tank in 1 min. 55 x 198
30 =
tan C can empty the full tank in 30 minute. 100 10
32. Relative speed of the trains 10 198
x = = 36
55
= 80 – 50 = 30 km/hr
Hence, the number = 36.
5 25
= 30 = m/s 36. Let the number of books = x
18 3
Then, books of other language = 300
Distance = speed × time
40 60 80
25 300 = x x x
= 27 = 225 m. 100 100 100
3
Hence, the length of the faster train = 225 m. 2x 12 x
300 = x
5 25
33. Let the distance between house to station
= x km. 10 x 12 x
300 = x
According to the question, 25
x x 5 6 11 22 x 3x
= = 300 = x =
5 6 60 60 60 25 25
6 x 5x 11 300 25
= x = = 2500.
30 60 3
2 2
x 11 Common loss and gain 10
= 37. Loss % = =
30 60 10 10
2x = 11 =1
11 Hence, loss = 1%.
x = = 5.5 km.
2 38. Let the cost price be ` x. Then
Hence, the distance between house to station
x 15 x 20 1 1 24
= 5.5 km. x 1 = 62
34. Let the distance between A and B = x km 3 100 4 100 3 4 100
x x x x 7 24
=4 x 1 = 62
4 2 4 2 20 20 12 100
x x 2x 5 24 x
=4 = 62
6 2 20 12 100
 10

x x 300000 – 30x – 36x = 36000

= 62
10 10 66x = 300000 – 36000
2x 264000 24000
= 62 x= = = 4000
10 66 6
x = 5 × 62 = 310. Hence, ` 4000 were given to Q.
x 9
39.  = 43. Sum of 13 observations = 13 × 14 = 182
y 11 Sum of first 7 observations = 7 × 12 = 84
x 3y 9 Sum of last 7 observations = 7 × 16 = 112
5 5 3
5x 3y y y 11 7th observations
= = = (84 + 112) – 182 = 196 – 182 = 14.
3x 5y x y 9
3 5 3 5 11x 129
y y 11 44. ( x 9)
45 33 12
11 78 39 11x 129 = 12 x 108
= = =
27 55 82 11 x = 129 – 108
11 = 21
5x 3y Hence, the value of x = 21.
Hence, the value of = 39 : 41.
3x 5y 45. Let B’s contribution be x2 for (12 – 5) months
40. Quantity of ethanol in the mixture = 7 months.
4 Then, t1 x 1 : t2 x 2 = 2 : 3
= 60 48l
5 12 × 3500 : 7 × x2 = 2 : 3
Quantity of ether in the mixture 12 3500 2
=
1 7 x2 3
= 60 = 12 l
5 12 500 3
x2 = = ` 9000.
Let x litre of ether be added to mixture to get 2
the desired ratio. 46. Let A’s age = x years
Then, The age of B = (x – 5) years
48 2 After 7 years,
= Age of A = x + 7
12 x 1
Age of B = x – 5 + 7
2x + 24 = 48
2x = 24 = (x + 2)
x = 12 3(x + 7) = 4(x + 2)
Hence, 12 litre of ether is to be added. 3x + 21 = 4x + 8
x = 13
41. SI = A – P = 3264 – 2400 = ` 864
Hence, the present age of A = 13 years.
SI 100 864 100
r= = = 9% 47. Let present ages of Mahesh and Dinesh be 7x
P t 2400 4
and 8x.
Now, r = 9 + 1 = 10%
Four years ago,
P r t 2400 10 4
SI = = = ` 960 Mahesh’s age = 7x – 4
100 100 Dinesh’s age = 8x – 4
A = P + SI = 2400 + 960 = ` 3360.
7x 4 5
=
42. (10, 000 x ) 15 2 x 18 2
360 8x 4 6
100 100 42x – 24 = 40x – 20
 11

2x = 4 79. Except litre, all others are units of measurements

x =2 of length and area. Litre is unit of measurement
Hence, Dinesh’s present age = 8 × 2 = 16 years. of volume.
48. The percentage of liquid B initially 80. Flute is played by blowing across a hole at one
2 end and covering other holes with the fingers.
= 100 40 Violin and Sitar are string musical instruments.
5
The percentage of liquid B finally Piano is a large musical instrument played by
4 pressing the black or white keys of a key board.
= 100 80 81. Tiger is different from Elephant. But both come
5
40% under the class animal.
100%

80%

20 40 82. All citizens and all educated are people. Some

20 1 citizens may be educated and vice-versa.
Ratio = =
40 2
1 Liquid B left in the vessel
=
2 Liquid B being mixed
1 x
=
2 20
x = 10
This means, the total quantity of liquid initially
present in the vessel = 10 + 20 = 30 litre 83. Man is different from vegetables and cow.
3
Quantity of liquid A = 30 18 litre.
5
49. Correct Answers Wrong Answers
30 × 3 = 90 30 × (– 2) = – 60
84. Some lecturers may be doctors and vice-versa.
Some Government servants may be lecturers
40 and vice-versa.
Some Government servants who are lecturers
may be doctors.
40 – (–60) = 100 90 – 40 = 50
Some doctors who are lecturers may be
Government servants.
100
Ratio = = 2 : 1.
50
30
Correct answers = 2 20 .
3
76. Except Canada, all others are continents.
Canada is a country situated in northern half
of North America.
77. All except Universe form a part of the universe.
78. Except pond, in all others water is not static.
 12

85. Brinjal is a vegetable but meat is different

from the both.
91.

92.

86. Conclusion I is quite contrary to the fact given 93. Hen lays egg and egg develops into its
in the statement. If population can be offspring.
controlled then the term ‘The increasing Similarly, tree produces seeds which germinate
population’ has not been used. Conclusion II into sapling.
mentions the direct implications of the facts
94. Pane is smaller compartment or side of a
mentioned in the statement. So, conclusion II
window.
follows.
Similarly, pages are components of a book.
87. Both the premises are particular Affirmative
95. Nail cutter is used to clip nails. Guillotine is
(I-type).
used to carry out executions by head.
No conclusion follows from the two particular
premises. 14 28 20 40 32 64 56
96.
Conclusion I is the converse of the second +6 + 12 + 24
premise.
×2 ×2
Conclusion II is the converse of the first premise.
88. Both the premises are universal Negative (E- Hence, 56 will come at the place of question
type). No conclusion follows from the two mark.
negative premises. 9 17 31 57 107 205
97.
89. First premise is particular Affirmative (I-type)
×2–1 ×2–3 ×2–5 ×2–7 ×2–9
Second premise is Universal Affirmative
(A-type) Hence, 107 will come at the place of question
Some phones are watches mark.
2 7 17 32 52 77 107
All watches are guns. 98.
I+A Type of conclusion “Some phones are +5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 30

guns”.
+5 +5 +5 +5 +5

90. Hence, 107 will come at the place of question

mark.
99. 30 24 19 15 12 10
Furnitures

ns ils
–6 –5 –4 –3 –2
Pe c
P en Hence, 10 will come at the place of question mark.
100. The number of players who play Football and
Only I follows. Hockey but not Cricket = 15.
 Previous Paper (Solved)
Air Force Common Admission Test
(AFCAT)—1/2017*
1. Which religion was founded by Akbar? B. William Jones
A. Mahjan B. Din-i-Ilahi C. Lord Mountbatten
C. Aiwan-i-Khalsa D. Din Panah D. Curzon
2. Who was army chief in October 2016? 10. What was the score of Dipa Karmakar in the
A. Dalbir Singh Suhag final round in Rio Olympic?
B. Bipin Rawat A. 52.698 point B. 42.538 point
C. J.J. Singh C. 68.285 point D. 48.358 point
D. Ramnath Goel 11. Salal Project is located on which river?
3. Who was navy chief in October 2016? A. Sutlej B. Chenab
A. Ashok Malhotra B. Vipin Tyagi C. Ravi D. Jhelum
C. Sunil Lanba D. Dalbir Sirohi 12. Name the port made by India in Iran.
4. Yarlung Zangbo river in India is known as ...... A. Chabahar Port B. Tehran Port
A. Ganga B. Gomati C. Aaska Port D. Hallar Port
C. Narmada D. Brahamputra 13. Name the port made by China in Pakistan.
5. Which is the highest tower of the world? A. Lahore Port B. Islamabad Port
A. Sky tree B. Big Ben Tower C. Karachi Port D. Gwadar Port
C. Burj Khalifa D. None of these 14. Who was given out first time by a third umpire
6. Who became prime minister after death of in Test?
Rajiv Gandhi? A. Rahul Dravid B. James Simth
A. V.P. Singh C. Sachin Tendulkar D. Bravo
B. Chandra Shekhar 15. Which is classical dance of Kerala?
C. P.V. Narsimha Rao A. Kathakali B. Bihu
D. H.D. Deve Gauda C. Bhangra D. Yakshagana
7. Who defeated P.V. Sindhu in final in Rio 16. Which state produce more banana?
Olympic? A. Kerala B. Tamil Nadu
A. Carolina Marin C. Maharashtra D. Karnataka
B. Pornpawee Chochuwong 17. Who was the first tirthankar of Jainism?
C. Saina Nehwal A. Rishabhanath B. Parshvanath
D. Gregoria Mariska C. Mahavir D. None of these
8. In which city Asian Games 2014 was held? 18. Who was the 23rd tirthankar of Jainism?
A. New Delhi B. Beijing A. Mahavir B. Pashupatinath
C. Incheon D. Shanghai C. Rishabhanath D. Parshvanath
9. Who was the first governor general of India 19. Who wrote Padmavat?
after independence? A. Surdas
A. Rajagopalachari B. Premchand

* Based on Memory 1 AFCAT (PP) ‘1/17–1

 2 AFCAT (PP) ‘1/17–1-II

C. Malik Muhammad Jayasi 28. A train 110 m long running at the spped of
D. Mullah Daud 60 km/hr, how long it will take to cross a man
20. Who was the first governor general of India? running in the opposite direction at the speed
A. Curzon B. William Bentick if 10 km/hr.
C. Lord Mountbatten D. Rajagopalachari 23 21
A. 3 B. 4
21. Mount Stromboli, which is one of the active 35 35
volcanoes in the world, is in which country? 23 19
C. 5 D. 6
A. Argentina B. China 35 35
C. Italy D. Mexico 29. If a sum doubles in 4 year, how long it will
22. Which is the oldest refinery in India? take to become 4 times of sum on compound
A. Mathura B. Digboi interest.
C. Hassan D. Vijaynagar A. 8 years B. 6 years
C. 10 years D. 12 years
23. Which among the following is a noble gas?
A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen 30. 240 chocolates were brought at 9 per dozen,
C. Hydrogen D. Helium and was sold at 1 re each, find the % loss or
gain?
24. The character of Aladdin belongs to which
1 1
book? A. 66 % B. 33 %
A. The Arabian Nights 3 3
B. One thousand and One Nights 1 1
C. 22 % D. 44 %
C. Culprit 3 3
D. The Somalian Village 31. 10 years ago the average age of a family of 4
25. Which Indian sports person has been appointed member was 24, In mean time two child born
as a member of the International Olympic by a gap of two yrs, what is the age of younger
Committee’s (IOC) Athletes’ Commission? child if the average age family is same as it
was 10 years ago.
A. Devendra Jhajharia
A. 2 years B. 4 years
B. Saina Nehwal
C. 3 years D. 5 years
C. Abhinav Bindra
D. Sakshi Malik 32. A shopkeeper sold one tablet and one
smartphone of 12000, on smartphone he lost
4 25%, and gained 20% on the price of tablet.
26. If A/B = then w hat is the value of
3 What is its total loss and gain.
(9A 3B) A. Gain ` 1500 B. Loss ` 1500
. C. Gain ` 2000 D. Loos ` 2000
(9A 3B)
3 2 77 96 103
A. B. 33. If one student got , , in various
5 5 100 150 350
subjects, what is the percentage average?
1 4 A. 56.8% B. 51.5%
C. D.
5 5 C. 52.8% D. 55.4%
27. The speed of a boat in river is 8 km/hr in still 34. Biku and Mahtre fought election, Bikhu got
water, rate of river is 2 km/hr. If boat takes 55% vote and 25% vote were declared
3 hr 12 minutes to back and fro to a place invalid. Population of village is 6000. Find
then what is distance? the vote given to Mahtre.
A. 15 km B. 12 km A. ` 1600 B. ` 1200
C. 16 km D. 10 km C. ` 1300 D. ` 1500
 3

35. If 21% of a number is subtracted from 91 gives A. 1000 B. 1500

the same number, find the number. C. 1100 D. 1200
A. 50.8 B. 75.2 44. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in
C. 68.3 D. 72.5 19 days, then in how many days will 3 men
36. If 50% of a number is added to 84 gives the and 6 women do the same work?
number, what is number? A. 12 B. 15
A. 158 B. 178 C. 18 D. 21
C. 168 D. 188 45. A man took a loan from a bank at the rate of
37. XXXA is divisible by 9, what is the least 12% p.a. Simple interest. After 3 years, he had
natural number at A? to pay ` 5400 interest only for the period.
A. 2 B. 4 The principal amount borrowed by him was:
C. 6 D. 3 A. ` 2000 B. ` 10000
38. A shopkeeper sell a TV 3000 on gain of 15%, C. ` 15000 D. ` 20000
he sells a different TV at loss of 10%. Over all 46. The price of an item is decreased by 25%.
he neither gain of loss. What is cost price or What per cent increase must be done in new
SP of second TV. price to get the original price?
A. ` 3521 B. ` 3621
1 3
C. ` 3221 D. ` 3021 A. 33 % B. 43 %
3 4
39. If 445 boys and 356 has to be divided in
2 1
section of same no of students either boy or C. 55 % D. 65 %
girl alone then total no of section. 3 4
A. 6 B. 9 47. A sum was invested for 3 years at simple
C. 8 D. 5 interest at a certain rate. Had it been invested
at 4% higher rate of interest, it would have
1
40. If 22n – 1 = n 3
, then the value of n is: fetched ` 600 more. The sum is
8 A. ` 4000 B. ` 4950
A. 3 B. 2 C. ` 5000 D. ` 5150
C. 0 D. 1
48. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which
41. Raman’s salary was decreased by 50% and is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how much
subsequently increased by 50%. How much per cent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?
pre cent does he loss? A. 44.05% B. 45.05%
A. 20% B. 30% C. 46.05% D. 47.05%
C. 25% D. 15%
49. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B
1 1 1 and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it
42. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio : : in 36 days. In how many days B alone can
2 3 4
and its perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the finish the work?
longest side is: A. 48 days B. 45 days
A. 52 cm B. 48 cm 4
C. 28 days D. 144 days
C. 32 cm D. 26 cm 5
43. A, B and C enter into partnership. A invests 3 50. How many digits will be there to the right of
times as much as B invests and B invests two- the decimal point in the product of 95.75 and
third of what C invests. At the end of the year, 0.02554?
the profit earned is ` 6600. What is the share A. 5 B. 6
of B? C. 7 D. Insufficient data
 4

Directions (Qs. 51-55): Which word or words Inspired to create a mobile-tracking solution ...(60)...
explains the meaning of the following idioms: his 16-year-old son lost his cellphone, P. Sekhar,
51. To hit the nail on head chairman of Micro Technologies, began work on a
A. to hit on the head program to ...(61)... phones. The code – downloadable
B. to understand at Rs 200-300 a year on most handsets from Micro’s
C. to be precise website – allows the owner to track the exact
D. to forget location ...(62)... his phone and the number of the
52. To eat one’s word new SIM card that ...(63)... inserted. As of now, the
A. to eat everything only action a subscriber can take is to frantically
B. to retract what one has said call the service ...(64)... and block his card.
C. to eat leisurely
60. A. of B. for
D. not to eat anything
C. while D. after
53. Halcyon days 61. A. look B. guide
A. bright future C. track D. buy
B. dark future
C. past dark period 62. A. inside B. for
D. past happy and peaceful days C. in D. of
54. To keep the wolf from door 63. A. had been B. were
A. to scare away a wolf C. was D. has been
B. to survive 64. A. owner B. provider
C. to hunt a wolf C. subcriber D. giver
D. to shut the door tightly Directions (Qs. 65-67): Choose the correctly spelt
55. The tug of war word.
A. the cause of discord 65. A. Acredition B. Accredition
B. the hardest part of any undertaking C. Accreditation D. Accrediton
C. the basis of discrimination 66. A. Vicarous B. Vicerious
D. the rules and conditions of a game C. Vicourious D. Vicarious
Directions (Qs. 56 to 59): Choose the word which 67. A. Schezophrenia B. Schizaphrenia
is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word: C. Schizophrenia D. Schizophrania
56. FLAGITIOUS Directions (Qs. 68-72): Choose the word which is
A. Innocent B. Vapid nearest in meaning to the given word:
C. Ignorant D. Frivolous
68. Silence
57. LIABILITY A. cacophony B. clamour
A. Property B. Assets C. verbosity D. taciturnity
C. Debt D. Teasure
69. Idiocy
58. VIRTUOUS A. acumen B. sagacity
A. Wicked B. Corrupt C. fatuity D. sanity
C. Vicious D. Scandalous
70. Applaud
59. ENCOURAGE A. censure B. extol
A. Dampen B. Disapprove C. decry D. deprecate
C. Discourage D. Warn
71. Harbinger
Directions (Qs. 60-64): Select the most appropriate A. herald B. robust
word from the options against each number: C. agile D. gallant
 5

72. Passe Directions (Qs. 76-80): Each of these questions

A. modern B. prevalent given below contains three elements. These elements
C. obsolete D. voguish may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group
Directions (Qs. 73-75): Read the following passage of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at
carefully and answer the questions given below it: (A), (B), (C) or (D). You have to indicate the group
of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams:
How would you feel if the nation’s biggest superstar
is your fan? Well, there’s bound to be no end to 76. Which of the following diagrams correctly
your joy and that’s exactly what’s been happening represents Elephants, Wolves, Animals?
to India’s new cricket wonder boy Mahinder Singh
Dhoni when he realized Amitabh Bachchan, who A. B.
has been his childhood idol, turned out to be his
die-hard fan. The two of them met on a film’s set in
Mumbai. Dhoni was shooting in Mumbai’s Film C. D.
city for a commercial, while the big B was also
shooting in the same place. When big B learnt to 77. Which one of the following Venn diagrams
Dhoni presence, he sent in a word to the sporting correctly illustrates the relationship among the
superstar asking him if they could meet. “At first classes : Carrot, Food, Vegetable?
Dhoni couldn’t believe his luck. He thought
someone was pulling a fast one on him, but when
he realized the truth, he sent a message saying it A. B.
wouldn’t be polite for Mr. Bachchan to come and
see him— in stead, after his shoot he himself would
come and meet him. And, of course, Dhoni finished C. D.
his shoot and rushed to the nearby set to meet his
idol, “says a unit member Talk of mutual admiration 78. Select from the given diagrams, the one that
societies”. illustrates the relationship among the given
73. When Bachchan learnt Dhoni’s presence what three classes : Judge, Thief, Criminal.
did he do?
A. he continued his shooting A. B.
B. he asked for a meeting with him
C. he asked Dhoni to meet him
D. he went to meet him
74. Who are the mutual admiration societies C. D.
referred above?
A. Cricket and Film
B. Filmstar and Cricket Star 79. Choose from the four diagrams given below,
C. Commercial shoot and Film Shoot the one that illustrates the relationship among
D. Amitabh and Dhoni Languages, French, German.
75. Upon hearing Bachchan’s message what
happened? A. B.
A. Dhoni rushed to him
B. Dhoni thought someone was playing prank
C. He called him up C. D.
D. Dhoni thought it was a joke
 6

80. Which one of the following diagrams correctly Directions (Qs. 86-90): In each of the following
represents the relationship among the classes: questions, choose the alternative figure which is
Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students? embedded in the given figure (X).

A. B. 86.

X A B C D
C. D.
87.
Directions (Qs. 81-85): In each of the following
questions, four words have been given, out of which X A B C D
three are alike in some manner and the fourth one
is different. Choose out the odd one.
88.
81. A. Kiwi B. Eagle
C. Emu D. Penguin X A B C D
82. A. Lake B. Sea
C. River D. Pool 89.
83. A. Arrow B. Axe
C. Knife D. Dagger X A B C D
84. A. Sun B. Moon
C. Mars D. Universe 90.
85. A. House B. Cottage
C. School D. Palace X A B C D
Directions (Qs. 91-95): Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Answer
Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established
by the five Problem Figures:
Problem Figures Answer Figures

91.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A B C D E

92.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A B C D E

93.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A B C D E

 7

94.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A B C D E

95.

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) A B C D E

Directions (Qs. 96 to 100): In each of the following 98. Dbase : Lotus : C+
questions a group of three inter related words are A. Cyclotron B. Software Packages
given. Choose a word from the given alternatives C. Electronics D. Computer
which is similar to the given three words.
99. Everest : K 2 : Nandadevi
96. Stem : Leaf : Branch
A. Zaskar B. Blue Mountain
A. Wood B. Tree
C. Teak D. Fertiliser C. Elagiri D. Anaimudi
97. Cytology : Botany : Taxonomy 100. Coal : Night Sky : Soot
A. Biology B. Physics A. Raven B. Brink
C. Seismology D. Morphology C. Colours D. White

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C D A C A C C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B A D C A B A D C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B D B B A B C A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D A B B C D A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B D B C A C D C B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C B D B B A B C C D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C D D B C D C D C B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A C B C B A A C C A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C A D C A C A D C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C A B A C B A B D A
 8

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
A 4 n
26.  = r
B 3 Now, 4P = P 1
100
A 4 n
= r
B 3 1 = 4 = 22
100
A B
9A 3B 9 3 n 4 2
= B B r r
9A 3B A A 1 = 1
9 3 100 100
B B n 8
r r
4 1 = 1
9 3 100 100
3 12 3
= n = 8 years.
4 12 3
9 3
3 240
30. 240 chocolates = = 20 dozen
9 3 12
= .
15 5 C.P. = 20 × 9 = ` 180
27. Let, distance = x km S.P. = ` 240
Profit = 240 – 180 = 60
x x 16
= 60
8 2 8 2 5 Profit % = 100
180
x x 16 100 1
= = 33 %.
10 6 5 3 3
3x 5x 16 31. Total age of 4 members, 10 years ago
=
30 5 = 24 × 4 = 96 years
8x = 96 Total age of 4 members now
x = 12 = (96 + 10 × 4) = 136 years
Required distance = 12 km. Total age of 6 members now
28. Relative speed = 60 + 10 = 70 km/hr = (24 × 6) = 144 years
110 Sum of the ages of 2 children
Required time = = 144 – 136 = 8 years
5
70 Let, the age of the younger child = x years
18
Then, the age of the elder child = (x + 2) years
110 18 198
= x+x+2= 8
70 5 35 2x = 6 x=3
23 Hence, the age of younger child = 3 years.
= 5 seconds.
35
100
4 32. C.P. of tablet = 12000
r 120
29. Here, 2P = P 1 = ` 10000
100
4 100
r C.P. of smart phone = 12000
1 = 2 ...(i) 75
100 = ` 16000
 9 AFCAT (PP) ‘1/17–2

Total S.P. = 12000 + 12000 37. XXXA is divisible by 9

= ` 24000 1 + 1 + 1 + 6 = 9 which is divisible by 9
Total C.P. = 10000 + 16000 2 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 9 which is divisible by 9
= ` 26000 3 + 3 + 3 + 9 = 18 which is divisible by 9
Clearly, C.P. > S.P. 4 + 4 + 4 + 6 = 18 which is divisible by 9
Loss = 26000 – 24000 5 + 5 + 5 + 3 = 18 which is divisible by 9
= ` 2000. 6 + 6 + 6 + 9 = 27 which is divisible by 9
77 7 + 7 + 7 + 6 = 27 which is divisible by 9
33. 100 = 77% 8 + 8 + 8 + 3 = 27 which is divisible by 9
100
96 Hence, the least value of A = 3.
100 = 64%
150 100
38. C.P. of first TV = 3000
103 115
100 = 29.4%
350 20 60000
= 3000
77 64 29.4 23 23
Average% = Let, C.P. of other TV = ` x
3
170.4 10 9x
= = 56.8%. S.P. = x x
3 100 10
34. Required no. of vote given to Mahtre 0000
Total C.P. = x
= 20% of 6000 23
20 9x
= 6000 = 1200 Total S.P. = 3000
100 10
 S.P. = C.P.
35. Let, the number = x
According to the question, 9x 60000
3000 + = x
91 – 21% of x = x 10 23
21 9x 60000
91 – x = x x = 3000
100 10 23
21 x x 9000
x = 91 =
100 10 23
121 x = 9100 90000
x= = 3913
9100 23
x= = 75.2. C.P. of other TV = ` 3913
121
36. Let, the number be x 9 90000
or S.P. of other TV =
50% of x + 84 = x 10 23
1 81000
x 84 = x = = ` 3521.
2 23
x
x = 84 39. 356) 445 (1
2
356
2x – x = 168
89)356(4
x= 168 356
Number = 168.
 10

Total no. of section 44.  5 men = 9 women

356 445 9
= 1 man = women
89 89 5
= 4 + 5 = 9. 3 men + 6 women
1 9 27
40.  (2)2n – 1 = = 3× +6= 6
8 n 3 5 5
1 27 30 57
(2)2n – 1 = = women
(2 )3 n 3 5 5
 9 women can do a work in 19 days
1
(2)2n – 1 = 3n 9 57
2 women can do the same work
5
(2)2n – 1 = 2–(3n – 9)
19 9 5
2n – 1 = –3n + 9 = = 15 days.
5n = 10 n = 2. 57
45. S.I. = ` 5400
41. Let, original salary = ` 100
t = 3 years
New final salary = 150% of (50% of ` 100) r = 12%
150 50
= 100 = ` 75 S.I. 100
100 100 P=
r t
Decrease = 100 – 75 = ` 25
25 5400 100
Decrease % = 100 = 25%. =
100 12 3
= 300 × 50 = ` 15000
42. The sides of triangles are in the ratio
Hence, principal amount borrowed = ` 15000.
1 1 1
: : = 6:4:3
2 3 4 R
46. Increase in consumption = 100 %
According to the question, 100 R
6 25 100 1
104 = 48 = 100 % 33 % .
13 75 3 3
Length of the longest side = 48 cm. 47. Let, the sum be ` x and original rate be R%
43. Let, C’s capital = ` x x (R 4) 3 x R 3
2x Then, = 600
Then, B’s capital = ` 100 100
3 3 Rx + 12x – 3 Rx = 600 × 100
2x 12x = 600 × 100
A’s capital = 3 = ` 2x
3 600 100
Ratio of their capitals x=
12
2x = 5000
= 2x : :x
3 Sum = ` 5000.
= 6:2:3 48. Let C’s salary = ` 100
2 15
Hence, B’s share = 6600 = ` 1200. B’s salary = 100 – 100 85
11 100
 11

20
A’s salary = 85 – 85
100
= 85 – 17 = 68
C’s salary – A’s salary
= 100 – 68 = 32
77. All carrots are vegetables. All vegetables are
32 800 foods.
Required % of salary = 100
68 17
= 47.05%.

1
49. (A + B)’s 1 day’s work = ...(i)
18
1 78. All thieves are criminals. But judge is entirely
(B + C)’s 1 day’s work = ...(ii) different.
24
1
(A + C)’s 1 day’s work = ...(iii)
36
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii)
2(A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work
1 1 1 79. Both French and German are languages. But,
=
18 24 36 both of them are different from each other.
4 3 2
=
72
9 1
=
72 8
1 80. Some students can be cricket players. Some
(A + B + C)’s 1 day’s work = cricket players can be tennis fans.
16
Some students can be tennis fans. So, the given
1 1
B’s 1 day’s work = – items are partly related to each other.
16 36
9–4 5
=
144 144
144
Hence, B can do this work in days
5
81. All except Eagle are flightless birds.
4 82. All except River contain stagnant water.
= 28 days.
5
83. All except Arrow are used while holding in
50. 95.75 × 0.02554 = 2.442455 hand.
There are 6 digits after decimals. 84. All except Universe form a part of the
76. Elephants and Wolves bear no relationship to universe.
each other. But, both of them are animals. 85. All except School are dwelling places.
 12

86. positions and in the next step, the first and

the third symbols interchange positions. This
goes on alternately. The remaining symbol
moves to the vacant portion and gets replaced
by a new symbol in each step.
93. The pin moves one, two, three, ..... steps ACW
87.
in subsequent turns with its head pointing
towards the centre each time. The semi-circle
moves one, two, three, ...... steps CW along
the sides of the figures, the steps being
counted as under.
88.

94. The S-shaped figure moves along a diagonal

89. and rotates 90° ACW in each step while the
arrow moves horizontally and gets inverted in
every third step.
95. The pin gets inverted and moves one step
ACW each time. The half arrow moves one
90. step ACW and reverses direction in first turn,
moves one step ACW in the second turn,
reverse direction in the thrid turn, moves one
step ACW in the fourth turn and finally again
moves one step ACW and reverse direction.
96. All are parts of a tree.
91. The circle interchanges position with the line
97. All are branches of biology.
and the arc interchanges position with the
square in one step and the figure rotates 45º 98. All are software packages.
ACW in the next step. This goes on alternately. 99. All are mountain peaks, w hile other
92. In one step, the first and the second symbols alternatives contain names of mountain ranges.
(counting in CW direction) interchange 100. All are black in colour.
 ­
$ '
" 
,
& (
%

+
  )
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!
VERBAL ABILITY
IN ENGLISH

AFCAT (Eng)-1
 INTRODUCTION
This section helps to evaluate your practising the The best method of improving your use of English
English Language and to work with specialized with this guide is to study the formulae and sample
vocabulary. It assesses your ability to understand. A sentences. Then do the practice exercises at the end
variety of questions are designed to assess the extent of each section. Practice carefully.
of your vocabulary, to measure your ability to use
words as tools in reasoning, to test your ability to Common Errors in English
discern the relationships that exist both within
written passages and among individual groups of The most common errors in English are of spellings,
words. You are tested not only for your use of words grammar and usage of words. By regular practice,
but also for reasoning and arguing. the errors can be easily spotted and minimised.

I. COMMON ERRORS WITH NOUNS AND NOUN-PHRASES

Incorrect Correct
1. I have bought new furnitures. I have bought new furniture.
2. The wages of sin are death. The wages of sin is death.
3. She told these news to her mother. She told her mother this news.
4. He took troubles to do his work. He took trouble (or pains) over his work.
5. The cattles were grazing. The cattle were grazing.
6. He showered many abuses on me. He showered much abuse on me.
7. I spent the holidays with my family members. I spent the holidays with my family.
8. There is no place in this compartment. There is no room in this compartment.
9. Write this new poetry in your copy. Write this new poem in your note-book.
10. He took insult at this He took offence at this.
11. Put your sign here. Put your signatures here.
12. She is my cousin sister She is my cousin.
13. Sunil’s my neighbour’s house was burgled. Sunil my neighbour’s house was burgled.
14. I lost a ten-rupees note. I lost a ten-rupee note.
15. Road closed for repair Road closed for repairs.
16. His house is out of repairs. His house is out of repair
17. What is the reason of an earthquake ? What is the cause of an earthquake
18. This building is made of stones This building is made of stone.
19. I disapprove of these kinds of games. I disapprove of this kind of games.
20. Veena’s and Sheela’s father is ill. Veena and Sheela’s father is ill.
3
 4

Incorrect Correct
21. His son-in-laws are doctors His sons-in-law are doctors.
22. Alms is given to the poor. Alms are given to the poor.
23. He always keeps his words. He always keeps his word
24. I carried the luggages. I carried the luggage.
25. Two-third of the work is left. Two-thirds of the work is left.

II. COMMON ERRORS WITH PRONOUNS

Incorrect Correct
1. Both did not go Neither went.
2. We all did not go. None of us went.
3. Each of these boys play. Each of these boys plays.
4. Whoever does best he will get a prize. Whoever does best will get a prize.
5. One should not waste his time. A man should not waste his time.
6. I and she are sisters She and I are sisters.
7. He is wiser than me. He is wiser than I.
8. Between you and I, Anil is not to be trusted. Between you and me, Anil is not to be trusted.
9. Nobody was there but I. Nobody was there but me.
10. Who is there ? It is me. Who is there ? It is I.
11. Only he and me can use this card. Only he and I can use this card.
12. Let you and I go now. Let you and me go now.
13. Everyone got one’s pay Everyone got his pay.
14. Everyone is frightened when they see a tiger. Everyone is frightened when he sees a tiger.
15. These two friends are fond of one another. These two friends are fond of each other.
16. I did not like him coming at that hour. I did not like his coming at that hour.
17. Who do you think I met ? Whom do you think I met ?
18. You should avail this opportunity. You should avail yourself this opportunity.
19. When you have read these books, please When you have read the books, please return
return the same to me. them to me.
20. They that are humble need fear no fall. Those that are humble need fear no fall.

III. COMMON ERRORS WITH ADJECTIVES

Incorrect Correct
1. These all oranges are good. All these oranges are good.
2. He held the book in the both hands. He held the book in both hands.
3. Both men have not come. Neither man has come.
4. That man should do some or other work. That man should do some work or other
5. He is elder than I. He is older than I.
6. Shakespeare is greater than any other poets. Shakespeare is greater than any other poet.
 5

Incorrect Correct
7. He is a coward man. He is a cowardly man.
8. Many villagers cannot write his own name. Many villagers cannot write their own name.
9. Each of us loves our home. Each of us loves his home.
10. Much efforts bring their reward. Much effort brings its reward.
11. He found hundred rupees. He found a hundred rupees.
12. He had leave of four days. He had four days leave.
13. This is a worth seeing sight. This is a sight worth seeing.
14. He will spend his future life here. He will spend the rest of his life here.
15. There is a best teacher in that class. There is a very good teacher in that class.
16. Of the two plans this is the best. Of the two plans this is the better.
17. He is becoming strong every day. He is becoming stronger every day.
18. He is worst than I. He is worse than I.
19. Jaipur is hot than Delhi. Jaipur is hotter than Delhi.
20 In our library the number of books is less. In our library the number of books is small.
21. From the three he is more clever. He is the cleverest of the three.
22. India is the first peace-loving country in the India is the foremost peace-loving country in the
world. world.
23. Verbal instruction will not do. Oral instruction will not do.
24. Her command over French is most excellent. Her command over French is excellent.
25. He has not some money with him. He has not any money with him.
26. I have visited Bombay many a times. I have visited Bombay many a time.
27. Death is more preferable to dishonour. Death is preferable to dishonour.
28. I gave him a few books I had. I gave him the few books I had.
29. If he wants farther help send him to me. If he wants further help, send him to me.
30. She is so cunning as a fox. She is as cunning as a fox.

IV. COMMON ERRORS WITH VERBS

Incorrect Correct
1. He asked had we taken our luggage. He asked if we had taken our luggage.
2. She asked what are you doing. She asked what we were doing.
3. Rama asked to Anil why he is angry. Rama asked Anil why he was angry.
4. He does not care for his money. He does not take care of his money.
5. He does not care for his work. He takes no care over his work.
6. No one cared for him after his mother died. No one took care of him after his mother died.
7. He got angry before I said a word. He got angry before I had said a word.
8. I met a man who was my tutor 20 years ago. I met a man who had been my tutor twenty years ago.
9. I had been for walking yesterday. I went for a walk yesterday.
10 If I shall do this I shall be wrong. If I do this I shall be wrong.
 6

Incorrect Correct
11. I have left trekking. I have given up trekking.
12. I came to know as to how he did this. I learnt how he did this.
13. I came to know why he was sad. I found out why he was sad.
14. He knows to swim. He knows how to swim.
15. The criminal’s head was cut. The criminal’s head was cut off.
16. I said to him to go. I told him to go.
17. I told the teacher to excuse me. I asked the teacher to excuse me.
18. He is troubling me. He is giving me trouble.
19. I have got a hurt on my leg. I have hurt my leg.
20. She gave a speech. She made a speech.
21. He has given his examination. He has sat for his examination.
22. He took out his shoes. He took off his shoes.
23. I have ordered for a new car. I have ordered a new car.
24. He would not hear me. He would not listen to me.
25. I struck a blow on his face. I struck him in the face.
26. He denied to come. He refused to come.
27. He lived there for a day. He stayed there for a day.
28. The book is not found. The book is lost.
29. Shut the light. Turn off the light.
30. I must revenge my brother. I must avenge my brother.

V. COMMON ERRORS IN SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT

Incorrect Correct
1. The owners of this factory is very rich. The owners of this factory are very rich.
2. The pleasures of nature that one can The pleasures of nature that one can experience
experience at Shimla is beyond description. at Shimla are beyond description.
3. There is no street lights in our colony. There are no street lights in our colony.
4. He and I am entrusted with the job. He and I are entrusted with the job.
5. Rice and curry are his favourite dish. Rice and curry is his favourite dish.
6. The honour and glory of our country are at The honour and glory of our country is at stake.
stake.
7. Time and tide waits for none. Time and tide wait for none.
8. All the passengers with the driver was killed. All the passengers, with the driver, were killed.
9. The teacher, with her students, were going The teacher, with her students, was going out.
out.
10. I as well as they am tired. I as well as they are tired.
11. Not only the soldiers but their captain also Not only the soldiers but their captain also
were captured. was captured.
 7

Incorrect Correct
12. Neither you nor I were selected. Neither you nor I was selected.
13. Either of these two applicants are fit for the Either of these two applicants is fit for the job
job but neither want to accept it. but neither wants to accept it.
14. One of these students are sure to stand first. One of these students is sure to stand first.
15. Everyone of these workers want a raise. Everyone of these workers wants a raise.
16. None of these letters has been answered so None of these letters have been answered so far.
far.
17. None of the girls were present at the party. None of the girls was present at the party.
18. Many a battle were fought on Indian soil. Many a battle was fought on Indian soil.
19. A lot of work remain to be done. A lot of work remains to be done.
20. The majority of these girls likes music. The majority of these girls like music.
21. The number of admissions are encouraging. The number of admissions is encouraging.
22. A large number of boys was present. A large number of boys were present.
23. A variety of books was on display. A variety of books were on display.
24. Variety are the spice of life. Variety is the spice of life.
25. lf my estimates are correct. I will need If my estimate is correct, I will need another hun
another hundred rupees. dred rupees.
26. Mathematics are my favourite subject. Mathematics is my favourite subject.
27. ‘Gulliver’s Travels’ are written by Swift. ‘Gulliver’s Travels’ is written by Swift.
28. Ten miles are a long distance to cover on Ten miles is a long distance to cover on foot.
foot.
29. A new pair of shoes are to be purchased. A new pair of shoes is to be purchased.
30. The Committee have issued its report. The Committee has issued its report.
31. I, who am your friend, has always been on I, who am your friend, have always been on
your side, your side.
32. I am the person who have always stood by I am the person who has al- ways stood by you.
you.
33. This is one of the best novels that has been This is one of the best novels that have been
published this year. published this year.
34. Less than half the amount have been wasted. Less than half the amount has been wasted.
35. A lot of people has turned up for the show. A lot of people have turned up for the show.
36. Much of their honour are un-deserved. Much of their honour is un-deserved.
37. More than a decade have passed More than a decade has passed
since this house was built. since this house was built.
38. Either she or he are mistaken. Either she or he is mistaken.
39. Plenty of information are available on the Plenty of information is available on the subject.
subject.
40. Plenty of pamphlets is available on the Plenty of pamphlets are available on the subject.
subject.
 8

VI. COMMON ERRORS IN USE OF WILL, SHALL,

WOULD, SHOULD, MAY, MIGHT, MUST

Incorrect Correct
1. When I shall see him I shall tell him this. When I see him, I shall tell him this.
2. If I should do wrong, he would punish me. If I did wrong, he would punish me.
3. Until he will have confessed his fault, he will Until he has confessed his fault, he will be kept in
be kept in prison, prison.
4. She will obey me. She shall obey me.
5. You would work hard. You should work hard.
6. You shall find him in the garden. You will find him in the garden.
7. He must have died of exposure, but we He might have died of exposure, but we cannot
cannot be certain. be certain.
8. You might not show disrespect to your You must not show disrespect to your elders.
elders.
9. You may take exercise in order to maintain You must take exercise in order to maintain good
good health, health.
10. He must be a crook for all we know. He may be a crook for all we know.

VII. COMMON ERRORS IN THE USE OF ADVERBS

(Very, Much, Too, Enough, Quite, Hardly, Scarcely, Before,
Ago, Since, Yet, Still, etc.)
Incorrect Correct
1. He is very much angry. He is very angry.
2. She was very good enough to help me. She was good enough to help me.
3. She runs much fast. She runs very fast.
4. She runs very faster than Seema. She runs much faster than Seema.
5. It is bitter cold today. It is bitterly cold today.
6. He is a much learned man. He is a very learned man.
7 She is thinking very hardly. She is thinking very hard.
8. To tell in brief the film was boring. In short the film was boring.
9. He told the story in details. He told the story in detail.
10. I did it anyhow. I managed to do it somehow.
11. Aeroplanes reach Europe soon. Aeroplanes reach Europe quickly.
12. Before long there were dinosaurs on the earth. Long ago, there were dinosaurs on the earth.
13. This book is too interesting. This book is very interesting.
14. He lives miserly. He lives in a miserly way.
15. Just I had gone when she came. I had just gone when she came.
 9 AFCAT (Eng)-2

Incorrect Correct
16. He sings good. He sings well.
17. He sings good than I. He sings better than I.
18. Really speaking it is cold. As a matter of fact it is cold.
19. He is enough tall to reach the ceiling. He is tall enough to reach the ceiling.
20. He went directly to his college. He went direct to his college.
21. He is presently at Delhi He is at Delhi at present.
22. Last night she returned lately. Last night she returned late.
23. He was even blamed by his friends. He was blamed even by his friends.
24. I only employed him for a week. I employed him for a week only.
25. I met him four months before. I met him four months ago.
26. Anil seldom ever goes to school. Anil seldom goes to school.
27. I will wait here until you do not go. I will wait here until you go.
28. I never remember having met her before. I do not remember having met her before.
29. She has not been here too long to have She has not been here long enough to have
many friends, many friends.
30. Hardly I have had any rest since one week. Hardly have I had any rest for a week.
31. Scarcely the water crossed the danger level, Scarcely had the water crossed the danger
the warning signals were sounded. level, when the warning signals were sounded.
32. She is neat but fairly slow. She is neat but rather slow.
33. It is a rather good film. It is a fairly good film.
34. We yet have time to catch the bus. We still have time to catch the bus.
35. She has not still spent all her money. She has not yet spent all her money.

VIII. COMMON ERRORS IN THE USE OF CONJUNCTIONS

Incorrect Correct
1. As he is fat so he runs slowly. As he is fat he runs slowly.
2. If he is fat then he will run slowly. If he is fat, he will run slowly.
3. Though he is fat still he runs fast. Though he is fat, he runs fast.
4. As I pulled the trigger at the sametime he As I pulled the trigger, he shook my arm.
shook my arm.
5. No sooner I had spoken than he left. No sooner had I spoken than he left.
6. Not only he will go, but also he will stay Not only will he go, but he will also stay
there. there.
7. Neither he comes nor he writes. Neither does he come nor does he write.
8. Scarcely he entered the room than the Scarcely had he entered the room when the
telephone rang. telephone rang.
9. Hardly she had left the house than it began Hardly had she left the house when it began
to rain. to rain.
 10

Incorrect Correct
10. He is the fastest runner and he comes last. He is the fastest runner but he comes last.
11. She is as innocent as if she looks. She is as innocent as she looks.
12. Until he does not try he must be punished. He must be punished unless he tries
13. I want to know as to why you are late. I want to know why you are late.
14. I am fond of Chinese food as for example I am fond of Chinese food, for example, sweet and
sweet and sour prawns. sour prawns.
15. He was angry therefore I ran away. He was angry so I ran away.
16. I was trying to work, at that time he was While I was trying to work, he was disturbing
disturbing me. me.
17. Supposing if he is late, what will happen? Supposing he is late (or if he is late) what will
happen?
18. He asked me that why I was late. He asked me why I was late.
19. Let us catch a taxi lest we should not get late. Let us catch a taxi lest we should get late.
20. She dresses herself like the teacher does. She dresses herself as the teacher does.
21 Wait while I come. Wait until (or till) I come.
22. Until, there is corruption in India, there can be As long as there is corruption in India there can be
little progress. little progress.
23. I have never told a lie nor cheated anybody. I have never told a lie nor have I cheated anybody.
24. Both Mohan as well as Arun are responsible Both Mohan and Arun are responsible for this
for this action. action.
25. Hindus and Muslims both are to blame for Both Hindus and Muslims are to blame for the
the riots. riots.
26. I have bought paintings, books, records, and I have bought paintings, books and records etc.
etc.
27. He as well as you is a fool. He as well as you are a fool.
28. He is so poor and he cannot save anything. He is so poor that he cannot save anything.
29. Such a’ book that you want is not available. Such a book as you want is not available.
30. Such was her condition as everyone was Such was her condition that everyone was moved
moved to pity. to pity.

IX. COMMON ERRORS IN THE USE OF PREPOSITIONS

Incorrect Correct
1. I will not listen him. I will not listen to him.
2. Copy this word by word. Copy this word for word.
3. He enquired from her where she lived. He enquired of her where she lived.
4. Sign here with ink. Sign here in ink.
5. Has she come in train or by foot? Has she come by train or on foot ?
6. She said this at his face. She said this to his face.
 11

Incorrect Correct
7. Open the book on page one Open the book at page one.
8. I was invited for lunch. I was invited to lunch.
9. I am ill since three months. I have been ill for three months.
10. This paper is inferior than that. This paper is inferior to that.
11. This resembles to that. This resembles that.
12. My brother is superior than you in strength. My brother is superior to you in strength.
13. He wrote me He wrote to me.
14. I shall explain them this. I shall explain this to them.
15. Send this letter on my address. Send this letter to my address.
16. He suggested me this. He suggested this to me.
17. He goes on his work. He goes to his work.
18. He reached to Nagpur. He reached Nagpur.
19. He told to me to go. He told me to go.
20 The term begins from July 1st. The term begins on July 1st.
21. There are many advantages from this. The advantages of this are many.
22. We waste much time in trifles. We waste much time on (or over) trifles.
23. He sat on a tree. He sat in a tree.
24. This is a comfortable house to live. This is a comfortable house to live in
25. This is the road to go. This is the road to go by.
26. He married with an Indian lady. He married an Indian lady.
27. He accompanied with his friend. He accompanied his friend.
28. He went for doing some business. He went away on business.
29. He went for riding. He went for a ride.
30. I pitied on him. I pitied him.
31. When this was searched it was found. When this was searched for it was found.
32. I shall inform them this. I shall inform them of this.
33. Due to illness I cannot go to school. Owing to illness I cannot go to school.
34. He went to the back side of the house. He went behind (or to the back of) the house.
35. I must go; there is no help. I must go; there is no help for it.
36. I met with your friend there. I met your friend there.
37. The First World War was fought during The First World War was fought between
1914-1918. 1914-1918.
38. England grew prosperous between Queen England grew prosperous during Queen Victoria’s
Victoria’s reign. reign.
39. He asked a holiday. He asked for a holiday.
40. I am obliged of you for this good turn. I am obliged to you for this good turn.
41. There is no harm to try. There is no harm in trying.
 12

X. MISCELLANEOUS ERRORS
(Including Ambiguities and Indianisms)
Incorrect Correct
1. Many homes are lying vacant. Many houses are lying vacant.
2. It is cool in the shadow of the tree. It is cool in the shade of the tree.
3. She keeps good health. She enjoys good health.
4. My leg is paining. I am feeling pain in my leg.
5. See this word in the dictionary. Look up this word in the dictionary.
6. The train will arrive just now The train will arrive shortly.
7. They are pulling on well. They are getting on well.
8. The river has over flown its bank. The river has over flown its banks.
9. He was appointed on the post. He was appointed to the post.
10. Last but not the least, we have to discuss Last but not least, we have to discuss the
the problem of over population. problem of over population.
11. Cities after cities fell. City after city fell.
12. What is the use Munir going there? What is the use of Munir going there?
13. He did many mischief. He made much mischief.
14. It is exact five in my watch. It is exact five by my watch.
15. I will dine with them on next Sunday. I will dine with them Sunday next.
16. Misfortunes when faced bravely and manly Misfortunes when faced bravely and
become less troublesome. manfully become less troublesome.
17. I am laid down with fever. I am laid up with fever.
18. He is habituated to smoking. He is addicted to smoking.
19. According to my opinion he is right. In my opinion (or according to me) he is right.
20. Could you please open this knot? Could you please untie this knot?
21. When five wars old his father died. When he was five wars old his father died.
22. I made him to do this work. I made him do this work.
23. What is the cost of this camera ? What is the price of this camera?
24. He wants as many as five He wants as much as five
kilograms of sugar. kilograms of sugar.
25. I have come to a final conclusion. I have come to a conclusion (or to a final decision).
26. Do you wish me to teach you or the Do you wish me or the principal to teach you?
principal?
27. The tree was loaded with fruit. The tree was laden with fruit.
28. What sort of a man is he? What sort of man is he?
29. My views are different than you. My views are different from yours.
30. I take this opportunity to thank you. I take this opportunity of thanking you.
 SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions (Qs. 1 to 150): In this section, each 11. (A) Beware of/(B) a fair-weather friend/(C) who
sentence has three parts, indicated by (A), (B) and is neither a friend in need nor a friend indeed/
(C). Read each sentence to find out whether there (D) No error.
is an error. If you find an error in any one of the
12. (A) Copernicus proved/(B) that Earth/(C)
parts (A, B, C), indicate your response by marking
moves round the Sun./(D) No error.
the letter related to that part. If a sentence has no
error, indicate this by marking ‘(D)’ which stands 13. (A) Seldom we have been treated/(B) in such
for “No error”. Errors may belong to grammar, a rude manner/(C) by the police personnel./(D)
usage or idiom. Ignore errors of punctuation, if No error.
any. 14. (A) Some men are born great,/(B) some achieve
1. (A) We are meeting today afternoon/(B) to greatness/(C) and some had greatness thrust
discuss the matter/(C) and reach a compromise./ on them./(D) No error.
(D) No error. 15. (A) The property/(B) was divided/(C) among
2. (A) Either Ram or/(B) you is responsible/(C) the two brothers./(D) No error.
for this action./(D) No error.
16. (A) I am quite certain/(B) that the lady is not
3. (A) The student flatly denied/(B) that he had only greedy/(C) but miserly./(D) No error.
copied/(C) in the examination hall./(D) No error.
17. (A) The aircraft overloaded/(B) there was
4. (A) By the time you arrive tomorrow/(B) I have
something wrong of the battery/(C) and the
finished/(C) my work./(D) No error.
engine was making a queer noise/(D) No error.
5. (A) The speaker stressed repeatedly on/(B) the
importance of improving/(C) the condition of 18. (A) A thorough inquiry of the misappropriation
the slums./(D) No error. of funds/(B) is now imperative/(C) to bring the
guilty to book/(D) No error.
6. (A) The captain with the members of his team/
(B) are returning/(C) after a fortnight./(D) No 19. (A) The brilliant success in the examination/
error. (B) as well as his record in sports/(C) deserves
7. (A) After returning from/(B) an all-India tour/ high praise/(D) No error.
(C) I had to describe about it/(D) No error. 20. (A) While travelling by a train/(B) on a cold
8. (A) The teacher asked his students/(B) if they winter night/(C) an argument rose between two
had gone through/(C) either of the three passengers in our compartment/(D) No error.
chapters included in the prescribed text./(D) 21. (A) I cannot find/(B) where has he gone/(C)
No error. though I have tried may best/(D) No error.
9. (A) Although they are living in the country/ 22. (A) If I was/(B) the Prime Minister of India/(C)
(B) since they were married/(C) they are now I would work wonders/(D) No error.
moving to the town./(D) No error. 23. Amit’s severe bout of flu/(B) debilitated him
10. (A) Do you know/(B) how old were you/(C) so much/(C) that he was too tired to do for
when you came here?/(D) No error. work for a week./(D) No error.

13
 14

24. (A) This is the crux of the entire problem;/(B) 39. (A) There’s no evidence to show/(B) that
everything centres on/(C) it being resolved./ information technology secrets are more/(C)
(D) No error. vulnerable in India than Britain or the US./(D)
25. (A) One of the major aims of the Air Force/(B) No error.
was the complete demolition of all means of 40. (A) It is shameful that hunting/(B) is still
transportation/(C) by the bombing of rail lines considered sport/(C) by some unscrupulous
and terminals./(D) No error. people in the civilized world./(D) No error.
26. (A) His strong voice cut over/(B) the hum of 41. (A) The Prime Minister’s good looks won him/
conversation/(C) like a knife through butter./ (B)the election but he has still to prove/(C)
(D) No error. that he’s not a just pretty face./(D) No error.
27. (A) Even though they weren’t expecting us/
42. (A) The two books are the same/(B) except for
(B) they managed to knock up/(C) a
the fact that this/(C) has an answer in the back./
marvellous meal./(D) No error.
(D) No error.
28. (A) The celebrated singer was/(B) surrounded
43. (A) He estimated his income tax bill/(B) by
by the usual crowd/(C) of lackeys and hanger-
ons./(D) No error. extrapolation over figures/(C) submitted in
previous years./(D) No error.
29. (A) If it weren't/(B) for you,/(C) I wouldn't be
alive today./(D) No error. 44. (A) The modern office block/(B) sticks out
like a sore thumb/(C) among the old buildings
30. (A) He looked like a lion/(B) baulked from/
in the area./(D) No error.
(C) its prey./(D) No error.
45. (A) I will try to put over/(B) some feelers to
31. (A) Widespread flooding/(B) is effecting/(C)
large areas of the villages./(D) No error. gauge/(C) people’s reactions to our proposal./
(D) No error.
32. (A) She regards/(B) negotiating prices with
customers/(C) as her special preserve./(D) No 46. (A) A major contribution of Mathura sculptors/
error. (B)of that period were the creation and
popularization/(C) of the Buddha’s image in
33. (A) Often in political campaigns, a point is
human form./(D) No error.
reached at which/(B) the candidates take out
their gloves./(C) and start slugging with bare 47. (A) Amit has been deceiving Mona/(B) for
fists./(D) No error. many years but she/(C) has not still tumbled
34. (A) If we really set to/(B) we can get the whole to it. (C)/No error. (D)
house/(C) cleaned in an afternoon./(D) No 48. (A) Mahavira was an advocate of nonviolence
error. and vegetarianism,/(B) who revived and
35. (A) Pieces of rock plummeted/(B) down the reorganized the Jain doctrine/(C) and
mountainside/(C) in the ground below./(D) No established rules for their monastic order. (D)
error. No error.
36. (A) Since the two parties each won/(B) the 49. (A) Microwaves are the principle carriers/(B)
same number of seats,/(C) the minority party of television, telephone and data transmissions/
holds the balance of power./(D) No error. (C)between stations on earth and between the
37. (A) It’s arrogant for you/(B) to assume you’ll/ earth and satellites./(D) No error.
(C)win every time./(D) No error. 50. (A) An unit is an abstract idea,/(B) defined
38. (A) We’ve paid for our travel and either by reference to/(C) a randomly chosen
accommodation,/(B) so we need only to take/ material standard or to a natural phenomenon./
(C) some pocket-money with us./(D) No error. (D) No error.
 15

51. (A) With the crisis deepening,/(B) the critics 66. (A) The company has/(B) set off itself some
sense an opportunity/(C) about putting in stiff production/(C) goals for this year/(D) No
place a more radical strategy./(D) No error. error.
52. (A) The salesman gave us/(B) a big spiel about 67. (A) The music was so loud/(B) that we had to
why/(C) we should buy his product./(D) No bellow over each/(C) other to be heard./(D) No
error. error.
53. (A) I will need several weeks/(B) to invent the 68. (A) When this beautiful girl arrived, (A) all the
lie of the land before/(C) I can make any men in the room/(C) gravitated over her./(D)
decision about the future of the business./(D) No error.
No error.
69. (A) The children are/(B) really in their element/
54. (A) You should be cautious/(B) and make a (C) playing on the beach./(D) No error.
few discrete enquiries about/(C) the firm before
you sign anything./(D) No error. 70. (A) The refugees are/(B) badly off for blankets,/
(C) and even worse for food./(D) No error.
55. (A) Your husband doesn't/(B) believe that you
are older/(C) than I./(D) No error. 71. (A) From their vintage-point on the cliff,/(B)
the children could watch/(C) the ships coming
56. (A) There is a beautiful moon out tonight/(B)
and Neeta and I are going for a stroll/(C) — and going./(D) No error.
would you like to come along with she and 72. (A) A cogent remark/(B) compels acceptance
I?/(D) No error. because/(C) of their sense and logic./(D) No
57. (A) The data on/(B) the divorce case is/(C) on error.
the judge's desk./(D) No error. 73. (A) Credit cards have/(B) brought about a
58. (A) The stood off/(B) from the crowd/(C) revolution/(C) in people’s spending habits./
because of her height and flaming red hair./(D) (D) No error.
No error. 74. (A) In financial matters/(B) it is important to/
59. (A) It’s stupid to go/(B) to the expense of (C) get disinterested advice./(D) No error.
taking/(C) music lessons if you never practise/ 75. (A) Some women admit that/(B) their principle
(D) No error. goal in life/(C) is to marry a wealthy man./(D)
60. (A) You will find it difficult/(B) to explain of No error.
your use/(C) of such offensive language/(D)
76. (A) Take two spoonsful/(B) of this medicine/
No error.
(C) every three hours./(D) No error.
61. (A) Because of the/(B) extenuating
77. (A) The film was so disjointed/(B) that I could
circumstances/(C) the court acquitted him out
of the crime/(D) No error. not tell you/(C) what the story was about./(D)
No error.
62. (A) The carpet was badly stained/(B) to such
an extent that/(C) you couldn’t tell its original 78. (A) He had been/(B) saved of death as if/(C)
colour/(D) No error. by divine intervention./(D) No error.
63. (A) It is greatly to Amit’s credit/(B) that he 79. (A) I informed the principal/(B) that I was
gave back the money he found/(C) his honesty running temperature/(C) and, therefore, could
does for him credit/(D) No error. not attend the meeting./(D) No error.
64. (A) A terrific hue and cry/(B) was raised/(C) at 80. (A) The lady was broken with grief/(B) when
the new tax proposals/(D) No error. she heard the sad news of the train disaster/(C)
65. (A) The former General was/(B) exiled of his in which her brother was killed./(D) No error.
country because of/(C) his part in the plot 81. (A) The farmer is irrigating/(B) his fields/(C)
against the government/(D) No error. since morning./(D) No error.
 16

82. (A) I could not/(B) answer to/(C) the question./ indigenous technology/(C) will be adversely
(D) No error. affected./(D) No error.
83. (A) Two years passed/(B) since/(C) my cousin 98. (A) Supposing if you get/(B) a seat in the plane/
died./(D) No error. (C) you will not take more than two hours to
84. (A) He hesitated to accept the post/(B) as he reach Mumbai./(D) No error.
did not think/(C) that the salary would be 99. (A) Whenever a person lost anything/(B) the
enough for a man with a family of three (C)/ poor folk around/(C) are suspected./(D) No error.
No error (D) 100. (A) Still impressive is that/(B) we achieve this
85. (A) Have you gone through/(B) either of these selective attention/(C) through our latent ability
three chapters/(C) that have been included in to lip-read./(D) No error.
this volume?/(D) No error. 101. (A) The brakes and steering failed/(B) and the
86. (A) I am learning English/(B) for ten years/(C) bus ran down the hill/(C) without anyone
without much effect/(D) No error. being able to control it./(D) No error.
87. (A) Ramesh has agreed/(B) to marry with the 102. (A) The polling was marred/(B) at many a place/
girl/(C) of his parent’s choice (D) No error. (C) by attempts at rigging./(D) No error.
88. (A) The pity is that/(B) no sooner he had left 103. (A) He wanted to work all right/(B) but we saw
the place/(C) than the fire broke out/(D) No that he was completely worn/(C) and so we
error. persuaded him to stop./(D) No error.
89. (A) When he was arriving/(B) the party was/ 104. (A) When a whale is washed ashore by the
(C) in full swing/(D) No error. tide,/(B) the people flock together to see it./
(C) wondering how so huge an animal can
90. (A) The Dean wrote he constituted a committee swim about in the water./(D) No error.
of experts/(B) comprising of five members/(C)
105. (A) Few scientists changed/(B) people’s ideas
before the next meeting took place/(D) No
as much as/(C) Darwin with his Theory of
error.
Evolution./(D) No error.
91. (A) Inflation and shortages/(B) have made it
106. (A) Were he/(B) to see you,/(C) he would have
very difficult for him/(C) to make his both ends
been surprised./(D) No error.
meet./(D) No error.
107. (A) The number of marks carried by each
92. (A) The most studious boy/(B) in the class/ question/(B) are indicated/(C) at the end of
(C) was made as the captain./(D) No error. the question./(D) No error.
93. (A) I am participating/(B) in the two-miles 108. (A) An animal/(B) can be just as unhappy in
race/(C) tomorrow morning./(D) No error. a vast area/(C) or in a small one/(D) No error.
94. (A) The sum and substance/(B) of his speech/ 109. (A) It is time/(B) we did something/(C) to stop
(C) were essentially anti-establishment./(D) No road accidents./(D) No error.
error.
110. (A) A free press is not a privilege/(B) but the
95. (A) It has been such a wonderful evening/(B) I organic necessity/(C) in a free society./(D) No
look forward to meet you again/(C) after the error.
vacations./(D) No error.
111. (A) The Indian radio./(B) which was previously
96. (A) When the boy committed a mistake/(B) the controlled by the British rulers./(C) is free now
teacher made him to do/(C) the sum again./(D) from the narrow vested interests./(D) No error.
No error. 112. (A) Because of the emergency help/(B) that
97. (A) Unless the government does not revise its the patient received./(C) he would have died/
policy of liberalization/(B) the growth of the (D) No error.
 17 AFCAT (Eng)-3

113. (A) At present juncture,/(B) however, the super- 128. (A) Supposing if/(B) there is no bus,/(C) how
computer/(C) would be a costly toy./(D) No will you get there?(D) No error.
error. 129. (A) At the moment the house/(B) was burgled
114. (A) Students should not take part/(B) in party the family/(C) attended a night party in the
politics and political demonstrations/(C) as neighbourhood./(D) No error.
they interfere in serious study./(D) No error. 130. (A) On a holiday/(B) Sudha prefers reading/(C)
115. (A) Wherever they go/(B) Indians easily adapt than going out visiting friends/(D) No error.
to/(C) local circumstances./(D) No error. 131. (A) Neither he/(B) nor his father is interested/
116. (A) According to the Bible/(B) it is meek and (C) in joining the party./(D) No error.
humble/(C) who shall inherit the earth./(D) No 132. (A) A group of friends/(B) want to visit/(C) the
error. new plant as early as possible./(D) No error.
117. (A) I was there/(B) many a time/(C) in the 133. (A) May I/(B) know who you want/(C) to see
past./(D) No error. please/(D) No error.
118. (A) As much as I admire him for his sterling 134. (A) Myself and Gopal/(B) will take care of/(C)
qualities./(B) I cannot excuse him for/(C) being the function on Sunday./(D) No error.
unfair to his friends./(D) No error. 135. (A) I could not put up in a hotel/(B) because
119. (A) Were you/(B) given a choice/(C) or you the boarding and lodging charges/(C) were
had to do it?/(D) No error. exorbitant./(D) No error.
120. (A) When he was asked what is wrong with 136. (A) He is not coming tomorrow/(B) as he is
him,/(B) he said that he was not well,/(C) and having a pain in the chest/(C) and has to see
asked for leave of absence for one day./(D) No a doctor./(D) No error.
error. 137. (A) They have been/(B) very close friends/(C)
121. (A) At the end of the year/(B) every student until they quarrelled./(D) No error.
who had done adequate work/(C) was 138. (A) Since India has gained Independence/(B)
automatically promoted./(D) No error. 49 years ago,/(C) much progress has been made
122. (A) Many times the news has been published/ in almost every field./(D) No error.
(B) in the papers that the end of the world will 139. (A) The party chief made it a point to state
be certain/(C) if a nuclear war breaks out./(D) that/(B) the Prime Minister and the Union
No error. Home Minister should also come/(C) and they
123. (A) Happily, zoos were/(B) unwilling to see what his party men had seen./(D) No error.
cooperate/(C) in a scheme that was potentially 140. (A) Due to me being a newcomer/(B) I was
harmful to animal welfare./(D) No error. unable to get a house/(C) suitable for my wife
124. (A) We discussed about the problem so and me./(D) No error.
thoroughly/(B) on the eve of the examination/ 141. (A) The reason why/(B) he was rejected/(C)
(C) that I found it very easy to work it out./(D) was because he was too young./(D) No error.
No error.
142. (A) The scientist must follow/(B) his hunches
125. (A) She reluctantly said that/(B) if nobody else and his data/(C) wherever it may lead./(D) No
was doing it/(C) she will do it./(D) No error. error.
126. (A) He will end up his work/(B) in the city/(C) 143. (A) Firstly you should/(B) think over the
by the end of the year./(D) No error. meaning of the words/(C) and then use them./
127. (A) Though child marriage/(B) has been (D) No error.
banned,/(C) the custom still prevailed among 144. (A) Scarcely had/(B) I arrived than/(C) the train
some groups in India./(D) No error. left./(D) No error.
 18 AFCAT (Eng)-3-II

145. (A) Unless you stop to make noise at once/(B) 148. (A) It is an established fact that the transcendental
I will have no option but to/(C) bring the matter American poets and philosophers,/(B) who
to the attention of the police./(D) No error. lived in the latter half of the nineteenth
146. (A) He couldn’t but help/(B) shedding tears at century,/(C) were more influenced by Indian
the plight of the villagers/(C) rendered philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic
homeless by a devastating cyclone./(D) No Philosophy./(D) No error.
error. 149. (A) The crew were on board/(B) and they soon
147. (A) Since it was his first election campaign, busied themselves/(C) in preparing to meet
the candidate was confused;/(B) none could the storm./(D) No error.
clearly understand/(C) either the principles he 150. (A) One of the members/(B) expressed doubt
stood for or the benefits he promised./(D) No if/(C) the Minister was an athiest./(D) No
error. error.

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B D B A B C C B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B A C C C B A D C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A C C B A A C C C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C A A A C A A B D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C C C D A B C C A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C D D D C C D A B B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A C A B B B C B D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A C D D D A B B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B A D B A B B A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C C B C B B A A A C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C D B D A A B C D B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C A A C B B A A A A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D D C A C A C A A C
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D B B A A C A A C A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
C C A B A A D C C B
 SENTENCE COMPLETION
Filling the blanks is such an exercise which starts 8. The robbers eventually .................. in breaking
with the primary schools and continues in the highest into the house.
level of competitive examinations. One must practise A. succeeded B. decided
it regularly to score well. C. caught D. trained
Directions (Qs. 1-150) : Pick out the most effective 9. I finally .................. her to stay another day.
word(s) from the given words to fill in the blanks A. advised B. persuaded
to make the sentence meaningfully complete. C. suggested D. called
1. You must ensure the correctness of the 10. Most of the people who .................. the book
exhibition were teachers.
information before ..................
A. witnessed B. presented
A. drawing B. enabling
C. conducted D. attended
C. learning D. jumping
11. One requires great .................. to teach and
2. The rocket .................. the target and did not handle little children who are restless.
cause any casualty. A. patience B. attitude
A. sensed B. reached C. determination D. knowledge
C. missed D. exploded
12. The researchers will .................. some of the
3. It is desirable to take .................. in any business causes of increasing poverty in the state.
if you want to make profit. A. fund B. investigate
A. advice B. risk C. promote D. circulate
C. loan D. recourse 13. I usually perform .................. when nobody is
4. They wasted all the money on purchase of watching me.
some .................. items. A. alone B. good
A. excellent B. important C. better D. hard
C. significant D. trivial 14. It was .................. to everyone that the minister
5. When he found the wallet his face glowed but had been drinking.
soon it faded as the wallet was .................. A. observed B. known
A. empty B. vacant C. discovered D. realised
C. recovered D. stolen 15. I would rather stay indoors .................. the rain
stops.
6. He has served the country by .................. many
A. so B. waiting
significant positions.
C. until D. usually
A. appointing B. creating
C. developing D. holding 16. The process should be completed as far as
possible within a week, ..... which the matter
7. The frequent errors are a result of the student’s should be brought to notice of the officer
.................. concerned.
A. talent B. smartness A. following B. failing
C. carelessness D. perception C. realizing D. referring
19
 20

17. The officers are ..... to regular transfers. 28. No child is .................... understanding. One has
A. free B. open to wait and provide proper guidance.
C. subject D. available A. dull to B. dull in
18. All letters received from Government should C. dull of D. dull for
..... be acknowledged. 29. I am fully ................... the problems facing the
A. suddenly B. obviously industry.
C. immediately D. occasionally A. alive with B. alive to
19. Mumbai office ..... a meeting of senior officials C. alive for D. alive on
to discuss the high incidence of frauds. 30. The Romans were ................. science.
A. attended B. convened A. bad in B. bad to
C. reported D. registered C. bad for D. bad at
20. The note should be ..... to all the concerned 31. Although I was ............ of his plans, I
departments for their consideration. encouraged him, because there was no one else
A. regulated B. requested who was willing to help.
C. carried D. forwarded A. sceptical B. remorseful
21. Your present statement does not ............... what C. fearful D. excited
you said last week. 32. You have no business to .......... pain on a weak
A. accord to B. accord in and poor person.
C. accord with D. accord for A. inflict B. put
22. I had a vague ................. that the lady originally C. direct D. force
belonged to Scotland. 33. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite
A. notion B. expression rich. She suddenly ......... all her uncle’s money.
C. imagination D. theory A. succeeded B. caught
23. The prisoner showed no ............... for his crimes. C. gave D. inherited
A. hatred B. obstinacy 34. There was a major accident. The plane crashed.
C. remorse D. anger The pilot .......... did not see the tower.
24. It is inconceivable that in many schools A. likely B. probably
children are subjected to physical .............. in C. scarcely D. hurriedly
the name of discipline. 35. The car we were travelling in ............ a mile
A. violation B. exercise from home.
C. violence D. security A. broke off B. broke down
25. We have not yet fully realised the .................. C. broke into D. broke up
consequences of the war. 36. What are you .......... in the kitchen cupboard?
A. happy B. pleasing A. looking in B. looking on
C. grim D. exciting C. looking to D. looking for
26. Happiness consists in being ............... what we 37. I did not see the point of ......... waiting for
have. them, so I went home.
A. contented to B. contented with A. hanging around B. hang on
C. contented for D. contented in C. hang together D. hanging up
27. His rude behaviour is a .................. his 38. He lost confidence and .......... of the deal at
organization. the last minute.
A. disgrace for B. disgrace on A. backed out B. backed on
C. disgrace upon D. disgrace to C. backed down D. backed onto
 21

39. To the dismay of all the students, the class to which it was heading was covered with
monitor was ..... berated by the Principal at a thick fog.
school assembly. A. imitable, slip B. faulty, stop
A. critically B. ignominiously C. variety, halt D. numerous, landing
C. prudently D. fortuitously 49. Deemed universities ............. huge fees, but
40. All attempts to revive the fishing industry have not been successful in providing ................
were ..... failure. education to our students.
A. foredoomed to B. heading at A. collect, maintaining
C. predicted for D. estimated to B. pay, better
41. There are ..... parked outside than yesterday. C. ask, good
A. fewer cars D. charge, quality
B. few cars 50. If the banks desire to ......... profit, they should
C. less cars get rid of ......... measures.
D. a small number of cars A. lose, concentrate
42. The minister had to ..... some awkward B. increase, populist
questions from reporters. C. earn, unhealthy
A. fend B. fend at D. maximise, traditional
C. fend out D. fend off
51. Leadership defines what the future should look
43. The ..... of evidence was on the side of the like and ...... people with that vision.
plaintiff since all but one of the witnesses A. aligns B. develops
testified that his story was correct. C. trains D. encourages
A. propensity B. force
C. preponderance D. brunt 52. We upset ourselves by responding in an ......
manner to someone else’s actions.
44. Attention to detail is ..... of a fine craftsman.
A. unabashed B. irrational
A. hallmark B. stamp
C. arduous D. arguable
C. seal of authority D. authenticity
53. All the people involved in that issue feel a
45. Behaving in a ………… and serious way, even
great ...... to his suggestion.
in a …………. situation, makes people respect
you. A. contradiction B. adherence
A. Calm, difficult B. steady, angry C. indifference D. repugnance
C. flamboyant, tricky D. cool astounding 54. These elections will be remembered as much
46. Along with a sharp rise in ………, a recession for its anti-incumbency mood as for its ......
would eventually result in more men, women, mandate
and children living in ………... . A. invincible B. rational
A. crime, apathy C. unprecedented D. deliberate
B. fatalities, poor 55. How do you expect us to stay in such a ......
C. deaths, slums building even if it can be hired on a nominal
D. unemployment, poverty rent?
47. The government has …………… to provide A. scruffy B. disperate
financial aid to the ones ………… by severe C. fragmented D. robust
floods in the city. 56. ...... efforts from all concerned are required to
A. desired, troubled B. promised, havoc raise the social and economic conditions of
C. failed, affected D. wanted, struck our countrymen.
48. An airplane with …………. passengers on A. Perpetual B. Dynamic
board made an unscheduled ......... as the airport C. Massive D. Exploring
 22

57. Many companies see technology as a ...... for 68. The victim tried to tell us what had happened
a whole host of business problems. but his ...... were not audible.
A. consideration B. preference A. assailants B. sounds
C. linking D. panacea C. letters D. words
58. Known as devout and serious person, she also 69. The ...... between the twins is so slight that it
has ...... sense of humour is very difficult to identify one from the other.
A. better B. plentiful A. similarity B. distance
C. quick D. good C. resemblance D. difference
59. The matter would have become serious if ...... 70. The members were ...... of the date of the
action had not been taken meeting well in advance.
A. hasty B. fast A. communicated B. conveyed
C. timely D. unusual C. ignorant D. informed
60. The ...... with which he is able to yield the 71. A ...... of ships was kept ready to scour the sea
paint brush is really remarkable. in case of an emergency.
A. ease B. practice A. group B. pack
C. majesty D. sweep C. unit D. fleet
61. The speaker did not properly use the time as 72. I had not expected to meet him; it was quite
he went on ...... on one point alone. an ...... meeting.
A. devoting B. deliberating A. organised B. intentional
C. diluting D. dilating C. undesirable D. accidental
62. They decided to ...... down their original plans 73. The window of our room ...... the rear.
for the bigger house and make it smaller. A. overlooks B. opens
A. climb B. turn C. opposes D. adjoins
C. scale D. play
74. I could ...... see the sight since it was dark.
63. Usha was badly ...... by the news which she A. clearly B. barely
got in the letter
C. obviously D. aptly
A. electrified B. petrified
C. deranged D. shaken 75. The top-ranking manager ...... his success in
the profession to his Managing Director’s
64. In spite of her other ......, she still managed to
guidance.
find time for her hobbies
A. account B. agrees
A. occupations B. preoccupations
C. attributes D. claims
C. predilections D. business
76. Does your pride keep you ...... making the
65. Success comes to those who are vigilant not
to permit ...... from the chosen path decision you know you should?
A. distraction B. deviation A. away B. alert
C. alienation D. diversion C. from D. quiet
66. It is advisable to ...... on this issue rather than 77. Their ...... to scale the mountain peak was an
create unnecessary problem by taking a rigid absolute failure.
stand A. attempt B. desire
A. lose B. promise C. anxiety D. proposal
C. evade D. compromise 78. The writer, like a spider ...... a web; the
67. After a short holiday she came back totally creatures caught in the web have no substance,
...... no reality.
A. rejuvenated B. reborn A. spins B. catches
C. refurbished D. revamped C. writes D. compiles
 23

79. In a ...... move the Chief Minister today A. issued B. borrowed

dropped two ministers from the cabinet. C. hired D. lent
A. secret B. delicate 90. I wish I ...... a king.
C. continuous D. surprise A. was B. am
80. In his address to the teachers, the Vice- C. should be D. were
Chancellor ...... certain measures being taken 91. He ...... to listen to my arguments and walked
for improving the quality of college education. away.
A. declined B. directed A. denied B. disliked
C. advised D. highlighted C. objected D. refused
81. Change the legal system are inevitable for we 92. The flow of blood was so ...... that the patient
are not working for a ...... society. died.
A. backward B. dynamic A. intense B. adequate
C. stagnant D. modern C. profuse D. extensive
82. Modern science began ...... the influence of 93. When I met her yesterday, it was the first time
Copernicus, Kepler, Galileo and Newton.
I ...... her since Christmas.
A. by B. under
A. saw B. have seen
C. from D. upon
C. had seen D. have been seing
83. A meeting of senior police officers was held
94. Can you pay ...... all these articles?
to ...... the law and order situation of the town.
A. for B. of
A. review B. curb
C. off D. out
C. cover D. support
95. He ...... the role of the organisation in creating
84. The problems that India’s economic
environmental awareness among the people.
development faces are ......
A. commanded B. commended
A. myopic B. dubious
C. enormous D. strong C. commented D. commemorated
96. I ...... you to be at the party this evening.
85. In our zeal for progress we should not ...... the
executive with more powers. A. expect B. hope
A. avoid B. arm C. look forward to D. desire
C. give D. enhance 97. The consequence of economic growth has now
86. At present, all over the world, moral standards, ...... to the lowest level.
...... to have fallen. A. flowed B. percolated
A. look B. wish C. gone D. crept
C. started D. appear 98. The employees were unhappy because their
87. He was one of the ...... spirits behind the salary was not increased ......
successful lagitation of the citizens for keeping A. marginally B. abruptly
the city clean. C. substantially D. superflously
A. revolving B. moving 99. ...... the being a handicapped person, he is very
C. evolving D. amazing co-operative and self-reliant.
88. You’ve never ...... me about your experiences A. Because B. Although
in Scotland. C. Since D. Despite
A. described B. explained 100. The child broke ...... from his mother and ran
C. told D. said towards the painting.
89. The student ...... that book from the library to A. away B. after
study at home. C. down D. with
 24

101. With his ...... income, he finds it difficult to A. inimitable B. indivisible

live a comfortable life. C. indispensable D. inequitable
A. brief B. sufficient 112. This article tries to ...... us with problems of
C. meagre D. huge poor nations so that we help them more
102. He could ...... a lot of money in such a short effectively.
time by using his intelligence and working A. enable B. convince
hard. C. allow D. acquaint
A. spend B. spoil
113. Among human beings, language is the
C. exchange D. accumulate
principal ...... of communication.
103. Though the brothers are twins, they look ...... A. methodology B. instrument
A. alike B. handsome C. accomplishment D. theory
C. indifferent D. different
114. These essays are intellectually ...... are
104. Unfavourable weather conditions can ..... represent various levels of complexity.
illness. A. persistent B. superior
A. cure B. detect C. modern D. demanding
C. treat D. enhance
115. ...... the doctor’s advice he started taking some
105. No sooner did the bell ring, ...... the actor daily exercise.
started singing.
A. In B. To
A. when B. than
C. On D. Towards
C. after D. before
116. Do you ...... giving that book to me for a few
106. If I ...... realised it, I would not have acted on
days?
his advice.
A. desires B. mind
A. was B. had
C. were D. have C. call D. observe
107. Why don’t you ...... your work in advance 117. Our volunteers will ...... your donations either
before commencing it. in cash or kind and give you a receipt.
A. start B. complete A. lend B. gave
C. finish D. plan C. return D. collect
108. Contemporary economic development differs 118. If you need some money, I will ...... the amount
...... from the Industrial Revolution of the 19th from my bank and give you.
century. A. deposit B. return
A. usually B. specially C. withdraw D. require
C. literally D. markedly 119. ...... he wanted to attend his friend’s party, he
109. Mounting unemployment is the most serous could not attend it.
and ...... problem faced by India today. A. As B. But
A. profound B. intractable C. Since D. Although
C. unpopular D. dubious 120. The boss considered the situation and ...... only
110. Unemployment is not only ...... throughout the three days leave to him.
emerging world, but is growing worse, A. granted B. submitted
especially in urban areas. C. sanction D. asked
A. endemic B. peripheral 121. If you want to do well, you must follow a
C. absorbing D. prolific strict ...... in your studies.
111. Manpower is the ...... means of converting other A. discipline B. belief
resources to mankind’s use and benefit. C. view D. report
 25 AFCAT (Eng)-4

122. It was very difficult to dig as the ground was 134. The reward is a ...... of her service to mankind.
very ...... A. recognition B. witness
A. thin B. soft C. memorial D. memento
C. rigid D. hard 135. The most important task of the Air Force is to
123. He was ...... with a serious crime. ...... the country against an air attack by an
A. condemned B. charged enemy.
C. accused D. convicted A. secure B. save
124. The oil crisis highlighted the need to develop C. defend D. protect
new ...... of energy and to conserve those 136. The ruling party will have to put its own house
which are already in use. ...... order.
A. means B. preserves A. in B. on
C. methods D. sources C. to D. into
125. The wood always ...... on water. 137. As a general rule, politicians do not ...... centre
A. floated B. floats stage.
C. was floating D. float A. forward B. forbid
126. He finds it difficult to ...... between blue and C. forgive D. forsake
green as he is colour blind. 138. Shivam ...... classical music. He always prefers
A. recognise B. see Bhimsen Joshi to Asha Bhonsale, and Pandit
C. distinguish D. study Jasraj to Kumar Sanu.
127. The bright colour of this shirt has ...... away. A. adores B. apprehends
A. faded B. paled C. encompasses D. cultivates
C. disappeared D. gone 139. Indications are that the Government is ...... to
128. The ...... animal was on the look out for food. the prospect of granting bonus to the striking
A. savage B. uncivilised employees.
C. primitive D. wild A. aligned B. obliged
129. The bank clerk tried to ...... money from his C. reconciled D. relieved
friend’s account. 140. The ...... study on import of natural gas from
A. embezzle B. embroil Iran through a pipeline would be completed
C. embellish D. empower shortly.
130. The movement of the train was so ...... that all A. natural B. calculated
the passengers slept very well. C. economic D. feasibility
A. noisy B. fast 141. His party is solely to be blamed for the
C. soothing D. distracting political ...... in the country.
131. That rule is applicable ...... everyone. A. devaluation B. revival
A. to B. for C. advocacy D. stalemate
C. about D. with 142. We still have not given our ...... to conduct
132. Besides other provisions, that shopkeeper deals the survey of natural resources in our State.
...... cosmetics too. A. projection B. consent
A. with B. in C. request D. compliance
C. at D. for 143. He is the best man for this job. He has mental
133. The music for event was ...... by A.R. Rahman. ...... to carry it out.
A. made B. composed A. predilection B. durability
C. demonstrated D. displayed C. adroitness D. persuasion
 26

144. Man is ......; however, he is more in need of A. chosen B. taught

mental companionship than of physical C. tackled D. posed
companionship. 148. He has ...... people visiting him at his house
A. egoistic B. biological because he fears it will cause discomfort to
C. emotional D. gregarious neighbours.
145. We cannot go on strike every year. Now that A. forbidden B. warned
we have gone on strike we must ...... this issue. C. stopped D. request
A. clinch B. culminate 149. Nowadays, why ...... people so scared of each
C. cross D. canvass other?
146. I was totally ...... by his line of thinking and A. were B. is
could not put forth any argument. C. had D. are
A. demolished B. nonplussed 150. If the perceptions of two individuals do not
C. exhausted D. refuted ...... there is bound to be problems.
147. Any problem to be ...... needs to be broken A. reflect B. differ
down to small pieces. C. match D. express

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C B D A D C A B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C A C B C C B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A C C C B D B B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B C C B C C D A B A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D D A A D C D C B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A D C A A D D C A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D C D B A D A D D D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D D A B C C A A D D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
C B A C B D B C B D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D C C A B A B C D A
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C D D D B B D D B A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C D B D C B D C D A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A D B D B C A D A C
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A B B A C A D A C D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D B C D A B C C D C
 SYNONYMS AND ANTONYMS
English is the most popular language of the world. Ant.: logical, reasonable, rational, consistent,
It comprises thousands of words. No one can sensible, sound, proper, sane.
remember all the words and their meanings but ACCURATE
everyone must try to read and learn the maximum Syn.: exact, precise, correct, actual, just, right, correct.
number of words and their meanings. Readers must Ant.: incorrect, inexact, improper, fallacious,
keep and use a dictionary religiously. inaccurate, misleading, erroneous.
ABANDON ADEQUATE
Syn.: discard, desert, discontinue, renounce,
Syn.: ample, abundant, enough, sufficient, plentiful,
relinquish, abnegate, forsake, surrender, give up,
copious.
quit.
Ant.: inadequate, insufficient, meagre, scant,
Ant.: retain, maintain, uphold, stay, remain.
scantly, skimpy.
ABATE
AFFABLE
Syn.: lessen, decrease, diminish, subside, slacken,
Syn.: urbane, polite, friendly, courteous, amiable,
subside, allay, reduce, curtail.
suave, good-tempered.
Ant.: increase, enlarge, heighten, intensify, raise.
Ant.: impolite, unfriendly, discourteous, haughty.
ABBREVIATE
AKIN
Syn.: shorten, abridge, compress, curtain, condense,
Syn.: kindred, similar, allied, cognate, alike, related,
contract, prune, truncate, reduce.
analogous.
Ant.: enlarge, expand, lengthen, extend, elongate,
Ant.: dissimilar, unrelated, unallied, unconnected,
prolong, protract.
different, unlike, separate.
ABILITY
Syn.: competence, aptitude, capability, talent, ALERT
Syn.: wary, vigilant, watchful, attentive, heedful,
intelligence, cleverness, capacity.
Ant.: inability, incompetence, incapacity, cautious, lively, fully awake.
incapability, inaptitude. Ant.: unwatchful, sluggish, relaxed, quiet, restful.
ABLE ABNORMAL
Syn.: capable, competent, intelligent, talented, Syn.: unusual, irregular, anomalous, unnatural, odd,
efficient, skilful. strange, erratic.
Ant.: unable, incapable, inefficient, incompetent. Ant.: usual, regular, natural, normal, customary.
ABRUPT ACTIVE
Syn.: sudden, curt, steep, hasty, unexpected, Syn.: brisk, energetic, lively, nimble, agile.
disconnected, disjointed, brusque, rough. Ant.: inactive, indolent, sluggish, lazy, passive,
Ant.: expected, anticipated, gradual, courteous, torpid.
smooth. ACTUAL
ABSURD Syn.: real, genuine, authentic, true, concrete,
Syn.: illogical, irrational, inconsistent, silly, inane, factual, existing.
unreasonable, funny, ridiculous, laughable, Ant.: unreal, implied, assumed, false, imaginary,
ludicrous, nonsensical, fatuous. fictitious.
27
 28

AMBIGUOUS BITTER
Syn.: vague, uncertain, undecided, undefined, Syn.: tart, harsh, pungent, unpalatable, acrid,
obscure, doubtful, indistinct, dubious, perplexing. spiteful, cutting, stinging, sour, unpleasant,
Ant.: lucid, plain, clear, obvious, unambiguous, sarcastic, resentful, biting, sardonic, caustic, severe,
unmistakable, indisputable. acrimonious, poignant, distasteful.
APT Ant.: tasty, toothsome, tasteful, palatable, pleasant,
Syn.: appropriate, apposite, suitable, fitting, delicious, warm.
pertinent, germane, relevant, congruent, harmonious, BRIGHT
congruous. Syn.: brilliant, shining, luminous, lustrous, radiant,
Ant.: inapt, inappropriate, incongruous, improper, sparkling, quick-witted, cheerful, clever,
unsuitable, inapposite, irrelevant. resplendent, flashing, lucid, limpid, sagacious,
ARDENT keen, astute, shrewd, brainy, intelligent.
Syn.: fervid, fervent, warm, impassioned, plowing, Ant.: dull, ignorant, cheerless, imbecite, murky,
intense, eager, earnest, passionate, hearty, cordial, dark, gloomy, sullen.
enthusiastic. BRIEF
Ant.: cool, indifferent, apathetic, nonchalant, Syn.: compendious, concise, short, terse, laconic,
unimpassioned. curt, succinct, condensed, compact, pithy.
ATROCIOUS Ant.: long, lengthy, prolonged, protracted,
Syn.: nefarious, heinous, cruel, outrageous, beastly, elongated, lengthened, extended, detailed, prolix,
horrible, horrendous. verbose, wordy.
Ant.: noble, humane, honourable, laudable, BRUTAL
admirable, moral. Syn.: atrocious, savage, beastly, brutish, fiendish,
AUDACIOUS devilish, barbarous, cruel, ruthless, merciless, crude,
Syn.: bold, daring, fearless, impudent, brash, rash, ferocious, bestial, heinous.
reckless, impertinent, madcap, insolent, brave, Ant.: humane, gentle, civilised, merciful, polished,
disrespectful, intrepid. sympathetic, tender, liberal, considerate, good-
Ant.: cowardly, timid, fearful, meek, humble, afraid, natured.
frightened, scared, different, panicky, apprehensive, CANDID
shy, mousy, timorous, fidgety. Syn.: frank, outspoken, sincere, impartial, honest,
AUTHENTIC artless, ingenuous, straightforward.
Syn.: genuine, real, trustworthy, true, reliable, Ant.: sly, wily, insincere, reserved, unfair, evasive.
accurate, authoritative, sound, tangible, definite,
CAPRICIOUS
actual, precise, exact, correct, factual, veritable,
Syn.: unpredictable, impulsive, fickle, changeable,
sterling.
inconstant, whimsical.
Ant.: apocryphal, unreliable, spurious, false,
Ant.: constant, firm, steadfast, unswerving.
fictitious, fake, sham, imaginary, counterfeit,
baseless, untrue. CARELESS
Syn.: heedless, inattentive, indifferent, negligent,
BEAUTIFUL
remiss, lax, unmindful.
Syn.: catching, prepossessing, fetching, cute,
Ant.: cautious, vigilant, careful, mindful, attentive.
enticing, engaging, attractive, charming,
fascinating, captivating, alluring, tempting, lovely, CERTAIN
bewitching, reductive, pretty, enchanting, winning, Syn.: indisputable, reliable, sure, definite,
comely. undisputed, unmistakable, positive, absolute.
Ant.: ugly, unattractive, unprepossessing, repulsive, Ant.: uncertain, disputable, doubtful, indefinite,
gaunt, haggard, unpleasing, revolting, hideous. ambiguous, dubious, questionable.
 29

CHEEK CURIOUS
Syn.: impudence, impertinence, effrontery, gall, Syn.: inquisitive, inquiring, prying, strange,
temerity, audacity, insolence, sauce, sass. unusual, nosey, meddlesome.
Ant.: politeness, courtesy, humility, gentleness, Ant.: incurious, uninquiring, uninquisitive,
respect. uninterested, unconcerned, indifferent, common,
Note: Cheek also means either side of the face usual.
below the eye. CORRECT (Adj)
Examples: She has healthy rosy cheeks. Syn.: accurate, proper, exact, precise, right, true,
They are dancing cheek to cheek. regular, perfect.
Ant.: incorrect, improper, inexact, wrong, untrue,
CHEERFUL irregular, imperfect.
Syn.: genial, happy, jolly, merry, jovial, pleasant,
lively, cheery, sunny, jocund, gay. DAFT
Syn.: silly, crazy, irrational, foolish, unreasonable,
Ant.: cheerless, joyless, dejected, unhappy, doleful,
reckless, insane, imbecile, lumpish.
sorrowful, mournful, glum, dreary, dismal.
Ant.: sane, sound, sensible, deft, rational,
CHARM (Verb) reasonable.
Syn.: fascinate, attract, please, delight, influence, DAINTY
entice, enchant, entrance, enrapture, allure, Syn.: pretty, neat, delicate, refined, tasty, delicious,
captivate, bewitch, ravish, tempt, lure, seduce, fastidious, elegant, toothsome, exquisite, cute,
beguile, enthral, thrill. tasteful, palatable.
Ant.: repel, repulse, rebuff, snub, disgust, deter, Ant.: inelegant, coarse, vulgar, rough, crude, rude,
disturb, irritate, annoy, alarm, frighten, terrify. nasty, dirty.
COMFORTABLE DEEP
Syn.: cosy, snug, pleasant, pleasing, pleasurable, Syn.: abstruse, profound, intense, learned,
satisfied. sagacious, extreme, devious, vivid, submerged,
Ant.: uncomfortable, disagreeable, dissatisfied, bottomless, unfathomable, abysmal, mysterious,
disturbed, displeasing, irritating, miserable, knotty, astute, recondite, intricate.
wretched, troubled, cheerless. Ant.: shallow, apparent, familiar, artless,
commonplace, ordinary, trite, naive, superficial,
COMPLETE (Adj)
cursory, simple, banal.
Syn.: whole, thorough, total, entire, full, perfect,
exhausive, consummate. DELIGHT
Ant.: incomplete, imperfect, partial, unfinished, Syn.: joy, pleasure, rapture, ecstasy, enjoyment,
uncompleted, unaccomplished, deficient, skimpy, bliss, gratification, gusto, comfort.
Ant.: displeasure, discomfort, sorrow, distress,
sketchy.
misery, anguish, suffering, agony, woe, despair,
CORDIAL depression.
Syn.: sincere, friendly, earnest, warm, hearty, ardent, DETRIMENTAL
heartfelt, amiable, affable. Syn.: harmful, injurious, hurtful, pernicious,
Ant.: unfriendly, insincere, cold, distant, formal, damaging, noxious.
reserved. Ant.: good, beneficial, valuable, useful, profitable,
COURAGE harmless, inoffensive, unobnoxious.
Syn.: bravery, boldness, valour, heroism, DIFFICULT
fearlessness, intrepidity, nerve, gallantry, pluck, Syn.: hard, troublesome, perplexing, tough,
fortitude, daring. laborious, irksome, toilsome, arduous, knotty,
Ant.: cowardice, timidity, pusillanimity, fear, funk. burdensome, uphill, herculean, enigmatic.
 30

Ant.: easy, uncomplicated, intelligible, lucid, plain, Ant.: sensible, cheerful, bright, intelligent, clever,
simple, facile, manageable, tractable, elementary, lively, animated, brilliant, sharp, talented, jolly,
rudimentary. merry, joyful, gay, jocund, energetic, keen, active,
DILIGENT intense, brisk, lively, trenchant, rousing.
Syn.: industrious, laborious, hard-working, EAGER
attentive, assiduous, observant, mindful, vigilant, Syn.: ardent, earnest, zealous, keen, fervent, fervid,
watchful, wakeful, careful. vehement, intent, agog, avid, excited, impatient,
Ant.: careless, heedless, inattentive, indifferent, curious, anxious, enthusiastic, wistful, hearty,
unobservant, unmindful. cordial, desirous.
Ant.: indifferent, disinterested, cool, loath,
DISHONEST
unconcerned, apathetic, reluctant, unwilling,
Syn.: untrustworthy, false, fraudulent, deceitful,
disinclined.
crooked, tricky, deceptive, treacherous, unjust,
unfair, unreliable. EFFICIENT
Ant.: trustworthy, reliable, fair, just, candid, frank, Syn.: capable, able, competent, gifted, effective,
sincere, upright, truthful, veracious, honest. effectual, efficacious, skilful, proficient, talented,
intelligent, adept.
DOCILE Ant.: inefficient, incompetent, ineffectual, unskilled,
Syn.: pliant, tractable, amenable, teachable, inexpert.
yielding, compliant, tame, submissive, gentle,
ELIGIBLE
unresisting, dutiful, passive, acquiescent,
Syn.: fit, suitable, desirable, worthy, qualified,
unassertive, manageable, governable, obsequious.
acceptable, right.
Ant.: obstinate, stubborn, intractable, self-willed,
Ant.: unfit, unsuitable, unworthy, unacceptable,
dogged, defiant, insolent, resistant, resisting,
undesirable, unqualified.
obdurate, disobedient, wilful, uncompromising,
unyielding, refractory, recalcitrant. EMPHEMERAL
Syn.: short-lived, transitory, transient, fleeting,
DOUBTFUL momentary, fugitive, evanescent, fugacious,
Syn.: questionable, uncertain, unsure, unlikely, temporary.
improbable, disputable, debatable, dubious, Ant.: eternal, perpetual, perennial, permanent,
controversial, fishy, moot, ambiguous. intransient, lifelong, everlasting, long-lived,
Ant.: certain, sure, probable, indisputable, prolonged, protracted.
unquestionable, positive, absolute, definite, clear,
ENORMOUS
unmistakable, reliable, trustworthy, undoubted,
Syn.: immense, gigantic, colossal, huge, vast,
undeniable, indubitable. gargantuan, monstrous, prodigious, stupendous,
DROLL plentiful, plenteous, copious.
Syn.: amusing, laughable, funny, comic, sarcastic, Ant.: trivial, insignificant, ordinary, average, small,
whimsical, comical, odd, queer, farcical, ludicrous, little, tiny, diminutive.
ridiculous, absurd, diverting, rompish. ENOUGH
Ant.: sad, lamentable, lugubrious, tragic, painful, Syn.: plenty, ample, sufficient, abundant, adequate.
dolorous, hurtful, distressing, grievous, woeful, Ant.: insufficient, inadequate, meagre, scanty,
rueful, mournful, deplorable, touching. deficient, scant, jejune, skimpy.
DULL ENTHUSIASM
Syn.: stupid, boring, monotonous, foolish, Syn.: verve, ardour, zeal, fervour, fanaticism.
unintelligent, cheerless, gloomy, uninteresting, Ant.: apathy, indifference, detachment, ennui,
spiritless, blunt, doltish, sad, stolid, dismal, dowdy, unconcern, lethargy, weariness, exhaustion,
drab, unfashionable, insensible. lassitude, languor.
 31

EXPERT (Adj) FRIENDLY

Syn.: adept, skilled, adroit, proficient, skilful, deft, Syn.: kindly, pleasantly, amicable, cordial, hearty,
dexterous, versed, accomplished. warm-hearted, affable, genial, well-inclined, good-
Ant.: inexpert, unskilful, unskilled, maladroit, tempered, amiable, favourable, pleasing, sociable,
clumsy, lungling, unqualified, raw, inexperienced, companionable, nice, neighbourly, benevolent,
green, incompetent. well-disposed.
FACE (V) Ant.: hostile, unsociable, unfavourable, unfriendly,
Syn.: confront, oppose, defy, meet, encounter, resist. adverse, inimical, antagonistic, distant, reserved,
Ant.: avoid, shun, elude, avert, eschew. cool, ill-inclined, ill-disposed, resistant, opposed.
FAITHFUL FUNDAMENTAL
Syn.: loyal, trustworthy, conscientious, true, Syn.: basic, primary, essential, cardinal,
accurate, devoted, exact, reliable, staunch, steadfast, indispensable, original, rudimentary, elementary,
constant, dependable, compliant. radical, most important, prime, chief.
Ant.: disloyal, untrustworthy, inaccurate, inexact, Ant.: secondary, subordinate, minor, inferior,
unreliable, unfaithful, treacherous, undependable, resultant, second-rate, subsidiary.
untrue, fickle.
FUNNY
FICKLE Syn.: amusing, jocular, jocose, laughable, eccentric,
Syn.: inconstant, disloyal, unfaithful, capricious,
absurd, droll, comical, comic, playful, ludicrous,
impulsive, unpredictable, changeable, unstable,
farcical, humorous, ridiculous, odd, queer, diverting,
variable, vacillating, wavering, fanciful, whimsical,
strange.
mutable, irresolute, erratic, unreliable, fitful.
Ant.: sad, serious, solemn, sober, sedate, staid,
Ant.: steady, steadfast, unchangeable, unwavering,
grave, sorrowful, mournful.
constant, loyal, faithful, reliable, dependable,
stable, immutable, invariable. GARRULOUS
FIT (Adj) Syn.: talkative, chatty, verbose, loquacious,
Ant.: suitable, appropriate, proper, advantageous, communicative, glib, voluble, prolix, wordy, long-
sound, well, meet, becoming, fitting, qualified, apt, winded, diffuse, profuse, discussive, rambling,
apposite, decent, decorous, congruent, congruous, circumlocutory, maundering, periphrastic.
concordant, harmonious, eligible. Ant.: laconic, reticent, silent, taciturn, uncommuni-
Ant.: unfit, unsuitable, unbecoming, cative, terse, reserved, short-spoken.
disadvantageous, unwell, indecent, indecorous, GENUINE
improper, inappropriate, inapt, incongruent, Syn.: authentic, sound, true, real, pure, veritable,
ineligible. unadulterated, unalloyed, unaffected, natural,
FOOLISH factual, actual, legitimate, undistorted, tangible,
Syn.: silly, stupid, unwise, ridiculous, absurd, valid, sterling.
asinine, imbecile, indiscreet, irrational, idiotic, Ant.: sham, spurious, fictitious, artificial,
brainless, senseless, nonsensical, witless, adulterated, alloyed, impure, apocryphal, untrue,
preposterous, inane, fatuous, imprudent, fallacious, unsound, invalid.
inconsistent, illogical, laughable, paradoxical,
GIFTED
dotty.
Ant.: wise, sane, prudent, discreet, sound, sensible, Syn.: talented, intelligent, sagacious, competent,
rational, sagacious, judicious, sage. wise, able, proficient, efficient, capable, shrewd,
Note: Each of the following words means foolish inventive, skilful, ingenious, experienced.
person. Ant.: foolish, doltish, silly, stupid, idiotic.
 32

GLORIOUS Ant.: helpful, profitable, beneficial, advantageous,

Syn.: famous, beautiful, splendid, magnificent, harmless, useful, favourable, good, salutary,
enjoyable, pleasant, grand, exalted, lofty, majestic, healthful, inoffensive, unobnoxious.
sublime, noble, bright, radiant, renowned. HARMONIOUS
Ant.: base, ignoble, low, ordinary, ridiculous. Syn.: congruous, concordant, uniform, proportioned,
GOOD (N) consistent, tuneful, melodious, sweet-sounding,
Syn.: benefit, profit, advantage, virtue, boon, weal, agreeable, friendly, amicable, cordial.
prosperity, blessing, gain, welfare, righteousness, Ant.: unfriendly, hostile, unfavourable, adverse,
merit. opposing, opposed, antagonistic, contrary,
Ant.: harm, injury, corruption, wickedness, discordant, conflicting, inconsistent.
depravity, detriment, disadvantage, ill, calamity, HARSH
loss, evil, curse. Syn.: rough, stern, cruel, severe, blunt, coarse, gruff,
GRACEFUL discordant, raucous, hoarse, rugged, severe, shrill,
Syn.: elegant, pleasing in style and attitude, polite, strident, austere, acrimonious, ungenial, sharp, sour,
considerate, comely, beautiful, attractive, lithe, ungracious, brutal, heartless.
lissom, svelte, sylphlike, willowy. Ant.: gentle, mild, smooth, soft, melodious.
Ant.: ungainly, awkward, lumbering, uncouth, ill HEALTHY
mannered, not refined. Syn.: robust, strong, vigorous, lusty, hearty, sound,
GRAND well, hygienic, salubrious, wholesome, salutary,
Syn.: august, exalted, stately, splendid, majestic, bracing, invigorating, harmless, healthful, hale and
lofty, superb, imposing, dignified, noble, princely, hearty, inoffensive, laudable, moral.
magnificent, big, pompous, gorgeous, sublime, Ant.: diseased, delicate, infirm, injurious, frail,
impressive. noxious, sick, ailing, ill, sick.
Ant.: mean, common, insignificant, secondary, HEARTY
inferior, unimportant, little, undignified, Syn.: warm, earnest, sincere, heartfelt, cordial,
unimposing, petty, paltry, beggarly, lowly. sound, ardent, friendly, enthusiastic, cheerful,
GRIM healthy, fervent, fervid.
Syn.: fearful, stern, fierce, ruthless, horrible, Ant.: cool, reserved, taciturn, insincere.
determined, strong-willed, horrid, repellent, HONEST
frightful, ghastly, gristly, gloomy, severe, Syn.: frank, sincere, direct, fairly earned, truthful,
unrelenting, unpleasant, depressing, determined, upright, virtuous, right, genuine, trustworthy.
repulsive, dingy, drab, savage, appalling, ferocious, Ant.: dishonest, untrustworthy, tricky, deceitful,
ugly, sullen, hideous. fraudulent, insincere.
Ant.: handsome, pretty, graceful, elegant, gentle, HONOUR (N)
gracious, friendly, humane, benign, mild, docile, Syn.: privilege, probity, integrity, glory, distinction,
attractive. great respect, glory, dignity, reverence, grandeur,
GRUFF high-mindedness, eminence, renown, fame.
Syn.: rough, surly, blunt, harsh, rude. Ant.: dishonour, disrespect, contempt, irreverence,
Ant.: affable, courteous, mild, smooth. disgrace, degradation, slight, infamy, perfidy,
HARMFUL treachery, improbity, scorn, disdain.
Syn.: detrimental, pernicious, prejudicial, HUMOROUS
deleterious, injurious, noxious, hurtful, mischievous, Syn.: droll, amusing, ludicrous, funny, jocular,
obnoxious, inauspicious, oppressive, baneful, merry, comic, jocose, waggish, farcical.
baleful, menacing, malignant, unhealthful, vitiated, Ant.: solemn, serious, sober, grave, composed,
damaging. sedate, dignified.
 33 AFCAT (Eng)-5

