Group Dynamics

Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

PRACTICE TEST #1: Deindividuation ○ b. In groups, individuals shift from

personal to shared group identity.
1. What is the definition of ○ c. Deindividuation only occurs in
deindividuation? online settings.
○ d. Personal identity is
○ a. The process of developing a strengthened in group settings.
unique identity. 6. Which of the following is NOT an
○ b. A psychological state where input/cause of deindividuation?
individuals lose self-awareness
and personal responsibility in ○ a. Anonymity
groups. ○ b. Group Size
○ c. A form of social influence ○ c. Arousal
where individuals conform to ○ d. Increased self-awareness
group pressure. 7. What is the relationship between
○ d. A state of heightened anonymity and deindividuation?
self-awareness in social
situations. ○ a. Anonymity decreases the
2. Who first coined the term likelihood of deindividuation.
“deindividuation”? ○ b. Anonymity increases
self-awareness.
○ a. Gustave Le Bon ○ c. Anonymity can contribute to
○ b. Leon Festinger deindividuation by reducing
○ c. Philip Zimbardo feelings of personal responsibility.
○ d. Henri Tajfel ○ d. Anonymity has no effect on
3. Gustave Le Bon's work on Crowd deindividuation.
Psychology suggested that: 8. How does group size affect
deindividuation?
○ a. Crowds enhance individual
rationality. ○ a. Smaller groups increase the
○ b. Individuals in crowds become likelihood of deindividuation.
more self-aware. ○ b. Larger groups can increase
○ c. Crowds can lead to a loss of feelings of anonymity and reduce
individuality and increased individual accountability,
impulsive behaviour. contributing to deindividuation.
○ d. Crowd behaviour is always ○ c. Group size has no impact on
predictable and controllable. deindividuation.
4. Philip Zimbardo's Stanford Prison ○ d. Larger groups always promote
Experiment is a notable example of prosocial behaviour.
research on deindividuation because it 9. The two basic components of the
showed that: deindividuated self are:

○ a. Assigned roles have little ○ a. Increased self-awareness and

impact on behaviour. rational decision-making.
○ b. Anonymity and group dynamics ○ b. Reduced self-awareness and
can significantly influence altered experiencing.
individual behaviour. ○ c. Heightened personal
○ c. Individuals always resist responsibility and critical thinking.
conforming to social roles. ○ d. Conformity to authority and
○ d. Prison environments promote obedience to rules.
prosocial behaviour. 10. Reduced self-awareness in a
5. The Social Identity Model of deindividuated state means:
Deindividuation Effects (SIDE),
developed by Russell Spears and ○ a. Individuals become more
Martin Lee, suggests that: conscious of their actions.
○ b. Individuals are more likely to
○ a. Deindividuation always leads to act impulsively and follow group
antisocial behaviour. behaviour.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ c. Individuals experience there is a reduction in:

increased anxiety and self-doubt.
○ d. Individuals are more likely to ○a. Public self-awareness
resist group pressure. ○b. Private self-awareness
11. Altered experiencing in a ○c. Both public and private
deindividuated state can lead to: self-awareness
○ d. Social awareness
○ a. Improved decision-making and 16. Which of the following is an
judgment. accountability cue that can influence
○ b. Increased self-control and deindividuation?
restraint.
○ c. A lack of restraint and distorted ○ a. The presence of authority
decision-making. figures
○ d. Heightened awareness of ○ b. The degree to which
consequences. individuals feel responsible for
12. According to Zimbardo’s perspective, their actions
deindividuation is a process where: ○ c. The level of anonymity in a
group
○ a. Individual identity is ○ d. The size of the crowd
strengthened. 17. Attentional cues in deindividuation:
○ b. Personal inhibitions are
heightened. ○ a. Increase self-awareness.
○ c. Individuals become more ○ b. Guide the individual's focus of
self-aware. attention, either inward or
○ d. Personal identity merges with outward.
the group identity. ○ c. Have no impact on behaviour.
13. Which of the following is NOT a ○ d. Always lead to prosocial
characteristic of Gustave Le Bon’s behaviour.
“Theory of the Crowd”? 18. Henri Tajfel and John Turner’s "Social
Identity Theory (SIT)" examines:
○ a. Individuals in a crowd become
more rational and thoughtful. ○a. How individual behaviour is
○ b. Anonymity, suggestibility, and shaped by unconscious drives.
contagion can lead to the ○ b. How individuals develop a
formation of "psychological sense of self through
crowds." introspection.
○ c. Individuals in crowds can ○ c. How individuals' sense of self
become "irrational, fickle, and is shaped by their membership in
suggestible." social groups.
○ d. Crowd behaviour can be ○ d. How individuals resist
influenced by a leader. conforming to social norms.
14. Prentice-Dunn and Rogers' 19. Social Identity Theory (SIT) suggests
"Differential Self-Awareness Theory" that:
proposes that self-awareness has two
components: ○a. Individuals strive to maintain a
unique and independent identity.
○ a. Private self-awareness and ○ b. Group membership has little
social awareness. impact on self-concept.
○ b. Public self-awareness and ○ c. Social identity can influence
private self-awareness. individuals' perceptions and
○ c. Group awareness and behaviours.
individual awareness. ○ d. Individuals always prioritize
○ d. Cognitive awareness and personal identity over social
emotional awareness. identity.
15. According to Prentice-Dunn and 20. Social Identity Theory (SIT) views
Rogers, deindividuation occurs when deindividuation as a process where:
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ a. Individuals become more ○ c. Groups that individuals avoid

aware of their personal values. associating with.
○ b. Individuals resist conforming to ○ d. Groups that individuals view
group norms. negatively.
○ c. Individuals experience a shift 26. Out-groups in Social Identity Theory
from personal to social identity. are:
○ d. Individuals become more
critical of their group's behaviour. ○ a. Groups that individuals strongly
21. Which of the following is the first stage identify with.
in Social Identity Theory? ○ b. Groups that individuals
perceive as distinct from their
○ a. Social Identification own.
○ b. Social Comparison ○ c. Groups that individuals feel
○ c. Social Categorisation neutral towards.
○ d. Positive Distinctiveness ○ d. Groups that individuals aspire
22. Social Categorisation in Social Identity to join.
Theory refers to: 27. The concept of Positive
Distinctiveness in Social Identity
○ a. The process of comparing Theory suggests that:
one's group to others.
○ b. The tendency to favour one's ○ a. Individuals are motivated to
own group. see their in-group as unique or
○ c. The need to see one's group superior.
as superior. ○ b. Individuals are content with
○ d. The inclination to categorise their group being average.
oneself and others into social ○ c. Individuals strive to blend in
groups. and avoid standing out.
23. Social Identification in Social Identity ○ d. Individuals are indifferent to
Theory is the stage where: their group's status.
28. What is prosocial behaviour?
○ a. Individuals become aware of
their group membership. ○ a. Behaviour that benefits oneself
○ b. Individuals start to adopt their at the expense of others.
group's identity. ○ b. Behaviour that is harmful or
○ c. Individuals compare their group destructive to others.
to others. ○ c. Voluntary behaviour intended
○ d. Individuals strive for positive to help or benefit others.
distinctiveness. ○ d. Behaviour that is motivated by
24. Social Comparison in Social Identity self-interest.
Theory often leads to: 29. Which of the following is NOT an
example of prosocial behaviour?
○ a. A balanced and objective view
of all groups. ○ a. Volunteering time to help a
○ b. Increased understanding and charity.
empathy for out-groups. ○ b. Spreading rumours and gossip
○ c. In-group favouritism and a bias about others.
towards one's own group. ○ c. Donating money to a cause.
○ d. A decrease in self-esteem. ○ d. Offering emotional support to a
25. In-groups in Social Identity Theory are: friend in need.
30. How does deindividuation influence
○ a. Groups that individuals prosocial behaviour?
perceive as different from their
own. ○ a. Deindividuation always leads to
○ b. Groups that individuals a decrease in prosocial
perceive themselves as belonging behaviour.
to.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ b. Deindividuation always leads to prosocial behaviour in volunteer

an increase in prosocial groups during natural disasters?
behaviour.
○ c. Deindividuation can either ○ a. Anonymity and shared purpose
increase or decrease prosocial can lead to increased dedication
behaviour depending on group and effort.
norms and context. ○ b. Individuals become more
○ d. Deindividuation has no impact focused on personal gain.
on prosocial behaviour. ○ c. Volunteers experience
31. How can deindividuation positively decreased empathy for victims.
influence prosocial behaviour? ○ d. The bystander effect becomes
more prominent.
○ a. By increasing self-awareness 36. Deindividuation during religious
and personal responsibility. pilgrimages and charity events can:
○ b. By fostering a sense of unity
and shared purpose, leading to ○ a. Lead to increased selfishness
increased empathy and helping and greed.
behaviour. ○ b. Promote antisocial behaviour
○ c. By promoting individualistic and conflict.
behaviour and self-interest. ○ c. Amplify prosocial acts like
○ d. By encouraging individuals to donations and helping fellow
focus on personal gain. travellers, often in line with
32. How can deindividuation negatively religious norms.
influence prosocial behaviour? ○ d. Reduce feelings of unity and
shared purpose.
○ a. By promoting conformity to 37. In fundraising events, deindividuation
antisocial group norms. can:
○ b. By enhancing empathy and
compassion for others. ○ a. Decrease motivation and effort.
○ c. By increasing feelings of ○ b. Motivate people to increase
personal responsibility. efforts or raise more funds due to
○ d. By reducing the bystander shared emotional connection,
effect. despite anonymity.
33. The bystander effect is an example of ○ c. Lead to social loafing and
how deindividuation can: reduced individual contributions.
○ d. Make individuals more
○ a. Increase prosocial behaviour. self-conscious and less willing to
○ b. Decrease prosocial behaviour participate.
by diffusing responsibility. 38. What is individuation?
○ c. Promote individual heroism.
○ d. Enhance self-awareness. ○a. The process of losing
34. In the context of deindividuation and self-awareness in groups.
prosocial behaviour, emotional ○ b. Conforming to group norms
contagion refers to: and expectations.
○ c. The process of developing a
○ a. The spread of negative distinct identity and personality.
emotions like anger and ○ d. A state of reduced personal
aggression. responsibility.
○ b. The tendency to mimic the 39. An example of individuation is:
facial expressions of others.
○ c. The spread of emotions like ○ a. An individual blindly following
empathy and compassion, which the crowd.
can increase prosocial behaviour. ○ b. An artist developing a unique
○ d. The ability to regulate one's style that reflects their personal
own emotions. vision.
35. Which of the following is an example ○ c. A person suppressing their
of how deindividuation can lead to individuality to fit in.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ d. An individual losing their sense both personal growth and group

of self in a large group. collaboration.
40. What is the key difference between ○ d. Create a more competitive
individuation and deindividuation? group environment.
44. In a classroom setting, how can a
○ a. Individuation occurs in groups, teacher balance individuation and
while deindividuation occurs in deindividuation during group work?
isolation.
○ b. Individuation focuses on ○ a. By assigning individual grades
self-awareness and personal based on group performance.
identity, while deindividuation ○ b. By allowing dominant students
involves a loss of self-awareness to lead all discussions.
in groups. ○ c. By ensuring all students have
○ c. Individuation leads to an equal opportunity to share
conformity, while deindividuation their ideas and perspectives.
promotes uniqueness. ○ d. By discouraging students from
○ d. There is no difference between expressing dissenting opinions.
individuation and deindividuation. 45. The concept of deindividuation
41. Which of the following is NOT a way to suggests that when people feel
balance individuation and anonymous, they are:
deindividuation in group settings?
○ a. More likely to engage in
○ a. Foster an inclusive prosocial behaviours.
environment that encourages ○ b. More likely to engage in
personal expression. anti-normative and disinhibited
○ b. Encourage conformity and behaviors.
discourage individual opinions. ○ c. Less likely to take risks.
○ c. Implement clear guidelines for ○ d. Less likely to be influenced by
group behaviour to promote group behaviour.
accountability. 46. Which of the following is NOT a factor
○ d. Recognize and celebrate that can contribute to deindividuation?
individual contributions within the
group. ○ a. Wearing uniforms
42. Encouraging open dialogue and ○ b. Being in a large crowd
feedback among group members can ○ c. Being in a brightly lit room
help to: ○ d. Feeling anonymous
47. The Stanford Prison Experiment
○ a. Suppress individual demonstrated the powerful effects of:
perspectives.
○ b. Promote a sense of unity and ○ a. Individuation
shared purpose. ○ b. Conformity
○ c. Balance individuation and ○ c. Social loafing
deindividuation by allowing for ○ d. Groupthink
both personal expression and 48. Deindividuation can lead to negative
group cohesion. consequences such as:
○ d. Increase conformity to group
norms. ○ a. Increased prosocial behaviour
43. Facilitating activities that promote ○ b. Mob violence
self-reflection alongside teamwork can ○ c. Reduced aggression
help to: ○ d. Enhanced critical thinking
49. Which of the following statements
○ a. Reduce individual about deindividuation is FALSE?
accountability.
○ b. Enhance deindividuation. ○ a. It can occur in both online and
○ c. Balance individuation and offline settings.
deindividuation by encouraging ○ b. It always leads to antisocial
behaviour.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ c. It can be influenced by factors ○ a. Be completely independent

such as group size and and avoid all group activities.
anonymity. ○ b. Submerge their individuality
○ d. It can result in a reduction in completely in group settings.
self-awareness. ○ c. Contribute to a group while
50. According to the SIDE model, maintaining a sense of self.
deindividuation can sometimes lead to ○ d. Always prioritize their own
prosocial behaviour if: needs over the group's needs.
56. Deindividuation is more likely to occur
○ a. The group norms encourage when individuals:
prosocial actions.
○ b. Individuals feel highly ○ a. Feel a strong sense of
self-aware. personal responsibility.
○ c. The situation is highly stressful. ○ b. Are highly self-aware.
○ d. Individuals are not identifiable. ○ c. Feel anonymous and less
51. Which of the following is an example accountable for their actions.
of deindividuation leading to prosocial ○ d. Are in small, intimate groups.
behaviour? 57. Which of the following strategies can
help to reduce the negative
○ a. A group of people looting a consequences of deindividuation?
store during a riot.
○ b. A crowd of people donating ○ a. Increasing anonymity.
money to a street performer. ○ b. Encouraging large group
○ c. A lone individual helping an gatherings.
elderly person cross the street. ○ c. Emphasizing individual
○ d. A student cheating on an exam accountability.
in a crowded classroom. ○ d. Promoting conformity to group
52. A key factor that distinguishes norms.
individuation from deindividuation is: 58. The concept of deindividuation can
help us understand phenomena such
○ a. The presence or absence of as:
social influence.
○ b. The level of self-awareness. ○ a. Bystander apathy
○ c. The size of the group. ○ b. Conformity
○ d. The emotional state of the ○ c. Obedience to authority
individual. ○ d. All of the above
53. Which of the following situations is 59. Deindividuation is a complex
most likely to lead to deindividuation? phenomenon that is influenced by a
variety of factors, including:
○ a. A small group of friends having
dinner together. ○ a. Individual personality traits.
○ b. A student giving a presentation ○ b. Social context.
in front of a large class. ○ c. Cultural norms.
○ c. An individual meditating alone ○ d. All of the above.
in a quiet room. 60. Understanding deindividuation can be
○ d. A large crowd at a concert. helpful for:
54. Individuation is important for:
○ a. Creating more effective group
○ a. Conforming to social norms. dynamics.
○ b. Maintaining a sense of ○ b. Preventing antisocial
personal identity. behaviour.
○ c. Reducing self-awareness. ○ c. Promoting prosocial behaviour.
○ d. Increasing anonymity. ○ d. All of the above.
55. A healthy balance between
individuation and deindividuation
allows individuals to:
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

