01.

System of Government
1. A Constitutional government by definition is a
(a) Government by legislature Parliamentary System of
(b) Popular government 1.
(c) Multi party government Government
(d) Limited government
IAS (Pre) G.S 2020 5. The Parliamentary form of Government was
Ans. (d) A Constitutional Government is one which is first introduced in which country?
organized, controlled and limited by the Constitution of (a) Great Britain (UK) (b) Belgium
the country and not operated by the views of any (c) France (d) Switzerland
individual or any political party but regulated only by UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
the law of the land. Ans: (a) The Parliamentary form of Government was
2. Constitutional government means first introduced in Great Britain (UK). The first British
(a) a representative government of a nation with Parliament was convened in 1215 with the creation and
federal structure signing of the ‘Magna Carta’. The feature of Indian
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal Parliamentary form of government has been borrowed
powers from Britain.
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers 6. We adopted Parliamentary democracy based
(d) a government limited by the terms of the on the British model, but how does our model
Constitution differ from that model?
UPSC (IAS-Pre) 2021 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above supreme or sovereign but in India, the power
question. of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
3. The theory of Separation of powers was 2. In India, matters related to the
advocated by which of the following political Constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act
and constitutional philosopher: of the Parliament are referred to the
(a) Hobbes (b) Montesquieu Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
(c) Locks (d) Mussolini Select the correct answer using the code given
J & K PSC Pre 2022 below.
Ans.(b): Montesquieu in his book ‘The spirit of Laws’ (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
expressed his displeasure with the divine right of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
kingship. He advocated what we now know as UPSC IAS (PRE) 2021
separation of powers. Ans. (c): The Indian Parliamentary system is largely
4. Given below are two statements, one is labeled based on British Parliamentary system but it differ in
as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): following ways-
Assertion (A): Indian federalism is called 1. The British Parliamentary system is based on the
‘Quasi-federal’. doctrine of the Sovereignty of Parliament while in
Reason (R): India has an independent judiciary India, Parliament is not supreme, in India
with power of Judicial Review. Constitution is supreme. Indian Parliament enjoys
Select the correct answer from the codes given limited and restricted power due to the world's
below. largest written Constitution, federal system, judicial
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct review and Fundamental Rights.
explanation of A 2. Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India is related
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the to "Constitution Bench". It is Chief Justice of India,
correct explanation of A who is constitutionally authorized to constitute a
(c) A is true, but R is false Constitutional Bench. A Constitution Bench, which
(d) A is false, but R is true looks into specific cases that require interpretation
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020 of the Constitution, must consist of minimum of
Ans. (b) Quasi-federalism means an intermediate form five judges. Constitution Bench is set up to decide
of State between a unitary State and a Federation. substantial question of law with regard to the
Indian Constitution contains both features of a federal interpretation of the Constitution. Hence both the
Constitution and unitary Constitution. Hence it is called statements are correct.
Quasi-Federal. India has an independent judiciary with 7. Which of the following is not correct regarding
power of judicial review. Judicial review is the power of Indian political system?
the Supreme Court and the High Courts to examine the (a) Secular State
Constitutionality of the Acts of the Parliament and State (b) Parliamentary form of Government
Legislatures, executive orders of both Centre and State (c) Union policy
Governments. Hence both A and R are correct but R is (d) Presidential form of Government
not the correct explanation of A. UPPCS (Mains) SPl. GS. IInd Paper 2008
9
Ans. (d) India has Parliamentary form of government 13. Which one of the following in Indian polity is
where head of the State is President. The executive an essential feature that indicates that it is
authority of the President is exercised by the Prime federal in character?
Minister and his council of ministers. The council of (a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. (b) The Union Legislature has elected
8. Which of the following statement is correct? representatives from constituent units.
(a) Constitution of India is Presidential. (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected
(b) India is a virtual democracy representatives from regional parties.