IDLE Ant.: foolish, doltish, dull, stupid, unintelligent,

Syn.: indolent, lazy, inactive, unemployed, useless, stolid, obtuse, silly, inane.
unoccupied, slothful, futile. INTEGRITY
Ant.: active, busy, occupied, working, industrious, Syn.: honesty, probity, uprightness, rectitude,
employed. truthfulness, sincerity, trustworthiness, fairness,
INDUSTRIOUS wholeness, completeness, oneness, totality, entirety,
Syn.: diligent, hard-working, laborious, assiduous, indivisibility.
sedulous. Ant.: dishonesty, duplicity, unfairness, deceit,
Ant.: lethargic, inactive, apathetic, lazy, idle, fraud, improbity.
indolent, slothful, torpid, sluggish, shiftless, slack, IRRITABLE
lax, supine. Syn.: peevish, touchy, irascible, testy, short-
IMPORTANT tempered, fretful, splenetic, petulant, grumpy,
Syn.: significant, valuable, weighty, influential, pettish, snappish, choleric, peppery, churlish,
momentous, prominent, material, essential, cantankerous, fractious, crabbed.
remarkable, eventful. Ant.: calm, composed, agreeable, gracious, cheerful,
Ant.: insignificant, unimportant, petty, trivial, genial, good-natured, blithe, jaunty, buoyant,
mean, secondary, minor, uninfluential, worthless, lively, animated.
valueless, immaterial, inferior. JEALOUS
INGENIOUS Syn.: envious, invidious, suspicious, resentful,
Syn.: adroit, clever, dexterous, quick-witted, skilful, covetous, jaundiced, distrustful, apprehensive,
talented, smart, bright, sharp, adept, original, intolerant.
inventive, expert, intelligent. Ant.: unenvious, unjealous, tolerant, liberal, genial,
Ant.: unskilled, dull, foolish, clumsy, awkward, indifferent, unsuspecting.
stupid, unskilful, inexpert, maladroit, incompetent, JOLLY
inexperienced, unconversant, ungainly. Syn.: genial, jovial, jubilant, lively, gay, joyful,
INGENUOUS merry, mirthful, cheerful, light-hearted, jocular,
Syn.: innocent, open, candid, frank, sincere, jocund, blithe.
straightforward, truthful, artless, honest, naive, Ant.: cheerless, joyless, sad, mournful, gloomy,
simple, trusting, unaffected, outspoken. morose, sullen, lugubrious, sorrowful, melancholy,
Ant.: insincere, reserved, sly, wily, contrived, dismal, unhappy.
disingenuous, mean, pretentious, sham, affected, JUST
priggish. Syn.: fair, honest, proper, right, reasonable, well-
INFINITE founded, deserved, impartial, true, upright, exact,
Syn.: boundless, endless, unlimited, unbounded, precise, proportioned, normal.
limitless, immeasurable, interminable, stupendous, Ant.: unfair, unjust, improper, unreasonable, partial,
eternal, immense, vast, incalculable, numberless, untrue, inexact, abnormal, ill-proportioned,
countless, bottomless, unfathomable, inexhaustible, prejudiced, biased.
indefinite, perpetual. KEEN
Ant.: finite, limited, restricted, bounded, conditioned, Syn.: acute, sharp, penetrating, astute, clever,
confined, definite, determinate, circumscribed. cunning, quick, shrewd, wily, eager, enthusiastic,
INTELLIGENT intense, deep, strong, cutting, ardent, nippy, avid,
Syn.: brainy, clever, bright, brilliant, keen, fervent.
sagacious, quick-witted, discerning, sharp, shrewd, Ant.: indifferent, blunt, dull, languid, indifferent,
astute, canny, perspicacious, perceptive, nimble, cool, careless, half-hearted, unconcerned, lukewarm,
well-informed, enlightened. impervious, insouciant.
 34 AFCAT (Eng)-5-II

KIND (Adj) playful, spirited, forceful, sprightly, vivacious,

Syn.: friendly, gentle, mild, obliging, benign, joyous, joyful, gay.
lenient, helpful, sympathetic, favourable, Ant.: dull, listless, insipid, vapid, inactive,
benevolent, amiable, good-natured, cordial, uninteresting, depressed, languid, torpid, apathetic,
courteous, gracious, warm-hearted, humane, indifferent, sluggish, dejected, joyless, cheerless,
compassionate, generous, philanthropic. unlively, spiritless.
Ant.: unfriendly, unfavourable, discourteous, LOGICAL
unkind, harsh, severe, hard, callous, cruel, inhumane. Syn.: cogent, convincing, sound, valid, effective,
KNOWLEDGE reasonable, natural, rational, sane, relevant.
Syn.: understanding, learning, information, Ant.: illogical, invalid, ineffective, unreasonable,
instruction, acquaintance, cognition, cognizance, unnatural, irrational, insane, irrelevant, fallacious.
awareness, comprehension, apprehension, MADDEN
consciousness, familiarity, ken, enlightenment, Syn.: infuriate, enrage, incense, derange, craze, anger,
experience, attainments, scholarship, education. offend, displease, embitter, exasperate, rankle,
Ant.: ignorance, nescience, illiteracy, incomprehen- affront, irritate, provoke, nettle, inflame, annoy.
sion, inexperience, unawareness. Ant.: placate, pacify, soothe, calm, assuage, appease,
LABORIOUS mollify.
Syn.: diligent, hard-working, industrious, toilsome, MALICIOUS
tedious, tiresome, irksome, arduous, assiduous, Syn.: spiteful, malignant, malevolent, evil-minded,
wearisome, strenuous, painstaking, uphill. hostile, rancorous, virulent, wicked, malign,
Ant.: easy, light, feasible, indiligent, lazy, indolent, pernicious, vicious, harmful, maleficent, ill-
simple, idle. disposed, ill-intentioned.
Ant.: benign, kind, good-natured, benevolent,
LACONIC
cordial, unselfish, sympathetic, gracious, well-
Syn.: curt, terse, concise, pithy, short, brief, succinct,
intentioned, humane, warm-hearted, affectionate.
crisp, compendious, compact.
Ant.: lengthy, prolix, wordy, circumlocutory, MASTERLY
verbose, discursive, long-winded, rambling, Syn.: skilful, adept, deft, dexterous, expert, skilled,
roundabout, copious, diffuse. consummate, perfect, masterful, dominating.
Ant.: unskilled, maladroit, clumsy, inexpert.
LAX
Syn.: negligent, careless, remiss, sluggish, METHODICAL
Syn.: orderly, logical, systematic, regular, procedural,
inattentive, neglectful, heedless, vague, desultory,
planned, arranged, tidy.
unmethodical, loose, slack, relaxed.
Ant.: disorderly, illogical, irregular, unsystematic,
Ant.: careful, meticulous, attentive, methodical,
unmethodical, untidy, desultory, unarranged,
severe, strict, heedful, regardful, cautious, prudent,
disarranged, sloppy, chaotic, anarchical.
discreet.
MODEST
LESSEN Syn.: moderate, inexpensive, not showy or splendid
Syn.: shorten, abate, curtail, decrease, reduce, in appearance, not vain or boastful, shy, bashful,
diminish, abridge, mitigate, contract, deduct, humble, meek, reserved, unassuming, unpretentious,
subtract, shrink, allenuate. diffident, unobtrusive, coy.
Ant.: increase, enlarge, augment, extend, expand, Ant.: immodest, showy or splendid in appearance,
grow, amplify, enhance, magnify. vain, boastful, ostentatious, pretentious, proud,
LIVELY arrogant, bold, conceited, haughty, disdainful, pert,
Syn.: high-spirited, vigorous, energetic, active, imperious, domineering, priggish, smug, self-
animated, brisk, bright, blithe, frolicsome, merry, satisfied, egotistic, self-important.
 35

MOMENTOUS OBSTINATE
Syn.: important, prominent, significant, weighty, Syn.: stubborn, obdurate, dogged, tenacious,
material, pressing, influential, grave, consequential, persistent, insistent, headstrong, pertinacious,
serious, notable, solemn, memorable, remarkable. unyielding, determined, self-willed, wilful, resolute.
Ant.: unimportant, immaterial, inconsequential, Ant.: irresolute, subservient, yielding, submissive,
insignificant, mean, petty, trivial, slight, niggling, amenable, wavering.
trifling. OFFENSIVE (Adj)
NATURAL Syn.: insulting, annoying, disgusting, repulsive,
Syn.: innate, inherent, original, normal, aggressive, distasteful, foul, aggressive, obnoxious,
spontaneous, unaffected, characteristic, typical, nasty.
native, unstudied, inborn, naive, ingenuous, inbred, Ant.: pleasant, defensive, inoffensive, harmless,
ingrained, usual, intrinsic. blameless, unaggressive, innocuous.
Ant.: unnatural, abnormal, artificial, affected, OWN (V)
forced, irregular, unusual, inconsistent, fictitious. Syn.: possess, confess, admit, avow, acknowledge,
NECESSARY have, hold, concede.
Syn.: requisite, needful, essential, inevitable, Ant.: deny, disclaim, disavow, renounce, disown,
unavoidable, indispensable. abjure, abandon.
Ant.: unnecessary, optional, unessential, PEEVISH
dispensable, voluntary, discretional, casual. Syn.: irritable, touchy, testy, tetchy, irascible, fretful,
NICE bad-tempered, crabbed, pettish, petulant, snappish,
Syn.: pleasant, agreeable, friendly, kind, fine, waspish, fractious, hot-headed, crabby, churlish.
subtle, respectable, scrupulous, dainty, attractive, Ant.: affable, genial, good-natured, good-tempered,
pleasant, cordial, hearty, jolly, soft-spoken, polite,
fastidious, tasteful, delicate, choosy, refined,
urbane.
palatable, delectable, pleasing, pleasurable.
Ant.: disagreeable, coarse, unscrupulous, rough, PERFECT (Adj)
nasty, rueful, mournful, woeful, deplorable, Syn.: complete, excellent, ideal, exact, precise, total,
distressing. absolute, thorough, faultless, indefective, indeficient,
immaculate, impeccable, sound, spotless, entire,
NIMBLE
utter, consummate.
Syn.: agile, sharp, active, brisk, lively, spry, quick.
Ant.: imperfect, incomplete, inexact, deficient,
Ant.: slow, sluggish, clumsy, inert, lazy, indolent,
faulty, unsound, deformed, impaired, blemished,
awkward, slothful.
crude.
NOVICE
PLEASANT
Syn.: beginner, tyro, neophyte, apprentice, Syn.: enjoyable, polite and friendly, pleasurable,
greenhorn, learner, acolyte, rookie. agreeable, pleasing, delectable, palatable,
Ant.: expert, adept, master, teacher, trainer, delightful, cheerful, delicious, jocular, merry.
instructor. Ant.: unpleasant, disagreeable, unlively, lugubrious,
OBEDIENT dismal, sad, mournful, offensive, unpleasing,
Syn.: observant, dutiful, complying, compliant, disgusting, obnoxious, nasty.
loyal, faithful, devoted, fractable, docile, PLENTIFUL
submissive, pliable, pliant, yielding. Syn.: ample, abundant, copious, profuse, plenteous,
Ant.: disloyal, unfaithful, intractable, uncomplying, prolific, bounteous, bountiful, lavish.
uncompliant, unruly, unsubmissive, refractory, Ant.: scanty, meagre, limited, skimpy, insufficient,
resisting, contumacious, recalcitrant. sparing, scarce, deficient, rare.
 36

POMPOUS QUICKEN
Syn.: self-important, ostentatious, high-flown, Syn.: hasten, hurry, speed, accelerate, refresh,
bombastic, grandiose, arrogant, haughty, grand, animate, rush, expedite.
imposing, lofty, magnificent, majestic, stately, Ant.: retard, slacken, moderate, curb, shorten, slow,
sublime, dignified, showy, pretentious, assuming, relax, delay, impede, hinder, obstruct.
turgid, magniloquent. QUIET (Adj)
Ant.: unassuming, plain-mannered, unpretending, Syn.: calm, peaceful, screne, hushed, silent, modest,
modest, unobtrusive, humble-minded, unpreten- restrained, subdued, gentle, unostentatious, restful,
tious, bashful, coy. relaxed, leisurely, unhurried, reposeful, tranquil,
quiescent, unobtrusive, passive, undisturbed,
PRECISE
motionless, still, mild, modest.
Syn.: exact, accurate, definite, correct, punctitious,
Ant.: loud, agitated, disturbed, perturbed, noisy.
fastidious, particular, proper.
Ant.: inexact, inaccurate, indefinite, incorrect, QUIET (N)
improper, vague, ambiguous, rough, circumlocutory. Syn.: calm, calmness, hush, peace, repose, rest,
silence, stillness, tranquility, serenity, quiescence,
PREPOSSESSING quietude.
Syn.: attractive, charming, taking, alluring, Ant.: agitation, disturbance, uproar, noise, din,
engaging, winning, appealing, winsome. noisiness, loudness, tumult, excitement, turmoil,
Ant.: unattractive, repulsive, ugly, unprepossessing, commotion, unrest.
ill-looking. RAPID
PREPOSTEROUS Syn.: speedy, quick, swift, fast, prompt, expeditious,
Syn.: outrageous, absurd, unreasonable, ridiculous, hasty, hurried.
foolish, silly, stupid, inconsistent, irrational, Ant.: slow, sluggish, slack, tardy, leisurely, gradual,
nonsensical, laughable, idiotic, illogical, ludicrous. languid.
Ant.: consistent, reasonable, rational, logical, REASONABLE
sensible, sound, just, fair, right, moderate. Syn.: sensible, logical, moderate, tolerable,
PRINCIPAL (Adj) acceptable, average, sound, fair, rational,
Syn.: chief, main, foremost, prime, leading, most inexpensive, sober, temperate.
important, pre-eminent, outstanding, excellent, Ant.: unreasonable, absurd, unfair, illogical,
irrational, intolerable, immoderate, expensive,
conspicuous, highest, first-rate, cardinal,
senseless, preposterous, ridiculous, silly, excessive,
fundamental, primary, paramount, supreme,
obstinate.
predominant.
Ant.: minor, inferior, subordinate, secondary, REGULAR
auxiliary, subsidiary. Syn.: proper, systematic, symetrical, normal, usual,
habitual, constant, orderly, steady, methodical,
PUSHY consistent.
Syn.: aggressive, offensive, forceful, belligerent, Ant.: irregular, improper, abnormal, unusual,
bold, impudent, rude, disrespectful, insolent, self- disorderly, inconstant, desultory, unmethodical,
assertive. changeable, erratic, sporadic.
Ant.: cowardly, timid, defensive. REMARKABLE
QUESTIONABLE Syn.: unusual, exceptional, august, impressive,
Syn.: doubtful, uncertain, suspicious, dubious, extra-ordinary, uncommon, splendid, singular,
disputable, debatable, arguable, fishy, controversial. notable, noteworthy, striking, distinguished,
Ant.: certain, indisputable, obvious, evident, wonderful, famous, prominent, conspicuous,
unquestionable, sure. imposing.
 37

Ant.: ordinary, average, inconspicuous, normal, SOFTEN

usual, common, customary, undistinguished. Syn.: mollify, soothe, ease, calm, comfort, quiet,
RESPONSIBLE temper, moderate, mitigate, abate, allay, alleviate,
Syn.: answerable, trustworthy, dependable, assuage, diminish, lessen, extenuate, relieve.
accountable, liable, chargeable, reliable. Ant.: harden, stiffen, augment, irritate, increase,
Ant.: irresponsible, untrustworthy, undependable, aggravate, worsen, enhance, heighten, intensify,
unreliable, unaccountable, unanswerable. infuriate, indurate.

RICH SUITABLE
Syn.: appropriate, proper, fitting, right, becoming,
Syn.: wealthy, affluent, prosperous, opulent,
apposite, eligible, seemly, apt, meet, decorous,
nourishing, abundant, ample, fruitful, fertile,
seasonable.
luxuriant, vivid, bountiful, sumptuous, gorgeous,
Ant.: unsuitable, improper, unbecoming, inapt,
sonorous, well-to-do, plentiful, fecund, well-heeled,
indecorous, unseemly, ineligible, inappropriate,
productive, wholesome, nutritious.
inapposite.
Ant.: poor, needy, penniless, beggarly, indigent,
destitute, barren, sterile, unfruitful, unproductive, TEDIOUS
impecunious, hard up, necessitous. Syn.: boring, tiresome, wearisome, irksome,
monotonous, dreary, uninteresting, dull, humdrum,
SCHOOL (V)
drab.
Syn.: train, teach, direct, lead, guide, educate, Ant.: interesting, amusing, entertaining, exciting,
instruct, control, discipline, inform, enlighten, tutor.
delightful, brisk.
Ant.: misdirect, mislead, misguide, deceive, delude.
TERRIBLE
SCRUPULOUS Syn.: horrible, alarming, fearful, shocking, frightful,
Syn.: absolutely honest, extremely careful and tho- awesome, appalling, dreadful, terrifying, frightening,
rough, paying great attention to details, exact, meti- formidable, terrific, horrid, terrible, fearsome.
culous, punctitious, upright, moral, conscientious, Ant.: pleasing, encouraging, safe, secure, joyous,
veracious, truthful, right-minded, high-principled. informidable, unastounding.
Ant.: dishonest, deceitful, tricky, fraudulent,
TOLERABLE
unscrupulous, careless, unprincipled, conscienceless,
Syn.: endurable, bearable, passable, sufferable,
knavish.
acceptable.
SILLY Ant.: intolerable, unbearable, unacceptable,
Syn.: foolish, doltish, indiscreet, stupid, unwise, unendurable.
childish, inane, fatuous, senseless, absurd, ridiculous, TOTALLY
idiotic, nonsensical, irrational, preposterous, Syn.: fully, wholly, completely, entirely, absolutely,
outrageous, imprudent. thoroughly, perfectly, utterly.
Ant.: wise, prudent, rational, sane, discreet, sound, Ant.: partially, partly, incompletely, somewhat.
intelligent, sensible, sapient, sagacious, discerning,
TRUE
perspicacious, brainy, brilliant, well-advised,
Syn.: accurate, actual, unerring, correct, authentic,
judicious, astute, shrewd.
exact, real, veracious, constant, faithful, loyal,
SLY genuine, precise, veritable, reliable, rightful,
Syn.: foxy, wily, crafty, cunning, deceitful, secretive, sincere, factual, legitimate.
furtive, roguish, mischievous, stealthy, underhand, Ant.: untrue, inaccurate, incorrect, inexact, unreal,
surreptitious. unfaithful, disloyal, unreliable, insincere, false,
Ant.: open, frank, candid, ingenuous, sincere, spurious, fictitious, erroneous, inconstant, fickle,
artless. fallacious, apocryphal.
 38

UNASSUMING Ant.: unwelcome, unacceptable, disagreeable,

Syn.: modest, reserved, retiring, humble, diffident, distasteful, unpleasant, offensive, repugnant,
bashful, shy, coy, unpretentious, unostentatious. repulsive, unpalatable.
Ant.: arrogant, boastful, haughty, proud, vain, WISE
immodest, pretentious, ostentatious, pert, vainglor- Syn.: prudent, sagacious, sage, learned, profound,
ious, imperious, smug, priggish, domineering. well-advised, judicious, scholarly, well-informed,
URBANE well-read, shrewd.
Syn.: suave, affable, polite, civil, courteous, refined, Ant.: unwise, foolish, shallow, silly, stupid, inane,
well-bred, well-mannered, accomplished, sophis- fatuous, injudicious, imprudent, ill-advised,
ticated, courtly, amiable. doltish, uneducated, unschooled.
Ant.: uncivil, uncouth, rude, ill-mannered, WRONG (Adj)
discourteous, impolite, boorish, impertinent. Syn.: erroneous, incorrect, unjust, inaccurate,
UTTER (Adj) mistaken, faulty, untrue, unprecise, improper, bad,
Syn.: complete, entire, thorough, full, whole, perfect, amiss, inappropriate, unsuitable, false, unfair,
absolute, sheer, total, downwright, consummate, unfit.
arrant. Ant.: right, correct, true, proper, suitable, exact, just,
Ant.: incomplete, imperfect, partial, meagre, precise, fair, accurate.
lacking, wanting, deficient, sketchy, skimpy. YEARLING
VALID Syn.: youngling, colt, filly, cub, whelp, puppy.
Syn.: binding, sound, legal, logical, effective, Ant.: elder, doyen, old-timer, veteran.
cogent, operative, weighty, well-grounded, just. YEARN
Ant.: invalid, illegal, illogical, unjust, unsound, Syn.: desire, strongly, pine, long, hanker, grieve,
ineffective, null and void, inoperative. mourn.
VANITY Ant.: hate, detest, despise, loathe, dislike,
Syn.: pride, egotism, arrogance, conceit, immodesty, abominate.
self-esteem, smugness, priggishness, vainglory, YIELDING
boasting, boast, bombast, bluster, brag, rodomontade. Syn.: pliant, tractable, docile, submissive,
Ant.: modesty, humility, meekness, simplicity, compliant, flexible, soft, manageable.
unostentatiousness. Ant.: intractable, unmanageable, awkward,
VIGOROUS stubborn, obstinate, obdurate, unyielding,
Syn.: energetic, active, strong, potent, powerful, inflexible, hard, unruly, recalcitrant.
mighty, forceful, animated, lively, spirited, sprightly, YOUNG
brisk, vivacious, intense. Syn.: youthful, new, fresh, inexperienced,
Ant.: powerless, ineffective, ineffectual, dull, feeble, immature, youngish, teen-age, juvenile, adolescent,
unsound, impotent, flabby. green, puerile.
VITAL Ant.: old, elderly, experienced, aged, senior,
Syn.: essential, indispensable, necessary, basic, mature, full-grown.
cardinal, paramount, energetic, lively, dynamic. ZANY (Adj)
Ant.: unessential, unimportant, dispensable, Syn.: ridiculous, eccentric, amusing, ludicrous,
immaterial, insignificant. foolish, doltish, silly, inane, fatuous, stupid, droll,
WELCOME (Adj) funny, whimsical, dull, drab.
Syn.: pleasing, agreeable, acceptable, gratifying, Ant.: wise, intelligent, accomplished, well-
pleasant, pleasurable. informed, shrewd, brisk, active.
 39

ZANY (N) ZEALOUS

Syn.: merry-andrew, buffoon, clown, madcap, fool, Syn.: eager, keen, enthusiastic, deep, strong,
comedian, jester, nitwit, dunce, dolt, nincompoop, intense, earnest, passionate, spirited, ardent, warm,
ninny, simpleton, numskull, oaf, loon, dullard, energetic, fervent, fervid, impassioned, vehement.
dunderhead, blockhead, goof, idiot, booby, Ant.: cold, apathetic, indifferent, nonchalant, calm
bonehead, dunce, imbecile. and casual, cool.
Ant.: sage, scholar, genius, wise person, intelligent
ZENITH
person.
Syn.: acme, top, summit, apex, climax, vertex,
ZEAL culmination, peak, prime, highest point.
Syn.: enthusiasm, energy, verve, keenness, vim, Ant.: nadir, lowest point or part, base, bottom, foot.
vigour, heartiness, earnestness, spirit, eagerness,
warmth, ardour, fervour, devotion, dash, briskness, ZEST
alacrity, intensity, vehemence. Syn.: gusto, relish, enthusiasm, exhilaration, thrill,
Ant.: apathy, indifference, unconcern, ennui, great enjoyment or excitement.
detachment, coldness, torpor, torpidity. Ant.: distaste, disrelish, dislike, insipidity.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Directions (Qs. 1 to 32): In the following questions, A. Buxom B. Loot
each word is followed by four options A, B, C and C. Delicate D. Daub
D. Select the option which best expresses the 9. CUPIDITY
meaning of the given word. A. Shrewd B. Basic
1. ABSURD C. Avarice D. Parody
A. Foolish B. Simple 10. CORRIGIBLE
C. Courageous D. Silly A. Amendable B. Oppose
2. ABANDON C. Devise D. Illicit
A. Lose B. Profit 11. CONNIVE
C. Vacate D. Foil A. Overlook B. Grow
3. ADULATION C. Censure D. Defect
A. Embarrassment B. Fawning 12. CAJOLE
C. Veneration D. Praise A. Pause B. Lenient
4. ABDICATE C. Blast D. Lure
A. Rude B. Soft 13. HAUGHTY
C. Imperious D. Give up A. Imperial B. Imperious
5. BAFFLE C. Umpire D. Brave
A. Abet B. Enlighten 14. OPPORTUNE
C. Foil D. Taciturnity A. Timely B. Short lived
6. BUOYANT C. Occasional D. Temper
A. Support B. Unworthy 15. EXTERMINATE
C. Desponding D. Cheerful A. Extensore B. Rubbing
7. BLEMISH C. Soothing D. Extirpate
A. Eccentric B. Disgrace 16. VENERABLE
C. Fair D. Youth A. Watchful B. Lawful
8. BOOTY C. Respectful D. Hateful
 40

17. VORACIOUS 31. ZEST

A. Funny B. Venturous A. Anticipation B. Optimistic
C. Gluttonous D. Hungry C. Cruel D. Enthusiasm
18. INSOLVENT 32. SUFFICIENT
A. Rich B. Poor A. Fit B. Proper
C. Bankrupt D. Penniless C. Adequate D. Vast
19. REPEAL Directions (33–50): In each of these questions, you
A. Pass B. Cancel find a sentence, a part of which is bold. For the
C. Sanction D. Dishonour bold part, four words/phrases are suggested. Choose
20. LYNCH the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the bold
A. Murder B. Shoot part.
C. Killed D. Hang 33. His descriptions are vivid.
21. COMBAT A. Detailed B. Categorical
A. Fight B. Conflict C. Clear D. Ambiguous
C. Shoot D. Quarrel 34. Friends have always deplored my unsociable
22. LAMENT nature.
A. Condone B. Console A. Deprived B. Implored
C. Complain D. Contribution C. Denied D. Regretted
23. DEBACLE 35. Despite his enormous wealth, the businessman
A. Disgrace B. Defeat was very frugal in his habits.
C. Collapse D. Decline A. Reckless B. Law-abiding
C. Unpredictable D. Economical
24. SHIVER
A. Fear B. Tremble 36. He was engrossed in writing a story.
A. Absolved B. Absorbed
C. Shake D. Ache
C. Interested D. Engaged
25. TORTURE
A. Terror B. Harassment 37. People fear him because of his vindictive
nature.
C. Torment D. Tranquility
A. Violent B. Cruel
26. LAUDABLE C. Revengeful D. Irritable
A. Lovable B. Commendable
38. He always has a very pragmatic approach to
C. Profitable D. Oblivious
life.
27. FIXED A. Practical B. Proficient
A. Sterile B. Static C. Potent D. Patronizing
C. Stubborn D. Parennial
39. He was not at all abashed by her open
28. FANCIFUL admiration.
A. Romantic B. Beautiful A. Delighted B. Piqued
C. Imaginative D. Egoistic C. Embarrassed D. Livid
29. QUEER 40. Rahul was amazed at how affable his new
A. Unfamiliar B. Cute employer was
C. Curious D. Strange A. Demanding
30. OPPRESS B. Polite
A. Prosecute B. Trouble C. Repulsive
C. Persecute D. Perilous D. Quality-conscious
 41 AFCAT (Eng)-6

41. Since our plans are amorphous we shall send 51. When youngesters do not have good role-
you the detailed programme at a later date. models to emulate they start searching for
A. Impractical B. Prohibitive them amongst Sportsmen of Filmstars.
C. Inimical D. Formless A. imitate B. modify
42. Preeti’s arduous efforts had sapped her energy. C. molify D. inhabit
A. Over-ambitious B. Strenuous 52. The aberration in the India Economy can be
C. Sterile D. Apocryphal attributed to short-sightedness of its political
43. The manager’s articulate presentation of the masters.
advertising campaign impressed his employers. A. procrastination B. privilege
A. Well-prepared B. Effective C. deviation D. steadfastness
C. Superficial D. Banal 53. The claims of students look hollow when they
44. I do not wish to be beholden to anyone in this attribute their poor performance to difficulty
office of examination.
A. Dependent B. Opposed A. infer B. impute
C. Obligated D. Sycophant C. inhere D. inundate
45. We must prevent the proliferation of nuclear 54. As soon as he finished his speech, there was
weapons. spontaneous applause from the audience.
A. Use B. Increase A. well-timed B. willing
C. Expansion D. Extension C. instinctive D. instantaneous
46. The debate has instigated a full official 55. The soldier proved his mettle in the
enquiry into the incidence. battlefield.
A. Initiated B. Incited A. persistence
C. Forced D. Caused B. stamina and strength
47. The workers were full of applause for the new C. courage and endurance
policy of the management. D. heroism
A. Approval B. Adulation 56. He listened of my request with indifference.
C. Praise D. Eulogy A. disinterest B. concern
48. Her ostensible calm masked a deepseated fear. C. displeasure D. caution
A. Illusory B. Apparent 57. The accident occurred due to his lapse.
C. Dubious D. Visible A. trick B. interval
49. Sonu is an inveterate liar. C. error D. ignorance
A. Effective B. Habitual 58. Being a member of this Club, he has certain
C. Frequent D. Familiar rights.
50. The underworld still makes solid profit out of A. status B. truth
illicit liquor. C. virtues D. privileges
A. indigenous B. illegitimate 59. He is averse to the idea of holding elections
C. illegal D. country now.
Directions (Qs. 51 to 100): In each of the sentences A. convinced B. angry
given below a word is printed in bold. Below it C. agreeable D. opposed
four choices are given. Pick up the one which is 60. Silence is mandatory for meditation to be
most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word effective.
printed in bold and can replaces it without altering A. compulsory B. necessary
the meaning of the sentence. C. required D. needed
 42

61. The underworld still makes solid profit out of 71. The bullet wound proved to be fatal and the
illicit liquor. soldier died immediately.
A. indigenous B. illegitimate A. grievous B. dangerous
C. illegal D. country C. serious D. deadly
62. When I look back over the wartime years I 72. Whatever opinion he gives is sane.
cannot help feeling that time is an inadequate A. rational B. obscure
and even capricious measure of their duration C. wild D. arrogant
at one moment they seem so long, at another 73. He corroborated the statement of his brother.
so short. A. confirmed B. disproved
A. misleading B. whimsical C. condemned D. seconded
C. erratic D. unpredictable 74. Whatever the verdict of history may be,
63. The tablet alleviated the pain, and the patient Chaplin will occupy a unique place in its
was soon feeling much better. pages.
A. mitigated B. moderated A. judgement B. voice
C. removed D. lightened C. outcome D. prediction
64. The leader nodded his approbation 75. The attitude of the Western countries towards
A. understanding B. approval the Third World countries is rather callous to
C. admiration D. appreciation say the least.
A. passive B. unkind
65. We should always try to maintain and
C. cursed D. unfeeling
promote communal amity.
A. bondage B. contention 76. The story is too fantastic to be credible.
C. friendship D. understanding A. believable B. false
C. readable D. praiseworthy
66. Many species of animals have become extinct
during the last hundred years. 77. Catching snakes can be hazardous for people
A. aggressive B. non-existent untrained in the art.
C. scattered D. feeble A. tricky B. harmful
C. difficult D. dangerous
67. True religion does not require one to
78. After the dismal performance of the team in
proselytise through guile or force.
the series concluded yesterday, the captain
A. translate B. hypnotise
offered his resignation to the president of the
C. attack D. convert
club.
68. That the plan is both inhuman and A. poor B. sorrowful
preposterous needs no further proof. C. minimum D. short
A. heartless B. impractical 79. The small boy was able to give a graphic
C. absurd D. abnormal description of the thief.
69. She baffled all our attempts to find her. A. picture B. drawing
A. defeated B. thwarted C. vivid D. broad
C. foiled D. circumvented 80. The prisoner has been languishing in the jail
70. Instead of putting up a united front against of for the last many years.
common enemy, the medieval states frittered A. convicted B. suffering
away their energy in internecine warfare. C. attempting D. avoiding
A. mutually destructive 81. Some of the Asian countries have been
B. baneful enmeshed in an inescapable debt trap.
C. pernicious A. entagled B. hit
D. detrimental C. struck D. ensured
 43

82. In spite of their efforts, the team of scientists 92. Swift is known in the world of letters for his
could not make much headway to solve the misogynism.
problem. A. hate for mankind
A. progress B. thinking B. hate for womankind
C. efforts D. start C. love for the reasonable
83. On scrutiny the police officer found out that D. love for womankind
the documents provided by the landlord were 93. He was warned at the outset of his career.
totally fabricated. A. end B. beginning
A. forged B. historical C. middle D. entrance
C. prepared D. genuine
94. The time I spent in the library was a most
84. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and
rewarding one.
saved the Major from the enemy’s hand.
A. profitable B. paying
A. avoidable B. unusual
C. serviceable D. precious
C. strange D. abnormal
95. That young is quite sanguine about the result
85. He found a lucrative assignment.
A. good B. profitable of his competitive examination.
C. excellent D. significant A. depressed B. pessimistic
C. anxious D. optimistic
86. The novel was so interesting that I was
oblivious of my surroundings. 96. The courage shown by the soldiers at this
A. precarious B. unmindful moment of crisis is exemplary.
C. aware D. watchful A. suitable B. clear
87. The great dancer impressed the appreciative C. elementary D. admirable
crowd by his nimble movements. 97. The notice said that the meeting would begin
A. unrhythmic B. lively precisely at 9.30 a.m.
C. quickening D. clear A. approximately B. exactly
88. The president of the party deprecated the C. accurately D. concisely
move of the Government to introduce electroal 98. The inspector was a vigilant young man.
reforms in a haste. A. intelligent B. ambitious
A. welcomed B. denied C. watchful D. smart
C. protested D. humiliated
99. A rupture in the relationship of the two
89. It took him a long time to come round after brothers is quite apparent.
the operation. A. break B. damage
A. recover B. walk C. breach D. gap
C. move D. eat
100. “I have learnt a great deal working in factories,
90. Few teachers have been spared the problem of
and for a time I’ve been a weaver. Here are my
an obstreperous pupil in the class.
testimonials, Mr. Davis.”
A. sullen B. unruly
A. witnesses B. testaments
C. lazy D. awkward
C. tokens D. credentials
91. His visit to foreign countries brought about a
sea-change in his outlook and his attitude to Directions (Qs. 101 to 121): In the following
people. questions choose the word which is the exact
A. complete change opposite of the given word.
B. partial change 101. DEAR
C. favourable change A. Priceless B. Free
D. unfavourable change C. Worthless D. Cheap
 44

102. FLAGITIOUS 116. ABLE

A. Innocent B. Vapid A. Disable B. Inable
C. Ignorant D. Frivolous C. Unable D. Misable
103. LIABILITY 117. COMFORT
A. Property B. Assets A. Uncomfort B. Miscomfort
C. Debt D. Teasure C. Discomfort D. None of these
104. VIRTUOUS 118. GAIN
A. Wicked B. Corrupt A. Loose B. Fall
C. Vicious D. Scandalous C. Lost D. Lose
105. ENCOURAGE 119. SYNTHETIC
A. Dampen B. Disapprove A. Affable B. Natural
C. Discourage D. Warn C. Plastic D. Cosmetic
106. MORTAL 120. ACQUITTED
A. Divine B. Immortal A. Freed B. Burdened
C. Spiritual D. Eternal C. Convicted D. Entrusted
107. LEND 121. STRINGENT
A. Borrow B. Cheat A. General B. Vehement
C. Pawn D. Hire C. Lenient D. Magnanimous
108. COMIC Directions (Qs. 122 to 150) : Each of the following
A. Emotional B. Tragic items consists of a sentence followed by four words.
C. Fearful D. Painful Select the antonym of the word (occuring in the
109. ADDITION sentence in bold letters) as per the context.
A. Division B. Enumeration 122. What the critic said about this new book was
C. Subtraction D. Multiplication absurd.
110. MINOR A. Interesting B. Impartial
A. Big B. Major C. Sensible D. Ridiculous
C. Tall D. Heavy 123. The issue raised in the forum can be ignored.
111. REPEL A. Removed B. Considered
A. Attend B. Concentrate C. Set aside D. Debated
C. Continue D. Attract 124. After swallowing it the frog has become
112. ARTIFICIAL lethargic.
A. Red B. Natural A. Aggressive B. Dull
C. Truthful D. Solid C. Active D. Hungry
113. CAPACIOUS 125. For the first time I saw him speaking rudely
A. Limited B. Caring to her.
C. Foolish D. Changeable A. Softly B. Gently
114. PROVOCATION C. Politely D. Slowly
A. Vocation B. Pacification 126. Dust storms and polluted rivers have made it
C. Peace D. Destruction hazardous to breathe the air and drink the
115. METICULOUS water.
A. Mutual B. Shaggy A. Convenient B. Risky
C. Meretricious D. Slovenly C. Wrong D. Safe
 45

127. Only hard work can enrich our country. 139. A conscientious editor, he checked every
A. Impoverish B. Improve definition for its accuracy.
C. Increase D. Involve A. novice B. careless
128. He is man of extravagant habits. C. unscientific D. biased
A. Sensible B. Careful 140. Sharma’s craven refusal to join the protest
C. Economical D. Balanced was criticised by his comrades.
129. They employ only diligent workers. A. strategic B. bold
A. Unskilled B. Lazy C. diplomatic D. well-thought
C. Careless D. Idle 141. The dictator quelled the uprising.
130. His success in the preliminary examination A. fostered B. defended
made him complacent. C. supported D. fomented
A. Discontented 142. People are unwilling to follow the rules.
B. Self-satisfied A. waive B. neglect
C. Curious C. dispose D. disregard
D. Militant 143. That was an impudent remark.
131. In this competition, he has become the victor. A. gentle B. mild
A. Beaten B. Frustrated C. modest D. unassuming
C. Disappointed D. Vanquished 144. His sudden appearance on the scene was
132. His behaviour at social gatherings is laudable. fortuitous.
A. Condemnable B. Impolite A. circumstantial B. unfortunate
C. Unpleasant D. Repulsive C. sudden D. calculated
133. The characters in this story are not all fictitious. 145. The batsman gave a sterling performance.
A. Common B. Factual A. a risky B. a vital
C. Real D. Genuine C. an ordinary D. a match-saving
134. The reluctance of the officer was obvious. 146. While facing that situation he turned out to
A. Eagerness B. Hesitation be dauntless.
C. Enjoyment D. Unwillingness A. tactful B. stoical
135. He is a generous man. C. bashful D. cowardly
A. Stingy B. Uncharitable 147. We went to the first floor through the rickety
C. Selfish D. Ignoble wooden stairs.
136. He showed a marked antipathy to foreigners. A. stable B. old
A. profundity B. fondness C. narrow D. uncomfortable
C. objection D. willingness 148. They made a profigate use of scarce resources.
137. The authorities took the corrective action with A. proper B. extravagant
celerity. C. effective D. thrifty
A. reluctance 149. The consultant analysed the proposal
B. delay carefully before he decided to jettison it.
C. promptness A. abandon B. strengthen
D. lack of judgement C. accept D. modify
138. It seems churlish to refuse such a generous 150. The politician was flummoxed by the
offer. question put to him.
A. wise B. sensible A. comfortable B. annoyed
C. polite D. immature C. delighted D. disconcerted
 46

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D C D D C D B B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D B A D C C C B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C C B C B B C D C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C C D D B C A C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B A C B B C B B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C B C C A C D D A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B A B C B D C C A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D A A A D A D A C B
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A A B B B C C A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B B A D D B C A D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D A B C C B A B C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D B A B D C C D B C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
C C B C C D A C C A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D A C A A B B C D B
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D D A D C D A D C A
 ORDERING OF WORDS
The words form a sentence and convey their meaning The correct sequence should be
only when they are arranged in a proper order. One A. P Q R S B. P R S Q
must study and practise it regularly. C. Q P R S D. R S P Q
Directions (Qs. 1–100): In the following questions, 5. I think
some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. P : the members
You are required to rearrange these parts which Q : are basically in agreement
are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct R : of the group
sentence. Choose the option with proper sequence. S : on the following points.
1. We are doing The correct sequence should be
P : to the people A. R Q P S B. S Q R P
Q : to give relief C. P R Q S D. P Q S R
R : all we can 6. While it was true that
S : but more funds are needed P : I had
The correct sequence should be Q : to invest in industry
A. P Q R S B. R Q P S R : some lands and houses
C. Q P R S D. S P Q R S : I did not have ready cash
2. The man The correct sequence should be
P : when he was A. P Q R S B. P R S Q
Q : in the office last evening C. S Q P R D. Q P R S
R : could not finish 7. P : But your help
S : all his work Q : to finish this work
The correct sequence should be R : it would not have been possible
A. P Q R S B. Q R S P S : in time
C. R Q P S D. R S P Q The correct sequence should be
3. The people decided A. P R Q S B. S P Q R
P : they were going C. R P Q S D. P Q R S
Q : how much 8. The boy
R : to spend P : in the competition
S : on the construction of the school building Q : who was wearing spectacles
The correct sequence should be R : won many prizes
A. Q P R S B. P Q R S S : held in our college
C. P R Q S D. S Q P R The correct sequence should be
4. The man said that A. P Q R S B. R P S Q
P : those workers C. Q R P S D. Q P S R
Q : would be given a raise 9. About 200 years ago,
R : who did not go on P : in the south of India
S : strike last month Q : an old king
47
 48

R : ruled over a kingdom 15. Whenever I am,

S : called Rajavarman. P : with an old friend of mine
The correct sequence should be Q : in New Delhi
A. Q S R P B. P Q R S R : to have dinner
C. Q P S R D. Q S P R S : I always try.
10. P : his land The correct sequence should be
Q : a wooden plough A. S Q P R B. Q S R P
R : the Indian peasant still uses C. R P S Q D. P R Q S
S : to cultivate. 16. P : I don’t know
The correct sequence should be Q : must have thought
A. R Q P S B. Q P S R R : what people sitting next to me
C. S R Q P D. R Q S P S : but I came away.
11. He was a man, The correct sequence should be
P : even if he had to starve A. R S Q P B. R Q S P
Q : who would not beg C. P Q R S D. P R Q S
R : borrow or steal 17. P : in estimating the size of the earth
S : from anyone. Q : but they were hampered by the lack of
The correct sequence should be instruments of precision
A. P Q R S B. P R Q S R : ancient astronomers
C. Q R S P D. Q P R S S : used methods which were theoretically
12. P : in the progress of valid
Q : universities play a crucial role The correct sequence should be
R : our civilization A. R P Q S B. P R Q S
S : in the present age. C. R S Q P D. R P S Q
The correct sequence should be 18. P :
It is a pity that
A. S Q P R B. Q R S P Q :
by offering a handsome dowry
C. Q R P S D. S Q R P R :
a number of parents think that
13. P : far out into the sea S :
they will be able to ensure the happiness
Q : for the next two weeks there were further of their daughters
explosions The correct sequence should be
R : which hurled A. S Q R P B. P R S Q
S : ashes and debris. C. P S R Q D. P R Q S
The correct sequence should be 19. The common man
A. Q R P S B. R S P Q P : in nurturing
C. Q R S P D. S R P Q Q : a more active role
14. William Shakespeare, R : communal harmony
P : in his lifetime S : should play
Q : the great English dramatist The correct sequence should be
R : wrote thirty-five plays A. P R S Q B. S Q P R
S : and several poems. C. S Q R P D. P R Q S
The correct sequence should be 20. The doctor
A. P Q R S P : able to find out
B. R S P Q Q : what has caused
C. Q S R P R : the food poisoning
D. Q R S P S : has not been
 49 AFCAT (Eng)-7

The correct sequence should be 26. Life is judged

A. S P R Q B. P R Q S P : and not by
C. P R S Q D. S P Q R Q : of work done
21. P : was suspended R : the longevity of years
Q : the officer being corrupt S : by the quality
R : before his dismissal The correct sequence should be
S : from service A. Q S P R B. S Q R P
The correct sequence should be C. Q S R P D. S Q P R
A. Q P S R B. Q P R S 27. P : When he learns that
C. R S Q P D. R S PQ Q : you have passed the examination
22. With an unsteady hand R : in the first division
P : on my desk S : your father will be delighted
Q : from his pocket The correct sequence should be
R : he took an envelope A. Q P S R B. S P Q R
S : and threw it C. Q R S P D. S R Q P
The correct sequence should be 28. P : The journalist
A. Q R P S B. Q R S P Q : saw
C. R Q P S D. R Q S P R : countless number of the dead
23. P : she gave her old coat S : driving across the field of battle
Q : to a beggar The correct sequence should be
R : the one with the brown fur on it A. P Q S R B. P Q R S
S : shivering with cold C. P S Q R D. S R Q P
The correct sequence should be 29. P : Jane planned
A. S Q R P B. S P R Q Q : some stamps
C. P R Q S D. P S Q R R : to buy
S : this afternoon
24. It is a privilege
P : to pay tax The correct sequence should be
Q : of every citizen A. P R Q S B. P S Q R
R : as well as the duty C. Q R P S D. Q S P R
S : as well as the duty who is well-placed 30. Her mother
The correct sequence should be P : when she was
A. R P S Q B. S P R Q Q : hardly four years old
C. R Q S P D. S Q R P R : began to teach Neha
S : English
25. It is not good
P : of the wicked persons The correct sequence should be
Q : to overthrow A. R S Q P B. S R P Q
R : to accept the help C. R S P Q D. S R Q P
S : the righteous persons 31. P : Bill had
The correct sequence should be Q : a friend
A. R S Q P B. Q S R P R : an appointment
C. R P Q S D. Q P R S S : to meet
 50 AFCAT (Eng)-7-II

The correct sequence should be R : celebrates the Diamond Jubilee of its

A. P S R Q B. P R S Q independence
C. Q S R P D. Q R S P S : it also observes simultaneously the 150th
32. For fear Anniversary of the Great Indian Mutiny
P : that may or may not affect them perhaps The correct sequence should be
at first A. R S P Q B. Q P S R
Q : of upsetting young people C. R P S Q D. Q S P R
R : only healthy people over 80 should be
36. There have been
sequenced
P : a day after high intensity violence left at
S : about their genetic propensities
least 50 persons
The correct sequence should be Q : sporadic clashes between
A. S Q P R B. Q S R P R : dead in the northern city of Tripoli
C. S Q R P D. Q S P R S : the Lebanese army and militants
33. While traditional The correct sequence should be
P : under made-up Americans aliases A. Q S R P B. S Q R P
pretending familiarity with a culture and C. Q S P R D. S Q P R
climate
Q : India sleeps a dynamic young cohort of 37. Although
P : of non-owner managers came to be widely
highly skilled articulate professionals
R : they’ve never actually experienced appreciated
earning salaries that were undreamt of by Q : political freedom from the British masters
their elders R : came to us in 1947 it was not until
S : work through the night in the call centres S : well into the following decade that the
functioning on US time role
The correct sequence should be The correct sequence should be
A. P R Q S B. Q S P R A. S P Q R B. Q R S P
C. P S Q R D. Q R P S C. S R Q P D. Q P S R
34. IITs are 38. Conditions
P : of great self-confidence and competitive P : for marketing in the U.S. and Canada
advantage for India today Q : Mexico as a manufacturing base
Q : in science and technology which has R : that Indian companies aspiring to tap
become a source S : would have to fulfil include the complex
R : as they epitomize his creation of an rules of origin
infrastructure for excellence The correct sequence should be
S : perhaps Jawaharlal Nehru’s most A. R Q P S B. S P Q R
consequential legacy C. R P Q S D. S Q P R
The correct sequence should be 39. Aside
A. Q P S R B. S R Q P P : of the same three-storey building in the
C. Q R S P D. S P Q R military academy
35. As India Q : from eating in the same dining hall
P : from nearly 250 years of the British rule R : half to the north of the entrance half to
in India the south
Q : first major struggle for independence from S : the 206 troops live side by side on the
the British rule ground floor
 51

The correct sequence should be 44. The way

A. R P S Q B. Q S P R P : processes that govern their actions
C. R S P Q D. Q P S R Q : nutrients become integral parts
40. Russia’s test firing R : de pends on the physiol ogic al a nd
P : to US steps that have sparked an arms race biochemical
Q : of an intercontinental ballistic missile on S : of the body and contribute to its functions
R : and undermined world security The correct sequence should be
S : Tuesday was in response A. Q R S P B. P S R Q
The correct sequence should be C. Q S R P D. S P R Q
A. S Q P R B. Q S R P 45. Thus,
B. S Q R P D. Q S P R P : international surveys would hence forth
record
41. Marks, cities, civilization —
P : on the verge of globalization; poised to Q : if dirt-poor people in the developing world
Q : the slow ascent to where he is today, R : their wealth of happiness alongside their
material poverty
poised
R : it is in this order that primitive man made S : display a general sense of well-being
S : ac hieve unive rsa l prosperi ty a nd The correct sequence should be
abundance A. S Q R P B. Q S P R
The correct sequence should be C. S Q P R D. Q S R P
A. R Q P S B. P S R Q 46. It’s
B. R S P Q D. P Q R S P : someone who’s grieving but
Q : natural to feel uncomfortable
42. I bow my head
R : that prevent you from being there
P : for their sense of the beautiful in
S : or awkward when you have to help
Q : nature and for their foresight in investing
beautiful The correct sequence should be
R : manifestations of nature with a religious A. Q P S R B. R S P Q
significance C. Q S P R D. R P S Q
S : in reverence to our ancestors 47. Developing countries
The correct sequence should be P : along the equator, which
A. Q R S P B. S P Q R Q : could become leaders in energy
B. Q P S R D. S R Q P production
43. With all the crime and sleaze R : are expected to face the brunt of global
P : I am not sure how many parents will be warming
able to S : with a solar energy breakthrough
Q : how many will have the courage to satisfy The correct sequence should be
the child’s uncomfortable queries A. Q S P R B. P R Q S
R : that dominates the front page of the C. Q R P S D. P S Q R
newspapers today 48. A diversified
S : read out the headlines to their children P : use as a heating or power generation fuel
and if they do so by converting gas into
The correct sequence should be Q : adding a new dimension to the traditional
A. R P S Q B. S Q R P use of gas
C. R Q S P D. P R S Q R : of natural gas is emerging
 52

S : amongst other products, high quality Q : in a boy of fourteen

diesel transportation fuel virtually free of R : the mischief of early childhood
sulphur S : to tolerate even unavoidable faults
The correct sequence should be The proper sequence should be:
A. R P Q S B. S Q P R A. R P Q S B. Q R S P
C. R Q P S D. S P Q R C. Q R P S D. R P S Q
49. As things stand 54. I don’t remember
P : but a majority still does not have access P : I saw a man dying in front of a hospital
to English Q : but when I left Lucknow in 1984
Q : linguistic edge they are equipped with R : hit apparently by a fast moving car
R : after globally because of the S : the exact date
S : Indian professionals are much sought The proper sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be A. S Q R P B. S Q P R
A. R S P Q B. S R Q P C. Q R P S D. S P R Q
C. R S Q P D. S R P Q 55. Since the beginning of history
50. While advocates P : have managed to catch
P : of its provisions with the Q : the Eskimos and Red Indians
Q : there is some misguided concern about a R : by a very difficult method
possible clash of some S : a few specimens of this acquatic mammal
R : of social reform have generally hailed the The proper sequence should be:
new legislation A. Q P R S B. S Q P R
S : religious and customary practices in vogue C. S Q R P D. Q P S R
in the country
56. I saw that
The correct sequence should be P : but seeing my host in this mood
A. R Q P S B. Q R S P Q : I deemed it proper to take leave
C. R Q S P D. Q R P S R : as I had frequently done before
51. He has S : it had been my intention to pass the night
P : while has in a reverie there
Q : found the book The proper sequence should be:
R : at the bus-stop A. Q P S R B. Q R P S
S : he lost C. S P Q R D. S R P Q
The proper sequence should be: 57. It was to be
A. Q R S P B. P R Q S P : before their school examination
C. Q S R P D. P Q S R Q : which was due to start
52. Then the women R : the last expedition
P : lamenting their evil desire S : in a month’s time
Q : that had brought The proper sequence should be:
R : wept loudly A. S R Q P B. R Q S P
S : this sorrow upon them C. R P Q S D. S P R Q
The proper sequence should be: 58. They felt safer
A. R P Q S B. R Q P S P : to watch the mountain
C. P Q S R D. P R Q S Q : of more than five miles
53. It is easy to excuse R : as they settled down
P : but it is hard S : from a distance
 53

The proper sequence should be: 64. The appearance

A. R P S Q B. R S Q P P : this dinosaurs were at their peak
C. P Q S R D. P R S Q Q : of the first mammals on the earth
59. If you need help R : at the time when
P : promptly and politely S : went almost unnoticed
Q : ask for attendants The proper sequence should be:
R : to help our customers A. S R P Q B. Q S R P
S : who have instructions C. Q R P S D. R P Q S
The proper sequence should be: 65. It is easier
A. S Q P R B. Q P S R P : to venture into space
C. Q S R P D. S Q R P Q : for men
60. He was so kind and generous that R : beneath their feet
P : he not only S : than to explore
Q : made others do so The proper sequence should be:
R : but also A. Q R P S B. Q P S R
S : helped them himself C. P S R Q D. P Q S R
The proper sequence should be:
66. It is very easy
A. P S R Q B. S P Q R
P : a great deal more than one realises
C. P R S Q D. Q P R S
Q : may mean
61. People R : that a phrase that one does not quite
P : at his dispensary understand
Q : went to him S : to persuade oneself
R : of all professions
S : for medicine and treatment The proper sequence should be:
A. R S Q P B. S P Q R
The proper sequence should be:
C. S R Q P D. R Q P S
A. Q P R S B. R P Q S
C. R Q S P D. Q R P S 67. The national unity of a free people
P : to make it impracticable
62. When it began to rain suddenly on the first of
January Q : for there to be an arbitrary administration
P : to celebrate the new year R : depends upon a sufficiently even balance
Q : we ran for shelter of political power
R : to the neighbouring house S : against a revolutionary opposition that is
S : where many people had gathered irreconciably opposed to it.
The proper sequence should be: The proper sequence should be:
A. Q R P S B. P S Q R A. Q R P S B. Q R S P
C. P R S Q D. Q R S P C. R P Q S D. R S P Q
63. The master 68. He told us that
P : who was very loyal to him P : and enjoyed it immensely
Q : punished the servant Q : in a prose translation
R : without giving any valid reason R : he had read Milton
S : when he left the work unfinished S : which he had borrowed from his teacher
The proper sequence should be: The proper sequence should be:
A. R Q P S B. R Q S P A. R S Q P B. Q R P S
C. Q P S R D. Q R P S C. R Q S P D. R Q P S
 54

69. This time R : where other people were not allowed to

P : exactly what he had been told go
Q : the young man did S : but daddy belonged to the railway
R : beyond his dreams The proper sequence should be:
S : and the plan succeeded A. R P Q S B. P R S Q
The proper sequence should be: C. R S Q P D. P R Q S
A. Q P R S B. Q P S R 75. In the darkness
C. P Q S R D. Q S R P P : the long, narrow beard
70. As a disease Q : was clearly visible with
P : and breaks up marriages R : the tall stooping figure of the doctor
Q : accidents and suicides S : and the aquiline nose
R : alcoholism leads to The proper sequence should be:
S : affecting all ages A. R Q P S B. P S Q R
The proper sequence should be: C. R S Q P D. Q P R S
A. S R P Q B. R P S Q 76. It is foolish
C. S R Q P D. R Q P S P : of those who posses them
71. This majestic mahogany table Q : to believe that
P : belongs to an old prince R : will result in victory
Q : which has one leg missing S : the use of nuclear weapons.
R : who is no impoverished The correct sequence should be:
S : but not without some pride A. R S P Q B. Q S R P
The proper sequence should be: C. P R Q S D. S Q P R
A. P Q S R B. Q R S P 77. A distressing fact is that
C. P R S Q D. Q P R S P : social accountability
72. We have to Q : are dominated only by greed
P : as we see it R : many people today
Q : speak the truth S : and there is hardly any
R : there is falsehood and darkness The correct sequence should be:
S : even if all around us A. S R P Q B. Q S R P
The proper sequence should be: C. P R Q S D. R Q S P
A. R Q S P B. Q R P S 78. I once had
C. R S Q P D. Q P S R P : every morning
73. He sat Q : a client who swore
P : through the Town Hall Park R : for the past four years
Q : which flanked a path running S : she had a headache
R : under the boughs The correct sequence should be:
S : of a spreading tamarind tree A. P R S Q B. Q S P R
The proper sequence should be: C. R P Q S D. S Q R P
A. P Q S R B. R S Q P 79. People know
C. R S P Q D. P R S Q P : not only of the smokers themselves,
74. We went Q : that smoking tobacco
P : along the railway line R : but also of their companions
Q : and had a right to S : is injurious to the health
 55

The correct sequence should be: The correct sequence should be:
A. P S Q R B. R P S Q A. Q S P R B. S R Q P
C. Q P R S D. Q S P R C. R P S Q D. P Q R S
80. He had 85. The teacher warned that
P : finished his lunch P : he would not let
Q : hardly Q : go home
R : at the door R : those students
S : when someone knocked S : who do not finish the class work
The correct sequence should be: The correct sequence should be:
A. P Q R S B. P R Q S
A. Q P R S B. P Q R S
C. P R S Q D. R S P Q
C. Q P S R D. R P Q S
86. Towards the end of the eighteenth century,
81. Mr. Sexena was a profound scholar who quite a number of economists
P : was held in high esteem by all those P : in the near future
Q : who read his books and visited him Q : at the possibility of
regularly R : were seriously perturbed
R : till his untimely death S : the world facing starvation
S : though not popular with the general The correct sequence should be:
public A. P R Q S B. R Q S P
The correct sequence should be: C. Q S P R D. R P Q S
A. P Q R S B. R P Q S 87. The best way of understanding our own
C. S R Q P D. S P Q R civilization
82. The Government wants that P : is to examine
P : by the veterinary surgeons Q : an ordinary man
Q : by the butchers R : in the life of
R : all the goats slaughtered S : an ordinary day
S : must be medically examined The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be: A. P Q R S B. R Q P S
A. R P S Q B. Q S R P C. P S R Q D. R S P Q
C. R Q S P D. P R S Q 88. What greater thing is there
P : for two human souls to feel
83. The general line about television
Q : to rest on each other in all sorrow,
P : is that it is very exciting,
R : that they are joined for life,
Q : but also potentially very dangerous S : to strengthen each other in all labour
R : immensely powerful
The correct sequence should be:
S : that I took myself
A. S Q R P B. R P Q S
The correct sequence should be: C. Q R S P D. P R S Q
A. P Q R S B. S P R Q
89. Fame
C. P R Q S D. R P Q S P : by showing off
84. The second test of good government is that Q : to the best advantage
P : to every man and woman R : one’s ability and virtue
Q : and act only with their consent S : is earned
R : it should give a lot of freedom The correct sequence should be:
S : and should treat their personalities with A. P Q R S B. S P R Q
respect and sympathy C. P R S Q D. P Q S R
 56

90. When he was a child 96. The person who can state
P : passed his happiest hours P : correct than the person who cannot
Q : the boy who was to become Britain’s Q : is more likely to be
Baron Haden R : his antagonist’s point of view
R : staring out of his apartment window S : to the satisfaction of the antagonist
S : living in New York
The correct sequence should be:
The correct sequence should be: A. R S Q P B. R Q P S
A. Q S P R B. P R Q S C. P Q R S D. S Q R P
C. S Q P R D. R S Q P
97. The time has come
91. P : The teacher had to be specially careful
P : for future generations to come
Q : because he enjoyed the confidence
Q : that the ideal of peace is a distant ideal
R : about how he faced up to this problem
S : of all the boys R : or one which can be postponed
The correct sequence should be: S : when man must no longer think
A. P R Q S B. Q P S R The correct sequence should be:
C. S P R Q D. P S R Q A. P Q R S B. S Q R P
92. Movies made in C. Q R S P D. R S P Q
P : all around the globle 98. I had been staying with
Q : Hollywood in America P : at his cottage among the Yorkshire fells
R : by people Q : a friend of mine
S : are seen at the same time R : a delightfully lazy fellow
The correct sequence should be: S : some ten miles away from the railway
A. Q S R P B. Q R P S station
C. P S R Q D. Q P S R
The correct sequence should be:
93. P : The foundations of the prosperity of a state
A. P Q R S B. Q R P S
Q : primary health and education but also
C. Q R S P D. R Q P S
R : involves the creation of job oppotunities
S : does not merely rest on 99. All the evil in this world is brought about by
The correct sequence should be: person
A. P S Q R B. P Q R S P : when they ought to be up
C. P R Q S D. P S R Q Q : but do not know
94. I am pure R : nor what they ought to be doing
P : and will be happy S : who are always up and doing
Q : sooner or later The correct sequence should be:
R : a day will come A. P Q S R B. Q P R S
S : when all will be equal C. S Q P R D. P Q R S
The correct sequence should be:
A. Q P R S B. Q S R P 100. If all the countries
C. R Q S P D. R S Q P P : of mankind and agree to obey
Q : work together for the common good
95. P : To do his/her work properly
R : with each other and there will be no more
Q : it should be the pride and honour
R : without anybody forcing him/her war
S : of every citizen in India S : the laws, then they will never fight
The correct sequence should be: The correct sequence should be:
A. Q S R P B. P R Q S A. P Q R S B. Q S P R
C. Q S P R D. P Q R S C. Q P S R D. R Q P S
 57 AFCAT (Eng)-8

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D A B C C A C A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C D B D C B B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D C C B D B C A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B D B B C C C A B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B A C B C B A B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C A D B D D C A C A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C D C C B B D C B C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D D B B A B D B D C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D C B C B B C D B C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A A C C A B B C C
 ORDERING OF SENTENCES
A Paragraph is formed from sentences, it will convey R : The air connectivity through the national
its true meaning and purpose only when the airline is also diminishing.
sentences are arranged in a proper manner. Try and S : This aspect is evident in the low budget
practise it. allocated each year to this sector.
The proper sequence should be:
Directions (Qs. 1 to 100) : In these questions, each
A. Q S R P B. R P S Q
passage consists of six sentences. The first and the
C. Q R S P D. S Q P R
sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The
middle four sentences in each passage have been 3. S1 : Man cannot survive except through his
removed and jumbled up. These jumbled sentences mind. He comes on earth unarmed.
are labelled P, Q, R and S. Choose the proper S6 : To plant, he needs a process of thought;
sequence of the four sentences P, Q, R, and S from to hunt, he needs weapons; and to make
the alternatives A, B, C and D. weapons the process of thought.
1. S1 : I got a colourful bus, filled with all kinds P : Man has no claws, no fangs, no horns and
of strange people. no great strength of muscle.
S6 : It was a gate that neither separated nor Q : Animals obtain food by force.
connected anything from or to anything. R : He must plant his food or hunt it.
P : We arrived at a gate like the one in S : His brain is his only weapon.
Salvador Dali's paintings. The proper sequence should be:
Q : The bus rode across dirty expanses A. S Q P R B. P R Q S
without roads. C. Q S P R D. P Q S R
R : At first I wasn't aware that the bus roof 4. S1 : Bill Clinton is the US President.
was loaded with drugs. S6 : Looking at him, a lot of people are turning
S : Everyone was filled with dust and often vegetarian.
the wheels would sink into the soft soil. P : But that is not true of Mr. Clinton.
The proper sequence should be: Q : This had led him to be a vegetarian.
A. S P Q R B. Q R S P R : His philosophy is ‘Be simple’.
C. R Q S P D. R S P Q S : Men as powerful as him usually have
2. S1 : For the average Indian tourist the mention lavish tastes.
of Indonesia conjures visions of Bali and The proper sequence should be:
little else. A. S P Q R B. S P R Q
S6 : it is a pity since otherwise this largest C. R Q P S D. P Q S R
archipelogo in the world has much to offer 5. S1 : Large parts of Karnataka are located in
to the international visitor. the drought prone rain shadow of the
P : With cash flow problems, the airline has Western Ghats characterised by low and
had to cut down its overseas operations. unreliable rainfall.
Q : Tourism had not been much of a priority S6 : Once water is made available for irrigation
in this predominantly Muslim country of the economic picture of the area would be
210 million people. transformed.
58
 59

P : The project occupies a triangular area R : It was more deadly than any other weapon
lying between the Krishna and Bheema invented so far.
rivers. S : It is with this dread that scientists regard
Q : The Upper Krishna Project is being the first use to which their greatest
executed in the drought prone north discovery was put.
eastern part of Karnataka about 456 kms The proper sequence should be:
from Bangalore in the districts of Gulburga, A. P Q R S B. S Q P R
Raichur, Bagalkot and Bijapur. C. Q P R S D. R S Q P
R : The area though being subjected to 8. S1 : Human beings have the most common
vagaries of the monsoons has highly fertile trait of airing their individual views and
land. opinions.
S : The population in this area subsists S6 : A rigid and blind self-justification, though
mainly on agriculture. a common human weakness, will lead
The proper sequence should be: nowhere.
A. R S Q P B. P Q R S P : If everybody starts running after his own
C. Q P R S D. P S Q R point of view without caring for others,
6. S1 : As the icebergs drift away from the poles civilisation will soon perish.
towards warmer waters, they often invade Q : But we have to live in a society and
the paths of ships, and in times of fog cooperation is the basis of civilisation.
cause fearful collisions. R : Everybody has a right to live and lead his
S6 : More than fifteen hundred lives were lost. own life, but one should be tolerant of
P : Striking an iceberg without warning in others’ views.
the fog, she sank quickly. S : What is essential to live happily in this
Q : The Titanic was the largest ship in the world is a peaceful coexistence—to live
world at that time. and let others live.
R : She was sailing on her maiden voyage The proper sequence should be:
from Southampton to New York with more A. P R Q S B. Q P S R
than two thousand passengers and crew. C. R Q P S D. S R P Q
S : The biggest disaster of this kind ever re- 9. S1 : The northeastern region presents a diverse
corded was that of the Titanic on April system of habitats ranging from tropical
14, 1912. rain forests to alpine meadows.
The proper sequence should be: S6 : The winter temperature in Shillong, for
A. P Q R S B. S Q R P example, varies from 4ºC to 24ºC; in
C. Q R P S D. Q S P R Gangtok, from 9ºC to 23ºC.
7. S1 : The release of atomic energy is the greatest P : In eastern Himalayas, the rainfall ranges
achievement which science has yet at- from 125 to 300 cm; in Assam from 178
tained. to 305 cm.
S6 : However, the scientists are gratified by Q : The temperature in the region varies with
the numerous applications of atomic location, elevation, topography, rainfall
energy for peaceful and constructive and humidity.
purposes. R : This uneven distribution affects the region
P : But the first invention to which their dis- in two opposite ways, floods and droughts.
coveries were applied was a bomb. S : It is largely a humid tropical region with
Q : The atom was split by physicists whose two periods of rainfall; the winter rains
minds were set on the search for knowl- come from the west and the summer rains
edge. are brought by the monsoon winds.
 60

The proper sequence should be: 12. S1 : But Bhutan is a curious mix of modern
A. Q R S P B. S P R Q and the medieval.
C. P Q R S D. R S Q P S6 : His licence plate reads simply ‘BHUTAN’.
10. S1 : The coconuts are usually picked before P : It was next to a speed limit sign : 8 km
an hour.
they are quite ripe to stop them from
Q : Even the king zips through in a navy
falling to the ground or into the water.
blue Toyota Land Cruiser.
S6 : Like this, in a series of jerks, first feet and
R : I noticed a rusty sign for the Kit Kat
then hands, he goes right to the top of the
chocolate bar and realised it was the
tree taking the rope with him.
only advertisement I had seen.
P : First the fastens a strong piece of rope S : Yet in the cities, most middle class
around his ankles; then, he puts both hands people drive brand new Japanese cars.
around the smooth tree-trunk and grips it The proper sequence should be:
lower down with his bare feet. A. S Q R P B. R P S Q
Q : It is exciting to watch him climb. C. S P R Q D. R Q S P
R : To pick them, man climbs up the tree,
taking with him only a very sharp knife 13. S1 : His usually fretful features composed,
and a little coil of rope. Javagal Srinath announced his
S : When he is ready to start, he gives a jerk retirement from international cricket.
S6 : He finished with 236 wickets in 67 Tests
and moves his feet higher up the trunks,
and 315 in 229 One-day Internationals.
then another jerk and moves his hands.
P : He had spent the early years of his 13-
The proper sequence should be:
year career sitting out nine Tests when
A. P R S Q B. S Q P R
he was at his quickest, being reminded
C. Q P R S D. R Q P S
of everything he was not.
11. S1 : A city tour organised by the airport got Q : In a classic case of appreciating a good
our next vote. thing when it is gone, the tributes poured
S6 : “We can only grow in height as most of in for India’s most successful pace bowler
our land is reclaimed from the mud after Kapil Dev.
brought from neighbouring countries,” R : Not aggressive enough, not a non-
said Bernadette. vegetarian, not an all-rounder.
P : A bumboat ride through the Singapore S : Srinath soldiered on, whether wickets
River gave us a vantage view of the were flat or causes lost, as they often
country’s prized possession of were when India toured.
skyscrapers in the central business The proper sequence should be:
district. A. Q P R S B. R S Q P
Q : The tour is very popular with transit C. Q S R P D. R P Q S
passengers and there are many such buses 14. S1 : However, the flower industry also has
doing the route. its share of thorns.
R : We were greeted into an airconditioned S6 : Also, there are no tax concessions from
volvo bus with a bottle of chilled water. the Government.
S : On the drive through the ‘colonial heart’ P : Most companies have to individually
of the city, our guide, Bernadette, invest in the transport, which is very
pointed out the Parliament House, costly.
Supreme Court and City Hall to us. Q : Then there are infrastructural
The proper sequence should be: bottlenecks—no refrigerated transport or
A. R S Q P B. P Q S R retail chains and ware-houses to store
C. R Q S P D. P S Q R the highly perishable commodity.
 61

R : For one, it is extremely fragmented and R : But that could not last for ever.
dominated by small players who don’t S : Most of my time was spent in the fields,
have the financial muscle to expand the where I nibbled the tender grass and
business. capered about, while my mother was
S : Ferns & Petals claims to be the only steadily grazing.
flower retailer with a multi-city presence The proper sequence should be:
in India. A. S-R-Q-P B. Q-P-S-R
The proper sequence should be: C. Q-R-S-P D. S-P-Q-R
A. Q S R P B. R P Q S 17. S1 : A stamp is, to many people, just a slip
C. Q P R S D. R S Q P of paper that takes a letter from one
15. S1 : One could well be forgiven for town or country to another.
momentarily confusing Spencer Plaza, S6 : An album, a packet of hinges, a new
Chennai, with a Dubai Shopping Mall. supply of stamps, and the time passes
S6 : Sensing that healthcare plus tourism swiftly and pleasantly.
adds to big opportunities, corporate P : But they do not realise that there are
hospitals, in cooperation with tour many who do buy, many who find the
operators, are promoting India as a effort worth-while and many who, if they
healthcare destination from the Middle do not spend their time collecting
East to far East. stamps, would spend it less profitably.
P : Having satiated their shopping instincts, Q : They are unable to understand why do
many head back, not to a hotel, but to we stamp collectors find so much
a hospital, and to ailing relatives. pleasure in collecting them.
Q : Arabs pour in and out of trendy R : To them it seems a waste of time, a
showrooms, laden with bags full of waste of effort and a waste of money.
branded clothes, footwear and cosmetics. S : We all seek something to do in our
R : It is a scenario being replicated across leisure hours and what better occupation
India. is there to keep us out of mischief than
S : For these are tourists with a difference, that of collecting stamps?
attracted to India for its cutting edge The proper sequence should be:
medical expertise more than its charms. A. S P R Q B. Q P R S
The proper sequence should be: C. S R P Q D. Q R P S
A. Q P S R B. S R Q P 18. S1 : The British wanted it to be their answer
C. Q R S P D. S P Q R to the American White House.
16. S1 : Now that I am getting old and stiff in S6 : In the end it earned him a place in the
the joints, I like to meditate, while history books.
grazing in the pasture, on my foal days. P : Today, the Head of the Indian Republic
S6 : When I was old enough, the trainer came occupies just a handful of the 340 rooms.
and, to my great indignation, fastened a Q : No wonder Edwin Lutyens didn’t mind
long rope to my head, and then began that the 17-year assignment earned him
driving me round and round in circles just £ 5,000.
with his long whip. R : But the 354-acre complex is an apt
P : I had no work to do, and could run example of the expertise of a man who
about after my mother, who was a fine wanted the Rashtrapati Bhavan to be an
white Arab mare, without any restraint. object of admiration forever.
Q : I think that was the happiest part of my S : Though the answer was good enough,
life. the British didn’t anticipate that within
 62

17 years of building the Viceroy House, S6 : Dreams are the sunrise streamers heralding
they would have to leave the country a new day of scientific progress, another
and the architectural wonder would be forward surge.
renamed Rashtrapati Bhavan. P : We must not be so superficial that we
The proper sequence should be: fail to discern the practicableness of
A. R Q S P B. S P R Q dreams.
C. S Q R P D. R P S Q Q : Where they differ from the logician and
the scientist is in the temporal sense
19. S1 : And the biggest wonder about the
alone; they are ahead of their time, where
Harappan cities is, simply put, their brick.
logicians and scientists are abreast of
S6 : In other words, the brick was just like
their time.
the platinum rod kept in Paris to define
R : The truth is that poets are just as
the world standard of time. practical as people who build bridges or
P : Some archaeologists have ventured look into microscopes; and just as close
further. to reality and truth.
Q : If at all the size varied in some sites, it S : Now, it is accurate to refer to poets as
still retained the same length – breadth dreamers, but it is not discerning to infer,
– height proportion everywhere! as this person did, that the dreams of
R : It had a standard size, be it in Mohen- poets have no practical value beyond
jodaro or Harappa, Kalibangan or Lothal. the realm of literary diversion.
S : They say that even the constructions – The proper sequence should be:
the houses and the cities – were built in A. S P Q R B. Q R S P
the same proportion as the brick. C. S R Q P D. Q P S R
The proper sequence should be: 22. S1 : What was his great power over the mind
A. R Q P S B. S P Q R and heart of man due to?
C. R P Q S D. S Q P R S6 : That truth made the service of the poor
20. S1 : Freedom and power bring responsibility. and the dispossessed the passion of his
S6 : That future is not one of ease or resting life, for where there is inequality and
but of incessant striving so that we may discrimination and suppression there is
fulfil the pledges we have so often taken injustice and evil and untruth.
and the one we shall take today. P : That truth led him to proclaim without
P : Some of these pains continue even now. ceasing that good ends can never be
Q : Before the birth of freedom we have attained by evil methods, that the end
endured all the pains of labour and our itself is distorted if the method pursued
hearts are heavy with the memory of is bad.
this sorrow. Q : Even we realize that his dominating
R : Nevertheless, the past is over and it is passion was truth.
the future that beckons to us now. R : That truth led him to fight evil and untruth
S : That responsibility rests upon this wherever he found them, regardless of
assembly, a sovereign body representing the consequences.
sovereign people of India. S : That truth led him to confess publicly
The proper sequence should be: whenever he thought he had made a
A. P R S Q B. S R P Q mistake – Himalayan errors he called
C. P Q S R D. S Q P R some of his own mistakes.
The proper sequence should be:
21. S1 : The other day we heard someone A. S R Q P B. Q P S R
smilingly refer to poets as dreamers. C. Q R S P D. S P Q R
 63

23. S1 : Political empowerment apart, the state R : Gavaskar called him “the closest thing
should recognise the right to life of to batting perfection this game has ever
every citizen. seen”.
S6 : The state should prepare for the seasons S : Sachin has established his stamp over
ahead, not just winter, and create shelters all types of attack.
on a war footing. The proper sequence should be:
P : Places of religious worship play an A. P Q S R B. R Q S P
important role in this respect, providing C. P S Q R D. R S Q P
food and shelter. 26. S1 : Jagan has been working in our home for
Q : Where lives are at stake, resource crunch over 25 years.
cannot work as an excuse. S6 : Then came the question of raising his
R : It can still intervene to save lives, by children on the paltry sum of money he
ensuring that offices, schools and other earned washing cars and sweeping
institutions that function only during homes.
the day are used as night shelters. P : And another
S : However, civil society organisations Q : Till finally his wife delivered a son and
cannot be expected to compensate for he declared his innings.
state neglect. R : I remember the day his first daughter
The proper sequence should be: was born.
A. S Q R P B. R P S Q S : And then came another.
C. S P R Q D. R Q S P The proper sequence should be:
24. S1 : This is the age of knowledge. A. R P S Q B. Q S P R
S6 : Not surprisingly then that we Indians C. R S P Q D. Q P S R
are often labelled as being overly 27. S1 : Diabetes is a silent killer and because it
superstitious. does not seem as potent as cancer or
P : Logic and intuition are no longer AIDS is very often overlooked without
enemies. too much heed by patients.
Q : It is also the Age of Aquarius. S6 : Though diabetes can never be totally
R : The two live together comfortably in cured it can definitely be controlled from
every Indian household. causing serious consequences.
S : So why should superstitions be P : Worse, as many as a third of them don’t
considered out of place in this age of even know it.
nanotechnology and computers? Q : Untreated diabetes can lead to heart and
The proper sequence should be: kidney failure, amputations and even
A. Q P S R B. R S P Q death.
C. Q S P R D. R P S Q R : Millions of people suffer from diabetes.
25. S1 : Sachin has scored centuries against all S : The early symptoms of diabetes are often
oppositions, in all countries. confused with other less grave conditions.
S6 : But largely, he has been the dictator, The proper sequence should be:
giving nightmares to quality bowlers of A. S Q R P B. R P S Q
the world. C. S P R Q D. R Q S P
P : There have been those rare occasions 28. S1 : Ships, built in dry docks are launched
when he looked entangled at the crease. amidst chanting of Atharva Veda.
Q : In fact, some of his most memorable S6 : The latest INS Mumbai is the tenth
essays came in adverse conditions. reincarnation of its original INS Bombay.
 64

P : Even now newer warships are given The proper sequence should be:
names of old decommissioned warships. A. S R Q P B. Q P S R
Q : One of the enduring superstitions of the C. S P Q R D. Q R S P
Navy is that old ships don’t die. 31. S1 : While crossing a busy road we should
R : In Europe, they break champagne bottles obey the policeman on duty.
on the bow; in India we break coconuts. S6 : We should never run while crossing a
S : It derives from the animistic belief that road.
a ship has a soul that lives on and that P : We should always cross the road at the
it is reborn. zebra crossing.
The proper sequence should be: Q : We must look to the signal lights and
A. R Q S P B. S P R Q cross the road only when the road is
C. R P S Q D. S Q R P clear.
29. S1 : Jaswant Singh of 4 Garhwal Rifles was R : If there are no signal lights at the
apparently relaxing at 10,000 feet when crossing, we should look to the right,
he spotted a whole battalion of Chinese then to the left and again to the right
troops advancing towards an Indian before crossing the road.
Army post. S : If the road is not clear we should wait.
S6 : Versions of the story vary. The proper sequence should be:
P : They surrounded him, captured the three A. P S R Q B. P Q R S
and beheaded them. C. R Q S P D. Q R P S
Q : Finally the enemy sent a scout party to 32. S1 : As a dramatist Rabindranath was not
ascertain the real strength of the Indian what might be called a success.
defence, and they found just a rifleman S6 : Therefore, drama forms the essential part
and two girls. of the traditional Indian culture.
R : After the war, the Chinese, impressed by P : His dramas were moulded more on the
the rifleman’s valour, gave his head back lines of the traditional Indian village
to the Indians, who set up a temple for dramas than the dramas of the modern
him. world.
S : With just one 303 and ammunition Q : His plays were more a catalogue of ideas
supplied by two girls from an abandoned than a vehicle of the expression of action.
dump, he mowed down about 50 enemy R : Actually drama has always been the life
troopers. of the Indian people, as it deals with
The proper sequence should be: legends of gods and goddesses.
A. P Q S R B. S R P Q S : Although in his short stories and novels
C. P R S Q D. S Q P R he was able to create living and well-
30. S1 : Each creature of the sea has its own defined characters, he did not seem to be
significance for seamen. able to do so in his dramas.
S6 : A dead dolphin is a bad omen. The proper sequence should be:
P : One reason could be that dolphins and A. S R Q P B. Q P S R
sharks do not cohabit. C. Q S P R D. R S Q P
Q : Sighting a dolphin is supposed to bring 33. S1 : The Hound of Baskervilles was feared
luck. by the people of the area.
R : A dolphin swimming with the ship S6 : The Hound of Baskervilles remains an
brings good luck. unsolved mystery.
S : Upon sighting the first dolphin on a P : Some people spoke of seeing a huge,
voyage even the admiral will come up shadowy form of a hound at midnight on
on deck to watch it. the moor.
 65 AFCAT (Eng)-9

Q : But they spoke of it in tones of horror. Q : Let’s take examples.

R : Nobody had actually seen the hound. R : A young man, who wants to become a
S : This shadowy form did not reveal any goldsmith or a silversmith, becomes an
details about the animal. apprentice with a seasoned man in that
The proper sequence should be: craft.
A. S P Q R B. S P R Q S : After a few years of apprenticeship, he
C. P S R Q D. P Q R S learns the ins and outs of it and becomes
34. S1 : All the land was covered by the ocean. a skillful craftsman.
S6 : The god moulded the first people out of The proper sequence should be:
clay according to his own image and A. S P Q R B. Q R S P
mind. C. S R Q P D. Q P S R
P : The leading god fought the monster, 37. S1 : Yet, things are not that bad.
killed it and chopped its body into two S6 : Fortune, after all, favours the brave, not
halves. the complainers.
Q : A terrible monster prevented the gods P : Some of the successful people started
from separating the land from the water. out with more handicaps than us.
R : The god made the sky out of the upper Q : It is time we stopped feeling sorry for
part of the body and ornamented it with ourselves and got over our doubts and
stars. fears to face the world.
S : The god created the earth from the lower R : If we look around ourselves, we find
part, grew plants on it and populated it people who had less than us but went on
with animals. to make their fortunes.
The proper sequence should be: S : Perhaps we can replicate what they did
A. P Q R S B. P Q S R for themselves.
C. Q P S R D. Q P R S The proper sequence should be:
35. S1 : Over decades, we have made things a lot A. R Q S P B. S P R Q
worse. C. R P S Q D. S Q R P
S6 : In the end, it can destroy the entire village. 38. S1 : When you have to study for examination,
P : It has proved quite disastrous. you have many things to do.
Q : The unregulated spread of borewells was S6 : The final aim, of course, is to pass the
an early form of water privatisation. examination that is two months away.
R : Many poor farmers have seen their dug P : Suppose you have only two months to
wells sucked dry as neighbours collar all do it.
the groundwater. Q : The time-table tells you what you have
S : The richer you are, the more wells you to do everyday and for how many hours.
can sink, the deeper you can go. R : You have to read a number of books,
The proper sequence should be: learn tables and formulas.
A. Q S P R B. P Q R S S : Then the best way is to make a time-
C. Q P R S D. P S Q R table for yourself.
36. S1 : The fact is that good writing is a craft The proper sequence should be:
which can be acquired like any other A. R P S Q B. S R Q P
craft. C. Q R S P D. P S Q R
S6 : In short, he has to become a wordsmith. 39. S1 : The umpire has to do a lot of hard work
P : Much the same is the case with the one before qualifying to supervise a match.
who aspires to become a good craftsman S6 : So an umpire must keep abreast of time
of English. and apply the rules as occasion demands.
 66 AFCAT (Eng)-9-II

P : However, umpires are human and are S6 : Things have changed considerably now.
sometimes prone to make mistakes. P : These people were accustomed to
Q : The rules of the game are being applying their intelligence to the
constantly changed. profession of their fathers.
R : The players should gracefully and Q : Since independence it has spread to
sportingly accept these mistakes. backward classes.
S : He is aware of the responsibilities that R : They had no idea that they could train
go with the job. themselves to do something else.
The proper sequence should be: S : Besides this training they had little book
A. Q P R S B. S P R Q learning.
C. S R P Q D. Q R P S The proper sequence should be:
40. S1 : Mohan came to the city to meet a friend. A. P Q R S B. Q P R S
S6 : He should not have behaved so rudely. C. P Q S R D. Q P S R
P : Mohan asked her to join them for tea. 43. S1 : There was once a king in India.
Q : Mohan’s friend who had some grudge S6 : The three sons did not know what to do
against Sheila quickly got up and left and where to go.
the restaurant without saying a word. P : The captain of the king’s army wanted
R : While they were having tea at a restaurant the kingdom for himself.
Sheila, a former fellow-student of theirs, Q : He died leaving three sons.
came in. R : The eldest of the three sons would have
S : Though Sheila knew Mohan’s friend was become the king.
a bad fellow, she accepted the invitation. S : So he drove the three sons away and
The proper sequence should be: took everything in the kingdom in his
A. P R S Q B. R P S Q possession.
C. P R Q S D. R P Q S The proper sequence should be:
41. S1 : When the Romans invaded Britain about A. P R Q S B. P S Q R
2,000 years ago, their calendar was C. Q S P R D. Q R P S
calculated on the phases of the moon. 44. S1 : An old man died and left his son a lot of
S6 : The astronomer’s name was Sosigenes money.
and his calendar had a year of 365 days. S6 : He became sad and lonely.
P : This calendar had gradually become so P : Soon the had nothing left.
out of line with the seasons that it was Q : The son was foolish young man.
two or three months behind. R : All his friends left him.
Q : The Emperor Julius Caesar was S : He quickly spent all his money.
determined to correct it. The proper sequence should be:
R : Caesar had been to Egypt and seen the A. S Q R P B. Q S P R
advantages of a calendar which used only C. S Q P R D. Q S R P
the sun. 45. S1 : Siberian crane is a migratory bird.
S : So he sought help from a Greek S6 : They return to Siberia at the onset of
astronomer who lived in the Egyptian summer in India.
city of Alexandria. P : They remain here for four-five months.
The proper sequence should be: Q : Migrating birds are those which travel to
A. R Q P S B. P Q R S other places for a period of time and
C. P S R Q D. R S P Q then return.
42. S1 : Education is in great demand today in R : They can’t sustain in the severe winter
India. of Siberia.
 67

S : So during winters they travel thousands Q : Finally, therefore, she picked up the
of miles to reach the bird sanctuary in Mahatma’s nickel-plated watch and
Rajasthan in India. showed it to him.
The proper sequence should be: R : “I must go away”, Gandhi remarked, and
A. Q R S P B. Q P S R so saying he rose, went to the adjoining
C. S R Q P D. S P Q R bath room and then started towards the
46. S1 : The removal of corruption prevalent in prayer ground.
our country is a difficult problem. S : But she knew Gandhi’s attachment to
S6 : Corruption can be removed only when we punctuality.
improve our character. The proper sequence should be:
P : None is ready and willing to perform this A. S P R Q B. R Q S P
Herculean task. C. S Q R P D. R P S Q
Q : It is difficult to prove that Mr. X is corrupt. 49. S1 : Soon after he returned to the civilian life,
R : The legal system of the country provides Kennedy wrote a short essay.
no solution to it. S6 : Such a recurrence would mean increased
S : The investigating officer is himself corrupt taxation which, in its turn, would hamper
and allows the man to remain unpunished. the functioning of free enterprise and
The proper sequence should be: affect the chances of full employment.
A. Q R P S B. P S Q R P : He had his own logic for it.
C. Q S P R D. P R Q S Q : He advanced an argument that after the
47. S1 : A boy used to play pranks with his mother war, efforts should be made to prevent the
by hiding himself in a wooden box. recurrence of an arms-race.
S6 : Thus the box he used to hide in turned out R : In this essay Kannedy tried to draw the
to be his coffin. Lessons from the ghastly experiences of
P : The latch accidentally got locked, and the the war.
boy, unable to open it, died of asphyxiation. S : It was published in February 1945, aptly
Q : One day the playful boy, studying in the titled : “Let’s try an Experiment in Peace.”
fifth standard, refused to go to school. The proper sequence should be:
R : In a bid to surprise his mother he got into A. P Q R S B. S R Q P
the empty wooden box and pulled down C. P R Q S D. S Q R P
the lid. 50. S1 : Radio and television are the two most
S : His mother was so upset by this that she accessible media.
locked him up in the house and went to S6 : Many of them are led to buy and use
work. cosmetics and edibles they do not need.
The proper sequence should be: P : Their teste and choice have been affected
A. Q S R P B. S Q R P by commercial advertisements that come
C. Q S P R D. S Q P R with sponsored programmes.
48. S1 : Abha, along with Gandhi and Patel, Q : The most vulnerable to the influence of
hesitated to interrupt. this wave are children.
S6 : He leaned his forearms on their shoulders R : This is mainly because of the advertisement
and moved forward. wave it has created.
P : Abha, the young wife of Kanu Gandhi, S : Of the two, television has greater impact.
grandson of the Mahatma’s cousin, and The proper sequence should be:
Manu the grand daughter of another A. S P Q R B. Q R S P
cousin, accompanied him. C. S R Q P D. Q P S R
 68

51. S1 : She said on the phone that she would The proper sequence should be:
report for duty next day. A. Q R S P B. R S Q P
S6 : Eventually we reported to the police. C. R Q S P D. Q R P S
P : We waited for a few days, then we 54. S1 : It is regrettable that there is widespread
decided to go to her place. corruption in the country at all levels.
Q : But she did not. S6 : This is indeed a tragedy of great
R : We found it locked. magnitude.
S : Even after that we waited for her for P : So there is hardly anything that the
quite a few days. government can do about it now.
The proper sequence should be: Q : And there are graft and other malpractices
A. P R S Q B. Q P S R too.
C. Q P R S D. S Q P R R : The impression that corruption is a
52. S1 : A force of attraction exists between universal phenomenon persists and the
everybody in the universe. people do not cooperate in checking this
S6 : The greater the mass, the greater is the evil.
S : Recently several offenders were brought
earth’s force of attraction on it—we call
to book, but they were not given
this force of attraction gravity.
deterrent punishment.
P : Normally it is very small but when one
The proper sequence should be:
of the bodies is a planet, like the earth, A. Q S R P B. S Q R P
the force is considerable. C. R S Q P D. P Q S R
Q : It has been investigated by many
scientists including Galileo and Newton. 55. S1 : It was a dark moonless night.
R : Everything on or near the surface of the S6 : They all seemed to him to be poor and
earth is attracted by the mass of the ordinary—mere childish words.
P : He turned over the pages, reading
earth.
passages here and there.
S : This gravitational force depends on the
Q : He heard them on the floor.
mass of the bodies involved.
R : The poet took down his books of poems
The proper sequence should be:
from his shelves.
A. P R Q S B. P R S Q
S : Some of them contained his earliest
C. Q S R P D. Q S P R writings which he had almost forgotten.
53. S1 : Metals are today being replaced by The proper sequence should be:
polymers in many applications. A. R P Q S B. R Q S P
S6 : Many Indian Institutes of Science and C. R S P Q D. R P S Q
Technology run special programmes on 56. S1 : A noise started above their heads.
polymer science. S6 : Nearly two hundred lives were lost on
P : Above all, they are cheaper and easier to the fateful day.
process, making them a viable alternative P : But people did not take it seriously.
to metals. Q : That was to show everyone that there
Q : Polymers are essentially long chains of was something wrong.
hydrocarbon molecules. R : It was a dangerous thing to do.
R : Today polymers as strong as metals have S : For, within minutes the ship began to
been developed. sink.
S : These have replaced the traditional The proper sequence should be:
chromium-plated metallic bumpers in A. P Q S R B. P R Q S
cars. C. Q P R S D. Q P S R
 69

57. S1 : The cooperative system of doing Q : It shows how the human being is a
business is a good way of encouraging rational one, an ethical one and a
ordinary workers to work hard. spiritual one.
S6 : The main object is to maintain the R : More than all, it must be a spiritual
interest of every member of the society experience.
and to ensure that the members S : Nothing can give him fulfilment unless
participate actively in the projects of the it satisfies his reason, his ethical
society. conscience.
P : If the society is to be well run, it is The proper sequence should be:
necessary to prevent insincere officials A. P S R Q B. R S P Q
being elected to the committee which is C. Q P S R D. P S Q R
solely responsible for the running of the
60. S1 : I usually sleep quite well in the train,
business.
but this time I slept only a little.
Q : They get this from experienced and
S6 : It was shut all night, as usual.
professional workers who are not only
P : Most people wanted it shut and I wanted
familiar with the cooperative system, but
it open.
also with efficient methods of doing
business. Q : As usual, I got angry about the window.
R : To a large extent, many cooperative R : The quarrel left me completely upset.
societies need advice and guidance. S : There were too many people and too
S : The capital necessary to start a business much luggage all around.
venture is obtained by the workers’ The proper sequence should be:
contributions. A. R S Q P B. S Q P R
The proper sequence should be: C. S Q R P D. R S P Q
A. S Q P R B. P Q S R 61. S1 : For decades, American society has been
C. S R Q P D. P S R Q called a melting pot.
58. S1 : American private lives may seem S6 : In recent years, such differences—
shallow. accentuated by the arrival of immigrants
S6 : This would not happen in China, he from Asia and other parts of the world in
said. the United States—have become
P : Students would walk away with books something to celebrate and to nurture.
they had not paid for. P : Differences remained—in appearance,
Q : A Chinese journalist commented on a mannerisms, customs, speech, religion
curious institution: the library. and more.
R : Their public morality, however, Q : The term has long been a cliche, and a
impressed visitors. half-truth.
S : But in general they returned them. R : But homogenisation was never
The proper sequence should be: achieved.
A. P S Q R B. Q P S R S : Yes, immigrants from diverse cultures
C. R Q P S D. R P S Q and traditions did cast off vestiges of their
59. S1 : The Bhagavadgita recognises the nature native lands and become almost
of man and the needs of man. imperceptibly woven into the American
S6 : A man who does not harmonise them, is fabric.
not truly human. The proper sequence should be:
P : All these three aspects constitute the A. Q R S P B. S Q R P
nature of man. C. S Q P R D. Q S R P
 70

62. S1 : While talking to a group, one should S : He also thought that the human machine
feel self-confident and courageous. was partly controlled by the soul action
S6 : Any man can develop his capacity if he on a certain part of the brain, while
has the desire to do so. animals had no souls
P : Nor is it a gift bestowed by Providence The proper sequence should be:
on only a few. A. P R S Q B. R P Q S
Q : One should also learn how to think C. P S Q R D. R Q P S
calmly and clearly.
65. S1 : But how does a new word get into the
R : It is like the ability to play golf.
dictionary?
S : It is not as difficult as most men
S6 : He sorts them according to their
imagine.
grammatical function, and carefully
The proper sequence should be:
writes a definition.
A. S Q P R B. Q S P R
P : When a new dictionary is being edited, a
C. Q R S P D. R S Q P
lexicographer collects all the
63. S1 : In 1934, William Golding published a alphabetically arranged citation slips for
small volume of poems. a particular word.
S6 : But Lord of the Flies which came out in Q : The dictionary makers notice it and
1954 was welcomed as “a most make a note of it on a citation slip.
absorbing and instructive tale”. R : The moment a new word is coined, it
P : During the World War II (1939-45) he usually enters the spoken language.
joined the Royal Navy and was present S : The word then passes from the realm of
at the sinking of the Bismarck. hearing to the realm of writing.
Q : He returned to teaching in 1945 and The proper sequence should be:
gave it up in 1962, and is now a full- A. P Q R S B. P R S Q
time writer. C. R Q P S D. R S Q P
R : In 1939, he married and started teaching
at Bishop Wordsworth’s School in 66. S1 : The heart is the pump of life.
Salisbury S6 : All this was made possible by the
S : At first his novels were not accepted. invention of the heart-lung machine.
The proper sequence should be: P : They have even succeeded in heart
A. R P Q S B. R P S Q transplants.
C. S R P Q D. S Q P R Q : Nowadays surgeons are able to stop a
patient’s heart and carry out complicated
64. S1 : Our ancestors thought that anything
operations.
which moved itself was alive.
R : A few years ago it was impossible to
S6 : Therefore some scientists think that life
operate on a patient whose heart was not
is just a very complicated mechanism.
working properly.
P : The philosopher Descartes thought that
S : If the heart stops we die in about five
both men and animals were machines.
Q : But a machine such as a motorcar or a minutes.
steamship moves itself, and as soon as The proper sequence should be:
machines which moved themselves had A. S R Q P B. S P R Q
been made, people asked, “Is man a C. S Q P R D. S R P Q
machine?” 67. S1 : Throughout history man has used
R : And before the days of machinery that energy from the sun.
was a good definition. S6 : This energy comes from inside atoms.
 71

P : Today, when we burn wood or use S : Hence, he will be free spiritually if not
electric current we are drawing on physically.
energy. The proper sequence should be:
Q : However, we now have a new supply of A. P Q R S B. SRQP
energy. C. Q P R S D. QPSR
R : All our ordinary life depends on the sun.
S : This has come from the sun. 71. S1 : The dictionary is the best friend for your
The proper sequence should be: task.
A. S Q P R B. R Q P S S6 : Soon you will realize that this is an
C. Q S R P D. P S R Q exciting task
P : That may not be possible always.
68. S1 : In India marriages are usually arranged
Q : It is wise to look it up immediately.
by parents.
R : Then it must be firmly written on the
S6 : She felt she was a modern girl and not a
memory and traced at the first
subject for bargaining
opportunity.
P : Sometimes girls and boys do not like the
idea of arranged marriages. S : Never allow a strange word to pass
Q : Most young people accept this state of unchallenged.
affairs. The proper sequence should be:
R : Shanta was like that. A. P Q R S B. S P Q R
S : They assume their parents can make C. Q R P S D. S Q P R
good choices. 72. S1 : Far away in a little street there is a poor
The proper sequence should be: house.
A. S P R Q B. P S R Q S6 : His mother has nothing to give but
C. Q S P R D. R Q P S water, so he is crying
69. S1 : I had halted on the road. P : Her face is thin and worn and her hands
S6 : I decided to watch him for a while and are coarse, pricked by a needle, for she is
then go home. a seam-stress.
P : As soon as I saw the elephant I knew I Q : One of the windows is open and through
should not shoot him. it I can see a poor woman.
Q : It is a serious matter to shoot a working R : He has fever and he is asking for
elephant. oranges.
R : I knew that his ‘mast’ was already S : In a bed in a corner of the room her little
passing off. boy is lying ill.
S : The elephant was standing eighty yards The proper sequence should be:
from the road. A. S R Q P B. P Q S R
The proper sequence should be:
C. Q P S R D. R S P Q
A. S P Q R B. P Q S R
C. R Q P S D. S R P Q 73. S1 : Kolkata unlike other cities, has kept
its trams.
70. S1 : A man can be physically confined
within stone walls. S6 : The foundation stone was laid in 1972.
S6 : No tyranny can intimidate a lover of P : As a result, there is horrendous
liberty. congestion.
P : But his mind and spirit will still be free. Q : It was going to be the first in South Asia.
Q : Thus his freedom of action may be restricted. R : They run down the centre of the road.
R : His hopes and aspirations still remain S : To ease in the city decided to build an
with him. underground railway line.
 72

The proper sequence should be: P : Though they are functionally similar to
A. P R S Q B. P S Q R the hummingbirds of the New World,
C. S Q R P D. R P S Q they are totally unrelated.
74. S1 : We now know that oceans are very deep. Q : They do eat small insects too.
S6 : This reaches from India to the Antarctic. R : They are also some of the most
P : For example, the Indian Ocean has a brilliantly-coloured birds.
range called the Indian Ridge. S : Sunbirds feed on nectar mostly and help
Q : Much of it is fairly flat. in pollination.
R : However, there are great mountain The proper sequence should be:
ranges as well. A. S Q P R B. R P S Q
S : On average the bottom is two and a half C. Q P R S D. P S R Q
to three and a half miles down. 78. S1 : Venice is a strange and beautiful city in
The proper sequence should be: the north of Italy.
A. S Q P R B. P Q S R S6 : This is because Venice has no streets.
C. R S Q P D. Q P R S P : There are about four hundred old stone
75. S1 : As he passed beneath her he heard the bridges joining the island of Venice.
swish of her wings. Q : In this city there are no motor cars, no
S6 : The next moment he felt her wings horses and no buses.
spread outwards. R : These small islands are near one another.
P : He was not falling head long now. S : It is not an island but a hundred and
Q : Then monstrous terror seized him. seventeen islands.
R : But it only lasted a minute. The proper sequence should be:
S : He could hear nothing. A. P Q R S B. P R Q S
The proper sequence should be: C. S R P Q D. P Q S R
A. P S Q R B. Q S P R 79. S1 : A ceiling on urban property.
C. Q S R P D. P R Q S S6 : Since their value would exceed the
76. S1 : When a satellite is launched, the rocket ceiling fixed by the Government.
begins by going slowly upwards P : No mill-owner could own factories or
through the air. mills or plants.
S6 : Consequently, the rocket still does not Q : And mass circulation papers.
become too hot. R : Would mean that.
P : However, the higher it goes, the less air S : No press magnate could own printing
it meets. presses.
Q : As the rocket goes higher, it travels The proper sequence should be:
faster. A. Q S R P B. R P S Q
R : For the atmosphere becomes thinner. C. S R P Q D. Q P S R
S : As a result there is less friction. 80. S1 : The weather-vane often tops a church
The proper sequence should be: spire, tower or high building.
A. Q P R S B. Q S P R S6 : The weather-vane can, however, give us
C. P Q R S D. P Q S R some indication of the weather.
77. S1 : Sunbirds are among the smallest of P : They are only wind-vanes.
Indian birds. Q : Neither alone can tell us what the weather
S6 : Our common sunbirds are the purple will be.
sunbird, the glossy black species and R : They are designed to point to the
purplerumped sunbird, the yellow and direction from which the wind is
maroon species coming.
 73 AFCAT (Eng)-10

S : Just as the barometer only tells us the future growth, and this has failed to meet
pressure of the air, the weather-vane tells the requirements.
us the direction of the wind. The proper sequence should be:
The proper sequence should be: A. P Q S R B. Q P S R
A. P Q R S B. P S R Q C. R Q P S D. R S Q P
C. P R S Q D. S P Q R 84. S1 : A gentleman who lived alone always
81. S1 : Most of the universities in the country had two plates placed on the table at
are now facing financial crisis. dinner time.
S6 : The Government should realise this S6 : In this way the cat showed her gratitude
before it is too late. to her master.
P : Cost benefit yardstick thus should not P : One day just as he sat down to dine, the
be applied in the case of the universities. cat rushed into the room.
Q : The current state of affairs cannot be Q : One plate was for himself and the other
allowed to continue for long. was for his cat.
R : Universities cannot be equated with R : She dropped a mouse into her own plate
commercial enterprises. and another into her master’s plate.
S : Proper development of universities and S : He used to give the cat a piece of meat
colleges must be ensured from his own plate.
The proper sequence should be: The proper sequence should be:
A. Q R P S B. Q S P R A. Q S P R B. P S R Q
C. Q R S P D. Q P R S C. Q R S P D. R P Q S
82. S1 : I keep on flapping my big ears all day. 85. S1 : I took cigarettes from my case.
S6 : Am I not a smart, intelligent elephant? S6 : Then he continued to draw on it.
P : They also fear that I will flap them all P : But when the fit of coughing was over,
away. he replaced it between his lips.
Q : But children wonder why I flap them so. Q : I lit one of them and placed it between
R : I flap them so to make sure they are the lips.
safely there on either side of my head. R : Then with a feeble hand he removed the
S : But I know what I am doing. cigarette.
The proper sequence should be: S : Slowly he took a pull at it and coughed
A. S R Q P B. Q P S R violently.
C. Q P R S D. P S R Q The proper sequence should be:
83. S1 : Urban problems differ from State to State A. P S Q R B. Q P S R
and city to city. C. Q S R P D. S R P Q
S6 : There is no underground drainage 86. S1 : Forcasting the weather has always been
system in most cities, and the narrow a difficult business.
historical roads are already congested. S6 : He made his forecasts by watching
P : Most of the cities have neither water nor flights of the birds or the way smoke
the required pipelines. rose from fire.
Q : The population in these cities has grown P : During a period of drought, streams and
beyond the planners’ imagination. rivers dried up, the cattle died from thirst
R : However, certain basic problems are and the crops were ruined.
common to all cities. Q : Many different things affect the weather
S : Only broad macro-planning was done and we have to study them carefully to
for such cities, without envisaging the make an accurate forecast.
 74