PRACTICE TEST #2: Conformity and Deviance ○ d) Aligning one’s beliefs and
behaviours with those of the
1. What is conformity? majority group.
6. What is non-conformity?
○ a) A change in one’s actions to
match those of others. ○ a) Disagreeing with others in the
○ b) A change in one’s emotions to group.
match those of others. ○ b) Agreeing with the majority of
○ c) A change in one’s opinions to the group.
match those of others. ○ c) Changing one’s behaviour to
○ d) All of the above. match that of the group.
2. Which of the following is an example of ○ d) Following the norms of the
conformity? group.
7. Which of the following is an example of
○ a) Wearing a mask during a non-conformity?
pandemic when it is
recommended by public health ○ a) A juror who votes guilty
officials. because everyone else is voting
○ b) Expressing an opinion different guilty.
from the majority of a group. ○ b) A juror who refuses to vote
○ c) Refusing to follow a rule that guilty because they want to
you believe is unjust. challenge the group’s decision.
○ d) Leaving a group because you ○ c) A person who wears a mask in
disagree with its goals. public because it is required by
3. What is compliance? law.
○ d) A student who studies for a
○ a) Publicly agreeing with a group test because they want to get a
while privately disagreeing. good grade.
○ b) Privately agreeing with a group 8. What is independence?
while publicly disagreeing.
○ c) Changing one’s position on an ○ a) Publicly expressing ideas that
issue because they believe the are the opposite of what the
group is correct. group favours.
○ d) Aligning one’s beliefs and ○ b) Publicly expressing ideas that
behaviours with those of the are consistent with one’s personal
majority group. standards.
4. What is conversion? ○ c) Taking a position that opposes
the majority view, even though
○ a) Publicly agreeing with a group one privately agrees with the
while privately disagreeing. majority.
○ b) Privately agreeing with a group ○ d) Disagreeing with the group in
while publicly disagreeing. order to get attention.
○ c) Changing one’s position on an 9. What is anti-conformity?
issue because they believe the
group is correct. ○ a) Publicly expressing ideas that
○ d) Aligning one’s beliefs and are consistent with one’s personal
behaviours with those of the standards.
majority group. ○ b) Expressing ideas or taking
5. What is congruence? actions that are the opposite of
whatever the group favours.
○ a) Publicly agreeing with a group ○ c) Taking a position that opposes
while privately disagreeing. the majority view, even though
○ b) Privately agreeing with a group one privately agrees with the
while publicly disagreeing. majority.
○ c) Changing one’s position on an ○ d) Disagreeing with the group in
issue because they believe the order to get attention.
group is correct.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

10. What is strategic anti-conformity? ○ c) Conflict that results in a more

creative solution.
○ a) Publicly expressing ideas that ○ d) Conflict that is based on
are consistent with one’s personal substantive issues rather than
standards. personal differences.
○ b) Expressing ideas or taking 15. What is good deviance?
actions that are the opposite of
whatever the group favours. ○ a) Behaviour that is harmful to
○ c) Taking a position that opposes individuals or the community.
the majority view, even though ○ b) Behaviour that leads to social
one privately agrees with the stigma or legal consequences.
majority. ○ c) Behaviour that deviates from
○ d) Disagreeing with the group in established norms but is
order to get attention. considered positive or beneficial
11. What is deviance? by a society or a group.
○ d) Behaviour that is motivated by
○ a) Following the norms of a group self-interest rather than the
or society. common good.
○ b) A behaviour that violates the 16. What is bad deviance?
standards of conduct or
expectations of a group or ○ a) Behaviour that challenges
society. existing norms in a constructive
○ c) Agreeing with the majority of way.
the group. ○ b) Behaviour that is accepted and
○ d) Changing one’s behaviour to celebrated by society or a group.
match that of the group. ○ c) Behaviour that deviates and is
12. Which of the following is an example of considered harmful by a group.
deviance? ○ d) Behaviour that leads to positive
social change.
○ a) Driving the speed limit. 17. According to Merton, what is conformity?
○ b) Paying taxes on time.
○ c) Stealing a car. ○ a) Accepting both the group’s
○ d) Going to work every day. goals and means.
13. What is constructive conflict? ○ b) Accepting the group’s goal but
rejecting its means.
○ a) Conflict that occurs when ○ c) Rejecting the group’s goal but
group members do not have the accepting its means.
best interest of the group in mind. ○ d) Rejecting both the group’s
○ b) Conflict that occurs when goals and means.
group members carefully weigh 18. According to Merton, what is innovation?
the strengths and weaknesses of
proposals. ○ a) Accepting both the group’s
○ c) Conflict that results in a goals and means.
breakdown of communication. ○ b) Accepting the group’s goal but
○ d) Conflict that is based on rejecting its means.
personal differences rather than ○ c) Rejecting the group’s goal but
substantive issues. accepting its means.
14. What is destructive conflict? ○ d) Rejecting both the group’s
goals and means.
○ a) Conflict that occurs when 19. According to Merton, what is ritualism?
group members do not have the
best interest of the group in mind. ○ a) Accepting both the group’s
○ b) Conflict that occurs when goals and means.
group members carefully weigh ○ b) Accepting the group’s goal but
the strengths and weaknesses of rejecting its means.
proposals. ○ c) Rejecting the group’s goal but
accepting its means.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ d) Rejecting both the group’s viewed as seeking greater

goals and means. approval from the group.
20. According to Merton, what is retreatism? ○ d) Deviant members who shift
away from the majority opinion
○ a) Accepting both the group’s are viewed as being more
goals and means. intelligent.
○ b) Accepting the group’s goal but 24. What is idiosyncrasy credit?
rejecting its means.
○ c) Rejecting the group’s goal but ○ a) The amount of money that a
accepting its means. group member can borrow from
○ d) Rejecting both the group’s the group.
goals and means. ○ b) The social “credit” or leeway
21. What did Stanley Schachter’s study on that individuals earn within a
deviance show? group by contributing positively
and gaining acceptance from
○ a) Deviant group members are other members.
more likely to be treated ○ c) The number of times that a
favourably than other members. group member can deviate from
○ b) Communication is directed the group’s norms without being
more frequently toward the punished.
deviant than toward other group ○ d) The amount of influence that a
members. group member has over other
○ c) Deviant group members are members.
more likely to conform to the 25. What is anti-norm deviance?
group’s norms.
○ d) Deviant group members are ○ a) A situation in which a group
more likely to be ignored by other member expresses views that are
group members. opposed to the views of the group
22. What is the threshold effect? and agrees with or supports an
out-group.
○ a) The point at which a group ○ b) A situation in which a group
becomes too large to function member shows more extreme
effectively. endorsement of their own group
○ b) The point at which a group and rejection of the out-group.
becomes too small to be ○ c) A situation in which a group
cohesive. member conforms to the norms of
○ c) The point at which the addition the group but deviates from the
or subtraction of certain members norms of society.
or behaviours triggers a ○ d) A situation in which a group
significant change in the group’s member deviates from the norms
functioning. of both the group and society.
○ d) The point at which a group 26. What is pro-norm deviance?
reaches a consensus.
23. What did John Levine and colleagues’ ○ a) A situation in which a group
study on deviance show? member expresses views that are
opposed to the views of the group
○ a) Deviant members who shift and agrees with or supports an
toward the majority opinion are out-group.
viewed as being independent and ○ b) A situation in which a person
assertive. shows more extreme
○ b) Deviant members who shift endorsement of his or her own
away from the majority opinion group and rejection of the
are viewed as seeking greater out-group.
approval from the group. ○ c) A situation in which a group
○ c) Deviant members who shift member conforms to the norms of
toward the majority opinion are the group but deviates from the
norms of society.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ d) A situation in which a group ○ c) By sharing perspectives,

member deviates from the norms concerns, and potential
of both the group and society. consequences.
27. Which of the following is an emotional ○ d) By ignoring the deviant
consequence of rejection? behaviour.
32. How can communication foster a sense of
○ a) Feelings of loneliness and belonging in deviant group members?
alienation.
○ b) Reduced access to resources ○ a) By excluding deviant group
and opportunities. members from group activities.
○ c) Hindered communication and ○ b) By making deviant group
collaboration. members feel like they are a
○ d) Negative impact on overall burden to the group.
group performance. ○ c) By helping deviant group
28. Which of the following is a practical members feel that they are
consequence of rejection? valued members of the group.
○ d) By focusing on the negative
○ a) Feelings of loneliness and aspects of the deviant behaviour.
alienation. 33. What are the two main types of leaders?
○ b) Reduced access to resources
and opportunities. ○ a) Task-oriented and
○ c) Lower self-esteem and relationship-oriented.
self-worth. ○ b) Authoritarian and democratic.
○ d) Psychological distress. ○ c) Laissez-faire and
29. What role does communication play in transformational.
addressing group deviance? ○ d) Charismatic and transactional.
34. What are the three main leadership
○ a) Early detection of deviant styles?
behaviour.
○ b) Increasing conflict and tension. ○ a) Task-oriented,
○ c) Isolating deviant group relationship-oriented, and
members. laissez-faire.
○ d) Punishing deviant group ○ b) Authoritarian, democratic, and
members. laissez-faire.
30. How can communication help to resolve ○ c) Charismatic, transactional, and
conflict in a group? transformational.
○ d) Directive, supportive, and
○ a) By allowing group members to participative.
express their anger and 35. What is social class?
frustration.
○ b) By avoiding discussion of ○ a) A group of people who share
sensitive topics. the same interests.
○ c) By allowing group members to ○ b) The divisions within a society
work toward finding common based on various factors such as
ground. economic status, occupation, and
○ d) By focusing on the negative education.
aspects of the deviant behaviour. ○ c) A person’s level of education.
31. How can communication help to influence ○ d) A person’s income.
the behaviour of a deviant group 36. What is social deviance?
member?
○ a) Following the norms of society.
○ a) By threatening the deviant ○ b) A behaviour that is found
group member with punishment. offensive and unacceptable in a
○ b) By shaming the deviant group social group.
member into conforming. ○ c) Agreeing with the majority of
the group.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ d) Changing one’s behaviour to ○ d) Deviance is a form of

match that of the group. adaptation to social strain.
37. Which of the following is a cause of 42. What is criminogenic capitalism?
deviance?
○ a) A social and economic system
○ a) Strong religious beliefs. that prevents crime.
○ b) A stable family life. ○ b) A social and economic system
○ c) Poverty. in which the pursuit of profit leads
○ d) A good education. to crime and criminal behaviour.
38. What is Durkheim’s theory of deviance? ○ c) A social and economic system
that promotes social justice.
○ a) Deviance is always harmful to ○ d) A social and economic system
society. that is based on equality.
○ b) Deviance is caused by 43. Which of the following is an example of
individual factors. social deviance within lower economic
○ c) Deviance is a critical aspect of classes?
society that calls for change and
innovation. ○ a) Consumer fraud.
○ d) Deviance is a sign of social ○ b) Drug abuse and addiction.
progress. ○ c) Corporate crime.
39. What is the social disorganization theory ○ d) Tax evasion and avoidance.
of deviance? 44. Which of the following is an example of
social deviance among upper economic
○ a) Deviance is caused by a lack classes?
of social bonds.
○ b) Individuals who grow up in ○ a) Drug abuse and addiction.
impoverished areas are more ○ b) Juvenile delinquency.
likely to participate in deviant or ○ c) Corporate crime.
criminal behaviours. ○ d) Housing instability and
○ c) Deviance is a learned homelessness.
behaviour. 45. What is the social identity theory?
○ d) Deviance is a result of genetic
factors. ○ a) A theory that explains how
40. What is the status frustration theory of individuals develop their sense of
deviance? self.
○ b) A theory that focuses on the
○ a) Deviance is caused by a desire relationships between individual
for social mobility. identity, group identity, and
○ b) Young, working-class males intergroup behaviour.
are more likely to commit crimes ○ c) A theory that explains how
because they experience status people learn to conform to social
frustration. norms.
○ c) Deviance is a result of anomie. ○ d) A theory that explains how
○ d) Deviance is a form of rebellion people develop prejudice and
against authority. discrimination.
41. What is the strain theory of deviance? 46. What is social categorisation?