(c) India is a noble democracy (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by
(d) India is a Parliamentary democracy Courts of Law.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2005 UPSC (IAS-Pre) 2021
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (a): Federal feature of the Indian Constitution
question. includes:
9. The Indian Parliamentary system is different • Constitutional Government
from British Parliamentary system in that
India has • Division of Power
(a) Both a real and a nominal executive • Bicameral Legislature
(b) A system of collective responsibility • Supremacy of the Constitution
(c) Bicameral legislature • Independent Judiciary
(d) The system of judicial review 14. The federal feature of the Indian Constitution
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1998 includes:
Ans. (d) The system of judicial review in Indian (1) Constitutional Government
Parliamentary system provides power to judiciary to (2) Division of Power
review and determine the validity of a law. It has been (3) Bicameral Legislature
taken from the Constitution of America. This special (4) Single Citizenship
feature is not available in British Parliamentary system. Select the correct codes given below :
10. Which one of the following points differentiates (a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (2), (3) and (4)
the Indian Parliamentary system from the (c) (1), (3), and (4) (d) (1), (2) and (4)
British Parliamentary system? Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
(a) Collective Responsibility
(b) Judicial Review Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(c) Bicameral Legislature 15. Which one of the following does not indicate a
(d) Real and nominal Executive prominent federal feature of the Indian State?
UPPCS (Mains) GS. IInd Paper 2010 (a) Allocation of financial resources
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Independent judiciary
question. (c) Supremacy of the Constitution
11. In the context of India, which of the following (d) Distribution of powers
principles is/are implied institutionally in the APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
Parliamentary government? Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the question.
Parliament. 16. Which one of the following is not a feature
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy of Indian federalism?
confidence in the Parliament. (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the
Select the correct answer using the codes given Centre and the States.
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) The federating units have been given unequal
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 representation in the Rajya Sabha.
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 (d) It is the result of an agreement among the
Ans. (a) Head of the State in Parliamentary form of federating units.
Government in India is President but Cabinet is headed IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Ans.(d): The Constitution of India has described India
All cabinet ministers should be member of either house as a ‘Union of States’, not a federation. It is not the
of the Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct. result of an agreement of the States to join the
Ministers hold office till they enjoy confidence in the federation. No State had the right to secede from it. The
parliament. Hence statement 2 is also correct. federation is a Union as it is indestructible. Rests of the
12. Under the Indian political system executive options given are features of the Indian federalism.
works under______? 17. There is a Parliamentary System of
(a) Judiciary Government in India because the
(b) Legislature (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(c) Election Commission (b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(d) Union Public Service Commission (c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
BPSC (Pre.) G.S. 2002 (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok
Ans. (b) India adopted Parliamentary form of Sabha
democracy in which executive works under legislature. IAS (Pre) G.S., 1997
10
Ans.(d) India has parliamentary system of government. Ans.(b): India adopted Parliamentary form of
In parliamentary system of government, government is Government, which works on principle of collective
responsible to Lok Sabha. responsibility. In India, Judiciary is independent and
18. The Swaran Singh committee considered the Constitution of India describes India as ‘Union of
question of States’.
(a) More authority to Punjab on the model of
Jammu & Kashmir Some characteristics of Indian Constitution shows
(b) The suitability of the Presidential form of federal characteristics of the Government such as
Government in India Division of Power Dual government and independent
(c) The precedence of Directive Principles over judiciary. The Presidential form of Government is not
Fundamental Rights characteristics of the Indian Constitution. Hence, option
(d) Administrative reforms (b) is correct.
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1993 23. Consider the following statements and choose
Ans. (c) The Swaran Singh committee considered the the correct answer by using the codes given
question of the precedence of directive principles over
Fundamental Rights. If there is conflict between below:
Fundamental Rights (FR) and Directive Principles of Assertion [A] : India is a democratic country.