R : Ancient Egyptians had no need of this S6 : Poor girl!

weather in the Nile valley hardly ever P : I really gave it up.
changes. Q : And so when I went to jail I said to
S : In early times, when there were no myself I really must give it up, if for no
instruments, such as thermometer or the other reason than of being self-reliant.
barometer, man looked for tell-tale signs R : When I emerged from jail, I wanted to
in the sky. tell her of my great triumph!
The proper sequence should be: S : But when I met her, there she was with a
A. P R Q S B. Q P R S packet of cigarettes.
C. Q R P S D. S P Q R The proper sequence should be:
87. S1 : Once upon a time there lived three A. P S R Q B. S P Q R
young men in a certain town of C. Q P R S D. R S P Q
Hindustan. 90. S1 : A black-haired, young woman came
S6 : All of them set out in search of their foe tripping along.
called Death. S6 : Both disappeared from view.
P : All the people of the neighbourhood P : She was leading a young man wearing a
were mortally afraid of them. hat.
Q : They were so powerful that they could Q : The woman swept it off and tossed it in
catch growling lions and tear them to the air.
pieces. R : The child jumped up to catch the hat.
R : Someone told them that they would S : The young man tossed his head to shake
become immortal if they killed Death. the hat back.
S : The young men believed themselves to The proper sequence should be:
be very good friends. A. P S Q R B. R P S Q
The proper sequence should be: C. Q R P S D. S Q R P
A. Q P R S B. S Q P R 91. S1 : Jawaharlal Nehru was born in Allahabad
C. R S Q P D. S R P Q on 14 Nov., 1889.
88. S1 : Duryodhana was a wicked prince. S6 : He died on 27 May, 1964.
S6 : This enraged Duryodhana so much that P : Nehru met Mahatma Gandhi in
he began to think of removing Bhima February, 1920.
from his way. Q : In 1905 he was sent to London to study
P : One day Bhima made Duryodhana fall at a school called Harrow.
from a tree from which Duryodhana was R : He became the first Prime Minister of
stealing fruits. Independent India on 15 August, 1947.
Q : He did not like that Pandavas should be S : He married Kamla Kaul in 1915.
loved and respected by the people of The proper sequence should be:
Hastinapur. A. Q R P S B. Q S P R
R : Duryodhana specially hated Bhima. C. R P Q S D. S Q R P
S : Among the Pandavas, Bhima was 92. S1 : An elderly lady suddenly became blind.
extraordinarily strong and powerful. S6 : The lady said that she had not been
The proper sequence should be: properly cured because she could not
A. P S Q R B. Q P R S see all her furniture.
C. Q S R P D. P S R Q P : The doctor called daily and every time
89. S1 : You know my wife, Madhavi, always he took away some of her furniture he
urged me to give up smoking. liked.
 75

Q : At last, she was cured and the doctor P : Then a chance customer would come.
demanded his fee. Q : Young Lincoln’s way of keeping shop
R : She agreed to pay a large fee to the was entirely unlike anyone else’s.
doctor who would cure her. R : Lincoln would jump up and attend to
S : On being refused, the doctor wanted to his needs and then revert to his reading.
know the reason. S : He used to lie full length on the counter
The proper sequence should be: of the shop eagerly reading a book.
A. P Q R S B. R P Q S The proper sequence should be:
C. R S P Q D. R Q P S A. S R Q P B. Q S P R
93. S1 : The path of Venus lies inside the path of C. S Q R P D. Q P S R
the Earth. 96. S1 : Minnie went shopping one morning.
S6 : When at its brightest, it is easily seen S6 : She drove home with an empty
with the naked eye in broad daylight. shopping basket.
P : When at its farthest from the Earth, P : Disappointed she turned around and
Venus is 160 million miles away. returned to the parking lot.
Q : With such a wide range between its Q : She got out and walked to the nearest
greatest and least distances it is natural shop.
that at sometimes Venus appears much R : She drove her car into the parking lot
brighter than at others. and stopped.
R : No other body ever comes so near the S : It was there that she realised that she’d
Earth, with the exception of the Moon forgotten her purse at home.
and an occasional comet or asteroid. The proper sequence should be:
S : When Venus is at its nearest to the earth A. R S Q P B. R Q S P
it is only 26 million miles away. C. P Q R S D. Q P R S
The proper sequence should be: 97. S1 : Several sub-cities have been planned
A. S R P Q B. S Q R P around the capital.
C. P S Q R D. Q P R S S6 : Hopefully the housing problem will not
94. S1 : Religion is not a matter of mere be as acute as at present after these sub-
dogmatic conformity. cities are built.
S6 : A man of that character is free from fear, P : Dwarka is the first among them.
free from hatred. Q : They are expected to alleviate the
P : It is not merely going through the ritual problem of housing.
prescribed to us. R : It is coming up in the south-west of the
Q : It is not a question of ceremonial piety. capital.
R : Unless that kind of transformation S : It will cater to over one million people
occurs, you are not an authentically when completed.
religious man. The proper sequence should be:
S : It is the remaking of your own self, the A. Q P R S B. P R S Q
transformation of your nature. C. P Q R S D. Q R S P
The proper sequence should be: 98. S1 : Just as some men like to play football or
A. S P R Q B. Q P S R tennis, so some men like to climb
C. P S R Q D. S P Q R mountains.
95. S1 : For some time in his youth, Abraham S6 : You look down and see the whole
Lincoln was manager of a shop. country below you.
S6 : Never before had Lincoln had so much P : This is often very difficult to do, for
time for reading as he had then. mountains are not just big hills.
 76

Q : Paths are usually very steep, and some Q : She advertised in newspapers for women
mountain-sides are straight up and staff.
down, so that it may take many hours to R : They operate in two shifts.
climb as little as one hundred feet. S : The response was good.
R : There is always the danger that you may The proper sequence should be:
fall off and be killed or injured. A. P Q S R B. S Q P R
S : Men talk about conquering a mountain, C. Q S P R D. P Q R S
and the wonderful feeling it is to reach 100. S1 : Your letter was a big relief.
the top of a mountain after climbing for S6 : But don’t forget to bring chocolate for
hours and may be, even for days. Geeta.
The proper sequence should be: P : How did your exams go?
A. P Q R S B. Q P S R Q : After your result, you must come here for
C. R Q P S D. S R Q P a week.
99. S1 : Ms. Paras started a petrol pump in R : You hadn’t written for over a month.
Madras. S : I am sure you will come out with flying
S6 : Thus she has shown the way for many colours.
others. The proper sequence should be:
P : A total of twelve girls now work at the A. P S R Q B. Q R P S
pump. C. R P S Q D. R S P Q

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C A B C B C B A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A A D C D D B A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A B C D C B A D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C D D A B C A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D D B A D A C B A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C D A A D C A B B B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B B A C A A D C B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D C D A C A A C B D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B D A C B B C C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B B A B B B A A C C
 COMPREHENSION
Comprehension is a very important part of General
PASSAGE-1
English paper. The questions on comprehension lay
particular stress on understanding a given passage. The group of tired dusty riders arrived at a fork in
You are required to read a passage and answer a few the road. Their leader immediately sprang to the
questions based on it. Various comprehension ground after first throwing his rein to one of the
questions are set solely with the objectives named others, and began to examine minutely the sandy
below: track. The problem was simple; if the fleeing enemy
1. To test your ability to detect the central idea had taken the left turning, there remained little
or the focal point in the given passage. hope of catching them, since he knew that it led
2. To test your ability to understand and back to a small settlement of native huts where they
interpret the given passage. should be sheltered by the friendly inhabitants. If,
3. To judge your capability to pick out the on the other hand, they had branched to the right,
various arguments put forward by the writer they would have before them the open desert, not
for or against something. a flat expanse of sand such as they had just crossed,
4. To test your accuracy and richness of but a country broken by a series of ridges, behind
vocabulary. any of which a whole army could hide.
5. To test your academic ability to understand He turned to his companions to see if he could
the implied and the clearly and fully read any solution in their faces. But they were too
expressed ideas of the writer of the passage. occupied by their aching limbs and several were
6. To test, occasionally, your power of taking a quick drink from the flasks which hung at
appreciating critically the views contained in their belts. He realised every minute’s delay
the given passage. lessened their chances of overtaking their
While answering comprehension questions, you adversaries. So, with a rapid glance at the sun, he
must comply with the following important points: jumped once more into the saddle and with his
1. First, read the whole passage attentively, whip indicated the way they were to go.
carefully and quickly.
2. Read it for the second time, slowly but Questions
steadily. 1. Why did the leader look at the sun?
3. Work out the probable meaning of new A. To estimate what daylight still remained
words, from the context in which they have B. He sent a silent prayer to the sun-god to
been used. show the way
4. Underline and look for transitional words and C. To estimate chances of their overtaking
phrases as an aid to comprehension. their adversaries
5. The process of elimination should be used D. To estimate their position in the desert
while selecting the correct answer. 2. What, if any, was the difference in the nature
6. Your answers should be brief and to the point. of the terrain they had already traversed and
Directions: Read the following passages carefully the one lying ahead?
and choose the best answer to each of the A. The country-side already traversed was
questions out of the four alternatives. ups and downs
77
 78

B. There was hardly any difference as it was

PASSAGE-2
a vast expanse of unending desert
C. The terrain hitherto was dusty and tiring, Just as some men like to play football or cricket, so
the road ahead led back to a habitation some men like to climb mountains. This is often
D. What they had crossed was a flat expanse very difficult to do so, for mountains are not just big
of sand and what they lay ahead to the hills. Paths are usually very steep. Some mountain
right was a series of ridges of sand sides are straight up and down, so that it may take
many hours to climb as little as one hundred feet.
3. What difficulties did they expect if they took
There is always the danger that you may fall off and
the branch to the right? be killed or injured. Men talk about conquering a
A. The open desert ahead promised no oasis mountain. It is a wonderful feeling to reach the top
to shelter them at night of a mountain after climbing for hours and may be,
B. They were absolutely in the dark about even for days. You look down and see the whole
what they lay ahead of them country below you. You feel god-like. Two Italian
C. Ahead lay a country full of ridges of sand prisoners of war escaped from a prison camp in
providing cover to the fleeing enemy Kenya during the war. They did not try to get back to
D. They would have before them the open their own country, for they knew that was impossible.
desert obstructing pursuit Instead, they climb to the top of Mount Kenya, and
4. What was the aim of the group of riders? then they came down again and gave themselves
A. They were fleeing from a pursuing enemy up. They had wanted to get that feeling of freedom
B. They had a small settlement of native huts that one has, after climbing a difficult mountain.
as their goal Questions
C. They were exploring a desert
1. Some men like to climb mountains because:
D. They were pursuing a fleeing enemy
A. They know the trick of climbing
5. What difficulties did the pursuers expect if B. They don’t like to play football or cricket
they took to the left hand track? C. They want to have wonderful feeling
A. It led through a trackless expanse of D. They like to face danger
unending desert 2. To climb mountains is often difficult because:
B. It led to a settlement where the residents A. mountains are big hills
would surely shelter the enemy they were B. it consumes more time
after C. prisoners often escape from camps and
C. The settlement it led to was hostile to battle there
them D. paths are steep and uneven
D. The leader anticipated a possible revolt
3. Mountaineering is not a very popular sport
among his followers, foot-sore, dust
like football or cricket because:
covered and tired as they already were. A. there are no spectators in this sport
6. Where and why did they stop? B. it may take many hours or even days
A. At a fork in the road to examine the sandy C. not many people are prepared to risk their
track for foot-prints of the fleeing enemy lives
B. At the huts of some friendly inhabitants in D. people don’t want to enjoy a god-like
order to rest their weary limbs feeling
C. At a three-way crossing where the leader 4. It is a wonderful feeling .... . It refers to:
wanted to study the position of the sun in A. the steep path
the sky B. the prisoners
D. At a fork in the road in order to decide C. the mountain
whether they should turn left or right D. mountaineering
 79

D. he encountered no danger while rowing

PASSAGE-3
the boat
Although he was born in a little village near the 3. What accounted for his dislike of the sea?
coast and had gone to school in the nearest sea-side A. Being not a good swimmer, he feared that
town, Ram Mehar, was not a lover of the sea; even he might get drowned in the sea
when walking along the sands, he was always afraid B. The protruding cliffs made navigation
of being cut off by the tide. He was not a good dangerous
swimmer, so perhaps this accounts for it. C. He was accustomed to comfortable city
After working for some years in Calcutta, he life
was transferred to a coast resort and, of course, the D. Many a tragedy had occurred in the past
family outings were often made to the beach. One near the sea coast
day his children pleaded to go out into the bay in 4. Ram Mehar was nervous of walking along the
a boat. The sun shone brightly. There was little sands because:
wind and the water was calm. So Ram Mehar hired A. he had no love for the sea
a boat and with his two children rowed out into the B. there the sea was infested with deadly
bay. Of course, they were tempted to go further than monsters
they had intended, past the protecting cliffs and out C. he feared that tide may cut him off from
to the open sea. At first all went well, but when they the land
decided to turn back, they encountered difficulties. D. the sea was too deep even near the coast
A strong breeze had sprung up and the currents here
were rather treacherous. PASSAGE-4
Ram Mehar rowed very hard, but it seemed The bulk of our population is poor and illiterate.
they were making little progress. The children were Their sorry condition poses a problem. On one
waving to attract the attention of the people on the hand, there is a shortage of teachers for adult
beach. Just then a motor-boat appeared from the education and, on the other, the adults feel shy of
direction of the bay. Their plight had been noticed starting to learn at a late age and atttend classes like
and the boat had come to their rescue. children. Moreover, the adult villagers have little
A line was soon attached and they were towed time to spare for attending classes. The job of a
back round the cliff to the shore. Ram Mehar’s dislike farmer is very strenuous and he needs ample rest
of the sea was not diminished by this experience. and relaxation. In addition, he finds that what is
taught at adult centres of education has no bearing
Questions on his daily needs and therefore he has become
1. What did the children plead to be allowed to cynical about adult education. It is necessary to
do? make adult education in villages agriculture-
A. Climb the cliff to have a better view of the oriented so as to make it more meaningful for the
bay farmer. In towns and cities also, adult education
B. Go to a coast resort needs to be made work-based. It should comprise
C. Go for a outing on the beach types of system in which earning and learning go
D. Go out into the bay in a boat together side-by-side. Efforts should be made to
discourage the tendency of the village folk to
2. Ram Mehar was tempted to go farther away
migrate to the towns.
from the land than he had intended because:
A. he enjoyed rowing in the bright sunshine Another aspect of the problem is the
B. the sea was calm, there being little wind confinement of industry to cities and towns. What
C. his children wanted to go far out in the is called the industrial area is entirely the
sea monopoly of the cities. For expansion of education
 80

and literacy in the rural areas, it is necessary that feelings they have for their parents and are
industry should be dispersed in the villages also. influenced in their turn by the personalities of the
An important development that has taken place in teachers. This mutual relationship is of more
the countryside is the phenomenal success of the importance than any teaching method, and a child’s
Green Revolution. ability to learn is continually hampered if the
relationship is unsatisfactory. Again, if teachers
Questions really want to be educators, to help children to
1. What is needed for adult education in develop into satisfactory men and women, and not
villages is that: simply to stuff them with knowledge, they will only
A. it should be made agriculture-oriented be really successful if they themselves have sound
B. it should be free personalities. No amount of preaching, however
C. it should be made compulsory well done, no principles however sound, no clever
D. it should be available in every village technique of mechanical aids can replace the
2. The main problem in educating the adult influence of a well-developed personality.
villagers is:
A. their financial helplessness to purchase
Questions
books, etc. required for studies 1. Teachers will be real educators by:
B. they hardly find time to attend classes A. adopting advanced teaching methods
C. their inability to read and write B. stuffing children with knowledge
D. there is no room for schools in villages C. developing sound personalities of their
3. A farmer has grown cynical about education own
because: D. through good teaching aid
A. what is taught in such schools is mostly of 2. The central idea of the passage is that:
no use in his daily life A. teachers should develop sound
B. there is no one in his family to look after personalities of their own to be able to
his cultivation when he goes to attend the influence the children
classes. B. informal education is better than formal
C. he has no time to go to school education
D. he has no money to pay the fees for C. there should be more research done in
education education
4. One of the main problems of adult education D. parents should have the right relationship
in the country is: with teachers of their children
A. poor financial condition of the people 3. The writer recommends to the teachers to
B. shortage of teachers for such schools deepen their understanding of themselves on
C. shortage of school buildings the assumption that it:
D. want of funds with the government for A. will earn them a name of nation-builders
such schools B. is their duty
C. will make them earn more
PASSAGE-5 D. helps to build a well-developed personality
Just as it is vital for parents to live their own lives 4. The teachers and educators are important to
as fully as possible and to deepen their the children because:
understanding of themselves to the utmost, so it is A. without them they would remain ignorant
important for teachers and educators to do the same. B. they help them to get jobs
When children go to school their teachers become, C. they serve as substitutes for parents in
during school hours, substitutes for their parents. schools
The children transfer to the teacher some of the D. they preach good principles
 81 AFCAT (Eng)-11

of the problem that faces, and always had faced, the

PASSAGE-6
human race whatever its form of organisation. It
Once a man saw that three masons along with some springs from the fact that the material resources of
labourers were constructing a temple. He observed the world are limited and that our ability to make
the masons for some days and found that though use of those resources is even more limited by our
the three of them were doing the same kind of work, ignorance.
there was a marked difference in their approach to Everthing that we need to satisfy our wants has
their job. to be derived finally from two sources --- the natural
He saw that the first mason reported for his resources that are available and the human ability
work late, did his work half-heartedly and to make use of them. As our knowledge grows and
sluggishly, enjoyed longer respite, frequently we increase our skill, we can exploit more and more
checked the time on his wrist-watch and left the of the opportunities that nature offers us. The
work before time. increase in communications, for example, has made
The second mason was very punctual in accessible many minerals from depths below the
arriving and leaving, and did his work earth’s surface that could not be reached by earlier
methodically and conscientiously. generations. But whatever the rate of development
The third mason, however, would come before may be, there is, at any one time, a limit to the total
time, took little rest in the interval and often of what can be produced. Here and now, there is
worked over-time. only so much of the material resources of the world
The man naturally got curious and wanted to accessible to us and there are only so many people
know the three masons’ outlook on their work. He capable of work and endowed with the capacities
asked them what they were doing. The first mason and skills that they have developed. No doubt we
tapped his protruding belly with his hand and said, waste a lot by stupidity even if the very best
I am earning fuel for this bloody belly. The second possible use is made of all the resources we can
said, I am constructing a building. The third looked reach, there is still a limit to what can be produced
at the stately edifice and said, I am building the out of them, and it is out of that total that we must
house of God. all satisfy our wants.
Questions Questions
1. The first mason was: 1. Some of the material resources are:
A. lazy B. sick
A. wasted by man’s stupidity
C. hard-working D. active
B. neglected by man
2. The first mason was concerned only with his: C. accessible to man
A. wages B. job D. stored for the future
C. time D. rest
2. The first sentence of the passage tells us that
3. The masons and labourers were building a: scarcity is:
A. club B. monastery A. created by war
C. school D. temple
B. caused by human beings
4. The third mason approached his work with: C. not permanent
A. zest B. skill D. present in all human societies
C. duty D. dedication
3. The main idea of the passage is:
A. the cause of scarcity
PASSAGE-7 B. the need to work hard
Scarcity not created by war; it is a permanent C. how to overcome scarcity
characteristic of all human society and is the basis D. the need to increase our knowledge
 82 AFCAT (Eng)-11-II

4. The cause of scarcity is: B. Stimulation obtained from a set aim

A. limited natural resources and still more C. Highest creative action
limited knowledge of how to use them D. Proper training of the mind to achieve
B. the limitation of man’s knowledge perfection
C. human ignorance of natural resources 2. Which of the following could lead to success?
D. the limitation of various natural resources A. Cherishing the memories of the past
B. Preparing oneself to face the probable
PASSAGE-8 sorrow of the future
The great Acharyas have said that having C. Bringing all the energy into activity
discovered a great goal, surrender yourself to that D. Being alert about the excitement of the
goal and act towards it drawing your inspiration present
from that goal whereby you will get a new column 3. What is the effect of the wrong training of the
of energy. Do not allow this energy to be dissipated mind?
in the futile memories of the past regrets or failures, A. We have become perfect in all aspects
nor in the imagined sorrows of the future, nor in the B. Art of action too much emphasized
excitement of the present. And this bring that entire C. Each of us could become master artist
focus into activity. That is the highest creative D. We could avoid wastage of our energy
action in the world outside. Thereby, the individual E. None of these
who is till now considered most efficient, finds his
4. The author’s chief aim is:
way to the highest achievement and success.
A. establishment of socialistic pattern
This is said very easily in a second. But in B. the car accidents resulting from each of
order to train our mind to this attitude, it needs driving skill
considerable training because we have already C. discovery of a great goal in life
trained the mind wrongly to such an extent that we D. regulation of energy in proper direction
have become perfect in imperfections. Not knowing
the art of action, we have been master artists in
PASSAGE-9
doing the wrong thing. The totality of activity will
bring the country to a wrong end indeed. In our boyhood we beheld the dying rays of that
If each one is given a car to achieve an ideal intimate sociability which was characteristic of the
socia-listic pattern and nobody knows how to drive, last generation. Neighbourly feelings were then so
what would be the condition on the road? strong that the informal gatherings were a necessity,
Everybody has equal right on the public road. Then and those who could contribute its amenities were
each car must necessarily dash against the other, held in great respect. People now-a-days call on
and there is bound to be a jumble. This seems to be each other on business, or as a matter of social duty,
very apt pattern of life that we are heading to. but not to foregather by way of informal gatherings.
Everyone of us is a vehicle. We know how to go They have not the time, nor are there the same
forward. The point is that intellect is very powerful intimate relations. What goings and comings we
and everyone is driving, but nobody seems to know used to see, how merry were the rooms and
to control the mental energy and direct it properly verandahs with the hum of conversation and the
or guide it to the proper destination. snatches of laughter. The faculty our predecessors
had of becoming the centre of groups and
Questions gatherings, of starting and keeping up animated
1. Which of the following is the source of and amusing gossip, has vanished. Man still come
energy? and go, but those same verandahs and rooms seem
A. A column that supports a building empty and deserted. In those days everything from
 83

furniture to festivity was designed to be enjoyed by 3. People whom do which of the following now
the many, so that whatever of pomp or magnificence would look like visitors from some other
there might have been did not savour of hauteur. world?
These appendages have since increased in quantity, A. Eradication of poverty and establishing
but they have become unfeeling and know not the social equality
art of making high and low alike feel at home. The B. Strengthening the ties of love and affection
barebodied, the indigently clad, no longer have the through recurring informal meetings
C. Reducing the burden of household cares
right to use and occupy them, without a permit, on
by extending monetary assistance
the strength of their smiling faces alone. Those
D. Enhancing business opportunities with
whom we now-a-days seek to imitate in our house- European countries
building and furnishing, they have their own
society, with its wide hospitality. The mischief with 4. How is the meeting of people of present gene-
rations different from the meeting of the
us is that we have lost what we had but have not
people of the past?
the means of building up afresh on the European A. Intimate sociability has crept in
standard, with the result that our home-life has B. Neighbourly feelings have now been
become joyless. We still meet for business or strengthened
political purposes, but never for the pleasure of C. Informal gossiping is not considered
simply meeting one another. We have ceased to ethical these days
contrive opportunities to bring men together D. People now do not meet merely for the
simply because we love our fellow-men. I can pleasure of meeting one another
imagine nothing more ugly than this social 5. The approach of the author seems to be:
miserliness, and, when I look back on those whose A. extremely critical about our indifference
ringing laughter, coming straight from their hearts, towards the past generation
used to lighten for us the burden of household B. emphatic about the need for informal
cares, they seem to have been visitors from some social interaction
other world. C. cynical about our blindly imitating the
Western style
Questions D. pessimistic about our business and
1. Which of the following is social miserliness political avenues
according to the author? 6. Why, according to the author, has our home
A. Diminishing intimate sociability life become joyless?
B. Increasing social inequality A. We have lost the means of building up
C. Bare-bodied, half-starved masses houses on the European standards
D. We don’t wish to incur expenditure B. Complete imitation of the West is not
merely to get people together possible owing to different climatic
conditions
2. Why does the author feel that the rooms and
C. We have lost interpersonal intimacy and
verandahs have lost their charm?
sociability. We do not have the means to
A. The rooms and verandahs have been build up afresh on the European standards
deserted by the people D. Most people are bare-bodied and half-
B. They have been crowded by gatherings of starved
gossiping people 7. Which of the following statements is
C. The conversational quality our definitely true in the context of the passage?
predecessors had has now vanished A. Poor people in the past generation did not
D. Unlike in the past, no facilities for have the right to enjoy anything without
arranging meetings are available permission
 84

B. We have ceased to bring people together respectability. We need to learn the language of
solely for the pleasure of meeting them encouragement to add to out skill in flattery. We
C. Dying rays of intimate sociability was the might also learn to be less liberal with blame and
characteristic of the last generation less tight-fisted with appreciation, especially to
those showing signs of independence.
D. The gap between different strata of the
present society is on the increase Questions
1. Among the many groups of students in
PASSAGE-10 American colleges, Asian students:
A recent report in New York Times says that in A. are often written about in newspapers like
American colleges, students of Asian origin New York Times
outperform not only the minority group students B. are the most successful academically
but the majority Whites as well. Many of these C. have proved that they are as good as the
students must be of Indian origin, and their Whites
achievement is something we can be proud of. It is D. have only a minority status like the Blacks
unlikely that these talented youngsters will come 2. The students of Asian origin in America
back to India, and that is the familiar brain drain include:
problem. How-ever, recent statements by the A. a fair number from India
nation’s policy makers indicate that the perception B. a small group from India
of this issue is changing. Brain bank and not brain C. persons from India who are very proud
drain is the more appropriate idea, they suggest, D. Indians who are the most hardworking of
since the expertise of Indians abroad is only all
deposited in other places and not lost.
3. In general, the talented young Indians
This may be so, but this brain bank, like most studying in America:
of the banks, is one that primarily serves customers A. have a reputation for being hardworking
in its neighbourhood. The skills of the Asians now B. have the opportunity to contribute to
excelling in America’s colleges will mainly help India’s development
the USA. No matter how significant, what Non-
C. can solve the brain drain problem because
Resident Indians do for India and what their
of recent changes in policy
counterparts do for other Asian counteries is only a
D. will not return to pursue their careers in
by-product. But it is also necessary to ask, or be
India
reminded, why Indians study more fruitfully when
abroad. The Asians whose accomplishments New 4. There is talk now of the brain bank. This
York Times records would have probably had a idea:
very different fate if they had studied in India. In A. is a solution to the brain drain problem
America they found elbow room, books and B. is a new problem caused partly by the
facilities not available and not likely to be brain drain
available here. The need to prove themselves in C. is a new way of looking at the role of
their new country and the competition of an qualified Indians living abroad
international standard they faced there must have D. is based on a plan to utilise foreign
cured mental and physical laziness. But other exchange remittances to stimulate
things helping them in America can be obtained research and development
here if we achieve a change in social attitudes, 5. The brain bank has limitations like all banks
especially towards youth. in the sense that:
We need to learn to value individuals and their A. a bank’s services go mainly to those near
unique qualities more than conformity and it
 85

B. small neighbourhood banks are not viable 3. Gandhi’s attitude to the labour class was one
in this age of multinationals of
C. only what is deposited can be withdrawn A. generosity B. pity
and utilised C. compassion D. fearlessness
D. no one can be forced to put his assets in 4. The word ‘leonine’ in the passage means
a bank A. lean B. courageous
6. The author feels that what Non-Resident C. timid D. learning
Indians do for India:
A. will have many useful side-effects PASSAGE-12
B. will not be their main interest and concern
The dog fence in Australia has been erected to keep
C. can benefit other Asian countries, as a lay-
out hostile invaders, in this case hordes of yellow
product dogs called dingoes. The empire it preserves is that of
D. can help American colleges be of service wool growers. Yet the fence casts a much broader
of the world community ecological shadow. For the early explorers, a kangaroo
or a wallaby sighting marked a noteworthy event.
PASSAGE-11 Now try not to see one. Without a native predator
Gandhi was not born great. He was a blundering there is no check on the marsupial population. The
boy, a mediocre student, a poor lawyer, an ordinary kangaroos are now cursed more than the dingoes. They
have become rivals of sheep, competing for water
individual until he remade himself. He was a self-
and grass. The State Governments now cull more than
remade man. He had faith in himself. But above all,
three million kangaroos a year to keep Australia’s
he had a deep, touching faith in the peasants, miners,
natural symbol from over running the pastoral lands.
labourers, and young unformed men and women
whom he drew into his work. He fed them all an Questions
elixir of growth which often transformed nameless, 1. The Fence is meant to keep the:
uneducated people into leonine heroes. The elixir A. kangaroo in and the dingo out.
was fearlessness. B. kangaroo in and the sheep out.
C. sheep in and the kangaroo out.
Questions
D. sheep in and the dingo out.
1. Consider the following assumptions:
2. Australia’s national symbol is:
1. Gandhi was a great man throughout his
A. Kangaroo B. Wallaby
life. C. Sheep D. Dingo
2. Men are not born great, but they are made
great by self effort. 3. What has led to the unchecked growth of the
3. Gandhi liked the ordinary people and marsupial population?
A. The building of fences
neglected the rich.
B. The absence of native predator
4. Gandhi transformed the ordinary masses
C. The culling of kangaroos
into great heroes.
D. The availability of water and grass
Which of the above assumptions can be drawn
4. The marsupial population is up in Australia
from the above passage? because:
A. 2 and 4 B. 1 and 2 A. both wallaby and kangaroo count as
C. 3 and 4 D. None of these marsupials.
2. Gandhi transformed the uneducated people B. the kangaroo consumes the water and grass
by teaching them of the sheep.
A. work-mindedness B. self-confidence C. the dingo cannot get at the kangaroo.
C. fearlessness D. heroism D. the kangaroos are fenced out.
 86

PASSAGE-13 Questions
1. According to the passage, who helps in our
Not all nocturnal animals have good eyesight. Many
character-building?
of them concentrate on the other senses for finding
A. A foreign university
their way about and for finding food. The sense of
B. A well-to-do man
touch is very well developed in many nocturnal
C. Examples that inspire
animals, whether they have good eyes or not. The
D. A man who has earned honour.
large hairs or whiskers on the faces of cats and mice
are sense organs and the animals react rapidly if these 2. The proper background of early education is
whiskers are touched. The sense of smell is also very A. a school.
important for nocturnal animals such as hedgehogs B. a college.
and field mice. The moist night air holds scent much C. a religious institution.
better than dry air does. D. the home.
3. From the passage, we get an impression that
Questions the highest honour is earned by
1. Which one of the following statements is A. a man who has received education in a
correct? foreign country.
A. All nocturnal animals are blind B. a man who has struggled against adversity.
B. Many nocturnal animals do not have good C. a man who has seen prosperity alone.
eyesight D. the son of a prosperous man.
C. Most nocturnal animals can not see any 4. A well-to-do man sends his son to foreign
thing in the dark lands
D. No nocturnal animal has good eyesight A. because it is the fashion of the day.
2. The cat’s whiskers are organs associated with B. in the belief that his dull son will be
the sense of transformed into a genius.
A. taste B. touch C. so that the son may learn the customs of
C. hearing D. smell those countries.
D. in order to make his son familiar with the
PASSAGE-14 persons and places of thos countries.
5. The expression “the products of expensive
When we talk of education in our present age, we
schools and universities often fail to make
think largely in terms of schools and colleges. The
good” means
man who is well-to-do spends money in sending his
A. they fail to make a mark in life.
son to foreign lands, in the belief that some
B. they fail to become intelligent.
wonderful process will take place there transforming
C. they fail to earn proper living.
a dull fellow into a genius. Yet the products of
D. they do not earn good reputation.
expensive schools and universities often fail to make
good. One the other hand, the poor man who has
struggled against adversity often earns the highest PASSAGE-15
honour. The fact is that the true background of early The functional declines of advancing age are
education is the home. The home, the influence of depressing. The heart’s ability to pump blood drops
the mother, the inspiring examples that are held about one per cent: blood flow to arms and legs
before the child at an age while he is impressionable, decreases by thirty to forty per cent in old age. The
are the true groundwork of character. amount of air a person can exhale after a deep breath
 87

lessens and the chest wall stiffens with age. However,

PASSAGE-16
recent studies have shown that most of these age-
associated declines can be delayed by exercise. No doubt, the ‘green revolution’ has led to self-
Exercise lowers the resting heart-rate and increases sufficiency in food production but it has also brought
the amount of blood pumped with each beat in older with it the formidable problem of poisoning of food
people. When stress is placed on bones through grains and other eatables. This is caused by excessive
exercise, calcium content rises, with the result that use of chemicals on crops and pesticide residues. It
has also created havoc by exterminating the species
resistance to fracture is improved.
of useful parasites and viruses which keep pests under
Questions control. Scientists are now worried about the
resurgence of such formidable pests in menacing
1. Old age is generally a depressing period, proportions which seem to undermine all that they
because have achieved in agricultural production.
A. old people worry more than others.
B. old people tend to regret their past. Questions
C. various organs of the body function less 1. From the reading of the passage, which one of
efficiently. these statements do you think is correct?
D. old people do very little work. A. The ‘green revolution’ has solved all
2. The strength of bones can be increased by problems in agriculture
exercise, because it B. Application of chemicals has resulted in
everlasting preservation of grains
A. increases the amount of blood pumped by
C. The ‘green revolution’ is a mixed blessing
the heart.
D. Scientists are satisfied with achievements
B. increases calcium content in bones. in agricultural production
C. increases the amount of air exhaled by a
2. The statement that “the green revolution has
person.
also created havoc by exterminating the
D. lessens the stiffness of the chest wall.
species of useful parasites and viruses” means
3. The word ‘exhale’ means A. all parasites and viruses keep pests under
A. breathe in. B. breathe out. control
C. breathe slowly. D. breath fast. B. pesticides and chemicals kill parasites and
4. Which one of the following statements is viruses, which control pests
correct? C. the pests are controlled by parasites
A. Exercise delays natural decay of old age D. application of chemicals to grains has
created havoc
B. Old-age problems increase due to exercise
C. Exercise increases the heartbeat which is 3. Which one of the following statements best
dangerous reflects the underlying implication of the
D. Exercise creates stress which is harmful to passage?
A. Man’s effort to control nature to his
bones.
advantage has always created unseen
5. The chest wall becomes stiff in old age, dangers side by side
because B. Research in one area leads to a challenge
A. the heart’s ability to pump blood to it for further research in the same field
drops about one per cent C. At present, research in preservation of
B. the blood flow to various organs decreases agricultural production is at the cross-
C. the resting heart-rate becomes high roads
D. the person’s ability to exhale sufficient air D. The excessive use of chemicals and
lessens pesticides is dangerous
 88

4. Which one of these phrases best helps to brings discontinue the treatment when the symptoms
out the precise meaning of ‘menacing disappear, without waiting for a complete cure; the
proportions’? next attack is more virulent from bacteria which have
A. To an extent which becomes threatening thus become drug-resistant.
B. Assuming dimensions that cause concern Anti-TB drugs are produced in India. The
C. Unimagined, dangerous proportion capability to meet the country’s requirements of anti-
D. Harmful size TB drugs in full already exists. Yet millions of
Indians suffer from TB and thousands of them die
PASSAGE-17 every year. Voluntary organizations and government
agencies are doing commendable work. But we have
Water is the basis of life. Every animal and every
so far tackled only the fringe of the problem. What
plant contains a substantial proportion of free or
is now needed is a nation-wide determination to
combined water in its body, and no kind of
fight TB. India eradicated smallpox with a national
physiological activity is possible in which this fluid
campaign. We can eradicate TB too.
does not play an essential part. Water is, of course,
necessary for animal life, while moisture in the soil is Questions
equally imperative for the life and growth of plants
1. Treatment is discontinued by TB victims,
and trees, though the quantity necessarily varies
when
enormously with the species. The conservation and
A. they think that the disease is completely
utilization of water is thus fundamental to human
cured
life. Apart from artesian water, the ultimate source in
B. the apparent signs of TB are no longer
all cases is rain or snowfall.
visible to them
Questions C. they run out of resources like money or
medicine
1. Water is the basis of life, because
D. they are attacked by drug-resistant bacteria
A. it is seen everywhere on the earth
B. it is obtained from the sea and rain 2. Millions of Indians suffer from TB, because
C. it helps living things to exist A. People discontinue the treatment too soon
D. it is necessary for the birth and growth of or do not start the treatment early enough
all living things B. India does not produce anti-TB drugs of
the required quality
2. No kind of physiological activity is possible
C. anti-TB drugs are not available at a
without water, because
reasonable price
A. water is fluid
D. people do not have nutritious food
B. water plays very important role in it
C. water flows easily 3. When the treatment of TB is discontinued too
D. water does not play any role at all early
A. the old symptoms reappear
3. The passage is on
B. the patient gradually gets better, although
A. the use of water in day-to-day life
slowly
B. the use of water in agriculture
C. the disease appears in a new, more
C. the use of wastewater
dangerous form
D. the importance of water in human life
D. the patient must get good, nutritious food
PASSAGE-18 4. ‘The fringe of the problem’ means
A. the basic cause of the problem
The importance of early detection of tuberculosis B. the root of the problem
(TB), regular treatment and nutritious food are just C. the side effects of the drugs
not known widely enough. Often TB victims D. the edge of the problem, not the main point
 89 AFCAT (Eng)-12

5. Who or what become ‘drug-resistant’, according C. We do not have the technical know-how
to the passage? for further extraction of fossil fuels.
A. TB patients who are treated for a long D. Further extraction and consumption of
time fossil fuels will lead to world-wide
B. People who do not want to take medicine environmental pollution.
for their illness 3. According to the author, we are searching for
C. TB bacteria that have not been fully alternative sources of energy. What is the most
eradicated likely reason for this?
D. Patients who have discontinued the A. Alternative sources of energy are cheaper.
treatment B. It is feared that fossil energy will soon be
exhausted.
PASSAGE-19 C. A number of alternative energy sources
are easily available.
We have built up an energy intensive society such
D. Alternative sources of energy will not
that hundreds of daily acts are dependent on having
cause any environmental problems.
energy at our ready command. Most of that energy
comes from fossil fuels. Yet, within two centuries
we will have used up nearly all of the fossil fuel
PASSAGE-20
that has been built up over millions of years of earth Books are, by far, the most lasting product of human
time. Furthermore, the extraction and consumption effort. Temples crumble into ruins, pictures and
of fossil fuels is a major polluter of our environment. statues decay, but books survive. Time does not
Our appetite for energy is seemingly insatiable. We destroy the great thoughts which are as fresh today
are now searching for it in different places and using as when they first passed through their authors’
methods that inevitably upset and pollute the minds ages ago. The only effect of time has been to
environment. Since fossil energy will soon be gone throw out of currency the bad products, for nothing
we are searching for alternative sources. in literature can long survive but what is really good
and of lasting value. Books introduce us into the
Questions best society; they bring us into the presence of the
1. Today we are dependent on energy for greatest minds that have ever lived, we hear what
everything. What is the most likely factor that they said and did; we see them as if they were really
contributes to this situation? alive, we sympathise with them, enjoy with them,
A. Sufficient quantity of energy is available and grieve with them.
at present.
B. We have developed a society which makes Questions
intensive use of energy. 1. According to the passage, books live for ever
C. Energy is the most convenient and easy to because :
use. A. they have productive value.
D. We have no alternatives. B. time does not destroy great thoughts.
2. The author seems to disapprove further C. they are in printed form.
extraction and consumption of fossil fuels. D. they have the power to influence people.
Which of the following is the most likely 2. According to the passage, temples, pictures
reason for that? and statues belong to the same category
A. Further extraction of fossil fuel is a costly because :
affair. A. all of them are beautiful.
B. Further extraction and consumption of B. all of them are substantial.
fossil fuel may lead to conflict between C. all of them are likely to decay.
countries. D. all of them are fashioned by men.
 90

3. “Lasting value” in the passage means : C. Something which has relevance for the
A. Something which has survived the passage present.
of time. D. Something which had relevance for the
B. Something which has been lost with the past.
passage of time.

ANSWERS

Passage-1 Passage-11
1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4
A D C D C D A C A B
Passage-2 Passage-12
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
C D C D A A B A
Passage-3 Passage-13
1 2 3 4 1 2
D B A C
B B
Passage-4
Passage-14
1 2 3 4
A B A B 1 2 3 4 5
C D B B A
Passage-5
1 2 3 4 Passage-15
C A D C 1 2 3 4 5
Passage-6 C B B A D
1 2 3 4 Passage-16
B D D D 1 2 3 4
Passage-7 C B D A
1 2 3 4 Passage-17
C D C A 1 2 3
Passage-8 C B D
1 2 3 4 Passage-18
B C C D 1 2 3 4 5
Passage-9 B D C D C
1 2 3 4 5 6
D C E D B C Passage-19
7 1 2 3
B B D B
Passage-10 Passage-20
1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3
B A D C D C B C A
 CLOSET TEST
Directions (Qs. 1–210): In the following passages, and other associated ...(10)... soared in the rice
there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. growing areas.
These numbers are printed below the passage and 1. A. irrational B. main
against each, four words are suggested, one of C. brilliant D. important
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
2. A. maintaining B. trusting
appropriate word in each case.
C. selling D. processing
PASSAGE-1 3. A. necessarily B. exceptionally
C. primarily D. regularly
Seed quality is an ...(1)... aspect of crop production.
4. A. unexplained B. doubt
For ages, farmers have traditionally been selecting
C. some D. true
and ...(2)... good quality seed, since it was in their
interest to do so. They knew and understood the 5. A. himself B. sometimes
importance of quality seed in production. C. proper D. improve
However, with the advent of green revolution 6. A. established B. created
technology, based ...(3)... on the high-yielding dwarf C. set D. wound
varieties of wheat and rice, mainstream thinking
7. A. tried B. mattered
changed. Agricultural scientists, for reasons that
C. meaning D. supposed
remain ...(4)... began to doubt, the ability of farmers
to maintain seed quality ...(5)... . Aided by the World 8. A. renounced B. showed
Bank, the Ministry of Agriculture launched a C. passed D. negated
National Seeds Project in 1967. Under the project 9. A. shift B. make
spread into three phases, seed processing plants C. turn D. switch
werre ...(6)... up in nine states. Six states were covered
10. A. sell B. equipments
under phase three. All that the huge processing
C. people D. techniques
plants were ...(7)... to do was to provide 'certified'
seeds of food crops, mainly self- pollinating crops,
to farmers. In mid-1980s, the International Rice PASSAGE-2
Research Institute (IRRI) in the Philippines The world’s climate has always changed and species
concluded a study which ...(8)... that there was hardly have evolved accordingly to survive it. The
any difference in the crop yields from transplanted surprising fact about the ...(11)... between evolution
rice and from the crop sown by broad casted seeds. and global warming ...(12)... that it is not linear.
One would wonder why, in the first instance, were ...(13)... temperatures alone are not ...(14)... of
the farmers, asked to ...(9)... over to transplanting evolution. Evolution is also the ...(15)... of seasonal
paddy? The answer is simple–probably, to help the changes. As the environment ...(16)... those species
mechanical industries grow. Since rice, is the staple which don’t adapt ...(17)... to exist. But the sheer
food in Asia, tractor sales could only grow if there ...(18)... of manmade climate change today is ...(19)....
was a way to move the machine in the rice fields. ‘Bad things are happening’ and by one ...(20)...
No wonder, the sales of tractors, puddlers, reapers global warming could threaten up to one-third of

91
 92

the world’s species if left unchecked. In fact; a lot economies an excuse for technological improvement
of the species which will be able to survive are the while in poorer ones it feeds a vicious cycle–since
ones we consider pests like insects and weeds. they are constantly struggling to recover from natural
11. A. difference B. similarity calamities they cannot afford the disaster prevention
C. argument D. relationship measures needed.
12. A. being B. seems 21. A. as B. than
C. mainly D. is C. not D. of
13. A. However B. Mounted 22. A. being B. are
C. Rising D. Elevating C. often D. is
14. A. means B. triggers
23. A. after B. prior
C. responses D. threats
C. between D. separating
15. A. result B. precursor
24. A. response B. dances
C. resistance D. cause
C. occurring D. frequency
16. A. conserves B. stifles
C. predicts D. changes 25. A. degradation B. protection
C. detriment D. audit
17. A. continue B. halt
C. cease D. terminate 26. A. of B. by
C. with D. for
18. A. luck B. value
C. collapse D. pace 27. A. calm B. misbelieve
19. A. threatened B. pursued C. misfortunes D. faith
C. unprecedented D. record 28. A. inspite B. even
20. A. forecast B. chance C. since D. like
C. pattern D. imagination 29. A. Thanks B. Comparing
C. Similar D. According
PASSAGE-3 30. A. endure B. incite
The large number of natural disasters within a few C. enjoys D. trigger
days in late September has led to two assumptions.
First, we are experiencing more natural calamities PASSAGE-4
today ...(21)... ever before, and second, the
On October 2, 1983 the Grameen Bank Project
distribution of disasters ...(22)... unequal. A UN report
…(31)… the Grameen Bank. We invited the Finance
studied natural disasters ...(23)... 1975 and 2007
Minister to be the Chief Guest at our …(32)…
found that not only is the ...(24)... of catastrophes
ceremony. But when the Ministry came to …(33)…
increasing because of climate change and
environmental ...(25)... but also that the brunt of that the ceremony would take place in a remote
tragedies is borne ...(26)... poor countries least district, they said it would not be an …(34)… place
equipped to deal with such ...(27)... It is true that to launch a Bank and that the ceremony should be
some countries are disaster-prone but some ...(28)... …(35)… in Dhaka so that all the top Government
Japan for example have managed to overcome their Officials could …(36)… We stood firm and …(37)…
geographical disadvantages. to them that we did not work in urban areas so it
...(29)... to UN estimates, equivalent made no …(38)… to have the ceremony in a city
populations in the Philippines and Japan ...(30)... …(39)… we had no borrowers. We had the ceremony
the same number of cyclones each year but 17 times in a big open field with the Finance Minister present
more people perish in the Philippines than in Japan. as Chief Guest. For all of us who had worked so
In some ways natural disasters give developed hard to …(40)… this it was a dream come true.
 93

31. A. reorganised B. merged 41. A. gives B. researches

C. named D. became C. introduced D. originates
32. A. opening B. closing 42. A. improved B. entrusted
C. dedicated D. inaugurate C. fought D. cured
33. A. reveal B. know 43. A. thousands B. alike
C. aware D. inform C. imitated D. similar
34. A. excellent B. available 44. A. course B. less
C. inauspicious D. appropriate C. approximate D. just
35. A. invited B. assembled 45. A. referred B. known
C. done D. held C. perceived D. regarded
36. A. present B. accompany 46. A. denotes B. describes
C. attend D. involve C. for D. explains
37. A. apologised B. told 47. A. business B. membership
C. explained D. denied C. scope D. effort
38. A. difference B. sense 48. A. provided B. buying
C. difficulty D. meaning C. equipped D. empowering
39. A. where B. while
49. A. coming B. next
C. that D. however
C. past D. few
40. A. obey B. achieve
50. A. overlook B. curb
C. discover D. built
C. protect D. enrich
PASSAGE-5
PASSAGE-6
Decades ago, China ...(41)... the concept of ‘barefoot
Jamshedji Tata is …(51)… to be the path-finder of
doctors’. They were community healthcare workers
modern industrial builders. He is known as the grand-
who successfully ...(42)... the health of China’s
villages. Following this example, many African, father of the Indian industry for his acumen and
Asian and Latin American countries have started enthusiasm. Nobody else could have …(52)… of
...(43)... programmes. The largest of such community the new industries started by Jamshedji at that time
health efforts is India’s National Rural Health when industrial …(53)… and revolution was yet to
Mission. In ...(44)... over three years, the programme come to India.
has mobilized over fifty thousand new community Jamshedji’s father Nasarvanji Tata used to
health workers, each ...(45)... as ‘Asha’. This is short trade in jute with China and Britain. He started
for ‘Accredited Social Health Activist’ and …(54)… from India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill
translated into Hindi is the word ...(46)... hope. in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that
Today technology companies and foundations time almost all the …(55)… used to come from
are also joining the ...(47)... to support community Lancashire in England. What Jameshdji …(56)…
health workers. Mobile phone companies are ...(48)... was praiseworthy.
these workers with phones and support systems to Jamshedji …(57)… very well that an industrial
obtain up to date medical information, call revolution can only be brought in the country by
ambulances etc. In the ...(49)... years, community setting up iron and steel industry …(58)… he did
health workers can thus help ...(50)... the spread of not live to see the industry he had in mind, he had
many devastating but curable diseases. done all …(59)… work. In fact, he laid the ground
 94

work for it. He had planned the entire steel city now here are animals more timid than us. There is still
known as Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, some …(69)… for us. Let us all go back to our
schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, homes,” and the …(70)… of rabbits headed back to
churches, etc. His …(60)… was fulfilled by his sons, their colony.
Sir Dorabji Tata and Sir Rattan Tata, when they 61. A. skilled B. calm
started the Tata Iron & Steel Factory in 1907 just C. expensive D. timid
after three years of his death.
62. A. meeting B. lecture
51. A. rewarded B. agreed C. assembly D. festival
C. empowered D. considered
63. A. tradition B. gene
52. A. absolved B. thought C. trait D. virtue
C. ventured D. set
64. A. decision B. finate
53. A. imports B. acts C. point D. conclusion
C. machinery D. awakening
65. A. torture B. misery
54. A. export B. industries
C. bad luck D. life
C. import D. trade
66. A. attending B. retreating
55. A. goods B. imports
C. approaching D. swimming
C. cloth D. machines
56. A. did B. dreamt 67. A. sympathy B. tear
C. agreed D. told C. empathy D. gratitude
57. A. felt B. advocated 68. A. group B. army
C. planned D. knew C. leader D. captain
58. A. Because B. Although 69. A. ray B. refuge
C. Surprisingly D. Luckily C. doubt D. hope
59. A. insignificant B. complete 70. A. multiple B. manifold
C. trivial D. preliminary C. leader D. herd
60. A. need B. task
C. dream D. industry PASSAGE-8
Once, in a forest there was a little tree covered with
PASSAGE-7 pointed leaves. “Ah”! It said to itself one day, “my
neighbours are happy. They have leaves that are
Rabbits are among the most …(61)… of all animals.
pleasing to see. Mine are like needles, I wish I
The rabbit of a colony, once had a …(62)… to
could have …(71)… of gold!” Soon it was night
discuss this …(63)… of theirs. They came to the and the little tree dozed, the next morning it was
…(64)… that as their timidity would never leave transformed! “What joy,” it cried, “I’m covered with
them, they were condemned to a miserable existence gold! No other tree in the forest has a similar grab.”
and it would be better to drown themselves and end But towards evening a man came by, he threw a
their …(65)… once and for all. Accordingly, they fearful look around him, and seeing that nobody
began to move towards a large lake. was …(72)… him, took off the golden leaves, put
When the frogs in the lake saw a large number them in a sack and …(73)…
of rabbits …(66)… they were filled with …(67)… “Oh,” said the little tree, “I miss those lovely
and made for the deepest part of the lake. Seeing golden leaves which …(74)… in the sunlight, but
this, the …(68)… of the rabbits stopped and said to leaves of glass could be just as brilliant. I would
his fellow-creatures: “It is true we are timid, but like to have leaves of glass.” That evening the little
 95

tree slept, and the next morning it was …(75)…

again. From its branches hung leaves of glass. “Ah”,
PASSAGE-9
it said, “this is a pretty attire, my neighbours have As the country embarks on planning ...(81)... the
nothing like it.” But that very day, some black 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark
clouds gathered in the sky, the wind blew strongly ...(82)... hangs over the process is on the energy
and a storm came in. All the glass leaves from the requirements.
little tree fell and broke.
Growh is energy hungry, and the aspirations of
“Alas,” sighed the tree. This foliage that I was
growing at 9-10% will ...(83)... huge demands on
ambitious for is very elegant, but very …(76)… It
the energy resources of the country. In this energy
would be better to have a …(77)… of good green
jigsaw, renewable energy will ...(84)... like never
leaves, some nice fragrant ones.” The little tree before in the 12th Plan and ...(85)....
slept that night, and the next morning it was dressed
as it vied. But the scent of its fresh leaves attracted By the rule of the thumb, India will ...(86)...
the …(78)… who came to nibble them, and standing about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of
up on their hind paws, they nibbled all the way to capacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging
the top of the little tree and left it entirely …(79)… trends on energy efficiency and sustained ...(87)...
When it went to sleep that night, it longed for its by some parts of the government—the Bureau of
original leaves, and the next morning …(80)… to Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be
see them reappear on its branches. They had neither complimented for this—have led to substantially
the splendour of gold, nor the luminous transparency lesser energy intensity of economic growth.
However, even the tempered demand numbers are
of glass, nor the attraction of aromatic plants; but
...(88)... to be below 80 Gw. As against this need the
they were solid, nobody came to take them off and
coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to
the tree had them throughout the season.
support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity.
71. A. designs B. leaves Imported coal can add some more, but at a much
C. branches D. fruits ...(89)... cost. Gas-based electricity generation is
72. A. beside B. with unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view
C. inspecting D. watching of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear
will be ...(90)... in the foreseeable future. Between
73. A. exclaimed B. continued
imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no
C. wished D. fled
more than 15-20 Gw equivalent can be ...(91)... to
74. A. dried B. sheltered be added in the five-year time block.
C. glistened D. warmed
...(92)... ...(93)... this, capacity addition in the
75. A. new B. created renewable energy based power generation has
C. transformed D. awake touched about 3 Gw a year. In the coming five
76. A. costly B. fragile years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity
C. attractive D. good grid ...(94)... renewable energy is likely to range
between 20 Gw and 25 Gw. Additionally, over and
77. A. bunch B. forest
above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity
C. collection D. substitute
applications are reaching remote places and ...(95)...
78. A. neighbours B. bees lives where grid-based electricity supply has
C. hunters D. trees miserably failed.
79. A. lonely B. sad 81. A. against B. for
C. bare D. depressed C. onwards D. at
80. A. excited B. proclaimed 82. A. that B. inside
C. rejoiced D. eager C. always D. who
 96

83. A. forward B. subject pure ...(100)... will only incentivise manipulations,

C. place D. demand defeating the very essence of RTE.
84. A. pass B. publish The main problem facing the education sector
C. feature D. find is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for
85. A. likewise B. publicity ensuring universal access to education are all very
C. next D. after well, ...(101)... we have the infrastructure in place
86. A. waste B. require first. Brick and mortar schools need to precede open
C. highlight D. generate admission and not the ...(102)... way around. In that
sense, legislators' assessment of ground realities is
87. A. structures B. efforts
...(103)... target when they endorse the closure of
C. projections D. practices
tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for
88. A. sure B. unsure not meeting the minimum standards of land plot,
C. unexpected D. unlikely building specifications and playground area as laid
89. A. nominal B. excelled out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down ...(104)...
C. higher D. lower on private schools for failing to conform to abstract
90. A. failure B. success bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal
C. dangerous D. marginal education should focus on upgrading and
91. A. certain B. linked expanding the existing government school
C. remarked D. expected infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can
we ensure the much-needed supply-demand ...(105)...
92. A. When B. But
in the education sector.
C. However D. As
93. A. for B. with 96. A. with B. for
C. is D. against C. on D. into
94. A. through B. project 97. A. around B. near
C. versus D. against C. into D. about
95. A. lightening B. making 98. A. forming B. translating
C. touching D. saving C. having D. taking
99. A. affect B. ideas
PASSAGE-10 C. practice D. concept
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory 100. A. benefit B. merit
Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came ...(96)... C. chance D. basis
effect in April this year, is meant to transform the 101. A. unless B. until
education sector and take India closer to the goal C. executed D. provided
of universal schooling. But with admissions to the
new academic session just ...(97)... the corner, it is 102. A. other B. any
fast becoming clear that ...(98)... well-intentioned C. two D. differ
ideas into ...(99)... will take some doing. For a start, 103. A. on B. of
the guidelines for admissions under the RTE C. often D. off
prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student
104. A. soft B. more
profiling. The stress on a random yet justifiable
C. less D. hard
admission process means that schools will have to
resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. 105. A. need B. equilibrium
However, leaving admission to a good school to C. expectation D. attempt
 97 AFCAT (Eng)-13

form it. One of the more marked test of character is

PASSAGE-11
the manner in which we ...(121)... ourselves towards
The U.S. is in the ...(106)... of a cleanup of toxic others, a graceful behaviour, towards superiors,
financial waste that will ...(107)... taxpayers inferiors, and ...(122)... is constant source of pleasure.
hundreds of billions of dollars, at the very least. It pleases others because it indicates ...(123)... for
The primary manufacturers of these hazardous their personality, but it gives tenfold more ...(124)...
products ...(108)... multimillion-dollar paychecks for to our selves. Every man may, to large extent be a
their efforts. So why shouldn’t they ...(109)... to pay self educator in good ...(125)... as in every else, he
for their mop­up? This is, after all, what the U.S. can be civil and kind if he thinks he has not a
Congress ...(110)... in 1980 for ...(111)... of actual penny in his purse.
toxic waste. Under the Superfund law ...(112)... that
116. A. through B. out of
year, polluters ...(113)... for the messes they make.
C. in D. by
Environmental lawyer E. Michael Thomas sees no
...(114)... lawmakers couldn’t demand the same of 117. A. darken B. characterise
financial polluters and ...(115)... them to ante up C. adorn D. illustrate
some of the bank bailout money. 118. A. equally B. honourably
106. A. range B. depth C. roughly D. officially
C. midst D. essence 119. A. house B. livelihood
107. A. benefit B. cost C. quarry D. relation
C. earn D. facilitate 120. A. spouse B. give up
108. A. donated B. demanded C. new D. watch
C. dwindled D. pocketed 121. A. conduct B. manage
109. A. hesitate B. come C. nature D. present
C. defy D. have 122. A. equals B. juniors
110. A. decreed B. refrained C. seniors D. superiors
C. commented D. admonished 123. A. happiness B. honour
111. A. consumers B. advocates C. regard D. respect
C. exponents D. producers 124. A. force B. requirement
112. A. revoked B. forced C. pleasure D. dedication
C. squashed D. enacted 125. A. status B. behaviour
113. A. regain B. claim C. character D. career
C. pay D. demand
114. A. practice B. reason PASSAGE-13
C. compensation D. issue With the U.S. military tied down on two fronts and
115. A. force B. plead the rest of the world growing ...(126)... to American
C. appeal D. dupe power, the challenges for Rice are as ...(127)... as
they have been for any Secretary of State in the
PASSAGE-12 past three decades. After six years of tussling with
others on Bush’s national-security team, Rice has
A day light can be seen ...(116)... very small holes, seen off her rivals and ...(128)... as the principal
so little things will ...(117)... a person’s character. spokes-person for Bush’s foreign ...(129).... Her reward
Indeed consists in little acts well and ...(118) has been to ...(130)... responsibility for selling a
performed; daily life being the ...(119)... from which failed policy in Iraq and ...(131)... a legacy for
build it up and rough ...(120)... the habits which Bush at a time when ...(132)... in the world are in
 98 AFCAT (Eng)-13-II

the mood to help her. “Bush is severely ...(133)...

PASSAGE-14
and has very little ...(134)... or support at home or
abroad,” says Leslie Gelb, former president of the The ...(141)... of Bengal tigers left in the world has
Council on Foreign Relations. “That is ...(135)... ...(142)... from 100,000 to 4,000 over the last century.
true for his Secretary of State. So they are ...(136)... The main threats are ...(143)... of habitat, poaching
flailing around.” and the trade in tiger parts for Eastern medicines.
That’s a grim assessment, since the ...(137)... Most Bengal tigers live in protected areas of India.
to international order are ...(138)... today than at Anti-poaching task-force have been ...(144)... up
any ‘other’ time since the end of the cold war. The and there is also a trade ...(145)... on tiger products
most immediate source of ...(139)... emanates from in many countries, as a measure to save this rare
Iraq, where the country’s civil war risks ...(140)... a species.
region-wide conflict.
141. A. from B. kind
126. A. resistant B. subservient
C. glory D. number
C. immune D. cordial
142. A. limited B. shrunk
127. A. obvious B. trivial
C. abolished D. eliminated
C. superfluous D. daunting
143. A. prevention B. encroaching
128. A. renamed B. emerged
C. appointed D. visited C. condition D. loss

129. A. aid B. recognition 144. A. set B. brought

C. policy D. acceptability C. swept D. deployed
130. A. shirk B. avoid 145. A. agreement B. contract
C. transfer D. inherit C. ban D. link
131. A. focusing B. framing
C. escaping D. salvage PASSAGE-15
132. A. people B. few Human Resources Development Department has
C. diplomats D. autocrats ...(146)... heads of all Central Office Departments to
133. A. intensified B. master-minded ...(147)... to the notice of the employees ...(148)... to
C. weakened D. projected their departments ...(149)... the availability of
professional counsellor engaged by our organization
134. A. credibility B. difficulty
on contract basis to ...(150)... counselling services
C. majority D. enthusiasm
to employees of Mumbai. HRDD has also sought
135. A. not B. uniformly the ...(151)... of all the employees to ...(152)... the
C. remotely D. also fears and unfounded notions, if any, about
136. A. effectively B. inadvertently counselling so that employees were ...(153)... to
C. basically D. aimlessly come forward and avail of it. Counselling facility
137. A. admirations B. threats for employees was ...(154)... in Mumbai in September
C. pleasantries D. demands 21 with the help of a professional counsellor. The
138. A. louder B. fewer counsellor is ...(155)... on Mondays in the Main
C. magnificent D. bigger Building Mumbai.
139. A. instability B. fuel 146. A. reported B. indicated
C. energy D. atrocity C. referred D. advised
140. A. defusing B. demolishing 147. A. tell B. ask
C. terminating D. igniting C. show D. bring
 99

148. A. affected B. absolved 158. A. course B. manifestation

C. attached D. affixed C. objective D. implementation
149. A. regarding B. about 159. A. represented B. relieved
C. upon D. aforesaid C. compensated D. burdened
150. A. decide B. determine 160. A. absorbed B. perplexed
C. provide D. takeover C. carried D. ventured
151. A. availability B. presence 161. A. duplications B. paradoxes
C. support D. permission C. assumptions D. levels
152. A. dissolve B. disperse 162. A. desist B. estranged
C. dispel D. displace C. distinguish D. depart
153. A. asked B. directed 163. A. evolves B. focuses
C. diverted D. encouraged C. permeates D. empowers
154. A. obstructed B. observed 164. A. positions B. engagements
C. started D. laid C. possibilities D. provocations
155. A. ready B. available 165. A. modern B. conducive
C. accessible D. attainable C. commensurate D. holistic

PASSAGE-16 PASSAGE-17
From the time I started writing this book I have Actually, everyday we all engage in this business of
come to see it as personal ...(156)... to an outstanding 'reading' people. We do it ...(166).... We want to
fellow Indian, whose ...(157)... and compassion have figure others out. So we ...(167)... make guesses
often moved me. Insight, not objectivity, is the key about what others think, value, want and feel and
to understanding of a life as multi-layered as that of we do so based on our ....(168).... beliefs and
Swami Vivekananda and in the ...(158)... of writing understanding about human nature. We do so
this book, I have often felt ...(159)... by the realization because if we can figure out ....(169).... and intentions
that a historian may not always be a good of others the possibility of them ....(170).... or hurting
biographer. I have also been ...(160)... by the several us, ....(171).... and this well help us to ....(172).... a
inconsistencies and ...(161)... of Vivekananda’s life, lot of unnecessary pain and trouble. We also make
and only by bringing these out more sharply, I felt, second-guesses about what they will do in future,
could one consciously ...(162)... from the how they will ....(173).... if we make this or that
hagiography that ...(163)... biographical work on response. We do all this second guessing based
him. It is impossible to reach an understanding of upon our ....(174).... of what we believe about the
a personality as complex as Vivekananda’s without person's inner nature ....(175).... his or her roles and
studying his ambiguities and shifting ...(164)... on manners. We mind-read their ....(176).... motives.
various issues. In trying to integrate these in a Also everyday we misguess and misread.
...(165)... assessment of Vivekananda, I have largely Why? Because of the complexity, ....(177).... and
gone by what the Swami has himself suggested – multi-dimensional functioning of people. After all
judge a man ultimately by his strengths, not his how well do you 'read' your own thoughts, aims,
weaknesses. values, motives, beliefs, etc.? How well do you
156. A. justice B. devotion know your own structuring process— your own
C. contribution D. tribute thinking and ....(178).... styles.
157. A. deliberation B. projection 166. A. vehemently B. practically
C. vivacity D. acknowledgement C. actually D. incessantly
 100

167. A. ably B. constantly 181. A. criticised B. devalued

C. partly D. largely C. protected D. abused
168. A. futuristic B. proactive 182. A. supremacy B. wisdom
C. reactive D. assumptive C. cleverness D. instinct
169. A. manifestations B. expressions 183. A. tall B. plenty
C. motives D. hopes C. countless D. diverse
170. A. tricking B. blaming 184. A. tourtured B. exposed
C. furthering D. alarming C. treated D. vanished
171. A. lessens B. happens 185. A. projection B. criticism
C. questions D. deepens C. pretext D. game
172. A. approach B. direct 186. A. matter B. set
C. avoid D. implement C. scheme D. name
173. A. solve B. apply 187. A. confined B. subjected
C. plan D. respond C. condemned D. allied
174. A. projection B. exhibition 188. A. cruelty B. deformation
C. situation D. prediction C. study D. vivisection
175. A. organising B. underneath
C. appreciating D. outside PASSAGE-19
176. A. cunning B. visible Organisation ...(189)... is a very broad subject that
C. deeper D. obvious appears frequently in recent management studies.
177. A. abnormality B. angularity Organisations have many ...(190)... to improve
C. focus D. layeredness whatever it is that they do. They can reflect on their
178. A. proposing B. developing operations, study their products, ...(191)... to
C. upbringing D. emoting cutsomers, and encourage ...(192)... parts of the
organisation to share knowledge as well as the results
of their ...(193)... efforts. All firms have these
PASSAGE-18 opportunities, although few companies take full
Man has always cosidered himself to be the ruler of ...(194)... of them Good firms everywhere ...(195)...
his planet. This ...(179)... and the attendant superiority their processes and ...(196)... in order to learn from
feeling has made him look down ...(180)... other past successes as well as ...(197)... . They measures
creatures who co-exist with human on this earth. The and benchmark what they do. They try to get
so-called ‘civilized’ human race has ...(181)... and ill- different parts of the organisation to ...(198)... with
treated small and large animal species and birds in an one another.
attempt to prove his ...(182)... . It is common 189. A. learning B. system
knowledge that ...(183)... number of animals have C. building D. structure
been ...(184)... for centuries under the ...(185)... of
conducting scientific experiments or for sports. Till 190. A. systems B. incentives
recently, in the ...(186)... of scientific experiments C. opportunities D. methods
monkeys and frogs have been ...(187)... to dissection 191. A. call B. refer
and ...(188)... in the laboratory. C. please D. listen
179. A. pleasure B. fact 192. A. significant B. different
C. achievement D. arrogance C. all D. some
180. A. in B. upon 193. A. approved B. separate
C. with D. for C. all D. individualistic
 101

194. A. benefit B. credit ‘other’ time since the end of the cold war. The
C. recourse D. advantage most immediate source of atrocity emanates from
195. A. critique B. protect Iraq, where the country’s civil war risks igniting a
C. design D. innovate region-wide conflict.
196. A. projects B. finances 199. A. resistant B. subservient
C. people D. products C. immune D. cordial
197. A. breaks B. limitations 200. A. obvious B. trivial
C. gaps D. failures C. superfluous D. daunting
198. A. expand B. develop 201. A. renamed B. emerged
C. cooperate D. grow C. appointed D. entrusted
202. A. aid B. recognition
PASSAGE-20 C. policy D. acceptability
With the U.S. military tied down on two fronts and 203. A. shirk B. avoid
the rest of the world growing ...(199)... to American C. transfer D. inherit
power, the challenges for Rice are as ...(200)... as
204. A. focusing B. framing
they have been for any Secretary of State in the
C. escaping D. salvage
past three decades. After six years of tussling with
others on Bush’s national-security team, Rice has 205. A. people B. few
seen off her rivals and ...(201)... as the principal C. diplomats D. autocrats
spokes- person for Bush’s foreign ...(202).... Her 206. A. intensified B. master-minded
reward has been to ...(203)... responsibility for selling C. weakened D. projected
a failed policy in Iraq and ...(204)... a legacy for
Bush at a time when ...(205)... in the world are in 207. A. credibility B. difficulty
the mood to help her. “Bush is severely ...(206)... C. majority D. enthusiasm
and has very little ...(207)... or support at home or 208. A. not B. uniformly
abroad,” says Leslie Gelb, former president of the C. remotely D. also
Council on Foreign Relations. “That is ...(208)...
209. A. effectively B. inadvertently
true for his Secretary of State. So they are ...(209)...
C. basically D. aimlessly
flailing around.”
That’s a grim assessment, since the ...(210)... 210. A. admirations B. threats
to international order are bigger today than at any C. pleasantries D. demands

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B C A B C D B D B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D C B A D C D C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B D C D A B C D D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A B D D C C B A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C A D D C C D D A B
 102

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D B B A C A D B D C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D A D D B C B C D D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B D D D C B C B C C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C C C D B B D C D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D D D A C D A B C C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D A D D B C B D D A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D D C B A A D B C C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A A D C B A D D C D
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D A C D D D D D D D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D B D A C D D C A C
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
B C D C B D C A B A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
B D C A D D B D C A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A C D A D C B D D B
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B A C A C D B D B C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
D B D D D A D D A D
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
B C D D A C D D D D
 WORD ANALOGY
Directions (Qs. 1–25): Tick the most appropriate B. Cat : mouse
pair in each set in the spirit of the one given at the C. Lion : flesh
top : D. Tree : roots
1. Lunatic : Asylum 8. Impulsive : Cautious
A. The poor : palace A. Liberty : bondage
B. Soldiers : barracks B. Tyrant : bully
C. Flowers : fields C. Tremble : quake
D. Crops : garden D. Vulgar : indecent
2. Soldier : Rifle 9. Weighty : Voluminous
A. Blacksmith : anvil A. Jolly : dismal
B. Thief : ladder B. Loyalty : perfidy
C. Watchman : uniform C. Wealth : opulence
D. Barber : hair D. Odd : normal
3. Frog : Tadpoles 10. Innocent : Guilty
A. Man : sons A. Kill : produce
B. Woman : daughters B. Suspect : doubt
C. Cat : kids C. Depress : discourage
D. Contract : condense
D. Elephant : calves
11. Useless : Cheap
4. Lizards : Reptiles
A. Late : unpunctual
A. Frogs : amphibians
B. Real : illusive
B. Tree : fruit
C. Just : unfair
C. Earth : moon
D. Humble : proud
D. Man : woman
12. Loyal : Faithful
5. Earthworm : Segments
A. Treacherous : devoted
A. Tree : wood B. Just : fair
B. Crocodiles : scales C. Yield : suppress
C. Apple : juice D. Uncertain : sure
D. Earth : moisture
13. Cancel : Confirm
6. Mosquito : Malaria A. Certain : ambiguous
A. Rabid dog : rabies B. Vulgar : crude
B. House fly : AIDS C. Reliable : trustworthy
C. Cockroach : influenza D. Obscure : anonymous
D. Virus : diabetes
14. Gloomy : Bright
7. Fish : Water A. Pleasant : delightful
A. Man : air B. Funny : comic
103
 104

C. Condemn : blame B. Compel : coax

D. Hard : flexible C. Odious : hateful
15. Modern : Ancient D. Claim : demand
A. Happy : joyful 21. Passionate : Impassive
B. Service : slavery A. Deter : discourage
C. Mild : harsh B. Folly : stupidity
D. assumed : unreal C. Polite : rude
16. Dexterous : Clumsy D. Fanciful : whimsical
A. Cheap : worthless 22. Gauche : Attractive
B. Usual : common
A. True : exact
C. Zenith : acme
B. Tough : hard
D. True : false
C. Tasteful : palatable
17. Luscious : Sweet D. Insipid : delicious
A. Above : below
B. Absolve : penalise 23. Existence : Life
C. Lucrative : profitable A. Silence : noise
D. Adopt : abandon B. Risk : shield
C. Enormous : immense
18. Fraud : Duplicity
D. Rural : urban
A. Inferior : cheap
B. Delicious : abhorrent 24. Belief : Suspicion
C. Desire : detest A. Unravel : unweave
D. Diligent : lackadiasical B. Profuse : insufficient
19. Weired : Ordinary C. Urge : spur
A. Vacant : void D. Use : occupy
B. Vivid : clear 25. Violent : Calm
C. Vivid : dim A. Tranquil : peaceful
D. Wicked : unvirtuous B. Reticent : quiet
20. Build : Demolish C. Even : smooth
A. Abide : persist D. Disdain : reverence

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D A B A A A C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B A D C D C A C B
21 22 23 24 25
C D C B D
 2

REASONING &
MILITARY APTITUDE TEST

1 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–1

 3

LET TER ANALOGY

Directions : In the questions given below one 12. ABCD : RSTU : : JKLM : ?
term is missing. Based on the relationship of the A. UVWX B. EFHG
two given words find the missing term from the C. SRTU D. QSRP
given options. 13. AEI : LPT : : CGK : ?
1. GFC : CFG : : RPJ : ? A. OSV B. RUY
A. JRP B. JPR C. TXC D. FJN
C. PJR D. RJP
14. RUX : TRP : : BEH : ?
2. BCF : DEG : : MNQ : ? A. SQN B. QON
A. OPR B. PQS C. QOM D. QNL
C. OPP D. QRT
15. CART : ART : : FOUR : ?
3. NATION : ANITNO : : HUNGRY : ? A. RUN B. TWO
A. HNUGRY B. UNHGYR C. QUE D. OUR
C. YRNGUH D. UHGNYR
16. FIK : JGO : : DFR : ?
4. SSTU : MMNO : : AABC : ?
A. BIO B. HDV
A. GGHH B. IJKK
C. GCU D. FLP
C. XXYZ D. NOOP
17. LJH : KKI : : CIA : ?
5. ACE : FGH : : LNP : ?
A. BJB B. DHB
A. QRS B. PQR
C. QST D. MOQ C. BJC D. BBJ
6. UVW : SXU : : LMN : ? 18. ACE : HIL : : MOQ : ?
A. JOL B. KNM A. SVW B. TUX
C. JKL D. MLO C. RTW D. WUS
7. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT : ? 19. BCDE : WVUT : : QRST : ?
A. UTOPTU B. UOTUPT A. EFHG B. JIHG
C. TUOUTP D. TUOTUP C. POML D. GEDC
8. TSR : FED : : WVU : ? 20. PNLJ : IGEC : : USQO : ?
A. CAB B. MLK A. HJLN B. LNJH
C. PQS D. GFH C. NLJH D. JHNL
9. CJDL : FMGR : : IKJR : ? 21. DIMO : DMIO : : JUVR : ?
A. OQPT B. RSTU A. JVRU B. JRVU
C. OQRT D. KRMO C. JVUR D. JUVR
10. BOQD : ERTG : : ANPC : ? 22. RRS : XMW : : ITB : ?
A. DQSF B. FSHU A. PNE B. NOG
C. SHFU D. DSQF C. RSW D. OOF
11. BaBy : TaTa : : LiLy : ? 23. ODRS : OSRD : : PAGJ : ?
A. PooL B. ROse A. PJGA B. PJAG
C. HaNd D. DoWN C. PGJA D. PGAJ

3
 4

24. MEQI : JUOD : : ANIW : ? 38. JKLM : XYZA : : NOPQ : ?

A. RUKE B. URIA A. BCDE B. RSTU
C. EUIO D. PTRE C. YZAB D. IJKL
25. AKU : AJS : : CRD : ? 39. EGI : NPR : : HJL : ?
A. BQE B. CQB A. RTW B. FGI
C. DSB D. APC
C. NQT D. TVX
26. LOM : NMK : : PKI : ?
40. TPNX : XNP : : BUCW : ?
A. RNK B. RSM
C. RMP D. RIG A. WUC B. CUW
C. WCU D. COW
27. ARQ : DTR : : JNG : ?
A. MPH B. PHJ 41. CNO : FLP : : WHF : ?
C. LPI D. GLE A. GFZ B. ADH
28. ODL : LOD : : PWN : ? C. ZFG D. YGF
A. WNP B. NWP 42. DUST : BUSY : : JOIN : ?
C. NPW D. NMP A. ROIT B. SOON
29. MAR : RAMP : : INS : ? C. RIOT D. COST
A. NEST B. SNIP 43. FHJL : VTRP : : MOQS : ?
C. TINS D. SNAP A. JHFD B. HGFD
30. SUW : RST : : DFH : ? C. IGED D. JHED
A. DEF B. FGH
44. SWZ : XTA : : DGM : ?
C. CDE D. GHI
A. JEO B. IDN
31. PYG : OZF : : SBJ : ?
C. HCM D. NDI
A. QDJ B. PEG
C. OFH D. RCI 45. NBRC : CRAB : : TYDA : ?
32. ABC : ZYX : : IJK : ? A. DRAY B. ADAY
A. RST B. RQP C. DATB D. YDAB
C. RTS D. RPQ 46. BdNf : JnLo : : OrGh : ?
33. DMT : FNS : : HRJ : ? A. GhnM B. WbDq
A. ISK B. JSI C. NMoh D. FwbF
C. JTK D. JTI 47. GNTB : GTNB : : WROX : ?
34. ABDH : ZYWS : : EFHL : ? A. WORX B. RONX
A. USOV B. VOSU C. WYOX D. RWOX
C. VUSO D. TSUV
48. JMP : GOQ : : DBL : ?
35. BYDW : FVHT : : GQIO : ? A. BCN B. AEN
A. JLNP B. QSTR
C. BDN D. ADM
C. KMOL D. KNML
49. UCFH : VEIL : : RXDJ : ?
36. CIRCLE : RICELC : : SQUARE : ?
A. UQSERA B. QUSERA A. RYFM B. TAHO
C. QSUERA D. UQSAER C. SZNG D. SZGN
37. PSQR : CFED : : JMKL : ? 50. ICHQ : HCIT : : PMBK : ?
A. UXVW B. WZYX A. BMYR B. BMPN
C. YVXZ D. YZWX C. MBPY D. MPBS
 5

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D C A A D B A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D C D B A B B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D A A B D A C B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B B C D A B A D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C A A B B B A D D B

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. The letters of the first group are reversed. 6. The three letters are moved –2, +2 and –2
steps respectively.
U V W : S X U : : L M N : JO L
–2 –2
2. The three letters are moved 2, 2 and 1 steps +2 +2
forward respectively. –2 –2
BCF : DEG :: M NQ : O PR 7. The word is divided in the sections of three
+2 +2 letters and the letters are written backwards.
+2 +2 E IG H T Y : G IE Y T H : : O U T P U T : T U O T U P
+1 +1
8. The letters are consecutive and written in
3. The word is divided in sections of two letters reverse order.
and the letters are reversed. 9. In each set of letters, the 1st and 3rd letters
NAT IO N : A N IT N O :: H U N G RY : U H G N Y R are consecutive.
C JD L : F M G R : : IK JR : O Q PT

4. The first letter in each group is repeated and 10. B O Q D : E R T G : : A N P C : D Q S F

followed by two consecutive letters. +2 +2 +2 +2
5. The three letters are moved 5, 4, and 3 steps
forward respectively. +2 +2 +2 +2

AC E : FG H :: LN P : QRS 11. In each group the alternate letters are capitals.

+5 +5 12. In each group the first three letters are
+4 +4 consecutive and they follow the fourth letter.

+3 +3
 6

13. In each group the letters jump three letters 20. The letters are moved seven steps backwards.
between them, i.e., they are moving to the P N L J : IG E C : : U SQ O : N L JH
fourth letter.
–7 –7
A EI : LPT :: C G K : F JN
–7 –7
+ 4 +4 +4 +4 +4 +4 +4 +4
14. The letters in first set are jumping two letters, –7 –7
i.e., moving three steps forward and in the –7 –7
second they are jumping one letter, i.e.
moving two steps backward. 21. Only the middle letters are reversed to obtain
R U X : T R P :: B E H : Q O M the second set of letters.
D IM O : D M IO : : JU V R : JV U R
+3 +3 –2 –2 +3+3 –2 –2
15. The first set of letters drop the first letter to
get the second set. 22. The three letters are moved +6, –5 and +4
steps respectively.
CART : ART :: FOU R: OU R
RRS : XMW :: IT B : OOF
16. The three letters in first set are moved +4, –2, +6 +6
and +4 steps respectively. –5 –5
F IK : JG O : : D F R : HDV +4 +4
+4 +4
23. Of the four letters the first letter is left at its
–2 –2
place while the other three letters are written
+4 +4 in reverse order.
17. The letters in the first set are moved –1, +1 O D RS : O SRD :: PAG J : P JG A
and +1 steps respectively.
L JH : K K I : : C IA : B JB 24. Of the four letters in each set only two letters
–1 –1 are vowels.
25. Of the three letters the first letter is left as it is
+1 +1
and the other letters are moved one and two
+1 +1 steps backward respectively.
18. The three letters are moved +7, +6 and +7 A K U : A JS : : C R D : CQB
steps forward respectively. –1 –1
AC E : H IL : : M OQ : TU X –2 –2
+7 +7
26. The first letter is moved two steps forward
+6 +6 and the second and third letters two steps
+7 +7 backward.
L O M : N M K : : PK I : R IG
19. The consecutive letters in the first set are in
natural order and in the second set, they are +2 +2
in reverse order. –2 –2
B C D E : W V U T : : Q R S T : JIH G –2 –2
— —→ ←— — — —→
 7

27. The three letters are moved 3, 2 and 1 step 34. A B D H : Z Y W S : : E F H L : V U S O

forward respectively.
+1 +2 +4 –1 –2 –4 +1 +2 +4 –1 –2 –4
ARQ : DTR :: JN G : M PH 35. The letters are moved +4, –3, +4, –3 steps
+3 +3 respectively.
+2 +2
B Y D W : F V H T : : G Q IO : K N M L
+1 +1
+4 +4
28. The third letter is placed ahead of the first and –3 –3
second letters. +4 +4
O D L : LO D : : PW N : N PW –3 –3
29. The letters of the first group are reversed and
letter P added in the end. 36. The word is divided into two equal parts and
then the letters are reversed.
MAR : RAMP : : IN S : S N IP
C IR C L E : R IC E L C : : S Q U A R E : U Q S E R A

30. The first letter in the first set of letters has its 37. In the first set the first, third, fourth and second
consecutive letters on either side in the second positioned letters are in consecutive order. In
set. the second set the first, fourth, third and
SU W : RST : : D FH : CDE second positioned letters are in consecutive
order.
31. The three letters are moved –1, +1, –1 steps PSQR : CFED : : JMKL : WZYX
respectively. –®® ——® –®® —–®
¬ ¬¬– ¬ ¬¬
PYG : OZF :: SB J : RCI 38. The letters are consecutive and the first letter
–1 –1 of the first set is moved 14 steps ‘or’ the last
+1 +1 letter of the first set is moved 11 steps forward
to get the first letter of the second set.
–1 –1
JK L M : XYZA : : N O PQ : BCD E
32. The consecutive letters in the first set are in + 14 + 14
natural order and in the second set, they are
or + 11 or + 11
in reverse order.
ABC : ZY X :: IJK : RQP 39. The letters are in natural order and skip one
letter in between.
33. The three letters are moved +2, +1, –1 steps
EGI : NPR :: H JL : TV X
respectively.
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
DMT : FN S :: HRJ : JSI
40. The first letter is dropped and the remaining
+2 +2
three letters are reversed.
+1 +1
TPNX : XNP : : BUCW : W CU
–1 –1
 8

41. The letters are moved +3, –2, +1, steps 46. The first and the third letters are capital
respectively. letters.
CNO : FLP :: WHF : ZFG 47. The two letters in the middle are reversed.
+3 +3 GNTB : GTNB : : WROX : WORX
–2 –2
48. The three letters are moved –3, +2, +1 step
+1 +1 respectively.
42. The two letters in the centre remain the same JMP : GOQ : : DBL : ADM
in second set. –3 –3
D U ST : B U SY : : JO IN : RO IT +2 +2
43. F H J L : V T R P : : M O Q S : J H F D +1 +1

+2 +2 +2 – 2 –2 – 2 +2 +2 +2 – 2 –2 – 2 49. The letters are moved 1, 2, 3, 4 steps forward

44. The three letters are moved +5, -3, +1 steps respectively.
respectively. UCFH : VEIL : : RXDJ : SZGN
S W Z : XTA :: D GM : ID N +1 +1
+5 +5 +2 +2
–3 –3 +3 +3
+1 +1 +4 +4
45. The first letter is dropped, the remaining three 50. The first three letters are reversed and the last
letters are reversed and letter ‘A’ placed in letter moved three steps forward.
between the second and third letters. ICHQ : HCIT : : PMBK : BMPN
N BRC : CRAB : : TYDA : ADAY
+3 +3
 9

WORD ANALOGY
Directions : In the questions given below establish C. Army D. Barrack
the relationship between the two words. Then from E. Cavalry
the given options select one which has the same 10. Guilt is to Past as Hope is to.....
relationship as of the given two words. A. Present B. Future
1. Mania is to Craze as Phobia is to ..... C. Today D. Despair
A. Desires B. Hobbies E. Hopeless
C. Want D. Fear 11. ......... is to Liquid as Mile is to Distance.
E. Favourites A. Unit B. Kilo
2. Stammering is to Speech as Deafness is to..... C. Scale D. Litre
A. Ear B. Hearing E. Mercury
C. Noise D. Silence 12. Gum is to.... as Socket is to Eye.
E. Commotion A. Tree B. Paper
3. Secretive is to Open as Snide is to..... C. Tooth D. Stick
A. Genuine B. Hidden E. None of these
C. Outcome D. Forward 13. Court is to Judges as Cockpit is to.......
E. Advanced A. Attorney B. Pilot
4. Leash is to Pet as Handcuffs is to..... C. Lawyer D. Ruler
A. Cunning B. Dacoits E. Administrator
C. Criminals D. Robbers 14. Stars are to Night as Sun is to....
E. Accused A. Noon B. Dawn
5. Ride is to Horse as Smoke is to..... C. Day D. Light
A. Chimney B. Sparkling E. Dusk
C. Cigar D. Ashes 15. ..... is to Nose as Touch is to Skin.
E. Fire A. Smell B. Face
6. Squander is to Money as Dissipate is to.... C. Breath D. Perfume
A. Light B. Finance E. Nostril
C. Savings D. Energy 16. Spasm is to Pain as Flash is to.....
E. Banking A. Wind B. Light
7. Tipsy is to Drunken as Walk is to....... C. Signal D. Fire
A. Stroll B. Exercise E. Rain
C. Stride D. Tired 17. War is to..... as Smoke is to Pollution.
E. Run A. Alliance B. Peace
8. Sphere is to Circle as Cube is to......... C. Victory D. Treaty
A. Prism B. Cylinder E. Destruction
C. Square D. Trapezium 18. Treatment is to...... as Education is to Teacher.
E. None of these A. Doctor B. Matron
9. Leader is to Follower as ..... is to Soldier. C. Hospital D. Clinic
A. Captain B. Unit E. Chemist
9 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–2
 10

19. Mammals is to Man as Aves is to..... C. Anger D. Noisy

A. Aeroplanes B. Birds E. Kill
C. Pigeons D. Fruit 30. ............. is to Dumb as Light is to Blind.
E. Winds A. Voice B. Language
20. Mango is to Fruit as ... is to Monument. C. Speech D. Tongue
A. Remains B. Tombs E. None of these
C. Red Fort D. History 31. Physicist is to Physics as ......... is to Anatomy.
E. Pillars A. Botany B. Botanist
21. Statue is to Shape as Song is to..... C. Body D. Biologist
A. Singer B. Lyrics E. Medicine
C. Composer D. Poetry 32. Love is to Hate as Friend is to.......
E. Tune A. Trust B. Companion
22. Train is to Track as Bullet is to.... C. Enemy D. Despise
A. Barrel B. Kill E. Adore
C. Firing D. Ammunition 33. Flower is to Petal as ... is to Arm.
E. Weapon A. Hand B. Weapon
23. Psychology is to Emotions as Philosophy is C. Clock D. Law
to..... E. Body
A. Dreams B. Scholar 34. Sweep is to ...... as Wash is to Soap.
C. Research D. Wisdom A. Broom B. Dust
E. Learning C. Floor D. Water
24. Mermaid is to Fish as Centaur is to..... E. Clean
A. Pegasus B. Unicorn 35. Dull is to..... as Intelligent is to Clever.
C. Deer D. Cat A. Bright B. Foolish
E. Horse C. Insane D. Mad
25. Punishment is to Imprisonment as Reward is E. Slow
to...... 36. Scales is to Fish as Feathers is to.....
A. Freedom B. Remand A. Hat B. Birds
C. Money D. Rebuke C. Prune D. Fly
E. Award E. Light
26. Surgeon is to Scalpel as Sculptor is to.... 37. Burn is to Ointment as Grief is to.....
A. Pastle B. Chisel A. Sorrow B. Adversity
C. Pallet D. Engraving C. Consolation D. Pity
E. Hammer E. Sentiment
27. Backbone is to Back as ... is to Belly. 38. Frequently is to Always as Seldom is to......
A. Kidney B. Navel A. Often B. Rarely
C. Ribs D. Femur C. Occasionally D. Never
E. Lungs E. None of these
28. Star is to......as Drop is to Ocean. 39. Mine is to I as His is to......
A. Galaxy B. Shine A. Him B. Their
C. Earth D. Twinkle C. Them D. Me
E. None of these E. He
29. ........... is to Strike as Whisper is to Shout. 40. Delhi is to Haryana as Orissa is to .........
A. Slap B. Touch A. Jammu & Kashmir
 11

B. Andhra Pradesh A. Lawyer B. Punishment

C. Tamil Nadu C. Hospital D. Doctor
D. Nagaland E. Medicine
E. Punjab 50. Millionaire is related to Wealth in the same
41. Pen is related to Stationery in the same way way as Genius is related to........
as Chair is related to..... A. Capability B. Smartness
A. Wood B. Rest C. Intelligence D. Awareness
C. Room D. Position E. Alertness
E. Furniture 51. Needle is related to Thread in the same way
42. Tailor is related to Cloth in the same way as as Pen is related to.......
Cobbler is related to ....... A. Write B. Ink
A. Machine B. Leather C. Cap D. Paper
C. Stiching D. Mending E. Word
E. Making 52. As Paw is to Cat so also Hoof is to.......
43. As Dam is to Mad so also Drab is to.... A. Horse B. Lamb
A. Barb B. Brab C. Elephant D. Lion
C. Bard D. Badr E. Hen
E. Brda 53. House is related to Mason in the same way as
44. As Cassock is to Priest so also ........ is to Furniture is related to.......
Graduate. A. Wood B. Chair
A. Gown B. Cap C. Table D. Seat
C. Tie D. Coat E. Carpenter
E. Degree 54. Bullet is to Rifle as Arrow is to.......
45. As Dilatory is to Expeditious so also Direct A. Archer B. Bow
is to.... C. Target D. Cord
A. Straight B. Tortuous E. Bull’s eye
C. Curved D. Circumlocutory 55. Page is related to Book in the same way as
E. Perfect Brick is related to.......
46. Intelligent is related to Clever in the same A. Heap B. Building
way as Dull is related to....... C. Clay D. Mason
A. Light B. Cunning E. Mud
C. Slow D. Foolish 56. Walk is related to Run in the same way as
E. Bright Breeze is related to.......
47. As Boat is to Sails so also Balloon is to... A. Cold B. Dust
A. Rubber B. Nylon C. Air D. Wind
C. Rope D. Hot air E. Smoke
E. Wind 57. Driving is related to Bus in the same way as
48. As Horse is to Grass so also Automobile is Flying is related to.......
to....... A. Air B. Kite
A. Smoke B. Petrol C. Bird D. Aeroplane
C. Brake oil D. Mobil oil E. Paper
E. Water 58. What is related to Elbow in the same way as
49. Crime is related to Court in the same way as Knee is related to Leg?
Disease is related to..... A. Palm B. Fingers
 12

C. Shoulder D. Hand 65. House is related to Shelter in the same way

E. Head as Soap is related to.......
59. What is related to Fruit in the same way as A. Washerman B. Bathroom
Cabbage is related to Vegetable? C. Water D. Fragrance
A. Ginger B. Orange E. Cleanliness
C. Carrot D. Capsicum 66. Hot is related to Oven in the same way as
E. Potato Cold is related to.......
60. Centimetre is related to Metre in the same A. Air-conditioner B. Refrigerator
way as Paisa is related to....... C. Ice-cream D. Snow
A. Capital B. Rupee E. Ice-cube
C. Coin D. Wealth 67. Swim is related to Fish in the same way as
E. Money Walk is related to.......
61. Top is related to Bottom in the same way as A. Man B. Bird
Sky is related to....... C. Legs D. Foot
A. Cloud B. Air E. Athlete
C. Earth D. Water 68. Jungle is related to Zoo in the same way as
E. Land Sea is related to.......
62. Yes is related to No in the same way as Alive A. Harbour B. Water
is related to....... C. Aquarium D. Fishery
A. Dead B. Life E. Oceanarium
C. Live D. Funeral 69. Metal is related to Conduction in the same
E. Gone way as Plastic is related to.......
63. Kathak is related to Uttar Pradesh in the A. Petro Chemicals
same way as Odissy is related to....... B. Industries
A. Assam B. Gujarat C. Inflammation
C. Orissa D. Maharashtra D. Insulation
E. Punjab E. Induction
64. Table is related to Carpenter in the same way 70. Patient is related to Doctor in the same way
as Building is related to....... as Student is related to .......
A. Craftsman B. Contractor A. School B. Teacher
C. Mason D. Architect C. Book D. Classmates
E. Cobbler E. Studies

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B A C C D E C A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C B C A B E A B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
E A D E C B C A B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C E A B B C D E B
 13

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
E B C A D D D B C C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B A E B B D D D B B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A C C E B A A D B

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. The related words are synonyms. 18. Education is sought by the teacher and
2. Defect in speech causes stammering and in treatment by doctor.
hearing causes deafness. 19. Species of man is mammals and that of birds
3. The related words are antonyms. aves.
4. Leash is used to tie a pet, handcuffs to tie 20. Mango is a specified fruit; Red Fort a
criminals. specified monument.
5. Horse is the object of action ‘to ride’ and 21. Shape of an object forms the statue and tune
cigar is the object of action ‘to smoke’. of lyrics forms the song.
6. Squander is misuse of money and dissipate is 22. Track is the path of train, barrel is of bullet.
misuse of energy.
23. Psychology is the study of emotions as
7. As tipsy is lesser degree of drunken so is philosophy is of wisdom.
walk to run.
24. Mermaid is a mythological fish and centaur
8. Two-dimensional view of a sphere is circle a mythological horse.
and that of cube a square.
25. Imprisonment is the form of punishment,
9. As followers are guided by their leader so are money a kind of reward.
soldiers by their captain.
26. As scalpel is an instrument used by a surgeon
10. Feeling of guilt comes with mistakes in past so is chisel of a sculptor.
and that of hope for a good future.
27. Backbone supports the back and ribs support
11. Liquid is measured in litres and distance in
the belly.
miles.
28. A single drop is a very tiny part in an ocean
12. As gum holds the tooth in place so socket
so is a star in the galaxy.
holds the eye.
29. The lesser degree of shout is whisper and that
13. The judges work from court and pilots from
of strike is touch.
cockpit.
30. Blind cannot see the light and dumb cannot
14. Stars are seen during the night and sun during
give speech.
day.
31. Physicist deals with the subject Physics and
15. Sense organ skin senses the touch and nose
biologist with subject anatomy.
senses smell.
16. A second’s spur of pain is spasm and that of 32. The related words are antonyms.
light is flash. 33. Petal is a part of flower, arm is a part of body.
17. Smoke causes pollution and war causes 34. Soap is the object of action ‘to wash’ and
destruction. broom is ‘to sweep’.
 14

35. One who is clever is intelligent and one who 53. House is made by a mason, furniture is made
is foolish is dull. by a carpenter.
36. As fish is covered with scales so are birds 54. Bullet is shot with a rifle, arrow is shot with
with feathers. a bow.
37. As ointment soothes the burn, so does 55. Page is a part of the book, brick is a part of
a building.
consolation to grief.
56. A ‘fast walk’ is - ‘run’, a ‘fast breeze’ is ‘wind’.
38. The related words are near opposites.
57. Mode of conveyance, bus, is driven and mode
39. The related words are noun–pronoun. of conveyance, aeroplane, is flown.
40. The related words are neighbouring States. 58. Knee is a joint in the leg, elbow is a joint in
41. Pen is a type of stationery, chair is a type of the hand.
furniture. 59. Cabbage is a vegetable, orange is a fruit.
42. Tailor makes clothes from cloth, cobbler 60. Centimetre is one hundred part of a metre,
makes shoes from leather. paisa is one hundredth part of a rupee.
43. Letter of the related words are written 61. The related words are opposites.
backwards. 62. The related words are opposites.
44. The dress worn on attaining Priesthood is a 63. Kathak is a dance form of Uttar Pradesh and
cassock, the dress worn on becoming a Oddisi of Orissa.
graduate is a gown. 64. Table is made by a carpenter, a building is
made by a mason.
45. The related words are opposites.
65. House provides shelter, soap provides
46. The related words are synonyms. cleanliness.
47. Sails are needed to sail a boat, hot air is 66. Food remains hot in an oven, and cold in a
needed to float a balloon in air. refrigerator.
48. Horse depends on grass for food and energy, 67. Fishes swim, man walks.
automobile on petrol for energy. 68. Zoo is the part of jungle where wild animals
49. Crime is taken care of in a court by are kept for the public to see and where they
punishment, disease is taken care of in a are studied, bred and protected. Similarly,
hospital by treatment. oceanarium is the part of sea where sea
creature are kept to be seen by the public or
50. A millionaire has lots of wealth, a genius has to be studied by scientists.
lots of intelligence.
69. Metal is a good conductor and plastic a good
51. Needle uses thread for sewing, pen uses ink insulator of heat.
for writing. 70. Problem of patient is attended by a doctor,
52. Cat’s leg is a paw, horse’s leg is a hoof. problem of student is attended by the teacher.
 15

CODING & DECODING

Directions : In the following questions select the A. ZQZALY B. ZOZBLY
right option which indicates the correct code for C. ZPZALY D. ZPZLAY
the word or letter given in the question. 9. In a certain language SFTVMU is coded as
1. If CORRESPONDENCE is coded as RESULT. In that language what does GJSTU
NUTTRAXUPQRPNR in a certain code, how mean?
will SCOPE be coded? A. FLIRT B. HURTS
A. AUXNR B. ANUXR C. FIRST D. FIRED
C. RNUXA D. XUPAR 10. In a certain code APPROACH is coded as
CHOAPRAP. How will RESTRICT be coded?
2. In a certain code language SECRET is written
A. CTRISTER B. ERTSIRTC
as UIIZOF. How will MYSTERY be written in C. CTRISTRE D. TCIRSTRE
the same code?
11. If EDUCATION is written as DECUTAOIN,
A. OCYANCN B. OCYBOCM
then COLLEGE will be written as :
C. OCYAODM D. OCYBODM
A. OCLLGEE B. OCLGEEL
3. In a certain code LOCATE is written as 981265 C. COELLEG D. EOLCGLE
and SPARK as 47230, CASKET will be coded 12. In a certain code VILLA is coded as YKOND,
in the same manner as : then HOUSE will be coded in the same manner
A. 124056 B. 210465 as :
C. 164025 D. 124506 A. KQYTG B. KQXUH
4. If HALT is coded as SZOG in a certain code, C. JPWTG D. LRYVI
how will STOP be coded in the same manner? 13. SCIENTIST is coded in a certain language as
A. GFLK B. HGLK ICSTNETSI. AMBULANCE will be coded in
C. HGKJ D. IHML the same language as :
5. In a certain code language ABIXV is coded A. MBUALNCEA B. BMAALUECN
as DELAY. In the same code what will C. MAUBALCNE D. UBMLAECNA
BXOIV stand for? 14. In a certain code ELECTION is written as
A. EARTH B. EARNS GLGCVIQN, then VOTER will be coded as :
C. EARLY D. ELDER A. XOVET B. VOXET
C. WPUFU D. VQTGR
6. In a certain code FLOWER is coded as
15. EXCURTION is coded as CXEURTNOI,
EIJPVG. How will ROSE be coded?
OUTBURSTS will be coded in the same
A. QMOW B. QLOX
manner as :
C. QKNX D. QLNX A. UTBTRUTSS B. OUTRUBSTS
7. If SPORTS is coded in a certain manner as C. TUOBURSTS D. TUOBRSUTS
TOPQUR, then TENNIS will be coded as : 16. If ADD is coded as WOO, SUM as QJM and
A. SFMOJT B. UFONHT TOTAL as KPKWX, then TOADS will be
C. SDOMJR D. UDOMJR coded as :
8. If BROTHER is coded as IYVAOLY, then A. KPOWQ B. KPWQO
SISTER will be coded as : C. KPWOQ D. KPWOJ

15
 16

17. If BOMBAY is coded as GLRYFV, then A. 60482 B. 03482

MADRAS will be coded as : C. 30214 D. 60487
A. RIXOIP B. RXIOXP 28. In a certain code language CHILD is written
C. RXIOGQ D. RXIOFP as IMOQJ. How will BABE be written in the
18. If QVOJTI is written in a certain code as same language?
PUNISH, what will SFXBSE mean? A. HFHJ B. FGFK
A. RETARD B. REWARD C. FFGJ D. HFGJ
C. ROTARY D. REBUKE
29. QUOTE is coded as OWMVC, how will
19. If ADMIRE is coded as AIDRME, then WRITE be coded?
ADORES will be coded as : A. TSFUB B. UTGVC
A. AODRSE B. ARDESO
C. VUHWD D. TUFWC
C. ARDEOS D. AREDOS
30. VACATE is coded as YEFEWI, OCCUPY will
20. FAILURE is coded as OHRSDYN, then
be coded as :
SUCCESS will be coded in the same manner as:
A. QEEXRB B. SHGZTD
A. BBNNZBB B. BBLJNZB
C. BLNNZZB D. BLNNZBB C. SFGXTC D. RGFYSC
21. If PURCHASE is coded as UPCRAHES, then 31. If CHART stands for GLEVX, then BOARD
HIRE will be coded in the same manner as : will stand for :
A. RHIE B. HIER A. FSEVH B. HVESF
C. HERI D. IHER C. VESFH D. SEVHF
22. If is UZWV coded as FADE, then what does 32. If BOOK is coded as CNPJ, then MOON will
IFHG stand for in the same code? be coded as :
A. RUST B. PORT A. MPNN B. NNPM
C. QUIT D. ROSE C. PNMN D. NMPN
23. ACTOR is coded in a certain language as 33. If PAPER stands for QBQFS, then what will
EGXSV. How will STAGE be coded in the same GLASS stand for?
language? A. MTBHT B. MHTBT
A. VWFLJ B. XYFLJ C. HMBTT D. HMTBT
C. WXEKI D. WYDJH 34. If DOWN is coded as FQYP, then the word
24. If DRINK is coded as IMNIP, then COKE will WITH will be coded as :
be coded as : A. KYJV B. IJYK
A. GIOA B. HJPZ C. YKVJ D. JKVY
C. HIOA D. GJPZ
35. If CHAIR stands for EJCKT, then TABLE
25. HORSE is written in a certain code as BUNGY would stand for :
and CAT as HOW, how will CHEST be written A. NGDC B. VCDNG
in the same code?
C. DCGNV D. GNVCD
A. OBYGW B. WYGBN
C. UNHBY D. HBYGW 36. If the word CLERK is coded as EOIWQ, then
how would you code the word TABLE?
26. If MOTHERLAND is coded as 9206314758,
then NORTH will be coded as : A. VCDNG B. VCDGN
A. 72406 B. 52406 C. VDFQK D. VDFOK
C. 52360 D. 52106 37. If the word TRADE is coded as XVEHI, then
27. If BAD is coded in a certain language as 514, how should the word PUBLIC be coded?
GIVE as 3068 and FOR as 729, then how will A. TYFMPG B. SXEOLF
VIDEO be written? C. TYFPMG D. SXLLOP
 17 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–3