○ a) Deviance is caused by a lack ○ a) The process of assigning

of social control. individuals to different social
○ b) Crime increases when there is classes.
a strain between society’s ○ b) The process of labelling
success goals and the available individuals as deviant or
opportunities to achieve those non-deviant.
goals through legitimate means. ○ c) The process of categorising
○ c) Deviance is a result of social oneself and others into social
inequality. groups.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ d) The process of developing ○ c) A strong sense of identity can

prejudice against members of drive social movements and
other groups. actions.
47. What is social identification? ○ d) People are more likely to
engage in activism when they are
○ a) The process of identifying with motivated by self-interest.
one’s social class. 51. How can identity influence deviance in
○ b) The process of identifying with terms of deviant subcultures?
one’s race or ethnicity.
○ c) The process of identifying with ○ a) Deviant subcultures are less
one’s groups, creating a sense of likely to form when individuals
belonging and attachment. have a strong sense of identity.
○ d) The process of identifying with ○ b) Deviant subcultures are more
one’s gender. likely to form when individuals
48. What is social comparison? feel accepted by mainstream
society.
○ a) The process of comparing ○ c) Deviant subcultures are less
oneself to others in order to likely to engage in deviant
assess one’s abilities. behaviour.
○ b) The process of comparing ○ d) Certain subcultures develop
oneself to others in order to distinctive identities that are
determine one’s social status. fundamentally different from
○ c) The process of comparing mainstream society.
one’s group to other groups, often 52. How can an identity crisis contribute to
viewing one’s own group as deviance?
superior.
○ d) The process of comparing ○ a) People who have a strong
one’s culture to other cultures. sense of identity are more likely
49. How can identity influence deviance in to engage in deviant behaviour.
terms of in-group vs. out-group ○ b) People who go through an
dynamics? identity crisis or feel a lack of
social belonging may engage in
○ a) People are more likely to deviant behaviour to establish a
conform to the norms of an new identity.
out-group. ○ c) Identity crises are always
○ b) People are more likely to caused by deviant behaviour.
engage in deviant behaviour ○ d) Identity crises are always
when they are part of a large resolved through deviant
group. behaviour.
○ c) People are more likely to reject 53. How can coping mechanisms contribute
the norms of an out-group, to deviance?
especially if there is competition
and tension. ○ a) Healthy coping mechanisms
○ d) People are more likely to can lead to deviant behaviour.
engage in deviant behaviour ○ b) Some individuals may use
when they feel anonymous. deviant behaviours as coping
50. How can identity influence deviance in mechanisms to deal with an
terms of identity-based activism? identity crisis or lack of belonging.
○ c) Coping mechanisms are
○ a) People are less likely to always effective in resolving
engage in activism when they identity crises.
have a strong sense of identity. ○ d) Coping mechanisms are
○ b) People are more likely to always harmful.
engage in activism when they feel 54. How can peer influence contribute to
alienated from their group. deviance?
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ a) Peer influence is always ○ b) Strategic anti-conformity.

negative. ○ c) Independence.
○ b) Peers can reinforce deviant ○ d) Compliance.
behaviours, contributing to a
shared identity that is, in part,
defined by these actions.
○ c) Peer influence is only a factor PRACTICE TEST #3: The Environment and
in deviance among adolescents. Group Behavior
○ d) Peer influence is not a
significant factor in deviance. 1. What is territoriality?
55. A student who cheats on a test because
they are afraid of failing is engaging in ○ a) The study of animal behaviour
which type of deviance according to in the wild.
Merton? ○ b) An individual's perception of
and relationship with their
○ a) Conformity. environment.
○ b) Ritualism. ○ c) The way animals mark their
○ c) Retreatism. territory.
○ d) Innovation. ○ d) The legal boundaries of a
56. A group of friends who start a protest property.
movement to advocate for social justice 2. Which of the following is NOT a key
are an example of: aspect of territoriality?

○ a) Identity-based activism. ○ a) Marking the territory

○ b) Deviant subculture. ○ b) Habitual occupation
○ c) Anti-norm deviance. ○ c) Defence
○ d) Pro-norm deviance. ○ d) Ignoring the territory
57. A teenager who joins a gang because 3. What are the three main types of
they feel like they don’t fit in at school is human territories?
an example of how ____ can contribute to
deviance. ○ a) Personal, social, public
○ b) Primary, secondary, public
○ a) Social disorganization. ○ c) Owned, rented, shared
○ b) Status frustration. ○ d) Urban, rural, suburban
○ c) Lack of social belonging and 4. Which type of territory is MOST central
an identity crisis. to an individual's daily life?
○ d) Strain theory.
58. A company that dumps toxic waste into a ○ a) Primary territory
river to save money is engaging in: ○ b) Secondary territory
○ c) Public territory
○ a) Good deviance. ○ d) None of the above
○ b) Bad deviance. 5. Which of the following is an example
○ c) Conformity. of a secondary territory?
○ d) Innovation.
59. A worker who follows all the rules at their ○ a) Your own bedroom
job even though they disagree with them ○ b) Your desk at work
is engaging in: ○ c) A public park
○ d) A shopping mall
○ a) Innovation. 6. What is the primary function of
○ b) Ritualism. territories?
○ c) Retreatism.
○ d) Rebellion. ○ a) To display wealth and status
60. A person who speaks out against their ○ b) To prevent overcrowding
group’s decision because they believe it is ○ c) To preserve and regulate
unethical is displaying: privacy
○ d) To provide a sense of
○ a) Anti-conformity. adventure
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

7. According to Brown (1987), how are ○ a) Invasion, violation, ignorance,

primary territories often marked? contamination
○ b) Trespassing, vandalism, theft,
○ a) In a straightforward and littering
conscious way ○ c) Physical, verbal, emotional,
○ b) With signs and fences psychological
○ c) With security cameras ○ d) Accidental, intentional,
○ d) In ways that reflect the owner's negligent, malicious
values and personality 14. What is invasion in the context of
8. What is the purpose of territorial territoriality?
markers?
○ a) A temporary infringement of
○ a) To beautify the environment someone's territory
○ b) To confuse intruders ○ b) An outsider physically entering
○ c) To create an effective warning someone else's territory with the
system intention of taking it
○ d) To show off one's possessions ○ c) A lack of knowledge about
9. What are the two main categories of someone's territory
territorial behaviours in organisations? ○ d) The act of polluting someone's
territory
○ a) Aggressive and passive 15. What is violation in the context of
○ b) Marking and defending territoriality?
○ c) Cooperative and competitive
○ d) Verbal and nonverbal ○ a) A temporary infringement of
10. What are anticipatory defences? someone's territory
○ b) An outsider physically entering
○ a) Actions taken after an someone else's territory with the
infringement attempt intention of taking it
○ b) Actions taken prior to an ○ c) A lack of knowledge about
infringement to prevent it someone's territory
○ c) Imaginary threats to one's ○ d) The act of polluting someone's
territory territory
○ d) Legal measures to protect 16. What is ignorance in the context of
one's property territoriality?
11. What are reactionary defences?
○ a) A temporary infringement of
○ a) Actions taken after an someone's territory
infringement attempt ○ b) An outsider physically entering
○ b) Actions taken prior to an someone else's territory with the
infringement to prevent it intention of taking it
○ c) Imaginary threats to one's ○ c) A lack of knowledge about
territory someone's territory
○ d) Legal measures to protect ○ d) The act of polluting someone's
one's property territory
12. What is territorial infringement? 17. What is contamination in the context of
territoriality?
○ a) The act of respecting
someone's territory ○ a) A temporary infringement of
○ b) The legal process of claiming someone's territory
land ○ b) An outsider physically entering
○ c) The act of threatening a someone else's territory with the
person's proprietary claim over a intention of taking it
territory ○ c) A lack of knowledge about
○ d) The study of animal territories someone's territory
13. What are the four types of territorial ○ d) An infringer fouling someone
infringement? else's territory by putting
something awful in it
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

18. What is a positive organisational ○ a) Sigmund Freud

consequence of territoriality? ○ b) Edward T. Hall
○ c) Albert Einstein
○ a) Increased competition among ○ d) Carl Jung
employees 24. What is proxemics?
○ b) Higher levels of job
performance ○ a) The study of time
○ c) More frequent territorial ○ b) The study of human use of
disputes space
○ d) Reduced communication and ○ c) The study of language
collaboration ○ d) The study of animal behaviour
19. How can territoriality reduce "process 25. What is a group space?
conflict" in organisations?
○ a) A designated area for group
○ a) By creating clear boundaries activities
and ownership ○ b) A temporary spatial boundary
○ b) By encouraging employees to around interacting groups
compete for resources ○ c) A type of office layout
○ c) By limiting communication ○ d) A virtual meeting room
between departments 26. How many zones of interpersonal
○ d) By promoting a hierarchical distance are there?
work structure
20. What is a negative organisational ○ a) Two
consequence of territoriality? ○ b) Three
○ c) Four
○ a) Increased collaboration and ○ d) Five
adaptability 27. Which zone of interpersonal distance
○ b) Employees becoming is reserved for close relationships?
self-focused
○ c) Reduced absenteeism and ○ a) Intimate distance
turnover ○ b) Personal distance
○ d) A stronger sense of community ○ c) Social distance
21. How can territoriality lead to isolation ○ d) Public distance
in organisations? 28. What is the typical range of personal
distance?
○ a) By fostering a strong sense of
ownership and responsibility ○ a) 0-18 inches
○ b) By reducing "process conflict" ○ b) 18 inches - 4 feet
○ c) By creating physical and ○ c) 4-12 feet
psychological barriers between ○ d) 12+ feet
employees 29. Which zone of interpersonal distance
○ d) By promoting a culture of open is used for formal interactions?
communication
22. What is interpersonal distance? ○ a) Intimate distance
○ b) Personal distance
○ a) The distance between two ○ c) Social distance
cities ○ d) Public distance
○ b) The physical and psychological 30. Which zone of interpersonal distance
space individuals maintain is used for public speaking?
between themselves in social
interactions. ○ a) Intimate distance
○ c) The distance between planets ○ b) Personal distance
○ d) The time it takes to travel ○ c) Social distance
between two points ○ d) Public distance
23. Who first extensively studied the 31. Which of the following is NOT a factor
concept of interpersonal distance? that influences interpersonal distance?
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ a) Culture ○ a) Gender has no influence on

○ b) Relationship interpersonal distance.
○ c) Context ○ b) Gender roles and expectations
○ d) Time of day can sometimes influence
32. How does culture influence interpersonal distance.
interpersonal distance? ○ c) Men always prefer larger
distances than women.
○ a) All cultures have the same ○ d) Women always prefer larger
norms regarding personal space. distances than men.
○ b) Cultural norms and 37. Why is interpersonal distance
expectations around personal important in the workplace?
space vary greatly.
○ c) Culture has no influence on ○ a) To promote competition among
interpersonal distance. employees
○ d) Only Western cultures value ○ b) To create a hierarchical work
personal space. structure
33. How does relationship influence ○ c) To maintain a professional
interpersonal distance? environment
○ d) To encourage informal
○ a) Closer relationships typically interactions
involve larger distances. 38. Why is interpersonal distance
○ b) The closeness of the important in healthcare?
relationship has no impact on
acceptable distance. ○ a) To prevent the spread of
○ c) Closer relationships typically infection
involve smaller distances. ○ b) To maintain patient privacy and
○ d) Only romantic relationships comfort
influence interpersonal distance. ○ c) To establish a power dynamic
34. How does context influence between doctor and patient
interpersonal distance? ○ d) To make patients feel more
vulnerable
○ a) The context of an interaction 39. Why is interpersonal distance
has no impact on appropriate important in education?
distance.
○ b) Formal settings typically allow ○ a) To keep students from cheating
for smaller distances. ○ b) To enforce discipline
○ c) The setting and formality of the ○ c) To create a formal learning
interaction can dictate the environment
appropriate distance. ○ d) To manage classroom
○ d) Only informal settings require dynamics and facilitate learning
attention to interpersonal 40. Why is interpersonal distance
distance. important in social gatherings?
35. How does personality influence
interpersonal distance? ○ a) To prevent overcrowding
○ b) To encourage mingling
○ a) Personality has no influence on ○ c) To help people feel at ease and
interpersonal distance. avoid awkwardness
○ b) Extroverted individuals prefer ○ d) To establish social hierarchies
larger distances. 41. Why is interpersonal distance
○ c) Introverted individuals may important in public spaces?
prefer larger distances.
○ d) Only people with personality ○ a) To maintain order and control
disorders are affected by ○ b) To prevent crime
interpersonal distance. ○ c) To help people navigate
36. How does gender influence crowded spaces comfortably
interpersonal distance? ○ d) To promote social interaction
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