State Policy (DPSP) then DPSP under Article 39B and Reason [R] : India has a Constitution of its own
39C has been given precedence over Fundamental Rights Codes :
under Articles 14 and 19. (a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the
19. Parliamentary Government works on the correct explanation of [A]
principle of- (b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the
(a) Division of power correct explanation of [A]
(b) Checks and balances (c) [A] is true but [R] is false
(c) Close relationship between judiciary and
executive (d) Both [A] and [R] are false
(d) Control of judiciary over executive UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016 Ans. (b) India is a democratic country because
Ans.(b) Parliamentary Governments work on Government is elected by people. India has it's own
the principle of checks and balances. The checks and constitution. Hence both assertion and reason are
balances is a system of horizontal distribution of power correct but reason is not correct explanation of (A).
between the different organs of Government, such as
legislature, executive and judiciary.
20. Which one of the following statements is Presidential System of
2.
correct regarding Parliamentary form of Government
Government?
(a) The legislature is responsible to Judiciary. 24. Which of the following institutes are
(b) The Legislature is responsible to Executive. considered necessary to promote ‘Unity among
(c) The Legislature and the Executive are Diversity’ in the Indian Federalism?
independent.
(d) The President is responsible to Judiciary (a) Inter-State Councils & National Development
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the Council
above (b) Finance Commission & Regional Council
BPSC (Pre) G.S 2019 (c) Unitary Judicial System & All India Services
Ans. (e) The Parliamentry form of government works (d) All of above
on the horizontal distribution of power, which means Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) 2016
President, Legislature and Judiciary all are Ans. (d) Indian Federalism is a unique example of
interdependent on each other and bounded by ‘Unity among Diversity’. Constitution of India is
constitution.
Hence, None of above options are correct and the supreme and power is divided between Centre and
legislature controls executive, that means the executive States. In case of any dispute between Centre and State,
is accountable to legislature. several provisions have been made by the Constitution.
21. In a Parliamentary system of the Government Inter-State Council is a body set up for strengthening
(a) Judiciary controls Executive Centre-State and inter State relationship.
(b) Executive controls Judiciary National Development Council is established for the
(c) Executive controls Legislature proper distribution of resources among States. Finance
(d) Legislature controls Executive Commission was created to define the financial
UPPCs (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010 relations between Centre and State Governments and
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above individual State Governments. Zonal Councils are
question.
advisory boards, meant to resolve irritants between
22. Which of the following is not characteristic of
the Indian Constitution? Centre and States and amongst States through free and
(a) Parliamentary Government frank discussions and consultations.
(b) Presidential Government Judicial system in India is independent and unitary in
(c) Independent Judiciary nature.
(d) Federal Government All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFS) also represent unity
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 among diversity in Indian Federalism.
11
 25. A Federal polity involves Ans. (d) In the federal system, there is two tier of
1. Relations between Union & States. Government (Center and State) with well assigned
2. Relations among States power and functions. The Center and State Government
3. Mechanism for coordination work in coordination with each other.
4. Mechanism for resolving disputes. 29. Which of the following features of federalism
Select your correct answer from the codes is/are not found in the Indian Constitution?
given below: (i) Representation of the States
Codes : (ii) Independent Judiciary
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) only 1, 2 and 3 (iii) Division of power between the Union and the
(c) only 1, 2 and 4 (d) only 2, 3 and 4 State Governments
UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd Paper 2010 (iv) Federal Judiciary
Ans. (a) Federalism is classically defined as a system of Select the correct answer using the codes given
governance where there is distribution of power below.
between two levels of government namely central and (a) Only (i) and (iv) (b) Only (ii) and (iii)
regional level. Each level of the Government has (c) Only (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)
distinct powers and responsibilities and has a separate Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
system of governance. The relationship between Union Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
and State are well defined in written Constitution. The question.
central and state governments both work together on a 30. India is a federal State, how?
variety of issues and programs by mechanism of (a) Independent Judiciary
coordination. In case of a conflict between the Union (b) Division of power between Center and State
and the State on any issue, the judiciary has the powers (c) Residual power of Center
to resolve the disputes. (d) Formation of Finance Commission
26. With reference to the federal system in India, Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2008
which of the statements is/are correct? Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
1. States have no right to secede from the Union question.
under the Constitution of India 31. India is an example of __________ state.