38. If the word PENCIL is coded as LICNEP, then A. 3 B. 2

how would the word INKPOT be C. 0 D. 4
coded? 47. If in a certain code FIRST is represented as
A. TOPINK B. JOLQPU 36509, TOP as 154, MORE as 4837 and MERIT
C. HMKOPS D. TOPKNI as 83579, then what is the code for ‘R’?
39. If the word TRAIN is coded as WUDLQ, then A. 8 B. 3
how will the word BUS be coded? C. 9 D. 7
A. EXU B. DWU 48. Certain letters are coded as : TODAY–45738,
C. EXV D. VXE WROTE–10542, DATE–7342 and DIRTH–
40. If the word UNITED is coded as SLGRCB, 79046, what does the code number ‘5’ stand
then how should the word DISOWN be coded? for?
A. BGQMUL B. CGRLTK A. D B. R
C. CGRTLK D. BGQLUM C. O D. T
41. In a certain code TRANSMISSION is written 49. In a certain code language certain words are
as RTANMSISISON. How will coded as given below : JOKER–29750,
COMMUNICATIONS be written in the same TRUMP–45813, PROJECT–1572064. What is
code? the code for ‘C’?
A. OCMMUNCIATIONS A. 6 B. 7
B. OCMMNUICTAIONS C. 5 D. 0
C. OCMMNUICTAISNO 50. If FACE is coded as 6135, BIG as 297, HAD
D. OCMMNUICTAIOSN as 814 and BADGE as 21475, then what is the
42. In a certain code REGISTRY is written as code for ‘A’?
VAKEWPVU. How will ENTRY be written in A. 3 B. 1
the same code? C. 2 D. 4
A. IJXNC B. ARPVW 51. In a certain code certain words are coded as
C. ARPVU D. IJXMC follows : ACTION–014853, FORCE–25916,
43. AUSTRALIA is written in a certain code REGAIN–967083. Which of the following
language as 973609429 and CANADA as letters is coded as ‘7’?
591989. How should CRUST be written in the A. A B. N
same code? C. R D. G
A. 50763 B. 53076 52. In a certain code WORK is written as 0918,
C. 50376 D. 50736 ROUND as 19354, KIND as 8654, BRING as
44. DAZE is written as 41265 in a certain code. 71652 and BROOD as 71994. Which of the
How will BOY be written in the same code? following is represented by ‘2’?
A. 41425 B. 5120 A. R B. G
C. 21525 D. 359 C. N D. B
45. If MEDAL is coded as XPOLW, then how will 53. Certain words are coded as follows : BEAR–
CADGE be coded in the same manner? 9218, DRUM–0863, PRY–485 and DOOR–
A. NLORP B. PNQTR 7998. What is the code for ‘R’?
C. LJMPN D. MLOQP A. 9 B. 3
46. The code for certain letters are indicated in the C. 8 D. 4
following words: BRAIN–12345, GRADE– 54. FRANK is coded as 93210, AFTER as 29463,
72308, DRAIN–02345, STATE–78388. What MUFFET as 879964, FERRY as 96335 and
is the code for ‘D’? REEF as 3669. What is the code for ‘F’?
 18 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–3-II

A. 9 B. 3 58. In a certain code BEAUTY is coded as 835247,

C. 6 D. 1 DEVIL as 03916 and ABIDE as 58103. What
55. If SAY is coded as 069, ASK as 608, YES as does ‘3’ stand for?
930, DYE as 493 and EYE as 393, then what A. E B. D
is the code for ‘Y’? C. B D. A
A. 0 B. 9 59. Certain words are coded in the following
C. 3 D. 6 manner : BARK–0375, DIRT–4972, WAGE–
56. If STABILITY is coded as 321956527 and 4086, RISK–7518. What is the code for ‘R’?
RESTICATE as 403258120, what is ‘I’ coded A. 2 B. 7
as? C. 5 D. 0
A. 6 B. 2 60. The code for certain letters are indicated in the
C. 5 D. 9 following words : TRADE–54321, BADGE–
57. If EXAMINATION is coded as 83690567045, 93271, GRADE–74321, QUEUE–80101.
the codes for ‘N’ and ‘A’ are : What is the code for ‘G’?
A. 7, 5 B. 5, 6 A. 7 B. 4
C. 6, 5 D. 5, 7 C. 2 D. 8

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D A B C D D C C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B B A C C D B C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A C B D D A A B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B C C B C C D C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A D C A C B C A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D B C A B C B A B A

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. Since, 2. The word is coded by moving the letters
C O R R E S P O N D E N C E forward by consecutive even numbered steps.
SECRET UIIZOF
+2
N U T T R A X U P Q R P N R +4
Therefore, +6
S C O P E +8
+10
+12
A N U X R
 19

Similarly, and
H G L K

19th 20th 15th 16th

Position of letters in English Alphabet from
right side
5. Since,
3. Since, ABIXV DELAY
L O C A T E +3
+3
+3
9 8 1 2 6 5
+3
and S P A R K
+3

4 7 2 3 0 Therefore,
BXOIV EARLY
Therefore,
+3
C A S K E T
+3
+3
1 2 4 0 5 6 +3
4. Since, +3
H A L T
6. The word is coded by moving the letters,
consecutive odd numbered steps backwards.
8th 1st 12th 20th
Position of letters in English Alphabet from
left side
and
S Z O G

8th 1st 12th 20th

Position of letters in English Alphabet from
right side
Therefore,
S T O P
(The series restarts from Z on reaching A)
19th 20th 15th 16th 7. The word is coded by moving the letters one
Position of letters in English Alphabet from step forward and one step backward
left side alternately.
 20

Therefore,
GJSTU FIRST
–1
–1
–1
–1
–1
10. The word is divided into sections containing
two letters each, and then the sections are
TENNIS UDOMJR written backwards.
+1 AP PR OA CH CH OA PR AP
–1
+1
–1 Similarly,
+1 RE ST RI CT CT RI ST RE
–1
8. The word is coded by moving the letters seven 11. The word is divided into sections containing
steps forward. two letters each and the positions of the letters
BROTHER IYVAOLY are interchanged.
+7 ED UC AT IO N DE CU TA OI N
+7
+7
+7 Similarly,
+7
CO LL EG E OC LL GE E
+7
+7
Similarly, 12. The word is coded by moving the letters three
SISTER ZPZALY and two steps forward alternately.
+7 VILLA YKOND
+3
+7
+2
+7 +3
+7 +2
+7 +3
+7 Similarly,
9. Since, HOUSE KQXUH
+3
SFTVMU RESULT
+2
–1 +3
–1 +2
–1 +3
–1 13. The word is divided into three equal sections,
–1 and the letters in each section are written
–1 backwards.
 21

SCI ENT IST ICS TNE TSI 17. The letters of the word are moved five steps
forward and three steps backward alternately.
BOMBAY GLRYFV
Similarly, +5
AMB ULA NCE BMA ALU ECN –3
+5
–3
14. Only the letters at the odd positions are moved +5
two steps forward. –3
Similarly,
MADRAS RXIOFP
+5
–3
+5
–3
+5
–3
Similarly,
VOTER XOVET 18. Since,
+2
+0 QVOJTI PUNISH
+2
+0 –1
+2 –1
+0
–1
15. The word is divided into three equal sections, –1
and the letters of first and third sections are –1
written backwards. –1
EXC URT ION CXE URT NOI Therefore,
SFXBSE REWARD
–1
Similarly, –1
–1
OUT BUR STS TUO BUR STS –1
–1
–1
16. Since, 19. Since,
A D D S U M T O T A L A D M I R E

W O O Q J M K P K WX A I D R M E
Therefore, Therefore,
T O A D S A D O R E S

K P W O Q A R D E O S
 22

20. The letters of the word are moved nine and Position of letters in English Alphabet from
seven steps forward alternately. right side
FAILURE OHRSDYN and
+9 R U S T
+7
+9
+7
+9 9th 6th 8th 7th
+7 Position of letters in English Alphabet from
+9
left side
Similarly,
23. The letters of the word are moved four steps
SUCCESS BBLJNZB forward.
ACTOR EGXSV
+4
+4
+4
+4
+4
21. The word is divided into sections of two Similarly,
letters, and then the places of letters in each
section are interchanged. STAGE WXEKI
PU RCHASE U PCRAHES +4
+4
+4
Similarly, +4
HIRE IHER +4
24. The letters of the word are moved five steps
22. Since, forward and backward alternately.
U Z W V DRINK IMNIP
+5
–5
21st 26th 23rd 22th +5
Position of letters in English Alphabet from –5
right side +5
and Similarly,
F A D E
COKE HJPZ
+5
21st 26th 23rd 22th –5
Position of letters in English Alphabet from +5
left side –5
Therefore, 25. Since,
I F H G H O R S E and C A T

9th 6th 8th 7th B U N G Y H O W

 23

Therefore, Similarly,
C H E S T
WRITE UTGVC
–2
H B Y G W +2
26. Since, –2
M O T H E R L A N D +2
–2

9 2 0 6 3 1 4 7 5 8 30. The word is coded by moving the letters three

Therefore, and four steps forward alternately.
N O R T H
VACATE YEFEWI
+3
5 2 1 0 6 +4
27. Since, +3
B A D G I V E F O R +4
+3
+4
5 1 4 3 0 6 8 7 2 9
Therefore, Similarly,
V I D E O
OCCUPY RGFYSC
+3
6 0 4 8 2
+4
28. The letters of the word are moved six and five +3
steps forward alternately. +4
CHILD IMOQJ +3
+6 +4
+5
+6 31. The word is coded by moving the letters four
+5 steps forward.
+6
Similarly, CHART GLEVX
BABE HFHJ +4
+6 +4
+5 +4
+6 +4
+5 +4
29. The word is coded by moving the letters two Similarly,
steps backward and forward alternately.
QUOTE OWMVC BOARD FSEVH
–2 +4
+2 +4
–2 +4
+2 +4
–2 +4
 24

32. The word is coded by moving the letters 35. The letters of the word are moved two steps
one step forward and backward alternately. forward.
BOOK CNPJ CHAIR EJCKT
+2
+1 +2
–1 +2
+1 +2
–1 +2
Similarly, Similarly,
MOON NNPM TABLE VCDNG
+1 +2
–1 +2
+1 +2
–1 +2
+2
33. The letters of the word are moved one step
forward. 36. The letters of the word are moved forward by
increasing steps starting from two.
PAPER QBQFS CLERK EOIWQ
+1 +2
+1 +3
+1 +4
+1 +5
+1 +6
Similarly, Similarly,
TABLE VDFQK
GLASS HMBTT
+2
+1
+3
+1 +4
+1
+5
+1 +6
+1
37. The letters of the word are moved four steps
34. The letters of the word are moved two steps forward.
forward. TRADE XVEHI
+4
DOWN FQYP
+4
+2
+4
+2
+4
+2 +4
+2
Similarly,
Similarly, PUBLIC TYFPMG
+4
WITH YKVJ
+4
+2 +4
+2
+4
+2 +4
+2 +4
 25 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–4

38. The letters of the word are written backward. Similarly,

PENC IL LIC NEP COMMUNICATIONS OCMMNUICTAIOSN

Similarly,
42. The letters of the word are coded by moving
four steps forward and four steps backward
alternately.
39. The letters of the word are coded by moving REGISTRY VAKEWPVU
+4
three steps forward. –4
+4
–4
+4
–4
+4
–4
Similarly, ENTRY IJXNC
BUS EXV +4
+3 –4
+3 +4
+3 –4
+4
40. The word is coded by moving the letters two
steps backward. 43. Since,
AU S T R A L I A C ANADA
UNITED SLGRCB
–2
–2 9 7 3 6 0 9 4 2 9 5 9 1 9 8 9
–2 Therefore,
–2 C R U S T
–2
–2
Similarly, 5 0 7 3 6
DISOWN BGQMUL 44. Since,
–2 D A Z E
–2
–2
–2 4st 1st 26th 5th
–2 Position of letters in english alphabet from left
–2
side
41. The word is divided into sections of two Therefore,
letters, and then the places of the letters of the B O Y
odd numbered sections are interchanged.
TRANSMISSION RTANMSISISON
2 15 25
Position of letters in english alphabet from left
side
 26

45. The word is coded by moving the letters Number 7 is present only in REGAIN. Except
eleven steps forward. ‘G’ all the letters of this word are repeated in
MEDAL XPOLW other two words. So ‘7’ is the code for ‘G’.
+ 11
+ 11 52. The words are coded as :
WORK ROUND KIND BRING BROOD
+ 11 0 9 18 19354 8654 71 65 2 7 1 9 9 4
+ 11 It is clear that letter ‘G’ is represented by ‘2’.
+ 11
53. The words are coded as :
Similarly, BEAR ® 9218
CADGE NLORP DRUM ® 0863
+ 11 PRY ® 485
+ 11
DOOR ® 7998
+ 11 Code for R is 8. R is common in all the words
+ 11
and so is the number ‘8’.
+ 11
54. The letters are coded as :
46. The words which have letter D in them are: FRANK ® 93210
G R AD E & D R A I N ® letters AFTER ® 29463
7 2308 0 2 3 4 5 ® codes MUFFET ® 879964
It is clear that code for ‘D’ is ‘0’. FERRY ® 96335
47. The words that contain letter ‘R’ in them are : REEF ® 3669
F I R S T ® 3 6 5 0 9 Code for F is 9. ‘F’ is common in all the words
M O R E ® 4 8 3 7 and so is the number ‘9’.
M E R I T ® 8 3 5 7 9 55. The words are coded as :
Observation reveals that letter ‘R’ is common SAY ASK YES DYE EYE
in the three words and so is the number ‘3’. 069 608 930 493 393
48. The manner of coding is : It is clear that code for ‘ Y’ is 9.
T ODAY WR O T E DA T E D I R T H 56. The words are coded as :
45738 1 0542 7342 79046 STAB I L I T Y R E S T I CAT E
The number ‘5’ is common in words TODAY 32 1 9 5 6 5 2 7 403258120
and WROTE, and so is the letter ‘O’. Letter It is clear that code of ‘I’ is 5.
‘T’ cannot be the answer because it is common 57. The word is coded as :
in all the four words and so is its number code E XA M I N A T I O N
‘4’. 8 3 6 9 0 5 6 7 0 4 5
49. The words are coded in the following manner: Code for N is 5 and for A is 6.
JOKER ® 29750 58. The words are coded as :
TRUMP ® 45813 BE AU T Y D E V I L AB I D E
PROJECT ® 1572064 8352 47 0 391 6 5810 3
Letter ‘C’ is present in one word only, i.e., It is clear that 3 is the code for E.
PROJECT, and so is the code 6. All other 59. The words are coded as :
number codes of this word are repeated in BARK ® 0375
codes for JOKER and TRUMP. DIRT ® 4972
50. The letter ‘A’ is present in three words and so WAGE ® 4086
is the number ‘1’ in all the three words. RISK ® 7518
FACE HAD BADGE ‘R’ is common in three words and so is the
6 135 814 21475 number ‘7’.
51. The words are coded as : 60. The words with the letter G are :
ACTION ® 014853 BADGE & GRADE
FORCE ® 25916 93 2 71 7 4 3 21
REGAIN ® 967083 It is clear that code for G is 7.
 27

CODING LANGUAGE
Directions : In the following questions study the 6. In a certain code language, A. ‘pic vic nic’
coded patterns and then select the right option from stands for ‘winter is cold’; B. ‘to nic re’ for
the given alternatives. ‘summer is hot’; C. ‘re pic boo’ for ‘winter and
1. In a certain language, A. ‘go ju mi’ stands for summer’ and D. ‘vic tho pa’ for ‘nights are
‘plenty of money’; B. pao ju go nei vu’ for cold’. Which of the following word is the code
‘money creates lots of problems’; C. ‘kol vu for ‘summer’?
nei’ for ‘problems create tension’; and D. ‘sol A. nic B. boo
C. to D. re
tun ju haw’ for ‘still money is needed’. Which
of the following words stand for ‘money’? 7. In a certain language, A. ‘mx das sci’ means
A. nei B. ju ‘good little frock’; B. ‘jm coz sci’ means ‘girl
C. haw D. go behaves good’; C. ‘ngv drs coz’ means ‘girl
makes mischief’; and D. ‘das gp coz’ means
2. In a certain language, A. ‘FOR’ stands for
‘little girl fell’. What is the code for ‘frock’ in
‘old is gold’; B. ‘ROT’ stands for ‘gold is
this language?
pure’; C. ‘ROM’ stands for ‘gold is costly’. A. mx B. das
How will ‘pure old gold is costly’ be C. sci D. gp
written?
8. In a certain language ‘mu mit es’ means ‘who
A. TFROM B. FOTRM
is she’ and ‘elb mu es’ means ‘where is she’.
C. FTORM D. TOMRF
What is the code for ‘where’ in this language?
3. In a certain code ‘415’ means ‘milk is hot’; A. es B. elb
‘18’ means ‘hot soup’; and ‘895’ means ‘soup C. mu D. mit
is tasty’. What number will indicate the word
9. In a certain code language ‘069’ means ‘grapes
‘tasty’?
are sweet’, ‘476’ means ‘very sweet fruit’ and
A. 9 B. 8
‘509’ means ‘grapes are ripe’. Which of the
C. 5 D. 4 following digits means ‘ripe’ in that
4. In a certain code ‘643’ means ‘she is beautiful’, language?
‘593’ means ‘he is handsome’, and ‘567’ A. 0 B. 5
means ‘handsome meets beautiful’. What C. 9 D. 7
number will indicate the word ‘meets’? 10. In a certain code language ‘roi ja kyo twa’
A. 5 B. 3 means ‘Moody is writing letters’, ‘pok ju ja
C. 7 D. 6 twa’ means ‘Woody is writing cards’, ‘trn kyo
5. In a certain code language, A. ‘dugo hui mul pos un’ means ‘they are writing letters’, and
zo’ stands for ‘work is very hard’; B. ‘hui dugo ‘koi rus pok’ means ‘gifts and cards’. What is
ba ki’ for ‘Bingo is very smart’; C. ‘nano mul the code word for ‘Moody’?
dugo’ for ‘cake is hard’, and D. ‘mul ki qu’ for A. ja B. twa
‘smart and hard’. Which of the following words C. roi D. kyo
stand for ‘Bingo’? 11. In a certain code language ‘wre asi amoh kedo’
A. jalu B. dugo means ‘Polo is drinking tea’, ‘wre epu uki’
C. ki D. ba means ‘Polo buys books’, and ‘buen eld kedo’

27
 28

means ‘Libbo drinks tea’. Which of the 17. In a certain code language,
following code words mean ‘Polo’ and ‘tea’ in 1. Gor Paku Means ‘Best Gift’
the above language? 2. Mull Gor Sot Means ‘Gift of Love’
A. kedo and wre B. asi and buen 3. Sol Hed Paku Means ‘Best of Luck’ and
C. wre and kedo D. amoh and wre 4. Hed Sot Paku Means ‘Love is Best’
12. In a certain code, (i) ‘juka lal mit sut’ stands Which of the following codes stand for the
for ‘Hello, how are you?’; (ii) ‘mudi sut em word ‘Love’?
nif’ for ‘Where are they going?’; (iii) ‘hu zul A. Paku B. Hed
met sut’ for ‘What are their names?’; and (iv) C. Sot D. Mull
‘lal sut zul pe’ for ‘Are you going too?’. Which 18. In a certain code language, ‘pe sa de mi’ means
of the following words in the above code ‘yes well no mean’ and ‘pa mi sa de’ means
language stand for ‘are you’? ‘sell mean well no’. What would ‘yes’ mean
A. sut mit B. mudi sut in that language?
A. de B. pe
C. juka nif D. sut lal
C. mi D. sa
13. In a certain code ‘gri chri’ means ‘brand new’,
19. In a certain code ‘hua pih uf pu’ means ‘he is
‘gyp twoh’ means ‘very old’, ‘gri bur twoh’
very intelligent’; ‘pih hua kup kit’ means ‘she
means ‘old and new’ and ‘chri deh twoh’ is very fair’; ‘luck uf hua’ means ‘Jai is
means ‘old brand car’. Which of the following intelligent’; and ‘uf kit pod’ means ‘fair and
codes means ‘new car’? intelligent’.
A. chri gri B. gri deh Which of the following codes stand for ‘Jai’?
C. deh gyp D. twoh deh A. kit B. hua
14. If ‘luma papa jano’ stands for ‘he speaks C. luck D. pih
softly’, ‘papa lo hedi lami’ for ‘wind blows 20. In a certain code language ‘jo mi rei ma’ stands
softly downhill’; and ‘lo puki luma jano lami for ‘rest work no play’; ‘rei kol puihi mesi’ for
sod’ for ‘he speaks like wind blows whisper; ‘less ground play tour’; and ‘puihi ma jo mati’
then what word will be written for ‘downhill’? for ‘rest group ground work’.
A. papa B. lami Which of the following codes stand for word
C. hedi D. lo ‘no’?
15. In a certain language, A. ‘sun shines brightly’ A. mi B. mesi
is written as ‘ba lo sul’; B. ‘houses are brightly C. rei D. jo
lit’ as ‘kado udo ari ba’; and C. ‘light comes 21. In a certain code ‘7 8 6’ means ‘bring me
from sun’ as ‘dapi kup lo nro’. What words apple’, ‘9 5 8’ means ‘peel green apple’ and
will be written for ‘sun’ and ‘brightly’? ‘6 4 5’ means ‘bring green fruit’. Which of the
A. lo, ba B. ba, lo following is the code for ‘me’?
A. 8
C. snl, lo D. ba, sul
B. 6
16. In a certain code language, (1) ‘lo ni hie pun’ C. 7
stands for ‘he is drinking coke’; (2) ‘hol ful D. Cannot be determined
gui pun’ stands for ‘she is eating food’; and 22. If ‘ish lto inm’ stands for ‘neat and tidy’; ‘qpr
(3) ‘ne ful ni lo’ stands for ‘drinking coke and inm sen’ stands for ‘small but neat’; ‘hsm sen
food’. Which of the following words is the rso’ stands for ‘good but erratic’; what would
code for ‘he’? ‘but’ stand for?
A. hie B. lo A. inm B. sen
C. pun D. ni C. qpr D. hsm
 29

23. If ‘nso ptr kli chn’ stands for ‘Sharma gets 29. In a certain code language ‘dom pul ta’ means
marriage gift’: ‘ptr lnm wop chn’ stands for ‘bring hot food’, ‘pul tir sop’ means ‘food is
‘wife gives marriage gift’: ‘tti wop nhi’ stands good’ and ‘tak da sop’ means ‘good bright
for ‘he gives nothing’; what would ‘gives’ boy’. Which of the following does mean ‘hot’
stand for? in that language?
A. wop B. ptr A. dom
C. nhi D. chn B. pul
24. In a certain code language, ‘col tip mot’ means C. ta
‘singing is appreciable’, ‘mot baj min’ means D. Cannot be determined
‘dancing is good’ and ‘tip nop baj’ means 30. In a certain code ‘3 7’ means ‘which class’ and
‘singing and dancing’. Which of the following ‘5 8 3’ means ‘caste and class’. What is the
means ‘Good’ in that code language? code for ‘caste’?
A. mot A. 3 B. 7
B. min C. Either 5 or 3 D. Either 5 or 8
C. baj 31. In a code language ‘mu kay cit’ means ‘very
D. Cannot be determined lucky person’ and ‘dis hu mu’ means ‘fortunate
25. In a certain code ‘7 8 6’ means ‘study very and lucky’. Which is the word in that language
hard’, ‘9 5 8’ means ‘hard work pays’ and ‘6 4 for ‘lucky?’
5’ means ‘study and work’, which of the A. mu B. kay
following is the code for ‘very’? C. cit D. dis
A. 8 Directions : (Qs. 32-33) : In a code language, A.
B. 6 ‘pit dar na’ means ‘you are good’; B. ‘dar tok pa’
C. 7 means ‘good and bad’; C. ‘tim na tok’ means ‘they
D. Cannot be determined are bad’.
26. In a certain code language ‘1 2 3’ means ‘hot 32. In that language, which word stands for
filter coffee’, ‘3 5 6’ means ‘very hot day’ and ‘they’?
‘5 8 9’ means ‘day and night’. Which digit in A. na B. tok
that language means ‘very’? C. tim D. None of these
A. 8 B. 6 33. To find the answer to the above question,
C. 9 D. 5 which of the following statements can be
27. In a certain code, ‘3 5 7’ means ‘get me toy’, dispensed with?
‘8 4 3’ means ‘bring good toy’ and ‘7 4 6’ A. Only A B. Only B
means ‘bring me water’. Which of the C. A or B D. None of these
following digits represents ‘good’ in that Directions : (Qs. 34-35) : In a certain code
code? language :
A. 7 B. 6 A. ‘tom na rod’ means ‘give me sweet’.
C. Data inadequate D. None of these B. ‘jo ta rod’ means ‘you and me’.
28. In a certain code 721 means ‘good college C. ‘pot ta noc’ means ‘you are good’.
life’. 526 means ‘you are good’ and 257 means D. ‘jo mit noc’ means ‘good and bad’.
‘life are good’, which digit stands for ‘you’ as 34. Which of the following represents ‘bad’ in that
the code? language?
A. 6 B. 5 A. mit B. noc
C. 7 D. None of these C. jo D. None of these
 30

35. To arrive at the answer to the above question 42. In a certain code language, pit nae tom means
which of the following can be dispensed with? ‘apple is green’; nae ho tap means ‘green and
A. All are necessary B. A or B only white’ and ho tom ka means ‘shirt is white’.
C. A or C only D. None of these Which of the following represents ‘apple’ in
Directions: (Qs. 36-37) : In a certain code language : that language?
A. ‘pit na som’ means ‘bring me water’. A. nae B. tom
B. ‘na jo tod’ means ‘water is life’. C. pit D. ho
C. ‘tub od pit’ means ‘give me toy’. 43. If in a certain language, mxy das zci means
D. ‘jo lin kot’ means ‘life and death’. ‘good little frock’; jmx cos zci means ‘girl
36. Which of the following represents ‘is’ in that behaves good’; nvg drs cos means ‘girl makes
language? mischief’ and das ajp cos means ‘little girl
A. jo B. na fell’; which word in that language stands for
C. tod D. lin ‘frock’?
37. To find out the answer to the above question, A. zci B. das
which of the following statements can be C. nvg D. None of these
dispensed with?
44. In a certain code language, Mink Yang Pe
A. A only B. C only
means ‘fruits are ripe’; Pe Lao May Mink
C. D only D. B or C only
means ‘oranges are not ripe’ and May Pe Nue
Directions : (Qs. 38 to 40) : In a certain code Mink means ‘mangoes are not ripe’. Which
language : word in that languages means ‘Mangoes’?
A. ‘1 3 4’ means ‘you are well’ A. May B. Pe
B. ‘7 5 8’ means ‘they go home’
C. Nue D. Mink
C. ‘8 3 9’ means ‘we are home’.
45. In a certain code language, pul ta nop means
38. Which of the following represents ‘they’ in
‘fruit is good’; nop ki tir means ‘tree is tall’
that code language?
and pul ho sop means ‘eat good food’. Which
A. 5 B. 7
C. 3 D. Data inadequate of the following means ‘fruit’ in that
language?
39. Which of the statements can be dispensed with
A. pul B. ta
while answering the above question?
C. nop D. Data inadequate
A. A only B. B only
C. A or C only D. B and C only 46. In a certain code language, Tom Kun Sud
40. Which of the following represents ‘are’ in that means ‘dogs are barking’; Kun Jo Mop means
code language? ‘dogs and horses’; and Mut Tom Ko means
A. 1 B. 3 ‘donkeys are mad’. Which word in that
C. 4 D. 7 language means ‘barking’?
A. Sud B. Kun
41. In a certain code nee tim see means ‘how are
C. Jo D. Tom
you’; ble nee see means ‘where are you’. What
is the code for ‘where’? 47. If cinto baoli tsi nzro means ‘her village is
A. nee Sarurpur’; mhi cinto keepi tsi oind means ‘her
B. tim first love is literature’; and oind geit tsi cinto
C. see pki means ‘literature collection is her hobby’,
D. None of these which word would mean ‘literature’?
 31

A. cinto B. baoli food; and 934 means Mangoes are ripe.

C. oind D. geit Which digit means ripe in that language?
48. In a certain code language, Pat Zoo Sim A. 5 B. 4
means ‘eat good mangoes’; Pus Sim Tim C. 9 D. 7
means ‘mangoes and sweets’ and Tim Zoo 54. In a certain code, 253 means books are old
Kit means ‘purchase good sweets’. Which 546 means man is old; and 378 means buy
word in that language means ‘good’? good books. What stands for ‘are’ in that
A. Zoo B. Pus code?
C. Sim D. Tim A. 2 B. 4
49. In a certain code language, pic vic nic means C. 5 D. 6
‘winter is cold’; to nic re means ‘summer is 55. In a certain code language, 123 means bright
hot’; re pic boo means ‘winter and summer’; little boy; 145 means tall big boy and 637
and vic tho pa means ‘nights are cold’. Which means beautiful little flower. Which digit in
word in that language represents ‘summer’? that language means ‘bright’?
A. nic B. re A. 1 B. 3
C. to D. pic C. 4 D. None of these
50. In a certain code language, kew xas huma 56. In a certain code language, 'Monday is a
deko means ‘she eating apples’; kew tepo qua holiday' is written as 'sa da pa na' and 'they
means ‘she sells toys’ and sul lim deko means enjoy a holiday' is written as 'da na ta ka'.
‘i like apples’. Which word in that language How is 'Monday' written in that code language?
means ‘she’ and ‘apples’? A. sa
A. xas and deko B. pa
B. xas and kew C. sa or pa
C. kew and deko D. Data inadequate
D. kew and xas 57. In a certain code ‘Hit Bit Mit’ means ‘Git Rit
51. In a certain code language ‘389’ means ‘run Nit’ ‘Sit Pit Mit’ means ‘Lit Git Tit’ and ‘Fit Zit
very fast’, ‘964’ means ‘come back fast’ and Pit’ means ‘Dit Vit Tit’. What does ‘Sit’ stand
‘487’ means ‘run and come’. Which digit in for in that code language?
the language means ‘come? A. Vit B. Dit
A. 7 B. 9 C. Rit D. Lit
C. 4 D. 8 Directions (58) : In a certain code language
52. If ‘Men are very busy’ means ‘1234’, ‘Busy A. 'pit na sa' means 'you are welcome'
persons need ecouragement’ means ‘4567’, B. 'na ho pa la' means 'they are very good'
‘encouragement is very important’ means C. 'ka da la' means 'who is good'
‘3589’ and ‘Important persons are rare’ means D. 'od ho pit la' means 'they welcome good
‘2680’ what is the code for ‘encouragement’? people'
A. 5 B. 6 58. Which of the following means 'people' in that
C. 8 D. 9 code language?
53. In a certain code language, 743 means A. ho B. pit
Mangoes are good; 657 means Eat good C. la D. od
 32

59. In a code language “1 3 5 7” means “We are 60. In a certain code ‘5 6 9’ means ‘nice little car’,
very happy”, “2 6 3 9” means “They are ‘8 3 5’ means ‘he is nice’ and ‘9 3 7’ means ‘he
extremely lucky” and “794” means “Happy has car’, which of the following means ‘has’
and Lucky”. Which digit in that code language in that code?
stands for “very”?
A. 3 B. 9
A. 1 B. 5
C. 7 D. Data inadequate C. 7 D. 3 or 7

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A C D D A B B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D B C A A C B C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B A B C B D A D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A C D A D C B D A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C D C B A C A B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
C A C A D C D D D C

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. Code Sentence Therefore,

1. go ju mi plenty of money F stands for old
2. pao ju go money creates lots of O stands for is
nei vu problems R stands for gold
3. kol vu nei problems create tension T stands for pure
4. sol tun ju haw still money is needed M stands for costly
In 1st, 2nd and 4th codes and their sentences So, ‘pure old gold is costly’ will be written as
the word ‘ju’ is repeated and so is ‘money’. ‘TFROM’.
3. Code Sentence
2. Code Sentence
1. 415 milk is hot
1. F OR old is gold
2. 18 hot soup
3. 895 soup is tasty
2. ROT gold is pure From 3rd code and its sentence neither number
‘9’ is repeated nor the word ‘tasty’.
4. Code Sentence
3. R OM gold is costly
1. 643 she is beautiful
2. 593 he is handsome
 33 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–5

3. 567 handsome meets ‘Moody’ is in 1st sentence only. The code

beautiful words ‘ja’ and ‘twa’ are repeated in 2nd
From 3rd code and its sentence, neither sentence and ‘kyo’ in 3rd sentence. Only code
number ‘7’ nor the word ‘meets’ is repeated. word ‘roi’ remains which stands for ‘Moody’.
5. Code Sentence 11. Code Sentence
1. dugo hui mul zo work is very hard 1. wre asi amoh Polo is drinking tea.
2. hui dugo ba ki Bingo is very smart kedo
3. nano mul dugo cake is hard 2. wre epu uki Polo buys books
4. mul ki qu smart and hard 3. buen eld kedo Libbo drinks tea
From 2nd code and its sentence, neither ‘ba’ The word ‘Polo’ is common in 1st and 2nd
nor ‘Bingo’ is repeated. sentence and so is the code ‘wre’. The word
(Words repeated are in italics) ‘tea’ is common in 1st and 3rd sentences and
6. Code Sentence so is the code ‘kedo’.
1. pic vic nic winter is cold 12. Code Sentence
2. to nic re summer is hot 1. juka lal mit sut hello, how are you?
3. re pic boo winter and summer 2. mudi sut em nif where are they going?
4. vic tho pa nights are cold 3. hu zul met sut what are their names?
The word ‘summer’ is common in 2nd and 3rd
4. lal sut zul pe are you going too?
sentences and so is the code ‘re’.
The word ‘are’ is present in all the four
7. Code Sentence
sentences and so is the code ‘sut. The word
1. mx das sci good little frock
‘you’ is common in 1st and 4th sentences and
2. jm coz sci girl behaves good
so is the code ‘lal’.
3. ngv drs coz girl makes mischief
13. Code Sentence
4. das gp coz little girl fell
Word ‘frock’ is only in the 1st sentence. The 1. gri chri brand new
code word ‘das’ is repeated in 4th sentence 2. gyp twoh very old
and ‘sci’ in 2nd sentence. So, ‘mx’ is the code 3. gri bur twoh old and new
for ‘frock’. 4. chri deh gyp old brand car
8. Code Sentence The word ‘new’ is present in 1st and 3rd
1. mu mit es who is she sentences and so is the code ‘gri. The word
2. elb mu es where is she ‘car’ is only in the 4th sentence and code ‘deh’
The code words ‘mu’ and ‘es’ are repeated in is not repeated in any other sentence.
Ist sentence. The only code left is ‘elb’ which 14. Code Sentence
means ‘where’. 1. luma papa jano ® he speaks softly
9. Code Sentence 2. papa lo hedi lami ® wind blows
1. 069 grapes are sweet softly downhill
2. 476 very sweet fruit 3. lo puki luma jano ® he speaks like
3. 509 grapes are ripe lami sod wind blows
The code numbers ‘0’ and ‘9’ are repeated in whisper
1st and 3rd sentences. The only code Code ‘papa’ is repeated in 1st and 2nd
remaining is ‘5’ which stands for ‘ripe’. sentence but the word ‘downhill’ is not. Of the
10. Code Sentence other coded words in 2nd sentence ‘lo’ and
1. roi ja kyo twa Moody is writing letters ‘lami’ are repeated in 3rd sentence, but again
2. pok ju ja twa Woody is writing cards the word ‘downhill’ is not. The only code
3. trn kyo pos un they are writing letters remaining is ‘hedi’ which should mean
4. koi rus pok gifts and cards ‘downhill’.
 34 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–5-II

15. Sentence Code 20. Code Sentence

1. sun shines brightly ® ba lo sul 1. jo mi rei ma ® rest work no play
2. houses are brightly lit ® kado udo ari 2. rei kol puihi mesi ® less ground play
ba tour
3. light comes from sun ® dapi kup lo nro. 3. puihi ma jo mati ® rest group ground
In 1st and 3rd sentences, the word ‘sun’ is work
repeated and so is the code ‘lo’. Similarly, The word ‘no’ is only in 1st sentence. Of the
in 1st and 2nd sentences the word other codes ‘rei’ is repeated in 2nd sentence
‘brightly’ is repeated and so is the code and ‘jo’ and ‘ma’ are repeated in 3rd sentence.
‘ba’. So, ‘mi’ code stands for word ‘no’.
16. Code Sentence 21. Code Sentence
1. lo ni hie pun ® he is drinking coke 1. 786 bring me apple
2. hol ful gui pun ® she is eating food 2. 958 peel green apple
3. ne ful ni lo ® drinking coke and 3. 645 bring green fruit
food The word ‘me’ is in 1st sentence only. The
In the 1st and 2nd sentences, the code ‘pun’ word ‘bring’ is common in 1st and 3rd
for ‘is’ is repeated but the word ‘he’ is not. In sentences and so is the code 6. The word
the 1st and 3rd sentences, the codes ‘ni’ and ‘apple’ is common in 1st and 2nd sentences
‘lo’ are repeated. So, the code ‘hie’ stands for and so is the code 8. Only word remaining is
‘he’. ‘me’ and its code is 7.
17. Code Sentence 22. Code Sentence
1. Gor Paku ® Best Gift 1. ish lto inm neat and tidy
2. Mull Gor Sot ® Gift of Love 2. qpr inm sen small but neat
3. Sol Hed Paku ® Best of Luck 3. hsm sen rso good but erratic
4. Hed Sot Paku ® Love is Best In 2nd and 3rd sentences word ‘but’ is repeated
Only in sentences 2nd and 4th, the word ‘Love’ and so is the code ‘sen’.
is repeated and the only code repeated is ‘Sot’. 23. Code Sentence
18. Code Sentence 1. nso ptr kli Sharma gets marriage
1. pe sa de mi ® yes well no mean chn gift
2. pa mi sa de ® sell mean well no 2. ptr lnm wop wife gives marriage gift
In both the sentences, “well no mean” is chn
repeated and so the coded words ‘sa de mi’ So, 3. tti wop nhi he gives nothing
only ‘pe’ stands for ‘yes’. In 2nd and 3rd sentences word ‘gives’ is
19. Code Sentence repeated and so is the code ‘wop’.
1. hua pih uf pu ® he is very 24. Code Sentence
intelligent 1. col tip mot singing is appreciable
2. pih hua kup kit ® she is very fair 2. mot baj min dancing is good
3. luck uf hua ® Jai is intelligent 3. tip nop baj singing and dancing
4. uf kit pod ® fair and The word ‘good’ is in 2nd sentence only. The
intelligent word ‘dancing’ is common in 2nd and 3rd
The word ‘Jai’ is in 3rd sentence. Of the three sentences and so is the code ‘baj’. The word
codes, ‘hua’ is repeated in 1st and 2nd ‘is’ is common in 1st and 2nd sentences and
sentences and ‘uf’ is repeated in 3rd and 4th so is the code ‘mot’. The only code remaining
sentences. So, code ‘luck’ stands for ‘Jai’. is ‘min’ which stands for ‘good’.
 35

25. Code Sentence codes ‘dom’ and ‘ta’. So, the codes for the
1. 786 study very hard words cannot be detected.
2. 958 hard work pays 30. Code Sentence
3. 645 study and work 1. 37 which class
The word ‘very’ is in 1st sentence only. The 2. 583 caste and class
word ‘study’ is common in 1st and 3rd In both the codes and sentences code ‘3’
sentences and so is the code ‘6’. The word stands for ‘class’. So the code for ‘caste’ can
‘hard’ is common in 1st and 2nd sentences be either ‘5’ or ‘8’. The same applies for word
and so is the code ‘8’. The only code ‘and’. More information is needed.
remaining is ‘7’ which stands for ‘very’. 31. Code Sentence
26. Code Sentence 1. mu kay cit very lucky person
1. 123 hot filter coffee 2. dis hu mu fortunate and lucky
2. 356 very hot day In both the codes and sentences word ‘lucky’
3. 589 day and night is common and so is the code ‘mu’.
The word ‘very’ is in 2nd sentence only. The 32. Code Sentence
word ‘hot’ is common in 1st and 2nd sentences A. pit dar na you are good
and so is the code ‘3’. The word ‘day’ is B. dar tok pa good and bad
common in 2nd and 3rd sentences and so is C. tim na tok they are bad
the code ‘5’. The only code remaining is ‘6’ The word ‘they’ is in sentence C only. The
which stands for ‘very’. word ‘are’ is repeated in sentence A and so is
27. Code Sentence the code ‘na’. The word ‘bad’ is repeated in
1. 357 get me toy sentence B and so is the code ‘tok’. The only
2. 843 bring good toy code remaining is ‘tim’ which stands for
3. 746 bring me water ‘they’.
The word ‘good’ is in 2nd sentence only. The 33. The answer to the above question was arrived
word ‘bring’ is common in 2nd and 3rd at only after comparing all the three codes and
sentences and so is the code ‘4’. The word sentences.
‘toy’ is common in 1st and 2nd sentences and 34. Code Sentence
so is the code ‘3’. The only code remaining is A. tom na rod give me sweet
‘8’ which stands for ‘good’. B. jo ta rod you and me
28. Code Sentence C. pot ta noc you are good
1. 721 good college life D. jo mit noc good and bad
2. 526 you are good The word ‘bad’ is in sentence ‘D’ only. The
3. 257 life are good word ‘good’ is repeated in sentence ‘C’ and
The word ‘you’ is in 2nd sentence only. The so is the code ‘noc’. The word ‘and’ is
words ‘are good’ are common in 2nd and 3rd repeated in sentence ‘B’ and so is the code
sentences and so are the codes ‘2’ and ‘5’. The ‘jo’. The only code remaining is ‘mit’ which
only code remaining is ‘6’ which stands for stands for ‘bad’.
‘you’. 35. The answer to the above question was arrived
29. Code Sentence at by comparing codes and sentences B, C and
1. dom pul ta bring hot food D. Only sentence ‘A’ could be dispensed with.
2. pul tir sop food is good 36. Code Sentence
3. tak da sop good bright boy A. pit na som bring me water
From 1st and 2nd codes and sentences it is B. na jo tod water is life
clear that code for ‘food’ is ‘pul’. Neither the C. tub od pit give me toy
words ‘bring’ and ‘hot’ are repeated nor the D. jo lin kot life and death
 36

The word ‘is’ is in Sentence ‘B’ only. The 45. In the first and second statements, the
word ‘water’ is repeated in Sentence ‘A’ and common code word is nop and the common
so is the code ‘na’. The word ‘life’ is repeated word is is. So, nop means is.
in sentence ‘D’ and so is the code ‘jo’. The In the first and third statements, the common
only code remaining is ‘tod’ which stands for code word is pul and the common word is
‘is’.
good. So, pul means good. Thus, in the first
37. The answer to the above question was arrived statement, ta means fruit.
at by comparing codes and sentences A, B and
D. Only sentence ‘C’ could be dispensed with. 46. In the first and second statements, the
38. Code Sentence common code word is Kun and the common
A. 134 you are well word is Dogs. So, Kun means Dogs.
B. 758 they go home In the first and third statements, the common
C. 839 we are home code word is Tom and the common word is
In codes and sentences B and C the word are. Therefore in the first statement, Sud
‘home’ is repeated and so is the code ‘8’. The means barking.
code for word ‘they’ can be either ‘7’ or ‘5’.
The same applies for ‘go’. More information 47. In the first and second statements, the
is needed. common code words are cinto and tsi and the
39. Sentence ‘A’ has nothing in common with common words are her and is.
sentence ‘B’. In the second and third statements, cinto and
40. In codes and sentences A and C the word ‘are’
tsi mean her and is. Another common code
is repeated and so is the code ‘3’.
word is oind and the common word is
41. In the first and second statements, the literature. So, oind would mean literature.
common code words nee and see mean ‘are’
and ‘you’. So, in the second statement, the 48. In the first and third statements, the common
remaining code ble means ‘where’. code word is Zoo and the common word is
42. In the first and second statements the Good. So, Zoo means Good.
common code word is nae and the common 49. In the second and third statements, the
word is green. So, nae means green. common code word is re and the common
In the first and third statements, the common word is summer. So, re represents summer.
code word is tom and the common word is
50. In the first and second statements, the
is. So, tom means is. Therefore in the first
common code word is kew and the common
statement pit means apple.
word is she. So, kew means she.
43. In the first and second statements, the
common code word is zci and the common In the first and third statements, the common
word is good. So, zci means good. code word is deko and the common word is
In the first and fourth statements, the common apples. So, deko means apples.
code word is das and the common word is 51. In the second and third sentences, common
little. So, das means little. Thus, in the first number is ‘4’ and common code is ‘come’.
statement mxy means frock. Hence, number ‘4’ stands for ‘come’.
44. In the second and third statements, the
52. In the second and third sentences, common
common code words are Pe, Mink and May
and the common words are are, not and ripe. word is ‘encouragement’ and the common
So, in the third statement, Nue stands for number is ‘5’. Hence, number ‘5’ stands for
mangoes. ‘encouragement’.
 37

53. In the first and third statements, the common 57. Hit Bit Mit ® Git Rit Nit
code digits are 4 and 3, and the common Sit Pit Mit ® Lit Git Tit
words are ‘Mangoes’ and ‘are’. So, 4 and 3
are the codes for ‘Mangoes’ and ‘are’. Thus Fit Zit Pit ® Dit Vit Tit
in the third statement, 9 means ‘ripe’. Therefore, ‘Sit’ stands for ‘Lit’.
58.
54. In the first and second statements, the
common code digit is 5 and the common word (i) pit are sa ® you are welcome
is ‘old’. So, 5 stands for ‘old’.
(ii) na ho pa la ® they are very good
In the first and third statements, the common
code digit is 3 and the common word is (iii) ka da la ® who is good
‘books’. So, 3 stands for ‘books’. Thus, in (iv) od ho pit la ® they welcome good people
the first statement, 2 stands for ‘are’.
It is clear that 'od' stands for 'people'.
55. In the first and second statements, the
common code digit is 1 and the common word 59. We are very happy ® 1 3 5 7
is ‘boy’. So, 1 means ‘boy’.
They are extremely lucky ® 2 6 3 9
In the first and third statements, the common
code digit is 3 and the common word is Happy and lucky ® 9 9 4
‘little’. So, 3 means ‘little’. Thus in the first
\ We vary ® 1, 5
statement, 2 means ‘bright’.
Hence, data inadequate
56. Monday is a holiday ® sa da pa na 60. 5 9 6 ® nice little car
they enjoy a holiday ® da na ta ka 8 3 5 ® he is nice
9 3 7 ® he has car
Thus, Monday ® sa or pa.
It is clear that ‘7’ stands for ‘has’.
 38

ODD ONE OUT

Directions : In each of the following questions, four 16. A. Ornate B. Pleasant
words/letter groups/numbers/number groups are C. Decorate D. Beautify
alike in some manner. Spot the odd one out. 17. A. Polo B. Chess
1. A. Green B. Red C. Ludo D. Squash
C. Colour D. Orange 18. A. Tutor B. Principal
2. A. Stable B. Hole C. Pupil D. Professor
C. Canoe D. Sty 19. A. Pond B. River
3. A. Nose B. Eyes C. Stream D. Brook
C. Skin D. Teeth 20. A. Quotation B. Duty
4. A. Venus B. Moon C. Tax D. Octroi
C. Pluto D. Mars 21. A. Root B. Tree
C. Branch D. Flower
5. A. Happy B. Gloomy
C. Lively D. Cheerful 22. A. Mumbai B. Chandigarh
C. Lucknow D. Hyderabad
6. A. Cone B. Circle
C. Triangle D. Rectangle 23. A. Immortal B. Eminence
C. Perpetual D. Everlasting
7. A. Lead B. Mercury
24. A. Spinach B. Potato
C. Copper D. Iron
C. Carrot D. Ginger
8. A. Kite B. Bird
25. A. Van B. Aeroplane
C. Radar D. Jet
C. Helicopter D. Transport
9. A. Knee B. Shoulder
26. A. Fathom B. Marine
C. Ankle D. Palm
C. Deep D. Lacuna
10. A. Deluge B. Calamity 27. A. Attorney B. Lawyer
C. Catastrophe D. War C. Judge D. Liquidator
11. A. Cub B. Chicken 28. A. Sparrow B. Kingfisher
C. Pig D. Pup C. Kiwi D. Parrot
12. A. Rabbit B. Crocodile 29. A. Arrow B. Daggar
C. Earthworm D. Snail C. Knife D. Sword
13. A. Tree B. Leaf 30. A. Mathematics B. Algebra
C. Bush D. Herb C. Trigonometry D. Geometry
14. A. Doctor B. Teacher 31. A. Irish B. Iranian
C. Engineer D. Diver C. Eastern D. Chinese
15. A. Trot B. Equestrian 32. A. December B. June
C. Derby D. Grunt C. January D. March

38
 39

33. A. Boxer B. Wrestler 52. A. ABJNM B. QRTUZ

C. Jockey D. Player C. IXYOQ D. WGFPO
34. A. Mature B. Outdo 53. A. BFJQ B. RUZG
C. Ripen D. Bloom C. GJOV D. ILQX
35. A. Kanpur B. Haridwar 54. A. CS B. OU
C. Varanasi D. Lucknow C. EV D. QO
36. A. Adore B. Like 55. A. EFGH B. IRST
C. Love D. Covet C. ULMN D. JKLO
37. A. Greedy B. Rapacious 56. A. LNP B. ECA
C. Endear D. Avaricious C. JLN D. RTV
38. A. Club B. Heart 57. A. SU B. BD
C. Spade D. Ace C. PN D. WY
39. A. Permit B. Allow 58. A. KI B. SQ
C. Agree D. Confess C. CA D. VX
40. A. Stool B. Wood 59. A. SC B. FT
C. Table D. Chair C. MK D. HV
41. A. ACE B. LOR 60. A. END B. PUT
C. GIK D. VXZ C. ARM D. OWL
42. A. TSR B. LKJ 61. A. CFIL B. ABCD
C. PQO D. HGF C. ACDF D. EFGH
43. A. EF LM B. KJ SR 62. A. SPQR B. MKLN
C. XW HG D. ED YX C. WUVX D. FDEG
44. A. JOPK B. BOPC 63. A. HK B. DG
C. QOPR D. TOPS C. NK D. UX
45. A. DfH B. MoQ 64. A. MLKA B. HGFA
C. UwY D. lnO C. RQPA D. STUA
46. A. JKkL B. OPpQ 65. A. KNOS B. QTUY
C. DEEf D. VWwX C. DFGJ D. BEFJ
47. A. BdfH B. FHJL 66. A. 1948 B. 2401
C. RTvX D. uVwX C. 966 D. 1449
48. A. DFHEG B. TWXUV 67. A. 182 B. 169
C. OQSPR D. JLNKM C. 130 D. 158
49. A. FEUV B. DCXW 68. A. 129 B. 130
C. BAZY D. HGTS C. 131 D. 132
50. A. UTSR B. XYZW 69. A. 3215 B. 9309
C. ONML D. IHGF C. 4721 D. 2850
51. A. MKGA B. PNID 70. A. 1776 B. 2364
C. RPLF D. VTPJ C. 1976 D. 3776
 40

71. A. 64 B. 84 90. A. 258 B. 326

C. 16 D. 36 C. 224 D. 339
72. A. 24 B. 90 91. A. Chair - Furniture
C. 54 D. 36 B. Shirt - Garment
73. A. 7658 B. 1234 C. Necklace - Jewellery
C. 9876 D. 6543 D. Bogie - Engine
74. A. 3 B. 9 92. A. Crayon - Paper B. Pencil - Lead
C. 5 D. 7 C. Pen - Ink D. Brush - Paint
75. A. 6450 B. 1776 93. A. War - Peace B. Real - Natural
C. 2392 D. 3815 C. Premiere - First D. Wrath - Anger
76. A. 24 B. 48 94. A. Finger - Thimble B. Head - Cap
C. 42 D. 12 C. Waist - Tiara D. Foot - Shoe
77. A. 616 B. 252 95. A. Day - Night B. Clever - Foolish
C. 311 D. 707 C. Clear - Blurred D. Arrive - Come
78. A. 18 B. 12 96. A. Quintal - Gallon
C. 30 D. 20 B. Bouquet - Flowers
79. A. 3730 B. 6820 C. Book - Pages
C. 5568 D. 4604 D. Parliament - Members
80. A. 2587 B. 7628 97. A. Birds - Chirp B. Horses - Hum
C. 8726 D. 2867 C. Lions - Roar D. Snakes - Hiss
81. A. 63 B. 29 98. A. Niece - Nephew B. Husband - Wife
C. 27 D. 25 C. Brother - Sister D. Father - Mother
82. A. 23 B. 37 99. A. Petrol - Car B. Oil - Lamp
C. 21 D. 31 C. Diesel - Wood D. Wax - Candle
83. A. 18 B. 9 100. A. Ganga - Narmada
C. 21 D. 7 B. Thar - Gobi
84. A. 9875432 B. 98765 C. Stomach - Hands
C. 98756 D. 9876543 D. Everest - Mountain
85. A. 602 B. 431 101. A. Medicine - Doctor
C. 530 D. 813 B. Flower - Artist
86. A. 4 B. 6 C. Shoes - Cobbler
C. 7 D. 10 D. Skin - Dermatologist
87. A. 3456 B. 2345 102. A. Authority - Sanction
C. 5467 D. 5678 B. Repel - Attract
88. A. 10 B. 11 C. Finicky - Choosy
C. 15 D. 16 D. Breath - Entity
89. A. 336 B. 213 103. A. Polo - Rink B. Golf - Lawn
C. 436 D. 819 C. Tennis - Court D. Chess - Board
 41 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–6

104. A. Ecstacy - Fantasy 117. A. JuM - jUm B. iLo - Ilo

B. Price - Thrice C. PSa - psA D. ZeX - zEx
C. Crime - Prune 118. A. NQT - JMP B. CFI - RUX
D. Both - Oath C. ADG - FGH D. SVY - ORU
105. A. Army - General 119. A. DXD - XDX B. KUK - UKU
B. College - Principal C. FHF - EHE D. RSR - SRS
C. Ship - Captain 120. A. AYT - BZU B. FNG - EMF
D. Navy - Lieutenant C. RWO - QVN D. HJD - GIC
106. A. Train - Tracks B. Birds - Fly 121. A. POT - TOP B. TAN - ANT
C. Aeroplane - Sky D. Submarine - Sea C. BIN - NIB D. DUB - BUD
107. A. Jelly - Gentle B. Stone - Hard 122. A. LT - HF B. IN - VA
C. Fur - Soft D. Glass - Smooth C. ZE - XM D. RB - SC
108. A. Branch - Tree 123. A. MQU - CGK B. BGL - TYD
B. Minute - Hour C. RWB - FKP D. JOT - DIN
C. Sentence - Paragraph 124. A. JLN - KMO B. GIK - HJL
D. Student - Teacher C. DFJ - EGI D. OQS - PRT
109. A. Sum - Total B. Now - Present 125. A. URS - UrS B. JPL - JpL
C. Big - Notion D. Yes - Agree C. PQM - PqM D. MoN - MON
110. A. Four - Foursome 126. A. PQR - HGF B. RST - ONM
B. Three - Triplet C. IJK - CBE D. WXY - FED
C. Two - Double 127. A. JM - KL B. QP - RS
D. One - Single C. EH - FG D. MP - NO
111. A. Brahmaputra - River 128. A. AE - OL B. UI - OE
B. Sahara - Desert C. IO - UE D. EA - OU
C. Aravalli - Ocean 129. A. VWX - OCU B. IFH - SGQ
D. Europe - Continent C. LAN - BDR D. EJP - ZTY
112. A. Much - Most B. Bad - Worse 130. A. MEAL - LAME B. BARK - KERB
C. Simple - Simpler D. Little - Less C. SPOT - TOPS D. RUBY - BURY
113. A. Ripe - Crude B. Close - Near 131. A. 91, 10 B. 57, 12
C. Warm - Tender D. Believe - Trust C. 69, 15 D. 72, 13
114. A. Giraffe - Tall 132. A. 20, 10 B. 45, 27
B. Snail - Heavy C. 15, 12 D. 30, 18
C. Jet - Fast 133. A. 7, 3 B. 13, 9
D. Ant - Industrious C. 11, 7 D. 17, 8
115. A. Nine - Twine B. Fire - Liar 134. A. 10, 20 B. 40, 50
C. Honey - Money D. Rust - Crest C. 30, 40 D. 50, 60
116. A. FGH - HIJ B. PQR - RST 135. A. 16, 26 B. 3, 4
C. MNO - OPQ D. CDE - DEF C. 26, 24 D. 27, 25
 42

136. A. 39, 13 B. 57, 19 141. A. 63, 52 B. 75, 64

C. 64, 16 D. 72, 26 C. 80, 69 D. 32, 12
137. A. 16, 43 B. 29, 56 142. A. 17, 37 B. 8, 13
C. 53, 82 D. 71, 98 C. 5, 13 D. 23, 7
138. A. 7, 47 B. 5, 25 143. A. 55, 10 B. 76, 13
C. 3, 9 D. 4, 16 C. 92, 14 D. 83, 11
139. A. 92, 46 B. 77, 38.5 144. A. 7, 343 B. 8, 514
C. 30, 16 D. 42, 21 C. 5, 125 D. 6, 216
140. A. 13, 65 B. 18, 90 145. A. 42, 14 B. 56, 19
C. 17, 95 D. 24, 120 C. 69, 23 D. 108, 36

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C D B B A B C D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A B D D B A C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B B A D D D C A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B D B D D C D D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B C A D D C D B A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C A C D B C D A B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C A C D C A D C B B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B A A B D C C A B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B C D C D C C B C A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D A A C D A B A C D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
B B A C D B A D C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C A A B D D B C C A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B D A C D C B A D B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D A D A A D C A C C
141 142 143 144 145
D B C B B
 43

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. All others are types of colour. 33. All others are players.
2. Canoe is a boat. Others are resting places of 34. All other words have the same meaning.
birds/animals. 35. Only Lucknow is a capital city.
3. All others are sense organs. 36. All other words refer to modes of attachment
4. All others are planets. or liking.
5. All others are expressions of joy 37. All others are synonyms of greedy.
6. All others are geometrical figures. 38. All others are four kinds of cards in the pack.
7. All others are solid metals. 39. All other words convey permission to do
8. All others are flying objects. Radar traces the something.
40. All other objects are made of wood.
objects in sky.
41. The sequence in each group is +2. Only
9. All others are joints in human body.
option B has sequence in +3, i.e.,
10. All others are nature-bound. Only war is man-
ABCDE L MN OP QR
made.
11. All others are young ones of animals.
+2 +2 +3 +3
12. All others are crawling animals. GHIJK VWXYZ
13. All others are types of vegetation.
14. All others are professions, but only Diver’s +2 +2 +2 +2
profession comprises of diving under water. 42. The sequence of alphabet in each group is in
15. All other terms are related with activities of a reverse order. Only option C has sequence in
horse. disturbed order.
16. All other words have the same meaning. 43. Two consecutive alphabet in each group are
17. All others are indoor games. in reverse sequence (–1), i.e.,
18. All others are instructors. Pupil learns from the KJ SR; XW HG; ED YX
instructor.
–1 –1 –1 –1 –1 –1
19. All others are running forms of water.
Only in option A. the sequence is in natural
20. All others are forms of taxes.
order (+1), i.e.,
21. All others are parts of tree which are above the
E F L M
ground.
22. All are capitals but Chandigarh is the capital +1 +1
of two states. 44. In each group, letters ‘OP’ are common. The
23. All others have the same meaning. two corner alphabet are in natural order (+1);
24. All others are underground vegetables. i.e.,
25. All others are means of transport. JOPK ; BOPC ; QOPR
26. All others words are related to sea.
27. All others are legal professionals. +1 +1 +1
28. Only Kiwi is a flightless bird. Only in option D. they are in reverse order
29. Only arrow needs a bow. Others can be used (–1); i.e.,
by hand. TOPS
30. All others are branches of mathematics.
31. All others refer to people from particular –1
country. 45. In other groups, only the alphabet in the
32. All other months have 31 days. centre is of lower case. In this option letter ‘L’
on the left is also in lower case.
 44

46. In other groups, the third letter which is a In option B., the pattern is
repeat of the second alphabet is in lower case. P N I D
47. In each group, the sequence of the alphabet,
irrespective of the case, is +2; i.e., –2 –5 –5
B D f H ; F H J L ; R T v X The correct pattern should be®P N J D

+2+2 +2 +2 +2+2 +2 +2 +2 –2 –4 –6
Only in option D. the sequence is in natural 52. In each group at least two pairs of alphabet
order (+1), i.e., are in sequence, i.e.,
uV w X ABJNM; QRT UZ ;W GFPO

+1 +1 +1 In option C. only one pair is in sequence

48. In each group; the alphabet at positions-first, I XY O Q
fourth, second, fifth and third, form a natural
sequence. 53. The sequence of alphabet in each group
In option B., the alphabet at positions first, follows the natural pattern of +3, +5, +7, i.e.,
fourth, fifth, second and third, form the natural R U Z G ; G J O V ; I LQ X
sequence.
49. In each group, two alphabets in the corner and +3 +5 +7 +3 +5 +7 +3 +5 +7
two alphabets in the centre correspond to their Note : The alphabetical series restarts from
reverse order positioned alphabet. i.e., letter ‘A’ on reaching letter ‘Z’.
natural order ® A B C D E F G H I J K L M In option A., the pattern is
reverse order ® Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N B F J Q
natural order ® N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
reverse order ® M L K J I H G F E D C B A +4 +4 +7
As such— 54. Only this group has letters made by straight
D corresponds with W and lines.
C corresponds with X. 55. In all other groups the first letter is a vowel
B corresponds with Y and followed by three consecutive letters.
A corresponds with Z. 56. In all other groups the alternate letters are in
H corresponds with S and natural alphabet order.
G corresponds with T. 57. In all other groups the alternate letters are in
Similarly, natural alphabet order.
F should correspond with U and 58. In all other groups the alternate letters are in
E should correspond with V; reverse alphabet order.
i.e. letters ‘UV’ should be written as ‘VU’ 59. Only this group has letters made by curved
lines.
50. In each group, the alphabet are in reverse
60. In all other groups the first letter is a vowel.
order.
61. In all other groups the difference between the
In option B., the order is disturbed.
consecutive letters is even. i.e.,
51. The sequence of alphabet in each group
C F I L; A B C D; E F G H
follows the reverse pattern of –2, –4, –6, i.e.,
M K G A ; R P L F +3 +3 +3 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
–2 –4 –6 –2 –4 –6 In option C. the pattern is :
V T P J A C D F

+2 +1 +2
–2 –4 –6
 45

62. In all other groups the alphabet at positions 85. In all other numbers the total of digits is 8.
second, third, first and last form a natural 86. All other numbers are even numbers.
sequence. In option A., the alphabet at 87. In all other numbers the digits are in
positions second, third, fourth and first form increasing order.
the natural sequence. 88. 11 is a prime number.
63. In all other groups the letters skip two letters 89. In all other numbers the digit on the right is
in between and are in natural order. In option the sum of two digits on the left.
C. they are in reverse order. 90. In all other numbers the digit on the right is
64. In all other groups the first three letters are in the product of two digits on the left.
reverse order followed by A at the last 91. Bogie is a part of train which is a type of
position. In option D. the three letters are in conveyance. Chair, Shirt and Necklace are
natural order. types of furniture, garment and jewellery
65. The sequence in all other groups is +3, +1, +4, respectively.
i.e., 92. The medium used for writing with pencil is
K N O S ; Q T U Y ; B E F J lead, with pen it is ink and with brush, it is
paint. With crayon it should be wax.
+3 +1 +4 +3 +1 +4 +3 +1 +4 93. The pair of words are opposite. Other pairs are
In option C. the sequence is disturbed, i.e., synonyms.
D F G J 94. Tiara is worn on the head.
95. Other words are opposite to each other.
+2 +1 +3 96. In all other groups the first word is the
66. Other numbers are divisible by 7. collection of the second.
67. Other numbers are multiples of 13. 97. In all other groups the second word is the
68. 131 is a prime number. sound of the first. Horses neigh.
69. In other numbers, no digit is repeated. 98. The related pairs are first masculine and then
70. In other numbers the last two digits are same. feminine. In A., it is opposite.
71. All other numbers are perfect squares. 99. Petrol is used to run a car, oil to burn a lamp
72. In other numbers, the sum of both the digits and wax for candle. Diesel and wood have no
is 9. relation.
73. In others, the digits are consecutive in natural 100. The related pairs have same identity. A. has
or reverse series. rivers, B. deserts and C. parts of body. In D.,
74. All others are prime numbers. mountain identifies the first word - Everest.
75. All other numbers are divisible by 2. 101. Doctor deals with medicine, cobbler with
76. All other numbers are multiples of 12. shoes and dermatologist with skin. Person
77. In other numbers, the first and last digits are dealing with flowers should be gardener or a
same. horticulturist.
78. The other numbers are 32 + 3 = 12, 52 + 5 = 102. The other pairs of words have same meaning.
30, 42 + 4 = 20 Repel and attract are opposites.
79. In all other numbers, two digits are same. 103. The related words are the games and the places
80. Other numbers are made with digits 2, 6, 7 and where they are played. Polo is played on
8. ground.
81. 29 is a prime number. 104. The other pairs of words are rhyming words.
82. All other numbers are prime numbers. 105. The head of the Navy is Commander.
83. All other numbers are divisible by 3. 106. Birds fly in sky as train runs on its tracks,
84. In all other numbers the sequence of aeroplane flies in sky and submarine runs
digits after 987 is in decreasing order. under sea. Birds are living objects.
 46

107. The second words shows the quality of the 126. In all other groups the letters in first part are
first word. Jelly is tender or wobbly. in natural series and in second part in reverse
108. In other groups the first word is a part of the series.
second. 127. In all other groups the two letters on the right
109. The other pairs share the same meaning. fit between the two letters on the left.
110. Three is thrice or threesome. 128. All other pairs have only vowels.
111. Aravallis are Mountains. 129. In other groups, the letters on the left are made
112. All other words are combinations of positive with straight lines and the letters on the right
and comparative degrees of comparisons. have curved lines.
Option A. has a pair of positive and 130. In other groups, the letters on the left are used
superlative degree of comparison. to form a new word on the right.
113. All other pair of words have the same 131. In all other pairs the second number is the
meaning. sum of the digits of the first number.
114. In all other pairs the second word is the 132. In all other pairs the numbers are divisible by
characteristic feature of the first. Snail should 3.
be slow. 133. In other groups the difference between the
115. The other pair of words are rhyming words. numbers is 4.
134. In this option the second number is double
116. In all other groups the letters are in natural
the first number. In other groups the
series and the last letter of first part is the first
difference between the two numbers is 10.
letter of the second part.
135. In other groups the first digits of the two
117. In all other groups only the vowel is in lower
numbers are same (consider 3 and 4 as 03 and
case in the first part and in second part the case
04).
is reversed.
136. In other pairs the first number is divisible by
118. In all other groups the letters jump two letters the second number.
in between them. 137. In other pairs the difference between the two
119. In all other groups the single letter in first part numbers is 27.
is repeated in the second and vice versa. 138. The second number in other pairs is the square
120. In all other groups the letters in the first part of the first number.
are one step forward than the corresponding 139. The second number in other pairs is half of
letters in the second part. the first number.
121. In all other groups the letters in the first part 140. The second number in other pairs is five times
are written backwards in the second part. the first number.
122. All other groups have letters made by straight 141. The difference in each pair is of 11. In this
lines only. option, it is 10.
123. In all other groups the letters jump four letters 142. 8 is not a prime number.
in between them. 143. The second number in other groups is the sum
124. In all others groups the letters jump one letter of digits of the first number.
between them. 144. The second number in other groups is the cube
125. In all other groups the second part is same as of the first number.
first except that the middle letter is changed 145. In all other pairs, the first number is divided
to small letter. by 3 to get the second number.
 47

REL ATIONSHIPS
Directions : In each of the following questions 7. Aditya is Bhavi’s brother, Bharat is Jayant’s
keenly study the relationship mentioned between father. Ella is Bhavi’s mother. Aditya and
the persons, and then from the given options select Jayant are brothers. What is Ella’s relationship
the right relationship as the answer. with Bharat?
1. ‘A’ is the father of ‘B’ and ‘C’. ‘B’ is the son A. Sister B. Mother
of ‘A’ but ‘C’ is not the son of ‘A’. What is C. Daughter D. Wife
‘C’s’ relation with ‘A’? 8. A man introduced the boy coming with him
A. Daughter B. Son as “He is son of the father of my wife’s
C. Niece D. Nephew daughter”. What relation did the boy bear to
2. A lady said, “The person standing there is my the man?
grandfather’s only son’s daughter”. How is the A. Son-in-law B. Son
lady related to the standing person? C. Brother D. Father
A. Sister B. Mother 9. A and B are two brothers. C is sister of B.
C. Aunt D. Cousin D is sister of E. E is son of A. Who is D’s
3. Ravi is the brother of Amit’s son’s son. What uncle?
is Amit’s relation to Ravi? A. D B. E
A. Cousin B. Father C. B D. C
C. Grandfather D. Son 10. Varun said pointing towards Arun, “He is my
4. Mayank said, “My mother is the sister of sister’s only brother’s son”. How is Arun
Rajat’s brother.” What is Rajat’s relation with related to Varun?
Mayank? A. Son B. Brother
A. Cousin C. Nephew D. Data insufficient
B. Maternal uncle 11. Pointing to a man, a lady said, “His brother’s
C. Uncle father is my grandfather’s only son.” How is
D. Brother-in-law the lady related to the man?
5. Introducing Lily, Raghav said, “Her father is A. Mother B. Sister
my mother’s only son”. How is Lily related C. Daughter D. Aunt
to Raghav? 12. Vidya is the wife of Gopi and Gopi is the
A. Aunt B. Daughter brother of Akhil. Akhil is the uncle of Vijay.
C. Mother D. Sister What is Vijay’s relation with Vidya?
6. Ajay is the brother of Vijay. Mili is the Sister A. Son B. Nephew
of Ajay. Sanjay is the brother of Rahul and C. Brother-in-law D. Brother
Mehul is the daughter of Vijay. Who is 13. If Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son
Sanjay’s Uncle? and Billoo has neither a brother nor a
A. Rahul B. Ajay daughter, what is the relationship between
C. Mehul D. Data inadequate Amit and Billoo?
47
 48

A. Uncle - Nephew 20. Pointing to Suman, Amit said, “He is my

B. Father- Daughter sister’s only brother’s son”. How is Suman
C. Father - Son related to Amit?
D. Cousins A. Grandson
14. A is the sister of B. B is the son of C, and E is B. Son
the daughter of D, and sister of A. What is D C. Nephew
to C? D. Cannot be determined
A. Brother 21. Pointing to someone, I said, “She is my
B. Husband father’s sister and she is the only daughter”.
C. Wife How many children did my paternal grand-
D. Data is inadequate parents have in all?
A. Two sons
15. A man said to a lady, “Fagu’s mother is the
B. One daughter
only daughter of your father”. How is the lady
C. One son and one daughter
related to Fagu?
D. Cannot be determined
A. Daughter B. Sister
C. Wife D. Mother 22. Pointing to a photograph, a woman said, “She
is the only daughter of my mother’s father.”
16. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the
How is the woman related to the person in the
only son of my mother’s mother”. How is the
photograph?
woman related to the man?
A. Mother
A. Aunt B. Daughter
B. Grandmother
C. Niece D. Sister
C. Daughter
17. If B’s mother was A’s mother’s daughter, how D. Cannot be determined
was A related to B?
23. Sandip’s mother is the only daughter of
A. Uncle
Rekha’s father. How is Rekha’s husband
B. Aunt
related to Sandip?
C. Sister A. Uncle B. Brother
D. Data is insufficient C. Grandfather D. Father
18. Pointing to a woman in the photograph a man 24. If P is the husband of Q and R is the mother
said, “She is the daughter of my grandmother’s of S and Q, what is R to P?
only son. How is the woman related to the A. Mother
man? B. Sister
A. Mother B. Daughter C. Aunt
C. Sister-in-law D. Sister D. Mother-in-law
19. A man and a woman are sitting in a room. 25. Ram is the brother of Shyam and Mahesh is
Man’s mother-in-law and woman’s mother-in- the father of Ram. Jagat is the brother of Priya
law are mother and daughter respectively. and Priya is daughter of Shyam. Who is the
Man is the ................. of the woman. uncle of Jagat ?
A. Father A. Shyam
B. Father-in-law B. Mahesh
C. Uncle C. Ram
D. Grandfather-in-law D. Data insufficient
 49 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–7

26. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This B. C has three sons

man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law”. How C. B is a male child
is the woman’s husband related to the man in D. None of these
the photograph ? 32. Daya has a brother Anil. Daya is a son of
A. Son-in-law B. Son Chandra. Bimal is Chandra’s father. In terms
C. Grandson D. Nephew of relationship, what is Anil of Bimal ?
27. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, A. Grandfather B. Brother
Aruna said, “He is the only son of the father C. Grandson D. Son
of my sister’s brother”. How is that person 33. ‘A’ is the brother of ‘B’, ‘C’ is the sister of ‘B’.
related to Aruna? How is ‘B’ related to ‘A’?
A. Mother A. Cousin
B. Maternal Uncle B. Sister
C. Father C. Brother
D. None of these D. Cannot be determined
28. If Vijay says “Viju’s mother is the only 34. Pointing to Snehal, Mahesh said, “Her
daughter of my mother”, how is Vijay related mother’s only daughter is my daughter”. How
to Viju ? is Mahesh related to Snehal?
A. Brother A. Brother B. Uncle
B. Grandfather C. Son D. Father
C. Father 35. Is ‘C’ mother of ‘D’? To find out the answer
D. None of these which of the following informations given in
29. Pointing to a photograph a lady tells Mohan, the statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ is/are sufficient?
“I am the only daughter of this lady and her (A) B has two children of which D is one.
son is your maternal uncle.” How is the (B) D’s sister is daughter of C.
speaker related to Mohan’s father ? A. Both A and B together are needed
A. Wife B. Both A and B together are not sufficient
B. Sister-in-law C. Only A is sufficient
C. Either of the two D. Only B is sufficient
D. Neither of the two 36. A is B’s brother. A is C’s brother. To find out
30. Q’s mother is sister of P and daughter of M. S how B is related to C, which of the following
is daughter of P and sister of T. How is M is the minimum further information necessary,
related to T ? is any?
A. Father I. C’s sex II. B’s sex
B. Grandfather A. Only I is necessary
C. Grandmother B. Only II is necessary
D. Grandfather or Grandmother C. Either I or II is necessary
31. A is the mother of B’. B’s father C has three D. Both I and II are needed
children. Based on this information, state 37. Is D brother of F? To find out the answer which
which of the following statements is definitely of the following informations given in the
true ? statements A and B is/are sufficient?
A. C has three daughters (A) B has two sons of which F is one.
 50 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–7-II

(B) D’s mother is married to B. related to B’s mother?

A. Both A and B together are needed A. Mother
B. Both A and B together are not sufficient B. Daughter-in-law
C. Only A is sufficient C. Daughter
D. Only B is sufficient D. Cousin
38. Neera is daughter of Mahender. Mala, Achla’s 44. If A is the mother of B and C, and D is the
sister has a son Mohan and daughter Sushila. husband of C, then what is A to D?
Kamla is maternal aunt of Sushila and mother A. Aunt
of Krishna. Mohan is cousin of Krishna. B. Mother-in-law
Krishna is brother of Neera. How is Achla C. Sister-in-law
related to Mahender? D. Sister
A. Cousin 45. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His mother
B. Sister-in-law is the only daughter of my father.” How is the
C. Niece man related to the woman?
D. Daughter A. Father B. Uncle
39. B is maternal uncle of A. C is maternal C. Husband D. Son
grandfather of B. D is grandson of C. How is 46. If Maya is the only daughter of Richa’s
D related to A? grandmother’s brother, how is Maya’s
A. Maternal uncle daughter related to Richa?
B. Cousin brother A. Niece
C. Nephew B. Cousin
D. Maternal grandfather C. Aunt
40. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife D. Mother
is the only daughter of my father”. How is the 47. Pointing to a woman, a man said, “Her
man related to the woman? husband’s mother is the wife of my father’s
A. Husband only son”. How is the man related to the
B. Father woman?
C. Father-in-law A. Son
D. Brother B. Brother-in-law
41. B’s mother is the only daughter of A’s mother. C. Uncle
How is A related to B? D. Father-in-law
A. Niece B. Brother 48. Bela is the mother of Chinu and Miki. If
C. Father D. Uncle Kavind is the husband of Miki, what is Bela
42. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman to Kavind?
said, “His brother’s father is the only son of A. Daughter
my grandfather.” How is the woman related to B. Sister
the man? C. Mother
A. Aunt B. Mother D. Mother-in-law
C. Daughter D. Sister 49. Pointing to a woman, a man says, “Her mother
43. A said to B that B’s mother was the mother- is the only daughter of my mother-in-law”.
in-law of A’s mother. How is A’s mother How is the woman related to the man?
 51

A. Sister 50. Introducing a lady, a man said that her

B. Daughter mother’s husband’s sister is his mother. What
C. Aunt is the man’s relationship with the lady?
A. Cousin B. Nephew
D. Data is insufficient
C. Father D. Data insufficient

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C B B D D B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B C D D C D D B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C D D C C D D A D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C D D B D A B A A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D D B B D B D D B A

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

3.
1.

‘C’ is not the son of ‘A’, but ‘A’ is the father

of ‘C’. So, ‘C’ is the daughter of ‘A’.
Amit’s son’s son is Amit’s grandson. Ravi is
2. the brother of Amit’s son’s son. So, Amit is
also the grandfather of Ravi.
4.

Lady’s grandfather’s son is lady’s father and Mayank’s mother is the sister of Rajat’s
father’s daughter will only be lady’s sister. brother. So Rajat is also the brother of
 52

Mayank’s mother. Relation of the brother with 9. The relationship chart based on the problem
his sister’s child is maternal. So Rajat is is :
Mayank’s maternal uncle.
5. The relation is : Mother
­ (Son)
Raghav
¯ (Father)
Lily (Daughter)
‘My mother’s only son’ means Raghav
himself. ‘Her father’ means Lily’s father; i.e. When D is sister of E, who is son of A then
Raghav and so, Lily is Raghav’s daughter. D is daughter of A. Brother of A is B and so,
6. 1. Mili Ajay Vijay B is D’s uncle.
(sister) (brother) ¯
Mehul 10.
2. Sanjay Rahul (daughter)
(brother)
There are two sets of relationship. Information
given is incomplete and no relation can be
established between the two sets.
7. The relationship chart based on problem is
Varun’s sister’s only brother is Varun himself
and Arun is his son.

11.

Jayant and Aditya are brothers. If Aditya is

Bhavi’s brother, then Jayant is also Bhavi’s
brother. If Bharat is Jayant’s father, then he is
also the father of Aditya and Bhavi. If Ella is
Bhavi’s mother, then she is also the mother Man’s brother’s father is also the lady’s father
of Aditya and Jayant. This means Bharat and as he is the only son of lady’s grandfather. So,
Ella are husband and wife and the parents of the lady is man’s sister.
three. 12. The relationship chart based on problem is :
8. The relationship chart based on problem is :

Vidya is wife of Gopi who is brother of Akhil.

‘Father of the man’s wife’s daughter’ is the So, Vidya is sister-in-law of Akhil. If Akhil is
man himself and the boy in question is the uncle of Vijay then Gopi will naturally be the
man’s son. uncle of Vijay as it is not specified that any
 53

of the mentioned persons are Vijay’s parents.

Now, when Vijay is Gopi’s nephew then he 17.
will also be Vidya’s nephew.
13. The relationship chart based on problem is :

Sex of ‘A’ is not known. Either option A or B

is correct.
18.

Amit’s father is Billoo’s father’s only son

means Billoo is the only son in question
also, he is the father of Amit. It must be noted
that Billoo has no brother which means he is
single and also, when he has no daughter, ‘My grandmother’s only son’ is the father of
Amit is his only son. the man, and ‘daughter of my grand-mother’s
14. only son’ is the sister of the man.

19.

Information about ‘D’ and ‘C’ is not given as

such no relation can be specified.
15.

Woman’s mother-in-law is the daughter of

Man’s mother-in-law. So, the man is the
husband of woman’s mother-in-law and the
father-in-law of the woman.
20. Amit ¬¾¾® Amit’s Sister
(only brother)
The only daughter of Lady’s father is Fagu’s ¯
mother. Son (Suman)
16. ‘My sister’s only brother’s is Amit himself
and ‘Sister’s only brother’s son’ is the son of
Amit i.e., Suman is the son of Amit.
21.

The man is the brother of the woman’s mother. Nothing can be determined from this
So, the woman is man’s niece. information.
 54

22. Woman’s mother’s father

b 26.
Person in photograph
(woman’s mother/only daughter)
­ (daughter)
Woman
‘Only daughter of my mother’s father’ is the
person in the photograph and she is also the
mother of the woman. So, the woman is the
daughter of the person in the photograph.
‘Man’s son’s sister’ is the daughter of the
23. man and is also the mother-in-law of the
woman. Woman’s husband will be the son of
the woman’s mother-in-law. As the woman’s
mother-in-law is the daughter of the man in
photograph, woman’s husband will be the
grandson of the man in photograph.
27.
‘Only daughter of Rekha’s father’s is Rekha
who is also Sandip’s mother. And so, Rekha’s
husband is the father of Sandip.
24.

‘The only son of the father of my sister’s

brother’ is the brother himself. Aruna’s sister’s
P is the husband of Q and R is the mother of brother is also the brother of Aruna.
Q. So, Q is the daughter of R and R is the
mother-in-law of daughter’s husband P.
28.
25.

Jagat is brother of Priya and Priya is daughter Only daughter of my mother i.e. Viju’s mother
of Shyam. So Shyam is also the father of is the sister of Vijay. And so, Vijay who is the
Jagat. Ram is the brother of Shyam. So, Jagat’s brother of Viju’s mother is Viju’s maternal
father’s brother Ram is the uncle of Jagat. uncle.
 55

29. who is the son of Chandra is the grandson of

Biman.
33.

As the sex of ‘B’ is not known, ‘B’s’

relationship with ‘A’ cannot be determined.

34
The lady who is speaking is the only daughter
of the lady in photograph. The son of the
lady in photograph is the brother of lady who
is speaking. If the brother of the lady speaker
is the maternal uncle of Mohan, then the lady
speaker is the mother of Mohan, and so she
is also the wife of Mohan’s father. ‘Her (Snehal’s) mother’s only daughter’ is
30. Snehal herself. So Snehal is the daughter of
Mahesh who in turn is her father.

35.

‘Q’s’ mother is the sister of ‘P’ and daughter

of ‘M’. So, ‘P’ is also the child of ‘M‘. ‘S’ is
the daughter of ‘P’ and sister of ‘T’. So ‘T’ is
also the child of ‘P’; who is the child of ‘M’. Though both the statements suggest that ‘B’
As the sex of the members is not given ‘M’ and ‘C’ are the parents of the two children; it
can be either the grandfather or the cannot be said for certain that ‘C’ is the
grandmother of ‘T’. mother of ‘D’ as the sex of ‘B’ and ‘C’ is not
31. From the given statements ‘A’ and ‘C’ are the given.
mother and father of ‘B’ and two more children.
None of the given options can be true.
36.
32. Both of the two information is necessary to
find how ‘B’ is related to ‘C’.

37.

Daya is the son of Chandra. So, Daya’s father

Chandra is also the father of Daya’s brother Both the statements are needed to know that
Anil. Bimal is the father of Chandra. So, Anil ‘D’ is the brother of ‘F’.
 56

38. 42.

From the relationship chart, Kamla, Mala and

Achla are sisters and also Kamla is maternal
aunt of Mala’s daughter Sushila. Kamla is the ‘Only son of my grandfather’ is the father of
wife of Mahender. A wife’s sister is a sister-in- the woman. ‘His brother’s father’ is also the
law. So, Achla is the sister-in-law of Mahender. father of the man. So, the woman is the sister
39. of the man.
43.

‘C’ is the grandfather of ‘B’ and ‘D’ is the ‘B’s’ mother is the mother-in-law of ‘A’s’
grandson of ‘C’. So ‘B’ and ‘D’ are brothers. mother. So, ‘A’s’ mother is the daughter-in-
When ‘B’ is the maternal uncle of ‘A’ then law of ‘B’s’ mother.
‘B’s’ brother ‘D’ will also be the maternal
uncle of ‘A’. 44.
40.

‘A’ is the mother of ‘C’ and ‘D’ is the husband

of ‘C’. So, ‘A’ is the mother-in-law of ‘C’s’
‘Only daughter of my father’ is the woman
husband ‘D’.
herself and the man is her husband.
45. E. :
41.

‘B’s’ mother is the only daughter of ‘A’s’ ‘Only daughter of my father’ is the woman
mother. So ‘A’ is the son. As ‘A’ is also the herself and ‘His mother’ means the man’s
brother of ‘B’s’ mother, he is the uncle of ‘B’. mother. So, the man is the son of the woman.
 57 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–8

46. Bela is mother of Miki. Kavind is Miki’s

husband. So, Bela is Kavind’s mother-in-law
as wife’s mother is the husband’s mother-in-
law.
49. The relationship chart based on the given
statements is :

Both Maya’s Daughter and Richa are

granddaughters of a brother and a sister
respectively. So Maya’s daughter is the cousin
of Richa.
47.

The woman, who is pointed out is the man’s

daughter and the man’s mother-in-law’s only
daughter is man’s wife.
50. The relationship chart based on problem is :
‘My father’s only son’ is the man himself.
‘Her husband’s mother’ is the wife of the man
and so the man is the father of the woman’s
husband. As the woman is the wife of man’s
son, the man is the father-in-law of the woman.
48. The relationship chart based on the problem
is :

As the children of brother and sister are

cousins, so are the man and the lady. Lady is
the daughter of brother of man’s mother and
man is the son of brother’s sister.
 58

ARRANGING IN ORDER
In these type of questions arrangement of given 3. Book 4. Lesson
options is done on the basis of dictionary, size, rank, 5. Sentence
weight, natural sequence etc in ascending or A. 15243 B. 24153
descending order. C. 32451 D. 34251
Ans. D : A book contains many lessons, a
SOLVED EXAMPLES lesson contains many paragraphs, a paragraph
contains many sentences and a sentence
1. Which word will come in the second place contains many words.
if the following words are arranged according
(Note : Option A. is in ascending manner.)
to dictionary?
1. Reason 2. Retina 3. What word will come in the middle if the
3. Regard 4. Ransom following words one arranged in ascending
5. Ration order of weight?
A. Retina B. Ration 1. Paperweight 2. Pencil
C. Regard D. Ransom 3. Chair 4. Knife
Ans. B : The order of words according to 5. Pin
dictionary is Ransom, Ration, Reason, Regard, A. Pin B. Knife
Retina. C. Pencil D. Paperweight
2. What will be the natural sequence of the Ans. B : According to ascending order of
given words in descending manner? weight the arrangement will be - Pin, Pencil,
1. Words 2. Paragraph Knife, Paperweight, Chair.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following words would appear A. Amphibian B. Amorphous
in the third if they are arranged as in the C. Ambiguous D. Ambivalent
dictionary order? 4. Which one would be a meaningful order of
A. Delude B. Delirium the following?
C. Defer D. Delete 1. Consultation
2. Which one would be a meaningful order of 2. Illness
the following? 3. Doctor
1. Key 2. Door 4. Treatment
3. Lock 4. Room 5. Recovery
5. Switch on A. 4 3 1 2 5 B. 2 3 4 1 5
A. 5 1 2 4 3 B. 4 2 1 5 3 C. 5 1 4 3 2 D. 2 3 1 4 5
C. 1 3 2 4 5 D. 1 2 3 5 4 5. In a telephone directory, which of the follow-
3. If the following words are rearranged in the ing names will appear in the third?
alphabetical order as in a dictionary, which A. Randhir B. Randesh
will be the third word? C. Rama D. Ramesh
58
 59

6. What would be a meaningful order of the A. 1 3 2 4 5 B. 4 5 3 2 1

following? C. 4 5 2 3 1 D. 1 2 3 4 5
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Universe 13. Which one would be a meaningful order of
3. Tirupathi 4. World the following?
5. India 1. Snake 2. Grass
A. 1 5 3 2 4 B. 4 1 5 3 2 3. Eagle 4. Frog
C. 5 4 2 1 3 D. 3 1 5 4 2 5. Insect
7. Which one would be a meaningful order of A. 3 2 1 4 5 B. 5 2 1 4 3
the following? C. 2 5 4 1 3 D. 2 4 5 3 1
1. Mother 2. Child 14. Which one would be a meaningful order of
3. Milk 4. Cry the following?
5. Smile 1. Windows 2. Walls
A. 3 2 1 5 4 B. 2 4 1 3 5 3. Floor 4. Foundation
C. 1 5 2 4 3 D. 2 4 3 1 5 5. Roof 6. Room
8. Which would be the proper order of the A. 4 2 1 5 3 6 B. 4 3 5 6 2 1
following? C. 4 5 3 2 1 6 D. 4 1 5 6 2 3
1. Rainbow 2. Rain 15. Which would be a meaningful order of the
3. Sun 4. Happy following?
5. Child 1. Index 2. Contents
A. 4 2 3 5 1 B. 4 5 1 2 3 3. Title 4. Chapters
C. 2 1 4 3 5 D. 2 3 1 5 4 5. Introduction
A. 2 3 4 5 1 B. 3 2 5 4 1
9. Which one will be a meaningful order of the
C. 5 1 4 2 3 D. 3 2 5 1 4
following :
1. Birth 2. Death 16. If the following words are arranged in their
3. Funeral 4. Marriage natural sequence in descending order, which
5. Education word will occur in the second place?
1. Book 2. Paragraph
A. 1 3 4 5 1 B. 4 5 3 1 2
3. Library 4. Alphabet
C. 1 5 4 2 3 D. 2 3 4 5 1
5. Page
10. In a telephone directory which of the follow- A. Page B. Paragraph
ing names will appear in the second? C. Book D. Library
A. Sajewet B. Sajewat
17. What would be the proper order of the
C. Segvan D. Salwar
following :
11. Which would be the proper order of the 1. Decameter 2. Meter
following? (in ascending order) 3. Kilometer 4. Centimeter
1. Trillion 2. Thousand 5. Milimeter
3. Billion 4. Hundred A. 1 4 3 2 5 B. 5 4 1 2 3
5. Million C. 5 4 3 2 1 D. 5 4 2 1 3
A. 4 2 5 3 1 B. 1 5 3 2 4 18. If the following words are arranged in natural
C. 4 2 3 5 1 D. 1 2 3 4 5 order then what will come in the second place?
12. What would be the meaningful order of the 1. Producer 2. Raw material
following? 3. Seller 4. Consumer
1. Table 2. Tree 5. Distributor
3. Wood 4. Seed A. Producer B. Seller
5. Plant C. Consumer D. Distributor
 60

19. If the words are arranged in ascending order 25. What will be the natural order of the follow-
which word will occur in the fourth place? ing words according to speed?
1. Youth 2. Infant 1. Jet 2. Bus
3. Adult 4. Childhood 3. Cycle 4. Aeroplane
5. Teenager 5. Train
A. Teenager B. Childhood A. 3 5 2 4 1 B. 3 2 5 1 4
C. Adult D. Youth C. 3 2 5 4 1 D. 3 2 1 4 5
20. If the following words are arranged according 26. If these words are arranged according to
to dictionary, what will be the correct order? dictionary then what word will come in the
1. Martial 2. Marital third place?
3. Matrimony 4. Material 1. Originality 2. Originally
5. Matriarch 3. Originator 4. Original
A. 2 1 4 5 3 B. 2 4 5 1 3 5. Originate
C. 3 4 1 5 2 D. 2 1 5 3 4 A. Originality B. Originator
C. Originate D. Originally
21. What would be the proper order of the
following words in descending order? 27. Which word will come in the third place in
1. Gram 2. Decigram the natural sequence of the following words
3. Hectagram 4. Kilogram in descending order?
5. Centigram 1. Town 2. Country
3. Family 4. Neighbourhood
A. 4 3 1 2 5 B. 4 2 3 1 5
5. State
C. 5 2 1 4 3 D. 4 3 2 1 5
A. Town B. Country
22. What will be the middle word in natural order C. State D. Neighbourhood
of the words given?
28. What will be the natural order of the following
1. Medication 2. Patient
words?
3. Diagnosis 4. Recuperation
1. Digest 2. Cut
5. Doctor
3. Chew 4. Purchase
A. Doctor B. Patient
5. Cook
C. Medication D. Diagnosis A. 4 5 2 3 1 B. 4 2 5 1 3
23. Which would be the proper order of the C. 4 5 3 1 2 D. 4 2 5 3 1
following? 29. If the following words are arranged according
1. Country 2. Furniture to dictionary what will come in the last?
3. Forest 4. Wood 1. Institutist 2. Institutional
5. Trees 3. Institute 4. Institutor
A. 4 3 2 1 5 B. 2 4 1 5 3 5. Institutionalism
C. 1 3 5 4 2 D. 1 2 3 4 5 A. Institutist B. Institutor
24. If the following words are arranged in natural C. Institutionalism D. Institutional
order, what will come in the last place in 30. What will be the natural order of the
ascending order? following?
1. Captain 1. Independence Day
2. Brigadier 2. Christmas
3. Major 3. Diwali
4. Lieutenant-General 4. Holi
5. Lieutenant 5. Republic Day
A. Lientenant-General B. Brigadier A. 5 4 1 3 2 B. 5 1 4 3 2
C. Captain D. Major C. 4 1 5 3 2 D. 2 3 4 1 5
 61

31. What will be the natural order of the following 37. What will be the natural order of the following
words according to weight? in descending order?
1. Drum 2. Pin 1. Hut 2. Skyscraper
3. Paper weight 4. Pebble 3. Palace 4. Room
5. Coffee cup 5. House
A. 4 2 3 5 1 B. 2 4 5 3 1 A. 2 3 1 5 4 B. 4 1 5 3 2
C. 4 2 5 1 3 D. 2 4 3 5 1 C. 2 3 5 1 4 D. 3 2 5 4 1
32. What word will come in the third place if 38. Which would be the proper order of the
these words are arranged in descending order? following?
1. Judge 2. Listen 1. Euphoria 2. Happiness
3. Act 4. Analyse 3. Ambivalence 4. Ecstasy
5. Observe 5. Pleasure
A. Listen B. Observe A. 3 4 1 2 5 B. 3 2 5 4 1
C. Act D. Analyse C. 5 4 1 3 2 D. 3 5 2 1 4
33. If the following words are arranged in ascending 39. What will be the proper order of the words
order what word will be in the fourth place? according to dictionary?
1. Air commodore 1. Rural 2. Rugby
2. Wing Commander 3. Rugged 4. Rummage
3. Pilot Officer 5. Ruffle
4. Squadron Leader A. 5 3 2 4 1 B. 5 2 3 1 4
5. Air Marshal C. 5 2 4 3 1 D. 5 2 3 4 1
A. Air Marshal B. Air Commodore
40. Which name will come in the middle if these
C. Wing Commander D. Pilot Officer
names are arranged in a telephone directory?
34. If the following words are arranged in natural 1. Priyanka 2. Priyana
sequence in descending order, what will come 3. Priti 4. Pratima
in the second place from the last? 5. Protima
1. Teacher 2. Lecturer A. Priti B. Pratima
3. Dean 4. Tutor C. Protima D. Priyana
5. Reader
A. Dean B. Lecturer 41. Arrange the following in a meaningful
C. Tutor D. Teacher sequence :
1. Senescence 2. Infancy
35. If the words are arranged according to dictionary, 3. Puberty 4. Going adulthood
what will come in the second place from the
5. Babyhood
last?
A. 5 3 2 4 1 B. 1 3 4 2 5
1. Spastically 2. Spasmatic
C. 2 3 4 5 1 D. 2 5 3 4 1
3. Spasticity 4. Spastic
5. Spasmodical 42. Arrange the following words in the sequence
A. Spastic B. Spasmodical in which they occur in dictionary :
C. Spastically D. Spasmatic Liver Long Late Load Luminous Letter
1 2 3 4 5 6
36. What will be the natural order of the following
A. 3 6 1 4 2 5 B. 3 6 1 2 4 5
words according to size?
C. 3 1 6 2 4 5 D. 3 1 6 2 5 4
1. Dog 2. Horse
3. Ant 4. Giraffe 43. Which number-sequence of the following
5. Mouse represents a correct sequence from small to
A. 3 5 1 2 4 B. 3 1 5 2 4 big?
C. 3 5 1 4 2 D. 3 5 2 1 4 1. Bungalow 2. Flat
 62

3. Cottage 4. House 3. Newly-married couple

5. Palace 6. Mansion 4. Clan
A. 3 2 1 4 6 5 B. 3 2 4 1 6 5 5. Species
C. 3 2 4 1 5 6 D. 5 6 4 1 2 3 A. 3 4 5 1 2 B. 5 2 1 4 3
44. Arrange the following words in a meaningful C. 2 3 1 4 5 D. 4 5 3 2 1
order : 48. Which one would be a meaningful order of
1. Gold 2. Iron the following?
3. Sand 4. Platinum 1. College 2. Child
5. Diamond 3. Salary 4. School
A. 3 2 1 5 4 B. 2 4 3 5 1 5. Employment
C. 5 4 3 2 1 D. 4 5 1 3 2
A. 1 2 4 3 5 B. 4 1 3 5 2
45. Arrange the following words in a meaningful C. 2 4 1 5 3 D. 5 3 2 1 4
order :
49. What will be the dictionary order of these
1. Site 2. Plan
words?
3. Rent 4. Money
5. Building Bungling, Burgling, Bubble,
A. 2 3 5 1 4 B. 4 1 2 5 3 1 2 3
C. 1 2 3 5 4 D. 3 4 2 5 1 Bundle, Bushy, Bully
4 5 6
46. Which one would be a meaningful order of
A. 2 4 5 6 1 3 B. 5 6 1 4 3 2
the following?
1. Probation 2. Interview C. 1 4 6 5 2 3 D. 3 6 4 1 2 5
3. Selection 4. Appointment 50. Which word would be in the second place if
5. Advertisement 6. Application the following are arranged in a natural
A. 5 6 4 2 3 1 B. 5 6 3 2 4 1 sequence?
C. 5 6 2 3 4 1 D. 6 5 4 2 3 1 1. Noon 2. Night
47. What would be a meaningful order of the 3. Evening 4. Dusk
following? 5. Dawn
1. Caste A. Night B. Noon
2. Family C. Dusk D. Evening

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B D B D B D C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C C A B C D A D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D C A C D A D B A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B D B D C A C D D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A B A B C B C D D
 63

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. The dictionary order of word is — Book is a collection of many Pages, in a
Defer, Delete, Delirium, Delude. Page there are many Paragraphs which contain
a lot of Alphabet.
2. With the Key you open a Lock, then open
the Door to enter the Room and Switch on 17. The proper order of measurement in increasing
the light. order is—Milimeter, Centimeter, Meter,
Decameter, Kilometer.
3. The dictionary order of the words is —
Ambiguous, Ambivalent, Amorphous, 18. The natural order of words is—Raw material,
Amphibian. Producer, Distributor, Seller, Consumer. Raw
material is used by the Producer to make a
4. An Ill person goes to a Doctor for Consultation
product which its Distributor gives to the
who prescribes Treatment for Recovery.
Seller from whom the Consumer can purchase
5. In telephone directory the order of names is it.
— Raamesh, Rana, Randesh, Randhir.
19. The words in ascending order depict the natural
6. Tirupathi is in Andhra Pradesh which is a growth of a human being — Infant, Childhood,
state in India and India is a part of the World Teenager, Youth, Adult.
which is in Universe.
20. The dictionary order of words is — Marital,
7. When a Child Cries the Mother gives him Martial, Material, Matriarch, Matrimony.
Milk and then he Smiles.
21. The arrangement of weights in descending
8. When it rains in the Sun a Rainbow is formed order is — Kilogram, Hectagram, Gram,
and the Child is Happy to see it. Decigram, Centagram.
9. After the Birth of a child, his Education is 22. The words in natural order are — Patient,
important. When he is grown up he is Married. Doctor, Diagnosis, Medication, Recupera-tion.
When he is old he Dies and is taken for the A Patient goes to the Doctor who gives the
Funeral. Diagnosis and Prescribes the Medication for
10. In telephone directory the order of names Recuperation.
is—Sajewat, Sajewet, Salwar, Segvan. 23. The proper order of the words is—Country,
11. The words are arranged in order of increasing Forest, Trees, Wood, Furniture. In a Country
amount. there are Forests comprising Trees the Wood
12. From a Seed a Plant is grown into a Tree of which are used to make Furniture.
whose Wood is used to make a Table. 24. The arrangement of ranks in ascending order
13. In the Grass there are many Insects. Frog who is—Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Brigadier,
eats them is a prey of Snake who in turn is Lieutenant-General.
the prey of an Eagle. 25. The natural order of modes of transport
14. The order of words depict the right order of according to increasing speed is — Cycle,
constructing a building/room. Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Jet.
15. A Title comprises Contents of Introduction 26. The dictionary order of words is — Original,
for Chapter Index. Originality, Originally, Originate, Originator.
16. The words in descending order of natural 27. The words in natural sequence of descending
sequence are—Library, Book, Page, Paragraph, order are — Country, State, Town, Neighbour-
Alphabet. Library is a collection of Books, a hood, Family.
 64

In a country there are many States which 38. The order of expressions of feeling of joy is
comprises of many Towns wherein in the — Ambivalence, Happiness, Pleasure,
Neighbourhood live Families. Euphoria, Ecstacy.
28. The natural order of the words is — Purchase, 39. The dictionary order of words is — Ruffle,
Cut, Cook, Chew, Digest. After Purchasing Rugby, Rugged, Rummage, Rural.
vegetables we Cut them, then Cook them and 40. Order of names in telephone directory is
while eating Chew them and Digest them in
Pratima, Priti, Priyana, Priyanka, Protima.
our stomach.
41. The meaningful sequence of the words is—
29. The dictionary order of words is — Institute,
Infancy, Babyhood, Puberty, Going Adulthood,
Institutional, Institutionalism, Institutist,
Institutor. Senescence.
30. The natural order of National Holidays in 42. The dictionary order of words is — Late,
Calendar is — Republic Day (January), Holi Letter, Liver, Load, Long, Luminous.
(March), Independence Day (August), Diwali 43. The sequence of letters from small to big is
(October/November), Christmas (December). — Cottage, Flat, House, Bungalow, Mansion,
31. The arrangement of words according to weight Palace.
in ascending order is — Pin, Pebble, Coffee 44. The meaningful order of words is — Sand,
Cup, Paper Weight, Drum. Iron, Gold, Diamond, Platinum. (The order is
32. The arrangement of words in descending order based on the dearness.)
is — Act, Judge, Analyse, Observe, Listen 45. The meaningful order of words is — Money,
Or Act, Judge, Analyse, Listen, Observe. Site, Plan, Building, Rent — based on proper
33. The arrangement of ranks in ascending order planning.
is — Pilot Officer, Squadron Leader, Wing 46. The meaningful order of the words is —
Commander, Air Commodore, Air Marshal. Advertisement, Application, Interview,
34. The arrangement of educational posts in Selection, Appointment, Probation.
descending order is — Dean, Reader, Lecturer,
47. The meaningful order of words is — Species,
Teacher, Tutor.
Family, Caste, Clan, Newly-married Couple.
35. The dictionary order of words is — Spasmatic,
48. The meaningful order of words is — Child,
Spasmodical, Spastic, Spastically, Spasticity.
School, College, Employment, Salary.
36. The natural order of living beings according
to increasing size is — Ant, Mouse, Dog, 49. The dictionary order of words is—Bubble,
Horse, Giraffe. Bully, Bundle, Bungling, Burgling, Bushy.
37. The words in descending order are — Sky- 50. The natural order of words is— Dawn, Noon,
scraper, Palace, House, Hut, Room. Evening, Dusk, Night.
 65

CALENDAR, CLOCK, TIME,

DISTANCE
These are mathematical problem based on 4. If a train runs at a speed of 92.7 km/hr, then
calculations of time by a clock or calendar and the distance covered in metres in 20 minutes
computations of speed or distances. will be :
A. 3009 B. 308.9
SOLVED EXAMPLES C. 309 D. 30900

1. If day-after-tomorrow is Sunday, what was Ans. D : Speed of the train is 92.7 km/hr i.e.
day-before-yesterday? 92700 metres in 60 minutes
A. Wednesday In 20 minutes the distance covered will be :
B. Thursday 92700
C. Friday ´ 20 = 30900 metres
60
D. Saturday
5. Prabhat remembers that his mother’s birthday
Ans. A :
is after seventeenth April but before twenty-
Day-after-tomorrow — Sunday
first April, whereas his sister Urmila remembers
Tomorrow — Saturday
that their mother’s birthday is after nineteenth
Today — Friday
Yesterday — Thursday but before twenty-fourth April. Which of the
Day-before-yesterday — Wednesday following days in April is definitely their
mother’s birthday?
2. If the next day after 3rd Monday in a month
A. Nineteenth
is 16th, what will be the date on day before
B. Twenty-first
5th Monday?
C. Twenty-second
A. 27 B. 28
D. Twentieth
C. 29 D. 30
Ans. B. : Next day after 3rd Monday is 16th Ans. D : Mother’s birthday in the month of
So Monday is 15th April :
4th Monday is 22nd.... (15 + 7) According to Prabhat: is from
5th Monday is 29th .... (15 + 14) or (22 + 7) 17th 21st
So, date on day before 5th Monday is 28th
3. How many times in 12 hours the hands of a
19th 24th
clock will be at right angles?
A. 12 B. 16 According to Urmila: is from
C. 18 D. 24 It is clear that the mother’s birthday is between
Ans. D : In every hour the hands are at right 19th and 21st April and so the definite date
angles twice. is 20th April.