42. How does intimate distance influence ○ a) People touch each other more
group behaviour? often.
○ b) People maintain closer
○ a) Groups typically form in this interpersonal distances.
distance zone ○ c) People have more eye contact.
○ b) Groups do not typically form in ○ d) People maintain more
this distance zone interpersonal distance.
○ c) This distance zone has no 48. Which of the following is a difference
impact on group formation between high-contact and low-contact
○ d) This distance zone always cultures in terms of group behaviour?
leads to conflict
43. How does personal distance influence ○ a) High-contact cultures tend to
group behaviour? be more individualistic.
○ b) Low-contact cultures have
○ a) It can facilitate comfortable stronger group cohesion.
conversations and collaborations. ○ c) High-contact cultures have
○ b) It hinders the development of more structured and hierarchical
connections within a group. group dynamics.
○ c) It creates a sense of formality ○ d) High-contact cultures tend to
and respect. have stronger group cohesion.
○ d) It leads to a sense of 49. Why do humans have an innate
detachment and isolation. awareness of their environment?
44. How does social distance influence
group behaviour? ○ a) For aesthetic reasons
○ b) For survival
○ a) It encourages frequent and ○ c) For social status
informal communication. ○ d) For entertainment
○ b) It fosters stronger bonds and 50. What qualities do humans seek out in
deeper relationships. their environment?
○ c) It maintains a sense of
formality and respect. ○ a) Danger and excitement
○ d) It can hinder spontaneous ○ b) Unfamiliarity and novelty
interaction. ○ c) Safety and security
45. How does public distance influence ○ d) Isolation and solitude
group behaviour? 51. What is the impact of a "featureless
environment" on people?
○ a) It allows for both focused
discussions and casual ○ a) It improves intellectual and
conversations. emotional performance.
○ b) It can be useful for maintaining ○ b) It has no impact on
order and control. performance.
○ c) It encourages spontaneous ○ c) It makes people more creative.
interaction. ○ d) It hinders intellectual and
○ d) It fosters a sense of intimacy emotional performance.
and trust. 52. How can the physical environment
46. What is a characteristic of high-contact influence people?
cultures?
○ a) It can only influence physical
○ a) People maintain larger health.
interpersonal distances. ○ b) It has no influence on people.
○ b) People touch each other more ○ c) It can influence behaviour,
often. motivation, and mood.
○ c) People have less eye contact. ○ d) It only influences people with
○ d) People speak more quietly. mental health conditions.
47. What is a characteristic of low-contact 53. What is space organisation?
cultures?
○ a) The study of outer space
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ b) How space is divided and 60. What is environmental design?

arranged within a specific setting
○ c) The legal boundaries of a ○ a) The study of natural
property ecosystems
○ d) The way animals organise their ○ b) The creation of artificial
territory environments
54. What type of work is facilitated by ○ c) The intentional arrangement of
open plan spaces? elements within a space
○ d) The preservation of historical
○ a) Work requiring isolation landmarks
○ b) Work requiring high levels of 61. Which of the following is NOT a key
concentration component of environmental design?
○ c) Work requiring collaboration
○ d) Work requiring minimal ○ a) Furniture
communication ○ b) Arrangement
55. What type of work is facilitated by ○ c) Temperature
closed office spaces? ○ d) Colour Scheme
62. How can furniture influence a space?
○ a) Work requiring collaboration
○ b) Work requiring high levels of ○ a) It has no influence.
interaction ○ b) It can influence functionality,
○ c) Work requiring focus and aesthetics, and comfort.
privacy ○ c) It only affects the visual appeal.
○ d) Work requiring constant ○ d) It only affects the practicality.
movement 63. How can the arrangement of furniture
56. What is the potential negative impact affect a space?
of poor lighting?
○ a) It has no impact.
○ a) Increased productivity ○ b) It affects the flow of traffic and
○ b) Improved mood the creation of zones.
○ c) Reduced eye strain ○ c) It only affects the aesthetics.
○ d) Fatigue and headaches ○ d) It only affects the functionality.
57. What is the potential negative impact 64. How can colour scheme affect a
of too much light? space?

○ a) Reduced stress ○ a) It has no impact.

○ b) Improved safety ○ b) It can evoke emotions and
○ c) Glare headaches enhance the ambiance.
○ d) Increased alertness ○ c) It only affects the visual appeal.
58. How does temperature influence ○ d) It only affects the mood.
people? 65. What is the environmental orientation
of group function?
○ a) It only affects physical comfort.
○ b) It has no influence on people. ○ a) Groups are shaped by their
○ c) It affects thermal comfort, leaders.
productivity, mood, and ○ b) Groups are shaped by their
well-being. environments.
○ d) It only influences people in ○ c) Groups are shaped by their
extreme climates. tasks.
59. What is the impact of excessive noise? ○ d) Groups are shaped by their
conflicts.
○ a) Improved concentration 66. What kind of environment do groups
○ b) Reduced stress respond best to?
○ c) Enhanced communication
○ d) Disrupted concentration and ○ a) Negative and stressful
stress. environments
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ b) Chaotic and unpredictable ○ (a) 1972

environments ○ (b) 1982
○ c) Positive and stimulating ○ (c) 2024
environments ○ (d) 2014
○ d) Dull and monotonous 3. What is the definition of groupthink?
environments
67. What is the impact of attractive and ○ (a) A mode of thinking that people
visually interesting spaces on engage in when they are deeply
individuals? involved in a cohesive in-group,
when the members' striving for
○ a) Reduced productivity unanimity override their
○ b) Increased stress motivation to realistically appraise
○ c) Increased productivity alternative courses of action.
○ d) No impact ○ (b) A mode of thinking that people
68. What is the most prevalent source of engage in when they are
workplace occupant dissatisfaction, moderately involved in a cohesive
according to a UC Berkeley survey? in-group, when the members'
striving for unanimity override
○ a) Temperature their motivation to realistically
○ b) Lighting appraise alternative courses of
○ c) Noise action.
○ d) Furniture ○ (c) A mode of thinking that people
69. What is the impact of extreme engage in when they are deeply
temperatures on interpersonal involved in a cohesive in-group,
attraction and task performance? when the members' striving for
individuality override their
○ a) It improves both. motivation to realistically appraise
○ b) It has no impact. alternative courses of action.
○ c) It reduces both. ○ (d) None of the above.
○ d) It improves one and reduces 4. What historical event did Irving Janis use
the other. as an example of groupthink?
70. What was the result of improved
lighting in some factories, according to ○ (a) The Vietnam War
the ILO Manual? ○ (b) The Bay of Pigs Invasion
○ (c) The Watergate Scandal
○ a) Decreased productivity and ○ (d) The Cuban Missile Crisis
increased errors 5. Which of the following is NOT a symptom
○ b) Increased productivity and of groupthink?
reduced errors
○ c) No change in productivity or ○ (a) Overestimation of the group
errors ○ (b) Closed-mindedness
○ d) Improved mood but no impact ○ (c) Pressure towards uniformity
on performance ○ (d) Individualism
6. What are the two categories under
overestimation of the group as a symptom
of groupthink?
PRACTICE TEST #4: Groupthink
○ (a) Illusion of invulnerability and
1. Who coined the term "groupthink"? illusion of morality
○ (b) Illusion of unanimity and
○ (a) Irving Janis self-censorship
○ (b) Abante ○ (c) Direct social pressure and
○ (c) Quiboloy mindguard
○ (d) None of the above ○ (d) None of the above
2. What year was the term "groupthink" 7. A company, driven by early success,
coined? believes they will dominate their industry,
leading them to make risky decisions like
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

overexpansion without considering this, members ignore possible

customer feedback. This illustrates what moral problems and do not
symptom of groupthink? consider the consequences of
individual and group actions.
○ (a) Collective rationalisation ○ (d) None of the above.
○ (b) Illusion of morality 11. A sports team consistently blames
○ (c) Illusion of invulnerability external factors, like biased referees or
○ (d) Stereotyping bad weather, for their repeated losses
8. What is the definition of "illusion of instead of acknowledging their own
morality"? weaknesses. This is an example of:

○ (a) The group displays a strong ○ (a) Stereotyping

belief in the inherent morality of ○ (b) Illusion of invulnerability
their group and its decisions, ○ (c) Collective rationalisation
ignoring possible moral problems ○ (d) Self-censorship
and not considering 12. What is the definition of "stereotyping" in
consequences. the context of groupthink?
○ (b) The group has an inflated
sense of competence and ○ (a) Involves the oversimplification
morality, leading them to ignore and generalisation of individuals
potential problems and alternative or groups outside the
viewpoints. decision-making team. In the
○ (c) Individuals may withhold context of groupthink, members
dissenting opinions to avoid may develop negative
conflict or social ostracism. stereotypes about dissenters or
○ (d) None of the above external critics, viewing them as
9. What symptom of groupthink is uninformed or hostile.
demonstrated when group members ○ (b) Individuals may withhold
dismiss or ignore opposing perspectives dissenting opinions to avoid
and opinions? conflict or social ostracism.
○ (c) Group members may falsely
○ (a) Overestimation of the group perceive that everyone shares the
○ (b) Closed-mindedness same viewpoint, leading to a false
○ (c) Pressure towards uniformity sense of consensus.
○ (d) All of the above ○ (d) None of the above
10. What is the definition of "collective 13. A government task force dismisses
rationalisation"? concerns raised by activists about the
environmental impact of their
○ (a) The group began to lean in infrastructure project, labelling them as
the direction of endorsing the "radical environmentalists" opposed to
plan, members began to discount progress. This exemplifies:
information and opinions that
called into question their ○ (a) Collective rationalisation
preliminary decision, they failed to ○ (b) Stereotyping
"reconsider their assumptions" ○ (c) Illusion of morality
since there was no need. They ○ (d) Mindguarding
just dismissed objectives out of 14. Pressure towards uniformity in groupthink
hand through shared (but refers to:
unwarranted) justifications.
○ (b) The group is engulfed by ○ (a) The social influence exerted
feelings of assurance and on individuals within a group to
confidence that leads them to conform to a shared mindset or
become overly optimistic and behaviour.
engage in risk-taking. ○ (b) The group’s inflated belief in
○ (c) The members display a strong its own morality and rightness.
belief in the inherent morality of
their group and its decision. With
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (c) The tendency to ignore or decisions, often discouraging

downplay risks and potential dissent.
problems. ○ (c) A group member who shields
○ (d) The suppression of critical the group from information that
thinking and independent contradicts the group's decision
evaluation of ideas. and suppressing dissent.
15. Which of the following are indicators of ○ (d) None of the above
pressure towards uniformity in 19. In a classroom setting, a student refrains
groupthink? from voicing their different perspective on
a topic, assuming everyone agrees with
○ (a) Self-censorship, illusion of the few classmates who expressed strong
unanimity, direct social pressure, opinions. This is an example of:
and mindguard
○ (b) Illusion of invulnerability, ● (a) Self-censorship
illusion of morality, collective ● (b) Illusion of unanimity
rationalisation, stereotyping ● (c) Direct social pressure
○ (c) Cohesiveness, structural faults ● (d) Mindguarding
of the group, provocative 20. What is the definition of "direct social
situational contexts pressure"?
○ (d) None of the above
16. What is the definition of "self-censorship"? ○ (a) Individuals in a group are
explicitly or implicitly urged to
○ (a) Individuals may withhold conform to the majority's views or
dissenting opinions to avoid decisions, often discouraging
conflict or social ostracism. dissent.
○ (b) Group members may falsely ○ (b) Group members may falsely
perceive that everyone shares the perceive that everyone shares the
same viewpoint, leading to a false same viewpoint, leading to a false
sense of consensus. sense of consensus.
○ (c) Individuals in a group are ○ (c) Individuals may withhold
explicitly or implicitly urged to dissenting opinions to avoid
conform to the majority's views or conflict or social ostracism.
decisions, often discouraging ○ (d) A group member who shields
dissent. the group from information that
○ (d) A group member who shields contradicts the group's decision
the group from information that and suppressing dissent.
contradicts the group's decision 21. During a team meeting on a new policy, a
and suppressing dissent. member voices concerns but is dismissed
17. A person chooses not to express their by the leader who encourages others to
dislike for a popular TV show among their counter the objections, pressuring the
friends to avoid standing out or causing dissenter to conform. This illustrates:
disagreement. This illustrates:
○ (a) Illusion of unanimity
○ (a) Direct social pressure ○ (b) Self-censorship
○ (b) Illusion of unanimity ○ (c) Direct social pressure
○ (c) Self-censorship ○ (d) Mindguarding
○ (d) Mindguarding 22. What is the definition of a "mindguard"?
18. What is the definition of "illusion of
unanimity"? ○ (a) A group member who shields
the group from information that
○ (a) Group members may falsely contradicts the group's decision
perceive that everyone shares the and suppressing dissent. It often
same viewpoint, leading to a false arises in cohesive groups.
sense of consensus. ○ (b) Individuals in a group are
○ (b) Individuals in a group are explicitly or implicitly urged to
explicitly or implicitly urged to conform to the majority's views or
conform to the majority's views or
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

decisions, often discouraging ○ (b) Encouragement of dissenting

dissent. views
○ (c) Group members may falsely ○ (c) Open and transparent
perceive that everyone shares the communication
same viewpoint, leading to a false ○ (d) All of the above
sense of consensus. 28. Why does suppression of dissenting
○ (d) Individuals may withhold views contribute to cohesiveness in
dissenting opinions to avoid groupthink?
conflict or social ostracism.
23. A class president proposes a luxurious, ● (a) Because individuals hesitate to raise
expensive end-of-year celebration, and concerns that might disrupt harmony,
when a classmate raises concerns about leading to a false sense of agreement.
the budget, another student, loyal to the ● (b) Because suppressing dissenting views
president, interrupts and urges everyone allows for a wider range of perspectives
to "go all out." This student is acting as a: and encourages critical thinking.
● (c) Because it fosters an environment
○ (a) Direct social pressure where individuals feel comfortable
○ (b) Illusion of unanimity challenging the majority opinion.
○ (c) Self-censorship ● (d) None of the above
○ (d) Mindguard 29. What is the "illusion of unanimity" in the
24. What is one of the main causes of context of cohesiveness?
groupthink?
○ (a) Group members mistakenly
○ (a) Cohesiveness believe everyone agrees due to
○ (b) Individualism the silence of those with differing
○ (c) Lack of leadership opinions.
○ (d) Diversity ○ (b) The group actively seeks out
25. Why does cohesiveness contribute to and considers diverse
groupthink? perspectives to ensure a
well-rounded decision.
○ (a) Because in a highly cohesive ○ (c) Individuals are encouraged to
group, members prioritise express their concerns and
maintaining group harmony and disagreements openly, fostering a
consensus over critical evaluation culture of debate.
of ideas. ○ (d) All of the above
○ (b) Because cohesive groups 30. What are structural faults of the
tend to be more open to outside group/organisation?
opinions and criticisms.
○ (c) Because cohesiveness ○ (a) Cohesion is necessary for
encourages members to freely groupthink, but it becomes even
express dissenting views without more likely when the group is
fear of repercussions. organised in ways that disrupt the
○ (d) None of the above communication of information,
26. An employee disagrees with a plan and when the group engages in
proposed by their team leader but carelessness while making
chooses to stay silent and agree to avoid decisions.
potential conflict and maintain group ○ (b) One of the reasons for
harmony. This demonstrates: groupthink is that, in a group
where members are highly
● (a) Structural faults of the organisation cohesive, their main goal is to
● (b) Cohesiveness leading to groupthink maintain group harmony and
● (c) Provocative situational contexts consensus rather than sharing
● (d) Effective decision-making strategies opinions, ideas, and independent
27. What is one of the causes of decisions.
cohesiveness as a factor in groupthink? ○ (c) The kinds that impose high
levels of stress on group
○ (a) Desire for consensus members.
 Group Dynamics
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○ (d) None of the above. ○ (c) Lack of norms requiring