2. Just advocacy of secession will have the (a) Federal (b) Unitary
protection of freedom of expression (c) Quasi-Federal (d) Quasi-Unit
Select the correct answer from the codes given Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
below Ans. (c) : India is an example of Quasi-Federal state.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 32. Which of the following is a feature common to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 both the Indian Federation and the American
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 Federation?
Ans: (a) Article 1 of the Constitution of India asserts (a) A single citizenship
that India is ‘Union of States’. Here States have no right (b) Three lists in the Constitution
(c) Dual judiciary
to secede from the Union under the Constitution of
(d) A federal Supreme Court to interpret the
India. Hence statement 1 is correct. Just advocacy of
Constitution
secession will not have the protection of freedom of
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1993
expression under Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution
Ans. (d) The Federation of India has taken the concept
of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
of a federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
27. The Constitution of India declares India as from the Constitution of America.
(a) A voluntary Federation
33. Which of the following is correct?
(b) A Confederation
The main feature of a Presidential form of
(c) A Union of States Government is/are
(d) A Federation (a) The Head of the Executive is the President.
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016 (b) The President appoints his council of
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ministers.
question. (c) The President cannot dissolve the Legislature.
28. Which of the following determines that the (d) All of the above.
Indian Constitution is Federal? UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014
(a) A written and rigid Constitution Ans. (d) In Presidential form of Government, President
(b) An independent judiciary is the head of Government as well as the State. United
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with centre States of America is an example of Presidential form of
(d) Distribution of powers between Centre and Government. The President can appoint the members of
the States Cabinet and can be removed by him only.
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2006 The Legislature (the house of representative) cannot be
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1994 dissolved by the President.
12

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02.
Historical Background
of the Indian Constitution
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Under Company Rule question.
1. 4. With reference to the establishment of
(1773-1858)
Supreme Court, which of the statement is/are
correct?
Regulating Act, 1773 1. Supreme Court at Calcutta was established
1. Regulating Act 1773 was the first step due to by the Regulating Act of 1773
which- 2. Lemaister was the first Chief Justice of this
(a) Emphasized the British Parliament to make court
legislature for India Select the correct answer using codes given
(b) Separation of Executive from Legislature below:
(c) Separation of Executive from Judiciary Codes:
(d) Centralization of legislation (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
IAS (Pre) G.S. 1993 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) Regulating Act, 1773, a legislation passed by UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre), 2016
the British Parliament for the regulation of the (Held on 20/09/2020)
British East India Company’s in Indian territories. It
was the first intervention by the British Government in Ans. (a) The promulgation of Regulating Act of 1773
the company’s territorial affairs mainly due to East by the King of England paved the way for establishment
India Company’s mis-governance in Bengal. It of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Calcutta. The
recognized political and administrative functions of the Supreme Courts at Madras and Bombay were
East India Company for the first time. It laid down the established by King George – III on 26 December 1800
foundation of central administration in India. The main and on 8 December 1823 respectively. Hence statement
provisions of the Act were designation of the governor 1 is correct. Sir Elijah Impey was appointed as the first
of Bengal as the governor general of Bengal with Chief Justice of Supreme Court at Calcutta. Hence
supervisory powers over the presidencies of Madras and statement 2 is not correct.
Bombay. This Act provided for establishment of a
Supreme Court, with four Judges (one Chief Justice and Charter Act, 1813
three other Judges) at Calcutta in 1774. 5. Consider the following statements about 'the
2. Which of the following statements are correct Charter Act of 1813':
regarding Regulating Act of 1773? 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India
(1) First time this Act recognized the Company in India except for trade in tea and
administrative and political functions of the trade with China.