65 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–9

 66 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–9-II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If the day before yesterday was Thursday, A. 1986 B. 1985
when will Sunday be? C. 1987 D. 1988
A. Tomorrow 8. Manoj left home for the bus stop 15 minutes
B. Day after tomorrow earlier than the usual time. It takes 10 minutes
C. Today to reach the stop. He reached the stop at 8.40
D. Two days after today a.m. What time does he usually leave home
2. If the seventh day of a month is three (3) for the bus stop?
days earlier than Friday, what day will it be A. 8.30 a.m. B. 8.55 a.m.
on the nineteenth day of the month? C. 8.45 p.m. D. None of these
A. Sunday B. Monday 9. Mamuni went to the movies nine days ago.
C. Wednesday D. Friday She goes to the movies only on Thursday.
3. Radha remembers that her father’s birthday What day of the week is today?
is after 16th but before 21st of March, while A. Sunday B. Tuesday
her brother Mangesh remembers that his C. Thursday D. Saturday
father’s birthday is before 22nd but after 19th
10. If Thursday was the day after the day before
of March. On which date is the birthday of
yesterday five days ago, what is the least
their father?
number of days ago when Sunday was three
A. 19th
days before the day after tomorrow?
B. 20th
A. Two days ago B. Three days ago
C. 21st
C. Four days ago D. Five days ago
D. Cannot be determined
11. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday. Which is the
4. A man is three (3) years older than his wife
fourth Tuesday of December 91?
and four (4) times as old as his son. If the son
A. 31.12.91 B. 24.12.91
attains an age of fifteen (15) years after three
C. 17.12.91 D. 26.12.91
(3) years, what is the present age of the mother?
A. 60 years B. 51 years 12. If the third day of a month is Monday, which
C. 48 years D. 45 years of the following will be the fifth day from
21st of that month?
5. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its
A. Tuesday B. Monday
minute hand points towards north-east. In
which direction does its hour hand point at C. Wednesday D. Thursday
1.30 P.M.? 13. If 15 horses eat 15 bags of gram in 15 days,
A. East B. West in how many days will one horse eat one bag
C. North D. South of grain?
6. If in the above question clock is turned through A. 15 days B. 1/15 days
an angle of 135º in an anticlockwise direction, C. 1 day D. 30 days
in which direction will its minute hand point 14. A century leap year is divisible by :
at 8.45 P.M.? A. 4 B. 16
A. East B. West C. 40 D. 400
C. North D. South 15. If the fifth day of a month is Friday, which
7. A couple married in 1980 had two children, of the following will be the Seventh day
one in 1982 and the other in 1984. Their from 10th of that month?
combined ages will equal the years of the A. Tuesday B. Monday
marriage in? C. Wednesday D. Thursday
 67

16. Day after tomorrow is my birthday. On the A. 20 seconds B. 36 seconds

same day next week falls ‘Holi’. Today is C. 18 seconds D. 60 seconds
Monday. What will be the day after ‘Holi’? 23. Bunny’s brother Sunny is 562 days older to
A. Wednesday B. Thursday him while his sister Jenny is 75 weeks older
C. Friday D. Saturday to Sunny. If Jenny was born on Tuesday, on
17. A clock shows the time as 3 : 30 p.m. If the which day was Bunny born?
minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how A. Monday B. Tuesday
many minutes will the clock gain by 4 a.m.? C. Friday D. Thursday
A. 23 Minutes B. 24 Minutes 24. My uncle shall visit me after 64 days of my
C. 25 Minutes D. 26 Minutes father’s birthday. If my father’s birthday falls
18. Two brothers were expected to return home on Tuesday, what shall be the day on my
on the same day. Rajat returned 3 days earlier Uncle’s visit?
but Rohit returned 4 days later. If Rajat returned A. Wednesday B. Sunday
on Thursday, what was the expected day when C. Tuesday D. Monday
both the brothers were to return home and
25. If 21st November falls five days before
when did Rohit Return?
Wednesday then what will be the day on
A. Wednesday, Sunday
25th December?
B. Thursday, Monday
A. Wednesday B. Sunday
C. Sunday, Thursday
D. Monday, Friday C. Friday D. Thursday
19. A train started from station ‘A’ and proceeded 26. How much time will 160 m long train
towards station ‘B’ at a speed of 48 km/hr. travelling at a speed of 40 km/hr take to
Forty-five minutes later another train started cross a man going in the same direction with
from station ‘B’ and proceeded towards station a speed of 4 km/hr?
‘A’ at 50 km/hr. If the distance between the A. 15 seconds B. 40 seconds
two stations is 232 km, at what distance from C. 24 seconds D. 16 seconds
station ‘A’ will the trains meet? 27. If in a clock the numbers 1 to 12 are replaced
A. 132 km B. 144 km with alphabet starting from F, then which of
C. 108 km D. 160 km the following options shall indicate the time
20. A, B and C are pipes attached to a cistern. A as 9’o clock?
and B can fill it in 10 and 15 minutes A. M - P B. Q -N
respectively, while C can empty it in 20 C. P - M D. N - Q
minutes. If A, B and C be kept open 28. If 3rd December 1999 is Sunday, what day is
successively for 1 minute each, find the last 3rd January 2000?
integral number of minutes required for the A. Tuesday B. Wednesday
cistern to get filled. C. Thursday D. Friday
A. 20 B. 23 29. Prabir starts for office every morning at 9.15
C. 25 D. 26 a.m. and reaches there at 9.55 a.m. On
21. How many minutes does the minute hand Wednesday he started five minutes later than
gain in every one hour? the time he started on Friday. Three days out
A. 55 B. 60 of five days in the week he started late, out
C. 65 D. No gain of which Friday was one of the days. On how
22. A 260 metres long train runs at a speed of 55 many days he started in time?
kmph. How much time will it take to cross A. Two B. Three
a platform 290 metres long? C. Four D. One
 68

30. In the question above, at what time did he (iv) Bus ‘Q’ leaves immediately after ‘M’ and is
start on Wednesday? immediately followed by ‘S’.
A. 9.25 a.m. B. 9.15 a.m. (v) Bus ‘O’ is not followed by any other bus.
C. Data inadequate D. 9.20 a.m. (vi) Bus ‘R’ leaves immediately before ‘M’ but
Directions (Qs. 31-33) : Read the following not immediately after ‘P’.
information and answer the questions given below : 34. At what time, bus ‘M’ leaves on Saturday?
(I) Kundanmal is available at home between 12 A. 10 a.m. B. 9.45 a.m.
noon to 4 p.m. on Tuesday, Thursday and C. 10.30 a.m. D. Data inadequate
Sunday.
(II) His younger brother Nainamal is available at 35. On Sunday, when bus ‘P’ completes its tour,
home on Monday, Thursday, Friday and which of the following buses begins its tour?
Sunday between 10 a.m. to 2 p.m. A. Q B. S
(III) The eldest brother Jethamal is available C. O D. Data inadequate
between 9 a.m. to 12 noon on Monday, 36. If the time gap after bus ‘M’ leaves on Saturday-
Wednesday and Thursday and 2 p.m. to 4 Sunday is increased by 30 minutes for the
p.m. on Friday, Saturday and Sunday. subsequent trips, at what time, tour of bus
31. On which day(s) of a week, the youngest and ‘O’ will be completed?
the eldest brothers are available at home at A. 3 p.m. B. 2 p.m.
the same time? C. 6 p.m. D. 7 p.m.
A. Only Monday 37. If the time gap between two buses is uniformly
B. Only Thursday kept as 45 minutes from Monday to Friday,
C. Only Friday then the beginning of tour of bus ‘O’ will
D. Both Monday and Thursday mark completion of tour of which of the
32. At a time, on which day of a week all the following buses?
three brothers are available at home? A. N B. R
A. Sunday C. M D. None of these
B. Thursday
C. None Directions (Qs. 38-40) : Read the following
D. Can’t be determined information and answer the questions given below :
(i) Eight doctors P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W visit
33. For how many days only one brother is
a charitable dispensary run by Shram-Mandir
available at a particular time in a week?
Trust every day except on a holiday, i.e.
A. Four B. Three
Monday.
C. Two D. None of these
(ii) Each doctor visits for 1 hour from Tuesday
Directions (Qs. 34-37) : Read the following to Sunday except Saturday. The timings are
information and answer the questions given below :
9 a.m. to 1 p.m. and 2 p.m. to 6 p.m., 1 p.m.
(i) A city bus company operates 7 buses M, N,
to 2 p.m. is lunch break.
O, P, Q, R and S each once for daily 4 hours
(iii) On Saturday, it is open only in the morning,
sight-seeing tours.
i.e., 9 a.m. to 1 p.m. and each doctor visits
(ii) From Monday to Friday first bus leaves at 8
a.m. sharp, subsequent bus leaves alter- for only half an hour.
natively after a gap of 45 minutes, followed (iv) No other doctor visits the dispensary before
by 30 minutes, again 45 minutes and 35 doctor ‘Q’ and after doctor ‘U’.
minutes and so on. (v) Doctor ‘W’ comes immediately after lunch
(iii) On Saturday and Sunday, first bus leaves at break and is followed by ‘R’.
7.30 a.m. and others follows regularly after a (vi) ‘S’ comes in the same order as ‘P’ in the
gap of 1 hour. afternoon session.
 69

38. At what time the visit of Doctor ‘T’ would be A. R and W B. S and T
over on Saturday? C. U and W D. None of these
A. 10 a.m. 40. If the lunch break and subsequent visiting
B. 11 a.m. hours are reduced by 15 minutes, at what
C. Either 10 a.m. or 11 a.m. time Doctor ‘U’ is expected to attend the
D. Data inadequate dispensary?
39. Doctor ‘P’ visits in-between which of the A. 3.15 p.m. B. 4.15 p.m.
following pairs of doctors? C. 4.45 p.m. D. 4 p.m.

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A B D A D A C D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C A D C B C C A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B D A D D D B A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C D C A D D C D D

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. Thursday —Day-before-yesterday
5.
Friday —Yesterday
Saturday —Today
Sunday — Tomorrow
2. 7th day is 3 days earlier than Friday so, 10th
day is Friday, so also is 17th.
\ 19th day will be 2nd day ahead of Friday,
i.e., Sunday.
3. Father’s birthday 6.

After rotating the clock in earlier question, its

minute hand will point towards South at 8:45
\ Their father’s birthday is on 20th March. p.m.
4. Present age of son is 15-3 = 12 years. Age of 7. 1982 — 2 years later — 1st child
the man is 4 times the age of son, i.e., 12 ´ 4 1984 — 4 years later — 2nd child
= 48 years Total age of children — 2 years.
Man is 3 years elder to his wife/son’s mother. 1985 — 5 years later — Total age of children :
So Age of the mother is 48 – 3 = 45 years 4 years.
 70

1986 — 6 years later — Total age of children : 19. ¬¾¾¾ d

¾®| ¬¾¾ 232 - d
¾®
6 years.
d 232 - d 3
8. Manoj reached the bus stop at 8.40 a.m. He i.e., = +
left his home at 8:40 – 10 minutes = 8:30 a.m. 48 50 4
He left 15 minutes earlier than usual, so his d 464 - 2 d + 75
=
actual time of leaving home is 8:30 am + 15 48 100
minutes = 8:45 a.m. 100 d = (539 – 2d) 48
9. Mamuni goes to the movies on Thursday, so 100 d = 25872 – 96 d
nine days ago was Thursday. 196 d = 25872
\ Two days ago was also Thursday. So, today d = 25872 ÷ 196 = 132 km.
is Saturday.
20. In 3 minutes the cistern filled by A, B and C
10. Day after the day-before-yesterday five days
ago is the 6th day which is Thursday. And so, 1 1 1 7
= + - = th.
the 3rd day will be Sunday. Three days before 10 15 20 60
the day-after-tomorrow is Yesterday which is Time taken to fill the cistern completely
the 1st day of the five days. So, two days ago 60
was Sunday. = ´ 3 = 25 5 7 minutes
7
11. First Sunday is on 1st December
21. In every hour the minute hand moves 60 minutes
First Tuesday is on 3rd December
whereas the hour hand moves 5 minutes.
3 weeks later, Fourth Tuesday will be on 3 +
22. Total length to be covered = 260 + 290 = 550
(7 × 3) = 24th December. metres.
12. 3rd day of the month is Monday Time taken to cross the platform
5th day from 21st is 26th
550 3600
26 – 3 = 23 days = ´ = 36 seconds
23 days later, 23/7 leaves 2 days. 55 1000
23. Jenny is older to Sunny by 75 ´ 7 = 525 days.
So, two days ahead of Monday will be
Jenny is older to Bunny by 525 + 562 = 1087
Wednesday.
days
13. 15 horses eat 15 bags of grain in 15 days
1087 ÷ 7 gives 2 as remainder.
15 horses eat 1 bag of grain in 1 day
So, if Jenny was born on Tuesday, then Bunny
1 horse eats 1 bag of grain in 15 days
was born 2 days later, i.e., on Thursday.
14. A leap year is divisible by 4 and a century 24. My father’s birthday is on Tuesday.
leap year is divisible by 400. 64 ÷ 7 gives 1 as remainder
15. Seventh day from 10th is 17th. So, 63rd day will be Tuesday and one day
5th day is Friday. Next Friday is on 12th ahead is the day when uncle shall visit i.e., on
17 – 12 = 5, 5 days ahead of Friday will be Wednesday.
Wednesday. So, 17th is Wednesday. 25. 5 days before Wednesday is Friday.
16. Today is Monday So, 21st November is Friday
Day-after-tomorrow is Wednesday Number of days between 21st November and
Next week ‘Holi’ is also on Wednesday 25th December = 9 + 25 = 34 days
So, Day after Holi is Thursday. 34 ÷ 7 gives 6 as remainder
17. Hours between 3:30 p.m. and 4 a.m. are — \ 28th day will be Friday and 6 days ahead
12½ hours. Number of minutes gained will be will be Thursday.
12½ ´ 2 = 25 minutes. So, 25th December will be Thursday.
18. Rajat returned on Thursday. 3 days later was 26. Relative speed of the train will be 40 – 4 = 36
the day of expected return, i.e., Sunday. Rohit km/hr or 10 m/sec as both, the train and the
returned 4 days after Sunday i.e. Thursday. man, are moving in same direction.
 71

Time taken by the train to cross the man Q – N will indicate the time as Quarter
160 ÷ 10 = 16 seconds. to twelve i.e. 11:45
28. 3rd December 1999 is Sunday. Number of
days in-between 3rd December 1999 and 3rd
January 2000 = 28 + 3 = 31 days 31 ÷ 7 gives
3 is remainder
27. So, 31st December 1999 will be Sunday and
3rd January 2000 will be 3 days ahead i.e.
Wednesday.

31. The availability of brothers in a week is :

Monday 9 a.m. - 12 noon x 10 a.m. - 2 p.m.

Tuesday x 12 noon - 4 p.m. x
Wednesday 9 a.m. - 12 noon x x
Thursday 9 a.m. - 12 noon 12 noon - 4 p.m. 10 a.m. - 2 p.m.
Friday 2 p.m. - 4 p.m. x 10 a.m. - 2 p.m.
Saturday 2 p.m. - 4 p.m. x x
Sunday 2 p.m. - 4 p.m. 12 noon - 4 p.m. 10 a.m. - 2 p.m.

34.

P 8: a.m. 7:30 a.m.

N 8:45 a.m. 8:30 a.m.
R 9:15 a.m. 9:30 a.m.
M 10 a.m. 10:30 a.m.
Q 10:35 a.m. 11:30 a.m.
S 11:20 a.m. 12:30 p.m.
O 12 noon 1:30 p.m.

35. Bus P leaves at 7:30 a.m. and completes its p.m. Bus O will complete its four hours tour
four hours sight-seeing tour at 11:30 a.m. Bus at 7 p.m.
Q begins its tour at 11:30 a.m. 37. Bus N will leave at 8:45 a.m., R at 9:30 a.m.,
36. Bus M leaves at 10:30 am. If time gap of 1 hr M at 10:15 a.m., Q at 11 a.m., S at 11:45 a.m,
is increased by 30 minutes, bus Q will leave and O at 12:30 p.m. 4 hours before 12:30 p.m.
at 12 noon; bus S at 1:30 p.m. and bus O at 3 is 8:30 a.m. No bus starts at 8:30 a.m.
 72

38.

9 am – 10 am 9 am - 9:30 am Q
10 am – 11 am 9:30 am - 10 am T or V
11 am – 12 noon 10 am - 10:30 am S
12 noon – 1 pm 10:30 am - 11 am T or V
(Lunch 1 pm – 2 pm)
2 pm – 3 pm 11 am - 11:30 am W
3 pm – 4 pm 11:30 am - 12 noon R
4 pm – 5 pm 12 noon - 12:30 pm P
5 pm – 6 pm 12:30 pm - 1 pm U

40. The new lunch timings for the doctors will be :

Lunch — 1 pm - 1:45 pm
W — 1:45 pm - 2:30 pm
R — 2:30 pm - 3:15 pm
P — 3:15 pm - 4 pm
U — 4 pm - 4:45 pm

Doctor U will attend the dispensary at 4 pm.

 73

ROWS AND RANKS

These type of problems need easy calculations to 2. If Janki is 12 ahead in rank of Pallavi who
find out the number of objects in a row, lane or queue ranks 15th from last, then how many students
or to find a person’s rank in a class of certain number are there in the class if Janki ranks 4th in
of students; or to find the total number of students. order of merit?
A. 23
SOLVED EXAMPLES B. 27
1. In a row of trees, one tree is 8th from one end C. 31
and 3rd from the other. How many trees are D. 33
there in the row? Ans. C : After calculations the answer will
A. 11 B. 9 be :
C. 10 D. 12
Ans. C : The number of trees in the row is :

The total number of students are : 4 + 12 + 15

(8 + 3) – 1 = 10 = 31

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either C. 20 D. 13
end of the row. How many trees are in the 5. In a row of boys, Rajan is tenth from the
row? right and Suraj is tenth from the left. When
A. 11 B. 8 Rajan and Suraj interchange their positions,
C. 10 D. 9 Suraj will be twenty-seventh from the left.
2. Jaya ranks 5th in a class of 53. What is her Which of the following will be Rajan’s
rank from the bottom in the class? position from the right?
A. 49th B. 48th A. Tenth B. Twenty-sixth
C. 47th D. 50th C. Twenty-ninth D. None of these
3. Mohan ranks twenty-first in a class of sixty- 6. Mahesh and Suresh are ranked 11th and 12th
five students. What will be his (Mohan’s) respectively from the top in a class of 41
rank if the lowest candidate is assigned rank students. What will be their respective ranks
1? from the bottom?
A. 44th B. 45th A. 32nd and 33rd B. 29th and 30th
C. 46th D. Data inadequate C. 30th and 31st D. 31st and 30th
4. If Rahul finds that he is 12th from the right 7. Uma ranked 8th from the top and 37th from
in a line of boys and 4th from the left, how bottom in a class. How many students are
many boys should be added to the line such there in the class?
that there are 28 boys in the line? A. 47 B. 46
A. 12 B. 14 C. 45 D. None of these
73 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–10
 74

8. In a queue, Sadiq is 14th from the front and 11. There are five different houses, A to E, in a
Joseph is 17th from the end, while Jane is in row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left
between Sadiq and Joseph. If Sadiq be ahead of C and right of A, and B is to the right of
of Joseph and there be 48 persons in the D. Which of the houses is in the middle?
queue, how many persons are there between A. B B. A
Sadiq and Jane? C. D D. E
A. 5 B. 6 12. Madhav ranks seventeenth in a class of
C. 7 D. 8 thirtyone. What is his rank from the last?
9. Rohan ranked eleventh from the top and A. 13 B. 14
twenty-seventh from the bottom among the C. 15 D. 16
students who passed the annual examination
13. Veena ranks 73rd from the top in a class of
in a class. If the number of students who
182. What is her rank from the bottom if 22
failed in the examination was 12, how many
students have failed the examination?
students appeared for the examination?
A. 88 B. 108
A. 48
C. 110 D. 90
B. 49
C. 50 14. Rakesh ranked 9th from the top and 38th
D. Cannot be determined from the bottom in a class. How many students
10. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting are there in the class?
fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh A. 47 B. 45
from the right. If there are four boys between C. 46 D. 48
P and Q, how many boys are there in the 15. John ranks 19th in class and is 36th from the
row? last. How many students are there in the class?
A. 19 B. 21 A. 53 B. 54
C. 25 D. 23 C. 51 D. 50

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A B D D D D D B C
11 12 13 14 15
B C A C B

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
Jaya’s rank from the bottom is :
(53 – 5) +1 = 49th.
1.
3.
Total number of trees in the row are :
(5 + 5) –1 =9

2. Mohan’s rank from the last or the ques-

tion asked means the same.
Mohan’s rank is (65 – 21) +1 = 45th
 75

4. 9.
The number of boys in the line are : Number of students who passed the examina-
(4 + 12) – 1 = 15 tion (11+ 27) – 1 = 37
To make a line of 28 boys, (28 –15) i.e. 13 Those who failed = 12
more boys are needed. Total number of students who appeared in the
examination = 37 + 12 = 49.
5.

10.

The number of boys in the row are :

(14 + 4 + 7) = 25
As the position of boys is equal from both 11. The houses in the row are :
ends, Rajan will also be 27th from the right DBAEC
after changing positions.

6. 12.

Madhav’s rank from the last is :

Mahesh’s position from bottom is : (31 – 17) + 1 = 15th
(41 – 11) + 1 = 31st
Suresh’s position from bottom is :
(41 – 12) +1 = 30th 13.

7. Number of students who failed is 22. Number

of students who passed
Total number of students in the class are :
(8 + 37) – 1 = 44 = 182–22 = 160. So Veena’s rank from the bot-
tom will be : (160 – 73) + 1 = 88th
8.
14.
17th
Sadiq’s position from last is : Number of students in the class is :
(48 – 14) + 1 = 35th (9 + 38) – 1 = 46
Number of persons between Sadiq and Joseph
are (35 – 17) – 1 = 17th. 15.
Jane is in-between Sadiq and Joseph i.e., she’s
at 9th position from both the boys. Number of students in the class is :
\ there are 8 persons between Sadiq and Jane. (19 + 36) – 1 = 54
 76

NUMBER PROBLEMS
Number problems consists of number sequences, 547897438757487412745794
problems with algebraic expressions, mathematical 1 2 3
calculations and other compatiable problems.
2. A number is 9 times twice the other number.
The sum of two numbers is 133. The two
SOLVED EXAMPLES
numbers are :
1. How many such 7s are there in the following A. 9, 124 B. 11, 122
number sequence which are immediately C. 17, 166 D. 7, 126
followed by 4 but not immediately preceded
Ans. D : If the smaller number is x, then
by 8?
x + (2x × 9) = 133
547897438757487412745794
A. Two B. Three x + 18x = 133
C. Four D. Five 19x = 133
Ans. B : Number of 7s which are immediately x = 133 ÷ 19 = 7
followed by 4 but not immediately preceded If one number is 7, the other number is :
by 8 are : 133 – 7 = 126

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. How many 6’s are there in the following immediately preceded by an odd number, but
series of numbers which are preceded by 7 not immediately followed by an even number?
but not immediately followed by 9? 5 34 8 9 7 1 65 3 2 9 8 43 5
6795697687678694677695763 A. Nil B. 1
A. One B. Two C. 2 D. 3
C. Three D. Four 5. If all the numbers from 1 to 51 which are
2. In a chess tournament each of six players exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in
will play every other player exactly once. descending order, which of the following
How many matches will be played during numbers will come at the seventh and tenth
the tournament? places from the top?
A. 12 B. 15 A. 33 & 27 B. 33 & 21
C. 30 D. 36 C. 21 & 30 D. 33 & 24
3. How many 4’s are there in the following 6. Nitin was counting down from 32. Shasank
series which are preceded by 7, but are not was counting upwards, the numbers starting
preceded by 8? from 1 and he was calling out only the odd
345743748543749847274136 numbers. Which common number will they
A. 1 B. 2 call out at the same time if they were calling
C. 3 D. 4 out at the same speed?
4. How many even numbers are there in the A. 21
following series of numbers, each of which is B. 22
76
 77

C. 19 13. If a number is five times as great as another

D. They will not call out the same number number which is four less than forty, then the
7. In the following list of numerals, how many number is :
3s are followed by 3, but NOT preceded by A. 220 B. 180
3? C. 144 D. 200
24633157833346233339723 14. If 2/3rd of a number is 96, what will be the
A. 1 B. 2 3/4th of that number?
C. 3 D. 4 A. 108 B. 198
8. If in a given number 5 8 9 4 3 2 7 6 1 4, we C. 128 D. 48
interchange the first and the second digits, 15. If such numbers which are divisible by 5,
the third and the fourth, the fifth and the and also those which have 5 as one of the
sixth and so on, then counting from the right digits are eliminated from the numbers 1 to
end, which digit will be sixth? 60, how many numbers would remain?
A. 3 B. 2 A. 53 B. 47
C. 4 D. 5 C. 40 D. 45
9. Aparna cuts a cake into two halves and cuts 16. How many 8’s are there in the following
one-half into smaller pieces of equal size. number series which are exactly divisible by
Each of the small pieces is twenty grams in its immediately preceding and also exactly
weight. If she has seven pieces of the cake in divisible by immediately succeeding numbers?
all with her, how heavy was the original 8 245 17 2 84 84 2 28 2 69 845 4
cake? 83 2 8 43 1 8 3
A. 140 grams B. 280 grams
A. 1 B. 2
C. 240 grams D. 120 grams
C. 3 D. 4
10. In the following number sequence how many
17. How many such 3’s are there in the following
such even numbers are there which are exactly
number sequence which are immediately
divisible by its immediate preceding number
preceded by an odd number and immediately
but not exactly divisible by its immediate
followed by an even number?
following number?
3 8 4 1 5 7 2 83 4 8 93 9 4 2 1 5 8 2 53894372381384235734236
A. Two B. Three A. One B. Two
C. Four D. More than four C. Three D. Four
11. How many 7s are there in the following series 18. Count each 7 which is not immediately
which are not immediately followed by 3 preceded by 5 but is immediately followed
but immediately preceded by 8? by either 2 or 3. How many such 7’s are there?
8 987 62 2 63 26 9 73 2 87 277 8 57265738373257273482678
7 3 7 7 9 4 A. 2 B. 3
A. Nil B. One C. 4 D. 5
C. Two D. Three 19. A number is four less than two times the
12. How many 9’s are there in the following other number. If their difference is 21, what
sequence which are neither preceded by 6 is the greater number?
nor immediately followed by 3? A. 50 B. 46
9 3 8 6 99 5 93 7 89 9 93 9 6 3 9 C. 31 D. 21
A. One B. Two 20. Of the two digits number the total of the
C. Three D. Four digits of the number is 6. If these digits are
 78

reversed there is an increasing difference of 29. The sum of odd numbers between 20 and 30
18. What is the number? is :
A. 12 B. 24 A. 105 B. 120
C. 42 D. 36 C. 125 D. 140
21. Sony and Johnny caught 60 fishes. Sony 30. If such numbers which are divisible by 7 and
caught four times as many as Johnny. How also those which have 7 as one of the digits
many fishes did Johnny catch? are eliminated from the numbers 5 to 50,
A. 12 B. 16 how many numbers would remain?
C. 34 D. 38
A. 34 B. 35
22. 10 years ago Neha’s mother was 4 times older C. 36 D. 37
than Neha. After 10 years Neha’s mother will
be twice Neha’s age. How old is Neha now? 31. My age is two years more than twice that of
A. 10 years B. 15 years Ram. If I am 34 years old, how old is Ram?
C. 17 years D. 20 years A. 20 B. 18
C. 16 D. 14
23. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 87.
Which is the larger number? Directions (Qs. 32 and 33) : Study the following
A. 42 B. 43 number sequence and answer the questions given
C. 44 D. 45 below it :
24. How many numbers from 11 to 50 are there 5147398572631
which are exactly divisible by 7 but not by 5863852243496
3? 32. How many odd numbers are there in the
A. 2 B. 4 sequence which are immediately preceded
C. 5 D. 6 and also immediately followed by an even
25. How many 3’s are there in the following number?
sequence which are neither preceded by 6 A. 1 B. 2
nor immediately followed by 9? C. 3 D. 4
9 3 6 6 39 5 93 7 89 7 63 9 6 3 9 33. How many even numbers are there in the
A. One B. Two sequence which are immediately preceded
C. Three D. Four
by an odd number but immediately followed
26. If the odd numbers between 20 to 40 are by an even number?
arranged in a row, what will be the 6th number A. 1 B. 2
from the right? C. 3 D. 4
A. 27 B. 31
C. 33 D. 29 34. How many numbers amongst the numbers 7
to 41 are there which are exactly divisible
27. How many numbers from 1 to 50 will be left
by 9 but not by 3?
out if the numbers which are exactly divisible
A. Nil B. 1
by 7 and having 7 as one of the digits are
C. 2 D. 3
removed?
A. 43 B. 30 35. In the series given below, how many even
C. 42 D. 39 numbers are immediately preceded by 6 as
28. How many numbers are there between 20 well as immediately followed by 3?
and 60 which are divisible by 3 and the total 6 656 83 9 43 67 3 64 3 28 646 8
of two digits is 9? 2 6 6 3
A. 4 B. 3 A. 1 B. 2
C. 2 D. 1 C. 3 D. 4
 79

36. The sum of odd numbers between 0 and 10 44. A number which is divided by 9 gives 15 as
is : quotient and 3 as remainder. Find that number.
A. 15 B. 20 A. 205 B. 108
C. 25 D. 30 C. 138 D. 132
37. In a certain match all the teams were to play 45. A number is four less than six times the other
with each other. If there are 10 teams, how number. If the sum of both the numbers is
many matches will have to be played? 38, what are the numbers?
A. 30 B. 45 A. 6, 32 B. 7, 31
C. 60 D. 90 C. 5, 33 D. 4, 34
38. How many repeat sequence of three consecutive 46. The sum of two numbers is 99. If the two
numbers are there in the given sequence? digits of a number are interchanged, the
6 962 42 9 62 92 6 94 9 62 692 4 difference between the two numbers is 9.
A. 3 B. 2 What is the larger number?
C. 1 D. 4 A. 54 B. 63
C. 72 D. 78
39. How many numbers are immediately preceded
and immediately followed by different numbers? 47. The average age of 5 persons is 40 years
while the average age of some other 10 persons
7 775 75 7 57 77 7 57 5 75 777 7
is 25 years. The average age of all the 15
7 5 7 5
persons is :
A. 2 B. 3
A. 27 years B. 32 years
C. 4 D. 5
C. 37 years D. 30 years
40. How many 8’s are there in the given sequence
48. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says
which are not immediately preceded by 09
to B, “If you give me three cards, you will
and not immediately followed by 90?
have as many as E has and if I give you three
9 080 90 9 89 08 9 08 0 98 909 8 cards, you will have as many as D has.” A
0 9 8 9 0 8 9 0 and B together have 10 cards more than what
A. 1 B. 2 D and E together have. If B has two cards
C. 3 D. More than 3 more than what C has and the total number
41. Which pair of numbers has least and maximum of cards be 133, how many cards does B
frequency in the given sequence? have?
87564583867235835764765 A. 35 B. 25
A. 4 and 5 C. 23 D. 22
B. 2 and 6 49. When I was born, my mother was 23 years of
C. 3 and 8 age. After 6 years, when my sister was born,
D. 2 and 5 my father was 34 years of age. What is the
42. Number of Prime numbers between 30 and difference between the ages of my parents?
50 is : A. 5 years B. 6 years
A. 4 B. 5 C. 11 years D. 17 years
C. 6 D. 7 50. A father tells his son, “I was of your present
43. Which is the middle even number between 9 age when you were born.” If the father is 36
and 23? now, how old was the boy 5 years back?
A. 14 B. 16 A. 15 years B. 13 years
C. 18 D. 20 C. 17 years D. 20 years
 80

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C B D C D D C B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C D B A C D C A B B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A D C B C D D A C B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D C A C C B A D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D B B C A A D B A B

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. 6 7 9 5 6 9 7 6 8 7 6 7 8 6 9 4 6 7 7 6 9 5 7 6 3 9. There is one bigger piece and six smaller
1 2 3 pieces. One small piece weighs 20 gm. Total
2. When all the players have to play with each weight of six smaller speices is 120 gm.
other then the method of calculating the \ Weight of the bigger piece = 120 gm
n (n - 1) \ Weight of the original cake = 240 gm
number of matches to be played is 10. 3 8 4 1 5 7 2 8 3 4 8 9 3 9 4 2 1 5 8 2
2
where ‘n’ is the number of players playing the 1 2
match. So, the number of matches played will 11. 898762263269732872778737794
be : 1 2
(6 ´ 5) ÷ 2 = 30 ÷ 2 = 15 12. 9 3 8 6 9 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 9 9 3 9 6 3 9
3. 3 4 5 7 4 3 7 4 8 5 4 3 7 4 9 8 4 7 2 7 4 1 3 6 1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 13. Number four less than forty is 40 – 4 = 36
4. 5 3 4 8 9 7 1 6 5 3 2 9 8 4 3 5 Five times the number is = 36 × 5 =180
1 2 14. If the number is x, then
5. The numbers divisible by 3 in descending
order are : 2
x = 96
51, 48, 45, 42, 39, 36, 33, 30, 27, 24, 21, 3
7th 10th 96 ´ 3
x= = 144
18, 15, 12, 9, 6, 3. 2
6. When Nitin is on count 22, Shasank is on 21 3 3
and when Nitin is on count 21, Shasank is on th of the number is 144 ´ = 108
4 4
23.
15. The eliminated twenty numbers are : 5, 10, 15,
7. 2 4 6 3 3 1 5 7 8 3 3 3 4 6 2 3 3 3 3 9 7 2 3
20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45 and 50 to 60. The
1 2 3
remaining numbers are 60 – 20 = 40.
8. The new number after interchanging the digits
is : 16. 8 2 4 5 1 7 2 8 4 8 4 2 2 8 2 6 9 8 4 5 4 8
8549236741 1 2 3
­ 32843183
6th 4
 81 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–11

17. 5 3 8 9 4 3 7 2 3 8 1 3 8 4 2 3 5 7 3 4 2 3 6 25. 9 3 6 6 3 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 7 6 3 9 6 3 9
1 2 3 1 2
18. 5 7 2 6 5 7 3 8 3 7 3 2 5 7 2 7 3 4 8 2 6 7 8 27. The eleven numbers removed are—7, 14, 17,
1 2 21, 27, 28, 35, 37, 42, 47, 49. The remaining
19. If smaller number is x, then numbers are 50 – 11 = 39
(2x – 4) – x = 21 28. The numbers divisible by 3 and having 9 as
2x – x = 21 + 4 the total of their digits are :
x = 25 27, 36, 45, 54
The greater number is
29. 21 + 23 + 25 +27 + 29 + = 125
(25 ´ 2) – 4 = 46
30. The eleven numbers eliminated are —
20. If the digit at the unit is x and at the tens is y,
7, 14, 17, 21, 27, 28, 35, 37, 42, 47, 49
then
(10x + y) – (10y – x) = 18 The remaining numbers are 46 – 11 = 35
9 (x – y) = 18 31. If the age of Ram is x, then
i.e. x–y = 2 2x + 2 = 34
What is given is x+y = 6 2x = 32
What is obtained is x – y = 2 x = 32/2 = 16 years.
2x = 8 32. 51473985726315863852243496
Now x = 8/2 i.e., x = 4 1 2 3 4
Then y = 6 – 4 = 2 33. 51473985726315863852243496
So, the number is 24. 1 2 3
21. Out of 5 fishes Sony caught 4 and Johnny 1. 34. Number divisible by 9 is also divisible by 3.
60 35. 6656839436736432864682663
Out of 60 Sony caught ´ 4 = 48 fishes and
5 1 2 3
60
Johnny caught ´ 1 = 12 fishes 36. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 = 25
5
22. If Neha’s age be x, ten years ago her age was x 37. The number of matches played will be —
– 10 and her mother’s age 4 (x – 10). After ten (10 ´ 9) ÷ 2 = 90 ÷ 2 = 45
years Neha’s age will be x + 10 and her 38. 6 9 6 2 4 2 9 6 2 9 2 6 9 4 9 6 2 6 9 2 4
mother’s age 4 (x – 10) + 20 or 2 (x + 10) 1 2 3
\ 4 (x – 10) +20 = 2 (x + 10) 39. 7 7 7 5 7 5 7 5 7 7 7 7 5 7 5 7 5 7 7 7 7 7 5 7 5
4x – 40 + 20 = 2x + 20 1 2 3 4 5
4x – 2x = 20 + 20 40. 90809098908908098909809890890
2x = 40 1 2
40 41. 2 appears only once and 5 appears five times
x= = 20 years
2 87 564 58 3867 23 58 357 6476 5
23. If the smaller number is x, then 1 2 1 3 4 5
x + (x + 1) = 87 42. The prime numbers are—31, 37, 41, 43, 47
2x + 1 = 87 43. The even numbers between 9 and 23 are : 10,
2x = 86 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22 and the middle even
x = 86/2 = 43 number is 16.
The larger number is x + 1 or 43 + 1 44. The method for calculating the number will
i.e., 44. be :
24. The numbers divisible by 7 but not by 3 are : (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder = Number
14, 28, 35, 49 \ (9 ´ 15) + 3 = 135 + 3 = 138
 82 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–11-II

45. If one number is x, then (6) According to (1) and (2) : B – 3 = E

x + (6x – 4) = 38 B+3=D
7x = 38 + 4 2B= D+E
\ x = 42/7 = 6 (7)According to (3) and (6) A + B
The other number is ( 6 ´ 6) – 4 = 36 – 4 = 32. = D + E + 10
46. If one number is x and the other number is y, or A + B = 2 B + 10
then i.e. A = B + 10
x + y = 99 Now, Substituting (4), (6) and (7) in (5) we get
x–y = 9 the expression :
2x = 108
(B+10) + B + (B – 2) + 2B = 133
x = 108/2 = 54
So, 5 B + 8 = 133
y = 99 – 54 = 45
5 B = 133 – 8
The two numbers are 45 and 54 of which the
B = 125/5 = 25
later is the larger number.
\ B has 25 cards
47. Total of the ages of 5 persons is
5 ´ 40 = 200 Mother’s age when I was born = 23 years
Total of the ages of 10 persons is 49. Father’s age when sister was born = 34 years
10 ´ 25 = 250 Father’s age when I was born = 34 – 6 = 28 years
Total of the ages of above 15 persons is 450 Difference between the ages of my parents
and their average age is 450/15 = 30 years = 28 – 23 = 5 years
48. As per given information : 50. If boy’s present age is ‘x’ then father’s age
(1) B – 3 = E when the boy was born is also ‘x’.
(2) B + 3 = D So, x + x = 36
(3) A + B = D + E + 10 2x = 36
(4) B + 2 = C x = 36/2 = 18
(5) Total number of cards 5 year’s back the boy was 18 – 5 = 13 years
i.e. A+B+C+D+E = 133 old.
 83

PERMUTATIONS AND
COMBINATIONS
In these type of questions the only factor essential A. MART B. TRAY
is alertness. In every question a word is given. By C. TRUE D. TRAM
using the letters of this given word the options are Ans. Option ‘c’ has the word formed also by
formed. The candidates are required to find from the using the letter ‘E’ which is not used in the
given options the word (i) which cannot be formed word MATURITY.
by using the letters of the given word or (ii) which
can be formed by using the letters of the given word. 2. Find out the one word among the options
which can be formed by using the letters of
the word REASONABLE.
SOLVED EXAMPLES
A. STONE B. LONER
1. Find out the one word among the options C. BRACE D. OPERA
which cannot be formed by using the letters Ans. Option ‘b’ alone is formed by using the
of the word given. letters in the word given. From other options
MATURITY letters ‘T’, ‘C’ and ‘P’ are new.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Directions : Find out the one word among the 6. JUDICIARY
options which cannot be formed by using the letters A. INJURY B. CADDY
of the word as given in each question. C. DICY D. ACRID
1. ROTATION 7. DOCTRINE
A. TORN B. NOTE A. CRUST B. DOCTOR
C. TART D. RAIN C. TIRED D. CREED
2. PHILOSOPHY 8. EDUCATED
A. SOIL B. SHIP A. DATE B. CUTE
C. SOLO D. SPIN C. EAST D. DUCT
3. SLAVATION 9. INSUFFICIENT
A. SNORT B. LATVIA A. ENTICE B. SCENT
C. SALIVA D. AVAIL C. SUFFICE D. THENCE
4. ACADEMY 10. DECEMBER
A. DEMY B. MACE A. REDEEM B. DECREE
C. DIRE D. MADE C. BRACED D. MEMBER
5. INCOGNITO 11. FUGITIVE
A. GOING B. INACTION A. EXIT B. FIVE
C. IGNITION D. TONGO C. GIVE D. GIFT
83
 84

12. CATASTROPHE 26. DICTATORSHIP

A. TASTE B. CHEAP A. SHORT B. CRASH
C. POUCH D. STARE C. TERSE D. PORCH
13. TORRENTIAL 27. RELUCTANT
A. TRAIL B. MENTAL A. REGLANT B. CULTURE
C. LEARN D. RETAIL C. TREAT D. CREATE
14. INFRASTRUCTURE 28. TUBERCULOSIS
A. RAPTURE B. INSECURE A. TUMBLES B. SUCROSE
C. CRAFTS D. STRUCTURE C. CLUSTER D. ORBITS
15. RECOMMEND 29. JUXTAPOSE
A. MEND B. ROME A. TAXES B. PASTE
C. CANE D. OMEN C. TEASE D. JOIST
16. MISCREANTS 30. MANIPULATION
A. SCREAM B. CRIME A. MANUAL B. NATION
C. ASCENT D. MIRAGE C. IMPLANT D. PANEL
17. CREDENTIAL 31. BILLIONAIRE
A. CREATE B. DENTAL A. BLARE B. BANGO
C. TENDRIL D. LOITER C. BORNE D. BRAIN
18. MASTERPIECE 32. TENACIOUS
A. MINCE B. TRAMP A. ENACT B. SCENT
C. PESTER D. SPRITE C. TRAIN D. COAST
19. PERFECTIONIST 33. ANTIQUATED
A. OFTEN B. CARTON A. QUIET B. ANTIQUE
C. STINT D. ENTER C. ACQUIT D. EQUATE
20. VAGABOND 34. INTERROGATE
A. BOND B. DONG A. ORANGE B. GREATER
C. VAIN D. AVON C. RINGER D. TEASING
21. SUPERANNUATE 35. HABITATION
A. NATURE B. PRANT A. HABIT B. ACTION
C. TRENDS D. SENNATE C. THAN D. BOTH
22. DIFFERENTIAL 36. AUTOMATICALLY
A. LITER B. FARCE A. CALAMITY B. LACUNA
C. DRAIN D. TIRED C. TOMATO D. MALTA
23. BENEVOLENT 37. CARPENTER
A. BELT B. OVAL A. CARPET B. PAINTER
C. EVEN D. LOBE C. REPENT D. NECTAR
24. WITHSTAND 38. MIRACULOUS
A. THIRD B. THAWS A. LOCUS B. SCAR
C. STAND D. STAIN C. SOLACE D. MOLAR
25. YEOMAN 39. PROGNOSTICATION
A. MANY B. OMEN A. RONTGEN B. SPITOON
C. NAME D. YAWN C. ROGATION D. START
 85

40. TRANSLOCATION 54. HINDERLAND

A. START B. COAL A. DANCER B. HERALD
C. TRACTOR D. TALCUM C. HINDER D. INLAND
41. DISSEMINATION 55. PENTSTEMON
A. INDIA B. NATIONS A. STONE B. TENET
C. MENTION D. ACTION C. PISTON D. MENSE
42. COMMENTATOR 56. BOISTEROUS
A. COMMON B. MOMENT A. STEREO B. SHOUT
C. COSMOS D. TART C. BOOSTER D. TRESS
43. PHARMACEUTICAL 57. DISSOPPOINTMENT
A. RHEUMATIC B. CRITICAL A. TENAMENT B. OPPOSE
C. PRACTICE D. METRIC C. OINTMENT D. POSITION
44. CHOREOGRAPHY 58. TABERANACLE
A. GEOGRAPHY B. GRAPH A. BRACE B. CARNIVAL
C. PHOTOGRAPHY D. OGRE C. CATER D. TRANCE
45. PARAPHERNALIA 59. KALEIDOSCOPE
A. RENAL B. PRAISE A. CLASP B. PRICK
C. PENAL D. PEAR C. SCOOP D. CLOCK
46. ADAPTABILITY 60. ELECTRIFYING
A. ABILITY B. DATA A. FRYING B. ENGINE
C. PALATE D. PITY C. ENIGMA D. RECTIFY
47. COMPETITION 61. BATHYGRAPHICAL
A. TOTEM B. POETIC A. PARAGRAPH B. PHYLLARY
C. COMPOSE D. OPINE C. TYPICAL D. THEORETICAL
48. OBSTETRICIAN 62. SUBORDINATE
A. SIREN B. RETAIN A. BOARD B. SUBMIT
C. TERMITE D. SOBER C. URBANE D. NATURE
49. DEVELOPMENT 63. GORGEOUS
A. PEDANT B. ENVELOPE A. SOUR B. ROAR
C. VOLTE D. ELOPE C. URGE D. EROS
50. CARDIOGRAM 64. ECONOMICALLY
A. AEROGRAM B. RADIO A. COMICAL B. ECONOMY
C. DIAGRAM D. CARGO C. AMORAL D. ALIMONY
51. EQUIVOCATION 65. HEMOGLOBIN
A. VOCATION B. LOCATION A. NIMBLE B. GLOBIN
C. EQUATION D. VATICAN C. BELONG D. MOVING
52. PORTFOLIO 66. DOCUMENTATION
A. FORT B. TROOP A. ACUMEN B. DONATE
C. POLIO D. FRAIL C. MENTAL D. COUNT
53. APPORTIONMENT 67. WHOLESOME
A. METEOR B. APPOINT A. SHOVE B. WHEEL
C. PROBATION D. PEPPERMINT C. LOOSE D. HOLES
 86

68. IMPORTANT 81. THERMOSTAT

A. TRUMP B. IMPART A. MOTHER B. STAMEN
C. PRINT D. TRAIN C. THRUST D. HOIST
69. YIELDING 82. LEARNED
A. GLIDE B. INLAY A. DREAM B. CLEAR
C. YELL D. DENY C. ELDER D. DRAPE
70. PROPAGATE 83. ADVENTURE
A. PRATE B. PAGER A. AWARE B. EVENT
C. GRAFT D. AGATE C. TRUCE D. DRIED
71. RATIONALLY 84. THANKSGIVING
A. LATER B. RATION A. AVENGE B. HAUNTS
C. TRAIL D. ORALLY C. GRAINS D. SAVING
72. COMPROMISING 85. NOCTURNAL
A. GRAIN B. COMING A. CRUST B. TRAIL
C. PRISM D. SPOON C. CORAL D. OCEAN
73. GRIEVANCE 86. CHARMED
A. AVENGE B. ENDURE A. HEAD B. CHUM
C. GRIEVE D. CAVERN C. DECK D. MORE
74. DEMONSTRATE 87. ULTIMATUM
A. STREAM B. MODERN A. AUTUMN B. LIMPID
C. EASTER D. RATTLE C. UTMOST D. TUMULT
75. INEXPENSIVE 88. HARBINGER
A. EXPENSE B. NEXUS A. BIRTH B. RANCH
C. PENSIVE D. VIXEN C. ABODE D. GRAIN
Directions : Find out the one word among the 89. OTHERWISE
options which can be formed by using the letters A. SHORT B. WASTE
of the word as given in each question. C. HOVER D. ITEMS
76. INVESTIGATE 90. DERELICT
A. INVERT B. GLIDE A. TRACE B. CREED
C. STING D. ACTED C. LINER D. ERODE
77. MAJORITY 91. SINISTER
A. MORE B. JURY A. TIMER B. SISTER
C. READ D. TRAY C. TEASE D. STRAIN
78. WATERMELON 92. WORKSHOP
A. MAKER B. WRITE A. SHOCK B. ROWER
C. TOWER D. NOVEL C. PORCH D. WHOOP
79. PREDICTION 93. DEVELOPING
A. DESIRE B. CREDIT A. PLAIN B. GREED
C. ACTION D. PICKED C. DEVIL D. VOICE
80. BARGAIN 94. RESIDENTIAL
A. GRAIN B. BARGE A. GRIND B. TRADE
C. ANGRY D. TRING C. LOVER D. STRAP
 87

95. BLANDISHMENT 98. UNDISCHARGED

A. BOARD B. METAL A. CHANGED B. DISARMED
C. SHAPE D. CRASH C. GROUNDED D. SHARPEN
96. PAINSTAKER 99. LEVIGATE
A. POKER B. STALK A. VEIN B. GLAD
C. TAKEN D. PRIDE C. EAST D. GIVE
97. BELLIGERENT 100. MELANCHOLY
A. GREEN B. LEGAL A. CHIME B. MELON
C. BLOAT D. INFER C. MADLY D. CRANE

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D A C B A A C D C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C B A C D D A B C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B B A D C A A D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B C C D B B B C A D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C B* C B C C C A A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B D C A C B A B B C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D B B C D C A A B C
1 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A A B D B C D C B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A C B D C A D D A B
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D C B B C A A D B
Note : *Ans 43: The word CRITICAL is ruled out on the grounds that the given word has only one I
 88

ARTIFICIAL VALUES AND

MISSING NUMBERS
Playing with numbers and mathematical skills are 16 + 17 + 13 + 22 = 68
needed to attempt these type of tests. The candidates 32 + 5 + 49 + 81 = 167, similarly
have to work out the right combination of arithmeti- 25 + 11 + 50 + 34 = 120
cal symbols to arrive at the answer options which 2. Which one number can be placed at the sign
will take the place of the interrogation sign in the of interrogation?
given questions.

SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. Select the right option which can be placed
at the sign of interrogation? A. 6 B. 8
C. 7 D. 3
Ans. A : The difference between two opposite
numbers is 4, i.e.,
23 – 19 = 4 and 16 – 12 = 4
14 – 10 = 4 and 12 – 8 = 4, similarly
9 – 5 = 4 and 6 – 2 = 4.
A. 65 B. 120
C. 116 D. 192
Ans. B : The number inside the circle is the
sum of the other four numbers, i.e.,

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Directions : In each question given below which
one number can be placed at the sign of 2.
interrogation?
1.

A. 693 B. 939 A. 68 B. 100

C. 981 D. 993 C. 72 D. 81

88
 89 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–12

A. 21 B. 25
3.
C. 50 D. 60
10. 51 (11) 61
64 (30) 32
35 (?) 43
A. 25 B. 27
C. 32 D. 37
A. 425 B. 184
C. 241 D. 210 11.

4.

A. 35 B. 37
A. 5 B. 6
C. 45 D. 48
C. 8 D. 9
5.
12.
A. 4 B. 8
C. 20 D. 14
6. 14 9 4
12 7 2 A. 8 B. 14
10 5 0 C. 10 D. 6
16 11 ?
A. 9 B. 6 13.
C. 3 D. 7
7.

A. 69 B. 49
C. 50 D. 60 A. 20 B. 25
C. 26 D. 75
8. 14. 27 22 50
13 12 26
9 2 ?
A. 12 B. 39
C. 18 D. 24
A. 31 B. 229 15.
C. 234 D. 312

9.

A. 25 B. 47
C. 37 D. 41
 90

16. 21.

A. 960 B. 628
C. 830 D. 492

22.
A. 70 B. 68
C. 56 D. 92

17.
A. 18 B. 10
C. 36 D. 24

23.

A. 41 B. 37
C. 29 D. 25

18.

A. 24 B. 10
C. 32 D. 12
24. 6 (40) 4
A. 72 B. 68 3 (12) 3
C. 82 D. 96
7 (?) 2
19. 42 (21) 22 A. 51 B. 36
78 (?) 84 C. 22 D. 4
162 (18) 99
A. 12 25.
B. 13
C. 60
D. 72

20. A. 5 B. 4
C. 2 D. 1

26.

A. 68 B. 93 A. 116 B. 93
C. 175 D. 217 C. 49 D. 23
 91

29.
27.

A. 0 B. 2 A. 3 B. 8
C. 3 D. 4 C. 10 D. 14

30.
28.

A. 1 B. 3 A. 64 B. 92
C. 9 D. 13 C. 120 D. 146

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D B B D B A C B B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C C A D A C B B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D A A B A D B C C
 92

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. The squares of two numbers on the top placed 9. Square of number at the bottom is equal to the
side by side gives the number inside the product of two numbers at the top, i.e.,
bottom triangle, i.e., 62 = 4 × 9, i.e., 36
62 and 32 = 369 122 = 9 × 16, i.e., 144, similarly
22 and 52 = 425, similarly 202 = 16 × ?, i.e., 400. The missing number is
32 and 92 = 981. 400 ÷ 16 = 25
2. Starting from number 4 the numbers are the 10. The sum of the products of the digits of
squares of numbers in natural order i.e., numbers in 1st and 3rd columns is the number
22 = 4, 32 = 9, 42 = 16 . . . . . 92 = 81 in the 2nd column, i.e.,
3. The number at the bottom is the difference of (5 × 1) + (6 × 1) = 11
the squares of two numbers at the top, i.e., (6 × 4) + (3 × 2) = 30, similarly
162 – 72 = 256 – 49 = 207 (3 × 5) + (4 × 3) = 27
122 – 82 = 144 – 64 = 80, similarly 11. The sum of numbers on right and centre sub-
252 – 212 = 625 – 441 = 184 tracted from the number on the left gives the
4. The number in the centre is the sum of the number at the bottom, i.e.,
products of diagonal numbers, i.e., 93 – (27 + 63) = 3
(3 × 3) + (5 × 6) = 39 79 – (38 + 37) = 4, similarly
(4 × 4) + (7 × 5) = 51, similarly 67 – (16 + 42) = 9
(3 × 4) + (5 × 5) = 37 12. The number inside each triangle is the differ-
5. Sum of two numbers on the top divided by 2 ence of the numbers at its base i.e.
gives the third number, i.e., 10 – 4 = 6, 18 – 4 = 14 and 18 – 10 = 8
(7 + 5) ÷ 2 = 6 14 – 8 = 6, 22 – 8 = 14 and 22 – 14 = 8,
(5 + 21) ÷ 2 = 13, similarly similarly
(24 + 4) ÷ 2 = 14 11 – 5 = 6, 15 – 5 = 10 and 15 – 11 = 4.
6. The numbers in 2nd and 3rd columns are 5 13. The sum of squares of two numbers at the top
less than the nunbers in 1st and 2nd columns
gives the third number below, i.e.,
respectively, i.e., 22 + 42 = 20
14 – 5 = 9 and 9 – 5 = 4
32 + 92 = 90, similarly
12 – 5 = 7 and 7 – 5 = 2, . . . similarly
12 + 52 = 26
16 – 5 = 11 and 11 – 5 = 6.
14. The sum of numbers in 1st and 2nd column
7. The sum of 3 numbers in each line in one fig-
plus 1 is the number in the 3rd column, i.e.,
ure is same, i.e.,
27 + 22 + 1 = 50
29 + 80 + 43 or 39 + 80 + 33
13 + 12 + 1 = 26, similarly
or 45 + 80 + 27 = 152
29 + 70 + 44 or 42 + 70 + 31 9 + 2 + 1 = 12
or 43 + 70 + 30 = 143, similarly 15. The product of numbers on either side of the
59 + 80 + 20 or 39 + 80 + 40 = 159. triangle plus the number at the base is the
The missing number is : number inside the triangle, i.e.,
159 – (80 + 10) = 69 (5 × 3) + 4 = 19
8. The number at the bottom is the product of (6 × 4) + 5 = 29, similarly
two numbers at the top, i.e., (7 × 5) + 6 = 41
13 × 17 = 221 16. Clockwise starting from number 7, the next
12 × 19 = 228, similarly number is obtained by doubling the number
13 × 18 = 234 and adding 2, i.e.,
 93

(7 × 2) + 2 = 16 1 × 4 = 4, 7 × 4 = 28, 2 × 4 = 8, similarly 6 × 4
(16 × 2) + 2 = 34 . . . , similarly = 24
(34 × 2) + 2 = 70 24. Square of the number on the left plus the
(70 × 2) + 2 = 142 number on the right is the number within
(142 × 2) + 2 = 286 brackets, i.e.,
17. The difference between the numbers in oppo- 62 + 4 = 40
site sectors is 13, i.e., 32 + 3 = 12, similarly
26 – 13 = 13 72 + 2 = 51
68 – 55 = 13, similarly 25. Letter H is 8th in order of alphabetical series.
The missing number is 42 – 13 = 29 Taking the sum of numbers placed vertically
(42 + 13 = 55 is not given as option) outside the circle + 8; multiplying it by the
18. The number at the bottom is obtained by sub- number on the right; then subtracting from the
tracting the sum of two numbers in the centre product the number on the left, gives the
grid line from the square of the number at the number inside the circle, i.e.,
top, i.e., Step I ® 4 + 8 + 4 = 16
72 – (2 + 7) = 40 Step II ® 16 × 5 = 80
52 – (8 + 3) = 14, similarly Step III ® 80 – 10 = 70
92 – (7 + 6) = 68 Letter C is 3rd in order, so
19. The number inside the brackets is obtained by Step I ® 2 + 3 + 5 = 10
multiplying the number on the left by 2 and Step II ® 10 × 3 = 30
then dividing the product by the sum of digits Step III ® 30 – 4 = 26
of number on the right, i.e., Similarly, J is 10th in order, so
(42 × 2) ÷ (2 + 2) = 21 Step I ® 8 + 10 + 6 = 24
(162 × 2) ÷ (9 + 9) = 18, similarly Step II ® 24 × ?
(78 × 2) ÷ (8 + 4) = 13 Step III ® (24 × ?) – 6 = 90
20. Subtracting the sum of squares of two num- Simplifying the above equation :
bers at the base from the square of number at 24 × ? = 90 + 6, i.e., 96
the apex gives the number inside the triangle, ? = 96 ÷ 24 = 4
i.e., 26. The digits in the centre are obtained from the
162 – (72 + 102) = 107 root of numbers on both sides i.e.
252 – (202 + 42) = 209, similarly
25 = 5 and 49 = 7
192 – (22 + 172) = 68
gives 57
21. The number in the centre is the product of all
the 4 numbers minus 10, i.e., 81 = 9 and 4 = 2 gives 92
(3 × 5 × 2 × 6) – 10 = 170 Similarly
(8 × 1 × 4 × 9) – 10 = 278, similarly
121 = 11 and 36 = 6 gives 116
(10 × 6 × 7 × 2) – 10 = 830
27. The number in the centre divided by the number
22. The number inside the circle is the product of
on the top gives the quotient in the lower left
difference of two numbers above and differ-
circle and remainder on the lower right, i.e.,
ence of two numbers below, i.e.,
(5 – 3) (12 – 9) = 6 6 ) 49 ( 8 Quotient
(8 – 4) (2 – 1) = 4, similarly 48
(18 – 10) (17 – 14) = 24 1 Remainder
23. Starting from number 1 anticlockwise the 17 ) 108 ( 6 Quotient
number in the diagonally opposite section is 102
its multiplication by 4, i.e., 6 Remainder
 94

Similarly, 644 + 18 = 662

19 ) 422 ( 22 Quotient 662 = 662
38 Letter C is 3rd in order, so
42 (54 × 15) + 3 = 342 + 471
38 810 + 3 = 813
4 Remainder 813 = 813
28. Letter M is 13th in order of aphabetical series. Similarly, letter D is 4th in order
So 13 (= M) × 2 (number on the opposite side) (1 × 11) + 4 = 5 + ?
= 9 × 5 (product of numbers above and below 11 + 4 = 5 + ?
the square) – 19 (number inside the square) i.e. 15 = 5 + ? or 5 + ? = 15
13 × 2 = (9 × 5) – 19 So, ? = 15 – 5 = 10
26 = (45 – 19) 30. Letter G is 7th in order of alphabetical series.
26 = 26 Starting from left section of the big triangle
Letter B is 2nd in order, so the order is G – 3, i.e., 7 – 3 = 4; G + 3,
2 × 9 = (11 × 2) – 4 i.e., 7 + 3 = 10 and G × 3, i.e., 7 × 3 = 21. The
18 = 22 – 4 number in the right section of inner triangle
18 = 18 is the sum of outer numbers minus G,
Similarly, letter E is 5th in order i.e., (4 + 10 + 21) – 7 = 35 – 7 = 28
5 × ? = (3 × 7) – 6 Letter P is 16th in order so
5 × ? = 21 – 6 16 – 4 = 12; 16 + 4 = 20; 16 × 4 = 64;
5 × ? = 15 further
? = 15 ÷ 5 = 3 (12 + 20 + 64) – 16 = 96 – 16 = 80;
29. Letter R is 18th in order of aphabetical series. Similarly,
So the product of vertically opposite numbers letter T is 20th in order so
+ 18 (= R) = the sum of two horizontally 20 – 5 = 15; 20 + 5 = 25; 20 × 5 = 100
opposite numbers, i.e., further
(28 × 23) + 18 = 173 + 489 (15 + 25 + 100) – 20 = 140 – 20 = 120
 95

LOGICAL DIAGRAMS
In these type of questions, a set of five different figures is given as options. Each figure represents a logical
pattern of certain groups of related words wherein each word represents a class. One has to identify the
most appropriate logical figure for the set of words given. Some of the relationships represented by these
diagrams are given below. Understand the relationship patterns and then attempt the exercise following
the explanation.

SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. The given classes have nothing in common.
Example : Milk, Eggs. Milk Eggs
2. The given classes have something in common, but neither of them is completely
contained in the other.
Colour Red
Example : Colour, Red
3. Of the two given classes, one is wholly contained in the other, but not vice–versa.
Fruits
Example : Fruits, Apples Apples

4. Same logic as figure 2.

Example : Tall, Men, Educated

5. Of the three given classes, one is completely contained in the other and not vice–
versa while the third class has nothing in common with either of the two classes.

Example : Water, Solids, Liquids

6. Two classes are wholly contained in the third class, but not vice–versa, also the
two contained classes have nothing in common.

Example : Punjab, Agra, India

95
 96

7. Two classes are wholly contained in the third class, but not vice–versa, and the two
contained classes also have something in common though neither class is wholly
contained in the other.

Example : Mothers, Sisters, Females

8. The first class is contained wholly in the other two classes, but not vice–versa. The
second is wholly contained in the third and partially in the first. A part of third
class is contained in the second of which some is contained in the first.

Example : Preposition, From, Grammer.

9. First class is wholly contained in the second and not vice–versa. The third class is
partially contained in the other two classes.

Example : Sugar, Sweet, Tea

Note : Some people drink tea without Sugar.

10. The first and second class have some part in common, and so have the second and
third class, but the first and the third class have nothing in common.

Example : Rich, Men, Famous.

 97 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–13

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Directions : From the five logical Diagrams, select
one which best illustrates the relationship among E.
three given classes in the questions 1 to 10.
A. B. 11. Ink, crayons, red
12. Canines, dogs, pups
13. Table, chair, stool
14. Ripe, mangoes, basket
15. Scholars, studious, illiterates
C. D. 16. Cars, ships, means of conveyance
17. Age, number, thirteen
18. Country, state, continent
19. Father, parent, mother
20. Iron, metal, mercury
E. Directions : From the five logical diagrams select
one which best illustrates the relationship among
three given classes in the questions 21 to 30.
A. B.

1. Birds, fruits, mangoes

2. Criminals, lawyers, bandits
3. Swimmers, bachelors, men
4. Smart, engineers, women
5. Vegetables, potatoes, brinjals C. D.
6. Grapes, sweet, fruit
7. Doctors, architects, humans
8. Scholars, people, Indians
9. Children, naughty, studious
10. Pens, pencils, stationery
Directions : From the five logical diagrams select
one which best illustrates the relationship among
three given classes in questions 11 to 20.
A. B.

E.

21. Lizards, Reptiles, Crocodiles

C. D. 22. Whales, Tortoise, Fishes
23. Birds, Crows, Parrots
24. Sisters, Women, Mothers
25. Plants, Scientists, Men
26. Novels, Album, English
27. Sentences, Words, Paragraph
 98 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–13-II

28. Beef, Mutton, Flesh 40. Police, Criminal, Thief

29. Principal, Student, Parent
Directions : From the five logical diagrams select
30. Lily, Rose, Flower.
one which best illustrates the relationship among
Directions : From the five logical diagrams select
three given classes in the questions 41 to 50.
one which best illustrates the relationship among
A. B.
three given classes in the questions 31 to 40.
A. B.

C. D.
C. D.

E.
E.
41. Country, Nepal, India
31. Sisters, Cousins, Females 42. Body, Blood, Veins
32. Star, Planet, Saturn 43. Chess, Games, Hockey
33. People, Intelligent, Rich 44. Tractor, Aircraft, Cart
34. Pets, Cats, Dogs 45. Oriental, Continental, Mughlai
35. Actors, Stage, Films 46. Delhi, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
36. Cloth, Hair, Black 47. Russian, People, German
37. Garment, Flowers, Coats 48. Days, Months, Years
38. Wood, Shoes, Chair 49. Stamp, Pen, Chalk
39. Physics, Biology, Zoology 50. Marble, Animal, Goat

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A B C D B D E C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C A E E D B C D D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C D A B B E D B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D B C B C E D E E
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D A B B C E D B C
 99

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. Potatoes and brinjals are vegetables but they

have nothing in common. Some vegetables are
potatoes and some are brinjals.

6.

All mangoes are fruits, but neither fruits, nor

mangoes can be birds.
2. Some grapes are sweet and all grapes are fruit.
But not all that is sweet is fruit.

7.

All bandits are criminal, but neither criminals

nor bandits can be lawyers.

3.

Doctors and architects are two separate classes,

but all doctors and architects are humans and
All bachelors are men and some men and some humans are either doctors or architects.
bachelors can be swimmers.
8.
4.

Some women can be smart and some women

can be engineers and vice–versa. Some engi-
Some Indians can be scholars and some schol-
neers can be women and some engineers can
ars can be Indians. All scholars and Indians are
be smart and vice–versa.
people.
5. 9.
 100

Some children can be naughty and some can

14.
be studious, some studious can be children and
some naughty. Some naughty can be studious
and some children.
Some mangoes are ripe and some ripe units are
10.
mangoes, but neither ripe units nor mangoes
can be baskets.
15.

Some studious can be scholars and some

Pens and pencils both are items of stationery scholars can be studious, but neither studious
and some stationery is pens and pencils, but nor scholars can be illiterates.
pens and pencils are two separate classes.
16.
11.

Some ink and some crayons can be red and some

red units can be inks and crayons, but ink and
crayon have nothing in common. All cars and all ships are means of conveyance,
but neither is contained in the other. Some
12.
means of conveyance are cars and some ships.

17.

Some are aged thirteen and some numbers are

thirteen. Some thirteen units are numbers and
some ages. Age and number have nothing in
All pups are dogs and all dogs are canines. common.
Some canines are dogs, of which some are pups.
18.
13.

All continents contain countries within it and

All three are different classes. each country contains states within it.
 101

All three are different classes.

19.

23.

All fathers and mothers are parents, but they

are two separate classes. Some of the parents
are fathers and some are mothers.
20. All crows and parrots are birds but neither is
contained in the other. Some birds are crows
and some parrots.

24.

Iron and mercury are metals, but they have

nothing in common. Some metals are iron and
some mercury.

21.
Some sisters can be mothers and some mothers
can be sisters. All sisters and mothers are
women.

25.

All lizards and crocodiles are reptiles, but

neither is contained in the other. Some reptiles Some scientists can be men and some men can
are lizards and some crocodiles. be scientists, but neither scientists nor men can
be plants.
22.
26.

Some novels can be in English and some

written material in English can be novels, but
neither novels nor English can be album.
 102

All sisters are females. Some females who are

sisters can be cousins or vice–versa.
27.
32.

Saturn is a planet. One of the planets is Saturn.

Star is a different class.
All paragraphs contain sentences within it and
all sentences contain words within it.
33.
28.

Some people can be intelligent and some can

All beef and mutton is flesh of some animals. be rich and vice–versa. Some intelligent can
Some flesh is beef and some mutton. be rich and some intelligent beings can be
people and vice versa.
29.
34.

A Principal can be a parent and parent can be

a principal. A student is a different class. Some pets can be dogs and some cats. Some
dogs and cats can be pets. Dogs and cats are
30. different classes.

35.

Both lily and rose are flowers. But neither is

contained in the other.
31.

Some actors can be stage actors and some film

actors and vice versa. Some people working
in films can be actors and some can also be
stage actors and vice versa.
 103

36. 41.

Some cloth and some hair can be black. (all

clothes and all hair are not black). Some black
colour is used in clothes and some is the
colour of hair. Cloth and hair are different
classes. Nepal and India are countries but neither is
contained in the other.
37.
42.

All coats are garments. Some garments are

coat. Flowers are a different class.

38.

Body contains veins within it and all veins

contain blood within it.
Some wood is used for making chair. Some 43.
chairs are made of wood. Shoes are different
class.
39.

Both chess and hockey are games but neither

is contained in the other.
Zoology is a part of Biology. Biology contains
the study Zoology. Physics is a different field
of sciences. 44.

40.

Thief is a criminal. Some criminals can be

thieves. Police is a different class. All three are different classes.
 104

48.

45.

All three are different classes.

Years have months contained within it and
months have days contained within it.

49.
46.

Lucknow is in Uttar Pradesh. One of the part

of Uttar Pradesh is Lucknow. Delhi is a differ- All three are different classes.
ent /separate place.
50.
47.

Some Russian and some German can be

people. Some people can be Russian and some
German. Russian and German are separate Goat is an animal. Some animals are goats.
classes. Marble is a different class.
 105

SYLLOGISM
In this reasoning pattern the two premises are
followed by two conclusions drawn from them. Four
options A, B, C and D are given as answers. Based
on the two statements the candidate has to select the
right option as answer.

SOLVED EXAMPLES
In the questions below the answer is given as : 2. Statements I: Some tents are flowers.
A. if only conclusion I follows. II : Some toys are tents.
B. if only conclusion II follows. Conclusions I : All tents are toys.
C. if either I or II follows, and II : All flowers are tents.
D. if neither I nor II follows. Ans. D : Some tents are flowers so some
1. Statements I : All officers are lazy. flowers can be tents. Some toys are tents so
II : Some men are officers. some tents can be toys. All tents and all flowers
cannot be toys and tents respectively. There-
Conclusions I : All lazy are men. fore, neither of the conclusion is correct.
II : Some men are lazy.
Ans. B : When all officers are lazy and some
men are officers then some men must be lazy.
Therefore, conclusion II is correct.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Directions : In each question below are given two Conclusions I : All smiling authors are
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I painters.
and II. You have to take the two given statements to II : Some authors are smiling.
be true even if they seem to be at variance from 2. Statements I : All peons in this office are
commonly known facts and then decide which of the efficient.
given conclusions logically follows from the two II : Ramu is not efficient.
given statements, disregarding commonly known Conclusions I : Ramu is not peon in this
facts. Read both the statements and— office.
II : Ramu should be more
Give answer A if only conclusion I follows; give
efficient.
answer B if only conclusion II follows; give answer
3. Statements I : All weavers are hard working.
C if either I or II follows and give answer D if
II : No hard working men are
neither I nor II follows. foolish.
1. Statements I : All painters are smilling. Conclusions I : No weavers are foolish.
II : Some authors are painters. II : Some foolish are weavers.

105 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–14

 106

4. Statements I: Some dogs are pups. 12. Statements I: All hair are black.
II : All horses are pups. II : Some black are long.
Conclusions I : Some dogs are horses. Conclusions I: Some hair are long.
II : Some horses are dogs. II : No hair is long.
5. Statements I : All beautiful women are 13. Statements I: Some phones are watches.
mothers. II : All watches are guns.
II : All mothers are under- Conclusions I: All guns are watches.
standing. II : Some guns are phones.
Conclusions I : All beautiful women are 14. Statements I: All umbrellas are aeroplanes.
understanding. II : Some aeroplanes are birds.
II : All mothers are beautiful Conclusions I: Some umbrellas are birds.
women. II : Some birds are umbrellas.
6. Statements I: Some toys are tables. 15. Statements I: All puppets are dolls.
II : No table is black. II : All dolls are toys.
Conclusions I : Some toys are black. Conclusions I: Some toys are puppets.
II : Some toys are not black. II : All toys are puppets.
7. Statements I : All men are horses. 16. Statements I: Some fat are thin.
II : All horses are elephants. II : No thin is tall.
Conclusions I : All men are elephants. Conclusions I: Some fat are tall.
II : All elephants are men. II : Some fat are not tall.
8. Statements I : All talented persons are 17. Statements I: Some doors are windows.
trustworthy. II : Some windows are pencils.
II : Some trustworthy are Conclusions I: All doors are pencils.
musicians. II : Some pencils are doors.
Conclusions I : All talented persons are
18. Statements I: Some boys are tables.
musicians.
II : Some tables are chairs.
II : Some musicians are not
Conclusions I: Some boys are chairs.
talented person.
II : Some chairs are boys.
9. Statements I: Alcoholic drinks are
19. Statements I: All dogs are jackals.
injurious to health.
II : Some jackals are crows.
II : All old women drink whisky.
Conclusions I: Some dogs are crows.
Conclusions I : All old women have poor
II : All dogs are crows.
health.
II : All young women are in 20. Statements I: All trees are parrots.
good health. II : No parrots is cat.
Conclusions I: No tree is cat.
10. Statements I: Some engineers are teachers.
II : Some cats are trees.
II : Some engineers are efficient.
Conclusions I : Some teachers are efficient. 21. Statements I: All cars are cats.
II : All efficient are engineers. II : All fans are cats.
Conclusions I: All cars are fans.
11. Statements I : Some foods are sweet.
II : Some fans are cars.
II : Some foods are sour.
Conclusions I : All foods are either sweet or 22. Statements I: Many scooters are trucks.
sour. II : All trucks are trains.
II : Some sweet are sour. Conclusions I: Some scooters are trains..
II : No truck is a scooter.
 107

23. Statements I: All sharks are ferocious. Conclusions I : All institutes are doctors.
II : No ferocious is harmful. II : Some institutes are crooks.
Conclusions I : Some sharks are harmful. 25. Statements I : All pilots are experts.
II : Some ferocious are not sharks. II : All authors are pilots.
24. Statements I : Some doctors are institutes. Conclusions I : All authors are experts.
II : Some croocks are institutes. II : No expert is a author.

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A A D A C A B D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D D B D A B D D D A
21 22 23 24 25
D A B B A

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. When all painters are smiling and some
authors are painters, then some authors are
smiling. Therefore, only conclusion II is correct.

4. No relationship can be established between

the two statements. Therefore, neither
2. When all the peons of the office are efficient, conclusion I nor conclusion II is correct.
then Ramu cannot be a peon in this office.
Therefore, only conclusion I is correct.

5. When all beautiful women are mothers and

3. When all weavers are hardworking and no all mothers are understanding, then naturally
hardworking men are foolish, then no weavers all beautiful women are understanding. All
are foolish. Therefore, only conclusion I is mothers need not be beautiful women.
correct. Therefore, only conclusion I is correct.
 108

In the same logical way, when some trust-

worthy are musicians, then some musicians
are not talented. Therefore, only conclusin II
is correct.

6. When some toys are tables and no table is

black, then it is indicated that some toys can 9. Even though alcoholic drinks are injurious
be black, as all toys are not tables. On the to health and all old women drink whisky,
other hand, some toys may not be black. which is an alcoholic drink, it does not
Therefore, there is a possibility that some necessarily mean that all old women must
toys may or may not be black. As such, either have poor health and that all young women
conclusion I or conclusion II can be correct. are in good health, because they do not take
alcoholic drinks. Therefore, neither conclusion
I nor conclusion II is correct.
10. When some engineers are teachers, then some
teachers are engineers. Also, when some
engineers are efficient, only some efficient
are engineers. Thererfore, both the conclusions
are incorrect.
7. When all men are horses and all horses are
elephants then, naturally all men are elephants,
but all elephants need not be men. Therefore,
only conclusion I is correct.

11. When some foods are sweet and some foods

are sour, then all foods are not necessarily
sweet or sour and what is sweet need not be
sour. Therefore, neither of the conclusions is
correct.

12. When all hair are black and some black are
long, then it is not for certain that some hair
are long or no hair is long. Some hair that are
8. When only some trustworthy are musicians, black may or may not be long. Therefore,
then all talented persons cannot be musicians. neither of the conclusions is correct.
 109

16. No relationship can be established between

the two statements. Therefore, only conclusion
II is correct.

13. When some phones are watches which are all 17. When some doors are windows and some
guns, then some guns are phones and some windows are pencils then all doors cannot be
watches. Therefore, only conclusion II is correct. pencils and some pencils need not be doors.
Therefore, neither conclusion I nor conclusion
II is correct.

14. All umbrellas are aeroplanes and some

18. When some boys are tables and some tables
aeroplanes are birds, then the umbrellas are
are chairs then some boys need not be chairs
not necessarily birds or vice versa. Therefore,
or vice versa. Therefore, neither of the
neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is correct.
conclusions is correct.

19. When all dogs are jackals and some jackals

are crows then some dogs need not be crows
15. When all puppets are dolls which are all toys, and all dogs cannot be crows. Therefore, neither
then only some (not all) toys are necessarily of the conclusions is correct.
puppets. Therefore, only conclusion I is correct.
 110

NON-VERBAL ANALOGY
Directions : The second figure in the first unit of the Answer Figures
Problem Figures bears a certain relationship to the
first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in the Answer
Figures bears the same relationship to the first figure
in the second unit of the Problem Figures. Locate the A B C D
figure which would fit the question mark.
5. Problem Figures
1. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answers Figures

A B C D
A B C D 6. Problem Figures
2. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D
7. Problem Figures
A B C D
3. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D 8. Problem Figures
4. Problem Figures

110
 111

Answer Figures 13. Problem Figures

A B C D
9. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D
14. Problem Figures

A B C D
10. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D
15. Problem Figures

A B C D
11. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D 16. Problem Figures
12. Problem Figures

Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D A B C D
 112

17. Problem Figures 22. Problem Figures

Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D A B C D
18. Problem Figures 23. Problem Figures

Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D
19. Problem Figures
24. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D
20. Problem Figures
25. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D
21. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures 26. Problem Figures

.. .... .. ?
A B C D
 113 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–15

Answer Figures 31. Problem Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D
27. Problem Figures

A B C D
32. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

Answer Figures

A B C D
28. Problem Figures
A B C D
33. Problem Figures
Answer Figures

Answer Figures
A B C D
29. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures 34. Problem Figures

A B C D
30. Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer Figures A B C D
35. Problem Figures
.... .....
A B C D
 114 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–15-II

Answer Figures 40. Problem Figures

A B C D Answer Figures
36. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures 41. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures
37. Problem Figures

.. .... ..
?
Answer Figures A B C D
42. Problem Figures

A B C D
38. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

Answer Figures

A B C D
A B C D
43. Problem Figures
39. Problem Figures

.. .... .. ? .. .... .. ?
Answer Figures Answer Figures

A B C D A B C D
 115

44. Problem Figures Answer Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures 49. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures 50. Problem Figures

A B C D
Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures

.. .... ..
? A B C D

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D A C D B B A A A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A B D C D C B A A
 116

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C B D D A D A C C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D B B A A D C D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C C C D B B D B C C

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
1. The triangle in the first figure is moved to the 10. The number of lines making the second figure
centre of the second figure. Similarly, the two is one more than the number of lines making
triangles joined at the apex are moved to the the first figure.
centre in answer figure. 11. The diagonal line is turned by 90° and the line
2. The first figure is turned by 90° one of the segments are moved to the horizontally
bars is removed and opposite sides of the ele- opposite section.
ment attached to the bar are shaded to get the 12. The design in first figure is doubled to get the
second figure. second figure.
3. The element at the bottom is moved to the 13. The first figure is turned upside down to get
diagonal corner, the element in the top is
the second figure.
enlarged and moved to the centre and element
in the middle is reduced and moved to the 14. The middle and the inner most shapes are
bottom right corner. enlarged and the outermost shape is reduced
and placed in the middle of the two enlarged
4. The view of the cube is changed from top to
shapes.
bottom. The design on the right side remains
unchanged while the design on the left side 15. The shape on the top left side is turned by 90°
is changed. and the shape on the top right is turned upside
5. The inner shape in the first figure is removed down. The top part of the vertical design is
to get the second figure. turned upside down and separated, the middle
part is reduced/enlarged and turned by 90° and
6. The two half shapes placed vertically are
the bottom part is turned upside down. In all
turned upside down and joined, and this new
these changes mentioned above from first
shape is moved to the top. The two curved
figure to the second, the black areas are made
shapes placed horizontally are joined and this
new shape is moved to the centre. One of the white and vice versa.
two remaining corner shapes is moved to the 16. The element overlapping to the main design
bottom. in first figure is moved one step anticlockwise
7. The places of elements on the top are to get the second figure.
interchanged and the shade inside the circle 17. The first figure is rotated 45° clockwise to get
is removed. the second figure.
8. One of the vertical lines is removed and the 18. The incomplete element in first figure is
number of lines making the second figure is moved two steps anti clockwise and turned
increased by one. 135° anti-clockwise to get the second figure.
9. First figure is rotated 90° anticlockwise to get 19. The top half of the design in first figure is
the second figure. removed to get the second figure.
 117

20. The element on the left in first figure crosses 36. The circle is moved to the opposite middle
the line it is attached to so that it is divided end and the design is inverted at the line with
into two equal parts in second figure. the circle.
21. The incomplete design in first figure is 37. The design in first figure is laterally inverted
completed in the second figure. to get the second figure.
22. The design in first figure is turned by 180° to 38. The triangle with the shaded apex and the
get the second figure. protruding square moved anticlockwise one
23. The design in first figure is completed and step each.
divided into four equal parts in the second
39. The U shapped element in first figure is turned
figure.
45° clockwise and enclosed inside a triangle
24. The arc inside the circle in first figure is in second figure.
replaced by a line segment cutting the circle
in second figure. By the same logic, the arc 40. The first figure is turned by 90°, the inner
cutting the circle in first figure should be shape is laterally inverted and the two halves
replaced by a line segment inside the circle of the outer shape are turned away from each
in the answer figure. other to get the second figure.
25. The outer design is reduced and enclosed 41. The places of elements are interchanged
within the inner design which is enlarged to vertically.
get the second figure. 42. The size and place of both the designs in the
26. The square is replaced by circle, circle by first figure are swapped and the inner design
triangle and triangle by square, without is shaded. Note, that the triangle will not
changing the positions in a dark circle. change its position.
27. The shaded positions are made blank and vice 43. The shape in first figure is laterally inverted
versa to get the second fgure. to get the second figure.
28. The figure is rotated 90° anticlockwise and 44. The size and place of the inner most and
the circles are reversed at other end of lines. middle designs in the first figure are swapped
29. The number of lines making the inner design to get the second figure.
in first figure is increased by one and this new 45. The two pieces in first figure are joined
design is shaded by slant lines in the second
together to get the second figure as a whole.
figure.
46. The second figure contains only the shaded
30. The size and place of both the designs in first
figure are swapped and the inner design is portion of the first figure turned 90° clockwise.
shaded in second figure. 47. The shapes of both elements in the figure are
31. Each triangle in first figure is replaced by a interchanged while one of the two identical
parallelogram in second figure. elements in the innermost part is moved to the
32. Second figure contains all the diagonal lines top and all three innermost elements are
that can be drawn inside the first figure. arranged vertically. As circle becomes square
and vice versa, so does triangle becomes a
33. The design is turned by 90°, the two half parts
are turned against each other and joined by a quadrant and vice versa.
dot. 48. Second figure contains only one of the three
34. The dots are moved anticlockwise. One identical forms in first figure.
section each. 49. The two vertically half positions of the figure
35. Both the arrows are turned by 90° and moved are laterally inverted and joined.
one step clockwise. The arrow touching the 50. The first figure is turned by 180° and one line
side is made free and the free arrow touches segment and a circle are added in second
the side. figure.
 118

SPOT TING EMBEDDED FIGURES

Directions (Qs. 1 to 47) : In the questions given
below a figure is given. From the given alternatives
select the one in which the given figure is embedded. 5.

1.

A B C D

A B C D
6.

2.

A B C D

A B C D 7.

3.

A B C D

A B C D 8.

4.

A B C D

9.
A B C D
118
 119

A B C D A B C D

10. 15.

A B C D
A B C D

11.
16.

A B C D
A B C D

12.
17.

A B C D

13. A B C D

18.

A B C D

14.
A B C D
 120

19. 25.

A B C D A B C D

26.
20.

A B C D A B C D

27.
21.

A B C D
A B C D

22. 28.

A B C D

23.
A B C D

29.
A B C D

24.

A B C D A B C D
 121 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–16

30. 35.

A B C D A B C D

31. 36.

A B C D A B C D

32. 37.

A B C D A B C D

38.
33.

A B C D A B C D

34. 39.

A B C D A B C D
 122

40.
A B C D

45.

A B C D

41. A B C D

46.

A B C D

A B C D
42.

47.

A B C D

A B C D
43. Directions (Qs. 48 to 60) : In each question given
below find the figure form which is embedded in
the given pattern.

48.
A B C D

44.
A B C D
 123

49. 50.

A B C D A B C D

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C A D B A B C A D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B C C C D A A C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B B B C A B A A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B B D D D A C A B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A C B D C C B D B C

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. 2. 11. 12.

3. 4. 13. 14.

5. 6. 15. 16.

7. 8. 17. 18.

9. 10. 19. 20.

 124

21. 22. 37. 38.

23. 24.
39. 40.

25. 26.
41. 42.

27. 28.

43. 44.

29. 30.

45. 46.
31. 32.

47. 48.
33. 34.

49. 50.
35. 36.
 125

ROTATED BLOCKS
Directions: In each question, you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block are
five choices, each showing a different block. You are required to select the choice containing a block
that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position. In order to arrive
at the correct answer, you may have to mentally turn blocks over, turn them around, or turn them both
over and around.

1.

A B C D E

2.

A B C D E

3.

A B C D E

4.

A B C D E

5.

A B C D E

125
 126

6.

A B C D E

7.

A B C D E

8.

A B C D E

9.

A B C D E

10.

A B C D E

11.

A B C D E
 127

12.

A B C D E

13.

A B C D E

14.

A B C D E

15.

A B C D E

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D E C E B E D C A B
11 12 13 14 15
D B A C A
 128

SPATIAL APPERCEPTION TEST

Directions: In the given two pictures below, the left one shows an aerial view and other one shows a
picture of a plane from which the view might have been seen. Mind that the view is out at sea and the
horizon seems to be tilted. Also mind that the plane is banked and it is shown flying out to sea. You have
to determine the position of a plane by the view that the pilot has when he or she looks directly ahead
through the wind stield of the cockpit.

Each question in this test consists of six pictures: an aerial view at the left and five pictured choices
labeled (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Each pictured choice shows a plane in flight. The picture at the left
shows the view that the pilot would have looking straight ahead from the cockpit of one of the five
pictured planes. Determine which of the five lettered sketches most nearly represents the position or
attitude of the plane and the direction of flight from which the view would have been seen.
For Example:

A B C D E
The correct answer is (D). The plane is shown on a level flight, banking left, and flying up the
coastline.
Now answer the questions given below

1.

A B C D E

128
 129 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–17

2.

A B C D E

3.

A B C D E

4.

A B C D E

5.

A B C D E

6.

A B C D E

7.

A B C D E

8.

A B C D E
 130 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–17-II

9.

A B C D E

10.

A B C D E

11.

A B C D E

12.

A B C D E

13.

A B C D E

14.

A B C D E

15.

A B C D E
 131

16.

A B C D E

17.

A B C D E

18.

A B C D E

19.

A B C D E

20.

A B C D E

21.

A B C D E

22.

A B C D E
 132

23.

A B C D E

24.

A B C D E

25.

A B C D E

26.

A B C D E

27.

A B C D E

28.

A B C D E

29.

A B C D E
 133

30.

A B C D E

31.

A B C D E

32.

A B C D E

33.

A B C D E

34.

A B C D E

35.

A B C D E

36.

A B C D E
 134

37.

A B C D E

38.

A B C D E

39.

A B C D E

40.

A B C D E

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A E C B A C D D E E
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D C A B E E B D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A B C D C D A E B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A E D B C C D A B E
 135

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS

1. The plane is climbing; no bank. It is flying 8. The plane is diving and banking left. It is
out to sea. flying out to sea.

2. The plane climbing; no bank. It is flying 9. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is

down the coastline. heading 45° right of coastline.

10. The plane is diving and banking right. It is

3. The plane is diving; no bank. It is flying flying out to sea.
down the coastline.

11. The plane is climbing; no bank. It is flying

up the coastline.
4. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is flying
out to sea.

12. The plane is diving; no bank. It is flying out

5. Level flight of the plane right bank. It is to sea.
flying up the coastline.

6. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is 13. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is flying

up the coastline.
heading 45° left of coastline.

14. The plane is climbing and banking right. It

7. Level flight of the plane left bank. It is flying is flying out to sea.
up the coastline.
 136

15. Level flight of the plane, left bank. It is flying 23. The plane is climbing; no bank. It is flying
down the coastline. out to sea.

16. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is flying

down the coastline. 24. The plane is Climbing and banking right. It
is flying out to sea.

17. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is

heading 45° left of coastline.

18. The plane is diving; banking left. It is flying 25. Level flight of the plane; left bank. It is flying
out to sea. out to sea.

19. Level flight of the plane right bank. It is

flying out to sea. 26. The plane is climbing and banking left. It is
flying out to sea.

20. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is

heading 45° right of coastline
27. The plane is diving and banking right. It is
flying out to sea.

21. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is flying

up the coastline.

28. Level flight of the plane; right bank. It is

22. The plane is diving; no bank. It is flying out
flying up the coastline.
to sea.
 137 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–18

29. The plane is climbing and banking left. It is 35. Level flight of the plane right bank. It is
flying out to sea. flying out to sea.

30. Level flight of the plane, right bank. It is

36. Straight-and-level flight of the plane. It is
flying down the coastline.
heading out of sea.

37. The plane is climbing and banking right. It

31. Level flight of the plane, left bank. It is flying is heading out of sea.
out to sea.

38. The plane is diving and banking to the lelt.

32. Straight-and-level flight of plane. It is flying It is heading out of sea.
out to sea.

33. The plane is diving; no bank. It is flying out

to sea.
39. Straight and level flight of the plane along
the coastline.