31. What can insulation of the group cause? methodological procedures
○ (d) Diversity of viewpoints
○ (a) Promote the development of 36. What are provocative situational
unique, inaccurate perspectives contexts?
on issues the group is dealing
with, and can then lead to faulty ○ (a) The kinds of situations that
solutions to the problem. impose high levels of stress on
○ (b) Leaders announce their group members.
opinions on the issue before the ○ (b) When leaders completely
group discusses the issue control the group discussion, by
together. planning what will be discussed,
○ (c) Leaders withheld their opinion only allowing certain questions to
until a later time in the discussion. be asked, and asking for opinions
○ (d) None of the above. only from specific people.
32. What is "closed style leadership"? ○ (c) When leaders withheld their
opinion until a later time in the
○ (a) When leaders completely discussion.
control the group discussion, by ○ (d) None of the above.
planning what will be discussed, 37. Why can provocative situational contexts
only allowing certain questions to lead to groupthink?
be asked, and asking for opinions
only from specific people. ● (a) Because stresses like time pressure or
○ (b) When leaders withheld their perceived threats can push groups
opinion until a later time in the towards quick, cohesive decisions over
discussion. careful analysis.
○ (c) A structured decision-making ● (b) Because they encourage members to
method designed to give challenge assumptions and critically
everyone an equal voice. evaluate proposed solutions.
○ (d) None of the above. ● (c) Because they promote a relaxed and
33. What is "open style leadership"? open environment where individuals feel
comfortable expressing dissenting
○ (a) When leaders withheld their opinions.
opinion until a later time in the ● (d) None of the above
discussion. 38. Which of the following is NOT a cause of
○ (b) When leaders completely provocative situational contexts?
control the group discussion, by
planning what will be discussed, ○ (a) Highly stressful external
only allowing certain questions to threats
be asked, and asking for opinions ○ (b) Recent failures
only from specific people. ○ (c) Time pressures
○ (c) A structured decision-making ○ (d) Group diversity
method designed to give 39. What can highly stressful external threats
everyone an equal voice. cause?
○ (d) None of the above.
34. What kind of leadership style is best to ○ (a) High-stake decisions can
avoid groupthink? create tension and anxiety, and
group members then may cope
● (a) Open style leadership with the decisional stress in
● (b) Closed style leadership irrational ways.
● (c) Laissez-faire leadership ○ (b) Can lead to low self-esteem,
● (d) Authoritarian leadership resulting in agreement with the
35. Which of the following is NOT a cause of group for fear of being seen as
structural faults? wrong.
○ (c) Group members are more
○ (a) Insulation of the group concerned with efficiency and
○ (b) Lack of impartial leadership
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

quick results, instead of quality ● (b) It creates an environment where

and accuracy. individuals are hesitant to express
○ (d) None of the above. differing opinions for fear of being disliked
40. What can time pressures cause? or treated unfairly.
● (c) It reinforces the group’s
○ (a) Group members are more overconfidence and belief in its own
concerned with efficiency and superiority.
quick results, instead of quality ● (d) It limits the discussion to a narrow
and accuracy. Additionally, time range of ideas and discourages
pressures can lead to group exploration of alternatives.
members overlooking important 44. What is the "Six Thinking Hats
information regarding the issue of Approach"?
discussion. ● (a) A technique that encourages teams to
○ (b) Can lead to low self-esteem, explore a problem from different
resulting in agreement with the perspectives, promoting a more
group for fear of being seen as comprehensive and creative approach to
wrong. problem-solving.
○ (c) High-stake decisions can ● (b) It forces the group to consider
create tension and anxiety, and alternative viewpoints and identify
group members then may cope weaknesses in their plan.
with the decisional stress in ● (c) A structured decision-making method
irrational ways. designed to give everyone an equal voice.
○ (d) None of the above. ● (d) None of the above.
41. What is a strategy to prevent groupthink 45. Why is the Six Thinking Hats Approach
by limiting premature seeking of beneficial in preventing groupthink?
concurrence? ● (a) It promotes a more divergent thinking
process, encouraging exploration of a
○ (a) Using the devil’s advocate role wider range of ideas before narrowing
○ (b) Avoiding overestimation of down to a solution.
superiority ● (b) It creates an environment where
○ (c) Seeking independent opinions individuals are hesitant to express
and expert advice differing opinions for fear of being disliked
○ (d) “Talking to the room” or treated unfairly.
42. Why is the devil's advocate role an ● (c) It reinforces the group’s
effective strategy against groupthink? overconfidence and belief in its own
superiority.
○ (a) It forces the group to consider ● (d) It limits the discussion to a narrow
alternative viewpoints and identify range of ideas and discourages
weaknesses in their plan. exploration of alternatives.
○ (b) It stifles debate and 46. What role can experts play in preventing
discourages critical thinking by groupthink?
promoting conformity.
○ (c) It reinforces the illusion of ○ (a) They can reduce the group’s
unanimity by silencing dissenting insulation and provide valuable
opinions. insights from outside the
○ (d) It prevents the group from immediate team.
seeking out external expertise ○ (b) They may inadvertently
and independent verification of reinforce the group’s biases by
information. confirming their existing beliefs.
43. How does encouraging authentic dissent ○ (c) They can hinder the
help prevent groupthink? decision-making process by
introducing conflicting viewpoints
● (a) It stimulates consideration of more and slowing down
options and leads to the detection of consensus-building.
potential issues that might otherwise be ○ (d) They may undermine the
overlooked. authority of the group leader and
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
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create confusion among team 50. What is a strategy to correct

members. misperceptions and biases?
47. How does encouraging diversity within a ● (a) Avoiding overestimation of superiority
group help prevent groupthink? ● (b) Use of devil's advocate role
● (c) Use of experts
● (a) It increases the range of perspectives ● (d) Encourage diversity
and makes it more difficult for 51. How does avoiding overestimation of
homogeneous subgroups to form, superiority mitigate groupthink?
promoting a more critical and balanced ● (a) By encouraging the group to
decision-making process. acknowledge potential vulnerabilities and
● (b) It may lead to increased conflict and consider alternative perspectives.
tension as members struggle to reconcile ● (b) By reinforcing the group’s confidence
differing viewpoints. in their own abilities and the correctness
● (c) It can slow down the decision-making of their decisions.
process as more time is needed to reach ● (c) By discouraging the group from
a consensus. seeking external expertise and feedback.
● (d) It can make it challenging to establish ● (d) By promoting a culture of
clear communication channels and a complacency and discouraging critical
shared understanding among team evaluation of the group’s plans and
members. assumptions.
48. What is the effect of the leader refraining 52. Why is seeking independent opinions and
from stating their opinion early in the expert advice important in correcting
decision-making process? misperceptions and biases?
● (a) It fosters a more open and impartial ● (a) It helps to break the echo chamber
environment, encouraging members to effect, bringing in fresh perspectives and
express their ideas freely without feeling preventing the group from becoming
pressured to conform to the leader’s isolated in its own views.
viewpoint. ● (b) It can delay the decision-making
● (b) It can create a sense of uncertainty process and create confusion by
and directionlessness among team introducing conflicting viewpoints.
members, hindering effective ● (c) It can undermine the group’s
decision-making. confidence and create a sense of
● (c) It may lead to a lack of leadership and self-doubt, hindering effective
a diffusion of responsibility, making it decision-making.
difficult to reach a clear consensus. ● (d) It can lead to an overreliance on
● (d) It can encourage groupthink by external sources and a lack of trust in the
creating a power vacuum where dominant group’s own judgment.
personalities may exert undue influence 53. How does recognising inadequacies and
on the group. encouraging open discussion help to
49. How does structuring discussion methods avoid groupthink?
help prevent groupthink?
● (a) It ensures that all members have a ○ (a) By creating a safe space for
voice and provides a framework for a members to voice concerns and
more methodical and considered doubts, leading to a more
decision-making process, reducing the thorough examination of the
risk of impulsive choices driven by group issues at hand and reducing the
pressure. risk of errors arising from
● (b) It can stifle creativity and innovation by self-censorship.
imposing rigid rules and limiting the free ○ (b) By discouraging members
flow of ideas. from challenging the prevailing
● (c) It can slow down the decision-making opinion and suppressing critical
process, making it difficult to respond evaluation of ideas.
quickly to time-sensitive issues. ○ (c) By promoting a culture of
● (d) It can lead to an overemphasis on defensiveness and resistance to
process over outcome, hindering the feedback, hindering the group’s
group’s ability to make timely and ability to learn from its mistakes.
effective decisions.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
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A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (d) By reinforcing the illusion of ensures every team member

unanimity and creating a false contributes to the discussion.
sense of consensus, leading to ○ (d) None of the above.
poorly considered decisions. 57. What is the "Delphi Technique"?
54. Why is considering ethical considerations
and engaging in moral debate crucial in ○ (a) A method that involves
preventing groupthink? gathering expert opinions through
a series of questionnaires or
● (a) It ensures that the group’s decisions surveys. The responses are then
align with ethical principles and values, aggregated and shared
preventing the narrow moral framework anonymously with the group,
that can arise from group pressure. allowing for a more objective and
● (b) It can slow down the decision-making unbiased evaluation of ideas.
process and create unnecessary conflict ○ (b) A structured decision-making
within the group. method designed to give
● (c) It can lead to an overemphasis on everyone an equal voice.
moral considerations at the expense of ○ (c) This is when the leader of a
practical considerations. team talks to the team as a
● (d) It can create a sense of guilt and whole, rather than individually, to
self-doubt among group members, try to arrive at a decision.
hindering their ability to make confident ○ (d) A structured approach to
decisions. group decision-making that
55. What is the “talking to the room” strategy? ensures every team member
contributes to the discussion.
○ (a) This is when the leader of a 58. What is the "Brainstorming/Brainwriting"
team talks to the team as a technique?
whole, rather than individually, to
try to arrive at a decision. ○ (a) Involves generating a large
○ (b) A structured decision-making number of ideas in a short
method designed to give amount of time. Team members
everyone an equal voice. are encouraged to share any idea
○ (c) A structured approach to that comes to mind, no matter
group decision-making that how unconventional, and to build
ensures every team member upon each other’s suggestions.
contributes to the discussion. ○ (b) A structured decision-making
○ (d) None of the above. method designed to give
56. What is the "Nominal Group Technique everyone an equal voice.
(NGT)"? ○ (c) A structured approach to
group decision-making that
○ (a) A structured decision-making ensures every team member
method designed to give contributes to the discussion.
everyone an equal voice. Unlike ○ (d) A method that involves
traditional group discussions, gathering expert opinions through
NGT begins with each team a series of questionnaires or
member brainstorming ideas surveys.
individually and writing them 59. What is the "Stepladder Technique"?
down. Once everyone has their
list, the group comes together to ○ (a) A structured approach to
share ideas one at a time, usually group decision-making that
in a round-robin format. ensures every team member
○ (b) This is when the leader of a contributes to the discussion. It
team talks to the team as a starts with a core group of two
whole, rather than individually, to members who discuss the issue
try to arrive at a decision. at hand. Gradually, other
○ (c) A structured approach to members are added one by one,
group decision-making that sharing their thoughts before
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

hearing the ongoing group ○ (d) Suppressing dissenting

discussion. viewpoints
○ (b) This is when the leader of a 63. Groupthink is more likely to occur in
team talks to the team as a groups that are:
whole, rather than individually, to
try to arrive at a decision. ○ (a) Highly cohesive
○ (c) A method that involves ○ (b) Diverse in their opinions
gathering expert opinions through ○ (c) Open to external criticism
a series of questionnaires or ○ (d) Led by impartial leaders
surveys. 64. Which of the following is a symptom of
○ (d) Involves generating a large closed-mindedness in groupthink?
number of ideas in a short
amount of time. ○ (a) Actively seeking out
60. What does a SWOT analysis involve? dissenting opinions
○ (b) Rationalising away warnings
○ (a) Identifying the Strengths, and negative feedback
Weaknesses, Opportunities, and ○ (c) Encouraging open and honest
Threats associated with a debate
particular decision or project. ○ (d) Considering a wide range of
○ (b) This is when the leader of a alternative solutions
team talks to the team as a 65. The illusion of invulnerability refers to:
whole, rather than individually, to
try to arrive at a decision. ● (a) The belief that the group is immune to
○ (c) A structured decision-making failure
method designed to give ● (b) The tendency to stereotype outsiders
everyone an equal voice. ● (c) The pressure to conform to the
○ (d) A structured approach to majority opinion
group decision-making that ● (d) The presence of a mindguard who
ensures every team member shields the group from dissenting
contributes to the discussion. information
61. What is "majority rule"? 66. Which of the following is an example of
direct social pressure in groupthink?
○ (a) A common decision-making ● (a) A member privately disagrees with the
method where the option with the group’s decision but chooses not to speak
most votes wins. up
○ (b) This is when the leader of a ● (b) The group leader openly criticizes a
team talks to the team as a member who expresses doubts about the
whole, rather than individually, to plan
try to arrive at a decision. ● (c) The group avoids seeking external
○ (c) A structured approach to opinions for fear of being contradicted
group decision-making that ● (d) A member feels uncomfortable sharing
ensures every team member their ideas because they sense that the
contributes to the discussion. group is already in agreement
○ (d) A method that involves 67. What is a mindguard in the context of
gathering expert opinions through groupthink?
a series of questionnaires or
surveys. ○ (a) A member who encourages
62. Which of the following is a technique for critical thinking and challenges
preventing groupthink? the group’s assumptions
○ (b) A member who protects the
○ (a) Encouraging conformity to the group from information that might
majority opinion contradict their decision
○ (b) Assigning a devil’s advocate ○ (c) A member who facilitates
role open communication and ensures
○ (c) Isolating the group from that all voices are heard
external input ○ (d) A member who is assigned
the role of devil’s advocate
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

68. What are structural faults in a group that 2. Which of the following is NOT a key
can contribute to groupthink? component of organisational behaviour as
mentioned in the source?
○ (a) A strong and directive leader
○ (b) A lack of clear ○ a) Individual Behaviour
decision-making procedures ○ b) Market Fluctuations
○ (c) A diverse membership with a ○ c) Organisational Structure
wide range of perspectives ○ d) Change Management
○ (d) Regular consultation with 3. According to the source, which element of
external experts organisational behaviour empowers
69. Provocative situational contexts, such as employees to perform their tasks
high stress or recent failures, can lead to effectively?
groupthink by:
○ a) People
○ (a) Encouraging a more cautious ○ b) Structure
and analytical approach to ○ c) Technology
decision-making ○ d) External Environment
○ (b) Increasing the desire for quick 4. Which organisational behaviour model
and unanimous decisions emphasises shared responsibility and
○ (c) Promoting open decision-making between managers and
communication and the sharing of employees?
diverse viewpoints
○ (d) Reducing the influence of ○ a) Autocratic Model
group cohesiveness on ○ b) Custodial Model
decision-making ○ c) Collegial Model
70. Which of the following is NOT an effective ○ d) System Model
strategy for preventing groupthink? 5. What primary motivations drive individuals
to join groups, as highlighted in the
○ (a) Encouraging the leader to source?
state their opinion at the outset of
the discussion ○ a) Financial gain and career
○ (b) Using structured advancement.
decision-making techniques ○ b) Seeking solutions to problems
○ (c) Seeking independent opinions and acquiring new skills.
and expert advice ○ c) Primarily socialising and
○ (d) Fostering a culture of open expanding their network.
communication and dissent ○ d) Avoiding individual
responsibilities and tasks.
6. Which type of change-promoting group is
led by mental health professionals and
PRACTICE TEST #5: Applications- Groups in aims to enhance psychological
Organizations and Industry well-being?

1. What is the primary focus of ○ a) Therapeutic

organisational group behaviour? ○ b) Interpersonal Learning
○ c) Support
○ a) Understanding individual ○ d) Advocacy
motivations in isolation. 7. What distinguishes Interpersonal Learning
○ b) Analysing the impact of group groups from other change-promoting
dynamics on organisational groups?
efficiency.
○ c) Examining the influence of ○ a) They are exclusively led by
external factors on organisational licensed therapists.
structure. ○ b) Their primary focus is on
○ d) Studying the historical addressing specific life crises.
development of organisational
hierarchies.
 Group Dynamics
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A/Y: 2024-2025

○ c) They aim to deepen ○ a) The division of labour within a

self-understanding and group to maximise individual
interpersonal skills. efficiency.
○ d) They solely rely on structured ○ b) The process of members
therapeutic techniques. pooling resources and
8. Support groups primarily focus on: coordinating efforts for a common
outcome.
○ a) Providing long-term ○ c) The competition among team
psychotherapy for deep-seated members to achieve individual
psychological issues. recognition.
○ b) Offering guidance and coping ○ d) The passive observation of
strategies for shared problems. group dynamics without active
○ c) Facilitating skill development participation.
for professional advancement. 13. Which type of team focuses on
○ d) Analysing complex addressing specific, often unusual,
organisational structures and challenges faced by groups or
dynamics. organisations?
9. Which characteristic of support groups
highlights the reciprocal nature of ○ a) Work Teams
assistance and encouragement among ○ b) Management Teams
members? ○ c) Project Teams
○ d) Advisory Teams
○ a) Problem-focused 14. Advisory teams are primarily responsible
○ b) Relationship-oriented for:
○ c) Communal
○ d) Perspective-based ○ a) Directly overseeing day-to-day
10. What key feature distinguishes support operational tasks.
groups from traditional forms of treatment, ○ b) Conducting research and
as per the source? providing recommendations to
others.
○ a) Their strong emphasis on ○ c) Implementing changes based
hierarchical structures. on external market analysis.
○ b) Their reliance on standardised ○ d) Maintaining the hierarchical
therapeutic approaches. structure within an organisation.
○ c) Their spontaneous emergence 15. What level of autonomy characterises
and autonomy from formal self-managing teams?
institutions.
○ d) Their primary focus on ○ a) They have limited
individual rather than collective decision-making power and rely
goals. heavily on managerial direction.
11. What is the defining characteristic of a ○ b) They operate independently,
team, as described in the source? making decisions about their work
processes and goals.
○ a) A loosely organised group of ○ c) They primarily focus on
individuals with shared interests. executing tasks defined by
○ b) A group with a hierarchical higher-level management.
structure and a designated ○ d) Their autonomy is restricted to
leader. specific, pre-defined areas.
○ c) A group that collaborates 16. According to the 'Authority Matrix,' which
interdependently to achieve team type possesses the highest level of
performance goals. self-governance?
○ d) A collection of individuals
working independently on ○ a) Manager-Led Team
separate tasks. ○ b) Self-Managing Team
12. How does the source define teamwork? ○ c) Self-Designing Team
○ d) Self-Governing Team
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

17. Cross-functional teams are distinguished ○ b) The blend of individual

by their: characteristics and attributes
within a team.
○ a) Uniformity in members' skills ○ c) The level of trust and cohesion
and expertise. among team members.
○ b) Exclusive focus on internal ○ d) The external factors influencing
organisational issues. team performance.
○ c) Diversity of functional expertise 22. 'Team Orientation' describes an
drawn from various organisational individual's inclination to:
levels.
○ d) Resistance to change and ○ a) Focus primarily on individual
innovation within the team achievements and recognition.
structure. ○ b) Prioritise team goals and
18. What defines multiteams in the context of collaborative efforts.
organisational structure? ○ c) Maintain a neutral stance
regarding team objectives.
○ a) Teams composed of individuals ○ d) Resist team dynamics and
from diverse cultural prefer independent work.
backgrounds. 23. What does the acronym KSA stand for in
○ b) Teams that operate in isolation the context of teamwork?
without interaction with other
groups. ○ a) Knowledge, Skills, and
○ c) Networks of interconnected Adaptability
teams working towards shared ○ b) Knowledge, Strategy, and
objectives. Application
○ d) Temporary teams formed to ○ c) Knowledge, Skills, and Ability
address short-term, specific ○ d) Knowledge, Synergy, and
tasks. Attitude
19. What is the key characteristic of a team 24. Why are KSAs considered fundamental to
player, as described in the source? team effectiveness?

○ a) Prioritising personal goals over ○ a) They determine a team's ability

team objectives. to function independently of
○ b) Maintaining a detached and leadership.
independent approach to ○ b) They limit a team's potential to
teamwork. the collective capabilities of its
○ c) Effectively collaborating and members.
integrating personal qualities for ○ c) They guarantee a team's
team success. success regardless of external
○ d) Resisting change and adhering factors.
to established routines. ○ d) They negate the need for
20. Which individual-level factor refers to the collaboration and communication
consistent patterns of behaviour that within a team.
influence team interactions? 25. Which component of KSA refers to the
specialised expertise directly related to
○ a) Personality Traits the tasks at hand?
○ b) Team Composition
○ c) Team Orientation ○ a) Task-Specific Proficiencies
○ d) Knowledge, Skills, and Ability ○ b) Collective Intelligence
(KSA) ○ c) Interpersonal Skills
21. What does 'Team Composition' refer to in ○ d) Adaptive Leadership
the context of team dynamics? 26. How does the source define 'Collective
Intelligence' in team settings?
○ a) The shared values and beliefs
that guide team behaviour. ○ a) The sum of individual IQ
scores within a team.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ b) The ability of a team to solve ○ c) Reinforcement of traditional

problems exceeding individual gender roles within the team
capacities. structure.
○ c) The reliance on a single team ○ d) Reduced complexity in
member for knowledge and communication and
expertise. decision-making processes.
○ d) The avoidance of conflict and 31. What characterises the 'Interlocking
the maintenance of group Interdependence' within a team?
harmony.
27. Which of the following is NOT an example ○ a) Members can determine their
of Interpersonal Skills essential for outcomes independently of
effective teamwork? others.
○ b) Members are loosely
○ a) Conflict Resolution connected and have minimal
○ b) Technical Proficiency reliance on each other.
○ c) Communication ○ c) Members are tightly coupled,
○ d) Teamwork Abilities with each individual's outcomes
28. What does 'Diversity' encompass in the dependent on others.
context of team composition? ○ d) Members primarily focus on
individual tasks without
○ a) The uniformity of backgrounds coordination.
and perspectives among team 32. What are 'Shared Mental Models' in the
members. context of teamwork?
○ b) The variations in demographics
and functional attributes among ○ a) Identical thought processes
members. and perspectives shared by all
○ c) The exclusion of individuals team members.
with differing viewpoints. ○ b) Individual mental
○ d) The strict adherence to representations that are kept
traditional team structures. private and not shared.
29. What is the main point of contention ○ c) Cognitive representations and
regarding 'The Myth of Male Bonding' as expectations that members have
presented in the source? in common.
○ d) A hierarchical system where
○ a) Whether men are inherently one team member dictates the
better suited for leadership roles. mental model for others.
○ b) Whether evolutionary theories 33. 'Transactive Memory' within a team refers
accurately explain gender to:
dynamics in teams.
○ c) Whether women are capable of ○ a) All members possessing
forming strong bonds in same-sex identical and comprehensive
groups. knowledge.
○ d) Whether mixed-gender teams ○ b) Information being distributed
are inherently more effective than among members who become
single-gender teams. reliable sources.
30. What potential advantages do ○ c) A centralised system where all
heterogeneously gendered teams information is stored and
(mixed-gender teams) offer, according to accessed by a leader.
the source? ○ d) The avoidance of
specialisation and the expectation
○ a) Increased potential for conflict that all members know
due to differing perspectives. everything.
○ b) Enhanced creativity and 34. What distinguishes the interaction
problem-solving due to broader patterns within a team from those in other
perspectives. groups?
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ a) Teams exhibit lower interaction ○ d) Goals imposed by external

rates and less continuous flow. stakeholders without team input.
○ b) Teams engage in a more 39. What is the significance of 'Adaptive
balanced mix of task and Structure' for effective teams?
relational interactions.
○ c) Teams primarily focus on ○ a) Rigid adherence to pre-defined
relational interactions with roles and procedures.
minimal task orientation. ○ b) The absence of defined roles
○ d) Teams demonstrate higher and responsibilities.
interaction rates and a more ○ c) A fluid structure that allows for
continuous flow, predominantly adaptation and evolution.
task-focused. ○ d) A hierarchical structure with a
35. 'Action Processes' in teamwork single leader making all
encompass activities such as: decisions.
40. What characterises a 'Cohesive Alliance'
○ a) Defining long-term strategic within a team?
goals and organisational vision.
○ b) Managing interpersonal ○ a) Weak connections among
relationships and team cohesion. members and high turnover rates.
○ c) Monitoring progress, ○ b) Fragmented relationships and
coordinating efforts, and providing a lack of shared purpose.
backup. ○ c) Strong bonds among members
○ d) Conducting external market and resilience in challenging
research and competitor analysis. situations.
36. What is the primary function of 'Transition ○ d) A competitive environment
Processes' in team dynamics? where individual success is
prioritised.
○ a) Maintaining a steady and 41. What are the primary benefits of team
unchanging work process. cohesion?
○ b) Addressing tasks that are too
complex for immediate ○ a) Increased individualism and
completion. reduced reliance on others.
○ c) Executing routine tasks without ○ b) Affective and instrumental
the need for adaptation. gains for both individuals and the
○ d) Avoiding strategic planning and team.
focusing solely on immediate ○ c) A decline in interpersonal trust
actions. and increased suspicion.
37. Which process category involves activities ○ d) A shift in focus from team
like conflict management, motivation goals to personal agendas.
building, and affect management within a 42. How does the source define
team? 'Interpersonal Trust' within a team?