34. Level flight of the plane left bank. It is flying 40. The plane is climbing, no bank. It is flying
up the coastline. out of sea.
 138

TEMPERAMENT TEST
Directions 1–21: In each question given below 16. Honesty is not the best policy now-a-days.
there is a statement. You have to consider the 17. Politeness is a kind of timidness.
statement and decide how much do you agree with
the statement. Give answer : 18. We should leave the seat in train, for a women
even if we are at long journey.
A. If you strongly agree with the statement.
B. If you agree with the statement. 19. Real friends are rare.
C. If you are neutral with the statement. 20. Now-a-days deep knowlegde is not necessary.
D. If you disagree with the statement. 21. Enthusiasm defeats poverty.
E. If you strongly disagree with the statement. Directions 22-92: Each question given below
1. Decision should not be affected by emotion. consists of two options and a statement. Consider
2. Since parents have given us the life therefore the statement and choose the best option.
their every decision should be obeyed. 22. At work, is it more natural for you to
3. We should give the priority to relation than A. point out mistakes
profession. B. try to please others
4. We should ignore the difficult problem if it 23. Are you more comfortable
comes. Because it obstructs our development. A. before a decision
B. after a decision
5. We should put off problems as long as we
can. 24 Are you more
A. routinized than whimsical
6. We should work in group because it becomes B. whimsical than routinized
easy if we work collectively.
25. Do you tend to notice
7. We should work alone because others can A. opportunities for change
take away the contribution. B. disorderliness
8. The stressful situations often confuse us. 26. Is it preferable mostly to
9. We know that negative thinking is not good A. make sure things are arranged
but sometimes we think negatively. B. just let things happen naturally
10. We should work different even if it is 27. Do you feel better about
improper because different things attract A. keeping your options open
people and we can easily get the popularity. B. coming to closure
11. Corruption is acceptable now. Because most 28. Would you say you are more
of the people thrive through it. A. easy going
B. serious and determined
12. Regular exercise is wastage of time.
29 Do you usually want things
13. Quick decision is not good. A. settled and decided
14. We should live in limited social circle B. just penciled in
because broad relationship is unnecessary 30. Are you inclined to be more
involvement. A. leisurely than hurried
15. Beggars should be turned out from society. B. hurried than leisurely

138
 139

31. Do you tend to choose 46. Do you value in yourself more that you are
A. rather carefully A. reasonable
B. somewhat impulsively B. devoted
32. Do you prefer to work 47. Do you think of yourself as a
A. to deadlines A. tough-minded person
B. just whenever B. tender-hearted person
33. When finishing a job, do you like to 48. In hard circumstances, are you sometimes
A. tie up all loose ends A. too sympathetic
B. move on to something else B. too unsympathetic
34. In most situations are you more 49. It is worse to be
A. spontaneous than deliberate A. hard-nosed
B. deliberate than spontaneous B. a softy
35. Are you prone to 50. Which rules you more
A. nailing things down A. your thoughts
B. exploring the possibilities B. your feelings
36. Do you more often prefer 51. Which is more of a compliment
A. final unalterable statements
A. "There's a logical person"
B. tentative preliminary statements
B. "There's a sentimental person"
37. On the job, do you want your activities
52. Are you more often
A. unscheduled
A. a warm-hearted person
B. scheduled
B. a cool-headed person
38. Are you more satisfied having
53. When in charge of others do you tend to be
A. work in progress
B. a finished product A. firm and unbending
B. forgiving and lenient
39. Do you prefer contracts to be
A. settled on a handshake 54. Is it better to be
B. signed, sealed, and delivered A. just
B. merciful
40. Is it your way to
A. pick and choose at some length 55. In a heated discussion do you
B. make up your mind quickly A. look for common ground
B. stick to your guns
41. Is clutter in the work place something you
A. take time to straighten up 56. If you must disappoint someone are you
B. tolerate pretty well usually
42. Do you see yourself as basically A. warm and considerate
A. thin-skinned B. frank and straightforward
B. thick-skinned 57. Which appeals to you more
43. Which do you wish more for yourself A. consistency of thought
A. strength of will B. harmonious relationships
B. strength of emotion 58. In sizing up others, do you tend to be
44. Are you swayed more by A. friendly and personal
A. a touching appeal B. objective and impersonal
B. convincing evidence 59. In making up your mind are you more likely
45. Which seems the greater fault to go by
A. to be too compassionate A. desires
B. to be too dispassionate B. data
 140

60. Are you more comfortable in making 74. Do you find visionaries and theorists
A. critical judgments A. somewhat annoying
B. value judgments B. rather fascinating
61. With people are you usually more 75. Facts
A. gentle than firm A. illustrate principles
B. firm than gentle B. speak for themselves
62. Is it easier for you to 76. Do you like writers who
A. identify with others A. say what they mean
B. put others to good use B. use metaphors and symbolism
63. In stories, do you prefer 77. Do you tend to be more
A. action and adventure A. factual than speculative
B. fantasy and heroism B. speculative than factual
64. Are you drawn more to 78. Are you more interested in
A. overtones A. what is possible
B. fundamentals B. what is actual
65. Do you prize in yourself 79. Are you more
A. a vivid imagination A. ideational than sensible
B. a strong hold on reality B. sensible than ideational
66. Are you more inclined to feel 80. Is it worse to
A. somewhat removed A. be in a rut
B. down to earth B. have your head in the clouds
67. Are you more likely to trust 81. Are you more
A. your conceptions A. observant than introspective
B. your experiences B. introspective than observant
68. Do you more often see 82. Are you inclined to be
A. what's right in front of you A. somewhat reserved
B. what can only be imagined B. easy to approach
69. Are you inclined to take what is said 83. Do you consider yourself
A. more figuratively A. a good conversationalist
B. more literally B. a good listener
70. Do you speak more in 84. At work do you tend to
A. particulars than generalities A. keep more to yourself
B. generalities than particulars B. be sociable with your colleagues
71. Are you more frequently 85. Are you the kind of person who
A. a fanciful sort of person A. doesn't miss much
B. a practical sort of person B. is rather talkative
72. Children often do not 86. Do you think of yourself as
A. make themselves useful enough A. a private person
B. exercise their fantasy enough B. an outgoing person
73. Common sense is 87. Do you tend to
A. frequently questionable A. say right out what's on your mind
B. usually reliable B. keep your ears open
 141

88. Does interacting with strangers 101. It's difficult to get you excited
A. tax your reserves A. YES B. NO
B. energize you 102. It is in your nature to assume responsibility
89. At a party, do you A. YES B. NO
A. interact with a few friends 103. You often think about humankind and its
B. interact with many, even strangers destiny
90. Waiting in line, do you often A. YES B. NO
A. stick to business B. chat with others 104. You believe the best decision is one that can
91. When the phone rings, do you be easily changed
A. hope someone else will answer it A. YES B. NO
B. hurry to get to it first 105. Objective criticism is always useful in any
92. Your gender is: activity
A. Female A. YES B. NO
B. Male 106. You prefer to act immediately rather than
Directions 93-164: The following questions consist speculate about various options
of a statement. You have to consider the statement A. YES B. NO
and decide whether you agree or not with the 107. You trust reason rather than feelings
statement. A. YES B. NO
93. You are almost never late for your 108. You are inclined to rely more on
appointments improvisation than on careful planning
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
94. You like to be engaged in an active and fast- 109. You spend your leisure time actively
paced job socializing with a group of people, attending
A. YES B. NO parties, shopping, etc.
95. You enjoy having a wide circle of A. YES B. NO
acquaintances 110. You usually plan your actions in advance
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
96. You feel involved when watching TV soaps 111. Your actions are frequently influenced by
A. YES B. NO emotions
97. You are usually the first to react to a sudden A. YES B. NO
event: the telephone ringing or unexpected 112. You are a person somewhat reserved and
question distant in communication
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
98. You are more interested in a general idea than 113. You know how to put every minute of your
in the details of its realization time to good purpose
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
99. You tend to be unbiased even if this might 114. You readily help people while asking
endanger your good relations with people nothing in return
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
100. Strict observance of the established rules is 115. You often contemplate about the complexity
likely to prevent a good outcome of life
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
 142

116. After prolonged socializing you feel you need 131. You are more inclined to experiment than to
to get away and be alone follow familiar approaches
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
117. You often do jobs in a hurry 132. You avoid being bound by obligations
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
118. You easily see the general principle behind 133. You are strongly touched by the stories about
specific occurrences people's troubles
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
119. You frequently and easily express your 134. Deadlines seem to you to be of relative, rather
feelings and emotions than absolute, importance
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
120. You find it difficult to speak loudly 135. You prefer to isolate yourself from outside
A. YES B. NO noises
A. YES B. NO
121. You get bored if you have to read theoretical
books 136. It's essential for you to try things with your
A. YES B. NO own hands
A. YES B. NO
122. You tend to sympathize with other people
A. YES B. NO 137. You think that almost everything can be
analyzed
123. You value justice higher than mercy A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO
138. You do your best to complete a task on time
124. You rapidly get involved in social life at a A. YES B. NO
new workplace
139. You take pleasure in putting things in order
A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO
125. The more people with whom you speak, the
140. You feel at ease in a crowd
better you feel
A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO
141. You have good control over your desires and
126. You tend to rely on your experience rather temptations
than on theoretical alternatives A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO
142. You easily understand new theoretical
127. You like to keep a check on how things are principles
progressing A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO
143. The process of searching for a solution is more
128. You easily empathize with the concerns of important to you than the solution itself
other people A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO
144. You usually place yourself nearer to the side
129. Often you prefer to read a book than go to a than in the center of the room
party A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO 145. When solving a problem you would rather
130. You enjoy being at the center of events in follow a familiar approach than seek a new
which other people are directly involved one
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
 143

146. You try to stand firmly by your principles 161. It is easy for you to communicate in social
A. YES B. NO situations
147. A thirst for adventure is close to your heart A. YES B. NO
A. YES B. NO 162. You are consistent in your habits
148. You prefer meeting in small groups to A. YES B. NO
interaction with lots of people 163. You willingly involve yourself in matters
A. YES B. NO which engage your sympathies
149. When considering a situation you pay more A. YES B. NO
attention to the current situation and less to 164. You easily perceive various ways in which
a possible sequence of events events could develop
A. YES B. NO A. YES B. NO
150. You consider the scientific approach to be Directions 165-170: Each question in this section
the best consists of a statement that may be considered to
A. YES B. NO be somewhat controversial. Select one of the
151. You find it difficult to talk about your following choices that best describes the extent to
feelings which you agree or disagree with each statement:
A. YES B. NO A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
152. You often spend time thinking of how things C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
could be improved 165. Generally speaking, people get the
A. YES B. NO recognition they deserve.
153. Your decisions are based more on the feelings A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
of a moment than on the careful planning C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
A. YES B. NO 166. There is too much power concentrated in the
154. You prefer to spend your leisure time alone hands of labour union officials.
or relaxing in a tranquil family atmosphere A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
A. YES B. NO C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
155. You feel more comfortable sticking to 167. Acid rain is one of the most serious
conventional ways environmental problems facing us today.
A. YES B. NO A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
156. You are easily affected by strong emotions C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
A. YES B. NO 168. Success at work depends on hard work; luck
157. You are always looking for opportunities has very little to do with it.
A. YES B. NO A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
158. Your desk, workbench etc. is usually neat and C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
orderly 169. Most people use politeness to cover up what
A. YES B. NO is actually ruthless competition.
159. As a rule, current preoccupations worry you A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
more than your future plans C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
A. YES B. NO 170. Breaking the law is hardly ever justified.
160. You get pleasure from solitary walks A. Strongly agree B. Tend to agree
A. YES B. NO C. Tend to disagree D. Strongly disagree
 144

PERSONALITY TEST
Directions 1-21: In each question given below there Directions 22–41: The questions in this section
is a statement. You have to consider the statement consist of sets of five descriptive words from which
and decide how much do you agree with the you are to select the choice that most accurately
statement. Give answer : describes you or the choice that least describes
you.
A. If you strongly agree with the statement.
B. If you agree with the statement. 22. Which of the following most accurately
C. If you are neutral with the statement. describes you?
D. If you disagree with the statement. A. Adventurous B. Energetic
C. Impetuous D. Impulsive
E. If you strongly disagree with the statement.
E. Restless
1. I tell a lie if it is needed.
23. Which one of the following least describes
2. I give some time to social services. you?
3. I get imotional when a beloved person goes A. Adventurous B. Energetic
away. C. Impetuous D. Impulsive
E. Restless
4. I don’t like to take someone’s obligation.
24. Which one of the following most accurately
5. I don’t loose patience during hardship.
describes you?
6. I try to solve my problems alone. A. Ambitious B. Emotional
7. I feel good if someone comes to meet me. C. Logical D. Resourceful
8. I feel awkward among strangers. E. Sentimental
25. Which one of the following least describes
9. I like solitary life.
you?
10. I get irritated if someone shows a non-sense A. Ambitious B. Emotional
behaviour. C. Logical D. Resourceful
11. I take seriously even a minor thing. E. Sentimental
12. I start my work at eleventh hour. 26. Which one of the following most accurately
describes you?
13. I want to lead my group. A. Cautious B. Deliberate
14. I remain always ready to extempore. C. Impatient D. Impulsive
15. I like to accept responsibility. E. Patient
16. I like to remain the centre of attraction in the 27. Which one of the following least describes
crowd. you?
A. Cautious B. Deliberate
17. I get perplexed if a complex situation comes. C. Impatient D. Impulsive
18. I don’t like too busy life. E. Patient
19. I am conservative. 28. Which one of the following most accurately
20. I believe in God up to superstition. describes you?
A. Competent B. Gifted
21. In my opinion humanity is more important C. Intelligent D. Quick-witted
than nationality. E. Skillful

144
 145 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–19

29. Which one of the following least describes 38. Which one of the following most accurately
you? describes you?
A. Competent B. Gifted A. Economical B. Extravagant
C. Intelligent D. Quick-witted C. Lavish D. Sensible
E. Skillful E. Thrifty
30. Which one of the following most accurately 39. Which one of the following least describes
describes you? you?
A. Compromising B. Dependable A. Economical B. Extravagant
C. Independent D. Sincere
C. Lavish D. Sensible
E. Studious
E. Thrifty
31. Which one of the following least describes
40. Which one of the following most accurately
you?
A. Compromising B. Dependable describes you?
C. Independent D. Sincere A. Generous B. Intolerant
E. Studious C. Judgmental D. Opportunistic
E. Sensitive
32. Which one of the following most accurately
describes you? 41. Which one of the following least describes
A. Condescending B. Friendly you?
C. Pleasant D. Polite A. Generous B. Intolerant
E. Reserved C. Judgmental D. Opportunistic
33. Which one of the following least describes E. Sensitive
you? Directions 42–61: The items in this section consist
A. Condescending B. Friendly of questions that are to be answered by either “Yes”
C. Pleasant D. Polite or “No.”
E. Reserved
42. Did you generally start each new school year
34. Which one of the following most accurately with a great deal of enthusiasm?
describes you? A. Yes B. No
A. Courteous B. Curious
C. Patronizing D. Studious 43. Do you readily trust people?
E. Thoughtful A. Yes B. No
35. Which one of the following least describes 44. Do you generally have a strong opinion on
you? most matters?
A. Courteous B. Curious A. Yes B. No
C. Patronizing D. Studious 45. Do you tend to speak rapidly?
E. Thoughtful A. Yes B. No
36. Which one of the following most accurately 46. Do you like sports?
describes you? A. Yes B. No
A. Discreet B. Jealous
47. Are you often in low spirits?
C. Loyal D. Open-minded
E. Suspicious A. Yes B. No
37. Which one of the following least describes 48. Do you find off-colour language offensive?
you? A. Yes B. No
A. Discreet B. Jealous 49. Do you often find yourself finishing sentences
C. Loyal D. Open-minded for other people?
E. Suspicious A. Yes B. No
 146 AFCAT (Reas. & MAT)–19-II

50. Do you like to visit museums? 65. Clothing Designer

A. Yes B. No A. Like B. Don't like
51. Are you frequently in a hurry? 66. Electrician
A. Yes B. No A. Like B. Don't like
52. Do you get much time to keep up with the 67. Explorer
things you like to do? A. Like B. Don't like
A. Yes B. No 68. Inventor
53. When under pressure, do you tend to lose A. Like B. Don't like
your temper? 69. Investigator
A. Yes B. No A. Like B. Don't like
54. Did you enjoy going to school dances? 70. Lawyer
A. Yes B. No A. Like B. Don't like
55. Do you become upset when you think 71. Musician
something is taking too long? A. Like B. Don't like
A. Yes B. No
72. Nurse
56. Do you have trouble going to sleep at night? A. Like B. Don't like
A. Yes B. No
73. Politician
57. Do you wish you could do over some of the A. Like B. Don't like
things you have done?
74. Professional Ballplayer
A. Yes B. No
A. Like B. Don't like
58. Did you ever build a model airplane?
75. Prison Warden
A. Yes B. No
A. Like B. Don't like
59. Did you ever build a model airplane that
76. Research Scientist
could fly?
A. Like B. Don't like
A. Yes B. No
77. Sales Manager
60. Did you ever fly in a helicopter?
A. Like B. Don't like
A. Yes B. No
78. School Principal
61. Did you ever fly in a glider or pilot a hang
A. Like B. Don't like
glider?
A. Yes B. No 79. Singer
A. Like B. Don't like
Directions 62-91: The items in this section consist
of a listing of many occupations. Some may appeal 80. Social Worker
to you; others may not. For each of the listed A. Like B. Don't like
occupations you would like for a life career, answer 81. Teacher
by selecting “Like.” For each of the listed A. Like B. Don't like
occupations you would not like for a life career, 82. Professor
answer by selecting “Don’t like.” A. Like B. Don't like
62. Artist 83. Farmer
A. Like B. Don’t like A. Like B. Don't like
63. Author 84. Jeweller
A. Like B. Don’t like A. Like B. Don't like
64. Bank Teller 85. Doctor
A. Like B. Don’t like A. Like B. Don't like
 147

86. Broker 100. A. I prefer having a few close friends.

A. Like B. Don't like B. I prefer having many friends.
87. Beggar Directions (Qs. 101-192) : In the questions given
A. Like B. Don't like below three/four alternatives have been given below
88. Sweeper each one of them. You have to select the right
A. Like B. Don't like alternative according to your aptitude and mark it
89. Editor in your answer sheet.
A. Like B. Don't like 101. I found a purse full of money in college
90. Engineer premise. I
A. Like B. Don't like A. donated the amount among poors
B. gave it to the principal
91. Coolie
C. none of these
A. Like B. Don't like
102. I am punctual regarding
Directions 92-100: The questions in this section
A. going to bed B. time
consist of pairs of statements describing personal
C. meals
characteristics and preferences. For each question,
select the statement that describes you better. 103. I was travelling on a boat which capsized.
92. A. I feel happy most of the time. Firstly, I
B. I rarely see the bright side of life. A. rescued others B. saved myself
C. closed my eyes
93. A. I have a great deal of self-confidence.
B. I try to avoid getting together with 104. When someone asks you for help in odd
people. situations then:
A. you give him/her all possible help
94 A. I prefer working with people.
B. you promise him/her help
B. I prefer working with equipment or my
C. you do not help him/her
hands.
105. In case my wrist watch is out of order, I
95 A. New and different experiences excite me.
A. would try to repair it myself
B. New and different experiences frighten
B. would give it to watch maker
me.
C. would buy a new watch
96. A. I prefer to work with competent
106. Often I change my opinion in the last moment.
coworkers.
B. I prefer to work with congenial A. Yes B. No
C. Some times
coworkers.
107. Generally I am extrovert and well behaved
97. A. I enjoy engaging actively in athletic
A. Yes B. No
sports.
B. I enjoy watching athletic events. C. Some times
98. A. One of my most important career goals is 108. I like to use new technique of work
security. A. Yes B. No
B. One of my most important career goals is C. Some times
high income. 109. When someone considers you wrong then:
99. A. I rarely worry about what other people A. you do not react
think of me. B. you consider him/her wrong
B. It bothers me that people have wrong C. you try to ward off the misunderstanding
ideas about me. on proper occasion.
 148

110. If you are a female and you are talking with a B. Political events
male: C. Neither, A nor B
A. You hide your age 121. If I were not human being then :
B. You are afraid A. I wish to be a bird
C. You talk without hesitation B. I wish to be a horse
111. I do like rules and regulations C. Can not say
A. Yes B. No 122. Suppose, you have worn a new shirt and your
C. Some times friend passed a comment that it is not looking
112. Excellent ideas come to my mind: good on you. You
A. while working alone A. will change the shirt immediately
B. while working in group B. will take it lightly as it is your style
C. I do not know C. will not change the shirt but feel offended
113. Whenever my little baby cries loudly, then I 123. I wish to live alone always.
A. beat him/her A. Yes B. No
B. feed milk to him/her C. Some times
C. make him/her sleep 124. I want to spend my spare (extra) time :
114. When I see a mad person, I A. in reading interesting books
A. approach towards him/her B. in reading comics
B. maintain distance from him/her C. None of these
C. throw stone at him/her 125. Before doing any work I ask myself ‘Is it
115. While driving my car I offer lift who ask for appropriate’?
the lift A. Yes B. No
A. always B. some times C. Some times
C. never 126. If I see the GOD, I will ask for
116. When someone tries to convince you then: A. huge wealth B. honesty
A. You get convinced C. love
B. You do not get convinced 127. People call you selfish:
C. You hear him/her passionately A. Always B. Sometimes
117. Whenever someone knocks on my closed C. Never
door then firstly I 128. While talking to friends I do not like to
A. open the door express my very personal matters.
B. peep through the lens fitted in the door A. Yes B. No
C. do not open the door C. Sometimes
118. I speak to others about my expectation and 129. Consultation with others helps me to take any
dreams: decision.
A. rarely B. often A. Yes B. No
C. some times C. I get confused
119. When I do any foolish work then : 130. After failure:
A. I feel ashamed A. One repents
B. I feel proud of my self B. One tries again to succeed
C. Nothing happens C. Nothing special is happened
120. If I were correspondent of any newspaper then 131. I want to be convinced by arguments
I would write on the following subject A. Yes B. No
A. Cinema and theatre C. Some times
 149

132. If an argument starts with someone, then I 140. You inform your close friend
invariably A. all the important issues
A. listen to the viewpoint of that person B. all the bad issues
carefully and then, speak what is in my C. all the thoughts going on in your mind
mind D. nothing at all
B. state my view at the very outset 141. Normally, I am an extrovert and gregarious
C. start saying whatever comes to my mind A. Sometimes B. No
D. become confused and perplexed C. Yes D. Never
133. If you were a woman and if it were within 142. Sometimes I feel disappointed:
your control, then what would you like to A. Yes B. Cannot say
become? C. No D. Off and On
A. Miss World 143. I inspire from the biographies of great
B. A player of international level personalities:
C. Politician A. Often B. Sometimes
D. Actress C. Never D. Regularly
134. I like to fight the intricate problems 144. When my bicycle goes out of order, then I
A. Only sometimes B. No A. show it to the bicycle mechanic
C. Yes D. Never B. try to repair it myself
135. I read such books in leisure which deal with: C. tell my friends to repair it
A. moral values B. sex D. buy a new bicycle
C. violence D. any theme 145. I search for the possibilities of the solution
136. Whenever I join a new group, then of every problem.
A. I am not able to understand them A. Sometimes B. Never
B. I take some time to understand people C. Yes D. No
C. I feel pretty soon that I have known all 146. If a person takes away my things without
of them getting my permission, then I feel pain.
D. I take some time to identify and A. Yes B. Sometimes
understand them C. No D. Never
137. After having a meal to my heart’s content, if 147. Whenever I talk to somebody, then I
someone requests me to eat a sweet, then I A. look at his face
A. refuse politely B. look into his eyes
B. eat some of the sweets C. look at the things around him
C. do not care about the proposition D. look at his feet
D. Scold the person who makes a request 148. Whenever someone interrupts my speech,
138. When I accomplish a task in a foolish manner, then I
then A. do not pay attention to him
A. I feel proud B. start speaking at a faster pace than before
B. I like the action very much C. stop my speech and let him speak
C. I feel ashamed of it D. nothing is certain
D. nothing happens 149. You have adorned a new shirt. Your
139. Best ideas come to my mind companion passes a remark that your shirt is
A. when I work in a group misfit for your persona. So, you will
B. when I work alone A. start scolding him in the presence of all
C. never others
D. do not know when they come B. change the shirt immediately
 150

C. not change the shirt but singe from the 157. I love to live alone.
heart of your hearts A. Sometimes B. Yes
D. laugh away the remark, starting that it is C. No D. Never
your style 158. Excessive consumption of ghee and oil is
150. I always take care of ..... in my life. A. tasty for the health
A. sleeping B. beneficial to the health
B. time C. injurious to the health
C. taking meal D. cannot state anything in this context
D. making enjoyments 159. The secret of my success is
151. When you go to buy cloth for yourself, then A. studying newspaper
what is the most important issue/factor looked B. awakening at night
after by you? C. hard labour
A. The cloth must be suitable for you D. gossiping
B. The cloth that is stated to be good by the
160. When my little child cries loudly, then I
shopkeeper
A. give him food
C. The costliest cloth
B. thrash him with vigour
D. The design of the cloth should be
C. make him sleep
different from those of all others
D. give him feed of milk
152. If I were to acquire a lot of money, then I will
161. I like to use new procedures of work.
A. distribute it among neighbours
A. Never B. Yes
B. spend it and have whale of a time
C. Sometimes D. No
C. save most of it for the future
D. cannot say anything about it 162. During winter days, I
153. If I were a bat, then I would A. get up at a fixed time
A. fly during the day B. get up only in the morning
B. fly during the night C. get up late
C. fly during the day as well as the night D. get up at an uncertain time
D. increase the number of ultrasonic waves 163. I like to be convinced by facts.
154. During the period of difficulty, I invariably A. Sometimes B. No
take the help of another person. C. Yes D. Never
A. Never B. Yes 164. When someone tells me to make a promise,
C. No D. Sometimes then I
155. I like to meet new people: A. never make a promise
A. Always B. Sometimes B. think before finally making a promise
C. Never D. Can’t say C. make a promise immediately
156. If you are a woman, then, while talking to D. cannot say anything in this context
others ; 165. I do remember God
A. you fly into a rage when the talk related A. in distress B. in happier time
to age is commenced C. always D. off and on
B. you tell your age by reducing a few years 166. If I were the correspondent of a magazine,
from the actual age then I would write on the following subject
C. refrain from giving any set of information A. Health
related to age B. Cinema and theatre
D. you inform about your correct age, if C. Political events
asked about the same D. None of these
 151

167. The house of my hate-worthy neighbour is 176. Before doing any piece of work, I ask myself,
on fire. I ‘‘Is it correct?’’
A. am very happy to learn about this A. Sometimes B. Yes
B. am going to put out the fire C. No D. Never
C. am not going to put out the fire 177. In the interview the quality which is sought
D. am still thinking mostly is:
168. I get help when I discuss things/issues with A. handsomeness B. clothing
others C. personality D. hair style
A. Sometimes B. No 178. While talking to my friends, I do not like to
C. Yes D. I get into a fix express my personal feelings
169. Upon seeing a lunatic, I A. Sometimes
A. start making hue and cry B. Yes
B. throw stones on him C. No
C. go near him D. It depends of the gravity of feelings
D. keep myself away from him 179. When I go by the car, I always give lift to
170. I like pre-defined rules and regulations. hitch-hikers.
A. Sometimes A. Only to ladies B. Always
B. No C. Never D. Sometimes
C. Yes 180. If put under pressure, I give emphasis on
D. According to the occasion giving myself more time so that I may be
able to think more clearly.
171. I myself open the door of the car to enable
A. I get into a fix B. Yes
my wife to sit inside the car.
C. No D. Sometimes
A. If I am happy B. Sometimes
C. Never D. Always 181. The boat I was travelling in, sank midway.
First of all, I
172. Before starting my scooter, first of all, I A. started coaxing the boatman
A. check its brakes B. saved others
B. check the quantity of petrol in the fuel C. saved myself
tank D. closed my eyes
C. check air in the tyres
182. While doing work, invariably, I
D. check the headlight
A. remain in a dilly-dally situation—‘‘to do
173. When I decide something, then I or not to do’’
A. get into a fix B. feel difficulty during the beginning
B. think about the decision C. find the end to be tedious
C. feel myself to be contented and satisfied D. start doing it immediately
D. change my decision afterwards 183. I like to carry out the agricultural work
174. When I am alone at my home, then, quite according to the scientific method
often, I A. For some time B. Always
A. sing a song B. sleep C. Sometimes D. Never
C. watch television D. read literature 184. If I find two persons fighting each other, on
175. I like to explore various possibilities/ my way, I
opportunities, even though it may lead to A. try to help them arrive at a truce/
delay in the piece of work. settlement of the dispute
A. Sometimes B. Yes B. start fighting on behalf of the weaker
C. No D. Never person
 152

C. let them fight and move on 188. Whenever I take a decision, then I
D. watch the show A. do not change it B. change it
185. If I were not a man, then I C. never change it D. do not know
A. would like to be a cow 189. Any dispute can be solved by
B. would become a horse in a big stable A. quarrelling B. dialogue
C. would like to be a bird C. court D. can’t say
D. cannot say any thing in this context 190. While driving during night there must be
186. Whenever some one demands any thing from A. helmet B. light source
me, I C. smooth road D. controlled speed
A. return him empty-handed 191. I like to
B. abuse him A. wander
C. give something B. study
D. do not talk to him C. watch television
187. It is necessary for progress: D. indulge in gossips
A. to deceive others 192. When I go to appear in an interview, then I
B. to resort to unlawful means wear a clean
C. to be sincere towards one’s own duty A. shirt B. pantaloon
D. No need of special attention. C. dress D. underwear
 1

General Knowledge

1 (137) G.K.—1
2
 3

INDIAN HISTORY
ANCIENT INDIA
Important Sites
INDUS VALLEY CIVILISATION l The most important sites are Kot Diji in Sindh,
(2500-1750 BC) Kalibangan in Rajasthan, Ropar in the Punjab,
Banawali in Haryana, Lothal, Surkotada and
l The earliest excavations in the Indus valley were Dhaulavira, all the three in Gujarat.
done at Harappa in the West Punjab and l Mohenjodaro is the largest of all the Indus cities
Mohenjodaro in Sindh. Both places are now in and it is estimated to have spread over an area
Pakistan. of 200 hectares.
Indus Valley Civilisation : An Objective Study

Major Sites Excavators Year River Location Important Findings

1. Harappa D.R. Sahni 1921 Ravi West Punjab Granaries, Virgin Goddess,
(Pakistan) Cemetery, Stone symbol of Lingam
and Yoni
2. Mohenjodaro R.D. Banerjee 1922 Indus Sindh Great Bath, Great Granary, Assem
(Pakistan) bly Hall, Proto-Shiva, Brick Kilns,
Mesopotamian seals
3. Chanhudaro N.G. Mazumdar 1931 Indus Sindh Bronze toy cart, Ink-pot, Lipstick, City
(Pakistan) without a citadel
4. Kalibangan B.B. Lal & 1953 Ghaggar Ganganagar Decorated bricks, ploughed field
B.K. Thapar (Rajasthan) surface, Firealtars
5. Lothal S.R. Rao 1957 Bhogwa Ahmedabad Dockyard, Rice husk, Fire altars,
(Gujarat) Double burial
6. Banawali R.S. Bist 1973 Ghaggar Hissar Toy plough, Gridiron pattern of
(Haryana) Town planning.
7. Dholavira R.S. Bist 1990 Luni Kutchh A Large well & a bath,
(Gujarat) A stadium
8. Surkotada J. Joshi 1964 — Gujarat Bones of Horse, Pot burials
Salient Features of the Harappan Culture l Another remarkable feature was the underground
l The Harappan Civilization was primarily Urban. drainage system connecting all houses to the
l Mohenjodaro and Harappa were the planned street drains which were covered by stone slabs
cities. or bricks.
l The large-scale use of burnt bricks in almost all l The most important public place of Mohenjodaro
kinds of constructions are the important is the Great Bath measuring 39 feet length, 23
characteristics of the Harappan culture. feet breadth and 8 feet depth.
3
 4

l Agriculture was the most important occupation. and Sutlej along with the Indus and Saraswati.
In the fertile soils, farmers cultivated two crops l Historians view that the Aryans came from Central
a year. They were the first who had grown paddy. Asia. They entered India through the Khyber
l Wheat and barley were the main crops grown pass between 2000 B.C. and 1500 B.C. They
besides sesame, mustard and cotton. first settled in seven places in the Punjab region
l Animals like sheep, goats and buffalo were which they called Sapta Sindhu. Slowly, they
domesticated. The use of horse is not yet firmly moved towards the Gangetic Valley.
established. l The Aryan Civilisation was a rural civilisation.
l Bronze and copper vessels are the outstanding
Vedic Literature
examples of the Harappan metal craft.
l A large number of seals numbering more than l The word ‘Veda’ is derived from the root ‘vid’,
2000 have been discovered. which means to know and signifies ‘superior
knowledge’.
Social Life l The Vedic literature consists of the four Vedas –
l Jewelleries such as bangles, bracelets, fillets, Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva.
girdles, anklets, ear-rings and finger rings were l The Rig Veda is the earliest of the four Vedas
worn by women. These ornaments were made of divided into 10 mandalas and it consists of 1028
gold, silver, copper, bronze and semi precious hymns. The hymns were sung by Hotri in praise
stones. of various gods.
l Fishing was a regular occupation while hunting l The Yajur Veda consists of various details of
and bull fighting were other pastimes. rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice. Its
l Manufacture of terracotta (burnt clay) was a major hymns were recited by Adharvayus.
industry of the people. l The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of
l Figures of animals such as sacred bull and dove chanting during sacrifice. It is called the book of
were discovered. The figures of Mother Goddesses chants and the origins of Indian music are traced
were used for religious purposes. in it. Its hymns were recited by Udgatri.
l Most of the inscriptions were engraved on seals. l The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals.
It is interesting to note that the Indus script has l Besides the Vedas, there are other sacred works
not yet been deciphered. like the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas, the
l The Pipal tree was used as a religious symbol. Upanishads, and the epics Ramayana and
l The origin of the ‘Swastika’ symbol can be traced Mahabharata.
to the Harrapan Civilization.
Political Organisation
l The chief male deity was Pasupati, (proto-Siva)
represented in seals as sitting in a yogic posture l During this period, the kingdom was tribal in
with three faces and two horns. character. Each tribe formed a separate kingdom.
l The basic unit of political organisation was kula
or family.
THE VEDIC PERIOD
l The highest political unit was called jana or tribe.
RIG VEDIC AGE (1500 - 1000 B.C.) l There were several tribal kingdoms during the
l The Early Vedic period is known from the Rig Rig Vedic period such as Bharatas, Matsyas,
Veda. Yadus and Purus. The head of the kingdom was
l The Rig Veda refers to Saptasindhu or the land called as rajan or king.
of seven rivers. This includes the five rivers of l There were two popular bodies called the Sabha
the Punjab, namely, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Samiti. The former seems to have been a
 5

council of elders and the latter, a general assembly l The king performed various rituals and sacrifices
of the entire people. to strengthen his position. They include Rajasuya
(consecration ceremony), Asvamedha (horse
Social Life sacrifice) and Vajpeya (chariot race).
l Family was the basis of the society. l Kingship became hereditary.
l The head of the family was known as grihapathi. l Kings assumed titles like Ekrat, Samrat and
Sarvabhauma.
Economic Condition
l The Rig Vedic Aryans were pastoral people and Economic Condition
their main occupation was cattle rearing. Their l Iron was used extensively in this period and this
wealth was estimated in terms of their cattle. enabled the people to clear forests and to bring
l Carpentry was another important profession. more land under cultivation. Agriculture became
the chief occupation.
RELIGION
l Taxes like Bali, Sulk and Bhaga were collected
l The important Rig Vedic gods were Prithvi from the people.
(Earth), Agni (Fire), Vayu (Wind), Varuna (Rain) l Wealth was calculated in terms of cows.
and Indra (Thunder).
l Indra was the most popular among them during Social Life
the early Vedic period. l The four divisions of society (Brahmins,
l There were also female gods like Aditi and Ushas. Kshatriyas, Vaisyas and Sudras) or the Varna
There were no temples and no idol worship during system was thoroughly established during the
the early Vedic period. Later Vedic period.
The Ashrama system was formed to attain 4
Rigvedic Rivers l

purusharthas. They were Dharma, Artha, Kama

River Name in Rigveda and Moksha.
Indus Sindhu
Religion
Jhelum Vitasta
Chenab Asikni l Gods of the Early Vedic period like Indra and
Ravi Parushini
Agni lost their importance. Prajapathi (the
creator), Vishnu (the protector) and Rudra (the
Beas Vipasa
destroyer) became prominent during the Later
Sutlej Sutudri
Vedic period.
Gomati Gomal
Saraswati Sarasvati
Ghaggar Prishadavati
JAINISM AND BUDDHISM
LATER VEDIC PERIOD (1000–600 B.C.) JAINISM
l Jainism originated in the 6th century B.C. It
l This age is also called as the Epic Age because
rejected Vedic religion and avoided its rituals.
the two great epics the Ramayana and
Mahabharata were written during this period. l Founded by Rishabha Deva. Rishabha Deva was
succeeded by 23 Thirthankaras (prophets).
l The Sama, Yajur, Atharva Vedas, Brahmanas,
Mahavira was the 24th Thirthankara.
Aranyakas, Upanishads and the two epics are the
sources of information for this period. Vardhamana Mahavira (540-468 B.C.)
l Vardhamana was born in a village called
Political Organisation Kundagrama near Vaishali in Bihar.
l Larger kingdoms were formed during the later l His father was Siddhartha. He was the head of a
Vedic period. famous Kshatriya clan.
 6

l His mother was Trisala. She was a princess of the l The second Jain Council was held at Vallabhi in
Lichchhavi clan. She was the sister of the ruler 5th century A.D. The final compilation of Jain
of Vaishali. literature called Twelve Angas was completed in
l Vardhamana was married to Yasoda, a princess. this council.
They had a daughter. BUDDHISM
l At the age of 30, he left his home and family. He
became an ascetic (monk). He wandered from Gautama Buddha (563-483 B.C.)
place-to-place in search of truth for 12 years. l Buddha’s original name was Siddhartha.
l In the 13th year of his penance, he attained the l Siddhartha was born in the Lumbini Garden near
highest spiritual knowledge called Kevalya or Kapilavastu in Nepal. His father was Suddhodana.
Jnana. Thereafter, he was called Mahavira and He was a Sakya chief of Kapilavastu. His mother,
Jina. His followers were called Jains and his Mayadevi, died when Siddhartha was only seven
religion Jainism. days old. He was brought up by his step mother
l He died at the age of 72 in 468 B.C. at a place Mahaprajapati Gauthami.
called Pavapuri near modern Rajgir in Bihar. l At the age of sixteen Siddhartha, married
Teachings of Jainism Yasodhara and gave birth to a son, Rahul.
The sight of an old man, a diseased man, a corpse
The three principles of Jainism, also known as
l
l
and an ascetic turned him away from worldly
Triratnas (three gems), are:
life. He left home at the age of twenty-nine in
1. right faith.
search of Truth.
2. right knowledge.
3. right conduct. l He wandered for seven years and at last, he sat
l Mahavira preached his disciples to follow the under a bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya in Bihar and
five principles. They are: did intense penance, after which he got
1. Ahimsa—not to injure any living beings Enlightenment (Nirvana) at the age of thirty-
2. Satya—to speak the truth five. Since then, he became known as the Buddha
3. Asteya—not to steal or ‘the Enlightened One’.
4. Tyag—not to own property l Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath near
5. Brahmacharia—to lead a virtuous life. Banaras (now Varanasi).
l He died at the age of 80 in 483 B.C. at Kushinagar
Spread of Jainism in Uttar Pradesh.
l Mahavira preached his religion in Prakrit
language which was the language of the masses. Teachings of Buddha
l Chandragupta Maurya, Kharavela of Kalinga and l The Four Noble Truths of Buddha are:
the royal dynasties of south India such as the 1. The world is full of suffering.
Gangas, the Kadambas, the Chalukyas and the 2. The cause of suffering is desire.
Rashtrakutas patronised Jainism. 3. If desires are get rid off, suffering can be
l Jainism was divided into two sects after Vallabhi removed.
Council, namely Svetambaras (wearing white 4. This can be done by following the Eightfold
dresses) under Sthulbhadra and Digambaras Path.
(naked) under Bhadrabahu. l The Eightfold Path consists of:
l The first Jain Council was convened at 1. Right Thought.
Pataliputra by Sthulabahu, the leader of the
Digambaras, in the beginning of the 3rd century 2. Right Belief.
B.C. 3. Right Speech.
 7

4. Right Action. l Buddhist scriptures in Pali are commonly referred

5. Right Living. to as Tripitakas, i.e., ‘Three Baskets’.
6. Right Efforts. l Vinaya Pitaka: Rules of discipline in Buddhist
7. Right Knowledge. monasteries.
8. Right Meditation. l Sutta Pitaka: Largest, contains collection of
Buddha’s sermons.
Buddhist Literature l Abidhamma Pitaka: Explanation of the
l In Pali language. philosophical principles of the Buddhist religion.

Main Buddhist Councils

Buddhist Council Time Place Chairman Patron
First 483 BC Rajagriha Mahakashyapa Ajatasatru
Second 383 BC Vaishali Sabakamuni Kalashoka
Third 250 BC Patliputra Moggaliputta Tissa Ashoka
Fourth AD 72 Kundalvana Vasumitra, Ashwaghosa Kanishka

The Mahajanapadas Mahavira and Gautama Buddha.

l During his rule, Darius I, the Achaemenian
Mahajanapadas Capital
emperor, conquered the Indus Valley area.
1. Kashi Varanasi
l Ajatasatru imprisoned his father Bimbisara.
2. Kosala Shravasti
l The first Buddhist Council was convened by
3. Anga Champanagri
Ajatasatru at Rajgir.
4. Magadh Girivraj or Rajgriha
l The immediate successor of Ajatasatru was
5. Vajji Vaishali
Udayin.
6. Malla Kushinagar and Pavapuri
l Udayin laid the foundation of the new capital at
7. Chedi Shuktimati
Pataliputra situated at the confluence of the two
8. Vatsa Kaushambi
rivers, the Ganges and the Sone.
9. Kuru Hastinapur,
Indraprastha l Shishunaga was the founder of Shishunaga
and Isukara dynasty.
10. Panchal Ahichhatra and Kampilya l After Shishunaga, the mighty empire began to
11. Matsya Viratnagar collapse. His successor was Kakavarman or
12. Surasen Mathura Kalasoka. During his reign, the second Buddhist
13. Asmaka Paudanya Council was held at Vaishali.
14. Avanti Ujjaini l Kalasoka was killed by the founder of the Nanda
15. Gandhara Taxila dynasty.
16. Kamboj Rajpur (Hatak) NANDAS
l The fame of Magadha scaled new heights under
DYNASTIES OF ANCIENT INDIA the Nanda dynasty.
l Mahapadmananda was the founder of Nanda rule
HARYANKA DYNASTY
in Magadha.
l Bimbisara was the founder of Haryanka Dynasty. l The last Nanda ruler was Dhana Nanda. Alexander
l He was a contemporary of both Vardhamana invaded India during his rule.
 8

Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of

MAURYAN EMPIRE
l

Brahmanism. He performed two asvamedha

CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA (322–298 B.C.) sacrifices.
l Chandragupta Maurya was the founder of the l After the death of Pushyamitra, his son Agnimitra
Mauryan Empire. He overthrew Nanda dynasty became the ruler.
with the help of Chanakya. l Agnimitra was a great conqueror. He was also the
l Chandragupta defeated Seleukos Nikator, the hero of the play Malavikagnimitram written by
Greek general of Alexander, in a battle in 305 Kalidasa.
B.C.
KANVA
l Seleukos sent Megasthenes as Greek Ambassador
l The last Sunga ruler was Devabhuti, who was
to the Court of Chandragupta. Megasthenes wrote
murdered by his minister Vasudeva Kanva, the
Indica.
founder of the Kanva dynasty.
l Chandragupta was a follower of Jainism.
l The Kanva dynasty ruled for 45 years. After the
l He came to Sravana Belgola, near Mysore with fall of the Kanvas, the history of Magadha was
a Jain monk called Bhadrabahu. The hill in which a blank until the establishment of the Gupta
he lived until his death is called Chandragiri.
dynasty.
l Chanakya served as prime minister during the
reigns of Chandragupta and Bindusara. SATAVAHANAS
l The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was
BINDUSARA (298–273 B.C.)
Simuka.
l Chandragupta Maurya was succeeded by his son
l The greatest ruler of the Satavahana dynasty was
Bindusara.
Gautamiputra Satakarni.
l Bindusara was called by the Greeks as
l The greatest port of the Satavahanas was Kalyani
“Amitraghatha” meaning, slayer of enemies.
on the west Deccan. Gandakasela and Ganjam on
ASHOKA (273–232 B.C.) the east coast were the other important seaports.
l Ashoka was the most famous ruler of the Mauryan l The fine painting at Amaravathi and
dynasty. Nagarjunakonda caves belong to this period.
l The most important event of Ashoka’s reign was
his victorious war with Kalinga in 261 B.C. SANGAM AGE
l Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at (300 B.C. TO A.D. 300)
Pataliputra around 250 B.C. in order to strengthen
the Sangha. It was presided over by Moggaliputta l The Sangam Age constitutes an important chapter
Tissa. in the history of South India.
l Ashoka’s edicts and inscriptions were deciphered l According to Tamil legends, there existed three
by James Prinsep in 1837. Sangams (Academy of Tamil poets) in ancient
l The last Mauryan king, Brahadratha was killed Tamil Nadu popularly called Muchchangam.
by his minister Pushyamitra Sunga. It put an end These Sangams flourished under the royal
to the Mauryan Empire. patronage of the Pandyas.
l The first Sangam, held at then Madurai, chaired
SUNGAS by Agastya.
l The founder of the Sunga dynasty was l The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram,
Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in- chaired by Tolkappiyar.
chief under the Mauryas. l The third Sangam at Madurai was founded by
l He ascended the throne of Magadha in 185 B.C. Mudathirumaran.
 9 (137) G.K.—2

Political History CHANDRAGUPTA II (380-414 A.D.)

l The Tamil country was ruled by three dynasties l Samudragupta was succeeded by his son
namely the Chera, Chola and Pandyas during the Chandragupta II Vikramaditya.
Sangam Age. l The greatest of the military achievements of
Chandragupta II was his war against the Saka
CHERAS satraps of western India.
l The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Kerala. l The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India
Their capital was Vanji and their important (A.D. 399 - A.D. 414) during the reign of
seaports were Tondi and Musiris. Chandragupta II.
l The greatest Chera King was Senguttuvan.
SUCCESSORS OF CHANDRAGUPTA II
CHOLAS l Kumaragupta (415-455) was the son and
l The Chola kingdom of the Sangam period successor of Chandragupta II. His reign was
extended from modern Tiruchi district to southern marked by general peace and prosperity.
Andhra Pradesh. l Kumaragupta was the founder of the Nalanda
l Their capital was first located at Uraiyur and University.
then shifted to Puhar. Kaveripattinam served as l Kumaragupta was followed by Skandagupta who
their port. ruled from A.D. 456 to A.D. 468.
l After Skandagupta’s death, many of his successors
GUPTA PERIOD like Purugupta, Narasimhagupta, Buddhagupta
l The Gupta period is considered as the Golden and Baladitya could not save the Gupta empire
from the Huns. Ultimately, the Gupta power
Age in the history of India because this period
totally disappeared due to the Hun invasions
witnessed all round developments in Religion,
and later by the rise of Yasodharman in Malwa.
Literature, Science, Art and Architecture.

CHANDRAGUPTA I (320-334 A.D.) PUSHYABHUTI DYNASTY

l In the beginning of the 4th Century A.D., Sri (600 - 647 A.D.)
Gupta established a small Kingdom at Pataliputra. l The greatest king was Harshavardhana, son of
He is considered as the founder of the Gupta Prabhakar Vardhana of Thaneshwar. He shifted
dynasty. the capital to Kannauj.
l The first notable ruler of the Gupta dynasty was l Hieun Tsang visited during his reign.
Chandragupta I. He assumed the title l He established a large monastery at Nalanda.
Maharajadhiraja. The Meherauli Iron Pillar Banabhata adorned his court, wrote Harshacharita
inscription mentions his extensive conquests. and Kadambari. Harsha himself wrote three
l Chandragupta I is considered to be the founder plays–Priyadarshika, Ratnawali and Nagananda.
of the Gupta era which starts with his accession
in A.D. 320. PALLAVAS
l The Pallavas established their kingdom in
SAMUDRAGUPTA (335-380 A.D.) Tondaimandalam by Simhavishnu with its capital
l Samudragupta was the greatest of the rulers of at Kanchipuram.
the Gupta dynasty. The Allahabad Pillar l Other great Pallava rulers were Mahendravarman
inscription provides a detailed account of his I, Narasimhavarman I, and Narasimhavarman II.
reign. l The Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is the
l Because of his military achievements, greatest architectural masterpiece of the Pallava
Samudragupta was hailed as ‘Indian Napoleon’. art.
 10

CHALUKYAS (543-755 A.D.) found at Ellora and Elephanta.

l Pulakesin I was the founder of the Chalukya
CHOLAS
dynasty. He established a small kingdom with
Vatapi or Badami as its capital. l Cholas became prominent in the ninth century
and established an empire comprising the major
l The structural temples of the Chalukyas exist at
portion of South India. Their capital was Tanjore.
Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal (Virupaksha
temple). Cave temple architecture was also famous l The founder of the Chola kingdom was
under the Chalukyas. Their cave temples are Vijayalaya.
found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik. l Rajaraja Chola built the famous Brihadeeswara
temple at Tanjore.
RASHTRAKUTAS (755-975 A.D.) l Dancing Figure of Shiva (Nataraja) belong to
l The art and architecture of the Rashtrakutas were Chola period.

MEDIEVAL INDIA
dynasty. Mamluk was the Quranic term for slave.
ARAB CONQUEST OF SIND
Qutb-ud-din Aibak
l In 712 A.D., Muhammad bin Quasim invaded
Sind. Quasim defeated Dahir, the ruler of Sind l Qutb-ud-din Aibak was a slave of Muhammad
and killed him in a well-contested battle. Ghori, who made him the Governor of his Indian
possessions.
Mahmud of Ghazni
l After the death of Ghori in 1206, Aibak declared
l In 1024, Mahmud marched from Multan across his independence. He assumed the title Sultan
Rajaputana, defeated the Solanki King and made Lahore his capital.
Bhimadeva I, plundered Anhilwada and sacked the l Muslim writers call Aibak Lakh Baksh or giver
famous temple of Somanatha. This was his last of lakhs because he gave liberal donations to
campaign in India. Mahmud died in 1030 A.D.
them.
l Mahmud patronized art and literature. Firdausi
l He built the famous Quwat-Ul-Islam mosque at
was the poet-laureate in the court of Mahmud.
Delhi. He began the construction of the famous
Muhammad Ghori Qutb Minar at Delhi but did not live long to
l Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghori in the first complete it. It was later completed by Iltutmish.
battle of Tarain near Delhi in 1191 A.D. Iltutmish (1210-1236 A.D.)
In the Second Battle of Tarain in 1192,
Iltutmish belonged to the Ilbari tribe and hence
l
l
Muhammad Ghori thoroughly routed the army
his dynasty was named as Ilbari dynasty.
of Prithiviraj, who was captured and killed.
l He shifted his capital from Lahore to Delhi.
l After his brilliant victory over Prithviraj at Tarain,
Muhammad Ghori returned to Ghazni leaving l He organised the Iqta system and introduced
behind his favourite general Qutb-ud-din Aibak reforms in civil administration and army.
to make further conquests in India. Raziya (1236-1240 A.D.)
SULTANATE PERIOD l She appointed an Abyssinian slave Yakuth as
Master of the Royal Horses.
SLAVE DYNASTY (1206-1290)
l In 1240, Altunia, the governor of Bhatinda
l The Slave dynasty was also called Mamluk revolted against her. She went in personally to
 11

suppress the revolt but Altunia killed Yakuth of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq in A.D. 1351.
and took Raziya prisoner. l He was the first Sultan to impose irrigation tax.
l Bahram Shah, son of Iltutmish killed her. l He had built new towns of Firozabad, Jaunpur,
Hissar and Firozpur.
Balban (1266-1286 A.D.)
l Timur—Mongol leader of Central Asia, ordered
l Balban introduced rigorous court discipline and general massacre in Delhi (AD 1398) at the time
new customs such as prostration and kissing the of Nasiruddin Mahmud (later Tughlaq king).
Sultan’s feet to prove his superiority over the
nobles. SAYYID DYNASTY
l He also introduced the Persian festival of Nauroz l Before his departure from India, Timur appointed
to impress the nobles and people with his wealth Khizr Khan as governor of Multan. He captured
and power. Delhi and founded the Sayyid dynasty in 1414.
l He established a separate military department - l Mubarak Shah, Mohammed Shah and Alam Shah
diwan-i-arz – and reorganized the army. were some of the other important noteworthy
rulers of Sayyid Dynasty.
KHILJI DYNASTY (1290-1320 A.D.)
l The founder of the Khilji dynasty was Jalaluddin LODHI DYNASTY
Khilji. l The Lodhis were Afghans.
l Ala-ud-din Khilji was the greatest ruler of the l Bahlol Lodhi was the first Afghan ruler while his
Khilji Dynasty. predecessors were all Turks. He died in 1489 and
l He was the first Muslim ruler to extend his empire was succeeded by his son, Sikandar Lodhi.
right upto Rameshwaram in the South. l In 1504, Sikandar Lodhi founded the city of
l The Sultan had built a new city called Siri near Agra and transferred his capital from Delhi to
Delhi. Agra.
l Amir Khusrau the great Persian poet, patronised l Babar marched against Delhi and defeated and
by Balban, continued to live in Ala-ud-din killed Ibrahim Lodhi in the first battle of Panipat
Khilji’s court also. (1526).
l He introduced the system of dagh (branding of
horses) and prepared huliya (descriptive list of BAHMANI AND VIJAYANAGAR
soldiers). KINGDOMS
l Ala-ud-din Khilji maintained a large permanent l The break up of the Delhi Sultanate provided an
standing army and paid them in cash from the opportunity for the rise of a number of kingdoms
royal treasury. in the Deccan.
TUGHLAQ DYNASTY l After the decline of the Tughlaqs, there arose
l Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq was the founder of the two important kingdoms in the Deccan. They
Tughlaq dynasty. were the Bahmani and Vijayanagar kingdoms.
l To have the capital at the centre of the empire VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE
and safe from the Mongol raids, Tughlaq chose l The Vijayanagar Kingdom was set up in A.D.
Devagiri as his new capital in A.D. 1327. The 1336. Its aim was to check the spread of Muslim
Sultan renamed the new capital Daulatabad. power and protect Hindu Dharma in South India.
l In 1329-30, Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq introduced l Four dynasties – Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and
a token currency. Aravidu – ruled Vijayanagar from A.D. 1336 to
l Firoz Shah Tughlaq became Sultan after the death 1672.
 12

l Vijayanagar was founded in 1336 by Harihara l On 21st April, 1526 the first Battle of Panipat
and Bukka of the Sangama dynasty. took place between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi,
l The Moroccan traveller, Ibn Batuta, Venetian who was killed in the battle.
traveller Nicolo de Conti, Persian traveller Abdur l Babar was the first one to use guns or artillery in
Razzak and the Portuguese traveller Domingo a battle on the Indian soil.
Paes were among them who left valuable accounts l Babar defeated Rana Sanga of Mewar in the
on the socio-economic conditions of the battle of Kanwah in A.D. 1527.
Vijayanagar Empire. l Babar was a soldier-scholar and wrote his own
l The Hampi ruins and other monuments of autobiography called Babar Nama in Turkish
Vijayanagar provide information on the cultural language.
contributions of the Vijayanagar rulers.
HUMAYUN (1530-1556 AD)
KRISHNA DEVA RAYA (1509-1530) l Sher Shah defeated Humayun at Chausa in A.D.
l The Tuluva dynasty was founded by Vira 1539 and again at Kannauj in A.D. 1540.
Narasimha. l After losing his kingdom, Humayun became an
l The greatest of the Vijayanagar rulers, Krishna exile for the next fifteen years.
Deva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty. l In 1555, Humayun defeated the Afghans and
l Krishna Deva Raya himself authored a Telugu recovered the Mughal throne. After six months,
work, Amukthamalyadha and Sanskrit works, he died in 1556 due to his fall from the staircase
Jambavati Kalyanam and Ushaparinayam. of his library.
l He built the famous Vittalaswamy and Hazara l Gulbadan Begum, Humayun’s half-sister wrote
Ramaswamy temples at Vijayanagar. Humayun-nama.
l Krishna Deva Raya renovated Virupaksha temple
in A.D. 1510. SHER SHAH SURI
l After his death the enemies of Vijayanagar joined l The founder of the Sur dynasty was Sher Shah,
together and defeated the Vijayanagar ruler in whose original name was Farid.
the battle of Talaikota. l Sher Shah became the ruler of Delhi in 1540.
l Sher Shah organized a brilliant administrative
BAHMANI KINGDOM system. The central government consisted of
l The founder of the Bahmani kingdom was several departments.
Alauddin Bahman Shah also known as Hasan l He built a new city on the banks of the river
Gangu in 1347. Its capital was Gulbarga. Yamuna near Delhi. Now the old fort called
l Ahmad Wali Shah shifted the capital from Purana Quila and its mosque is alone surviving.
Gulbarga to Bidar. l He built a Mausoleum at Sasaram, which is
l Gol Gumbaj was built by Muhammad Adil Shah; considered as one of the master pieces of Indian
it is famous for the so called ‘Whispering Gallery’. architecture.
l Quli Qutub Shah built the famous Golcunda
Fort. AKBAR (1556-1605 AD)
l When Akbar ascended the throne in A.D. 1556
MUGHAL EMPIRE he was only 14 years old. His guardian Bairam
(1526-1707 AD) Khan served him as a faithful minister and tutor.
l Bairam Khan, along with Akbar met Hemu in the
BABAR (1526-1530 AD) second Battle of Panipat in 1556. Hemu was
l Babar was the founder of the Mughal Empire in initially successful, but lost his consciousness
India. after an arrow hit him. Akbar killed him.
 13

l In the Battle of Haldighati, Rana Pratap Singh LATER MUGHALS / FALL OF THE MUGHALS
was severely defeated by the Mughal army led
by Man Singh in 1576. Bahadur Shah (1707-1712)
l Akbar abolished the pilgrim tax and in 1562, he l Assumed the title of Shah Alam I.
abolished Jaziya.
Jahandar Shah (1712-1713)
l Akbar evolved a new faith called Din-i-Illahi or
Divine Faith. l First puppet Mughal emperor. He abolished
jaziya.
JAHANGIR (1605-1627 AD)
Farrukhsiyar (1713-1719)
l When Akbar died, Prince Salim succeeded with
the title Jahangir (Conqueror of World) in 1605. Mohammad Shah (1719-1748)
l Jahangir’s eldest son, Khusrau, rebelled against
l Nadir Shah (of Iran) defeated him in the Battle
him. He was arrested and put into prison. Guru
of Karnal (1739) and took away Peacock throne
Arjun Dev, the fifth Sikh Guru was executed by
Jahangir. and Kohinoor diamond.
l In 1611, Jahangir married Mehrunnisa who was Ahmad Shah (1748-1754)
known as Nurjahan (Light of World).
l Jahangir died in A.D. 1627. Alamgir II (1754-1759),

SHAHJAHAN (1628-1658 AD) Shah Alam II (1759-1806)

l The reign of Shahjahan is generally considered
Akbar II (1806-1837)
as the Golden Age of the Mughal period.
l Shahjahan is called as the Prince of Builders. He l He gave Ram Mohan Roy the title ‘Raja’. He
had built the Jama Masjid and Red Fort in Delhi sent Raja Ram Mohan Roy to London to seek a
and Taj Mahal in Agra. raise in his allowance.
l Fine arts like painting, music and literature Bahadur Shah II (1837-1857)
reached high level of development during
Shahjahan’s time. l He was confined by the British to the Red Fort.
During the revolt of 1857, he was proclaimed the
AURANGAZEB (1658-1707 AD) Emperor by the rebels. He was deported to
l Aurangazeb was the last great Mughal ruler. He Rangoon after that.
ascended the throne after killing his three brothers Literature of Mughal Period
Dara, Shuja and Murad in a fratricidal war.
Author Work
l Aurangazeb defeated Sikandar Shah of Bijapur
and annexed his kingdom. Babar Tuzuk-i-Babari
Abul Fazal Ain-i-Akbari, Akbarnamah
l Aurangazeb was against the Sikhs and he
executed the ninth Sikh Guru Tegh Bahadur. Jahangir Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri
Hamid Padshahnama
l He was called Darvesh or a Zinda Pir. He forbade
Sati. Conquered Bijapur (AD 1686) and Darashikoh Majm-ul-Bahrain
Golconda (AD 1687) and reimposed Jaziya and Mirza Md Qasim Alamgirnama
Pilgrim tax in AD 1679.
l He built Biwi ka Makbara on the tomb of his THE MARATHAS
queen Rabaud-Durani at Aurangabad; Moti
Masjid within Red Fort, Delhi; and the Jami or SHIVAJI (1627-1680 AD)
Badshahi Mosque at Lahore. l Shivaji was born at Shivner in 1627. His father
l Aurangazeb died in A.D. 1707. was Shahji Bhonsle and mother Jija Bai.
 14

l His religious teacher was Samarth Ramdas and THE SIKH

guardian was Dadaji Kondadev. l Guru Nanak Dev was the founder of Sikhism, the
l In 1674, Shivaji crowned himself at Raigarh and religion that draws its elements from both
assumed the title Chatrapathi. Hinduism and Islam.
l Ashtapradhan (eight ministers) helped in l Name of the ten Sikh Gurus and their works are
administration. These were Peshwas, Sar-i-Naubat given below:
(Military), Mazumdar or Amatya (Accounts); 1. Guru Nanak Dev (1469-1539AD): The
Waqenavis (Intelligence); Surnavis (Corres- founder of Sikhism.
pondence); Dabir or Sumanta (Ceremonies); 2. Guru Angad Dev (1504-1552AD): Developed
Nyayadhish (Justice); and Panditrao (Charity). Gurmukhi.
l Successors of Shivaji were Shambhaji, Rajaram 3. Guru Amar Das (1479-1574AD): Struggled
and Shahu (fought at Battle of Khed in AD 1708). against Sati system and Purdah system.
THE PESHWAS 4. Guru Ram Das (1534-1581AD): Founded
l Balaji Vishwanath was the first Peshwa. He began Amritsar, the holy city of Sikhism.
his career as a small revenue official and became 5. Guru Arjun Dev (1563-1606AD): He built
Peshwa in 1713. the Swarn Mandir (Golden Temple).
l Baji Rao I was the eldest son of Balaji 6. Guru Hargobind (1595-1644 AD):
Vishwanath. He was considered as the “greatest Established Akal Takht.
exponent of guerilla tactics after Shivaji”. 7. Guru Har Rai (1630-1661 AD)
l It was during reign of Balaji Baji Rao 8. Guru Har Krishan (1656-1664 AD)
(Nanasaheb) when the Marathas lost the Third 9. Guru Tegh Bahadur (1621-1675 AD)
Battle of Panipat. 10. Guru Gobind Singh (1666-1708 AD):
l Baji Rao II ( last Peshwa) was the first Maratha Founded the Khalsa and Sikh baptism,
to have fled from the British attacks instead of composed many poems, and nominated the
fighting with them. Baji Rao II surrendered to Sir Sikh sacred text as the final and enduring
John Malcom. Guru.

MODERN INDIA
The real founder of Portuguese power in India
THE ADVENT OF THE EUROPEANS l

was Alfonso de Albuquerque. He captured Goa

from the rulers of Bijapur in 1510. It was made
THE PORTUGUESE
their headquarters.
l Vasco-da-Gama, a Portuguese explorer, sailed
through the route of Cape of Good Hope and reached THE DUTCH
near Calicut on 20th May 1498 A.D. during the l The United East India Company of the
reign of King Zamorin (Hindu King of Calicut).
Netherlands founded a factory at Masulipatnam
l Vasco-da-Gama founded a factory at Cannanore in 1605. They built their first fort on the main
on his second visit to India in 1501. In due land of India at Pulicut in 1609, near Madras
course, Calicut, Cochin and Cannanore became
(Chennai). They captured Nagapattinam from the
the Portuguese trading centres.
Portuguese.
l Francisco Almeida came to India in 1505. He
was the first Governor of Portuguese possessions l They made Agra, Surat, Masulipatnam and
in India. Chinsura in Bengal as their trading centres.
 15

THE DANES GOVERNOR-GENERALS OF BENGAL

l The Danish East India Company was established
Warren Hastings (1772-85 AD)
in 1616 in Denmark.
l They came to South India and founded a factory l In 1772, the Company appointed Warren Hastings
at Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) in 1620. They as the Governor of Fort William.
also made settlements at Serampore near Calcutta l The Dual System introduced by Robert Clive
(Kolkata). was abolished by Warren Hastings.
THE ENGLISH l Warren Hastings was known for his expansionist
policy. His administration witnessed the Rohilla
l The English East India Company was formed in
War, the First Anglo-Maratha War and the Second
1599 under a charter granted by Queen Elizabeth
in 1600. Anglo-Mysore War.
l The East India Company sent Sir William l Pitt’s India Act (1784) was passed.
Hawkins to the court of the Mughal Emperor Lord Cornwallis (1786-93 AD)
Jahangir in 1609 to obtain permission to erect a
factory at Surat. l Cornwallis inaugurated the policy of making
l In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe, another British appointments mainly on the basis of merit
merchant, came to Jahangir’s court. He stayed for thereby laying the foundation of the Indian Civil
three years and succeeded in getting permission Service.
to set up their trading centres at Agra, Surat, l Lord Cornwallis introduced Permanent Revenue
Ahmedabad and Broach. Settlement.
l In 1690, the British got permission from l Tipu Sultan signed the Treaty of Srirangapatnam
Aurangazeb to build a factory on the site of in 1792 with the British.
Calcutta. In 1696 a fort was built at that place.
It was called Fort William. Sir John Shore (1793-98 AD)
l Played an important role in the introduction of
THE FRENCH
Permanent Settlement.
l The French East India Company was established
in 1664 under the inspiring and energetic l Battle of Kharda between the Nizams and the
leadership of Colbert, the economic adviser of Marathas (1795).
the French King Louis XIV. Wellesley (1798-1805)
l In 1667, the first French factory was established
at Surat by Francis Caron who was nominated as l Wellesley came to India with a determination to
Director-General. launch a forward policy that he adopted to
l French were defeated by English in the Battle of achieve his object is known as the ‘Subsidiary
Wandiwash (1760). Alliance’.
l The Fourth Anglo-Mysore War started in 1799.
EAST INDIA COMPANY The war was short and decisive. Tipu fought till
his capital Srirangapatnam was captured and he
l After the Battle of Plassey in 1757 and the Battle himself was shot dead.
of Buxar in 1764, the East India Company became
a political power. l Peshwa Baji Rao II signed the Treaty of Bassein
with the British in 1802. It was a subsidiary
l India was under the East India Company’s rule
treaty and the Peshwa was recognized as the
till 1858 when it came under the direct
administration of the British Crown. head of the Maratha kingdom.
l Robert Clive was the first Governor of Fort l The Treaty of Deogaon(1803) was signed between
William under the Company’s rule. Bhonsle and Wellesley.
 16

Lord Minto (1807-1813) Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856)

l Lord Minto concluded the Treaty of Amritsar l The Doctrine of Lapse was applied by Dalhousie.
with Ranjit Singh of Punjab in 1809. l The first railway line connecting Bombay with
l The Charter Act of 1813 was passed during this Thane was opened in 1853.
period.
VICEROYS OF INDIA
Lord Hastings (1813-1823)
Lord Canning (1856-62 AD)
l Anglo Nepal War (1814-1816) and Treaty of
l Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India
Sugauli (1816).
in 1858.
l Third Maratha War (1817-18), dissolution of
l Revolt of 1857, Mutiny took place. Indian Penal
Maratha confederacy and creation of Bombay
Code 1860 was passed.
Presidency.
l He encouraged the freedom of the Press and Lord Elgin (1862 AD)
abolished the censorship introduced in 1799. l Wahabi Movement.
GOVERNOR-GENERALS OF INDIA Lord John Lawrence (1864-69 AD)
Lord William Bentinck (1828-1835) l Established the High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay
l Charter Act of 1833 was passed and he was made and Madras in 1865.
the first Governor-General of India. Before him, l Telegraphic communication was opened with
the designation was Governor-General of Bengal. Europe. Created the Indian Forest Department.
l The social reforms of William Bentinck made his Lord Northbrooke (1872-76 AD)
name immortal in the history of British India.
l Kuka Rebellion in Punjab, Famine in Bihar.
These include the abolition of Sati, the
suppression of Thugs and the prevention of Lord Lytton (1876-80)
female infanticide. l In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
l The Government Resolution in 1835 made This Act empowered a Magistrate to secure an
English the official and literary language of India. undertaking from the editor, publisher and printer
of a vernacular newspaper that nothing would be
Lord Metcalfe (1835-36 AD)
published against the English Government. This
l Known as liberator of press in India. Act crushed the freedom of the Indian press.
Lord Auckland (1836-42 AD) l In 1878, the Arms Act was passed. This Act
prevented the Indians to keep arms without
l First Afghan War (1838-42), a disaster for the
appropriate license.
English.
l Lord Lytton also held a Darbar at Delhi in 1877
Lord Ellenborough (1842-44 AD) in which Queen Victoria was declared as the
l Brought an end to Afghan war. War with Gwalior Empress of India. This extravagant Darbar cost
(1843), Annexation of Sind by Charles Napier millions of ruppes.
(1843). l In 1878, the Statutory Civil Service was
established exclusively for Indians.
Lord Hardinge (1844-48 AD)
Lord Ripon (1880-84 AD)
l First Anglo-Sikh War (1845-46) and Treaty of
Lahore (1846). Gave preference to English l Lord Ripon repealed the Vernacular Press Act
educated persons in employment. and earned much popularity among Indians.
 17 (137) G.K.—3

l Ripon appointed a Commission in 1882 under Sabarmati Ashram (1916), Champaran

the chairmanship of Sir William Hunter. Satyagraha, Satyagraha at Ahmedabad (1981),
l The Commission came to be known as the Hunter Kheda Satyagraha (1918).
Commission. The Commission recommended for l Rowlatt Act (March, 1919) and the Jallianwala
the expansion and improvement of the Bagh Massacre (13th April, 1919).
elementary education of the masses. l Khilafat Committee was formed and Khilafat
l Ripon was founder of local self-government in Movement started (1919-20).
modern India. l Non-Cooperation Movement started (1920-22).
Lord Dufferin (1884-88 AD) Lord Reading (1921-26)
l Third Burmese War (1885-86 AD). Establishment l Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place. Kakori
of the Indian National Congress in 1885. Train Robbery on 1st August, 1925. Communal
Lord Lansdowne (1888-94 AD) Riots of 1923-25 in Multan, Amritsar, Delhi etc.

l Factory Act of 1891 granted weekly holiday and Lord Irwin (1926-31 AD)
stipulated working hours for women and children. l Lahore Session of Congress and Poorna Swaraj
Lord Elgin II (1894-99 AD) Declaration (1929).
l Simon Commission visited India in 1927.
l Southern uprisings of 1899. Great famine of
Dandi March (12th March, 1930). Civil
1896-1897 and Lyall Commission on famine was
l

Disobedience Movement (1930).

established.
l First Round Table Conference was held in
Lord Curzon (1899-1905 AD) England in 1930. Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
l Curzon instituted in 1902, a Universities Lord Willingdon (1931-36 AD)
Commission to go into the entire question of
university education in the country. l Second Round Table Conference in London in
l On the basis of the findings and recommendations 1931 and third in 1932.
of the Commission, Curzon brought in the Indian Lord Linlithgow (1936-43 AD)
Universities Act of 1904, which brought all the
l Congress Ministries resignation celebrated as
universities in India under the control of the
‘Deliverance Day’ by the Muslim League (1939),
government.
the Lahore Resolution (23rd March, 1940) of
Lord Minto (1905-10 AD) the Muslim League demanding separate state
l Swadeshi Movement (1905-08); foundation of for the Muslims. (It was at this session that
Muslim League (1906); Surat Session and split Jinnah propounded his Two-Nation Theory).
in the Congress (1907). Morley-Minto Reforms Outbreak of World War II in 1939. Cripps Mission
(1909). in 1942. Quit India Movement (8th August,
1942).
Lord Hardinge (1910-16 AD)
Lord Wavell (1943-47 AD)
l Capital shifted from Calcutta to Delhi (1911);
Delhi Durbar; Partition of Bengal was cancelled. l Cabinet Mission Plan (16th May, 1946).
The Hindu Mahasabha was founded in 1915 by l First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was
Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya. held on 9th December, 1946.
l Arranged the Shimla Conference on 25th June,
Lord Chelmsford (1916-21 AD)
1945 with Indian National Congress and Muslim
l Gandhi returned to India (1915) and founded the League but failed.
 18 (137) G.K.—3-II

Lord Mountbatten (March to Aug, 1947) Swadeshi Movement (1905)

l Last viceroy of British India and the first l The Swadeshi Movement involved programmes
Governor-General of free India. like the boycott of government service, courts,
l Partition of India decided by the 3rd June Plan schools and colleges and of foreign goods. It was
or Mountbatten Plan. both a political and economic movement.
l Lal, Bal, Pal and Aurobindo Ghosh played an
NATIONAL MOVEMENT important role.
(1885-1947) Muslim League (1906)
INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS (1885) l In December 1906, Muslim delegates from all
l Allan Octavian Hume, a retired civil servant in over India met at Dacca for the Muslim
the British Government took the initiative to Educational Conference.
form an all-India organization. Thus, the Indian l Taking advantage of this occasion, Nawab
National Congress was founded and its first Salimullah of Dacca proposed the setting up of
session was held at Bombay in 1885. W.C. an organisation to look after the Muslim interests.
Banerjee was its first president. It was attended The proposal was accepted.
by 72 delegates from all over India. l The All-India Muslim League was finally set up
l The second session was held in Calcutta in 1886 on December 30, 1906.
and the third in Madras in 1887.
Minto Morley Reforms (1909)
l Between 1885 and 1905, the Congress leaders
were moderates. The Moderates had faith in the l Minto, the Viceroy and Morley, the Secretary of
State for India jointly proposed reforms to the
British justice and goodwill. They were called
Indian Councils. An Act, called the Indian
moderates because they adopted peaceful and
Councils Act or the Minto-Morley Reforms Act
constitutional means to achieve their demands.
was passed in 1909.
l In 1905, Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the
l A separate communal electorate was introduced
Servants of India Society to train Indians to
for the Muslims.
dedicate their lives to the cause of the country.
The Lucknow Pact (1916)
Partition of Bengal (1905)
l During the 1916 Congress session at Lucknow
l By Lord Curzon on 16th October, 1905 through
two major events occurred. The divided Congress
a royal proclamation, reducing the old province
became united. An understanding for joint action
of Bengal in size by creating East Bengal and
against the British was reached between the
Assam out of the rest of Bengal.
Congress and the Muslim League and it was
l The partition of Bengal in 1905 provided a spark called the Lucknow Pact.
for the rise of extremism in the Indian National
l The signing of the Lucknow Pact by the Congress
Movement.
and the Muslim League in 1916 marked an
l Curzon’s real motives behind this partition were: important step in the Hindu-Muslim unity.
p To break the growing strength of Bengali
nationalism since Bengal was the base of Indian The Home Rule Movement (1916)
nationalism. l Two Home Rule Leagues were established, one
p To divide the Hindus and Muslims in by B.G. Tilak at Poona in April 1916 and the
Bengal. other by Mrs. Annie Besant at Madras in
p To show the enormous power of the British
September 1916.
Government in doing whatever it liked. l While Tilak’s Movement concentrated on
 19

Maharashtra, Annie Besant’s Movement covered Non-Co-operation Movement (1920-22)

the rest of the country. l Mahatma Gandhi announced his plan to begin
August Declaration Non-Cooperation with the government as a sequel
to the Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh massacre
l On 20 August, 1917, Montague, the Secretary of
and the Khilafat Movement. It was approved by
State in England, promised the gradual
the Indian National Congress at the Nagpur
development of self-governing institutions in
session in December, 1920.
India.
l The Congress observed the Non-Co-operation
l This August Declaration led to the end of the
movement in 1920. The main aim of this
Home Rule Movement.
movement was to attain Swaraj through non-
Rowlatt Act (1919) violent and peaceful means.
l In 1917, a committee was set up under the l The whole movement was abruptly called off on
presidentship of Sir Sydney Rowlatt to look into 11th February, 1922 by Gandhi following the
the militant Nationalist activities. On the basis Chauri-Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district
of its report the Rowlatt Act was passed in March of U.P. Many top leaders of the country were
1919 by the Central Legislative Council. As per stunned at this sudden suspension of the Non-
this Act, any person could be arrested on the Co-operation Movement.
basis of suspicion. No appeal or petition could l On 5th February an angry mob set fire to the
be filed against such arrests. police station at Chauri-Chaura and twenty two
l This Act was called the Black Act and it was police men were burnt to death.
widely opposed. An all-India hartal was organized
on 6 April, 1919. Swaraj Party
l Leaders like Motilal Nehru and Chittranjan Das
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
formed a separate group within the Congress
(13 April, 1919)
known as the Swaraj Party on 1 January, 1923.
l On 13th April, the Baisakhi day (harvest festival), l The Swarajists wanted to contest the council
a public meeting was organized at the Jallianwala elections and wreck the government from within.
Bagh (garden). Gen. Dyer marched in and without
any warning opened fire on the crowd. The firing Simon Commission (1927)
continued for about 10 to 15 minutes and it l The Act of 1919 included a provision for its
stopped only after the ammunition exhausted. review after a lapse of ten years. However, the
l According to official report 379 people were review commission under the chairmanship of
killed and 1137 wounded in the incident. There Sir John Simon was appointed by the British
was a nationwide protest against this massacre Government two years earlier of its schedule in
and Rabindranath Tagore renounced his 1927.
knighthood as a protest.
l Indian leaders opposed the commission, as there
Khilafat Movement (1920) were no Indians in it, they cried Simon Go Back.
l The chief cause of the Khilafat Movement was l The government used brutal repression and at
the defeat of Turkey in the First World War. Lahore, Lala Lajpat Rai was severely beaten in
l The Muslims in India were upset over the British lathi-charge.
attitude against Turkey and launched the Nehru Report (1928)
Khilafat Movement.
l The Secretary of State, Lord Birkenhead,
l Ali brothers, Mohd Ali and Shaukat Ali started
challenged the Indians to produce a Constitution
this movement. It was jointly led by the Khilafat
that would be acceptable to all. The challenge
leaders and the Congress.
 20

was accepted by the Congress, which convened l In January 1932, the Civil-Disobedience
an all party meeting on 28 February, 1928. Movement was resumed.
l A committee consisting of eight was constituted Poona Pact (1932)
to draw up a blueprint for the future Constitution
of India. It was headed by Motilal Nehru. The l The idea of separate electorate for the depressed
Report published by this Committee came to be classes was abandoned, but seats reserved for
known as the Nehru Report. them in the provincial legislature were increased.
l Thus, Poona Pact agreed upon a joint electorate
Lahore Session (1929) for upper and lower castes.
l On Dec. 19, 1929, under the Presidentship of J.L.
Demand for Pakistan
Nehru, the INC, as its Lahore session, declared
Poorna Swaraj (Complete Independence) as its l Chaudhary Rehmat Ali gave the term Pakistan
ultimate goal. in 1933.
l On Dec. 31, 1929, the newly adopted tricolour l In March 1940, the Muslim League demanded
flag was unfurled and Jan. 26, 1930 was fixed as the creation of Pakistan.
the First Independence Day, which was to be
Cripps Mission (1942)
celebrated every year.
l The British Government in its effort to secure
Dandi March (1930) Indian co-operation in the Second World War
l On 12th March, 1930, Gandhi began his famous sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India on 23 March,
March to Dandi with his chosen 79 followers to 1942. This is known as Cripps Mission.
break the salt laws. He reached the coast of Dandi l The main recommendations of Cripps was the
on 5 April, 1930 after marching a distance of promise of Dominion Status to India.
200 miles and on 6 April formally launched the l Congress rejected it. Gandhi called Cripp’s
Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking the proposals as a “Post-dated Cheque”.
salt laws.
Quit India Movement (1942-1944)
Civil Disobedience Movement
l The All India Congress Committee met at
l Countrywide mass participation by women. Bombay on 8th August, 1942 and passed the
l The Garhwal soldiers refused to fire on the people famous Quit India Resolution. On the same day,
at Peshawar. Gandhi gave his call of ‘do or die’.
Round Table Conference l On 8th and 9th August, 1942, the government
arrested all the prominent leaders of the Congress.
l The first Round Table Conference was held in Mahatma Gandhi was kept in prison at Poona.
November 1930 at London and it was boycotted Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Abul Kalam Azad, and
by the Congress. other leaders were imprisoned in the
l On 8th March, 1931 the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was Ahamednagar Fort.
signed. As per this pact, Mahatma Gandhi agreed l Quit India Movement was the final attempt for
to suspend the Civil-Disobedience Movement country’s freedom.
and participate in the Second-Round Table
Conference. Indian National Army (INA)
l In September 1931, the Second Round Table l On July 2, 1943, Subhash Chandra Bose reached
Conference was held at London. Mahatma Gandhi Singapore and gave the rousing war cry of ‘Dilli
participated in the Conference but returned to Chalo’. He was made the President of Indian
India disappointed. Independence League and soon became the
 21

supreme commander of the Indian National Army. power to responsible Indian hands by a date not
He gave the country the slogan of Jai Hind. later than June 1948.
l INA had three fighting brigades named after l Lord Mountbatten armed with vast powers
Gandhi, Azad and Nehru. Rani of Jhansi Brigade became India’s Viceroy on 24 March, 1947. The
was an exclusive women force. INA headquarters partition of India and the creation of Pakistan
were at Rangoon and Singapore. appeared inevitable to him.
l After extensive consultation Lord Mountbatten
Cabinet Mission (1946)
put forth the plan of partition of India on 3 June,
l The Cabinet Mission put forward a plan for 1947. The Congress and the Muslim League
solution of the constitutional problem. A proposal ultimately approved the Mountbatten Plan.
was envisaged for setting up an Interim
Government, which would remain in office till a Indian Independence Act, 1947
new government was elected on the basis of the l The salient features of this Act was the partition
new Constitution framed by the Constituent of the country into India and Pakistan would
Assembly. come into effect from 15 August, 1947.
l Elections were held in July 1946 for the l On 15th August, 1947 India, and on the 14th
formation of a Constituent Assembly. August Pakistan came into existence as two
l Muslim league observed the Direct Action Day independent states.
on 16 August, 1946. l Lord Mountbatten was made the first Governor
l An Interim Government was formed under the General of Independent India, whereas
leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 September, Mohammad Ali Jinnah became the first Governor
1946. General of Pakistan.
l C. Rajagopalachari became the first and last
Mountbatten Plan (1947) Indian Governor-General of India. When India
l On 20 February 1947, Prime Minister Atlee became a Republic on 26 January, 1950 Dr.
announced in the House of Commons the definite Rajendra Prasad became the first President of our
intention of the British Government to transfer country.
Socio-Religious Movements and Organisation
Name of the Organisation Founder Year Place
Atmiya Sabha Ram Mohan Roy 1815 Calcutta
Brahmo Samaj Ram Mohan Roy 1828 Calcutta
Dharma Sabha Radhakanta Dev 1829 Calcutta
Tattvabodhini Sabha Debendranath Tagore 1839 Calcutta
Nirankaris Dayal Das, Darbara Singh, Rattan Chand etc. 1840 Punjab
Manav Dharma Sabha Durgaram Manchharam 1844 Surat
Paramhansa Mandli Dadoba Pandurung 1849 Bombay
Namdharis Ram Singh 1857 Punjab
Radha Swami Satsang Tulsi Ram 1861 Agra
Brahmo Samaj of India Keshab Chandra Sen 1866 Calcutta
Dar-ul-Ulum Maulana Hussain Ahmed 1866 Deoband
Prarthna Samaj Atmaram Pandurung 1867 Bombay
Arya Samaj Swami Dayanand Saraswati 1875 Bombay
Theosophical Society Madam H.P. Blavatsky and Col. H.S. Olcott 1875 New York (USA)
Sadharan Brahmo Samaj Anand Mohan Bose 1878 Calcutta
 22

Deccan Education Society G.G. Agarkar 1884 Pune (Poona)

Muhammadan Educational Conference Syed Ahmad Khan 1886 Aligarh
Indian National Conference M.G. Ranade 1887 Bombay
Deva Samaj Shivnarayan Agnihotri 1887 Lahore
Nadwah-ul-Ulama Maulana Shibli Numani 1894 Lucknow
Ramakrishna Mission Swami Vivekananda 1897 Belur
Servents of Indian Society Gopal Krishna Gokhale 1905 Bombay
Poona Seva Sadan Mrs. Ramabai Ranade and G.K. Devadhar 1909 Pune (Poona)
Social Service League N.M. Joshi 1911 Bombay
Seva Samiti H.N. Kunzru 1914 Allahabad

Newspapers and Journals l What Congress and Gandhi have done to the
untouchables—Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
l Bengal Gazette (1780) (India’s first
newspaper)—James Augustus Hikky Important Sayings
l Kesari—B.G. Tilak l ‘Back to Vedas’—Dayanand Saraswati
l Maratha—B.G. Tilak l ‘Dilli Chalo!’—Subhash Chandra Bose’s battle
l Sudharak—G.K. Gokhale cry of Azad Hind Fauj
l Amrit Bazar Patrika—Shishir Kumar Ghosh and l ‘Do or Die’—Mahatma Gandhi (while launching
Motilal Ghosh Quit India movement in 1942)
l Yugantar—Bhupendranath Datta and Birender l ‘Give me blood and I will give you freedom’—
Kumar Ghosh Subhash Chandra Bose (in his address to
l Bombay Chronicle—Firoze Shah Mehta soldiers of Azad Hind Fauj)
l New India (Daily)—Annie Besant l ‘My ultimate aim is to wipe every tear from
every eye’—Jawaharlal Nehru
Books and Authors
l ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I will have it’—Bal
l Causes of the Indian Mutiny—Sir Syed Ahmed Gangadhar Tilak
Khan l ‘Inqualab Zindabad’—Bhagat Singh
l Ghulam Giri—Jyotiba Phule l ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’—Lal Bahadur Shastri
l Anandmath—Bankim Chand Chatterjee l ‘Sarfaroshi ki tamanna Ab Hamare Dil mein
l Satyarth Prakash—Swami Dayanand Hai’—Ram Prasad Bismill
l Unhappy India—Lala Lajpat Rai l ‘Saare Jahan Se Achcha, Hindustan
l India Divided—Dr. Rajendra Prasad Hamara’—Dr. Mohammed Iqbal
l The Discovery of India—J.L. Nehru l ‘Hindi, Hindu, Hindustan’—Bhartendu
l Neel Darpan—Dinbandhu Mitra Harishchandra
l Hind Swaraj—M.K. Gandhi l ‘Vande Mataram’—Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

p p p
 23

GEOGRAPHY
WORLD GEOGRAPHY
THE UNIVERSE l The sun is an ultimate source of energy for life
on Earth.
l Existing matter and energy are together known l Sunlight takes 8 min 16.6 sec to reach earth.
as Universe.
GALAXY Facts about Sun
l A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars and Diameter — 1.392 × 10 6 km
clouds of dust and gases. Volume — 1.304 × 106 times the volume
l Our solar system is a part of Milky Way galaxy. of earth
l There are millions of galaxies that make the Temperature — 6000°C at surface and 15 million
Universe. degree C at the centre
STARS Relative density — 1.4
l Stars account for 98 per cent of the matter in a Gravitational Pull — 28 times the gravitational pull of
galaxy. The stars nearest to the earth are Proxima the earth
Centauri, Alpha Centauri, Barnard's Star, Sirius
and so on. Of these, Sirius is the brightest. Facts about Planets
Closest to Sun Mercury
LIGHT YEAR Farthest from Sun Neptune
l Light year is the distance travelled by light in Heaviest Jupiter
one year at a speed of 2,99,792.5 km. per second. Hottest Venus
SOLAR SYSTEM Inner Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
l The Sun, eight planets, satellites and some other Largest Jupiter
celestial bodies known as asteroids and Smallest Mercury
meteoroids form the solar system. Moons, None Mercury, Venus
Moon; Largest Ganymede (Jupiter), larger than
Mercury
Nearest to Earth Venus
Mercury
Earth
Asteroids Moon Orbits; Order Mercury (closest to Sun), Venus,
Saturn Sun
Neptune
Uranus
Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn,
Jupiter
Mars
Uranus, Neptune.
Rings/largest number Saturn
Spin; Backwards Venus (East to West)
SUN COMETS
l The Sun is in the centre of the solar system. l It has a head and a tail. Its tail originates only
l The Sun is a mixture of gases. It consists of 92% when it gets closer to the sun. The tail can be 20-
hydrogen, 7.8% helium and 0.2% other gases. 30 million km long. It always point away from
l The Sun is about 150 million km away from the the sun because of the force exerted by solar
earth. wind and radiation on the cometory material.
23
 24

THE EARTH l 23½°N represents Tropic of Cancer while 23½°S

l The earth is the third nearest planet to the Sun. represents Tropic of Capricorn.
l From the outer space, the earth appears blue
LONGITUDE
because its two-thirds surface is covered by water.
It is, therefore, called a blue planet. l It is the angular distance measured from the centre
of the earth. On the globe the lines of longitude
l It is the densest of all planets. are drawn as a series of semicircles that extend
l Rotation is the movement of the earth on its from the North Pole to the South Pole through
axis. Due to this rotation, day and night occur. the equator. They are also called meridians.
l The earth takes about 23 hours 56 minutes and l The distance between any two meridians is not
4 seconds to complete one rotation around its axis. equal. At the equator, 1 degree = 111 km. At
l Earth takes 365¼ days (one year) to revolve 30°N or S, it is 96.5 km. It goes on decreasing
around the sun. this way until it is zero at the poles.
THE EARTH: FACTS AND FIGURES INTERNATIONAL DATE LINE
l Mass of Earth—5.972 × 1021 tonnes l It is the 180° meridian running over the Pacific
l Density of Earth—5.517 times that of water Ocean, deviating at Aleutian Islands, Fiji, Samoa
l Volume of Earth—1.083 × 1011 cubic km and Gilbert Islands.
l Equatorial circumference—4.007 × 104 km l Travellers crossing the Date Line from west to
l Polar Diameter—12,714 km east repeat a day and travellers crossing it from
l Equatorial Diameter—12756 km east to west lose a day.
l Polar or Meridional circumference—4.0 × 104 km INDIAN STANDARD TIME (IST)
l Estimated Age—At least 4600 million years l Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis
l Land Surface—148,951,000 sq km of 82.5°E longitude which passes through Uttar
l Water Surface—361,150,000 sq km (71 per cent Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chattisgarh
of total area) and Andhra Pradesh.
l Highest Point of the land surface—Mt. Everest
(8,848 metres) ECLIPSES
l Lowest point of the land surface—Shores of the l Sun is the only source of light for both the Earth
Dead Sea (396 metres below the sea level) and Moon. Eclipses occur when the light thus
l Greatest Ocean depth—Mariana Trench, East of received is either blocked by the earth or by the
Philippines (11,033 metres below the sea level) Moon.
THE MOON l Eclipses occur when either the Earth moves
l Earth has only one satellite, that is, the moon. behind the Moon’s shadow or the Moon moves
behind the Earth’s shadow.
l Its diameter is only one-quarter that of the earth.
It is about 3,84,400 km away from us. LUNAR ECLIPSE
l The moon moves around the earth in about 27 l Lunar eclipse occur only when the following
days. It takes exactly the same time to complete conditions are met.
one spin. As a result, only one side of the moon 1. The Sun, Earth and Moon must be aligned in
(only 59% of its surface) is visible to us on the earth. a straight line.
l Moonlight takes 1.3 sec. to reach earth. 2. The Earth must be positioned between the
Sun and the Moon.
LATITUDE 3. The Moon must be in its full phase (Full Moon).
l Imaginary lines drawn parallel to the equator. SOLAR ECLIPSE
Measured as an angle whose apex is at the centre l Solar eclipses occur only when the following
of the earth. conditions are met.
l The equator represents 0° latitude, while the 1. The Sun, Earth and Moon must be aligned in
North Pole is 90°N and the South Pole 90°S. a straight line.
 25 (137) G.K.—4

2. The Moon must be positioned between the l Extinct Not erupted for several centuries, e.g.,
Sun and the Earth. Arthur's Seat, Edinburgh, Scotland.
3. Must be a New Moon day.
EARTHQUAKES
ROCKS l Earthquakes are a form of wave energy that is
l Rocks are composed of many minerals such as transferred through bedrock. It is transmitted from
silica, aluminium, iron and magnesium. The the point of the earthquake focus, as spherical
nature of the rock is determined by the presence seismic waves. They travel in all directions outward.
of its minerals.
l The intensity of earthquake waves is recorded by
l Rocks can be classified into three types: Seismograph.
1. Igneous rocks are formed by magma that
reaches the earth’s surface along deep cracks LANDFORMS
and at volcanic vents. e.g., Mica, Granite etc.
2. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the l There are three major landforms: mountains,
accumulation and cementation of mud, silt, or plateaus and plains.
sand derived from weathered igneous rock frag-
ments. e.g., Gravel, Peat, Gypsum etc. MOUNTAINS
3. Metamorphic rocks are igneous or sedimentary l A mountain can be defined as an area of land
rocks that have been altered by heat and/or that rises abruptly from the surrounding region.
pressure, either because they have been buried l There are three types of mountains- Fold
and folded deep in the crust, or because they Mountains, Block Mountains and the Volcanic
have come into contact with molten igneous
Mountains.
rock, e.g., Gneiss, Marble, Quartzite etc.
l Himalayas, Alps, Andes, Rockies, Atlas, etc are
VOLCANOES
examples of Fold Mountains.
Sudden eruption of hot magma (molten rock), gases,
ash and other material from inside the Earth to its l The Aravali range in India is one of the oldest
surface. fold mountain systems in the world.
l Active which erupts frequently, e.g., Mauna Loa l The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in
(Hawaii), Etna (Sicily), Vesuvius (Italy), Stromboli Europe are examples of such mountain systems.
(Mediterranean Sea). l Volcanic mountains are formed due to volcanic
l Dormant Not erupted for quite sometime, e.g., activity.
Fujiyama (Japan), Krakatoa (Indonesia), Barren l Mt. Kilimanjaro in Africa and Mt. Fujiyama in
Island (Andamans). Japan are examples of such mountains.

Major Mountain Ranges of the World

Range Location Highest Peak (m) Length (km)
Andes South America 6,960 7,200
Himalayas-Karakoram-Hindukush South Central Asia 8,848 4,800
Rockies North America 4,401 4,800
Great Dividing Range East Australia 2,228 3,600
Western Ghat Western India 2,637 1,610
Caucasus Europe 5,642 1,200
Alaska USA 6,194 1,130
Alps Europe 4,808 1,050
Apennines Europe 2,912 —
Ural Asia 1,895 —
Atlas North West Africa — 1,930
 26

PLATEAUS PLAINS
l A plateau is an elevated flat land. It is a flat- l A relatively low-lying and flat land surface with
topped table land standing above the surrounding least difference between its highest and lowest
area. points is called a Plain.
Principal Mountain Peaks of the World
OCEANS
Mountains Height in Metres
l Oceans of the world is classified into four groups:
1. Mount Everest 8,848 the Pacific, the Atlantic, the Arctic and the Indian.
2. K-2 (Godwin Austen) 8,611
l The Pacific is the largest ocean, being twice the
3. Kanchenjunga 8,597
4. Lhotse 8,511
size of the Atlantic. It covers about a third of the
5. Makalu I 8,481 Earth’s surface, and contains more than half the
6. Dhaulagiri I 8,167 water on the planet.
7. Mansalu I 8,156 Oceans of the World
8. Chollyo 8,153
9. Nanga Parbat 8,124 Names Area (Sq. Km.) Greatest Depth
10. Annapurna I 8,091 Pacific 166,240000 Mariana Trench
11. Gasherbrum I 8,068
Atlantic 86,560000 Puerto Rico
12. Broad Peak I 8,047
Trench
13. Gasherbrum II 8,034
14. Shisha Pangma (Gosainthan) 8,014 Indian 73430000 Java Trench
15. Gasherbrum III 7,952 Arctic 13230000 —

Major Rivers of the World

River Origin Falls in Length (Km.)
Nile Victoria lake Mediterranean Sea 6,650
Amazon Andes (Peru) Atlantic Ocean 6,428
Yangtze Tibetan Kiang Plateau China Sea 6,300
Mississippi Missouri Itaska lake (USA) Gulf of Mexico (USA) 6,275
Yenisei Tannu-Ola Mts. Arctic Ocean 5,539
Hoang Ho Kunlun Mts. Gulf of Chibli 5,464
Ob Altai Mts., Russia Gulf of Ob 5,410
Congo Lualaba & Luapula rivers Atlantic Ocean 4,700
Amur Northeast China Sea of Okhotsk 4,444
Lena Baikal Mts Laptev Sea 4,400
Mekong Tibetan Highlands South China Sea 4,350
Mackenzie Great Slave Lake Beaufort Sea 4,241
Niger Guinea Gulf of Guinea 4,200

Major Gulfs of the World

Names Area (Sq. Km.) Names Areas (Sq. Km.)
Gulf of Mexico 15,44,000 Gulf of St. Lawrence 2,37,000
Gulf of Hudson 12,33,000 Gulf of California 1,62,000
Arabian Gulf 2,38,000 English Channel 89,900
 27

Important Straits of the World

Straits Water Bodies joined Area
Bab-al-Mandeb Red Sea & Arabian Sea Arabia & Africa
Bering Arctic Ocean & Bering Sea Alaska & Asia
Bosphorus Black Sea & Marmara Sea Turkey
Dover North Sea & Atlantic Ocean England & Europe
Florida Gulf of Mexico & Atlantic Ocean Florida & Bahamas Islands
Gibralter Mediterranean Sea & Atlantic Ocean Spain & Africa
Malacca Java Sea & Bay of Bengal India & Indonesia
Palk Bay of Bengal & Indian Ocean India & Sri Lanka
Magellan South Pacific & South Atlantic Ocean Chile
Sunda Java Sea & Indian Ocean Indonesia

Important Lakes of the World Important Cities on River Banks (World)

Lake Location Area City Country River
(Sq. Km.)
Adelaide Australia Torrens
Caspian Russia and CIS 371000 Amsterdam Netherlands Amsel
Superior Canada and USA 82414 Alexandria Egypt Nile
Victoria Tanzania (Africa) 69485
Ankara Turkey Kazil
Huron Canada and USA 59596
Bangkok Thailand Chao Praya
Michigan USA 58016
Basra Iraq Eupharates and
Tanganyika Africa 32892
Tigris
Baikal Russia (CIS) 31502
Baghdad Iraq Tigris
Great Bear Canada 31080
Malawi Malawi (Tanzania) 30044 Berlin Germany Spree
Great Slave Canada 28438 Bonn Germany Rhine
Budapest Hungary Danube
Highest Waterfalls of the World Bristol UK Avon
Buenos Aires Argentina Laplata
Name(s) (Foreign) Location
Chittagong Bangladesh Majyani
Angel (Salto Angel) Canaima Nat’l Park, Venezuela
Canton China Si-Kiang
Tugela Natal Nat’l Park, South Africa
Cairo Egypt Nile
Utigord (Utigordsfoss) Norway
Chung King China Yang-tse-kiang
Monge (Mongefoss) Marstein, Norway
Cologne Germany Rhine
Gocta Cataracts Chachapoyas, Peru
Dandzing Germany Vistula
Mutarazi (Mtarazi) Nyanga Nat’l Park,
Dresden Germany Elbe
Zimbabwe
Dublin Ireland Liffy
Yosemite Yosemite Nat’l Park,
Hamburg Germany Elbe
California, U.S.
Kabul Afghanistan Kabul
Espelands Hardanger Fjord,
Karachi Pakistan Indus
(Espelandsfoss) Norway
Khortoum Sudan Confluence of
Lower Mar Valley Eikesdal, Norway
Blue & White Nile
(Ostra Mardolafoss)
Lahore Pakistan Ravi
Tyssestrengene Odda, Norway
Leningrad Russia Neva
 28

Gate of Tears—Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb

City Country River
Gift of the Nile—Egypt
Lisbon Portugal Tagus
Granite City—Aberdeen (Scotland)
Liverpool England Messey
Hermit Kingdom—Korea
London England Thames
Herring Pond—Atlantic Ocean
Moscow Russia Moskva Holy Land—Jerusalem
Montreal Canada St. Lawrence Island Continent—Australia
Nanking China Yang-tse-kiang Islands of Cloves—Zanzibar
New Orleans U.S.A. Mississipi Isle of Pearls—Bahrein (Persian Gulf)
New York U.S.A. Hudson Key to the Mediterranean—Gibralter
Ottawa Canada Ottawa Land of Cakes—Scotland
Paris France Seine Land of Golden Fleece—Australia
Philadelphia U.S.A Delaware Land of Maple Leaf—Canada
Perth Australia Swan Land of Morning Calm—Korea
Prague Czech Republic Vitava Land of Midnight Sun—Norway
Quebec Canada St. Lawrence Land of the Thousand Lakes—Finland
Rome Italy Tiber Land of the Thunderbolt—Bhutan
Rotterdam The Netherlands New Moss Land of White Elephant—Thailand
Stalingrad Russia Volga Land of Thousand Elephants—Laos
Shanghai China Yang-tse-kiang Land of Rising Sun—Japan
Sidney Australia Darling Loneliest Island—Tristan De Gunha (Mid-Atlantic)
Saint Louis U.S.A Mississippi Manchester of Japan—Osaka
Tokyo Japan Arakava Pillars of Hercules—Strait of Gibraltar
Vienna Austria Danube Pearl of the Antilles—Cuba
Warsaw Poland Vistula Playground of Europe—Switzerland
Washington D.C. U.S.A. Potomac Quaker City—Philadelphia
Yangoon Myanmar Irawaddy Queen of the Adriatic—Venice
Roof of the World—The Pamirs, Central Asia
World’s Geographical Surnames Sugar bowl of the world—Cuba
City of Sky-scrapers—New York Venice of the North—Stockholm
City of Seven Hills—Rome Windy City—Chicago
City of Dreaming Spires—Oxford Whiteman’s grave—Guinea Coast of Africa
Yellow River—Huang Ho (China)
City of Golden Gate—San Francisco
Sickman of Europe—Turkey
City of Magnificent Buildings—Washington D.C.
City of Eternal Springs—Quito (S. America) Important Boundaries
China’s Sorrow—Hwang Ho Durand Line Pakistan & Afghanistan
Cockpit of Europe—Belgium MacMohan Line India & China
Dark Continent—Africa Radcliff Line India & Pakistan
Maginot Line France & Germany
Emerald Isle—Ireland
Oder Niesse Line Germany & Poland
Eternal City—Rome
Hindenberg Line Poland & Germany (at the time
Empire City—New York of First World War)
Forbidden City—Lhasa (Tibet) 38th Parallel North & South Korea
Garden City—Chicago 49th Parallel USA & Canada
 29

Continents: Some Facts

Continent Biggest Counrty Highest Peak Longest River
Asia China Mt. Everest (8848 m) Yangtze Kiang
Africa Algeria Mt. Kilimanjaro (5895 m) Nile
North America Canada Mt. Mckinley (6194 m) Mississippi Missouri
South America Brazil Mt. Acancagua (6960 m) Amazon
Europe Russia Mt. Elbrus (5642 m) Ob
Australia Australia Mt. Coscuisco (2228 m) Darling
Antarctica — Vinson Massif (5140 m) —

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
There are 28 States (After reorganisation of J&K
AREA AND LOCATION
l

in 2019) and 8 Union Territories (After merger of

l India is in the southern parts of the Asian Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu in 2020).
continent. In the west of India lies the Arabian l 82°30' E longitude is considered as the Indian
Peninsula while in the east lies the Indo-China Standard Meridian. The local time of this
Peninsula. longitude is taken as the Indian Standard Time
l India extends between 8°4' N and 37°6' N (IST). This is 5½ hours ahead of the Greenwich
latitudes and between 68°7' E and 97°2' E Mean Time.
longitudes. THE INDIAN STATES ON INTERNATIONAL
l India, has a total geographic area of 32,87,263 BOUNDARIES ARE:
sq. km. This is only 2.42 % of the total geographic l Bordering Pakistan: Jammu and Kashmir,
area of the world but holds 17 per cent of the Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat.
world’s population. l Bordering China: Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh,
l The 23½ºN, which is the Tropic of Cancer, runs Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh.
across the country. l Bordering Nepal: Bihar, Uttarakhand, UP,
l India has a length of 3214 km from north to Sikkim, West Bengal.
south and 2933 km from east to west. It has a l Bordering Bangladesh: West Bengal, Mizoram,
land frontier of 15200 km. Meghalaya, Tripura, Assam.
l The total length of the coastline of the mainland, l Bordering Bhutan: West Bengal, Sikkim,
Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Arunachal Pradesh, Assam.
Islands is 7,516.6 km. l Bordering Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh,
l India ranks seventh among the countries of the Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram.
world, in terms of the geographical extent. l Bordering Afghanistan: Jammu and Kashmir
l India is bordered on three sides by water and on (Pakistan-occupied area).
one by land, it is also a peninsula. Important Passes
l India shares its common border with Afghanistan Kashmir Burzi-La, Joji-La
and Pakistan in the north-west, China and Bhutan Himachal Pradesh Bara La, Cha-La, Shipki-La
in the north, and Bangladesh in the east. In the Uttarakhand Niti-La, Lipu-Lekh-La
south, Sri Lanka is separated from India by a Sikkim Jelep-La, Nathu-La
strait, known as the Palk Strait. Arunachal Pradesh Bomdi-La
 30

Heighest Mountain Peaks of India Lucknow Gomti

Ludhiana Sutlej
Peaks Elevation• (in mts.) Nasik Godavari
Godwin Austin (K2) 8611 Pandharpur Bhima
Kanchenjunga 8598* Patna The Ganges
Nanga Parvat 8126* Sambalpur Mahanadi
Gasherbrum 8068* Srinagar Jhelum
Broad Peak 8047* Srirangapattam Cauveri
Dastegil 7885* Surat Tapti
Masherbrum (East) 7821* Varanasi The Ganges
Nanda Devi 7817 Vijaywada Krishna
Masherbrum (West) 7806*
Waterfalls of India
Rakoposhi 7788*
Kamet 7756 Waterfall Hgt (Mt.) River State
Saser Kangdi 7672 Jog/Gersoppa 260 Sharavati Karnataka
• Above mean sea level in metres. Rakim Kund 168 Gaighat Bihar
* Situated in Pak occupied Kashmir (PoK). Chachai 127 Bihad Madhya
Towns at River Banks Pradesh
Kevti 98 Mahanadi Madhya
Town River Pradesh
Agra Yamuna Sivasamudram 90 Cauveri Karnataka
Prayagraj Confluence of the Kunchikal 45.5 Varani Karnataka
Ganges and the Yamuna
Ayodhya Saryu Important Lakes of India
Badrinath The Ganges
Name of lake State
Kolkata Hooghly
Pulicat Lake Tamil Nadu & Andhra
Cuttuck Mahanadi
Pradesh Border
Delhi Yamuna
Sambhar Lake Rajasthan
Dibrugarh Brahmaputra
Tso Moriri Lake Jammu & Kashmir
Ferozepur Satluj
Vembanad Lake Kerala
Guwahati Brahmaputra
Wular & Dal Lakes Jammu and Kashmir
Hardwar The Ganges
Chilka Lake Odisha
Hyderabad Musi
Kolleru Lake Andhra Pradesh
Jabalpur Narmada
Loktak Lake Manipur
Kanpur The Ganges
Lonar Lake Maharashtra
Kota Chambal
Pangong Lake Jammu and Kashmir
Kurnool Tungbhadra

Rivers of India
Name Originates From Falls Into
Yamuna Yamunotri Ganga
Chambal Singar Chouri Peak, Vindhyan escarpment Yamuna
Ghaghara Matsatung Glacier Ganga
 31

Name Originates From Falls Into

Kosi Near Gosain Dham Peak Ganga
Sabarmati Aravalis Gulf of Khambat
Krishna Western Ghats Bay of Bengal
Godavari Nasik district in Maharashtra Bay of Bengal
Caurey Brahmagir Range of Western Ghats Bay of Bengal
Tungabharda Western Ghats Krishna
Ganges Combines Sources Bay of Bengal
Sutlej Mansarovar Rakas lakes Chenab
Indus Near Mansarovar Lake Arabian Sea
Ravi Kullu Hills near Rohtang Pass Chenab
Beas Near Rohtang Pass Sutlej
Jhelum Verinag in Kashmir Chenab
Son Amarkantak Ganga
Brahmaputra Near Mansarovar Lake Bay of Bengal
Narmada Amarkantak Gulf of Khambat
Tapti Betul District in Madhya Pradesh Gulf of Khambat
Mahanadi Raipur District in Chhattisgarh Bay of Bengal
Luni Aravallis Rann of Kuchchh
Ghaggar Himalayas Near Fatehabad
Betwa Vindhyanchal Yamuna

Geographical Surnames
Bengal’s Sorrow Damodar River City of Lakes Srinagar
City of Palaces Kolkata Twin City Hyderabad-
Gateway of India Mumbai Secunderabad
City of Seven Islands Mumbai
Pink City Jaipur
Diamond Harbour Kolkata
Paris of India Jaipur
Switzerland of India Kashmir
Manchester of India Ahmedabad
Rice Bowl Chhattisgarh
Kashmir of South Kerala
Fruit Bowl Himachal Pradesh
Son of Sea Lakshadweep
Ganga of South Cauvery
Queen of Mountains Mussourie
Pitsburg of India Jamshedpur
Iron City Jamshedpur
City of Bridges Srinagar
Hollywood of India Mumbai
Residence of God Allahabad
Scotland of East Meghalaya A Cross-road (Quadrivial)
City of Nababs Lucknow of National Highways Kanpur
City of Temples & Ghats Varanasi Heart of India Delhi
Land of Five Rivers Punjab Black River Sharda
City of Golden Temple Amritsar City of Festivals Madurai
Garden of India Bangaluru Queen of Deccan Pune
Spice Garden of India Kerala Sorrow of Bihar Kosi River
 32

Some Major Irrigational and Multipurpose Projects

S.No. Name of Project Related State River
1. Bargi Project Madhya Pradesh Bargi
2. Beas Joint Venture of Haryana, Beas
Punjab and Rajasthan
3. Bhadra Karnakata Bhadra
4. Bhakra Nangal Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan Sutluj
5. Bhima I Maharashtra Pawana
6. Bhima II Maharashtra Krishna
7. Chambal Joint Project of M.P. and Rajasthan Chambal
8. Damodar Valley Project West Bengal and Bihar Damodar
9. Dulhasti Power Project Jammu and Kashmir Chenab
10. Farakka West Bengal Hooghly
11. Gandak Bihar and U.P. Gandak
12. Ghataprabha Karnataka Ghataprabha
13. Hasdeo Bango Project Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh Hasdeo
14. Hirakud Odisha Mahanadi
15. Jayakwadi Maharashtra Godavari
16. Kakrapara Gujarat Tapti
17. Kangsbati West Bengal Kangsbati and Kumari
18. Karjan Gujarat Karjan
19. Kosi Bihar Kosi
20. Koyana Maharashtra Koyana
21. Krishna Project Maharashtra Krishna
22. Kukadi Maharashtra Kukadi
23. Left Bank Ghagra Canal Uttar Pradesh Ghagra
24. Madhya Ganga Canal Uttar Pradesh Ganga
25. Mahanadi Delta Odisha (The irrigation scheme
Scheme will utilise releases from
Hirakund Reservoir)
26. Mahi Gujarat Mahi
27. Malaprabha Karnataka Malaprabha
28. Mayurakshi West Bengal Mayurakshi
29. Nagarjunasagar Andhra Pradesh Krishna
30. Panam Gujarat Panam
31. Parambikulam Aliyar Tamil Nadu and Kerala Perimbikulam
32. Pochampad Andhra Pradesh Godavari
33. Pong Dam Punjab Beas
34. Ramganga Uttarakhand Ramganga
35. Ranjit Sagar Dam (Thein Dam) Punjab Ravi
36. Rihand Uttar Pradesh Rihand
37. Sabarmati Gujarat Sabarmati
 33 (137) G.K.—5

S.No. Name of Project Related State River

38. Sharda Sahayak U.P. Ghagra
39. Sone High Level Canal Bihar Sone
40. Tawa Madhya Pradesh Tawa
41. Tehri Dam Uttarakhand Bhagirathi
42. Tungabhadra Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka Tungabhadra
43. Ukai Gujarat Tapti
44. Upper Krishna Karnataka Krishna
45. Upper Penganga Maharashtra Penganga
46. Uri Power Project Jammu and Kashmir Jhelum

Major Indian Crops

Crops Temp(°c) Water(cm) States where Produced
Wheat 15°-25° 60-90 Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana.
Rice 24°-26° 80-200 West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Punjab
Maize 18°-21° 50-60 Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra
Jowar 20°-35° 40-60 Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka
Soyabean 25°-27° 50-120 Madhya Pradesh
Cotton 20°-30° 80-150 Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
Tobacco 20°-25° 75-80 Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka,
Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
Tea 24°-30° 100-200 Assam, West Bengal, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh
Ground Nut 15°-25° 60-130 Gujarat, Maharashtra

Mineral Wealth at a Glance (Metallic Minerals)

Mineral Chief Producers
Bauxite Odisha, Gujarat, Jharkhand
Chromite Odisha, Karnataka
Coal Jharkhand, Odisha
Copper Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
Diaspore Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
Gold Karnataka
Iron Odisha, Karnataka, Goa
Lead Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh
Lignite Tamil Nadu, Jammu & Kashmir
Manganese Odisha, Karnataka
Natural Gas Gujarat, Assam
Petroleum Gujarat, Assam, Andhra Pradesh
Silver Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Gujarat
Tungsten Rajasthan
Zinc Rajasthan, Maharashtra
 34 (137) G.K.—5-II

Zones and Headquarters of Indian Railways Major Ports of Country

1. Kolkata
S.No. Zone Headquarters
2. Mumbai
1. Central Mumbai (Victoria 3. Nhava Sheva (J.L. Nehru Port)
Terminus)
4. Tuticorin
2. Eastern Kolkata
3. Northern New Delhi
5. Chennai
4. North-Eastern Gorakhpur 6. Mormugao
5. North-East Frontier Maligaon, Guwahati 7. New Mangalore
6. Southern Chennai 8. Paradeep
7. South-Central Secunderabad 9. Kandla
8. South-Eastern Kolkata
10. Vishakhapatnam
9. Western Mumbai, Churchgate
10. East Coast Bhubaneswar
11. Cochin
11. East Central Hajipur 12. Haldia
12. North Central Allahabad 13. Ennore.
13. North Western Jaipur
Major International Airports in India
14. South Western Bengaluru (Hubli)
15. West Central Jabalpur International Airports City
16. South East Central Bilaspur
Indira Gandhi Delhi
17. Metro Railway Kolkata International Airport
18. South Coast Railway Vishakhapatnam
Anna International Airport Chennai
Major National Highways Sri Guru Ram Das Jee Amritsar
International Airport
NH Connects Rajiv Gandhi Hyderabad
NH 1 New Delhi-Ambala-Jalandhar-Amritsar International Airport
Calicut International Airport Kozhikode
NH 2 Delhi-Mathura-Agra-Kanpur-Allahabad-
Varanasi-Kolkata Chhatrapati Shivaji Mumbai
International Airport
NH 3 Agra-Gwalior-Nasik-Mumbai
Kempegowda International Bengaluru
NH 4 Thane and Chennai via Pune and
Airport
Belgaum
Dabolim International Airport in Goa
NH 5 Kolkata-Chennai Vasco di Gama City
NH 6 Kolkata-Dhule Netaji Subash Chandra Kolkata
NH 7 Varanasi-Kanyakumari (2369 km) Bose International Airport
NH 8 Delhi-Mumbai (via Jaipur, Baroda and Trivendrum Thiruvanan-
Ahmedabad) International Airport thapuram
NH 9 Mumbai-Vijaywada Lokpriya Gopinath Guwahati
NH 10 Delhi-Fazilka Bordoloi International Airport
NH 24 Delhi-Lucknow Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Ahmedabad
NH 26 Lucknow-Varanasi International Airport

p p p
 35

INDIAN POLITY
INDIAN CONSTITUTION THE PREAMBLE
l Demand for a Constituent Assembly composed l The Preamble of the Constitution: “We the
of the people of India officially asserted by the people of India, having solemnly resolved to
Congress for the first time in 1935. Constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist,
l The election for Indian Constitution Assembly Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all
held in 1946 according to the Cabinet Mission its citizen:
Plan. Justice, Social, economic and political;
l The first session of the Assembly was held in Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and
New Delhi on December 9, 1946. Sachidanand worship;
Sinha was elected provisional chairman of the Equality of status and of opportunity; and to
session. promote among them all;
l On December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
elected as the Permanent Chairman of the and the unity and integrity of the nation;
Constituent Assembly. In our Constituent Assembly, this twenty-sixth
l The Constitution was framed by the Constituent day of November, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact
Assembly of India, set-up in December 1946, in and give to ourselves this constitution.”
accordance with the Cabinet Mission Plan, under
Foreign Sources of Indian Constitution
the Chairmanship of Sachidanand Sinha, initially.
l The total membership of Constituent Assembly Foreign Subject
after partition was 299, among them 70 were Sources
representatives from the Indian states and others Britain Parliamentary system, collective
from British India. responsibilities of Cabinet
l The Chairman of the Drafting Committee was America Fundamental right, Independent
Dr. BR Ambedkar, also called the Father of the Judiciary, Judicial review
Constitution. Canada Division of powers
l The Constituent Assembly took 2 years, 11 Ireland Directive principles
months and 18 days to complete the Constitution. Germany Emergency provisions
l The Constitution, adopted on 8th November, Russia Fundamental duties
1949, contained 395 Articles and Schedules. Australia Concurrent list
l The Constitution was delayed till 26th January
because, in 1929, on this day Indian National IMPORTANT ARTICLES
Congress demanded Poorna Swaraj in Lahore
PART - I
Session under JL Nehru.
l Indian Constitution is a comprehensive document UNION AND ITS TERRITORIES (ARTICLE 1 - 4)
and it is the lengthiest written Constitution in l The Constitution says, “India, that is Bharat,
the World. shall be a Union of States”.
35
 36

l Parliament has the power to create any State, beings and forced labour and the employment
reduce it, change the name of boundaries of any of children under 14 years in factories or
State. mines, are punishable offences.
PART - II 6. Rights to Constitutional Remedies: When a
citizen finds that any of his fundamental rights
CITIZENSHIP (ARTICLE 5 - 11)
has been encroached upon, he can move the
l The Constitution provides for a single Supreme Court, which has been empowered
Citizenship. to safeguard the fundamental rights of a citizen
l Indian Citizenship can be acquire: (Article 32).
1. by birth PART - IV
2. by descent
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
3. by registration
(ARTICLE 36 - 51)
4. by naturalisation
l Directive principles are not enforceable through
5. by incorporation of territory courts. Main aim of Directive principles is to
l Indian Citizenship can be lost by: provide social and economic base of a genuine
1. renunciation; democracy.
2. termination — it takes place if a citizen of Some Important Directive Principles:
India voluntary acquires the citizenship of l Provisions for adequate means of livelihood for
another country; and all citizens (Art. 39).
3. deprivation — if the Government terminates l Right to work (Art. 41).
the citizenship.
l Right to human condition of work and maternity
PART - III relief (Art. 42).
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (ARTICLE 12 - 35) l Right to a living wage and condition of work
l Following fundamental rights are enjoyed by ensuring decent standard of life of worker (Art.
every Indian citizen, irrespective of caste, colour, 43).
creed and sex: l Common Civil Code (Art. 44).
1. Right to Equality: No special privileges, no l Prohibit consumption of liquor (Art. 47).
distinction on grounds of religion, caste, creed l Prevent slaughter of useful cattle (Art. 48).
and sex. l Organise Panchayati Raj (Art. 40).
2. Right to Freedom: The right to freedom of l Separate the judiciary from the executive (Art. 50).
expression and speech, the right to choose l Protect and maintain places of historic
one’s own profession, the right to reside in monuments (Art. 49).
any part of the Indian Union.
l International peace (Art. 51).
3. Right to Freedom to Religion: Except when
PART - IV A
it is in the interest of public order, morality,
health or other conditions, everybody has the FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES (ARTICLE 51A)
right to profess, practice and propagate his l The fundamental duties for the Indian citizens
religion freely. have been incorporated in the Constitution
4. Cultural and Educational Rights: The through the Constitution (42nd) Amendment Act,
Constitution provides that every community 1976. These duties are:
can run its own institutions to preserve its
1. to abide by the Constitution and respect its
own culture and language.
ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
5. Right against Exploitation: Traffic in human the National Anthem;
 37

2. to cherish and follow the noble deeds which l Election: Indirectly elected through Electoral
inspired our national struggle for freedom; College consisting of elected members of
3. to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity both the Houses of the Parliament and elected
and integrity of India; members of the Legislative Assemblies of the
4. to defend the country and render national States.
service when called upon to do so; l According to the 70th Amendment Act, 1992,
5. to promote harmony and the spirit of common the expression ‘States’ include the National
brotherhood amongst all the people Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory
transcending religious, regional or sectional of Puducherry. Members of the Legislative
diversities and to renounce practices Councils have no right to vote in the Presidential
derogatory to the dignity of women; election.
6. to value and preserve the rich heritage of our l Powers: He makes appointments to all the
composite culture; constitutional posts.
7. to protect and improve natural environment l He can address either House of Parliament and
including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, dissolve Lok Sabha.
and to have compassion for living creatures; l All Bills passed by Parliament must receive his
8. to develop the scientific temper, humanism assent to become an Act.
and the spirit of inquiry and reform; l He issues ordinances when Parliament is not in
9. to safeguard public property and to abjure session. No Money Bill can be introduced in
violence; Lok Sabha without his recommendation.
10. to strive towards excellence in all spheres of l He appoints 12 members of special repute in the
individual and collective activity so that the Rajya Sabha and 2 members in the Lok Sabha of
nation constantly rises to higher levels of the Anglo-Indian Community.
endeavour and achievement.
l He has the power of Pardon to a criminal in
11. who is parent or guardian to provide special cases.
opportunities for education to his child or, as
l The President holds the office for a period of five
the case may be, ward between age of six and
years. He is eligible for re-election.
fourteen years.
l He is also entitled to rent free official residence
PART - V
called Rashtrapati Bhawan.
UNION (ARTICLE 52 - 151)
VICE-PRESIDENT
T HE PRESIDENT l Article 63 of the Constitution stipulates a Vice-
l The President is the Constitutional head of the President for India.
Republic of India. He is more or less the titular l The Vice-President acts as the ex-officio
head of the executive. Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
l He is the constitutional head but not the real Sabha).
executive. The real power is vested in the hands l He is elected by an electoral college consisting
of the Council of Ministers. of the members of both Houses of Parliament in
l President is the first citizen of India. accordance with the system of proportional
l Qualifications: (i) Indian citizen, (ii) age not less represen-tation by means of the single trans-
than 35 years, (iii) should have qualification for ferable vote. He must be a citizen of India,
election to Lok Sabha, (iv) should not hold any not less than 35 years of age, and should be
office of profit, (v) should not be a Member of eligible for election as a member of the Council
Parliament or State Legislature. of States.
 38

l Disputes in connection with election of a well-known personalities in the realm of Science,

president or a vice-president are to be a dealt Art, Literature and Social Service. Rest of 238
with in accordance with Article-71. Such disputes representatives of the States and Union Territories
shall be decided by the Supreme Court. are elected.
COUNCIL OF MINISTERS l Currently, the strength of the Rajya Sabha is 245.

l The Constitution of India provides for a LOK SABHA

parliament system of government under which l The Lok Sabha whose life is five years, is the
the President is only Constitutional ruler and the Lower House of Parliament and comprises of
real power is exercised by the Council of members directly elected by the people.
Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister. l The House of the people (Lok Sabha) at present
l Council of Ministers is composed of all Union consists of 545 members, of these, 543 members
Ministers—the Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers are directly elected from the states and Union
and Ministers of State. Territories while 2 are nominated by the President
l The Council of Ministers is Collectively from Anglo-Indian community.
responsible to the Lok Sabha. l The House of the People shall continue for five
l The Prime Minister is a link between the years (unless sooner dissolved) from the date of
President and the Council of Ministers. its meeting and no longer and the expiry of the
said period of 5 years shall operate as dissolution
PRIME MINISTER
of the House.
l The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority
party in the Parliament. PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES
l He is appointed by the President. Other Ministers l There are several Parliamentary Committees to
are appointed by the president on his advice. assist the Parliament in its deliberations.
l The Prime Minister is the head of the Government l These are appointed or elected by the respective
and the head of the Council of Ministers. Houses of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on a
l Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister motion made or are nominated by their presiding
and the longest serving so far. officers.
l Among the Standing Committees, three are
UNION LEGISLATURE financial Committees:
l The Legislature of the Union, which is called (i) Public Account Committee;
‘Parliament’ consists of the President and the (ii) Estimate Committee;
two Houses of Parliament known as the Council
(iii) Public undertaking Committee.
of states (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the
People (Lok Sabha). SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
RAJYA SABHA l Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among
l The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House of the its members.
Parliament and it is constituted of representatives l The Speaker will have the final power to maintain
from the States or the Constituent units of the order within the House of the People and to
Indian Union. interpret its rules of procedure.
l It is a permanent body, one third of its members l A Deputy-Speaker is also elected to officiate in
retiring after every two years. absence of the Speaker.
l Its maximum strength is 250. Out of these, twelve l G.V. Mavlankar was the first Speaker of the Lok
members are nominated by the President from Sabha (1952-1956).
 39

SUPREME COURT COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL

l The Constitution provides for the Supreme Court, (CAG) (ARTICLE 148-151)
which consists of Chief Justice and 33 judges. l The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is
They are appointed by the President of India. guardian of the public purse.
l It is his duty to see that not a paisa is spent out
QUALIFICATION AND TENURE of consolidated fund of India or of a state without
l Eligibility conditions for a judge of the Supreme the authority of the appropriate legislature.
Court are that he must be : (i) a citizen of India; l He is appointed by President of India.
(ii) a judge of a high court for a minimum period
of 5 years; or (iii) an advocate of a high court for l A person with long administrative experience
at least ten years or a distinguished jurist. and knowledge of accounts is appointed.
l Judges hold office till the age of 65. l Holds office for 6 yrs or till 65 yrs of age.
l They can resign earlier or can be removed by the l The President can remove him only on the
President on the recommendation of the two recommendation of the 2 houses of Parliament
Houses of the Parliament by 2/3rd majority of (as in case of judge of Supreme Court).
the members present and voting. l The CAG submits its reports to the President (in
case of accounts relating to the Union
Powers Government) or to the State Governors (for State
l Original jurisdiction: Cases involving Government Accounts).
Government of India and the states or cases l The first CAG of India was V Narahari Rao
involving the enforcement of Fundamental (1948-1954).
Rights fall under original jurisdiction. l The CAG is not eligible for further office under
l Appellate Jurisdiction: In cases which are the Union or State Governments. The expenses
brought to it in the form of appeals against the of the office of the CAG is charged to the
judgement of the lower courts—It hears appeals Consolidated Fund of India.
in civil and criminal cases.
l Advisory functions: the Supreme Court advises ATTORNEY GENERAL OF INDIA
the President on the constitutionality of a l The Attorney General of India is the first law
particular legal matter. However, its advice is not officer of the Government of India.
binding on the President. l Though he is not a member of cabinet he has the
Other Powers: right to speak in the House of Parliament, but he
1. it is a court of record and can punish for has no right to vote.
contempt of itself; l The Attorney General of India shall be appointed
2. it can make rules for regulating the practice by the President and shall hold office during his
and procedure of courts with the approval of pleasure.
the President; and l His duty shall be to give advice on such legal
3. it can recommend to the President the removal matter from time-to-time as may be referred to
of chairman and members of the UPSC. him by the President.
Supreme Court enjoys the power of judicial l To be appointed as Attorney General, a candidate
review (right of the court which declares as must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of
unconstitutional, the laws passed by the the Supreme Court.
legislature and orders issued by executive) l The Attorney General can participate in
though it is not specifically mentioned in the proceedings of the Parliament without the Right
Constitution. to Vote (Article 88).
l The first Chief Justice of India was H.J. Kania l The first Attorney General of Independent India
(1950-51). was MC Setalvad (1950-1963).
 40

PART - VI on the basis of adult suffrage and the number of

members shall not be more than 500 or less than
THE STATES (ARTICLE 152 - 237) 60.
T HE GOVERNOR l The assembly of Sikkim, Goa, Puducherry and
l The Governor is appointed by the President and Mizoram have less than 60 members.
holds office during the pleasure of the President. HIGH COURTS (ARTICLE 214-232)
l Apart from the power to appoint the council of l The High Court stands at the apex of the State
ministers, if the governor finds that the Judiciary.
government of state cannot be carried on in
l As per the Constitution, there shall be a High
accordance with the provisions of the constitution
Court in each State. But there may be a common
(Art. 356), he may send his report to the President
High Court for two or more States and Union
who may assume to himself the functions of the
Territory, if it is provided by a law of the
government of the state. (This is popularly known
Parliament. For example, the Chennai High Court
as ‘President’s Rule’). has its Jurisdiction over the State of Tamil Nadu
l Article 161 gives the Governor the power to and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
grant pardons, reprieves, remission of punishment
l The State Government has no control over it.
to persons convicted under the state law.
l There are 25 High Courts in India.
l Article 171 states that the States where
The Calcutta High Court, established in 1862, is
Legislative Councils exists, the Governor can
l

the oldest High Court in India.

nominate some members from amongst those
distinguished in literature, science, arts, THE PANCHAYATS (ARTICLE 243-243 O)
cooperative movement and social service.
l Panchayati Raj was introduced in India with a
STATES LEGISLATURE (ARTICLE 168 - 212) view to associate the people with administration
l The state legislature consists of Governor and at grass-root level.
legislative assembly. l It is a three-tier system as recommended by
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
l In some state like Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra
Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh and l Introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
Telangana have a legislative council. which envisaged a three tier system of local
l The membership of the council should not be governance.
more than one-third of the legislative assembly These are:
but not less than 40. 1. Gram Panchayat at the village level
l The legislative assembly of each state shall be 2. Panchayat Samiti at the block level
composed of members chosen by direct election 3. Zila Parishad at the district level.