○ a) Action Processes ○ a) The belief that team members

○ b) Transition Processes will require constant supervision
○ c) Interpersonal Processes and pressure.
○ d) External Processes ○ b) The assumption that members
38. What qualities define a 'Compelling will act independently without
Purpose' for a team, as per the source? coordination.
○ c) The confidence that members
○ a) Vague objectives that allow for will fulfill their responsibilities
individual interpretation. without excessive oversight.
○ b) Easily achievable goals that ○ d) The expectation that conflict
require minimal effort. will be avoided at all costs,
○ c) Shared and valued goals that hindering open communication.
are clear, challenging, and 43. What are the three key pillars of the
meaningful. 'Organisational Trust Model'?
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ a) Authority, Obedience, and ○ a) To discourage collaboration

Conformity and promote individual
○ b) Ability, Benevolence, and competition.
Integrity ○ b) To reinforce traditional
○ c) Competition, Individualism, and hierarchical structures within
Achievement teams.
○ d) Charisma, Leadership, and ○ c) To equip individuals and teams
Power with the skills necessary for
44. When evaluating team success, what is effective team performance.
the primary criterion highlighted in the ○ d) To focus solely on technical
source? skills while neglecting
interpersonal aspects of
○ a) Individual satisfaction and teamwork.
personal growth. 48. How does 'Team Building' contribute to
○ b) The team's ability to meet its team effectiveness?
defined performance goals.
○ c) The maintenance of a ○ a) By focusing on individual skill
harmonious and conflict-free development in isolation.
environment. ○ b) By promoting the development
○ d) The adherence to traditional of interpersonal and teamwork
team structures and processes. skills.
45. Why is 'Team Learning' considered ○ c) By undermining team cohesion
essential for team development? and encouraging conflict.
○ d) By maintaining a rigid and
○ a) It emphasises individual inflexible team structure.
learning and minimises the need 49. What is the significance of 'Structural
for collaboration. Support' for successful team
○ b) It focuses on theoretical implementation?
knowledge rather than practical
application. ○ a) Organisations should create
○ c) It requires group practice and teams without providing
shared experiences to foster necessary resources and support.
cognitive foundations of ○ b) Organisations should impose
teamwork. strict hierarchical structures to
○ d) It relies on external experts to control team activities.
provide all necessary training and ○ c) Organisations should foster an
knowledge. environment that enables teams
46. What challenge does the concept of to thrive and succeed.
'Fidelity of Team Innovations' address? ○ d) Organisations should
discourage communication and
○ a) The consistent and successful collaboration among team
implementation of team-based members.
innovations. 50. What is the primary purpose of meetings,
○ b) The tendency for organisations as described in the source?
to abandon team structures in
favour of individual work. ○ a) To provide a platform for
○ c) The resistance to adopting new socialising and informal
technologies and innovative gatherings.
practices within teams. ○ b) To reinforce hierarchical
○ d) The gap between the structures and maintain control.
theoretical ideal of teamwork and ○ c) To facilitate communication,
its practical application. collaboration, and action
47. What is the primary objective of 'Training planning.
in Teamwork'? ○ d) To discourage innovation and
maintain the status quo.
51. 'Strategic Meetings Management (SMM)'
aims to achieve which of the following
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

outcomes? ○ d) Making final decisions based

on limited input.
○ a) Increase the frequency of 56. The purpose of 'Status Update Meetings'
meetings without a clear purpose. is to:
○ b) Disregard organisational goals
and focus on individual agendas. ○ a) Initiate new projects and define
○ c) Align meetings with long-term goals.
organisational objectives and ○ b) Conduct performance
enhance attendee experiences. evaluations and provide
○ d) Prioritise cost-saving measures feedback.
over meeting effectiveness. ○ c) Review progress, ensure team
52. How do meetings contribute to shaping alignment, and address
organisational culture? challenges.
○ d) Explore hypothetical scenarios
○ a) By promoting individualism and and engage in speculative
discouraging collaboration. discussions.
○ b) By reinforcing existing power 57. What are the three essential stages of a
dynamics and hierarchical successful meeting process?
structures.
○ c) By influencing perceptions of ○ a) Planning, Execution, and
valued behaviours and Evaluation
expectations. ○ b) Preparation, Conduct, and
○ d) By isolating teams and limiting Follow-Up
communication across ○ c) Initiation, Facilitation, and
departments. Conclusion
53. What is the primary focus of ○ d) Brainstorming,
'Decision-Making Meetings'? Decision-Making, and
Implementation
○ a) To disseminate information and 58. What is the foundational element for
provide updates. effective meeting preparation?
○ b) To generate creative ideas and
explore solutions. ○ a) Gathering a large number of
○ c) To review project progress and participants regardless of
address emerging issues. relevance.
○ d) To involve key stakeholders in ○ b) Establishing a clear and
making critical organisational well-defined purpose for the
decisions. meeting.
54. 'Informational Meetings' are primarily ○ c) Distributing materials during
designed for: the meeting without prior notice.
○ d) Choosing a venue that is
○ a) Making important decisions intimidating and formal.
requiring stakeholder consensus. 59. What role does the chairperson play in
○ b) Brainstorming and generating ensuring a successful meeting?
innovative ideas.
○ c) Sharing information, updates, ○ a) Dictating the discussion and
and policy changes. limiting participant input.
○ d) Resolving conflicts and ○ b) Encouraging a free flow of
addressing interpersonal issues. ideas and guiding the meeting
55. What is the key characteristic of towards its objectives.
'Brainstorming Sessions'? ○ c) Disregarding time constraints
and extending the meeting
○ a) Focusing on individual work unnecessarily.
and independent idea generation. ○ d) Prioritising personal agendas
○ b) Encouraging collaborative idea over the meeting's stated
generation and problem-solving. purpose.
○ c) Adhering to strict protocols and
limiting creative thinking.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

60. Why is time management crucial for ○ a) Therapeutic

meeting effectiveness? ○ b) Interpersonal Learning
○ c) Support
○ a) To allow ample time for ○ d) Advocacy
socialising and informal 65. A team that is responsible for both
conversations. executing the task and managing the
○ b) To ensure that all agenda items team's work is called a:
are addressed efficiently.
○ c) To create a sense of urgency ○ a) Manager-Led Team
and pressure among participants. ○ b) Self-Managing Team
○ d) To demonstrate the ○ c) Self-Designing Team
chairperson's authority and ○ d) Self-Governing Team
control. 66. A team that has the authority to change
61. What is the primary purpose of the the team itself is called a:
follow-up stage after a meeting?
● a) Manager-Led Team
○ a) To schedule another meeting ● b) Self-Managing Team
without implementing ● c) Self-Designing Team
agreed-upon actions. ● d) Self-Governing Team
○ b) To disregard the meeting 67. What is the 'Organisational Trust Model'?
outcomes and return to business
as usual. ○a) A model that emphasizes the
○ c) To ensure that decisions and importance of traditional hierarchy
actions agreed upon are carried in building trust.
forward. ○ b) A theory that suggests trust is
○ d) To create a record of the based on perceptions of ability,
meeting without any tangible benevolence, and integrity.
outcomes. ○ c) A model that prioritizes
62. What negative perception do ineffective individual achievement over team
follow-up practices often create among collaboration.
organisational members? ○ d) A theory that argues trust is
primarily built through formal
○ a) A sense of accomplishment contracts and agreements.
and progress. 68. What are 'Transition Processes' in
○ b) A belief that meetings are teamwork?
valuable and productive.
○ c) A feeling that meetings are a ○ a) Routine tasks that maintain a
waste of time and effort. steady work process.
○ d) An increased motivation to ○ b) Activities focused on managing
participate actively in future interpersonal relationships within
meetings. a team.
63. How can effective meetings impact ○ c) Processes involved in
employee satisfaction and engagement? addressing complex tasks that
require adaptation and planning.
○ a) By creating a sense of ○ d) Actions taken to monitor
exclusion and disengagement. progress towards goals and
○ b) By reinforcing hierarchical provide backup support.
structures and limiting autonomy. 69. What is 'Strategic Meetings Management
○ c) By fostering a culture of open (SMM)'?
communication and collaboration.
○ d) By increasing workload without ○ a) An approach that focuses on
providing necessary support. increasing the frequency of
64. Which type of change-promoting group is meetings to improve
often led by volunteers and focuses on communication.
helping members cope with specific ○ b) A method that prioritizes
problems? cost-saving measures by limiting
meeting durations and resources.
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ c) A practice that aligns meetings ○ (A) By engaging in debates

with organisational goals and ○ (B) By practicing active listening
aims to enhance the experience and positive reinforcement
for attendees. ○ (C) By focusing on individual
○ d) A strategy that encourages goals
informal meetings and ○ (D) By avoiding personal
discourages structured agendas. experiences
70. What is the negative impact of 5. What is the foundation of successful
mismanaged meetings on organisational collaboration in a group setting?
culture? ○ (A) Clear and open
communication
○ a) They can lead to increased ○ (B) Individual expertise
employee satisfaction and ○ (C) Competition among members
engagement. ○ (D) Hierarchical decision-making
○ b) They can foster a sense of 6. How does interpersonal skills training
transparency and open improve communication and
communication. collaboration?
○ c) They can contribute to a ○ (A) By encouraging passive
perception of inefficiency and a listening
lack of productivity. ○ (B) By promoting individual work
○ d) They can promote ○ (C) By enhancing members’
collaboration and teamwork ability to express ideas and listen
across different departments. actively
○ (D) By establishing a dominant
leader
7. In the marketing firm example, what
PRACTICE TEST #6: Interpersonal Skills- specific interpersonal skill is developed to
Training in Groups improve feedback?
○ (A) Public speaking
1. Which of the following is NOT a ○ (B) Giving constructive feedback
component of interpersonal skills-training respectfully
in groups? ○ (C) Time management
○ (A) Structured activities ○ (D) Conflict avoidance
○ (B) Interventions for skill 8. How does interpersonal skills training
enhancement facilitate conflict resolution?
○ (C) Individual-focused activities ○ (A) By suppressing
○ (D) Collaboration enhancement disagreements
2. What is a key outcome of interpersonal ○ (B) By equipping individuals with
skills training, as emphasised by Johnson techniques to handle conflicts
and Johnson (2014, 2017)? amicably
○ (A) Improved individual ○ (C) By promoting a win-lose
performance approach
○ (B) Enhanced group cohesion ○ (D) By avoiding conflict altogether
○ (C) Reduced conflict 9. In the classroom example, what conflict
○ (D) Increased competition resolution skills do students apply?
3. How does interpersonal skills training ○ (A) Ignoring the disagreement
contribute to group cohesion? ○ (B) Empathetic listening and
○ (A) By promoting competition assertive communication
among members ○ (C) Competing for the best
○ (B) By fostering a sense of solution
belonging and trust ○ (D) Involving an external mediator
○ (C) By assigning individual tasks 10. Why do groups with strong interpersonal
○ (D) By establishing a clear skills tend to perform better?
hierarchy ○ (A) They create a competitive
4. In the example provided, how do group environment.
members enhance cohesion through ○ (B) They have a clear hierarchy.
interpersonal skills training?
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (C) They reduce ○ (A) Transactional leadership

misunderstandings and optimize ○ (B) Transformational leadership
roles. ○ (C) Autocratic leadership
○ (D) They rely on individual ○ (D) Laissez-faire leadership
expertise. 18. What does transactional leadership
11. How does effective interpersonal primarily utilise to motivate followers?
interaction influence decision-making? ○ (A) Shared vision
○ (A) It slows down the process. ○ (B) Rewards and punishments
○ (B) It creates confusion. ○ (C) Collaboration and feedback
○ (C) It leads to autocratic ○ (D) Empowerment and autonomy
decisions. 19. Which leadership style is results-oriented
○ (D) It helps align group efforts and often involves individual
towards common objectives. decision-making by the leader?
12. In the team example, what positive ○ (A) Democratic leadership
outcome results from improved ○ (B) Autocratic leadership
interpersonal skills? ○ (C) Transformational leadership
○ (A) Increased conflict ○ (D) Laissez-faire leadership
○ (B) Slower progress 20. What is the defining characteristic of
○ (C) Reduced efficiency democratic leadership?
○ (D) Reduced friction and ○ (A) Unilateral decision-making
improved quality of results ○ (B) Seeking input and feedback
13. What key aspect of emotional intelligence from team members
does interpersonal skills training ○ (C) A hands-off approach
promote? ○ (D) Strict adherence to rules
○ (A) Self-awareness 21. Which leadership style is characterised by
○ (B) Empathy minimal guidance from the leader?
○ (C) Self-regulation ○ (A) Autocratic leadership
○ (D) Motivation ○ (B) Democratic leadership
14. How does enhanced empathy impact the ○ (C) Transformational leadership
work environment, as illustrated by the ○ (D) Laissez-faire leadership
nurse-technician example? 22. What is the defining feature of a
○ (A) It creates competition for structured activity in a group setting?
resources. ○ (A) Open-ended discussions
○ (B) It fosters a supportive and ○ (B) Free-flowing interaction
empathetic environment. ○ (C) Predefined roles and
○ (C) It increases individual objectives
workload. ○ (D) Spontaneous decision-making
○ (D) It promotes a hierarchical 23. According to Bens (2005), what is the
structure. purpose of providing clear instructions
15. What type of leadership structure is and rules in structured activities?
depicted by a pyramid organisation? ○ (A) To restrict creativity
○ (A) Shared leadership ○ (B) To create a framework for
○ (B) Hierarchical leadership interaction and learning
○ (C) Democratic leadership ○ (C) To promote individual work
○ (D) Laissez-faire leadership ○ (D) To establish a hierarchy
16. According to Forsyth (1983) and Tria & 24. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
Jao (1999), what characterises structured activity?
hierarchical leadership? ○ (A) Clear objectives
○ (A) Distributed decision-making ○ (B) Enhanced focus
○ (B) Collaborative leadership ○ (C) Spontaneous adaptation
○ (C) Centralised leadership with a ○ (D) Measurable outcomes
single leader directing activities 25. What type of structured activity is
○ (D) Empowerment of team designed to familiarise individuals with
members group members?
17. Which leadership style is less hierarchical ○ (A) Ice breakers
and focuses on guiding change through ○ (B) Card games
inspiration and motivation? ○ (C) Board games
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (D) Team-building activities 32. What is the primary focus of traditional