Jurisdiction and Seat of High Courts

Name Year Territorial Jurisdiction Seat
Allahabad 1866 Uttar Pradesh Prayagraj (Bench at Lucknow)
Bombay 1862 Maharashtra, Goa, Dadar Mumbai (Benches at Nagpur,
and Nagar Haveli and Panaji and Aurangabad)
Daman and Diu
Calcutta 1862 West Bengal and Kolkata (Circuit Bench at Port Blair)
Andaman & Nicobar
Chhattisgarh 2000 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur
 41 (137) G.K.—6

Name Year Territorial Jurisdiction Seat

Delhi 1966 Delhi Delhi
Guwahati 1948 Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram Guwahati (Benches at Kohima,
and Arunachal Pradesh Aizawl and Itanagar)
Gujarat 1960 Gujarat Ahmedabad
Himachal Pradesh 1971 Himachal Pradesh Shimla
Jammu & Kashmir 1928 Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh Srinagar and Jammu
Jharkhand 2000 Jharkhand Ranchi
Karnataka 1884 Karnataka Bengaluru (Circuit Benches at Dharwar and
Gulbarga)
Kerala 1958 Kerala & Lakshadweep Kochi (Ernakulam)
Madhya Pradesh 1956 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur (Benches at Gwalior and Indore)
Madras 1862 Tamil Nadu & Puducherry Chennai (Bench at Madurai)
Orissa 1948 Odisha Cuttack
Patna 1916 Bihar Patna
Punjab and Haryana 1966 Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh Chandigarh
Rajasthan 1949 Rajasthan Jodhpur (Bench at Jaipur)
Sikkim 1975 Sikkim Gangtok
Uttarakhand 2000 Uttarakhand Nainital
Tripura 2013 Tripura Agartala
Meghalaya 2013 Meghalaya Shillong
Manipur 2013 Manipur Imphal
Telangana 2019 Telangana Hyderabad
Andhra Pradesh 2019 Andhra Pradesh Amravati

THE MUNICIPALITIES (ARTICLE 243 P-243 ZG) l Article 312: All India Services and Article 315:
l Big cities have municipal corporations headed Public Service Commissions for the Union and
by the elected Mayor. for the States.
l For small towns there are elected boards or l The first Public Service Commission was set up
councils, in turn, elect their Presidents. in 1926, on the recommendations of the Lee
l Introduced by the 74th Amendment Act, 1993 Commission.
which envisages three types of urban local bodies, UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
namely, municipality (nagar palika), city council (UPSC)
(nagar panchayat).
l This Commission is responsible for:
l Municipal governance in India was first
1. recruitment to all civil services and posts, under
introduced in Madras in 1688.
the Union Government by written
PART - XIII examinations, interviews and promotions, and
(ARTICLE 301 - 307) 2. advising the Government on all matters
l In this part from Article 301-307 trade, commerce relating to methods of recruitment, principles
and intercourse within the territory of India are to be followed in making promotions and
given. transfers. Its Chairman is appointed by the
PART - XIV President.

(ARTICLE 308 - 323) STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)

l In this part services under the union and the l The Union Government has constituted a Staff
states are given. Selection Commission for recruitment to non-
 42

technical Class III posts in the central government l The Niti Aayog will comprise the following:
and in subordinate offices. 1. Prime Minister of India as the Chairperson.
l The Administrative Reforms Commission had 2. Governing Council comprising the Chief
recommended the setting up of such a Commission. Ministers of all the States and Lt. Governors
l The Commission has also been entrusted with of Territories.
the responsibility of making recruitment to Group 3. Regional Councils will be formed to address
‘B’ services like Assistants’ and Stenographers specific issues and contingencies impacting
Grade ‘C’. more than one state or a region. These will be
l The Commission has a chairman and two formed for a specified tenure. The Regional
members. Councils will be convened by the Prime
Minister and will comprise of the Chief
ELECTIONS (ARTICLE 324-329) Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of
l The Constitution provides for an independent Territories in the region. These will be chaired
election commission to ensure free and fair by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his
election to the Parliament, the State legislature nominee.
and the offices of President and Vice-President. 4. Experts, specialists and practitioners with
l Consists of Chief Election Commissioner +2 relevant domain knowledge as special invitees
Election Commissioners. They all enjoy equal nominated by the Prime Minister.
powers. l The full-time organizational framework will
l The Chief Election Commissioner and other comprise of, in addition to the Prime Minister as
Election Commissioners are appointed by the the Chairperson:
President. 1. Vice-Chairperson : To be appointed by the
l Election Commissioners are appointed for a term Prime Minister.
of 5 yrs. 2. Members : Full-time. : 3
l They are not eligible for re-appointment. Also, 3. Part-time members : Maximum of 2 from
they cannot hold any office of profit after their leading universities research organizations
retirement. and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio
l The Election Commission was established on capacity. Part time members will be on a
25th January, 1950 under Article 324 of the rotational basis.
Constitution. 4. Ex Officio members : Maximum of 4 members
l The first Chief Election Commissioner was of the Council of Ministers to be nominated
Sukumar Sen. by the Prime Minister.
5. Chief Executive Officer : To be appointed by
Functions the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the
l Preparation of electoral rolls and keeping voters rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
list updated. 6. Secretariat as deemed necessary.
l Recognition of various political parties and
FINANCE COMMISSION
allotment of election symbols.
l The constitution of the Finance Commission is
NITI AAYOG laid down in Art. 280.
l The Indian government has replaced Planing l The chairman must be a person having
Commission with a new institution named NITI experience in public affairs; and the other four
Aayog (National Institution for Transforming members also having wide experience in financial
India). matters.
 43

l It consists of Chairman and 4 other members. net proceeds of taxes that is required to be shared.
l It shall be the duty of the Finance Commission l The Finance Commission is not a permanent
to advice the President on matters such as the body. It is dissolved after it has submitted its
distribution between the Union and States of the recommendations.

Important Amendments to the Constitution

First Amendment, 1951 : Added Ninth Schedule.

Twenty-second Amendment, 1969 : Formation of Meghalaya within the state of Assam was facilitated.
Twenty-sixth Amendment, 1971 : The privy and privileges of the former rulers of Indian States
were abolished.
Thirty-first Amendment, 1973 : The upper limit of representation of states was raised from 500
to 525. The upper limit for representation of the UTs was reduced
from 25 to 20.
Thirty-sixth Amendment, 1975 : Sikkim was made a full-fledged state of Indian Union and it was
included in the First Schedule.
Thirty-eight Amendment, 1975 : This act led to the amendment of Article 123, Article 213 and
Article 352 which stated that the satisfaction of President or of
Governor contained in these Articles would be called in question
in any court of law.
Forty-second Amendment, 1976 : This amendment was done in accordance with the
recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee and included a
number of amendments.
Forty-third Amendment, 1977 : It provided for the restoration of the Jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court and High Courts, curtailed by the enactment of the
Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976.
Forty-fourth Amendment, 1978 : The right to property was deleted as Fundamental Right and was
made a legal right.
Fifty-third Amendment, 1986 : The Act grants statehood to the Union Territory of Mizoram, thus
making it the 23rd State of the Indian Unions.
Fifty-sixth Amendment, 1987 : The UT of Goa converted into Goa state through this amendment
whereas Daman and Diu were organised under a new UT.
Seventy-third Amendment, 1992 : It is concerning Panchayati Raj.
Seventy-fourth Amendment, 1992 : It is regarding Municipal Boards and Corporations.
Eighty-ninth Amendment, 2003 : It provides for constitution of a separate National Commission
for Scheduled Tribes. (Earlier, there was a combined National
Commission for both SC/STs).
Ninety-first Amendment, 2003 : It is regarding restricting the total number of Ministers including
Prime Minister/Chief Minister in Lok Sabha and State Legislatures
to 15% of the total number of the Union or State Legislatures.
Ninety-sixth Amendment, 2011 : Amendment of 8th Schedule, it replaces ‘Orissa’ with ‘Odisha’.
Ninety-eight Amendment, 2013 : (Insert Article 371 J) To empower the Governor of Karnataka to
take steps to develop Hydrabad Karnataka Region.
 44

Ninety-ninth Amendment, 2015 : The amendment is in toto quashed by Supreme Court on 16

October, 2015.
One hundredth Amendment, 2015 : Exchange of certain enclave territories with Bangladesh and
conferment of citizenship rights to residents of enclaves conse-
quent to signing of Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) Treaty
between India and Bangladesh.
One hundredth and first : The act amends the Constitution to introduce “The Goods and
Amendment, 2016 Services Tax (GST).”
One hundredth and Third : The Act providing 10 per cent reservation in government jobs
Amendment, 2019 and educational institutions to Economically Weaker Sections
(EWS) of General Category, came into effect on January 14, 2019.

NATIONAL SYMBOLS
NATIONAL EMBLEM Dravida-Utkala-Banga
l State emblem of India is an adaptation from the Vindhya-Himachala-Yamuna-Ganga
Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. It was adopted Uchhala-jaladhi-taranga.
by the Government of India on January 26, 1950. Tava subha name jage,
In the adapted form, only three lions are visible, Tava subha asisa mange,
the fourth being hidden from the view. Gahe tava jaya gatha,
Jana-gana-mangala-dayak,
l The wheel (Dharma Chakra) appears in relief in
jaya he Bharata bhagya vidhata,
the centre of the abacus with a bull on the right
Jaya he, jaya he, jaya he,
and a horse on the left.
Jaya jaya jaya, jaya he.
l The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted. The
words ‘‘Satyameva Jayate’’ meaning ‘‘Truth alone NATIONAL SONG
triumphs’’ are inscribed below the Emblem in l Bankim Chandra Chatterji’s ‘Vande Mataram’
Devanagari script. which was a source of inspiration to the people
in their struggle for freedom, has been adopted
NATIONAL FLAG as National Song. It has an equal status with the
l The National Flag of India is a horizontal National Anthem.
tricolour of deep saffron (Kesari), white and dark Vande Mataram
green in equal proportion. Sujalam, suphalam, malayaja-shitalam,
l In the centre of the white band there is a wheel Shasya shyamalam, Mataram
in navy blue colour. It has 24 spokes. Shubhrajyotsna, pulkita yaminim,
l The ratio of the length and the breadth of the Phulla kusumita drumadalashobhinim,
flag is 3 : 2. Its design was adopted by the Subhasinim sumadhura—bhashinim,
Constituent Assembly of India on July 22, 1947. Sukhadam, Varadam, Mataram.
l National Bird and Animal of India: Peacock
NATIONAL ANTHEM
and Tiger.
l Rabindranath Tagore’s song ‘Jana-gana-mana’
l National Aquatic Animal: Dolphin
was adopted by the Constituent Assembly as the
National Anthem of India on January 24, 1950. l National Flower: Lotus
Jana-gana-mana-adhinayaka jaya he, l National Calendar: It was adopted on March
Bharata-bhagya-vidhata 22, 1957. It has 365 days in the year and the first
Punjab-Sindh-Gujarat-Maratha- month of the year is Chaitra.
p p p
 45

GENERAL SCIENCE
PHYSICS
PHYSICAL QUANTITIES l Very small distances are measured in micro-meters
l Physical quantities may be divided in two classes: or (microns) (µm), angstroms (Å), nanometers (nm)
1. Scalar Quantities 2. Vector Quantities and femtometres (fm).
l A scalar quantity is one which has only
MOTION
magnitude.
l When a body changes its position with respect
l A vector quantity has both magnitude and
to something else as time goes on, we say the
direction.
body is in motion.
l Force, Velocity, Momentum, Acceleration are
l There are two types of motion—translational
examples of vector quantities.
(linear) and rotational (spin).
l Mass, length, time, volume, speed, energy, work
are examples of scalar quantities. l The motion of a car on a road is translational
whereas the motion of a top, spinning on its axis
UNITS is rotational.
l All measurements in physics require standard
units. SPEED
l In 1960, the General Conference of Weights and l It is a scalar form of velocity and is defined as
Measures recommended that a metric system of the distance travelled in one second.
measurements called the International System of distance travelled
Units, abbreviated as SI units, be used. l Speed =
time required
Some Important Units l SI unit of speed is m/s.
S.No. Units Quantity
VELOCITY
1. Metre Length
l The distance covered by an object in a specified
2. Kilogram Mass
direction in unit time interval is called velocity.
3. Second Time
4. Ampere Electric Current l The SI unit of velocity is m/s.
5. Candela Luminous Intensity l Velocity is a vector quantity.
6. Newton Force
7. Joule Workdone ACCELERATION
8. Watt Power l The velocity of a body changes due to change
9. Coulomb Electric Charge in its speed or direction or both. The rate of
10. Volt Potential Difference change of the velocity of a body is called its
11. Ohm Electrical Resistance acceleration.
12. Farad Capacitance
13. Henry Inductance change in velocity
l Acceleration =
14. Lumen Luminous Flux time taken
45
 46

The weight of a body is maximum at the poles

FORCE AND MOTION l

and minimum at the equator. This variation in

GRAVITATIONAL FORCE weight is due to:
l It is the force of attraction between two masses. 1. the shape of the earth.
l It is gravitational force that holds the moon in its 2. the rotation of the earth about its axis.
orbit round the earth and the earth in its orbit l The weight of an object is less at high elevations
round the sun. than at sea level.
l Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation states l At the centre of the earth, the weight of a body
that every particle in the universe attracts every would be zero.
other particle with a force that is directly l On the surface of the moon the value of the
proportional to the product of their masses and acceleration due to gravity is nearly one-sixth of
inversely proportional to the square of the that on earth and, therefore, an object on the
distance between them. moon would weigh only one-sixth its weight on
l The value of G is 6.67 × 10–11 SI units. the earth. The mass of an object on the moon
would be the same as on earth.
CENTRIPETAL FORCE
l The weight of a body would be more if the earth
l The force acting towards the centre on a particle
stopped rotating. Conversely, if the speed of
executing uniform circular motion is called
centripetal force and is given by rotation were higher, the weight would be less.
l A person weighs more in a lift, which is
mv 2 accelerating upward.
F=
r
l An astronaut feels weightless in a spaceship
where, m = Mass of the object
because he is not pushing against anything.
v = Speed
r = Radius of the Circular Path FRICTION
l In case of the moon, gravitational force between l Friction is the force which opposes the relative
the earth and the moon acts as the centripetal motion of two surfaces in contact.
force. l It is friction between the ground and the soles of
l Centripetal force always acts on the particle our shoes that makes walking possible and it is
performing circular motion. lack of friction that makes our feet slip on highly
polished surfaces.
CENTRIFUGAL FORCE
l Friction in machines wastes energy and also
l The pseudo force that balances the centripetal causes wear and tear. This friction is reduced by
force in uniform circular motion is called using (1) lubricants, and (2) ball bearings.
centrifugal force.
l Centrifugal force is directed away from the centre NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION
along the radius.
First Law
l The centrifugal force is zero exactly at the poles
and maximum at the equator. l Every object continues in its state of rest or of
uniform motion in a straight line if no net force
WEIGHT acts upon it. It is also known as law of inertia.
l The weight of a body is the force with which the l Examples: 1. An unwary passenger in a fast-
earth attracts the body towards its centre. moving bus falls forward when it stops suddenly.
l The mass of a body is a constant quantity whereas This happens because the feet of the passenger
its weight varies slightly from place-to-place on come to rest suddenly whereas his upper part of
the earth. body continues to be in motion. 2. A person
 47

getting down from a moving bus has to run some Application of Impulse
distance, in the direction of the bus, before 1. A cricket player draws his hand back while
stopping. If he does not run he is bound to fall catching.
because his feet come to rest whereas his body
2. A person jumping on hard cement floor
continues to be in motion.
receives more injuries than a person jumping
Momentum on muddy or sandy floor.
The momentum of a body is defined as the
WORK, POWER AND ENERGY
l

product of its mass and velocity.

Second Law WORK
l Whenever a force acting on a body displaces it,
l This law states that “the rate of change of
work is said to be done.
momentum of a body is proportional to the
applied force and takes place in the direction of Work = Force × Distance moved in the direction
the force.” of force.
l Work is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is
l If we express force (F) in Newtons, mass (m) in
Joule (J).
kilograms and acceleration (a) in metres per
second squared, we can write the second law as; POWER
F = ma. l Power is defined as the rate of doing work.
l In travelling the same distance, a car consumes
Work done
more fuel on a crowded road than on a free road. Power =
This happens because the car has to stop and Time taken
start quite often on a crowded road. The repeated l The SI unit of power is Watt (W) and is also
acceleration requires a force (second law), which measured in horse power.
ultimately comes from the fuel. On a free road 1 HP = 746 W
the car runs at almost uniform speed requiring
fewer accelerations and hence less fuel ENERGY
consumption. l Energy is defined as the capacity to do work.

Third Law Kinetic Energy

l This law states that “to every action there is an l The energy possessed by an object due to its
equal and opposite reaction.” motion is called kinetic energy and is described
by the expression
l When a bullet is fired from a gun, equal and
opposite forces are exerted on the bullet and the 1 2
KE = mv ; where, m = mass of the object
gun. 2
l The engine in a jet aeroplane works on the same v = speed
principle as a rocket but there is a difference in
the method of obtaining the high velocity as jet. Potential Energy
l Potential energy is the energy possessed by the
IMPULSE body by virtue of its position, configuration or
l If a force acts on a body for a very short time, any condition of stress or strain.
then the product of force and time is called the l There are many examples of potential energy. A
impulse. stone held at some height above the ground has
Impulse= Change in momentum potential energy. Water in an elevated reservoir
= Force × Time possesses potential energy.
 48

Transformation of Energy DENSITY AND RELATIVE DENSITY

S.No. Equipment Transformation DENSITY
1. Dynamo Mechanical energy into l The mass per unit volume of a substance is called
electrical energy its density.
2. Microphone Sound energy into
electrical energy Mass
Density =
3. Loud Speaker Electrical energy into Volume
sound energy
l The SI unit of density is kilogram per metre
4. Electric Bulb Electrical energy into cubed (kg/m3).
light and heat energy
l The relative density of a substance is the ratio of
5. Battery Chemical energy into
electrical energy the density of the substance to the density of
6. Electrical Motor Electrical energy into
water.
mechanical energy l Relative density has no unit.

CENTRE OF GRAVITY PRESSURE

l The centre of gravity of a body is the point l Pressure is defined as force acting per unit area.
where the whole weight of the body can be Force
considered to act. Pressure =
Area
l Racing cars are build low and with wide wheel
bases to reduce the risk of overturning at sharp l The SI unit of pressure is newton per metre
bends. squared or pascal.
l While crossing a river in a boat, passengers are l Broad wooden sleepers are placed below the rails
not allowed to stand. This keeps the CG of the to reduce the pressure exerted by the weight of
system (boat and passengers) low and ensures a train.
stability. l The pressure of water increases with depth,
therefore bottom of a dam is made much thicken
ARTIFICIAL SATELLITES than the top.
l In the case of a satellite, the centripetal force l The pressure exerted on an enclosed liquid at
is provided by the gravitational pull of the one place is transmitted equally throughout the
earth. liquid. This is called Pascal’s Principle.
l If the speed of a satellite is more than 11.2 km/s l Hydraulic presses, hydraulic brakes, hydraulic
or 25,000 miles/hour, the satellite would escape door closers, etc. are applications of the Pascal’s
the earth entirely and would never come back. Principle.
This is called escape velocity. l At high attitudes where atmosphere pressure is
l The existence of gaseous atmosphere on the earth less nose bleeding may occur due to the greater
is due to the high value of its escape velocity. pressure of blood.
Geostationary Satellites l In an aircraft flying at high altitude, normal
atmospheric pressure is maintained by the use of
l Geostationary satellites are stationary with respect
air pumps. If this were not done, the crew and
to an observer on the earth. Their time period is
passengers would experience difficulty in
24-hour. There height above the surface of earth
breathing and consequently face dangers.
is 36,000 km. They are always in equatorial plane
and their orbits are circular. They are also called l Atmospheric pressure is measured with an
parking orbits. instrument called the Barometer.
 49 (137) G.K.—7

ARCHIMEDE’S PRINCIPLE have minimum surface area. For a given volume,

l This principle states that when a body is wholly a sphere has the minimum surface area.
or partially immersed in a fluid, it experiences an l Soaps and detergents lower the surface tension
upthrust (upward force) equal to the weight of of water. This increases the wetting power of
the fluid displaced. water or its ability to detach dirt particles from
l An iron nail sinks in water whereas a ship made clothes and untensils.
of iron and steel floats. This is due to the fact l The force of attraction between unlike molecules
that a ship is hollow and contains air and, is called adhesion and that between like
therefore, its density is less than that of water. molecules cohesion.
l The density of sea water is more than that of l The melted wax of a candle is drawn up into the
river water, due to this a ship sinks less in sea wick by capillary action. Oil rises up a lamp
water. It is for this reason that a ship rises a little wick for the same reason.
when it enters a sea from a river. l If one end of a sugar cube is dipped into tea, the
l It is because of the higher density of sea water entire cube is quickly wet on account of capillary
that it is easier to swim in the sea. action.
l A balloon filled with a light gas, such as VISCOSITY
hydrogen, rises because the average density of
l The force which opposes the relative motion
the balloon and the gas is less than that of air.
between different layers of liquid or gases is
The balloon cannot rise indefinitely because the
called viscous force.
density of the air decreases with increasing
altitude. At a certain height, where the density of l Viscosity is the property of liquids and gases
air is equal to the average density of the balloon, both.
it ceases to rise and drifts sideways with the BERNOULLI’S THEOREM
wind.
l According to Bernoulli’s theorem, in case of
l When an ice block floats in water the water level streamline flow of incompressible and non-
will remain the same when all the ice melts into viscous fluid (ideal fluid) through a tube, total
water. energy (sum of pressure energy, potential energy
l A hydrometer is an instrument used for measuring and kinetic energy) per unit volume of fluid is
the relative density of liquids. same at all points.
l A special type of a hydrometer called Lactometer 1. When a bowler spins a ball, it changes its
is used for testing milk by measuring its density. direction (swings) in the air due to unequal
pressure acting on it.
SURFACE TENSION
l Surface tension is that property of liquids owing HEAT
to which they tend to acquire minimum surface
area. l Heat is that form of energy which flows from one
l Surface tension is caused by molecular attractions. body to other body due to difference in
temperature between the bodies. The amount of
l When a paint brush is dipped in water all its hair heat contained in a body depends upon the mass
spread out but when it is taken out it is covered of the body.
with a thin film of water which contracts due to
surface tension and pulls the hair together. TEMPERATURE
l Liquid drops, such as raindrops, oildrops, drops l The temperature of a body is the quantity that
of molten metals, dewdrops etc. are all spherical tells how hot or cold it is with respect to some
because their surface tend to contract in order to standard body.
 50 (137) G.K.—7-II

MEASUREMENT OF TEMPERATURE l Air is a very bad conductor of heat. The good

l Temperature is measured by a thermometer. insulating properties of wool, cotton, etc. are
l A thermometer may be graduated in following mainly due to the air spaces they contain.
scales— Convection
1. The upper and lower points of centigrade scale
l In this process, heat is transferred by the actual
are 100°C and 0°C.
movement of particles of the medium from one
2. The upper and lower points of Fahrenheit scale place to other place.
are 212°F and 32°F.
l In liquids and gases heat is transmitted by
3. The upper and lower points of Reaumur scale
convection.
are 80°R and 0°R.
4. The upper and lower points of Kelvin scale Radiation
are 373K and 273K. l In this mode of heat transmission heat is
5. The upper and lower points of Rankine scale transferred from one place to another without
are 672° Ra and 460° Ra. effecting the intervening medium.
l At –40 degrees both celsius and Fahrenheit scales
will show identical readings. HEAT CAPACITY
l Water cannot be used in a thermometer becaues l The heat capacity of a body is defined as the
it freezes at 0°C and also because of its irregular heat required to raise the temperature of the body
expansion. by 1K. Its SI unit is J/K.

THERMAL EXPANSION SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY

l Solids, liquids and gases generally expand when l The specific heat capacity of a substance is the
heated and contract when cooled. heat required to raise the temperature of a unit
l Gaps have to be left in railway tracks to make mass of the substance by 1K.
allowance for expansion, otherwise the rails will l Its SI unit is J/kg K.
buckle. Allowance is made for the expansion of l It is because of its high specific heat capacity
long steel bridges. One end of such bridge is that water is used as a cooling liquid in car
fixed while the other rests on rollers. engine.
l Telephone wires sag more in summer than in
winter due to thermal expansion. LATENT HEAT
l It is defined as the amount of heat absorbed or
EXPANSION OF WATER given out by a body during the change of state.
l Water has its minimum volume and maximum l Each gram of ice that melts absorbs 336 J of
density at 4°C. heat.
TRANSMISSION OF HEAT EVAPORATION
l There are three ways of heat transmission: l Water can change into the vapour state either by
1. Conduction; 2. Convection; 3. Radiation. boiling or by evaporation at lower temperatures.
Conduction l When sweat evaporates from the skin it draws
l In this process, heat is transferred from one place much heat from the body and produces a cooling
to other place by the successive vibration of the sensation.
particles of the medium without bodily l In summer, water is stored in pitchers for cooling.
movement of the particles of the medium. Water oozes out of the pores of the pitchers and
l Conduction takes place mainly in solids. cools on evaporation.
 51

l The rate of evaporation increases with increase ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE

in temperature. l Electromagnetic waves include an enormous
range of frequencies—from radio waves with
REFRIGERATOR
frequencies less than 105 Hz to gamma rays
l In a refrigerator, cooling is produced by the having frequencies greater than 1020 Hz.
evaporation of a volatile liquid, freon, inside a
l All electromagnetic wave have the same speed
copper coil (evaporator), which surrounds the
(3 × 108 m/s) in vacuum. The relation v = nl
freezer.
holds good for all electromagnetic waves.
l The cooling unit (freezer) in a refrigerator is
fitted near the top to cool the whole of the interior. RADIO AND TELEVISION TRANSMISSION
l Radio waves sent out by radio stations are
RELATIVE HUMIDITY
reflected by the ionosphere and can be received
Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the
anywhere on the earth.
l

mass of water vapour in a given volume of air to

the mass required for saturating the same volume l At night the radio reception improves because
of air at the same temperature. the layers of the ionosphere are not exposed to
sunlight and are more settled.
l Relative humidity is measured with an instrument
called the hygrometer. l Radar (Radio detection and ranging) employs
high frequency radio waves for detecting objects
PRESSURE COOKER like ships and aeroplanes.
l The boiling point of a liquid depends on external l In microwave oven, when the waves fall on the
pressure. food, these are absorbed by water, fats, sugars
l When the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of and certain other molecules whose consequent
mercury, water boils at 100°C. But when the vibrations produce heat. Since heating occurs
pressure is increased, the boiling point of water inside the food, without warming the surrounding
is raised. air, the cooking time is greatly reduced.
l In a pressure cooker, water boils at temperatures l In microwave oven, food cannot be cooked in
higher than 100°C due to increased pressure. metal vessels because the metal blocks out the
The increased boiling temperature allows water microwaves.
to hold more heat which cooks food faster.
l At higher altitudes, atmospheric pressure is LIGHT
reduced. This lowers the boiling point of water l Light is a form of energy which is propagated as
and food takes much longer to cook. electromagnetic waves.
Light is a transverse wave.
WAVE MOTION l

l Speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s.

l Wave motion may be defined as the transfer of l Light takes 8 minute 16.6 second to reach from
energy without the net transfer of matter. sun to earth.
l If the particles of the medium vibrate
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of REFLECTION
wave, the wave is called transverse wave. l When light is incident upon a surface, part of it
l Light waves are transverse waves. is reflected. But certain surfaces like mirrors and
l If the particles of the medium vibrate in the polished metals reflect almost all the light
direction of propagation of wave, the wave is incident upon them.
called longitudinal wave. l The law of reflection states that the angle of
l Sound waves are longitudinal waves. incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
 52

l To see full image in a plane mirror, a person l When the sun (or moon) is near the horizon, it
requires a mirror of at least half of his height. appears elliptical, i.e., with the vertical diameter
less than the horizontal diameter. This happens
INCLINED MIRROR (NO. OF IMAGES)
because rays from the lower edge of the sun are
l When an object is placed between two inclined bent more than those from the upper edge
mirrors, several images of the object are formed. (Atmospheric Refraction).
CURVED MIRRORS l One of the most interesting effects of atmospheric
l There are two types of curved spherical mirrors— refraction and Mirage is a combined effect of
1. Concave Mirror, 2. Convex Mirror. atmospheric refraction and total internal
l Concave mirror can concentrate the sun’s reflection.
radiation falling on it at one point, it can be used DISPERSION
as a burning glass.
l White light consists of seven colours—violet,
l Concave mirrors are also used in solar cookers. indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. These
l Large concave mirrors are used in reflecting colours are called the spectrum of the white light.
telescopes for observing and photographing l Violet has the minimum wavelength (or maximum
distant stars and other heavenly bodies. frequency) and red the maximum wavelength (or
l Concave mirror is also used as a shaving or minimum frequency).
make-up mirror.
l Due to different speeds, the colours are refracted
l Small concave mirrors are used by dentists for through different angles and therefore, when a
examining teeth. narrow beam of white light passes through a
l Concave parabolic mirrors are used in searchlight glass prism, it is split up into its constituent
and headlamps of cars. colours. This separation of light into colours is
l Convex mirrors are also used as rear view mirrors called dispersion.
in vehicles.
COLOUR OF OBJECTS
REFRACTION l We see objects because of the light they reflect.
l When a ray of light passes from one medium to l When a rose is viewed in white light, its petals
other it suffers a change in direction at the appear red and the leaves appear green, because
boundary of separation of two media. This the petals reflect the red part of the white light
phenomenon is called refraction. and leaves reflect the green part. The remaining
l When a ray passes from one medium to another colours are absorbed. When the same rose is
optically denser medium, e.g., from air to water viewed in green light, the petals will appear
or glass, it bends towards the normal. Conversely, black and the leaves green. In blue or yellow
a ray passing from water or glass into air is bent light both the petals and leaves will appear black.
away from the normal.
l Red, blue and green are primary colours.
l Rivers appear shallow, coin in a beaker filled
with water appears raised, due to refraction. LENSES
l Another effect of refraction is the apparent upward l There are mainly two types of lenses:
bending of the immersed portion of a stick when 1. Convex or Converging Lens
dipped in water.
2. Concave or Diverging Lens
l It is due to refraction, produced by the earth’s
l Converging or convex lens is used as a
atmosphere, that the sun is visible for several
magnifying glass.
minutes after it has set below the horizon. Thus,
atmospheric refraction tends to lengthen the day. l Power of a lens is its capacity to deviate a ray.
 53

Power of a lens is measured as the reciprocal of l Scattering of light is maximum for violet colour
the focal length. and minimum for red colour.
1 l Blue colour of sky is due to scattering of light.
P= In the evening, the sun is lower in the sky and
f l

l SI unit of power of lens is dioptre (D). its light has to traverse a longer path through the
atmosphere to reach an observer. Thus, at sunset,
l The power of a converging lens is positive and
blue, green and other colours having been
that of a diverging lens is negative.
scattered only red and some orange light reach
l For all positions of the object, the images formed
us and the sun appears a deep orange-red.
by diverging (concave) lens are virtual, erect and
diminished. l In outerspace, i.e., beyond the atmosphere, there
is nothing to scatter the sunlight and therefore
EYE the sky appears dark and stars are visible even in
l The light entering the eye is focused by the eye- the presence of the sun.
lens to form an image on the retina.
INTERFERENCE OF LIGHT
l In front of the eye, lens is the coloured part of
eye, called the iris, which automatically adjusts l The superposition of two (or more) waves of the
the size of the pupil to the intensity of light same kind that pass the same point in space at
falling on it. the same time is called interference.
l In bright light the iris automatically shuts tighter, l Beautiful colours seen in soap bubbles and oil
reducing the amount of light entering the pupil. films on water are produced due to the
This protects the retina from getting damaged. interference of white light reflected by these
l When a person enters a dark room after being in surfaces.
bright light, he is not able to see clearly for a l LASER (Light Amplification by Stimulated
while because the iris is unable to dilate the Emission of Radiation) is an optical device which
pupil immediately. produces an intense beam of coherent
l Least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. monochromatic light.
l Examples of Interference of Light: Holography,
DEFECTS OF VISION Laser.
l A person suffering from long sight (hyper-
metropia) can clearly see objects at infinity but DIFFRACTION OF LIGHT
cannot see near objects clearly. This defect is l When a beam of light passes through a narrow
caused by the eyeball being too short and can be slit or an aperture, it spreads out to a certain
corrected by wearing converging lenses. extent into the region of geometrical shadow.
l In the case of a person suffering from short sight This is an example of diffraction, i.e., of the
(myopia), the eye ball is too long and distant failure of light to travel in a straight line.
objects are focused in front of the retina. This
defect can be corrected by wearing diverging SOUND
lenses.
l Sound waves are longitudinal and cannot travel
l Astigmatism: Curvature of cornea becomes in vacuum. The transmission of sound requires a
irregular and image is not clear. Cylindrical lens medium : air, liquid or solid.
is used.
l The longitudinal mechanical waves which lie in
SCATTERING OF LIGHT the frequency range 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz are
l When light falls on atoms and molecules, it is called audible or sound waves. These waves are
scattered in all directions. sensitive to human ear.
 54

l The longitudinal mechanical waves having of objects on their way and from them
frequencies less than 20 Hz are called Infrasonic. respectively.
These waves are produced by sources of bigger
size such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, DOPPLER EFFECT
ocean waves etc. l The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of
l The longitudinal waves having frequencies a wave (sound or light) due to the motion of the
greater than 20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic source or observer.
waves. Human ear cannot detect these waves. l It is due to the Doppler effect that the whistle of
But some animals such as cats, dogs, bats can a train appears shriller when it approaches a
detect these waves. listener than when it moves away from him.
PITCH ELECTRICITY
l The pitch (shrillness of a sound) depends on its
frequency. l Electricity produced by friction between two
l A sound of higher frequency has a higher pitch. dissimilar objects is known as static electricity.
Depending on the nature of the objects, one
l The pitch of a woman’s voice is higher than that
acquires a positive charge and the other an equal
of a man.
negative charge. For example, if a glass rod is
LOUDNESS rubbed with silk, the rod acquires positive charge
l The relative loudness of a sound is measured in and the silk an equal negative charge.
decibels (db). l Lightning is a gigantic electric discharge
l All stringed instruments, such as the violin, sitar, occurring between two charged clouds or
guitar, etc. have sound boxes attached to increase between a charged cloud and the earth.
the loudness.
CONDUCTOR
SPEED OF SOUND l Conductors are those materials which allow
l The presence of water vapour in the air increases electricity (charge) to pass through themselves.
the speed of sound. l Metals conduct electricity because they have a
l Sound travels faster through warm air than large number of conduction or free electrons.
through cold air. The speed of sound is higher
INSULATORS
on a hot day than on a cold day.
l Thunder is heard much after the flash of lightning l Insulators are those materials which do not allow
is seen because of the wide difference in the electricity to flow through themselves. Insulators
speeds of light and sound. have no free electrons.

REFLECTION OF SOUND SUPER CONDUCTORS

l When a sound wave is reflected by a distant l The resistance of metals to flow of electricity
obstacle, such as a wall or a cliff, an echo is heard. reduces with decreasing temperature. At
temperatures near absolute zero, metals have
l To hear echo, the minimum distance between the
almost zero resistance and became super
observer and reflector should be 17 m.
conductors.
l Exploration of underwater gas and oil is done by
detecting the echoes of shock waves produced SEMI-CONDUCTORS
by explosions on the water surface. l Certain materials, such as silicon and germanium,
l Bats emit ultrasonic waves of frequencies up to have electrical resistivity intermediate between
80,000 Hz and use the reflection of these waves those of conductors and insulators. These
(echoes) to determine the presence and distance materials are termed as semi-conductors.
 55

l Semi-conductors are good insulators in their pure COST OF ELECTRICITY

crystalline form but their conductivity increases l The consumption of electrical energy in a house
when small amounts of impurities are added to is measured in the unit kWh.
them. l Kilowatt hour is equal to the energy consumed
ELECTRIC CURRENT in the circuit at the rate of 1 kilowatt for 1 hour.
Electric current is simply the flow of electric
MAGNETISM
l

charge. In solid conductors the flow of electrons

and in fluids the flow of ions as well as electrons l A magnet attracts and holds pieces of iron but
constitute the current. does not attract pieces of copper.
l SI units of electric current is Ampere (A). l Iron, cobalt, nickel and certain alloys are strongly
magnetic whereas copper, wood, glass, etc. are
ELECTRICAL RESISTANCE
non-magnetic.
l When electric current flows through a conductor,
l Our earth behaves as a powerful magnet whose
e.g., a metallic wire, it offers some obstruction to
the current. This obstruction offered by the wire south pole is near the geographical north pole
is called its electrical resistance. and whose north pole is near the geographical
south pole.
l SI unit of Resistance is ohm.
OHM’S LAW ATOMIC & NUCLEAR PHYSICS
l If physical conditions like temperature, intensity l Atom consists of three fundamental particles
of light etc. remains unchanged then electric electron, proton and neutron. All the protons and
current flowing through a conductor is directly neutrons are present in the central core of atom
proportional to the potential difference across its called nucleus. Electrons revolve around the nucleus.
ends.
l The total number of protons in the nucleus is
ELECTRIC MOTOR called atomic number (Z).
l In an electric motor, electrical energy is converted l The total number of proton and neutrons in the
into mechanical energy. nucleus is called mass number (A).
l Electric fans, mixers, washing machines, etc. work l Ernest Rutherford, discovered nucleus by the
on electric motors. scattering of a-particles from gold foil.
RADIOACTIVITY
INVERTER
l Henry Bacquerel (1896) observed that a
l An inverter is a device which converts DC to
photographic plate blackened, when placed near
AC. The inverters used in homes and offices are
double sulphate of potassium and uranium. He
specially designed to:
further observed that uranium emitted special
1. Convert DC from a battery to AC, and
kind of rays. They were called Becqueral rays.
2. Charge the battery.
l Pierre and Marie Curie observed that the radiation
FUSE from pitchblende was four times stronger than
l Electric fuse is a protective device used in series uranium. In 1898, they finally discovered two
with an electric appliance to save it from being new substances—Polonium and Radium. These
damaged due to high current. newly discovered substances were called
l A fuse is a short piece of wire made of a tin-lead radioactive substances and this property of these
alloy, which has a low melting point. substances was named radioactivity.
l Fuses are always connected in the live wire in l No radioactive substance emits both a and b
series. particles simultaneously.
 56

X-RAYS seven nuclear power stations in operation in six

l X-rays are electromagnetic radiations having States: (i) Tarapur—Maharashtra, (ii) Rawatbhata
wavelength from a fraction of an Angestrom to —Rajasthan, (iii) Kalpakkam—Tamil Nadu,
about 100Å. They were discovered by Rontgen (iv) Narora—U.P., (v) Kakrapara—Gujarat,
during his studies on the electrical discharge (vi) Kaiga—Karnataka and (vii) Kudankulam—
phenomena in gases—he found that an unknown Tamil Nadu.
radiation was produced when electrons collided l Heavy Water: Heavy water is one of the essential
with the walls of the tubes. input for Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
(PHWRs) used both as a coolant and moderator.
ATOMIC ENERGY The first heavy water plant was set-up in 1962 in
l India today ranks sixth in the atomic energy Nangal. Subsequently 7 more plants have been
programmes. It has developed the required know- set-up at (i) Baroda, (ii) Tuticorin, (iii) Kota, (iv)
how and expertise to manufacture nuclear Talcher, (v) Thal, (vi) Hazira and (vii) Manuguru.
weapons, but it believes in the peaceful uses of
l Research and Development Centres: Four
atomic power. The Atomic Energy Commission
research centres namely (i) Bhabha Atomic
was set-up in the country in 1948 under the
Research Centre, Trombay (Maharashtra), (ii)
Chairmanship of Dr. H. J. Bhabha.
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research,
l Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC): The Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), (iii) Centre for
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre at Trombay near Advanced Technology, Indore (Madhya Pradesh),
Mumbai (Maharashtra) has four research reactors: (iv) Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre at Kolkata
(i) APSARA—It is the first atomic reactor in (West Bengal) are focal points of research and
Asia; (ii) CIRUS—It is a joint Indo-Canadian development work in nuclear energy and related
project; (iii) PURNIMA II—a zero energy fast discipline.
reactor, and (iv) DHRUVA—a high power
completely indigenous nuclear research reactor l India’s Nuclear Explosions: On May 18, 1974
with most advanced laboratories in the world. India conducted her first underground nuclear
Another fast breeder reactor KAMINI at explosion at Pokhran (Rajasthan) in the Thar
Kalpakkam has been constructed. Today India is desert, 20 km. away from Jaisalmer, at a depth of
the seventh country in the world and the first more than 100 metres. The successful explosion
developing nation to have mastered the fast made India the sixth nuclear nation in the world.
breeder reactor technology. l India conducted 5 nuclear explosion tests at
l Nuclear Power: Under Nuclear Power Pokhran in two phases on May 11 and May 13,
Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) there are 1998 and became a nuclear power state.

IMPORTANT INVENTIONS
Name of Invention Inventor Nationality Year
Aeroplane Orville & Wilbur Wright U.S.A. 1903
Ball-Point Pen John J. Loud U.S.A. 1888
Barometer Evangelista Torricelli Italy 1644
Bicycle Kirkpatrick Macmillan Britain 1839-40
Bifocal Lens Benjamin Franklin U.S.A. 1780
Car (Petrol) Karl Benz Germany 1888
Celluloid Alexander Parkes Britain 1861
Cinema Nicolas & Jean Lumiere France 1895
 57 (137) G.K.—8

Name of Invention Inventor Nationality Year

Clock (mechanical) I-Hsing & Liang Ling-Tsan China 1725
Diesel Engine Rudolf Diesel Germany 1895
Dynamo Hypolite Pixii France 1832
Electric Lamp Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A. 1879
Electric Motor (DC) Zenobe Gramme Belgium 1873
Electric Motor (AC) Nikola Tesla U.S.A. 1888
Electro-magnet William Sturgeon Britain 1824
Electronic Computer Dr. Alan M. Turing Britain 1943
Film (moving outlines) Louis Prince France 1885
Film (musical sound) Dr. Le de Forest U.S.A. 1923
Fountain Pen Lewis E. Waterman U.S.A. 1884
Gramophone Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A. 1878
Helicopter Etienne Oehmichen France 1924
Jet Engine Sir Frank Whittle Britain 1937
Laser Charles H. Townes U.S.A. 1960
Lift (Mechanical) Elisha G. Otis U.S.A. 1852
Locomotive Richard Trevithick Britain 1804
Machine Gun James Puckle Britain 1718
Microphone Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A. 1876
Microscope Z. Janssen Netherlands 1590
Motor Cycle G. Daimler Germany 1885
Photography (on film) John Carbutt U.S.A. 1888
Printing Press Johann Gutenberg Germany c.1455
Razor (safety) King C. Gillette U.S.A. 1895
Refrigerator James Harrison & Alexander Catlin U.S.A. 1850
Safety Pin Walter Hunt U.S.A. 1849
Sewing machine Barthelemy Thimmonnier France 1829
Ship (steam) J.C. Perier France 1775
Ship (turbine) Hon. Sir C. Parsons Britain 1894
Skyscraper W. Le Baron Jenny U.S.A. 1882
Slide Rule William Oughtred Britain 1621
Steam Engine (condenser) James Watt Britain 1765
Steel Production Henry Bessemer Britain 1855
Steel (stainless) Harry Brearley Britain 1913
Submarine David Bushnell U.S.A. 1776
Tank Sir Ernest Swinton Britain 1914
Telegraph M. Lammond France 1787
Telegraph Code Samuel F.B. Morse U.S.A. 1837
Telephone (perfected) Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A. 1876
Television (mechanical) John Logie Baird Britain 1926
Television (electronic) P.T. Farnsworth U.S.A. 1927
Thermometer Galileo Galilei Italy 1593
Transformer Michael Faraday Britain 1831
Transistor Bardeen, Shockley & Brattain U.S.A. 1948
Washing Machine (elec.) Hurley Machine Co. U.S.A. 1907
Zip-Fastener W.L. Judson U.S.A. 1891
 58

Important Discoveries
Discovery Discoverer Nationality Year

Aluminium Hans Christian Oerstedt Denmark 1827

Atomic number Henry Moseley England 1913
Atomic structure of matter John Dalton England 1803
Chlorine C.W. Scheele Sweden 1774
Electromagnetic induction Michael Faraday England 1831
Electromagnetic waves Heinrich Hertz Germany 1886
Electromagnetism Hans Christian Oersted Denmark 1920
Electron Sir Joseph Thomson England 1897
General theory of relativity Albert Einstein Switzerland 1915
Hydrogen Henry Cavendish England 1766
Law of electric conduction Georg Ohm Germany 1827
Law of electromagnetism Andre Ampere France 1826
Law of falling bodies Galileo Italy 1590
Laws of gravitation & motion Isaac Newton England 1687
Laws of planetary motion Johannes Kepler Germany 1609-10
Magnesium Sir Humphry Davy England 1808
Neptune (Planet) Johann Galle Germany 1846
Neutron James Chadwick England 1932
Nickel Axel Cronstedt Sweden 1751
Nitrogen Daniel Rutherford England 1772
Oxygen Joseph Priestly, C.W. Scheele England, Sweden 1772
Ozone Christian Schonbein Germany 1839
Pluto Clyde Tombaugh U.S.A 1930
Plutonium G.T. Seaborg U.S.A 1940
Proton Ernest Rutherford England 1919
Quantum Theory Max Planck Germany 1900
Radioactivity Antoine Bacquerel France 1896
Radium Pierre & Marie Curie France 1898
Silicon Jons Berzelius Sweden 1824
Special theory of relativity Albert Einstein Switzerland 1905
Sun as centre of solar system Copernicus Poland 1543
Uranium Martin Klaproth Germany 1789
Uranus (Planet) William Herschel England 1781
X-rays Wilhelm Roentgen Germany 1895
 59

Scientific Instruments
Name of Instrument Used for
Altimeter measuring altitude
Ammeter measuring strength of an electric current
Anemometer measuring the velocity of wind
Audiometer measuring level of hearing
Barometer measuring atmospheric pressure
Callipers measuring the internal and external diameters of tubes
Calorimeter measuring quantity of heat
Compass finding out direction
Dynamo converting mechanical energy into electrical energy
Galvanometer detecting and determining the strength of small electric currents
Hydrometer measuring specific gravity of a liquid
Hygrometer measuring the humidity in the atmosphere
Lactometer measuring the purity of milk
Manometer measuring the gaseous pressure
Micrometer measuring minute distances, angles, etc.
Microscope seeing magnified view of very small objects
Photometer measuring intensity of light from distant stars
Pyrometer measuring high temperatures
Radar detecting and finding the presence and location of moving objects like
aircraft, missile, etc.
Radiometer measuring the emission of radiant energy
Rain Gauge measuring the amount of rainfall
Seismograph measuring and recording the intensity and origin of earthquake shocks
Sextant measuring altitude and angular distances between two objects or heavenly
bodies
Spectrometer measuring the refractive indices
Spherometer measuring the curvature of spherical objects/surface
Sphygmomanometer measuring blood pressure
Stethoscope ascertaining the condition of heart and lungs by listening to their function
Stroboscope viewing objects that are moving rapidly with a periodic motion as if they
were at rest
Tachometer measuring the rate of revolution or angular speed of a revolving shaft
Telescope viewing magnified images of distant objects
Thermocouple measuring the temperature inside furnaces and jet engines
Thermometer measuring human body temperature
Thermostat regulating constant temperature
Ultrasonoscope measuring utrasonic sounds
Viscometer measuring the viscosity of a fluid
Voltmeter measuring potential difference between two points.
 60

CHEMISTRY
ELEMENTS l The unit used to measure atomic mass is called
l An element may be defined as a substance which atomic mass unit, i.e., amu.
is made by same type of atoms and it can neither
ELECTRON
be broken into, nor built from two or more simpler
substances by any known physical or chemical l The electron is a fundamental particle of an atom
methods, e.g., copper, silver, hydrogen, carbon, which carries a unit negative charge. It was
oxygen, nitrogen, gold, iron etc. discovered by J.J. Thomson in 1897.

COMPOUNDS PROTON
l A compound may be defined as a substance which l It is a fundamental particle of an atom carrying
contains two or more elements combined in some a unit positive charge. It was discovered by
fixed proportion by weight and which can be Rutherford and Goldstein in 1886.
decomposed into two or more elements by any
NEUTRON
suitable method.
l It is a fundamental particle of an atom carrying
l The properties of a compound are entirely
no charge. It was discovered by Chadwick in
different from those of the elements from which
it is made. 1932.
l Some common examples of compounds are water, ISOTOPES
sugar, salt, aspirin, chloroform, alcohol and ether. l The atoms of the same element having different
MIXTURES mass numbers are called isotopes.
l A material containing two or more elements or ISOBARS
compounds in any proportion is a mixture. l Elements having the same atomic mass but differ
l The components of a mixture can be separated in atomic number are called isobars.
by physical means like filtration, sublimation
and distillation. ISOTONES
l Elements having the same number of neutrons
ATOMIC STRUCTURE are called isotones.
ATOM
l Atom is the smallest part of the element that OXIDATION AND REDUCTION
takes part in a chemical reaction. Atom of an l Oxidation is a process in which a substance adds
element can not be changed into that of another on oxygen or loses hydrogen. In modern terms,
element by a chemical or physical means. It does oxidation is the process in which a substance
not exist in free state. loses electrons.
MOLECULE l Reduction is a process in which a substance adds
on hydrogen or loses oxygen. In modern terms,
A molecule is the smallest part of an element or
reduction is the process in which a substance
l

compound that is capable of existing

gains electrons.
independently.
l Oxidation and reduction always occur
ATOMIC WEIGHT (OR ATOMIC MASS) simultaneously. If one substance is oxidised,
l The atomic mass of an element is the number of another is reduced. The reaction in which this
times its atom is heavier than 1/12th of the mass oxidation-reduction process occurs is called a
of carbon (C12) atom. redox reaction.
 61

l Oxidising agents are substances which bring since the acid and base neutralize each other’s
about the oxidation of other substances, e.g., effect.
Potassium Permanganate, Potassium Dichromate,
Nitric Acid, Hydrogen Peroxide, etc. ELECTROLYSIS
l Reducing agents are substances which bring l The process of decomposition of an electrolyte
about the reduction of other substances, e.g., by the passage of an electric current through its
hydrogen sulphide, hydrogen, carbon, sulphur molten state or its aqueous solution is called
dioxide, etc. electrolysis.
l Device through which electric current is passed
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS known as electrodes.
ACID METALLURGY
l An acid is any compound that can react with a
base to form a salt, the hydrogen of the acid l Metals occur in nature, in the native (in free
being replaced by positive metallic ion. state) as well as in the combined state.
According to modern theory, an acid is a l Naturally occurring materials containing metals
compound which yields hydrogen ions (protons) are called minerals.
to a base in a chemical reaction. In a water l A mineral from which a given metal is obtained
solution, an acid tastes sour, turns blue litmus economically is called an ore.
red and produces free hydrogen ions. l The process of extraction of a metal in a pure
Acid Sources state on a large scale from its ore by Physical and
Citric Acid Lemons or Oranges Chemical means is called metallurgy.
(Citrus Fruits) l The rocky and siliceous matter that associated
Lactic acid Sour milk with the ore is known as gangue.
Tartaric acid Grapes l Substance that is added to ore to remove the
Acetic acid Vinegar gangue is known as flux.
Maleic acid Apples l The process of removal of gangue from the ore
Oxalic acid Tomato is known as concentration.
Formic acid Red ants l Calcination is the heating of the ore in the
absence of air. This method is employed for
BASES obtaining the metal oxides from carbonates and
l Such compounds which gives salt and water with hydroxides.
acid known as bases. Bitter in taste, turns red l Roasting is the heating of the ore in the presence
litmus paper into blue, contains replaceable of air. On roasting, part of the ore is oxidised to
hydroxyl group. form an oxide. This oxide is then reduced to the
l Some important bases are sodium hydroxide, metal.
potassium hydroxide, sodium carbonate and l The industrial reduction process for obtaining
ammonium hydroxide. metal from the treated ore is called smelting.
l All alkalies are bases but all bases are not alkalies
because all bases are not soluble in water. AMALGUM
l An alloy in which one of the component metals
SALTS is mercury is known as amalgum.
l Salts are ionic compounds containing a positive
ion (cation) and a negative ion (anion). IRON AND STEEL
l When an acid reacts with a base, a salt and water l Iron is extracted from its ores by the blast furnace
are formed. This reaction is called neutralization process.
 62

l Iron obtained from blast furnace is called pig l A natural source of hydrocarbon is petroleum
iron or cast iron containing about 5% carbon. obtained from sedimentary rocks.
l Pure iron is called wrought iron which does not l Compounds having the same molecular formula
contain carbon more than 0.2%, or any other but differ in properties due to different structural
impurities or constituents. formula known as isomers and this property is
l Steel contains 0.25% – 2% carbon and varying called isomerism.
amounts of other elements.
SATURATED HYDROCARBONS (ALKANES)
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS l Containing single covalent bonds only.
ALLOTROPY l Such compounds are, in general, called alkanes
for instance, Methane, Ethane, Propane, Butane.
l Such substances which having the same chemical
properties, but differ in physical properties, UNSATURATED HYDROCARBONS
known as allotropes and this property is called
l Containing multiple bonds.
allotropy.
l Compounds with double bonds are called
DIAMOND alkenes, e.g. ethylene, propyene etc. and triple
l Diamond is the purest form of carbon. bond containing compounds are called alkynes,
l It is non-conductor of heat and electricity. e.g. acetylene, propyne etc.
l It is the hardest natural substance. l Benzene is an unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbon
l It burns in air at 900°C and gives out CO2. with the structure.
l Compounds derived from benzene are called
GRAPHITE (BLACK LEAD) aromatic compounds.
l It is good conductor of heat and electricity.
l Graphite is used in making lead pencils. FUELS
l Graphite is also used as electrodes, lubricant, Solid Fuels
moderators, electrotyping and carbon arc.
l These contain carbon and, during combustion,
AMORPHOUS FORMS OF CARBON form mainly carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
1. Wood Charcoal – Obtained from wood with a large amount of heat.
2. Sugar Charcoal – Obtained from cane sugar l Examples of solid fuels are wood, coal, coke and
3. Bone or Animal Charcoal – Obtained from paraffin wax.
animal bones
Liquid Fuels
4. Coke Charcoal – Obtained from coal
l These are basically mixtures of several
CARBON MONOXIDE (CO) hydrocarbons. During combustion, they form
l Carbon monoxide is an active poison and is very carbon dioxide and water.
dangerous as it is a colourless and odourless gas l Liquid fuels are obtained as different fractions
and can not, therefore, be easily detected. during the distillation of petroleum.
l The extremely poisonous nature of carbon l Examples of liquid fuels are kerosene oil, petrol,
monoxide is a result of its combining with the diesel oil and alcohol.
haemoglobin of the blood to form carbo-
xyhaemoglobin, which is not decompassed by Gaseous Fuels
any of the processes in the body. l Gaseous fuels do not leave ash on burning and
HYDROCARBONS have high content of heat.
l Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called l The main gaseous fuels are liquefied petroleum
hydrocarbon. gas (LPG, mainly a mixture of propane and
 63

butane and used in homes for cooking, water gas l Hard glass is potash lime silicate and melts at
(CO + H2), producer gas (CO + N2), coal gas high temperature in comparison to soft glass and
(mixture of hydrogen, methane, ethylene, carbon is used in manufacturing of flask etc.
monoxide, nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide) l Flint glass is a lead potash silicate and is used
and natural gas (mixture of methane, ethane, in manufacturing of prism, lens and optical
propane and butane with traces of higher instruments.
hydrocarbons obtained from oil well, above
petroleum). l Pyrex glass is a mixture of sodium aluminium
borosilicates. It is used in manufacturing of high
PETROLEUM AND NATURAL GAS quality equipments in laboratory because it does
l Natural gas contains about 80% methane and not melt at very high temperature.
10% ethane, the remaining 10% being a mixture l Safety glass is prepared by placing a layer of
of higher gaseous hydrocarbons. transparent plastic glass between two layers of
l Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is natural gas glass by means of a suitable adhesive. It is used
filled in cylinders under high pressure. in making wind screen of automobiles,
l The quality of petrol for use in car engines is aeroplanes, trains etc.
denoted by their anti-knock properties. CEMENT
l To increase octane number, tetra ethyl lead (TEL) l The approximate composition of Portland cement
is added to petrol. is:
HEAVY WATER 1. Calcium Oxide ® 62%
2. Silica ® 22%
l Chemically heavy water is deuterium oxide.
3. Alumina ® 7.5%
l Heavy water is used in nuclear reactors as a 4. Magnesia ® 2.5%
moderator because it slows the fast moving
5. Ferric Oxide ® 2.5%
neutrons.
l A small amount of gypsum is added to slow
Hard and Soft Water down the setting of cement.
l Water which produces lather with soap solution l Cement containing excess amount of lime cracks
readily is called soft water. during setting while cement containing less
l Water which does not produce lather with soap amount of lime is weak in strength.
solution readily is called hard water. l Cement containing no iron is white but hard to
l The hardness of water is due to presence of the burn.
bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium
POLYMERS AND PLASTICS
and magnesium.
l A polymer is a large molecule, built up from
l Temporary hardness of water is due to the
many hundreds of thousands of small unit called
presence of bicarbonates of calcium and
monomeric units or monomers.
magnesium.
The process of formation of polymers from
Permanent hardness of water is due to presence
l
l

of sulphates, chlorides, nitrates of calcium and monomers is called polymerization.

magnesium. l Plastics are cross-linked polymers and very tough.
l Some examples of plastics are — Celluloid,
GLASS Bakelite and Vinyl Plastics.
l Ordinary glass is solid mixture of silica, sodium
silicate and calcium silicate. RUBBER
l Soft glass is a soda-lime silicate glass. It melts at l Natural and Synthetic rubbers are examples of
low temperature. It is used in manufacturing of polymers.
bottles, test tubes etc. l Natural rubber is isomer of isoprene.
 64

l When the natural rubber is heated along with Some Importants Alloys
sulphur called vulcanisation. The resulting rubber
is elastic, hard and strong. Alloys Composition
l Synthetic rubbers are made by polymerisation of Brass Cu, Zn
chloroprene, styrene and butadiene mixtures and Bronze Cu, Sn
isobutylene. Gun metal Cu, Sn, Zn
SOAPS Bel metal Cu, Sn
l The soaps are sodium salts of higher fatty acids. German silver Cu, Zn, Ni
They are useful only in soft water as they form Dutch metal Cu, Zn
an insoluble precipitate in hard water. This Aluminium Al, Cu
precipitate consists of salts of calcium and Nichrome Ni, Fe, Cr, Mn
magnesium of higher fatty acids. No lather or
Chromium steel Cr, C, Fe
emulsion is formed and washing is not possible.

Chemical Formulae, Commercial Name of Chemical Compounds

Commercial Name Chemical Compounds Chemical formulae
Common salt Sodium chloride NaCl
Baking soda Sodium bicarbonate NaHCO 3
Washing soda Sodium carbonate Na2CO3 . 10H2O
Caustic soda Sodium hydroxide NaOH
Chilli salt peter Sodium nitrate NaNO 3
Soda ash Sodium carbonate Na 2CO 3
Hypo Sodium thiosulphate Na2S2O3 . 5H2O

BIOLOGY
diseases, body weakness or defects with the
BRANCHES OF BIOLOGY help of massage and exercise etc.
(a) Anthropology: Deals with the scientific study (h) Sericulture: Deals with the production of raw
of man and the mankind. silk from silkworm.
(b) Agronomy: Deals with the management of (i) Pharmacology: Deals with the knowledge and
farms and science of crop production. manufacture of drugs.
(c) Apiculture: Deals with the process of bee (j) Occupational therapy: Deals with treating
keeping for commercial purposes. the physically handicapped or injured persons
(d) Entomology: Deals with the structure, habits through exercise etc.
and classification of insects. (k) Psychology: Deals with the study of human
(e) Eugenics: Deals with improving the human mind, its behaviour and mental qualities.
race. (l) DNA finger printing: Technique to help
(f) Pathology: Deals with the nature of disease, identify a person on the basis of genes.
their causes, symptoms, effects, their cure and
control. ANIMALS/PLANTS
(g) Physiotherapy: Deals with the treatment of l The organisms that closely resemble one another
 65 (137) G.K.—9

are placed in one group, the groups which have

similarities are combined together into larger
FOOD
groups, and these into still larger ones. The most l It is a nutritive substance taken by an organism
inclusive category is kingdom. Other major for growth, work, repair and maintaining life
categories, in descending order are: phylum, class, processes. It provides energy to do work and
order, family, genus, and species. Man belongs maintain body heat, provides materials for the
to Animal kingdom, chordata division or phylum, growth of the body, makes necessary materials
Mammalia class, Primates order, Hominidae for reproduction and provides materials for the
family, Homo genus and Sapiens species. repair of damaged cells and tissues of our body.
l Carbohydrates: For a normal person, 400 to 500
CELL THEORY gms of carbohydrates are required daily but for
sportspersons, growing children and nursing
l Cell is the basic unit of structure of all living mothers, it is on higher side.
organisms. According to the cell theory, all
l Proteins: They are complex organic compounds
organism are composed of cells and cell products made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.
and growth and development results from the The building blocks of Protein are Amino acids
division and differentiation of cells. and there are large number of amino acids.
l Cells membrane surrounds all living cells. l Proteins are essential for the growth of children
l Nucleus is the most important cell organelle and teenagers, and for maintenance and making
which controls and coordinates all cell activities good the wear and tear of the body tissues in adults.
and also concerned with the transmission of l An adult needs about 1 gm of protein per kg of
heredity characters. body weight.
l Mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes and l Fats: They are esters of long chain fatty acids
dictyosomes are present in plant and animal cells. and an alcohol called glycerol. Fats also contain
l Only plant cells have cell wall, chloroplast and atoms of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
vacuole. l The main function of fats in the body is to provide
l Viruses constitute a difficulty since in many ways a steady source of energy and for this purpose,
they are intermediate between living and dead they are deposited within the body.
matter. l One gm of fat gives 37 kilojoules of energy
l The cell is said to be made up of a substance which is more than double of that given by
carbohydrates.
called Protoplasm which has two main
constituents cytoplasm and nucleus, and is l Fats, the richest source of energy to our body,
bounded by a cell membrane on outside. can be stored in the body for subsequent use. Fats,
soluble in organic solvents and insoluble in water,
l Cells take up the raw materials for metabolism also supply fat-soluble vitamins to our body.
through the cell membrane from extracellular
l Minerals: Some of the important minerals needed
fluid surrounding them.
by our body are — iron, iodine, calcium,
l Cytoplasm inside is responsible for maintaining phosphorus, sodium, potassium, zinc, copper,
the internal distribution of organelles and also magnesium, chloride, fluoride and sulphur.
for free cell movements. l We get most of the minerals in combined form
l Mitochondria inside provides energy for reactions from plant sources. Deficiency of these minerals
inside the cell. Ribosomes are responsible for the causes many diseases.
synthesis of proteins. l Energy Requirements: The energy requirement
l The Endoplasmic Reticulum helps in addition of of a body varies according to age, sex, lifestyle,
other sugar units to proteins and their occupation, climate and special situations like
transportation to other parts of the cell. pregnancy and lactation.
 66 (137) G.K.—9-II

Age Energy requirements l Vitamins: They act as catalysts in certain

chemical reactions of metabolism in our body.
5 years 6000 kJ per day
11 years 9000 kJ per day l They don't provide energy to our body nor form
18 years 11000 kJ per day body tissues.
Adult (normal work) 9600 kJ per day l More than 15 types of vitamins are known and
Adult (heavy work) 12000 kJ per day only 2 vitamins — D and K can be formed in our
Adult (very heavy work) 16000 kJ per day body.

Vitamin Necessity Source

Vitamin A For maintaining healthy eyesight, Cod liver oil, fish, eggs, milk,
normal skin and hair carrot, leafy vegetables.
Vitamin B1 For growth, carbohydrate metabolism, Milk, soya-food, meat, whole
functioning of heart, nerves and muscles. cereals, green vegetables.
Vitamin C For keeping teeth, gums and joints healthy, for Citrus fruits, guava, tomatoes.
increasing resistance of body to infection
Vitamin D For normal growth of bones and teeth Milk, eggs, butter, cod liver oil, sun light.
Vitamin E For normal reproduction, functioning of Green leafy vegetables, milk,
muscles and protection of liver butter, tomato.
Vitamin K For normal clotting of blood and normal functioning of liver Green leafy vegetables, soyabean, tomato.

l Roughage: Though it does not provide any Vitamin A Night-blindness,

energy to the body, yet keeps the digestive Xerophthalmia
system in order, by helping in retaining water in Vitamin B1 Beri-Beri
the body and preserving constitution. Vitamin B2 Cheilosis
l The main source of roughage are salads, cabbage, Vitamin B5 Pellagra
corn cob, porridge, vegetables and fruits with Vitamin C Scurvy
stems. Vitamin D Rickets (in children),
(in adult) Osteomalacia
DISEASES Vitamin K Hypothrombinemia
COMMUNICABLE DISEASES Iron Anaemia
l They are the diseases which can be transmitted Iodine Goitre
from reservoirs of infection or infected person to Fluoride Dental caries
the healthy but susceptible persons. Calcium and Affects formation
l The disease causing agent or the pathogen can phosphorus of bones and teeth
be transmitted directly or indirectly. Hormone Deficiency Disease
DEFICIENCY DISEASES Insulin Diabetes
l These occur due to deficiency of some nutrients Thyroxine Cretinism (child), Goitre
in the diet or some hormone due to hypo activity STH Dwarfism, Gigantism
or damage to endocrine glands. ALLERGIC DISEASE
Diet Deficiency Disease l In these diseases, body becomes hypersensitive
Protein Kwashiorkor to some foreign agents, allergens, which cause
Protein-energy Marasmus inflammation when come in contact with the
malnutrition
body or enter inside the body.
 67

l Foreign agents can be dust, pollens, certain-foods,

serum, certain drugs or fabrics. SYSTEM OF HUMAN BODY
l The unfavourable response of the body to DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
allergens is called allergic reaction. Asthma and l The digestive system consists of alimentary canal
hay fever are allergic diseases. and digestive glands. Alimentary canal is about
BACTERIAL DISEASES 8-10 meters long tube of varying diameter. Food
l Bacteria are minute organisms which are known is taken in through mouth.
to cause a number of diseases: l The tongue helps in ingestion, chewing, tasting
and swallowing of food and mixing of food and
Disease Incubation Spread
saliva.
period through
l Salivary glands secret saliva which helps in
Tuberculosis 2-10 weeks Air-borne,droplet
infection digestion of starch. Gastric glands present in the
Diptheria 2-6 days Air-borne droplet mucosa of the stomach, provide acidic medium
infection for the food digestion.
Cholera 6 hours to Contaminated food and l Liver, the largest sized, reddish brown gland of
2-3 days water. House flies
are the vectors
body, secrets bile. Liver is present in the right
Leprosy Upto 5 years Prolonged and upper part of the abdomen. The bile secreted by
intimate contact the liver is stored in gall bladder. It helps in the
Whopping 7-14 days Droplet infection emulsification and digestion of fats.
cough l Pancreas is the second largest gland in human
Tetanus 3-21 days Entry of cysts through
body and secretes pancreatic juices. Intestine also
any wound made by
sharp object, dog bite secret juices.
or fall on the road
Typhoid 1-3 weeks Directed and Contact RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Plague 2-6 days Rats and bed-bugs l Oxygen is needed for the oxidation and expelling
transmit the germs of carbon dioxide is necessary to avoid its-
Pneumonia 1-3 days Air-borne accumulation. This process of exchange of gases
between the environment and the body, is called
VIRAL DISEASES respiration.
Disease Incubation Spread l In some unicellular organisms like aerobic
period through bacteria, amoeba, hydra, etc. there is direct
Chicken-pox 12-20 days Direct contact with exchange of gases between the carbon dioxide
infected persons or of the body and oxygen of water.
infected objects
Smallpox 12 days Droplet infection l There is no blood for transport of gases. However,
Poliomyalitis 7-14 days Direct and oral in larger and complex form of animals,
Measles 10 days Droplet infection specialised respiratory organs are developed.
Mumps 12-26 days Droplet infection l Amphibians respire through skin, fishes through
Rabies 1-3 months Bite of rabied animal like gills and mammals, birds and reptiles through
dogs, monkeys, cats lungs.
Influenza 24-28 hours Air-borne
l A normal adult inspires or expires about 500 ml
DISEASES CAUSED BY PROTOZOA of gas with each breath and about 72 breathes
per minutes.
l Amoebiasis (Amoebic dysentery), Malaria, Kala-
azar, Trypanosomiasis and Giardiasis are main CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
diseases caused by Protozoans. l Main components of the circulatory system are
l Malaria is a parasitic infection. heart, blood vessels and blood.
 68

l Heart is a thick, muscular, contractile and l Group AB contains neither anti-A nor anti-B
automatic pumping organ. In birds and mammals, factor and people with this group can receive
heart is divided into four chambers. transfusions from both but can give to neither.
l Arteries are thick walled blood vessels which l Group O contains both anti-A and anti-B and
always carry the blood away from the heart to can receive blood only from Group O but can
various body parts. donate blood to all Groups. Group O is called
l Veins are thin walled blood vessels which always universal donor because they can donate to all
carry the blood from various parts generally to the Groups.
the heart. l Group AB is called universal acceptor because
l In an adult healthy person, the normal rate of they can accept blood from all Groups.
heart beat at rest is about 70-72 times per minute.
SKELETON SYSTEM
BLOOD l The frame or the hard structure of the human
l It is red, opaque, somewhat sticky and viscous body is composed from the bones and the organs
fluid in the body of animals. of making such frame are called skeleton system.
l It is slightly alkaline (pH = 7.4), heavier than Bones
water (sp gr = 1.05) and five times more viscous
than distilled water. l Bone is the hardest tissue of the body and form
the largest section of the body weight.
l Blood forms 6 to 10% of the body weight.
Bones contain organic as well as inorganic
An adult, on average, has about 6.8 litres of
l
l
matters. With advancing age, the inorganic
blood.
matter's share increases, causing the bones to
l Blood contains plasma and blood corpuscles with become more brittle.
the former occupying 55-60% of the volume.
l Long bones such as humerus and femur are hollow
l Plasma transports food components, metabolic
while small bones are solid.
wastes and hormones; keeps constant level of pH
of blood, maintains body temperature and helps EXCRETORY SYSTEM
in blood clotting. l In men, excretory system is formed of one pair of
l Erythrocytes or red blood corpuscles (RBCs), kidneys, one pair of ureters, a urinary bladder
leukocytes or white blood corpuscles (WBCs) and a urethra. Kidney is about 10 cm long, bean
and blood platelets are other parts of the blood. shaped, dark-red and slightly flattened structure.
l Due to the presence of iron containing pigment l Sweet glands, oil glands, lungs and liver also act
haemoglobin, RBCs are red in colour. The RBCs as additional excretory organ.
are crucial for ex-change of oxygen and carbon l In case of kidney failure, a man can treated by
dioxide. WBCs are nucleated and non-pigmented hemodialysis or transplantation of a kidney from
cells. They are larger in size than RBCs but far a donor's body.
less in number (1 : 600).
l WBCs play an important role in immune system NERVOUS SYSTEM
of the body. Blood platelets cause the coagulation l The system which controls and coordinates the
of blood and clot formation to prevent excessive body functions, retains memory and receives and
bleeding. sends signals, is called the nervous system.
l Human blood is divided into four main Groups— l The nervous system comprises brain, spinal cord,
A, B, AB and O. nerves and nerve fibres.
l The plasma of Group A blood contains an anti- l Human brain weighs about 1200 to 1400 gm.
B factor and vice-versa, so that people of Groups Main parts of the brain are cerebrum, cerebellum
A and B cannot accept each other's blood. and medulla oblongata.
 69

l Cerebrum controls voluntary function and is site and thus one can produce organisms of known
of intelligence, will power, emotions, etc. and desirable characteristics.
l Cerebellum controls involuntary functions like
GENETIC ENGINEERING
heart beat, respiration, etc.
l It is the method of artificial synthesis of new
l Spinal cord is about 45 cm long and about 35
genes and their subsequent transplantation or
gm in weight. It conducts impulses to and from
methods of correcting the defective genes.
the brain and controls reflex actions of the body.
l It has helped in producing plants and animals
l Various cranial (arising from ending into brain)
with specific characters.
and spinal nerves (arising from spinal cord)
control smell, vision, movements of body parts, l So, crippling hereditary diseases can also be cured
taste and hearing. like hemophilia etc.

REPRODUCTION SYSTEM DNA FINGERPRINTING

l In this type of reproduction, there is formation l It consists of examining repetitive DNA in the
and fusion of sex cells, called gametes. genome for variations in the length of restriction
fragments.
l Organism develops from the zygote through
embryo formation. l Every individual has his own pattern, so that
fingerprinting can match blood to a particular
l It generally involves two parents — male and
person, and patterns are inherited from parent to
female.
child, allowing the method to identify
l The offsprings are different from the parent as relationships between individuals.
variations appear due to new combinations of
genes. So, it plays an important role in evolution. IN-VITRO FERTILIZATION
l All higher plants and animals reproduce sexually. l When a sperm and an egg are made to fertilize
outside a living body (usually a test tube), it is
CHROMOSOMES called in-vitro fertilization.
l Plants and animals have fixed number of l This process has been used to impregnate several
chromosomes per cell. females who could not do so through natural
l Genes are located on chromosomes and are means.
responsible for transfer of characteristics from
one cell to the next either in the same organism Diseases and the Parts of Body they Affect
or from parents to offspring.
AIDS—Immune system Gout—Joints of bone
l Man has 23 pairs of chromosomes, of which one of body Jaundice—Liver
pair is sex chromosomes. Arthritis—Inflammation Meningitis—Brain or
l Males child inherits X chromosomes from the of joints spinal cord
female parent and Y from the male parent. Asthma—Lungs Pleurisy—Pleura (in-
l Female child receives a X chromosome each from Cataract—Eyes flammation of)
either of its parents. Polio—motor neurons
Conjunctivitis—Eyes
Pneumonia—Lungs
l Mendel was the first scientist to explain Diabetes—Pancreas
Pyorrhoea—Sockets of
transmission of units from reproductive cells of Diphtheria—Throat teeth
the parents to the off-springs. Glaucoma—Eyes Tuberculosis—Lungs
CLONING Eczema—Skin Typhoid—Intestine
Goitre—Front of the Malaria—Spleen
l It is the process of producing genetically identical
neck (due to enlarge- Leukaemia—Blood
copies of a biological material, starting from a
ment of thyroid gland) Rickets—Bones
single cell. The original genes are transplanted
 70

SPACE RESEARCH
First in Space
V First creator of rules regarding space research Isaac Newton
V First artificial satellite launched in space Sputnik-1 (1957)
V First living being sent in space Louika (a dog)
V Firstever manned spacecraft Vostok-I
V First man in space Yuri Gagarin U.S.S.R. (1961)
V First woman in space Valentina Tereshkova U.S.S.R. (June 1963)
V First man who moved in space out of the spacecraft Alexi Livonov U.S.S.R. (June 1965)
V First person to land on moon Neil Armstrong, America (21st July, 1969)
V First fourwheeled carriage without human Leunokhev-I U.S.S.R. (1970)
being on moon
V First space lab in orbit Skylab (America, 1973)
V First space shuttle Columbia (America, 1981)
V First Indian (man) in space Squadron leader—Rakesh Sharma
(13th April, 1984)
V First Indian (Woman) in space Kalpana Chawla (19th Nov., 1997)
V First American woman in space Sailyride (1983)
V First spacecraft on Mars Pathfinder (6 July, 1997)
V First woman who lead spacecraft Allin Collis (America)
V First spacecraft without man Shenzoo, China (20th Nov. 1999)

Indian Space Programme : At a Glance

Satellite Date Type Launch Vehicle Result
Aryabhatta 19-04-75 Scientific Cosmos successful
Bhaskara I 07-06-79 Geosurvey Cosmos successful
Rohini 10-08-79 Geosurvey S.L.V.3 unsuccessful
Rohini D-1 18-07-80 Geosurvey S.L.V.3 successful
Rohini 31-05-81 Scientific S.L.V.3 successful
Apple 19-06-81 Communication Ariane successful
Bhaskara II 20-11-81 Geosurvey Cosonos successful
INSAT-1A 10-04-82 Multipurpose Delta unsuccessful
Rohini 17-04-83 Scientific S.L.V.3 successful
INSAT-1B 30-08-83 Multipurpose Space Shuttle successful
SROSS I 24-03-87 Technical ASLV-D1 unsuccessful
IRS-1A 17-03-88 Remote sensing Vostok successful
SROSS II 17-07-88 Technical ASLV-D2 unsuccessful
INSAT-1C 21-07-88 Multipurpose Ariane-4 unsuccessful
INSAT-1D 12-06-90 Multipurpose Delta successful
IRS-1B 29-08-91 Remote sensing Vostok successful
INSAT-2A 10-07-92 Multipurpose Ariane successful
 71

Satellite Date Type Launch Vehicle Result

INSAT-1D 12-06-90 Multipurpose Delta successful
IRS-1B 29-08-91 Remote sensing Vostok successful
INSAT-2A 10-07-92 Multipurpose Ariane successful
IRS-ID 29-09-97 Remote sensing PSLV successful
INSAT-3B 22-03-2000 Multipurpose Ariane successful
G-SAT-1 18-04-2001 Multipurpose GSLV-D successful
MAT SAT 12-09-2002 Meteorology PSLVC-4 successful
INSAT-3E 28-09-2003 Communication Ariane-5 successful
Cartosat-1 & hamsat 05-05-2005 Maping and Communication PSLV-C6 successful
CARTOSAT-2 10-01-2007 Communication PSLV-C7 successful
Chandrayaan-I 22-10-2008 Maping and Scientific PSLV-C11 successful
Oceansat-2 24-09-2009 Remote Sensing PSLV-C14 successful
CARTOSAT-2B 12-07-2010 Communication PSLV-C15 successful
RESOURCESAT-2 20-04-2011 Remote Sensing PSLV-C16 successful
GSAT-12 15-07-2011 Communication PSLV-C17 successful
Megha-Tropiques 12-10-2011 Maping and Scientific PSLV-C18 successful
RISAT-1 26-04-2012 Remote Sensing PSLV-C19 successful
Spot-6 09-09-2012 Remote Sensing PSLV-C21 successful
Saral 25-02-2013 Scientific PSLV-C20 successful
GSAT-7 30-08-2013 Defence Ariane-5 successful
MOM 5-11-2013 Mapping PSLV-C25 successful
GSAT-14 05-01-2014 Communication GSLV-D5 successful
IRNSS-1B 04-04-2014 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C24 successful
Spot-7 30-06-2014 Remote Sensing PSLV-C23 successful
GSAT-16 07-12-2014 Communication Ariane-5 successful
IRNSS-1D 28-03-2015 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C27 successful
GSAT-6 27-08-2015 Communication GSLV-D6 successful
Astrosat 28-09-2015 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C30 successful
TELEOS-1 16-12-2015 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C29 successful
IRNSS-1E 20-01-2016 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C31 successful
IRNSS-1F 10-03-2016 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C32 successful
IRNSS-1G 28-04-2016 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C33 successful
Cartosat-2 & others 22-06-2016 Mapping and Scientific PSLV-C34 successful
insat-3DR 08-09-2016 Meteorology GSLV-F05 successful
Scatsat-1 & others 26-09-2016 Multipurpose PSLV-C35 successful
RESOURCESAT-2A 07-12-2016 Remote Sensing PSLV-C36 successful
CARTOSAT-2 & 103 others 15-02-2017 Multipurpose PSLV-C37 successful
GSAT-9 06-05-2017 Communication GSLV MK-II successful
GSAT-19 05-06-2017 Communication GSLV MK-III-D1 successful
CARTOSAT-2E 23-06-2017 Earth observation Satellite PSLV-C38 successful
GSAT-17 29-06-2017 Earth observation Satellite Ariane-5 ECA successful
Cartosat-2F & others 12-01-2018 Multipurpose PSLV-C40 successful
GSAT-6A 29-03-2018 Communication GSLV-F08 successful
GSAT-7A 19-12-2018 Military Satellite GSLV-MK-II-F11 successful
Chandrayaan-2 22-07-2019 Lunar Exploration GSLV MK-III M01 —
Cartosat-3 27-11-2019 Earth Imagine Satellite PSLV-C47 successful
GSAT-30 17-01-2020 Communication Ariane-5 successful
EOS-01 07-11-2020 Earth Observation PSLV-C49 successful
CMS-01/GSAT-12R 17-12-2020 Communication PSLV-XLC50 successful
 72

COMPUTER
l The computer is the system of that electronic l The data is entered through the input unit in the
device through which various informations are computer and through the central processing unit
processed on the basis of a definite set of with the help of External Memory Unit datas are
instructions called program and mathematical arranged and processed.
(numerical) and non-mathematical both types of l Ultimately by the output unit these datas or
informations are processed. informations are issued or released.
l The first mechanical computer was composed or
fabricated by Blaise Pascal in 1642 and it is PARTS OF COMPUTER
called Pascalene. l Monitor : The monitor of the computer is like a
l But in 1833, Charles Babbage first time television in which the picture appears in the
conceived an automatic calculator or computer. form of doted points on the screen and these are
called pixels.
l Charles Babbage is called the father of modern
computer. l Hard Disc and Floppy Disc : The Hard Disc is
the permanent disc in the computers while the
l Herman made an electronic tabulating machine
Floppy Disc is the disc utilised when datas or
based on punch cards which operates
informations are to be transferred from one
automatically.
computer to another.
l In 1937, first mechanical computer Mark-I was
l Mouse : The mouse of the computer is like the
fabricated by Howard Akeen.
remote control of TV through which computer is
l The most outstanding contribution in the directly regulated or controlled without utilising
development of modern computer goes to John the key-board.
Wan Newmaan who brought the 2nd revolution
l Printer : The printer is a device which prints any
in the area of computer in 1951.
documents or processed informations of the
l He discovered EDVAC (Electronic Discrete computer.
Variable Automatic Computer) and utilised the
stored program and the binary number system in SOME HIGH LEVEL LANGUAGES
the computer. 1. FORTRAN : This language was developed
for solving the mathematical formulae very
FUNCTIONS OF COMPUTER
quickly and conveniently.
l 1. Collection and composition (input) of datas;
2. COBOL : This language was developed for
2. Storage of datas. the commerical purposes. For the processing
3. Processing of datas. of this language a group of sentences is
4. Retrieval or output of the proccessed selected called paragraph and all paragraphs
informations and datas. composed are called a section, while all
sections composed are called a division.
UNITS OF COMPUTER
3. BASIC : In basic a definite part of the
1. Input unit. prescribed instruction is only inserted in the
2. Central processing unit–CPU. computer.
3. External Memory unit. 4. ALGOL : This was basically fabricated and
4. Output unit. designed for the complex algebraic
l The CPU of the computer is called brain of the calculations.
computer and sometimes CPU is also called 5. PASCAL : It is an amplified and modified
Micro Processor of the computer. form of ALGOL.
 73 (137) G.K.—10

6. COMAL : This computer language is used l In India a very large computer network namely
for the students of secondary level. INDONET has been installing through which all
7. LOGO : This language is used for children the main towns and cities has to be interlinked.
and kids for drawing Graphic line diagrams.
COMPUTER TERMINOLOGY
8. PROLOG : This language is developed in
l Bit : The bit is a unit of measurement of the
1973 in France and is used for Artificial
electronic data. One bit is either 0 or 1 but not
Intelligence which is capable and equivalent
both. On composing 8 bits, 1 byte is formed.
to the logical program.
l Bug : The Bug is the error in the computer
9. FORTH : This language was invented by
program or system and its eradication is called
Charles Mure which is frequently used in all
Debug.
types of the works in the computer.
l Byte : Total eight bits compose a byte. Thus 8
COMPUTER VIRUS bits = 1 byte.
l The computer virus is an electronic code which l CD-ROM : A CD like of music CD in which data
is used to abolish or erradicate the inclusive can be stored substantially called CD-ROM. In a
informations or programs of the computer. CD with comparison to floppy extremely more
l Some important computer viruses are datas can be stored but one problem in it is that
Micheleanjalo, Dork Avangor, kilo, filip, one time recorded data can not be deleted or
Macmug, Scores, Casecade, Jeruslem, Date crime, modified.
Coloumbs crime, Internet virus, Pachcom, Pach l Chip : It is a thin slice on which by a special
EXE, COM-EXE, Marizuana, C-brain, bloody, mechanism a circuit is designed which is
Chenge Mungu and Desi etc. normally made from Silicon.
l Memory System : The place where computer
COMPUTER NETWORKING
data and program are temporarily kept is called
l There are two types of networkings which are Memory system. Usually memory is implied from
usually occur—Local Area Networking (LAN) RAM.
and Wide Area Networking (WAN).
l Modem : The device which converts digital
signals into analogue signals and vice-versa is
called Modem.
l RAM : It is Random Access Memory
(a place) where datas to be processed are kept
temporarily and it is unstable memory.
l ROM : It is Read Only Memory and it is stable
or Non-valatile memory which doesn't ended after
power off.
l Scanner : It is a device through which graphic
image is transformed to digital image and the
scanners are of usually two types one desktop
l By LAN all the computers of the same buildings and another hand operating.
are connected like the computers of university
premises, computers of offices etc. PROGRAMING
l By WAN all the comptuers of a large area are l Computers perform phenomenal feats of
connected like the computers of all the offices of calculation, but they do not do so in a
a city or town etc. complicated way.
 74

l They actually carry out very simple operations, Several computer languages have been
such as addition and subtraction. developed for different applications, including
l They achieve their fantastic computing power BASIC, COBOL, FORTRAN and PASCAL.
by carrying out these operations at incredible Writing programmes is very skilled and time-
speed. consuming work.
l The programme, or set of instructions for operating l But for most typical computer applications
the computer, is therefore written as a sequence ready-written programmes are available, called
of very simple steps. “packages”.

p p p
 75

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
FIRST IN THE WORLD
V First Chinese visitor to India Fahien
V First foreign invader of India Alexander, the Great (Greek)
V First person to climb Mt. Everest Tenzing Norgay (India) and Edmund Hillary (New
Zealand) (1953)
V First atom bomb dropped at Hiroshima (Japan)
V First man in the space Yuri Gagarin (former USSR)
V First woman in the space Valentina Tereshkova (former USSR)
V First person to walk in the space Alexei Leonov (former USSR)
V First person to land on the moon Neil Armstrong (USA)
V First and the only woman to have Santosh Yadav (Indian; May 12, 1992; May
climbed Mt. Everest twice 10, 1993)
V First person on Mt. Everest without oxygen Phu Dorjee (Indian; May 9, 1984)
V First person to climb Mt. Everest twice Nawang Gombu
V First person to climb Mt. Everest Chhewang Nima Sherpa (19 times)
maximum times
V First President of the USA George Washington
V First woman Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike (Sri Lanka)
V First person to swim across Mathew Webb
English Channel
V First woman to swim across English Channel Gertrude Caroline Ederle
V First woman to climb Mt. Everest Junko Tabei (Japan)
V First woman to climb Mt. Everest Alison Hargreaves (Briton: May 13, 1995)
alone and without oxygen supplies
V First Aeroplane to fly around the Voyager (Dec. 1986)
world without refuelling
V First test-tube Baby Louise Brown (UK; 1978)
V First all-talking Film Jaz Singer (1927)
V First Secretary-General of the UN Trygve Lie (Norway: 1946-53)
V First woman President of the UN Vijayalakshmi Pandit (India: 1953)
General Assembly
V First woman to reach North Pole Ann Bancroft (1986)
V First person to reach North Pole Robert Peary
V First person to reach South Pole Amundsen (1911)
V First woman to command Spacecraft in Space Ellin Collins

75
 76

SUPERLATIVES (WORLD)
(The Largest, Biggest, Smallest, Longest, Highest)
Airport Largest King Fahd International Airport, Dammam (Saudi Arabia)
Animal, Tallest Giraffe (Average height 6.09 m)
Largest and Heaviest Blue Whale (190 tonnes)
Longest recorded Boot lace Worm (55 m)
Fastest Cheetah (Approximately 100 km/hr)
Bay, With max. shore line Hudson Bay (Canada: 12268 km)
With maximum area Bay of Bengal (India: 217 million hc)
Bridge, Highest Sidu River Bridge (China: 1627 ft)
Building, Tallest Burj Khalifa (Dubai, 818 meter)
Canal, Big ship (longest) Suez Canal (160 km)
Busiest Kiel Canal (North Sea)
Canyon/Gorge, Deepest Hells Canyon, Snake River (Idaho : 7900 ft)
Largest Grand Canyon (Colarado River; USA; 446 km)
Church, Largest Basilica of St. Peter (Vatican City Rome-- Area 23000 sq.m.)
City, Largest in Area Jiuquan Gansu, China (Area 1,67,996 Sq km)
Continent, biggest Asia (30,928,605 km2)
Smallest Australia Mainland (Area 8,426,635 km2)
Country, Largest in Population China (over 138.5 crore)
Largest in Area Russia (17,075,000 sq. km)
With largest electorate India (over 90 crores)
Smallest independent State of Vatican City (109 acre)
With most land frontiers China (16)
Dam, Largest (concrete) Grand Coulee Dam (1272 m on Columbia River
(Washington State, USA)
Highest Jinping-I (305 m)
Delta, Largest Sundarban’s Ganga-Brahmaputra delta (1,05,000 sq. km)
Desert, Largest Sahara (N. Africa; maximum length 5,150 km EW; maximum
width 3,200 km NS)
Diamond, Largest The Cullinan (3106 carats)
Dome, Largest Singapore National Stadium (310 m)
Epic, Longest Mahabharata
Fish, Largest fresh water Plabeuk (China, Laos and Thailand)
Most abundant Bristle mouth
Most venomous Stone Fish (Indo-Pacific Waters)
Film, Most Oscars Ben Hur (11 Oscars–1959); Titanic (11 Oscars–1998); The
Lord of Rings : The Return of the King (11 Oscars—2003).
Fountain, Tallest King Fahd's Fountain (Jeddah, Saudi Arabia)
 77

Fruit, Most nutritive Avocado (Vitamins A, C, E and Proteins; Central and

South America)
Least nutritive Cucumber
Goldmine, Largest in area Grasberg Mines (Fapua, Indonesia)
Gulf, Largest Gulf of Mexico (1,544,000 sq. km)
Hotel, Tallest JW Marriott Marquis, Dubai (355 meter, 77 Floor)
Largest (with most rooms) Hotel Rossiya (Moscow; Russia; 12 storey; 3,200 rooms)
Island, Biggest Greenland (now known as Kalaatdlit Nunaat---2,175,000
sq km)
Lake, Largest Caspian Sea (Azerbaijan, Russia, Iran border: 37.18 lakh
km2)
Deepest Baikal (Siberia)
Largest (fresh water) Superior Lake (USA---Canada border: 82,350 km2)
Library, Biggest United States Library of Congress (Washington D.C.
founded in 1800, contains 101 million items)
Biggest non-statutory New York Public Library
Mountain, Highest peak Mt. Everest (8848 m; Nepal)
Highest range Himalayas, Asia (upto 4200 m)
Greatest mountain range Himalaya-Karakoram (96 out of 109 peaks over 7315 m
are here)
Museum, Largest American Museum of Natural History, New York
Ocean, Largest and Deepest The Pacific (Area: 166,240,000 km2; Depth: 10,924 m)
Peninsula, Largest Arabia (3.25 million sq. km)
Park, Largest National Park of North-Eastern, Greenland (972000 km2)
Places, Coldest (annual mean) Polus Nedostupnosti (Antarctica ---58oC)
Driest (annual mean) Desierto de Atacame (near Calama; Chile; rainfall nil)
Hottest (annual mean) Dallol (Ethiopia; 34.4oC mean temperature)
Rainiest (annual mean) Mowsyrnam near Cherapunji (Meghalaya; India; 11873
mm)
Windiest The Commonwealth Bay (Gales reach 320 km/ph)
Planet, Biggest Jupiter (equatorial diameter 142984 km)
Brightest, hottest and Venus
nearest to Earth
Nearest to Sun Mercury
Most satellites Saturn (82)
Plateau, Highest Tibetan Plateau (Central Asia: 4900 m)
Platform, Longest (rail) Gorakhpur (Uttar Pradesh; India, 1355.4 m. long)
Port, Largest Port of New York and New Jersey (USA)
Port, Busiest Rotterdam (Netherlands)
Railway Line, Longest Trans-Siberian Railway (Moscow-Nakhodka: 9438 km)
Railway Station, Largest Grand Central Terminal (New York City; 19 hc)
Highest Condor (Bolivia; 4786 m)
 78

Religion, Oldest Hinduism

Religion, Largest Christianity
Rivers, Longest (i) Nile (6650 km) (ii) Amazon (6437 km)
Road, Longest Pan American Highway (from Alaska-Brasila: 24140 km)
Sea, Largest South China Sea (2,974,600 sq. km)
Largest (inland) Mediterranean
Stadium, Largest Strahov stadium at Prague (Czechoslovakia 240,000
spectators)
Star, Brightest Sirius A (also called Dog Star)
Swimming Longest English Channel
Telescope, Largest (radio) Five Hundred meter Apertune Spherical Telescope (FAST),
China.
Largest (solar) Kitt Peak National Observatory, (Arizona; USA)
Largest refractor At Yerkes observatory (Wisconsin; USA; 18.9 m)
Temple, Largest Angkor Wat (Cambodia: 402 acres)
Tower, Tallest Tokyo Sky Tree (634 m.)
Train, Fastest Japan’s magnetically levitated (magler) train (Speed over
500 km/hr)
Tunnel, Longest (railway) Gotthard Base Rail Tunnel (Switzerland; 57.1 km)
Largest (road) Laerdal, Norway (24.51 km)
Volcano Greatest concentration in Indonesia
Highest (extinct) Cerro Aconcagua (6960 m; Andes)
Highest (dormant) Volcan Llullaillaco (6723 m; Argentina-Chile)
Highest (active) Ojos del Salado (Chile-Argentina)
Waterfall, Highest Salto-Angel (in Venezuela on a branch of river Carrao,
depth 807 m.)
Largest Khone Falls (Laos; width 10.8 km)
Zoo, Largest Etosha Reserve (Namibia; area 10 million hc approx.).