26. What is the primary function of card group approaches in terms of
games in a structured group setting? interpersonal relationships?
○ (A) Entertainment ○ (A) Task completion
○ (B) Competition ○ (B) Individual goals
○ (C) Sharing information and ○ (C) Fostering camaraderie and a
concepts sense of belonging
○ (D) Building physical skills ○ (D) Conflict resolution
27. How do board games contribute to 33. How do traditional approaches typically
interpersonal skills development? handle conflict within a team?
○ (A) Through unstructured play ○ (A) By encouraging open
○ (B) By promoting individual confrontation
strategy ○ (B) By using structured conflict
○ (C) Through competition and resolution techniques
entertainment in a controlled ○ (C) By minimizing or avoiding
environment conflict to maintain positive
○ (D) By encouraging random relationships
interactions ○ (D) By promoting individual
28. What is the core purpose of team-building problem-solving
activities? 34. What type of activity provides dedicated
○ (A) To assess individual time and space for team members to
performance connect and bond?
○ (B) To create a competitive ○ (A) Team retreats
atmosphere ○ (B) Individual assignments
○ (C) To help a work group evolve ○ (C) Competitive challenges
into a high-performing team ○ (D) Structured training sessions
○ (D) To isolate team members 35. Which trust-building game is designed to
from each other enhance communication and reliance on
29. What is a typical goal of traditional teammates?
goal-oriented team-building activities? ○ (A) Debates
○ (A) Individual skill development ○ (B) Trust fall or blindfold walk
○ (B) Fostering competition ○ (C) Individual problem-solving
○ (C) Improving communication and tasks
problem-solving ○ (D) Presentations
○ (D) Encouraging independent 36. What characterises the structure and
work leadership in traditional team-building
30. How does a ropes course exemplify a activities?
goal-oriented team-building activity? ○ (A) Flexible roles and shared
○ (A) By focusing on individual leadership
physical strength ○ (B) Clear hierarchy and
○ (B) By requiring teamwork, predetermined leadership roles
communication, and ○ (C) Democratic decision-making
problem-solving processes
○ (C) By promoting a hierarchical ○ (D) Emphasis on individual
structure autonomy
○ (D) By isolating team members 37. What example is provided to illustrate an
from each other activity with clear rules and norms?
31. What are the non-explicitly measured ○ (A) Open discussions
outcomes of traditional goal-oriented ○ (B) Brainstorming sessions
activities, as mentioned in the example? ○ (C) Real-world business
○ (A) Reduced conflict and simulation
increased creativity ○ (D) Team outings
○ (B) Increased productivity and job 38. What specific elements are established to
satisfaction ensure smooth functioning in the business
○ (C) Enhanced individual skills simulation example?
○ (D) Improved social relationships ○ (A) Flexible timelines and
open-ended tasks
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (B) Time limits, role assignments, ○ (C) Representing a wide range of

and decision-making procedures different characteristics and
○ (C) Individual goals and demographics
performance metrics ○ (D) Establishing a dominant
○ (D) Open-ended discussions and group
brainstorming 45. What is the primary emphasis in
39. How is shared leadership defined by contemporary group approaches
Pearce and Conger (2003)? regarding interpersonal relationships?
○ (A) A single leader directing all ○ (A) Task completion and
activities efficiency
○ (B) A hierarchical structure with ○ (B) Competition and individual
clear authority achievement
○ (C) A dynamic influence process ○ (C) Building strong interpersonal
where individuals lead one skills and relationships
another ○ (D) Maintaining a hierarchical
○ (D) A hands-off approach with structure
minimal guidance 46. How is group cohesiveness defined in
40. According to Acar (2010), what shift in terms of interactions, according to Forsyth
leadership perspective does shared (2019)?
leadership represent? ○ (A) The number of meetings
○ (A) From individual leadership to ○ (B) The frequency of
collective leadership disagreements
○ (B) From autocratic leadership to ○ (C) The quantity and quality of
democratic leadership intermember interactions
○ (C) From transactional leadership ○ (D) The individual contributions of
to transformational leadership members
○ (D) From hierarchical leadership 47. What is the definition of empathy in the
to laissez-faire leadership context of group dynamics?
41. What two principles are central to the ○ (A) The ability to control one's
concept of flexibility in contemporary emotions
group approaches? ○ (B) The ability to understand and
○ (A) Control and stability share the feelings of others
○ (B) Variability and stability ○ (C) The ability to ignore emotional
○ (C) Efficiency and effectiveness responses
○ (D) Innovation and creativity ○ (D) The ability to focus on task
42. How does Bitterwolf (1992) describe completion
flexible individuals? 48. According to Johnson and Johnson
○ (A) Resistant to change (2014), what positive outcome is
○ (B) Adaptive and proactive in associated with increased empathy in a
changing situations group?
○ (C) Focused on maintaining the ○ (A) Increased egocentrism
status quo ○ (B) Reduced ability to solve
○ (D) Preferring structured personal problems
environments ○ (C) Improved understanding of
43. What does inclusivity actively encourage others' perspectives
in a group setting? ○ (D) Heightened emotional
○ (A) Conformity to group norms reactivity
○ (B) Contribution and participation 49. What is the primary goal of active
from everyone listening in group communication, as
○ (C) Competition among members described by Johnson and Johnson
○ (D) Hierarchy and authority (2017)?
44. What is the core focus of diversity in ○ (A) To passively receive
group composition? information
○ (A) Homogeneity and shared ○ (B) To provide feedback and
characteristics clarify communication
○ (B) Including demographics that ○ (C) To interrupt and offer opinions
are broadly represented in society
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (D) To focus on nonverbal cues ○ (B) The dress code for the
only meeting
50. What does empowerment and ○ (C) The nonverbal communication
self-management encourage in styles of participants
contemporary group approaches? ○ (D) The interaction style and
○ (A) Reliance on the leader for intent of participants
decision-making 56. What does "The Facilitator" rule of
○ (B) Independent decision-making facilitation focus on?
and collaborative problem-solving ○ (A) The facilitator's attire and
by members appearance
○ (C) Strict adherence to rules and ○ (B) The facilitator's experience
procedures and qualifications
○ (D) Competition for individual ○ (C) The facilitator's actions,
recognition projections, and contributions
51. What is the purpose of facilitation ○ (D) The facilitator's personal
techniques in empowering groups? opinions and beliefs
○ (A) To control group discussions 57. How is conflict resolution approached in
○ (B) To provide solutions to contemporary group settings?
problems ○ (A) By ignoring disagreements
○ (C) To limit group interaction ○ (B) By suppressing different
○ (D) To support groups during opinions
challenging discussions or tasks ○ (C) By using open, constructive
52. According to Ben (2005), what does "The communication and conflict
Context" rule of facilitation refer to? resolution strategies
○ (A) The physical environment of ○ (D) By relying on the leader to
the meeting resolve conflicts
○ (B) The time allotted for the 58. What is a characteristic of constructive
meeting communication during conflict?
○ (C) The organisational and ○ (A) Avoiding discussions about
cultural context of the facilitation disagreements
○ (D) The technology used during ○ (B) Engaging in personal attacks
the meeting ○ (C) Addressing issues through
53. What does "The Purpose" rule of constructive discussion and
facilitation emphasise? negotiation
○ (A) The facilitator's personal ○ (D) Suppressing dissenting
goals opinions
○ (B) The hidden agendas of 59. According to Forsyth (2019), what is a key
participants factor influencing how conflict is handled
○ (C) The clear reason for the in teams?
meeting ○ (A) The level of competition
○ (D) The desired outcomes for ○ (B) The desire to maintain good
each participant social relations
54. What does "The Process" rule of ○ (C) The individual goals of team
facilitation outline? members
○ (A) The individual tasks assigned ○ (D) The time pressure on the
to participants team
○ (B) The steps to be used to 60. What two dimensions does Levi (2014)
achieve the meeting goal use to describe conflict resolution?
○ (C) The facilitator's role in guiding ○ (A) Time and effort
the meeting ○ (B) Distribution and integration
○ (D) The informal interactions ○ (C) Power and control
among participants ○ (D) Assertiveness and
55. What aspect of group interaction is cooperation
addressed by "The Behavior" rule of 61. What conflict resolution approach
facilitation? attempts to disregard the existence of a
○ (A) The seating arrangements of problem?
participants ○ (A) Avoidance
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

○ (B) Accommodation ○ (B) Its emphasis on finding

○ (C) Confrontation common ground
○ (D) Compromise ○ (C) Its use of tough and
62. Which approach prioritises agreeableness competitive tactics
by relinquishing one's position in a ○ (D) Its emphasis on maintaining
conflict? relationships
○ (A) Avoidance 69. What is the central focus of principled
○ (B) Accommodation negotiation?
○ (C) Confrontation ○ (A) The personal motives of the
○ (D) Collaboration parties involved
63. What characterises the confrontation ○ (B) The problem itself, rather than
approach to conflict resolution? the people involved
○ (A) Ignoring the conflict ○ (C) Winning at all costs
○ (B) Seeking a mutually agreeable ○ (D) Maintaining a harmonious
solution atmosphere
○ (C) Acting aggressively and trying 70. Which of the following is NOT a listed
to win advantage of the traditional group
○ (D) Giving in to the other party's approach?
demands ○ (A) Clear authority and
64. What is the objective of the compromise accountability
approach in conflict resolution? ○ (B) Predictable and efficient
○ (A) To fully satisfy everyone's processes
concerns ○ (C) Enhanced creativity and
○ (B) To suppress the conflict innovation
○ (C) To have one party emerge as ○ (D) A strong sense of belonging
the winner and camaraderie
○ (D) To find a balance that involves
concessions from all parties
65. When is the collaboration approach to
conflict resolution most effective?
○ (A) When one party is clearly right
○ (B) When time is limited
○ (C) When both sides have
important concerns that need to
be addressed
○ (D) When maintaining social
harmony is the priority
66. How does Forsyth (2019) define
negotiation in conflict resolution?
○ (A) A one-sided communication
process
○ (B) A process of imposing one's
solution on others
○ (C) A reciprocal communication
process to reach agreement
○ (D) A competition to achieve
individual goals
67. Which negotiation style is characterised
by a gentle and accommodating
approach?
○ (A) Soft negotiation
○ (B) Hard negotiation
○ (C) Principled negotiation
○ (D) Distributive negotiation
68. What distinguishes hard negotiation from
other styles?
○ (A) Its focus on collaboration
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

Answer Key: 54. b

55. c
Practice Test 1 56. c
57. c
1. b 58. d
2. b 59. d
3. c 60. d
4. b
5. b Practice Test 2
6. d
7. c 1. d
8. b 2. a
9. b 3. a
10. b 4. c
11. c 5. d
12. d 6. a
13. a 7. b
14. b 8. b
15. b 9. b
16. b 10. c
17. b 11. b
18. c 12. c
19. c 13. b
20. c 14. a
21. c 15. c
22. d 16. c
23. b 17. a
24. c 18. b
25. b 19. c
26. b 20. d
27. a 21. b
28. c 22. c
29. b 23. c
30. c 24. b
31. b 25. a
32. a 26. b
33. b 27. a
34. c 28. b
35. a 29. a
36. c 30. c
37. b 31. c
38. c 32. c
39. b 33. a
40. b 34. b
41. b 35. b
42. c 36. b
43. c 37. c
44. c 38. c
45. b 39. b
46. c 40. b
47. b 41. b
48. b 42. b
49. b 43. a
50. a 44. c
51. b 45. b
52. b 46. c
53. d 47. c
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

48. c 42. b
49. c 43. a
50. c 44. c
51. d 45. b
52. b 46. b
53. b 47. d
54. b 48. d
55. d 49. b
56. a 50. c
57. c 51. d
58. b 52. c
59. b 53. b
60. c 54. c
55. c
Practice Test 3 56. d
57. c
1. b 58. c
2. d 59. d
3. b 60. c
4. a 61. c
5. b 62. b
6. c 63. b
7. d 64. b
8. c 65. b
9. b 66. c
10. b 67. c
11. a 68. c
12. c 69. c
13. a 70. b
14. b
15. a Practice Test 4
16. c
17. d 1. (a)
18. b 2. (a)
19. a 3. (a)
20. b 4. (b)
21. c 5. (d)
22. b 6. (a)
23. b 7. (c)
24. b 8. (a)
25. b 9. (b)
26. c 10. (a)
27. a 11. (c)
28. b 12. (a)
29. c 13. (b)
30. d 14. (a)
31. d 15. (a)
32. b 16. (a)
33. c 17. (c)
34. c 18. (a)
35. c 19. (b)
36. b 20. (a)
37. c 21. (c)
38. b 22. (a)
39. d 23. (d)
40. c 24. (a)
41. c 25. (a)
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

26. (b) 10. c

27. (a) 11. c.
28. (a) 12. b.
29. (a) 13. c
30. (a) 14. b
31. (a) 15. b
32. (a) 16. d
33. (a) 17. c.
34. (a) 18. c
35. (d) 19. c.
36. (a) 20. a
37. (a) 21. b.
38. (d) 22. b
39. (a) 23. c
40. (a) 24. b.
41. (a) 25. a
42. (a) 26. b
43. (a) 27. b
44. (a) 28. b.
45. (a) 29. b.
46. (a) 30. b
47. (a) 31. c.
48. (a) 32. c.
49. (a) 33. b.
50. (a) 34. d
51. (a) 35. c.
52. (a) 36. b.
53. (a) 37. c
54. (a) 38. c
55. (a) 39. c
56. (a) 40. c
57. (a) 41. b.
58. (a) 42. c
59. (a) 43. b
60. (a) 44. b
61. (a) 45. c
62. (b) 46. d
63. (a) 47. c
64. (b) 48. b.
65. (a) 49. c
66. (b) 50. c.
67. (b) 51. c
68. (b) 52. c
69. (b) 53. d
70. (a) 54. c.
55. b
Practice Test 5 56. c.
57. b
1. b 58. b
2. b 59. b
3. c 60. b
4. c 61. c
5. b 62. c
6. a 63. c.
7. c. 64. c
8. b 65. b
9. c 66. c
 Group Dynamics
Practice Tests
First Semester (Finals)
A/Y: 2024-2025

67. b 50. B
68. c 51. D
69. c 52. C
70. c 53. C
54. B
55. D
Practice Test 6 56. C
57. C
1. C 58. C
2. B 59. B
3. B 60. B
4. B 61. A
5. A 62. B
6. C 63. C
7. B 64. D
8. B 65. C
9. B 66. C
10. C 67. A
11. D 68. C
12. D 69. B
13. B 70. C
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. C
29. C
30. B
31. B
32. C
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. B
43. B
44. C
45. C
46. C
47. B
48. C
49. B