CAPITAL & CURRENCIES

Country Capital Currency Country Capital Currency

V Afghanistan Kabul Afghani V Bahrain Manama Dinar
V Albania Tirana Lek V Bangladesh Dhaka Taka
V Algeria Algiers Dinar V Barbados Bridgetown Dollar
V Angola Luanda New Kwanza V Belarus Minsk Ruble
V Argentina Buenos Aires Peso V Belgium Brussels Euro
V Armenia Yeravan Dram V Benin Porto Novo Franc
V Australia Canberra Dollar V Bhutan Thimphu Ngultrum 1
V Austria Vienna Euro V Bolivia La paz Dollar
V Azerbaijan Baku Manat V Botswana Gaborone Pula
 79

Country Capital Currency Country Capital Currency

V Brazil Brasilia Real V Kazakhstan Akmola Tenge
V Bosnia Sarajevo Dinar V Kenya Nairobi Shilling
Herzegovina V Korea (S) Seoul Won
V Bulgaria Sofia Lev V Korea (N) Pyongyang Won
V Cambodia Phnom-Penh Riel V Kyrgyzstan Bishkek Som
V Canada Ottawa Dollar V Kuwait Kuwait City Dinar
V Chile Santiago Peso V Laos Vientiane Kip
V China Beijing Yuan V Latvia Riga Euro
V Colombia Bogota Peso V Lebanon Beirut Pound
V Congo Brazzaville Franc V Liberia Monrovia Dollar
V Croatia Zagreb Kuna V Libya Tripoli Dinar
V Cuba Havana Peso V Lithuania Vilnius Litas
V Cyprus Nicosia Euro V Luxembourg Luxembourg Euro
V Czech Prague Koruna V Macedonia Skopje Dinar
Republic V Malawi Lilongwe Kwacha
V Denmark Copenhagen Krone V Malaysia Kuala Lumpur Ringgit
V Ecuador Quito Sucre
V Maldives Male Rufiyaa
V Egypt Cairo Pound
V Mali Bamako Franc
V Estonia Tallinn Euro
V Mauritius Port Louis Rupee
V Ethiopia Addis Ababa Birr
V Mexico Mexico City Peso
V Fiji Suva Dollar
V Moldavia Chisinau Leu
V Finland Helsinki Euro
V Mongolia Ulan Bator Tugrik
V France Paris Euro
V Morocco Rabat Dirham
V Georgia Tbilisi Lari
V Mozambique Maputo Metical
V Germany Berlin Euro
V Myanmar Nay Pyi Taw Kyat
V Ghana Accra Cedi
V Namibia Winohoek Dollar
V Greece Athens Euro
V Nepal Kathmandu Rupee
V Guatemala Guatemala Quetzal
V Netherlands Amsterdam Euro
City
V New Zealand Wellington Dollar
V Guyana George Town Dollar
V Nigeria Abuja Naira
V Hungary Budapest Forint
V Iceland Reykjavik Krona V Norway Oslo Krone
V India New Delhi Rupee V Oman Muscat Rial
V Indonesia Jakarta Rupiah V Pakistan Islamabad Rupee
V Iran Teheran Rial V Panama Panama City Balboa
V Iraq Baghdad Dinar V Peru Lima New Sole
V Ireland Dublin Euro V Philippines Manila Peso
V Israel Jerusalem Shekel V Poland Warsaw Zloty
V Italy Rome Euro V Portugal Lisbon Euro
V Jamaica Kingston Dollar V Qatar Doha Riyal
V Japan Tokyo Yen V Romania Bucharest Leu
V Jordan Amman Dinar V Russia Moscow Ruble
 80

Country Capital Currency Country Capital Currency

V Saudi Arabia Riyadh Rial V Thailand Bangkok Baht
V Senegal Dakar Franc V Tunisia Tunis Dinar
V Slovakia Bratislava Euro V Turkey Ankara Lira
V Spain Madrid Euro V Turkmania Ashikabad Manat
V Sri Lanka Colombo Rupee V Uganda Kampala Shilling
V Ukraine Kiev Hyrvnia
V Sudan Khartoum Dinar
V United Arab Abu Dhabi Dirham
V Suriname Paramaribo Guilder
Emirates
V Sweden Stockholm Krona
V U.K. London Pound Sterling
V Switzerland Berne Swiss Francs
V U.S.A. Washington Dollar
V Syria Damascus Pound
V Uruguay Montevideo Peso
V South Africa Capetown Rand
V Uzbekistan Tashkent Som
(Legislative) V Venezuela Caracas Bolivar
Pretoria V Vietnam Hanoi Dong
(Administrative) V Yemen Sana’a Rial
V Tadzhikistan Dushanbe Ruble V Zimbabwe Harare Dollar
V Taiwan Taipei Dollar V Congo (Zaire) Kinshasa Zaire
V Tanzania Dodoma Shilling V Zambia Lusaka Kwacha

GEOGRAPHICAL EXPLORATIONS/DISCOVERIES

Place Explorer/Discoverer Nationality Year

America Christopher Columbus Italy 1492
Hawaii Islands Captain James Cook England 1778
(Sandwich Islands)
Newfoundland John Cabot England 1497
New Zealand Abel Janszoon Tasman Holland 1642
North Pole Robert Peary USA 1909
Sea Route to India Vasco da Gama Portugal 1498
(via Cape of Good Hope)
South Pole Roald Amundsen Norway 1911

NATIONAL MONUMENTS OF SOME FAMOUS COUNTRIES

Monument Country Monument Country
Great Wall of China China Pyramid (Giza) Egypt
Taj Mahal (Agra) India Kinder Disk Denmark
Emperial Palace (Tokyo) Japan Leaning Tower of Pisa Italy
Opera House (Sydney) Australia Statue of Liberty (New York) USA
Eiffel Tower (Paris) France Kremlin (Moscow) Russia
 81 (137) G.K.—11

INTELLIGENCE AGENCIES OF SOME PROMINENT COUNTRIES

Country Intelligence Agency
V India Research & Analysis Wing (RAW), Intelligence Bureau (I.B.), Central Bureau of Inves-
tigation (C.B.I.)
V Pakistan Inter Service Intelligence (I.S.I.)
V U.S.A. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
V Britain Military Intelligence (M.I.)-5 and 6, Special Branch, Ultra, Joint Intelligence Organisation
V Israel Mosad
V Egypt Mukhabarat
V Japan Nicho
V Russia K.G.B. (Komitel Gosudarstvennoy Bezopasnosty) (Committee for State Security)
V Canada Security Intelligence Service (SIS)
V S. Africa Bureau of State Security (BSS)
V Iran Sabak
V Iraq Al-Mukhabarat
V Australia Australian Security and Intelligence Organisation (ASIO)
V France S.D.E.C.E.
V Spain C.E.S.I.D.

MAJOR LANGUAGES OF THE WORLD Language Speakers (millions)

AND THEIR SPEAKERS
V Urdu 69
Listing the languages spoken by approximately
V Vietnamese 68
1% of humankind (those spoken by more than
60,000,000 people), this table enumerates V Tamil 68
speakers of each tongue as a primary language. V Italian 63
Language Speakers (millions) V Persian 61
V Chinese 1,283 V Malay 60
V Spanish 436 Source : The World Almanac 2018
V English 372
V Arabic 295
V Hindi 260
IMPORTANT NEWS AGENCIES
V Bengali 242 OF THE WORLD
V Portuguese 218
V Russian 153 Agency Country
V Japanese 128
V Lahnda 118 PTI, UNI, UNIVARTA India
V Punjabi (Western) 93 Antara Indonesia
V Javanese 84 Tanjug Serbia
V Korean 77 Associated Press (AP) America
V French 76
Reuters, NAFEN United Kingdom
V German 76
Angence France Press France
V Telugu 74
(AFP)
V Turkish 71
V Marathi 71 TASS Russia
 82 (137) G.K.—11-II

NAME OF PARLIAMENTS OF SOME COUNTRIES

Country Name of Parliament Country Name of Parliament
Afghanistan Shora Norway Storting
Argentina National Congress Poland Sejm
Australia Federal Parliament Russia Federal Assembly
Austria National Assembly (Council of the Federation and
State Duma
Bangladesh Jatiya Sansad
India Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha South Africa National Assembly and Senate

Bhutan Tshogdu (National Assembly) Spain Cortes Generales

Britain House of Commons and House Sweden Riksdag

of Lords Switzerland Federal Assembly (Nationalrat
Canada House of Commons and and Standerat)
Senate North Korea Supreme People’s
China National People Congress Assembly
Denmark Folketing South Korea National Assembly
Iran Majlis (Islamic Consultative U.S.A. Congress (Senate and House
Assembly) of Representatives)
Israel Knesset Ethiopia Federal Council and House of
Japan Diet Representatives
Myanmar Pyithu Hluttaw Iceland Alpingi
(People’s Assembly)
Bulgaria National Assembly
Nepal Rashtriya Panchayat Cuba National Assembly of People’s
The Netherlands States-General Power

LARGEST AND SMALLEST COUNTRIES (Top 5)

Largest Country Largest Country Smallest Country Smallest Country
(Area-wise) (Population-wise) (Area-wise) (Population-wise)
Russia China Vatican City Vatican City
Canada India Monaco Tuvalu
China USA Nauru Palau
United States Indonesia Tuvalu San Marino
Brazil Brazil San Marino Liechstein

MAJOR RELIGIONS OF THE WORLD

Religion Member Percentage Religion Member Percentage
Christianity 2.4 billion 32.9% Buddhism 521 million 7.0%
Islam 1.7 billion 23.6% Sikhism 25 million 0.3%
Hinduism 1.0 billion 13.7% Jews 14 million 0.2%
 83

NATIONAL EMBLEMS OF IMPORTANT COUNTRIES

Country National Emblem Country National Emblem
America Golden Rod Australia Kangaroo
Ireland Shamrock Italy White Lily
Israel Candelabrum Iran Rose
Canada White Lily Great Britain Rose
Chile Candor and Huemul Germany Corn Flower
Japan Chrysanthemum Zimbabwe Zimbabwe Bird
Denmark Beach Turkey Crescent and Star
The Netherlands Lion New Zealand Kiwi, Fern Southern Cross
Norway Lion Nepal Kukri
Pakistan Crescent Poland Eagle
France Lily Belgium Lion
Bangladesh Water Lily Mongolia The Soyombo
Russia Double headed eagle Lebanon Cedar Tree
Sudan Secretary Bird Syria Eagle
India Lioned Capital

FIRST IN INDIA
V The first Indian to get the Nobel Prize for Literature Rabindra Nath Tagore
V The first Indian to get the Nobel Prize for Physics C.V. Raman
V The first Indian to get the Nobel Prize for Peace Mother Teresa
V The first Indian to get the Nobel Prize for Economics Amartya Sen
V The first Indian to get Special Oscar award (1992) Satyajit Ray
V The first and the last Indian Governor-General of C. Rajagopalachari
free India
V The first woman to become the Governor of a State Smt. Sarojini Naidu
V The first Indian Chief of the Army Staff* General K.M. Cariappa
V The first ever woman to become the Chief Minister Smt. Sucheta Kripalani
of a State
V The first Indian woman President of UN General Assembly Smt. Vijaylakshmi Pandit
V The first Indian to become the President of Dr. Nagendra Singh
International Court of Justice
V The first Indian woman to swim across the Ms. Aarti Saha
English Channel
V The first Indian girl to become Miss Universe Miss Sushmita Sen
V The first Indian girl to become Miss World Rita Faria
V The first Indian to swim across the English Channel Mihir Sen
V The first Field Marshal S.H.F.J. Manekshaw
V The first Indian recipient of Victoria Cross Khudadad Khan
V The first Indian to conquer Mt. Everest Sherpa Tenzing (May 29, 1953)
V The first Indian Cosmonaut (man) Rakesh Sharma (April 3, 1984)
 84

V The first Indian Cosmonaut (woman) Kalpana Chawla (Nov. 19, 1997)
V The first woman to climb Mt. Everest Miss Bachendri Pal (May 23, 1984)
V The first ICS Satyendranath Tagore
V The first to address the UN General Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Assembly in Hindi
V The first Newspaper Bengal Gazette (Jan 27, 1780)
V The first Postage Stamp issued In 1852
V The first Telegraph line laid In 1851 (Calcutta-Diamond Harbour)
V The first Railways run April 16, 1853 (Bombay-Thane)
V The first Electric Train run 1925 (Bombay-Kurla)
V The first Atomic Power Station Tarapore (Maharashtra)
V The first passenger-cum-cargo ship made in India Harshavardhan
V The first Satellite Aryabhatta (1975)
V The first President of the Indian National Congress W.C. Banerjee
V The first President of Indian Republic Dr. Rajendra Prasad
V The first woman judge of the Supreme Court Ms Fatima Bibi
V The first to climb Everest without oxygen Phu Dorjee (1987)
V The first film (movie) Raja Harishchandra
V The first film (talkie) Alam Ara
V The first Metro Railway Calcutta Metro Railway
V The first Test-tube baby, scientifically documented Born on August 6, 1986 at
K.E.M. Hospital, Bombay
V The first TV Centre At Delhi
V The first Indian to get an Oscar Bhanu Athaiya
V The first woman pilot in IAF Ms Harita Kaur Deol
V The first woman to get Olympic Medal Karnam Malleswari
V The first woman Foreign Secretary Chokila Iyer

SUPERLATIVES (INDIA)
Highest, Biggest, Largest and Longest in India

V Award for Gallantry, highest Param Vir Chakra

V Award, highest civilian Bharat Ratna
V Bank, with largest number of branches State Bank of India 22,106 Branches (March 2019)
V Road Bridge, Longest Bhupen Hazarika Bridge, Assam (9.15 km)
V Road and Rail Bridge, Longest Bogibeel Bridge, Brahmaputra River, Assam
V Cattle Fair, Largest Sonepur (Bihar)
V City, Most Populous Mumbai metropolis
V Corridor, Longest Rameshwaram Temple corridor (4,000 ft.)
V Desert, Largest Thar (Rajasthan)
V Dam, Longest Hirakud Dam (Odisha)
V Delta, Largest Sunderban’s Delta
 85

V Dome, Largest Gol Gumbaj (Bijapur)

V Dam, Highest Tehri Dam (260 m)
V Gateway, Highest Buland Darwaja at Fatehpur Sikri (176 ft.)
V Fresh Water Lake, Largest Wular Lake (Kashmir)
V Literacy, Highest Kerala (94%)
V Museum, Largest Indian Museum (Kolkata)
V Mosque, Biggest Jama Masjid (Delhi)
V Peak, Highest** K-2 (Pak-Occupied Kashmir)
V Platform, Longest At Gorakhpur, NE Railway (1335.4 mtrs)
V Railway Bridge, longest Vembanad Bridge, Kerala (4.6 km)
V River, Longest*** The Ganges (2525 Km)
V Rainfall, Highest (annual mean) Mowsynram near Cherrapunji (1178 cm)
V Road Longest Grand Trunk Road (1,500 miles)
V State, with maximum forest cover Madhya Pradesh
V State, with maximum density of population Bihar
V Telescope, Largest in Asia Vainu Bappu Telescope (at Kavalur: Chennai) 2.34m
V Tunnel, Longest (Road) Chenani-Nashri Tunnel (9.28 kms, J & K)
V Tunnel, Longest (Railway) Qazigund to Banihal (11.21 kms) Jammu & Kashmir.
V Tallest Minaret Qutub Minar (Delhi 72.5 m.)
V Waterfall, Highest Gersoppa Waterfall (Karnataka: 960 ft.)
V Zoo, Largest Zoological Gardens (Kolkata)

** Highest peak in the world is Mount Everest, which is in Nepal. K-2 is the second highest peak in the world. It is 8,611 metres high.
*** Indus and Brahmaputra (each 2900 km). Both of them, however, cover a long distance outside India.

TABLE OF PRECEDENCE
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Governors of States within their respective states
5. Former Presidents
5A. Deputy Prime Minister
6. Chief Justice of India, Speaker of Lok Sabha
7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Chief Ministers of States within their respective States
Deputy Chairman NITI Aayog, former Prime Ministers
Leaders of opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
7A. Holders of the Bharat Ratna Decoration
8. Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealth
Countries accredited to India, Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States
9. Judges of the Supreme Court
10. Deputy Chairman Rajya Sabha, Deputy Chief Minister of States, Deputy Speaker Lok Sabha,
Members of the NITI Aayog, Minister of State of the Union and Other Minister in the Ministry of
Defence.
 86

BOOKS AND AUTHORS

FOREIGN INDIAN
Book Author Book Author
V As You Like It William Shakespeare V Ain-i-Akbari Abul Fazal
V A Tale of Two Cities Charles Dickens V Anand Math Bankim Chandra
V Ben Hur Lewis Wallace Chatterjee
V Das Kapital Karl Marx V Arthashastra Kautilya
V David Copperfield Charles Dickens V A Suitable Boy Vikram Seth
V Hamlet William Shakespeare V Bhagwat Gita Ved Vyas
V Iliad Homer V Chidambara Sumitranandan Pant
V Inferno A. Dante V Devdas Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
V In Memoriam Lord Tennyson V Discovery of India Jawaharlal Nehru
V Ivanhoe Walter Scott V Ganadevata Tarashankar
V Julius Caesar William Shakespeare Bandopadhyaya
V Geet Govind Jaya Dev
V Lady Chatterley’s D.H. Lawrence
V Geetanjali R. N. Tagore
Lover
V Glimpses of World Jawaharlal Nehru
V Lajja Taslima Nasreen
History
V Les Miserable Victor Hugo
V Godaan Prem Chand
V Leviathan Thomas Hobbes
V Gul-e-Nagma Firaq Gorakhpuri
V Lolita V. Nobokov
V Harsh Charita Bana Bhatta
V Lycidas John Milton
V India Divided Dr. Rajendra Prasad
V Mein Kampf Adolf Hitler
V Justice of Peace Janardan Prasad Singh
V Moor’s Last Sigh Salman Rushdie
ke Aansu
V Mother Maxim Gorky
V The Judgement Kuldip Nayyar
V Mother India Katherine Mayo
V Kadambari Bana Bhatta
V Nana Emile Zola
V Kagaz Te Kanwas Amrita Pritam
V Odyssey Homer
V Kamayani Jai Shankar Prasad
V Origin of Species Charles Darwin
V Kitni Nawon S. H. Vatsyayan
V Othello William Shakespeare Mein Kitni Bar
V Paradise Lost John Milton V Kumar Sambhav Kalidas
V Paradise Regained John Milton V Mahabharata Ved Vyas
V Path to Power Margaret Thatcher V Malgudi Days R.K. Narayan
V Pickwick Papers Charles Dickens V Meghdoot Kalidas
V Razor’s Edge Somerset Maugham V Mritunjaya B.K. Bhattacharya
V Republic Plato V Mudrarakshasa Vishakhadatta
V The Tempest William Shakespeare V Prison Diary Jaya Prakash
V Time Machine H.G. Wells Narayan
V Tom Sawyer Mark Twain V Raghuvansha Kalidas
V Treasure Island R.L. Stevenson V Rajtarangini Kalhana
V Twelfth Night William Shakespeare V Ramayana Balmiki
V Unto This Last John Ruskin V Ramcharit Manas Tulsidas
V Utopia Thomas More V Rukh Te Rishi Harbhajan Singh
V Wealth of Nations Adam Smith V Satyarth Prakash Swami Dayanand
V Wonder that A.L. Basham V Sur Sagar Surdas
was India V The Guide R.K. Narayan
 87

IMPORTANT DATES AND DAYS OF THE YEAR

V JANUARY V AUGUST
5-11 Road Safety Week 1-7 World Breast feeding Week
12 National Youth Day 10 Sanskrit Divas
15 Army Day 15 Independence Day
15-21 Pin Code Week 20 Sadbhavana Divas
23 National Day of Patriotism V SEPTEMBER
26 Republic Day 1-7 National Nutrition Week
30 Martyr's Day 5 Teachers' Day
V FEBRUARY 8 International Literary Day
1-14 Oil Conservation Fortnight 14 Hindi Diwas
14 Valentine's Day 23 World Deaf Day
V MARCH 27 World Tourism Day
4 National Safety Day V OCTOBER
8 International Women’s Day 2 Gandhi Jayanti
15 Consumers’ Day International Day of Non Violence
16 Immunisation Day
Anti-Leprosy Day
21 World Forest Day
4 World Animal Day
22 World Day for Water
6 World Habitat Day (Ist Monday)
24 World Meteorological Day
8 Indian Air Force Day
1-7 Preservation of Blindness W eek
14 World Standard Day
V APRIL
15 International Day of Rural Women
7 World Health Day
16 World Food Day
7-13 Handloom W eek
24 United Nations Day
14-20 Fire Service Week
27 Infantry Day
18 World Heritage Day
28 World Thrift Day
22 World Earth Day
31 Anti-Terrorism Day
V MAY
V NOVEMBER
1 May Day
2 All Saints Day
5 National Labour Day
14 Children’s Day
8 World Red Cross Day
15-21 National Cooperative W eek
11 National Technology Day
19-25 Quami Ekta Week
15 International Day of the Family
20 Child Rights Day
17 World Telecommunication Day
24 Commonwealth Day 26 Constitution Day
31 World No-Tobacco Day V DECEMBER
V JUNE 1 World AIDS Day
5 World Environment Day 3 World Day for the Disabled
21 World Yoga Day 4 Naval Day
26 International Day against Drug Abuse and 7 Flag Day
Illicit Trafficking 8 SMRC Day
V JULY 10 Human Rights Day
11 World Population Day 14 National Energy Conservation Day
 88

INDIAN DEFENCE
l The Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is Command HQ Location
vested in the hands of the President of the
Southern Command Pune
Country.
Central Command Lucknow
l The responsibility for national defence, however,
Training Command Shimla
rests with the Cabinet. All important questions
South-Western Command Jaipur
having a bearing on defence are decided by the
Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs, which is Indian Air Force Commands
presided over by the Prime Minister.
Command HQ Location
l The Defence Minister is responsible to Parliament
for all matters concerning the Defence Services. Western Air Command New Delhi
Sout-Western Air Command Gandhinagar
l All the administrative and operational control of
Armed Forces are exercised by the Ministry of Central Air Command Allahabad
Defence. The three services—Army, Navy and Eastern Air Command Shillong
Air Force function through their respective Southern Air Command Thiruvananthapuram
service head-quarters headed by the chief of Staff. Training Command Bengaluru

Indian Army Commands Indian Navy Commands

Command HQ Location Command HQ Location

Eastern Command Kolkata Eastern Naval Command Vishakhapatnam
Western Command Chandigarh Western Naval Command Mumbai
Northern Command Udhampur Southern Naval Command Cochin

Commissioned Ranks in Defence Services

Army Navy Air Force
General Admiral Air Chief Marshal
Lieutenant-General Vice-Admiral Air Marshal
Major-General Rear-Admiral Air Vice-Marshal
Brigadier Commodor Air Commodor
Colonel Captain Group Captain
Lieutenant-Colonel Commander Wing Commander
Major Lt.Commander Squadron Leader
Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant
Lieutenant Sub-Lieutenant Flying Officer

Internal Security Organisations of India

S. No. Name of Organisation Year of Creation Headquarters
1. Assam Rifles (A.R.) 1835 Shillong
2. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) 1939 New Delhi
3. Territorial Army 1948 In different States
4. Indo-Tibetan Border Police 1962 New Delhi
5. Home Guard 1962 In different States
 89 (137) G.K.—12

S. No. Name of Organisation Year of Creation Headquarters

6. Coast Guard 1978 New Delhi
7. Border Security Force (B.S.F.) 1965 New Delhi
8. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) 1969 New Delhi
9. National Security Guard 1984 New Delhi
10. Police — In different States

Army Institutes
1. Sainik Schools upto +2 Level 18 places in India
2. Rashtriya Indian Military College Dehradun
(prepare for entrance to N.D.A.)
3. National Defence Academy (three services) Khadakwasla, Pune
4. Indian Military Academy (Army) Dehradun
5. Officers Training Academy (3 services) Short Courses Chennai
6. National Defence College New Delhi
7. The College of Combat Mhow
8. The College of Military Engineering Kirkee
9. Military College of Telecommunication Engineering Mhow
10. The Armoured Corps Centre and School Ahmed Nagar
11. The School Artillery Deolali
12. The Infantry School Mhow and Belgaum
13. College of Material Management Jabalpur

Air Force Institutions

V Air Force Academy Hyderabad V Helicopter Training School Hakimpet
V Flying Instructors School Tambaram, Chennai V The College of Air Warfare Secunderabad
V Air Force Administrative College Coimbatore V Air Force Technical College Jalahalli

UNITED NATIONS ORGANISATION (UNO)

l The United Nations (UN) is an association of l UN Charter: The Charter is the Constitution of
states which have pledged themselves to maintain the UNO and contains its aims and objectives
international peace and security and cooperate and rules and regulations for its functioning.
in solving international political, economic, social l Aims and Objectives: They are security, welfare
cultural and humanitarian problems towards and human rights.
achieving this end. l Headquarters: New York.
l Trygve Lie of Norway (1946-52) was the first l Flag: The flag is light blue in colour, and
Secretary-General of the UN. emblazoned in white, in its centre is the UN
symbol—a polar map of world embraced by twin
l Origin: UN Charter was signed by 50 members on olive branches open at the top.
June 26, 1945. Poland signed the charter later to
l Official Languages: The official languages of
become one of the original 51 member-states. It
the UN are: English, French, Chinese, Russian,
officially came into existence on October Arabic and Spanish. However, working languages
24, 1945. are English and French only.
 90

l Present Membership: At present 193 countries maintaining international peace and security.
are members of the UNO. South Sudan is the It has 15 members, 5 of which (USA, UK,
latest entrant to this world organisation. France, Russia and China) are permanent
l Main Organs of the UNO: There are six main members. The 10 non-permanent members are
organs: elected by General Assembly for two-year term
1. General Assembly and are not eligible for immediate re-election.
2. Security Council 3. Economic and Social Council: It has 54
members elected by General Assembly.
3. Economic and Social Council
4. Trusteeship Council: It looks after interest of
4. Trusteeship Council
the people in areas not yet independent and
5. International Court of Justice, and leads them towards self-government.
6. Secretariat. 5. International Court of Justice: It has 15
1. General Assembly: It consists of representative judges, no two of whom may be nationals of
of all members of the UN. Each member country the same state. They are elected by General
has only one vote. It meets once a year and Assembly and Security Council for a term of
passes UN Budget. It is the main place for 9 years. The Court elects its President and
discussions and policy making in the UN. Vice-President for a 3-year term.
2. Security Council: It is the Executive body of 6. Secretariat: It is the Secretariat of the UN and
the UN and is mainly responsible for is headed by the Secretary General.

Some Important UN Agencies

UN Agencies Headquarters Year of

Establishment

V United Nations Organisations (U.N.O.) New York 1945

V International Monetary Fund (I.M.F.) Washington D.C. 1945
V World Health Organisation (W.H.O.) Geneva 1948
V Food & Agricultural Organisation (FAO) Rome 1945
V International Labour Organisation (ILO) Geneva 1919
V UNESCO Paris 1946
V Universal Postal Union (UPU) Berne 1874
V UNIDO Vienna 1966
V International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Vienna 1957
V United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) New York 1965
V UNICEF New York 1946
V International Maritime Organisation (IMO) London 1958
V World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) Geneva 1950
V International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Geneva 1865
V World Trade Organisation (WTO) Geneva 1995
V International Development Association (IDA) Washington D.C. 1960
V World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) Geneva 1967
 91

Famous International Organisations

International Organisations Headquarters Year of
Establishment
V International Court of Justice The Hague 1946
V International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) Montreal 1947
V International Finance Corporation (IFC) Washington D.C 1956
V Arab League Cairo 1945
V Commonwealth of Nations London 1949
V International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD) Washington D.C. 1945
V Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) Jeddah (Saudi Arabia) 1969
V Red Cross Geneva 1863
V Interpol Lyons 1923
V Asian Development Bank (ADB) Manila 1966
V North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) Brussels 1949
V Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) Jakarta 1967
V South Asian Association for Regional Kathmandu 1985
Cooperation (SAARC)
V Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Singapore 1989
V Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Paris 1961
Development (OECD)
V Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Vienna 1960
V Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) Minsk 1991
V International Olympic Committee (IOC) Lausanne (Switzerland) 1894
V European Union (EU) Brussels Changed form of
EEC Established
in 1958
V Amnesty International (AI) London 1961
V Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Beijing 2001
V BRICS Development Bank Shanghai 2014

AWARDS AND HONOURS

NATIONAL AWARDS l This is India’s highest civilian award. It is given

for exceptional work on art, literature, science
BHARAT RATANA and recognition of public service of the highest
l Bharat Ratna is India’s highest Civilian Award. order.
It was first awarded in 1954. l The emblem, the Sun and the rim are of platinum.
l The actual award is designed in the shape of a The inscriptions are in burnished bronze.
peepal leaf with Bharat Ratna inscribed in l Government servants are not eligible for it. The
Devanagri script in the Sun Figure. table shows the recipients of the award:
 92

Bharat Ratna Award Winners REPUBLIC DAY AWARDS

1. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan 1954 Padma Awards

2. C. Rajagopalachari 1954 They fall in line after the Bharat Ratna. They are
3. Dr. C.V. Raman 1954 also discontinued in 1977 along with the Bharat
4. Dr. Bhagwan Das 1955
Ratna and award was started again in 1980.
5. Dr. M. Visvesvaraya 1955
6. Jawahar Lal Nehru 1955 There are three Padma Awards:
7. Govind Ballabh Pant 1957 l Padma Vibhushan: This award is given for
8. Dr. D.K. Karve 1958 exceptional and distinguished service in any field,
9. Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy 1961 including service rendered by Govt. servants.
10. Purushottam Das Tandon 1961
l Padma Bhushan: This award is given for
11. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 1962
12. Dr. Zakir Hussain 1963 distinguished service of a high order in any field,
13. Dr. Pandurang Vaman Kane 1963 including service rendered by Govt. servants.
14. Lal Bahadur Shastri 1966 l Padma Shri: This award is given for distinguished
15. Indira Gandhi 1971 service in any field, including service rendered
16. V.V. Giri 1975 by Government servants.
17. K. Kamraj 1976
18. Mother Teresa 1980 Gallantry Awards
19. Acharya Vinoba Bhave 1983
l Param Vir Chakra: The highest award for
20. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 1987
21. M.G. Ramachandran 1988
bravery or some daring and pre-eminent act of
22. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 1990 valour or self-sacrifice in the presence of the
23. Dr. Nelson R. Mandela 1990 enemy, whether on land, at sea or in the air.
24. Rajiv Gandhi 1991 l Mahavir Chakra: It is the second highest
25. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 1991 decoration and is awarded for acts of conspicuous
26. Morarji R. Desai 1991 gallantry in the presence of the enemy, whether
27. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 1992
on land, at sea or in the air.
28. Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhai Tata 1992
29. Satyajit Roy 1992 l Vir Chakra: It is the third in order of awards
30. Shri Gulzari Lal Nanda 1997 given for acts of gallantry in the presence of
31. Mrs. Aruna Asaf Ali 1997 enemy, whether on land, at sea or in the air.
32. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 1998 l Ashok Chakra: This medal is awarded for the
33. M.S. Subbalakshmi 1998 most conspicuous bravery or some daring or pre-
34. C. Subramaniam 1998
eminent act of valour or self-sacrifice on land, at
35. Jaya Prakash Narayan 1999
36. Prof. Amartya Sen 1999
sea or in the air but not in the presence of enemy.
37. Pt. Ravi Shankar 1999 l Vishishta Sewa Medal: It is awarded to personnel
38. Gopinath Bardoloi 1999 of all the three Services in class I, II and III in
39. Lata Mangeshkar 2001 recognition of distinguished service of the “most
40. Bismillah Khan 2001 exceptional” and “exceptional” and a “high”
41. Bhimsen Joshi 2009 order respectively. Prefixes Parma and Ati are
42. C.N.R. Rao 2014 added before first two categories of medals
43. Sachin Tendulkar 2014
respectively.
44. Pt. Madan Mohan Malaviya 2015
45. Atal Bihari Vajpayee 2015 l Jeewan Raksha Padak: Awarded for meritorious
46. Pranab Mukherjee 2019 acts or a series of acts of a human nature displayed
47. Bhupen Hazarika 2019 in saving life from drowning, fire and rescue
48. Nanaji Deshmukh 2019 operations in mines etc.
 93

OTHER NATIONAL AWARDS l The following Indians so far have been awarded
these prizes:
(i) Dr. Rabindra Nath Tagore (1913) for his
SAHITYA AKADEMI AWARDS “Geetanjali”.
l These prizes are awarded annually to the authors (ii) Dr. C.V. Raman for Physics in 1930
of the most outstanding books of literary merit (iii) Mother Teresa for Peace in 1979,
published in each of the 24 languages recognised (iv) Prof. Amartya Sen in 1998 for Economics
by the Akademi. (v) Kailash Satyarthi in 2014 for Peace.
(vi) Abhijit Banerjee in 2019, for Economics
l There are also two awards for Sanskrit and
English. The award, in form of a casket containing GANDHI PEACE PRIZE
an inscribed copper plate and a cheque of l The government instituted this ` 1 crore prize on
` 1 lakh is given to the author or his/her heir. the lines of the Nobel Peace Prize in 1995.
l It is the highest Civilian International award by
DADA SAHEB PHALKE AWARD
the Govt. of India.
l The award carries a cash prize of ` 10 lakh, a
Shawl and Swarna Kamal. MAN BOOKER PRIZE 2020
l Mrs Devika Rani Roerich was the first person to l Scottish novelist and writer Douglas Stuart was
on November 19, 2020 awarded the prestigious
receive Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 1969.
Booker Prize for the year 2020 for his well-
l The award for 2019 has been given to famous acclaimed debut novel ‘Shuggie Bain’ set in the
actor Rajinikanth. background of his home city Glasgow in 1980s.
BHARATIYA JNANPITH AWARD INDIRA GANDHI PRIZE FOR PEACE,
l Instituted in 22nd May, 1961, carries a cash DISARMAMENT AND DEVELOPMENT
prize of ` 11 lakh, a citation and a bronze replica l The award was instituted in the memory of Mrs.
of Vagdevi (Saraswati). Indira Gandhi to foster creative cooperation
among nations of the world.
l Instituted by a literary organisation in India.
SARASWATI SAMMAN Highest Honours of Some Countries
l Given for outstanding literary works, value ` 15 Country Highest Honour
lakh.
India Bharat Ratna
KALINGA PRIZE Pakistan Nishan-e-Pakistan
l This award is given each year by the UNESCO Kuwait Mubarak-Al-kabir Medal
and founded by former Odisha Chief Minister Saudi Arabia Shah Abdul Aziz Medal
late Shri Biju Patnaik for popularisation of Argentina The Order of Sona Martin
science. Nicaragua Augusto-Caesar Sandino Order
Vietnam The Order of the Golden Star
INTERNATIONAL AWARDS Hungary The Order of Banner
Britain Member of British Empire,
NOBEL PRIZES Victoria Cross
l These Prizes were instituted in 1901 by a Swedish Japan Order of Moulovenice Sun
scientist, Dr. Alfred Nobel; the discoverer of Denmark Order of Diana Brog
Dynamite. France Legend of Honour
l Six prizes are awarded annually for (i) Chemistry, America Presidential Medal of Freedom
(ii) Physics, (iii) Medicine, (iv) Literature, (v) Peace Germany Pore Lee Merit Iron Cross
and (vi) Economics —started since 1969. The Netherlands Netherlands Lion
 94

SPORTS
OLYMPICS COMMONWEALTH GAMES
l First of all these games were held by the Greeks l The Commonwealth Games are held every four
in 776 B.C. on Mount Olympus in honour of the years, in the year in which Asian Games are held.
Greek God Zeus. In this way, the history of All the Commonwealth Countries (former
Olympic Games is about twenty eight hundred colonies of Britain) can take part in it.
years old. These games continued to be held every l The first Commonwealth Games were held in
four years until 394 A.D. when these games were 1930 at Hamilton (Canada).
stopped by a royal order of the emperor of Rome. l There are currently 54 members of the
l The modern Olympic Games which started in Commonwealth of Nations, and 71 teams
Athens in 1896, are the result of the devotion participated in the games.
and dedication of a French educator Baron Pierre l The 2018 Commonwealth Games officially known
de Coubertin and the first Olympic meet in the as the XXI Commonwealth Games or Gold Coast
modern series was held in 1896 in Athens, the 2018, which is held in Gold Coast, Queensland,
Capital of Greece. Since then, they are being held Australia, between 4 to 15 April 2018.
every four years except for breaks during world wars.
ASIAN GAMES
l The Olympic flag is white in colour with five
coloured rings, each ring symbolic of a continent. l After the Second World War, most of the Asian
Summer as well as Winter Olympics are held in Countries gained independence. On the lines of
Olympic Games, Asian Games were planned every
the same year.
four years.
l The 2016 Olympic Games was held at Rio de
l India hosted the first Asian Games in 1951.
Janeiro.
l The official Olympic Motto is Citius, Altius, WORLD CUP CRICKET
Swifter, Higher, Stronger. The Head Office of l The first Cricket World Cup was organised in
International Olympic Committee (IOC) is at England in 1975. A separate women’s Cricket
Lausanne (Switzerland). World Cup has been held every 4 years since 1973.
List of Cricket World Cup
Year Venue Winner/Runner
1975 England West Indies beat Australia
1979 England West Indies beat England
1983 England India beat West Indies
1987 India & Pakistan Australia beat England
1992 Australia Pakistan beat England
1996 India, Pakistan & Sri Lanka Sri Lanka beat Australia
1999 England Australia beat Pakistan
2003 South Africa Australia beat India
2007 West Indies Australia beat Sri Lanka
2011 India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh India beat Sri Lanka
2015 Australia, New Zealand Australia beat New Zealand
2019 England England beat New Zealand
2023 India (to be held)
 95

HOCKEY WORLD CUP V Bombay Gold Cup : Hockey

l The first Hockey World Cup was organised in V C.K. Naydu Trophy : Cricket
Barcelona (Spain) in 1971. Women’s Hockey V Deodhar Trophy : Cricket
World Cup has been held since 1974. V Duleep Trophy : Cricket
V Durand Cup : Football
FOOTBALL WORLD CUP
V Dhyan Chand Trophy : Hockey
l The Football World Cup is organised by FIFA
V Dr. B.C. Roy Trophy : Football (Junior)
(Federation of International Football Association).
V Ezra Cup : Polo
The World Cup is called ‘Jules Rimet Cup’
named after the name of FIFA President Jules V Guru Nanak Cup : Hockey
Rimet. The first Football World Cup was V Holkar Trophy : Bridge
organised in Uruguay in 1930. V Irani Trophy : Cricket
l In 1942 and 1946, the Football World Cup was V Indira Gold Cup : Hockey
not played due to World War II. V Murugappa Gold Cup : Hockey
l Brazil is the only nation to have participated in V Nehru Trophy : Hockey
every World Cup so far. The 2018 Football World V Nixan Gold Cup : Football
Cup held in Russia. France on July 15, 2018 V Rani Jhansi Trophy : Cricket
clinched their second FIFA World Cup title, V Ranji Trophy : Cricket
beating Croatia 4-2 in the highest-scoring final V Rangaswami Cup : Hockey
since 1996. V Ramanujan Trophy : Table Tennis
IMPORTANT CUPS & TROPHIES V Rene Frank Trophy : Hockey
V Rohinton Baria Trophy : Cricket
International V Rovers Cup : Football
V American Cup : Yacht Racing V Santosh Trophy : Football
V Ashes : Cricket V Subroto Cup : Football
V Davis Cup : Lawn Tennis
V Derby : Horse Race SPORTS TERMS
V Grand National : Horse Streple Chase V Badminton: Mixed doubles; Deuce; Drop;
Race Smash; Let; Foot work; Setting.
V Jules Rimet Trophy : World Soccer Cup V Base Ball: Pitcher; Put out, Strike; Home; Bunt.
V King’s Cup : Air Races V Billiards: Cue; Jigger; Pot; Break; In Baulk; In
V Merdeka Cup : Football Off; Cannons.
V Swaythling Cup : Table Tennis (Men) V Boxing: Upper cut; Round; Punch; Bout; Knock
V Ryder Cup : Golf down; Hitting below the belt; Ring.
V Thomas Cup : Badminton
V Bridge: Finesse; Dummy; Revoke; Grand Slam;
V U. Thant Cup : Tennis
Little Slam; No Trump; Rubber.
V Walker Cup : Golf
V Chess: Bishop, Gambit; Checkmate; Stalemate.
V Wightman Cup : Lawn Tennis
V Cricket: L.B.W. (leg before wicket); Creases,
V Rothman’s Trophy : Cricket
Popping-creases; Stumped; Bye; Leg-Bye;
V European Champions Cup : Football
V Grand Prix : Table Tennis Googly; Hattrick; Maiden over; Drive; Bowling;
V Edgbaston Cup : Lawn Tennis
Duck; Follow-on; No ball; Leg Break; Silly
point; Cover point; Hit-wicket; Late-cut; Slip;
V Grand Prix : Lawn Tennis
Off-spinner; In-swing.
National V Football: Off Side; Block; Drop-kick; Penalty-
V Agha Khan Cup : Hockey kick (or goal kick); Corner-kick; Free-kick;
V Beighton Cup : Hockey Dribble; Thrown-in; Foul.
 96

V Golf: Boggy; Foursome; Stymic; Tee; Put; Hole; Name of Sports Place
Niblic; Caddie; Links; The green; Bunker. Stadium
V Hockey: Carried; Short Corner; Bully; Sticks; White City Dog-race England
Off side; Roll in; Striking Circle; Under-cutting; Aintree Horse-race England
Dribble. Tentbridge Cricket England
V Horse racing: Jockey; Punter. Patnee Martlake Boat-race England
Tibankham Rugby England
V Polo: Bunker; Chukker; Mallet.
Football
V Tennis: Back hand drive; Volley; Smash; Half- Sandy Lodge Golf Scotland
volley; Deuce; Service; Let; Grand Slam. Forest Hill Tennis New York
Stadiums and Places Brooklyn Baseball New York
Associated with Sports Melbourne Cricket Australia

Name of Sports Place Name of Playing Compound of

Stadium Different Games
Arun Jaitley Stadium Cricket Delhi Name of Related Sports
Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium Athletics Delhi Compound
Shivajee Stadium Hockey Delhi
Court Lawn Tennis, Badminton, Netball,
National Stadium Hockey etc. Delhi Hand ball, Volleyball, Squash, Kho-
Ambedkar Stadium Football Delhi Kho, Kabaddi
Brabourne Stadium Cricket Mumbai Diamond Baseball
Wankhede Stadium Cricket Mumbai Ring Boxing, Skating, Wrestling, Circus,
National Stadium Hockey etc. Mumbai Riding display
Eden Garden Cricket Kolkata Course Golf
Green Park Stadium Cricket Kanpur Board Table Tennis
Keenan Stadium Cricket Jamshedpur
Pool Swimming
Nehru (Chepauk) Stadium Cricket Chennai
Alley Bowling
Barabati Stadium Cricket Cuttack
Mat Judo, Karate II
Lords, Oval, Leeds Cricket Britain
Hedingle Manchester Cricket Britain Arena Horse Riding
Black Heath Rugby London Vellodrum Cycling
Football Field Polo, Football, Hockey
Henley Boat race England Track Athletics
Wimbledon Lawn Tennis London Pitch Cricket, Rugby
Wembley Stadium Football London Rink Ice Hockey

p p p
 97

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 6. At a time when empires in Europe were
answer from the codes given below the lists: crumbling before the might of Napoleon
List-I which one of the following Governor-Generals
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte kept the British flag flying high in India?
(b) Jean Jacques Rousseau A. Warren Hastings B. Lord Cornwallis
(c) Croce C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord Hastings
(d) Madame Roland 7. Which one of the following statements
List-II regarding Fascism in Italy is not true?
1. ‘A history is contemporary history’ A. The Fascists came to power as a result of
2. ‘Liberty what crimes are committed in thy popular uprising
name’ B. In 1926, all political parties except
3. ‘Man is born free but everywhere he is in Mussolini’s party were banned
chains.’ C. The Fascists suppressed the Socialist
4. ‘I am the Child of Revolution’ movement
Codes : D. The Fascists were hostile to the
(a) (b) (c) (d) Communists
A. 1 2 3 4
8. The fall of Czar Nicholas-II is known as:
B. 4 3 1 2
A. Bloody Sunday
C. 3 4 2 1 B. Bolshevik Revolution
D. 3 4 1 2 C. February Revolution
2. Abraham Lincon was elected the President of D. October Revolution
United States in: 9. Industrial Revolution took place first in:
A. 1862 B. 1860 A. France B. Germany
C. 1875 D. 1855 C. United Kingdom D. Japan
3. Who was known as the ‘Prince of Humanists’? 10. The British Prime Minister at the outbreak of
A. Francisco Petrarch B. Dante World War II was :
C. Boccacio D. Erasmus A. Churchill B. Baldwin
4. D-Day is the day when: C. Attlee D. Chemberlain
A. Germany declared war on Britain 11. The ‘Great Depression’ (1929) economic crisis
B. US dropped the atom bomb on Hiroshima. was met by adopting the policy of
C. Allied Troops landed in Normandy A. Stimulus B. Marshall Plan
D. Germany surrendered to the allies C. New Deal D. Open Door
5. Whose teachings inspired the French 12. The slogan “No taxation without
Revolution? representation” was raised during the:
A. Locke A. American War of Independence
B. Rousseau B. Russian Revolution
C. Hegel C. French Revolution
D. Plato D. Indian Freedom struggle
97 (137) G.K.—13
 98 (137) G.K.—13-II

13. In the nineteenth century the people of Europe 20. Which one of the following statements is not
started moving from the villages to the cities correct?
due to the impact of : A. Voltaire believed in Natural Religion
A. Epidemics B. Rousseau wrote Social Contract
B. War C. Montesquieu authored The Spirit of Laws
C. Industrialisation D. Necker believed in ‘General Will’
D. Population explosion in villages 21. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history
14. The important cause of the Civil War in of India because this date is associated
America was: with...........
A. Abolition of slavery A. Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi
B. Quest for freedom B. Quit India Movement
C. Industrialisation C. Partition of Bengal
D. Rebellion by the native Americans D. Partition of India
15. Industrial Revolution could not have come 22. Which ruler enforced the system of ‘Price
about without: Control’ in India?
A. Merchant capitalism A. Mohammad Tughlak
B. The Enclosure Movement B. Razia Begum
C. The services of the proletariat class C. Alauddin Khilji
D. An agricultural revolution D. Sher Shah Suri
16. Consider the following statements : 23. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by
The French Revolution came about mainly which king?
due to the : A. Dara Shikoh B. Akbar
1. Extreme poverty of the people C. Sher Shah Suri D. Shahjahan
2. Impact of the works of great writers 24. Who are supposed to be the earliest inhabi-
3. Cruelty of the rulers tants of India? Where did they come from?
4. Impact of impulsive reaction A. Aryans from Central Asia
Which of the above statements are correct? B. Dravidians from Mediterranean
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. Negroids from Africa
C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. Bhils and the Santhals from West Asia
17. Asia’s oldest and largest Buddhist monastery 25. The one chief characteristic of temple
is situated in : architecture of the Gupta Age was :
A. Tawang (Arunachal Pardesh) A. Absence of dome
B. Lhasa (Tibet) B. Huge size
C. Trincomallee (Sri Lanka) C. Beautiful carvings
D. Ulan Bator (Mongolia) D. absence of a covered courtyard for the
18. Who was the main architect of the Russian gathering of worshippers
Revolution? 26. The Rigveda consists of :
A. Karl Marx B. Lenin A. 1000 hymns B. 2028 hymns
C. Stalin D. Tolstoy C. 1028 hymns D. 1038 hymns
19. V.I. Lenin is associated with : 27. The central point in Ashoka’s dharma was :
A. Russian Revolution of 1917 A. royalty to kings
B. Chinese Revolution of 1949 B. peace and non-violence
C. German Revolution C. respect to elders
D. French Revolution of 1789 D. religious tolerance
 99

28. The social evil which was conspicuously 35. The Simon Commission was generally
absent during ancient India was : boycotted by the Indian political parties.
A. Sati-System B. Devadasi-System What was the reason for this general non-
C. Polygamy D. Purdah-System cooperation?
A. the Commission aimed at dividing the
29. Which, among the following, can be accepted
people
as a novelty introduced by Mughal emperors B. it was an ‘all white’ Commission
to their buildings? C. it came after the Jallianwala Bagh carnage
A. Domes B. Minarets D. it was an eye wash
C. Arches D. Attached gardens
36. Aligarh Muslim University was founded by :
30. The first ruler of India who defeated A. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu
Muhammud of Ghur was : B. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
A. Mularaja II of Gujarat C. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
B. Prithviraja Chauhan of Delhi D. Maulana Mohammad Ali
C. Jayachand of Kannauj
D. Parmaldeva of Bundelkhand 37. Ibn Batutah was an African traveller visiting
India during the time of :
31. What important event happened in India in A. Alivardi Khan
1911? B. Ala-ud-din Khalji
A. Bengal was partitioned C. Iltutmish
B. Non-Cooperation movement was launched D. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
C. India’s capital was shifted from Calcutta
38. The battle of Wandiawash was fought in :
to Delhi
A. 1726 B. 1760
D. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the
C. 1818 D. 1857
Congress session
39. The abolition of Sati by government
32. The first phase of the Congress Party (1885- regulation was at the time of :
1905) was characterized by its efforts to A. Warren Hastings B. Lord Wellesley
secure: C. Lord Bentinck D. Lord Ahmerst
A. limited independence
B. complete freedom 40. Pick out the wrong combination :
C. Indianization of services A. Dilwara Temple : Mt. Abu
D. constitutional reforms B. Pashupati Temple : Kathmandu
C. Padmanabh Temple : Bangalore
33. The Muslim League demanded a separate D. Minakshi Temple : Madurai
homeland for the Indian Muslims openly for
the first time at its annual session held in 41. Match the following:
Lahore in the year : (a) Chanhudaro (b) Kalibangan
(c) Lothal (d) Surkotada
A. 1931 A.D. B. 1936 A.D.
1. Alleged discovery of the skeleton of horse.
C. 1940 A.D. D. 1941 A.D.
2. Bead making.
34. Under whose governorship did the East India 3. Traces of a dock and ship on seal.
Company secure the Diwani Rights in Bengal, 4. Evidence of ploughing the fields.
Bihar and Odisha from Emperor Shah The Correct code is :
Alam? (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. Lord Cornwallis A. 2 4 3 1
B. Lord William Bentinck B. 2 1 3 4
C. Lord Clive C. 1 2 3 4
D. Lord Wellesley D. 2 1 4 3
 100

42. Match the Harappan settlements with the 47. Who among the following patronised the
banks of rivers on which they were located : ‘Gandhara’ (Indo-Greek style) School of Art?
(a) Harappa 1. Ravi A. Ashoka, the Great
(b) Mohenjodaro 2. Indus B. Harsha Vardhana
(c) Ropar 3. Sutlej C. Kanishka
(d) Kalibangan 4. Ghaggar D. Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(e) Lothal 5. Bhogava
48. The Sultanate of Delhi had five ruling
Codes :
dynasties. The dynasty having longest and
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
shortest period were :
A. 1 2 3 4 5
A. Ilbari and Khalji
B. 1 2 3 5 4
B. Tughlaq and Khalji
C. 2 1 3 5 4
D. 2 1 4 3 5 C. Tughlaq and Sayyid
D. Ilbari and Lodis
43. The Goddess ‘Kannagi’ whose many temples
were erected during the ‘Sangam Age’ was the 49. Which one of the following events took place
goddess of : at the last during reign of Muhammad-bin-
A. Chastity B. Love Tughlaq?
C. Prowess D. Wisdom A. Introduction of token currency
B. Increase of land-revenue in Doab
44. The Jain goal of life is to attain deliverance C. Transfer of Capital from Delhi to Devagiri.
from the fetters of mudane existence, the way D. Conquest of Khurasan and Iraq
to which lies through three jewels. Which one
of the following was not included among the 50. The most learned medieval Muslim ruler who
‘three jewels’ of Jainism? was well versed in various branches of learning
A. Right faith B. Right action including astronomy, mathematics and
C. Right knowledge D. Right conduct medicine was :
A. Jalaluddin Khilji
45. The most striking feature of the Ashokan pillar B. Sikander Lodi
is polish. Name the Ashokan pillar which is C. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
considered to be the most graceful of all D. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Ashokan pillars.
A. Sarnath 51. The ‘Sufis’ had 12 silsilas. They propounded
B. Rampurva the idea of Union with God through:
C. Laurya-Nandangarh A. Love B. Rituals
D. Rummindei C. Fasts D. Prayers
46. Which are the correct statements? 52. Match the following:
1. The land grants, started in Satavahana (a) Peshwa 1. Foreign affairs
period, paved the way for feudal (b) Panditrao 2. Audit and accounts
developments in India. (c) Amatya 3. Providing grants to scholars
2. Silk and spices were the Chief Indian export (d) Sumant 4. General supervision
articles of Indo-Roman trade. 5. Military affairs
3. The Guptas issued the largest number of Select the correct code :
gold coins in ancient India. (a) (b) (c) (d)
4. The first memorial of a ‘SATI’ dated 510 A. 2 3 4 5
A.D. is found at Eran in Madhya Pradesh. B. 4 1 2 3
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 3, and 4 C. 4 3 2 1
C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 3 1 4 2
 101

53. The Regulating Act of 1773 can be regarded 59. Dyarchy means :
as the first measure to : A. double government
A. assert the right of British Parliament to B. a government in which the centre is very
legislate for India powerful
B. separate the legislature from the executive C. a government based on division of power
C. separate the judiciary from the executive between centre and provinces
D. centralise law-making D. None of the above
54. What was the exact constitutional status of 60. The Indian National Congress observed
the Indian Republic on 26th January, 1950? ‘Independence Day’ for the first time on 26th
A. A Democratic Republic January in :
B. A Sovereign, Democratic Republic A. 1920 B. 1925
C. A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic C. 1930 D. 1947
D. A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic 61. .............is situated near the banks of Sabarmati
Republic
River
55. When the British obtained the grant of Diwani A. Bhavnagar B. Aurangabad
of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha they acquired C. Ahmedabad D. Rajkot
the right to :
62. Sericulture is:
A. maintain law and order in these territories
A. science of the various kinds of serum
B. administer civil justice and collect revenue B. artificial rearing of fish
in these territories
C. art of silkworm breeding
C. collect revenue and establish revenue D. study of various cultures of a community
administration in these territories
D. militarily defend these territories 63. The most abundant constituents of earth’s crust
are:
56. Which of the following were responsible for
A. Igneous rocks
the growth of nationalism in India during the B. Sedimentary rocks
British rule? C. Metamorphic rocks
1. Economic exploitation of India.
D. Granite
2. Impact of western education.
3. Role of the Press. 64. Indian Standard Time is based on:
Select the correct answer using the codes given A. 80oE longitude B. 82½oE longitude
below : C. 110oE longitude D. 25oE longitude
Codes: 65. Tides in the oceans are caused by :
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 A. Gravitational pull of the moon on the
C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3 earth’s surface including sea water
57. Which one of the following nationalist leaders B. Gravitational pull of the sun on the earth’s
has been described as being radical in politics surface only and not on the sea water
but conservative on social issues? C. Gravitational pull of the moon and the
A. G.K. Gokhale sun on the earth’s surface including the
B. B.G. Tilak sea water
C. Lala Lajpat Rai D. None of these
D. Madan Mohan Malviya 66. Nagarjunasagar Project is situated on the river:
58. Provincial Autonomy in British India was A. Tungabhadra
envisaged by the : B. Cauvery
A. Act of 1909 B. Act of 1919 C. Krishna
C. Act of 1935 D. Act of 1947 D. Godavari
 102

67. The difference between the Indian Standard 74. During the period of south-west monsoon,
Time and the Greenwich Mean Time is: Tamil Nadu remains dry because:
A. – 3½ hours B. + 3½ hours A. the winds do not reach this area
C. – 5½ hours D. + 5½ hours B. there are no mountains in this area
C. it lies in the rain shadow area
68. Which of the following dams is not on
D. the temperature is too high to let the winds
Narmada river?
cool down
A. Indira-Sagar Project
B. Maheshwar Hydel Power Project 75. Which country does top in producing cocoa?
C. Jobat Project A. Ghana B. Brazil
D. Koyna Power Project C. Ivory Coast D. Nigeria
69. Which of the following statements is not true 76. The biggest reserves of thorium are in :
about the availability of water on the earth, A. India B. China
the crisis for which is going to increase in the C. The Soviet Union D. U.S.A.
years to come? 77. The Girnar Hills are situated in which of the
A. About 97.5 per cent of the total volume of following states?
water available on the earth is salty A. Gujarat B. Karnataka
B. 80 per cent of the water available to us for C. Madhya Pradesh D. Maharashtra
use comes in bursts as monsoons
78. During December 22nd the sun is vertically
C. About 2.5 per cent of the total water
over:
available on the earth is polluted water
A. Tropic of Cancer
and cannot be used for human activities
B. Tropic of Capricorn
D. Possibility is that some big glaciers will
C. The Equator
melt in the coming ten-fifteen years and
D. None of the above
sea level will rise by 3-4 metres all over
the earth 79. Photosphere is described as the :
A. Lower layer of atmosphere
70. Which of the following is not a cash crop?
B. Visible surface of the sun from which
A. Jute B. Paddy radiation emanates
C. Cashewnut D. Sugarcane C. Wavelength of solar spectrum
71. Through which States does Cauvery River D. None of the above
flow? 80. Broadly, there are three layers of the earth of
A. Gujarat, M.P., Tamil Nadu the crust, the mantle and the core. The crust
B. Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu forms what percentage of the volume of the
C. Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh earth?
D. M.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu A. 0.5% B. 2.5%
72. Indian Standard Time is the local time of C. 7.5% D. 12.5%
82½oE which passes through : 81. The grassland of Argentina is known as :
A. Guntur B. Delhi A. Pampas B. Campos
C. Allahabad D. Kolkata C. Savanna D. None of the above
73. The 17th parallel defines the boundary 82. Different seasons are formed because :
between: A. Sun is moving around the earth
A. North and South Korea B. of revolution of the earth around the Sun
B. USA and Canada on its orbit
C. North and South Vietnam C. of rotation of the earth around its axis
D. China and Russia D. All of the above
 103

83. Eskers and Drumlins are features formed by: (c) Himanchal 3. Middle Himalayas
A. underground water (d) Sahyadri 4. Western Ghats
B. running water Codes:
C. the action of wind (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. glacial action A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 2 3 1
84. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
C. 2 1 3 4
answer using the codes given below the Lists :
D. 1 2 3 4
List-I List-II
(Rivers) (Towns) 89. The term ‘Regur’ refers to:
(a) Ghaghara 1. Lucknow A. Laterite soils
(b) Brahmaputra 2. Hoshangabad B. Black Cotton soils
(c) Narmada 3. Ahmedabad C. Red Soils
(d) Sabarmati 4. Guwahati D. Deltaic Alluvial Soils
5. Ayodhya 90. Location of sugar industry in India is shifting
(a) (b) (c) (d) from north to south because of:
A. 4 5 1 2 A. cheap labour
B. 5 4 2 3 B. expanding regional market
C. 5 4 3 1 C. cheap and abundant supply of power
D. 3 5 2 1 D. high yield and high sugar content in
85. Which of the statements as regards the sugarcane
consequences of the movement of the earth is 91. Consider the following statements :
not correct? 1. Ozone is found mostly in the Stratosphere.
A. Revolution of the earth is the cause of the 2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the
change of seasons. surface of the earth.
B. Rotation of the earth is the cause of days 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from
and nights. the Sun.
C. Rotation of the earth causes variation in 4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on
the duration of days and nights. the earth.
D. Rotation of the earth effects the movement Which of the above statements are correct?
of winds and ocean currents. A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 4
86. The world is divided into :
A. 12 time zones 92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. 20 time zones answer using the codes given below the Lists :
C. 24 time zones List-I List-II
D. 36 time zones (Crops) (Producer)
(a) Banana 1. Brazil
87. The ‘Kiel’ canal links the : (b) Cocoa 2. Cote d’Ivoire
A. Pacific and Atlantic Oceans (c) Coffee 3. India
B. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (d) Tea 4. China
C. Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea Codes :
D. North Sea and Baltic Sea (a) (b) (c) (d)
88. Match the following : A. 2 3 1 4
List-I List-II B. 3 2 1 4
(a) Himadri 1. Outer Himalayas C. 3 2 4 1
(b) Shivalik 2. Inner Himalayas D. 2 3 4 1
 104

93. Darjeeling and Dharamsala would be the right 102. In a developed economy the major share of
places to visit if one wanted to get a clear employment originates in the :
view respectively of : A. primary sector B. tertiary sector
A. Kanchanjunga and Dhauladhar ranges C. secondary sector D. any of the above
B. Nandadevi and Dhauladhar ranges
103. The Economic and Social Commission for
C. Kanchanjunga and Nandadevi ranges
Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at :
D. Nandadevi and Nanga Parvat
A. Bangkok B. Kuala Lumpur
94. Atmosphere exists because: C. Manila D. Singapore
A. The Gravitational force of the Earth
104. Commercial vehicles are not produced by
B. Revolution of the Earth
which of the following companies in India?
C. Rotation of the Earth
A. TELCO B. Ashok Leyland
D. Weight of the gases of atmosphere
C. DCM Daewoo D. Birla Yamaha
95. Victoria lake is located in the continent:
105. In India, the Public Sector is most dominant
A. Africa
in:
B. Asia
A. transport
C. North America
B. steel production
D. South America
C. commercial banking
96. The famous Lagoon Lake of India is : D. organised term-lending financial
A. Dal Lake B. Chilka Lake institutions
C. Pulicat Lake D. Mansarover
106. The main argument advanced in favour of
97. Where are most of the earth’s active volcanoes small scale and cottage industries in India is
concentrated? that:
A. Indian Ocean B. Pacific Ocean A. cost of production is low
C. Aral Sea D. Atlantic Ocean B. they require small capital investment
98. Through which of the following states does C. they advance the goal of equitable
the river Chambal flow? distribution of wealth
A. U.P., M.P., Rajasthan D. they generate a large volume of
B. M.P., Gujarat, U.P. employment
C. Rajasthan, M.P., Bihar 107. The most serious economic problems of India
D. Gujarat, M.P., U.P. are:
99. Which country is called the sugar bowl of the A. Poverty and unemployment
world? B. Stagnation, not poverty
A. Cuba B. India C. Unemployment, not poverty
C. Argentina D. USA D. Underdevelopment, not poverty
100. The area covered by forest in India as per 108. Which of the following is not one of the three
ISFR-2019 is: central problems of an economy?
A. 46% B. 33% A. What to produce
C. 21.67% D. 25.50% B. How to produce
C. When to produce
101. A closed economy is the one which :
D. For whom to produce
A. does not permit emigration or immigration
B. permits emigration but no immigration 109. Gender Responsive Budgeting has been
C. engages in no foreign trade adopted in India in the year:
D. engages in no foreign and domestic trade A. 2017 B. 2004
or transit C. 2014 D. 2005
 105 (137) G.K.—14

110. In which of the following industries in India 118. Which of the following statements best
are the maximum number of workers explains the term contraband goods?
employed? A. Goods produced only for exports
A. Sugar B. Jute B. Goods produced in joint sector only
C. Textiles D. Iron and Steel C. Goods for the trading of which licence is
111. Terrace Cultivation is practiced mostly: not required
A. in urban areas D. Goods that are forbidden, from export,
B. on slopes of mountains import or even possession, by law
C. on tops of hills 119. Price in the market is fixed by:
D. in undulating tracts A. Stock exchange rates
112. Which of the following is a Selective Credit B. The demand and supply ruling in the
Control method? market at a particular time
A. Bank Rate C. The Finance Minister
B. RBI directives D. None of the above
C. Cash Reserve Ratio 120. Devaluation of currency helps to promote:
D. Open market operations A. National Income
113. Which of the following taxes is not shared by B. Savings
the Central Government with the States? C. Imports at lower cost
A. Union excise duties D. Exports
B. Customs duty 121. Balanced economic growth can be achieved
C. Income tax only if:
D. Estate duty A. All the sectors of economy grow at the
114. ICICI is the name of a: same rate
A. Financial Institution B. Population growth is arrested
B. Chemical Industry C. All the inter dependent sectors grow in
C. Cotton Industry harmony
D. Chamber of Commerce and Industry D. Basic and heavy industries are assigned
highest priority
115. Structural Unemployment arises due to
A. Deflationary conditions 122. Which one of the following contributes most
B. Heavy industry bias to the National Income in India?
C. Shortage of raw material A. Service Sector
D. Inadequate productive capacity B. Industrial Sector
C. Foreign Trade Sector
116. Which of the following is the largest single
D. Agricultural Sector
source of the government’s earning from tax
revenue? 123. IMF is the result of:
A. Excise duties A. Brettonwood conference
B. Customs duties B. Rome conference
C. Corporation tax C. Geneva conference
D. Income tax D. Hawana conference
117. The largest public sector bank in India is: 124. Largest revenue in India is obtained from:
A. Central Bank of India A. Excise duties
B. Punjab National Bank B. Corporation tax
C. State Bank of India C. Income tax
D. Indian Overseas Bank D. None of the above
 106

125. The term ‘devaluation’ means: 134. The ‘Relative Deprivation’ approach for
A. Reducing the value of a currency in terms measuring poverty has been adopted by:
of another currency A. developing countries
B. Increasing the value of a currency B. developed countries
C. Revising the value of a currency C. under-developed countries
D. None of the above D. None of the above
126. Per capita net availability of pulses has shown 135. One of the main factors that led to rapid
a tendency of: expansion of Indian exports is:
A. Increase over time A. Imposition of import duties
B. Decrease over time B. Liberalisation of the economy
C. Constant over time C. Recession in other countries
D. First increase then decrease D. Diversification of exports
127. National Income is the same as: 136. Sustainable economic development means an
A. Net national product at market price
increase in the rate of growth of real:
B. Net domestic product at market price
A. total and per capita product
C. Net national product at factor cost
B. total and per capita product and level of
D. Net domestic product at factor cost
literacy rate
128. Which one of the following is not an example C. total and per capita product and life
of indirect tax? expectancy at birth
A. Sales tax B. Excise duty D. total and per capita product, taking into
C. Customs duty D. Expenditure tax account the cost of degradation of the
129. The major aim of devaluation is to: quality of environment in this process
A. encourage imports 137. Functional unemployment occurs when:
B. encourage exports A. unemployed have no qualification for job
C. encourage both exports and imports B. people frequently change their job
D. discourage both exports and imports C. people were thrown out from job due to
130. Structural unemployment arises due to: recession
A. deflationary conditions D. None of these
B. heavy industry bias
138. Which among the following does not have a
C. shortage of raw materials
D. inadequate productive capacity ‘free trade zone’?
A. Kandla B. Mumbai
131. When was the Family Planning Programme C. Visakhapatnam D. Thiruvanantpuram
officially started in India?
A. 1950 B. 1952 139. Sun Belt of USA is important for which one
C. 1956 D. 1962 of the following industries?
A. Cotton textile
132. When was the Reserve Bank of India B. Petrochemicals
nationalised? C. Hi-tech electronics
A. 1947 B. 1949 D. Food Processing
C. 1950 D. 1951
140. Commercial banking system in India is
133. Which of the following is not a feature of the
A. unit banking B. branch banking
Indian economy?
C. mixed banking D. None of the above
A. High rate of population growth
B. Disguised unemployment 141. Who gives recognition to political parties in
C. Lowest rate of adult literacy India?
D. High rate of exports A. Parliament
 107

B. President C. he can consult the Supreme Court on any

C. Supreme Court question of law or fact which is of public
D. Election Commission importance
D. he can grant pardon, reprieves and respites
142. The Quorum of the Legislative Council is :
to persons punished under Union Law
A. one-fourth of its total membership
B. one-third of its membership 147. The Vice-president of India can be removed
C. one-tenth of its membership from his office before the expiry of his term
D. 25 if :
A. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a
143. The Indian Constitution is: majority of its members and the Lok Sabha
A. federal agrees with the resolution
B. unitary B. if the Supreme Court of India recommends
C. a happy mixture of the federal and unitary his removal
D. federal in normal times and unitary in times C. the President so desires
of emergency D. None of the above
144. Universal adult franchise implies a right to 148. The Chief Justice of a High Court in India is
vote to all: appointed by the :
A. adult residents of the State A. Governor of the State
B. adult male citizens of the State B. Prime Minister of India
C. residents of the State C. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D. adult citizens of the State D. President of India
145. When a resolution prefering a charge against 149. Which of the following statements is constitu-
the President has been passed by a specified tionally not true about the passing of the
majority in the House, it is sent to the other Union Budgets and Finance Bill in India?
House for investigation. If, as a result of such 1. Under the law, Finance Bill should be
an investigation, a resolution is passed through adopted by both the Houses of the
a specified majority by the other House, Parliament within 45 days of its
declaring that the charge has been sustained, introduction.
the President shall leave his office. The 2. If the Finance Bill is not adopted within
specified special majority must not be less specified period, the government loses its
than : authority to levy the taxes proposed in the
A. two-third of the members present and budgets.
voting 3. In the absence of full budget, a vote-on-
B. one-third of the members present and account gives the power to the government
voting to spend.
C. three-fourth of the members present and 4. Government cannot raise revenues without
voting and two-third of the total a proper approval of the Finance Bill
membership A. Only 2 B. Only 3
D. two-third of the total membership C. Only 4 D. Only 1, 2 and 3
146. Which one of the following judicial powers 150. Normally, on whose advice the President’s
of the President of India has been wrongly Rule is imposed in a State?
listed? A. Chief Minister
A. he appoints the Chief Justice and other B. Legislative Assembly
judges of the Supreme Court C. Governor
B. he can remove the judges of the Supreme D. Chief Justice of High Court
Court on grounds of misconduct
 108

151. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals B. obligatory for the President to accept the
with Amendment procedure? advice of the Council of Ministers
A. Article 368 B. Article 358 C. not obligatory for the President to seek or
C. Article 367 D. All of these accept the advice of the Council of
152. Government is the agency through which the Ministers
will of : D. obligatory for the President to seek the
A. the state is expressed advice of the Council of Ministers if his
B. the people is expressed own party is in power
C. the head of the state is expressed 159. Which one of the following statements is
D. the majority is expressed correct?
153. In a unitary system of government : A. the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is
A. The centre is all powerful elected every year
B. The centre is weaker than the states B. the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is
C. The centre and states stand at par elected for a term of two years at a time
D. The states and centre are supreme in their C. the Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha is
respective spheres elected for a term of six years
154. In Cabinet System of Government the real D. the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio
executive authority rests with : Presiding Officer of Rajya Sabha
A. The Council of Ministers 160. The introduction of “no confidence” motion
B. The Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha requires the support of at
C. The Constitution least:
D. The Parliament
A. 50 members B. 70 members
155. The Head of the State under a parliamentary C. 60 members D. 80 members
government:
161. The High Court comes under :
A. is an elected representative
B. is a hereditary person A. State List B. Union List
C. is a nominated person C. Concurrent List D. None of the above
D. may be any one of the above 162. Which one of the following has been wrongly
156. In the event of a ministerial proposal being listed as a Fundamental Duty of the Indian
defeated on the floor of the legislature, under citizens?
the parliamentary system : A. to develop scientific temper, humanism
A. the government waits for a general no- and spirit of inquiry and reform
confidence motion B. to work for raising the prestige of the
B. the minister concerned is taken to task by country in the international sphere
the Prime Minister C. to protect and improve the natural
C. the minister is forced to resign environment
D. the whole Council of Ministers resign D. to strive towards excellence in all spheres
157. The “due process of law” is an essential of individual and collective activity
characteristic of the judicial system of: 163. Which one of the following is not a
A. UK B. France Fundamental Duty as outlined in Article 51A
C. USA D. India of the Constitution?
158. Under the Constitution it is : A. to abide by the Constitution and respect
A. obligatory for the President to accept the its ideals
advice of the Council of Ministers but is B. to defend the country and render national
not obliged to follow it service when called upon to do so
 109

C. to work for the moral upliftment of the 168. Which of the following is not a formally
weaker sections of society prescribed device available to the members of
D. to preserve the rich heritage parliament?
A. Question hour
164. The main characteristics of the Directive
B. Zero hour
Principles of State Policy given in the Indian
C. Half-an-hour discussion
Constitution are :
D. Short duration discussion
A. not enforceable by any court
B. fundamental in the governance of the 169. Which of the following is not a tool of
country executive control over public administration?
C. ‘Like instruments, instructions, political A. Power of appointment and removal
manifesto and a code of moral precepts B. Line agencies
which have to guide governors of the C. Appeal to public opinion
country’ D. Civil services code
D. no law can be passed, which is opposed to 170. If the Speaker of the State Legislative
these principles Assembly decides to resign, he should submit
165. Of the following which are true? his resignation to the:
A. In a State, the Legislative Council is A. Judges of the High Court
dominant with regard to non-financial bills B. Deputy Speaker
and the Legislative Assembly with regard C. Chief Minister
to financial (money) bills D. Finance Minister
B. Vidhan Parishad can virtually block 171. The Constitution of India provides for the
legisla-tion even if the same is passed by nomination of two members of Lok Sabha by
the Vidhan Sabha the President to represent:
C. In case of a tie between the two Houses, A. the Parsis
the Governor is duty-bound to call a joint B. men of eminence
session of the two Houses to have the issue C. the business community
settled on a majority verdict D. the Anglo-Indian community
D. If a Bill is twice approved by the Vidhan 172. India is a Federal State because of:
Sabha, it becomes law even if rejected by A. dual judiciary
the Vidhan Parishad B. dual citizenship prevalent here
166. Which one of the following types of C. share of power between the Centre and the
emergency can be declared by the President? States
A. Emergency due to threat of war and D. rigid Constitution
external aggresion 173. Residuary Subjects are those subjects which
B. Emergency due to break-down of constitu- are:
tional machinery in a State A. contained in the State list
C. Financial emergency on account of threat B. contained in the Union list
to the financial credit of India C. contained in the Concurrent list
D. all the three emergencies D. not covered by any of the three lists
167. The chairman of which of the following 174. Which of the following writs can be issued,
parliamentary committees is invariably from by the Supreme Court, to enforce Fundamental
the members of ruling party? Rights?
A. Committee on public undertakings A. Writ of Habeas Corpus
B. Public accounts committee B. Writ of Mandamus
C. Estimates committee C. Writ of Quo Warranto
D. Committee on delegated legislation D. All of these
 110

175. When the offices of both the President and 181. Name the instrument with the help of which
the Vice-President of India are vacant, who a sailor in a submarine can see the objects on
will discharge their functions? the surface of the sea.
A. Prime Minister A. Telescope B. Periscope
B. Home Minister C. Gycroscope D. Stereoscope
C. Chief Justice of India 182. ‘HEMOPHILLIA’ is the disease of ............
D. The Speaker A. liver B. blood
176. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the C. brain D. bones
President of India on a matter of law or fact: 183. Vitamin A is abundantly found in ............
A. on its own A. Brinjal B. Tomato
B. only when such advice is sought C. Carrot D. Cabbage
C. only if the matter relates to some basic issue 184. ............ is not soluble in water.
D. only if the issue poses a threat to the unity A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
and integrity of the country C. Vitamin C D. None of these
177. Six months shall not intervene between two 185. The blood vessels with the smallest diameter
sessions of the Indian Parliament because : are called ............
A. it is the customary practice A. capillaries B. arterioles
B. it is the British convention followed in C. venules D. lymphatics
India 186. Out of the following ............ has the greatest
C. it is an obligation under the Constitution elasticity.
of India A. steel B. rubber
D. None of the above C. aluminium D. annealed copper
178. The States of the Indian Union can be 187. Cooking gas is a mixture of which of the
recognised or their boundaries altered by: following two gases?
A. the Union Parliament by a simple majority A. Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen
in the ordinary process of legislation B. Butane and Propane
B. two-thirds majority of both the Houses of C. Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide
Parliament D. Methane and Ethylene
C. two-thirds majority of both the Houses of 188. The substance most commonly used as a food
Parliament and the consent of the legisla- preservative is:
tures of concerned States A. sodium carbonate B. tartaric acid
D. an executive order of the Union C. acetic acid D. benzoic acid
government with the consent of the
189. Normally, the substances that fight against
concerned State governments diseases in human systems are known as:
179. The Basic Feature theory of the Constitution A. dioxyribonucleic acids
of India was propounded by the Supreme Court B. carbohydrates
in the case of : C. enzymes
A. Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India D. antibodies
B. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab 190. The SI unit of temperature is ............
C. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India A. Kelvin B. Celsius
D. Keshavananda Vs. State of Kerala C. Fahrenheit D. None of the above
180. Which one of the following writs is issued by 191. One of the common fungal diseases of man
a court in case of illegal detention of a person? is :
A. Habeas corpus B. Mandamus A. plague B. ringworm
C. Certiorari D. Quo-warranto C. cholera D. typhoid
 111

192. A clear sky is blue because: C. Absorption of other colours by water

A. red light is scattered more than blue molecules
B. ultraviolet light has been absorbed D. None of the above
C. blue light is scattered more than red 202. The image formed on the retina of the eye is:
D. blue light has been absorbed A. upright and real
193. Jenner introduced the method of making B. larger than the object
people immune to : C. small and inverted
A. small pox B. rabies D. enlarged and real
C. cholera D. polio 203. Unit of loudness of sound is:
194. The largest cell in the human body is : A. bel B. decibel
A. Nerve cell B. Live cell C. phon D. none of these
C. Muscle cell D. Kidney cell 204. Oil rises up the wick in a lamp :
195. What is the device that steps up or steps down A. because oil is volatile
the voltage? B. due to the capillary action phenomenon
A. Dynamo B. Conductor C. due to the surface tension phenomenon
C. Inductor D. Transformer D. because oil is very light
196. The protein deficiency disease is known as : 205. The ‘stones’ formed in human kidney consist
A. Kwashiorker B. Cirrhosis mostly of :
C. Eczema D. Clycoses A. calcium oxalate
B. sodium acetate
197. Iron deficiency causes : C. magnesium sulphate
A. rickets B. anaemia D. calcium
C. cirrhosis D. goitre
206. We hear the sound later, while the light is
198. Blood group of an individual is controlled seen earlier:
by : A. because light’s speed is more than that of
A. Haemoglobin B. Shape of RBC sound
C. Shape of WBC D. Genes B. because lights travel in a straight direction
199. In a normal man the amount of blood pumped while sound in a zigzag direction
out by the heart per minute is about : C. because sound’s frequency is lower than
A. 1 litre B. 3 litres light
C. 4 litres D. 5 litres D. All of the above
200. Red/green colour blindness in man is known 207. Which part of an eye is transplanted?
as : A. Cornea
A. Protanopia B. Retina
B. Deutetanopia C. Iris
C. Both A and B above D. Sciera
D. Marfan’s syndrome 208. The Universal donor group of blood is:
201. The blue colour of the water in the sea is due A. O B. A
to : C. B D. AB
A. Reflection of the blue light by the 209. The green colour of the leaf is due to :
impurities in sea water A. Presence of Chloroplast
B. Reflection of the blue sky by sea water B. Presence of Chromium
and scattering of blue light by water C. Presence of Nicoplast
molecules D. Presence of excess of oxygen
 112

210. Voice of a child is more shrill than that of an 219. The deficiency of which one of the following
elderly person because: vitamins leads to bleeding of gums and
A. the pitch of the child’s voice is higher loosening of teeth?
than that of the person A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin C
B. the pitch is lower C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin A
C. the child is more energetic
220. How much blood does a normal person have
D. None of the above
in his body?
211. Camel uses its hump for : A. 8 litres B. 4 to 5 litres
A. storing water C. 10 litres D. 2 litres
B. storing fat
221. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
C. for balancing the body
answer using the codes given below the Lists :
D. temperature regulation
List-I List-II
212. A man standing in a free falling lift releases (a) Visakhadatta 1. Mrichhakatika
a ball from his hand. The ball would be : (b) Shudraka 2. Ritusamhara
A. moving down (c) Kalidasa 3. Kamasutra
B. moving up (d) Vatsyayana 4. Devichandraguptam
C. stationary Codes :
D. moving up and down (a) (b) (c) (d)
213. To change the quality of sound produced by A. 1 4 2 3
an instrument we need to vary the: B. 4 1 3 2
A. pitch C. 1 4 3 2
B. loudness D. 4 1 2 3
C. amplitude 222. In which one of the following langauges is
D. number of overtonnes the Dalit writing more conspicuous?
214. The disease caused by Asbestos is: A. Punjabi B. Assamese
A. Emphysema B. Paralysis C. Marathi D. Odiya
C. Diarrhoea D. Dysentery 223. The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of
215. Sweetness of a sound depends upon its poetic expression was:
A. wavelength A. Amir Khusrau
B. frequency B. Mirza Ghalib
C. amplitude C. Bahadur Shah Zafar
D. periodicity and regularity D. Faiz
216. Bats can fly in the dark because : 224. The religious text of the Zoroastrians is named
A. they have a better vision in the dark as:
B. the pupils of their eyes are very big A. Torah B. The Analects
C. they are guided by ultrasonic waves C. Tripatika D. Zend Avesta
produced by them 225. Name the music duo which composed music
D. any bird can do so for Raj Kapoor’s film ‘Bobby’?
217. Blood is formed in the human adult by the : A. Laxmikant Pyarelal B. Shankar Jaikishen
A. heart B. spleen C. Kalyanji Anandji D. Nadeem Shravan
C. kidney D. bone marrow 226. Raja Harishchandra, an early Indian film, was
218. Pencil ‘lead’ is made up of: produced by :
A. graphite B. charcoal A. D.G. Phalke B. Ashok Kumar
C. lead oxide D. lampblack C. Ardeshir Irani D. None of the above
 113 (137) G.K.—15

227. All films are certificed by ........ before they are 236. The character played by Jim Carrey in the
publicly exhibited. movie Man on Moon is based on:
A. Films Division A. Andy Kaufman B. Edwin Aldrin
B. National Film Development Corporation C. John Glenn D. Neil Armstrong
(NFDC)
237. A popular Hindi film-based on the famous
C. Directorate of Advertising and Visual
Sanskrit play Mrichhakatika, was titled:
Publicity (DAVP)
A. Meghadoot B. Amrapali
D. Central Board of Film Certificate (CBFC)
C. Utsav D. Shakuntala
228. Who among the following was the director of
238. Who composed the song ‘Zara Yad Karo
the film ‘Taal’?
Kurbani’?
A. Gulzar B. Shekhar Kapoor
A. Javed Akhtar
C. Satish Shah D. Subhash Ghai
B. Pradeep
229. Who amongst the following actresses C. Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan
has played the leading role in the film D. Raghupati Sahay ‘Firaq’
Elizabeth?
A. Gwyneth Paltrow B. Cate Blanchett 239. Who was the producer of the serial
C. Simi Garewal D. Kim Basinger ‘Mahabharat’?
A. Shyam Benegal B. B.R. Chopra
230. The film ‘Train to Pakistan’ is based on the C. Ramanand Sagar D. Mani Ratnam
novel of the same name, written by:
A. Bhishma Sahani 240. Which of the following is a folk dance of
B. Khushwant Singh Rajasthan?
C. Amrita Pritam A. Garba B. Dandya
D. Khwaja Ahmed Abbas C. Jhumar D. Kathak

231. Which of the following is a folk dance form 241. ‘The Colonel’ is the nickname of which Indian
of Jharkhand? Test Cricketer?
A. Pali B. Jhumar A. Colonel C.K. Naidu
C. Nati D. Chhau B. Rahul Dravid
C. Mohinder Amarnath
232. The first feature film (talkie) to be produced D. Dilip Vengsarkar
in India was:
A. Hatimtai B. Alam Ara 242. The term ‘Grandmaster’ is used in which of
C. Pundalik D. Raja Harishchandra these games?
A. Judo B. Chess
233. Who directed the film “Bombay”? C. Bridge D. Karate
A. Shyam Benegal B. Meera Nair
C. Shekhar Kapoor D. Mani Ratnam 243. The term “Derby” is related with which of the
following?
234. Late Iftekhar Ahmad was famous in which of A. Polo B. Swimming
the following fields? C. Racing D. Horse Racing
A. Acting B. Singing
C. Music D. Literature 244. With which game is Geet Sethi associated?
A. Basketball B. Chess
235. Who among the following is the director of C. Snooker D. Tennis
the film ‘Kaho Na Pyar Hai’?
A. Subhash Ghai 245. Beighton Cup is related with which of the
B. Shekhar Kapoor following?
C. Ramesh Sippy A. Hockey B. Polo
D. Rakesh Roshan C. Cricket D. Soccer
 114 (137) G.K.—15-II

246. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Bhagyashree Sathe Thipsay
answer using the codes given below the Lists : C. Vishwanathan Anand
List-I List-II D. D.V. Prasad
(a) Basketball 1. Lob 252. The XXI Commonwealth Games were held in
(b) Bridge 2. Revoke 2018 in :
(c) Golf 3. Pivot A. Kuala Lumpur B. Bangkok
(d) Tennis 4. Bunker C. Victoria D. Queensland
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d) 253. The term ‘Tee’ is associated with which of the
A. 2 3 1 4 following sports?
B. 2 3 4 1 A. Golf B. Table Tennis
C. Polo D. Judo
C. 3 2 1 4
D. 3 2 4 1 254. The famous woman Tennis player who was
stabbed during a match, is
247. The head office of the International Cricket
A. Steffi Graf B. Monica Seles
Council (ICC) is situated in :
C. Mary Pierce D. Martina Navratilova
A. Zimbabwe B. Australia
C. South Africa D. UAE 255. The term ‘Baseline’ is related to which of the
following?
248. Match the following : A. Golf B. Hockey
List-I List-II C. Badminton D. Polo
(a) Deodhar Trophy 1. Volleyball
(b) Durand Cup 2. Football 256. In which Indian State did the game of Polo
(c) Davis Cup 3. Cricket originate?
4. Tennis A. Manipur B. Rajasthan
C. Gujarat D. West Bengal
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) 257. Which player holds the record for scoring
A. 3 2 4 maximum number of goals in World Cup
B. 3 1 4 Soccer?
C. 2 3 1 A. Pele B. Diego Maradona
D. 1 2 4 C. Gerd Muller D. Lothar Mathaus
249. Which of the following is called ‘Grand Slam’? 258. Rafael Nadal is the well-known player
A. Winning the highest number of medals in associated with:
the Olympic games A. Hockey B. Cricket
B. Winning the men’s singles title in C. Tennis D. Chess
Wimbledon Championship 259. Gagan Narang is the well-known player
C. Winning the Wimbledon Singles title associated with :
successively for two years A. Shooting B. Golf
D. Winning all the four championships C. Table Tennis D. Chess
Australian, French, Wimblendon and US 260. Eden Garden, a famous Cricket stadium, is
250. With which game is the term ‘butterfly stroke’ located in :
associated? A. Kanpur B. Kolkata
A. Swimming B. Cricket C. Jamshedpur D. Pune
C. Gliding D. Skiing 261. Maharaja Ranjit Singh Trophy is associated
251. Who is the first Indian to win the ‘International with :
Grand Master’ title in Chess? A. Golf B. Hockey
A. Anupama Abhayankar C. Soccer D. Tennis
 115

262. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which 273. Which cricketer is nicknamed as the pied piper
of the following games? of Punjab?
A. Swimming B. Weightlifting A. Yuvraj Singh
C. Shooting D. Archery B. Harbhajan Singh
263. Cricket was an Olympic event at which of the C. Mohinder Amarnath
following Olympics? D. Navjot Singh Sidhu
A. London, 1908 B. Amsterdam, 1928 274. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with ...........
C. Paris, 1900 D. Melbourne, 1956 A. Golf B. Football
264. WISPA competitions are associated with : C. Squash D. Hockey
A. Squash B. Yatching 275. The first time athletes marched into the
C. Boxing D. Billiards stadium behind their nation’s flag in
265. Ryder Cup is the famous trophy of : Olympics:
A. Golf B. Chess A. at St. Louis 1904 B. at London 1908
C. Boxing D. Polo C. at Antwerp 1920 D. at Paris 1924
266. Davis Cup is associated with the sport of : 276. The “Dronacharya Award” is associated with:
A. Cricket B. Football A. Eminent Surgeons B. Famous Sports Person
C. Tennis D. Hockey C. Sport Coaches D. Expert Engineers
267. 'Volley', 'Chop' and 'Drive Spine' are the term 277. Which cricketer is nicknamed as ‘Jumbo’?
associated with : A. Venkatesh Prasad B. Anil Kumble
A. Lawn Tennis B. Badminton C. Glenn McGrath D. Shane Warne
C. Table Tennis D. Golf 278. The first time the Olympic Games were
268. Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium is located at : organised by a private company at:
A. Hyderabad A. Montreal, 1976 B. Los Angeles, 1984
B. Chennai C. Atlanta, 1996 D. Rome, 1960
C. Ahmedabad
279. In which Asian Games Cricket was played
D. Varanasi
first?
269. The first winner of “Rajiv Khel Ratna Award” A. Guangzhou, 2010 B. Doha, 2006
was : C. Busan, 2002 D. Seoul, 1986
A. Geet Sethi
B. Sachin Tendulkar 280. The term 'Penalty cick' is used in :
C. Viswanathan Anand A. Hockey B. Football
D. Karnam Malleswari C. Baseball D. Golf

270. The winner of 2019 Cricket World Cup is: 281. Which of the following countries is not a
A. England B. Sri Lanka member of North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
C. Bangladesh D. Australiya (NATO)?
A. Norway B. United Germany
271. The first team event introduced in 1900 at C. Portugal D. Australia
Paris Olympics was :
A. Hockey B. Football 282. Khmer Rouge is a dictatorial party of :
C. Cricket D. Baseball A. Cambodia B. Indonesia
C. Malaysia D. Thailand
272. Which of the following international tennis
tournaments is held on grass court? 283. Which country is not a member of SAARC?
A. US Open B. French Open A. Russia B. Bangladesh
C. Wimbledon D. Australian Open C. Nepal D. Pakistan
 116

284. The headquarters of WTO is located at : 292. Where is the headquarters of INTERPOL
A. Geneva B. Paris located?
C. The Hague D. Washington A. Berlin B. California
285. The main function of the World Trade C. Lyons D. Montreal
Organisation (WTO) is: 293. Parliament of which of the following countries
A. enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements is known as Great People’s Khural?
B. facilitating multi-lateral trade relations of A. Malaysia B. Mongolia
member countries and reviewing trade C. Thailand D. Indonesia
policies
C. administering trade dispute settlement 294. Numbers of major organs of United Nations
procedures are:
D. None of the above A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6
286. The Secretary-General of the UNO is appointed
by the: 295. When is the UN Day celebrated?
A. General Assembly A. October 24 B. January 24
B. Security Council C. June 24 D. September 24
C. Trusteeship Council 296. Which one of the following organ of United
D. World Bank Nations is known as the 'Policeman of the
287. The United Nations officially came into World'?
existence in 1945 on : A. Security Council
A. November 24 B. October 14 B. International Court of Justice
C. October 24 D. November 14 C. The Secretariat
288. Which one of the following is true of the D. General Assembly
International Court of Justice? 297. The members of the NAFTA include:
A. The Judges of the Court are appointed A. USA, Canada and Mexico
according to the discretion of the Secretary B. USA, Canada, Mexico and UK
General C. USA, UK, Russia and Mexico
B. No two Judges may belong to the same D. USA, Canada and Brazil
country
C. The Court consists of 20 Judges 298. The sits of International Court of Justice is
D. The statute of the International Court of located at :
Justice is not an integral part of the UN A. Vienna B. Paris
Charter C. Hague D. New York
289. Which of the following was not among the 299. Which of the following is known as the
six founding countries of the European Constitution of the UN?
Community? A. UN Charter
A. Belgium B. France B. UN Assembly
C. Germany D. UK C. UN Security Council
290. The smallest country in South America is: D. UN Secretariat
A. Ecuador B. Guyana 300. The Headquarters of the Amnesty
C. Surinam D. Uruguay International is located at :
291. In which year “Human Rights Resolution” A. New York
was adopted by the U.N.? B. London
A. 1945 B. 1946 C. Geneva
C. 1947 D. 1948 D. Addis-Ababa
 117

301. Who is the author of the book ‘PRISON 311. “Alice in Wonderland” is written by :
DIARY’? A. Lewis Carrol B. Chester Bowles
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak C. Charles Dickens D. Jonathan Swift
B. Rajendra Prasad
312. “Mrichchhakatikam” is written by :
C. Jai Prakash Narayan
A. Vishakhadatta B. Vatsyayana
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C. Sudraka D. Bana Bhatt
302. Who is the author of ‘Satanic Verses’?
A. Lewis Carrol B. Salman Rushdie 313. “My Experiments with Truth” is written by :
C. Parry Mason D. Mulk Raj Anand A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. M.K. Gandhi
303. Who wrote ‘Gitanjali’? C. Abul Kalam Azad
A. Kalidas D. Rajendra Prasad
B. Gopal Das ‘Neeraj’
C. Rabindra Nath Tagore 314. Who wrote the book “India Wins Freedom”?
D. Jawahar Lal Nehru A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
B. Mahatma Gandhi
304. Who, among the following, scholars C. Sir Mohammad Iqbal
flourishing during the Gupta Age, was the D. Abdul Gaffar Khan
author of Dasakumara-Charita?
A. Asanga B. Dignaga 315. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
C. Dandina D. Bhattin answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I List-II
305. The author of Gitagovinda was:
(a) Emma 1. Graham Greene
A. Halayudha B. Jayadeva
(b) Mother India 2. E.M. Forster
C. Kalhana D. Jona-raja
(c) Human Factor 3. Jane Austen
306. “Ingenious Pain” is a book/novel written by: (d) Passage to India 4. Katherine Mayo
A. Andrew Miller B. Santa Monica Codes :
C. Ben Johnson D. Bill Gates (a) (b) (c) (d)
307. Who amongst the following is the author of A. 2 1 4 3
the famous book “An Equal Music”? B. 3 4 1 2
A. Salman Rushdie B. Shasthivrata C. 3 1 2 4
C. Vikram Seth D. Kamla Markandeya D. 4 2 1 3
308. The famous Moorti Devi Award is given for 316. ‘Poverty and Un British Rule in India’ is
excellence in which of the following fields? written by:
A. Medicine A. R.C. Dutt B. J.L. Nehru
B. Science & Technology C. D.B. Naoroji D. S.N. Sen
C. Social Service
317. Name the author of the book A Passage to
D. Literature
England.
309. Who has written “Devdas”? A. E.M. Forster
A. Tarasankar Bandyopadhyay B. Nirad C. Choudhuri
B. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay C. Vikram Seth
C. Rabindranath Tagore D. Eric Segal
D. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
318. The author of the book ‘The Struggle in My
310. “Ain-i-Akbari” is written by: Life’ is:
A. Todar Mal B. Abul Fazal A. Mandela B. J.L. Nehru
C. Sheikh Saadi D. Mirza Ghalib C. Tilak D. Gokhale
 118

319. The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given 328. Which one of the following authors put forth
by which of the following organisations? the theory of the Drain of India’s resources to
A. Council for Scientific and Industrial England?
Research A. Raja Rammohan Roy
B. Indian Council for Agricultural Research B. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
C. Indian National Science Academy C. G.G. Agarkar
D. Indian Space Research Organisation D. Dadabhai Naoroji
320. Which of the following books is not written 329. The “Last Supper” is a famous renaissance
by Salman Rushdie? painting. It was a masterpiece of :
A. The Satanic Verses A. Michael Angelo B. Leonardo da Vinci
B. Shame C. Titian D. Raphael
C. Naked Face 330. Dhyanchand is associated with which sports?
D. Midnight’s Children A. Badminton B. Hockey
321. The different schools of modern socialism C. Tennis D. Football
derive their strength primarily from the 331. ‘Man is born free, yet every where he is in
writings of ...........? chains’. This was said by:
A. Joseph Stalin B. Leo Tolstoy A. Voltaire B. John Stuart Mill
C. Mao Tse-tung D. Karl Marx C. Rousseau D. Karl Marx
322. Baba Amte is famous as a ........... 332. Who among the following was a prominent
A. Painter B. Singer social reformer?
C. Politician D. Social Worker A. Baba Gurmukh Singh
323. Central Government says that .............. was B. Raja Mahendra Pratap
received well by citizens as ‘imandari ka C. Bipin Chandra Pal
utsav’. D. Jotiba Govind Phule
A. Demonetization 333. Whose real name was Gadadhar Chhattopa-
B. Goods and Services Tax dhyaya?
C. E-NAM A. Swami Vivekanand
D. All of the above B. Ram Krishna Paramhansa
324. Mr. Yehudi Menuhin, was a famous: C. Dayanand Saraswai
A. Sitarist B. Cartoonist D. Raja Ram Mohan Rai
C. Journalist D. Violinist 334. Who was known as “Man of Destiny”?
325. Sundarlal Bahuguna, a famous environ- A. Napoleon B. Nehru
mentalist, was associated with : C. Hitler D. Mussolini
A. Chipko Movement 335. Who discovered that mosquito served as a
B. Narmada Bachao Andolan carrier of malaria?
C. Satyagraha Movement A. Jonas Salk B. Ronald Ross
D. Anti-corruption Movement C. Louis Pasteur D. Robert Koch
326. Mother Teressa’s native place was : 336. Who was the first woman Governor of an
A. Albania B. France Indian State?
C. Greece D. Italy A. Sushila Nayar B. Sucheta Kripalani
327. The live polio vaccine which can be taken by C. Sarojini Naidu D. Sulochana Modi
mouth was developed by : 337. Who among the following founded the
A. Albert Sabin B. Edward Jenner Bhartiya Jana Sangh?
C. Jonas Salk D. Selman Waksman A. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
 119

B. Veer Savarkar 339. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is an exponent of:

C. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia A. Flute B. Sitar
D. Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee C. Sarod D. Tabla
338. Who among the following President of India 340. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the
held his office for two successive terms? Bharat Ratna?
A. V.V. Giri A. Martin Luther King
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad B. Zubin Mehta
C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan C. Mother Teressa
D. None of these D. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C D C B C A C C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A C A A D A B A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C B C D C B D D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D C C B C D B C C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A A A B C D C B B D
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C A B B A B C A C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C C B B C C D D D B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B C C C A A A B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B D B C C D C B D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B A A A B B A A C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C B A D D D A C D C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B B B A D C C D B D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
C A A B A D C D B D
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B B D A B D B D D C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D C D D D B A D C C
 120

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A B A A A D C B D A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
B B C B D D C B B B
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
D C D D C B C A D A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B B C A A A B D D A
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B C A A D A B D D A
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
B B B B A A A A A A
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
B A A A D C D A B B
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
D C A D A A D D B B
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
D B D A D D C B B C
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
D B D C A D D A D A
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
C D A B C A C C A B
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
B C C A A C C A C A
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
B C A B A C B B A B
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
D A A A B A C B D C
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
D C B D A A A C A B
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
C B C C B A C D D B
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
A C B A B C B A A C
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
D D A D A A C D B B
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
C D B A B C D B C D

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