East India Company 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British
(2) It made the Governors of Bombay and Crown over the Indian territories held by the
Madras subordinates to the Governor General Company.
of Bengal. 3. The revenues of India were now controlled
(3) This Act laid the foundation for the central by the British Parliament.
administration in India Which of the statements given above are
(a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (2) and (3) only correct?
(c) (1) and (2) only (d) (1) and (3) only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above IAS (Pre) G.S. 2019
question. Ans.(a): The features of the charter Act 1813 were as
3. Under which of the following Act, Supreme follows :–
Court was established in Calcutta? 1. It abolished the trade monopoly of company in
(a) Regulating Act -1773 India except trade in tea and trade with China.
(b) Pitts India Act, 1784 2. It asserted the sovereignty of British Crown over the
(c) Charter Act, 1813 company's territories in India.
(d) Charter Act, 1833 3. It allowed Christian Missionaries to come to India
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2010 for the purpose of propagation of Christanity.

13
4. It provided for the spread of western education (3) The Governor General became the Viceroy of
among the inhabitants of the British territories in India
India and granted one lakh for education in India for (4) It abolished the Mahalwari System
the first time. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
5. It authorised the local governments in India to (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
person for not paying taxes.
6. Companies rule and trade in India extended for Ans. (c): Government of India Act, 1858 was the
another 20 years. aftermath of 1857 revolt. Major changes, which were
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct while the introduced by then British Government are as follows-
statements 3 is incorrect. 1. The British Parliament transferred the powers of the
6. What is not true in relation to the Charter Act,East India Company to the British Crown in order to
1813? ensure a more responsible management of Indian
affairs.
(a) It allowed Christian Missionaries to come to
India for the purpose of enlightenment.2. A member of the British Cabinet was appointed
(b) It asserted the sovereignty of the British Secretary of State for India and made responsible for
all matters related to the governance of India. He was
Crown over the company's territories in India.
given a council to advise him, called the "India
(c) This Act abolished the trade monopoly of the
Council". The Governor-General of India was given
East India Company including its tea trade.
(d) None of the above. the title of "Viceroy". Through these measures, the
British government accepted direct responsibility for
CGPSC Pre 2022
ruling India.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. 3. All the rulers of then India were assured that their
territory would never be annexed in future. They
7. Which Act of British Government granted One were allowed to pass on their kingdoms to their heirs,
lakh for education in India for the first time?
including adopted sons.
(a) Wood's dispatch 1854
4. It was decided that the proportion of Indian soldiers
(b) Charter Act 1813
in the army would be reduced and the number of
(c) Charter Act 1853 European soldiers would be increased.
(d) Indian Council Act 1892 5. The land and property of Muslims was confiscated on
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2009
a large scale and they were treated with suspicion and
Ans. (c) See the above explanation hostility due to suspicion of their involvement in
Charter Act, 1833 1857 revolt.
6. The British decided to respect the customary
8. By which one of the following Acts was the
religious and social practices of the people in India.
Governor General of Bengal designated as the
Governor General of India? 7. Policies were made to protect landlords and zamindars
(a) The Regulating Act and give them security of rights over their lands but
(b) The Pitt's India Act “Mahalwari System” was not abolished by this Act.
(c) The Charter Act of 1793 Source- NCERT
(d) The Charter Act of 1833 First Indian Councils Act, 1861
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 10. Which Act for the first time made it possible
Ans. (d) : The Charter Act of 1833 renamed the for Indians to take some share in the
position of the Governor-general of Bengal as the administration of their country?
Governor-General of India. Lord William Bentinck (a) Charter Act, 1833
became the first governor-general of India.
(b) Charter Act, 1853
(c) Government of India Act, 1858
Under Crown Rule (d) Indian Councils Act, 1861
2.
(1858-1947) UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2012
Ans. (d) The Indian councils Act of 1961 made a
Government of India Act, 1858 beginning of representative institutions by associating
9. Which of the following statements are correct Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided
regarding Government of India Act of 1858? that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-
(1) It transferred the administration from the East official members of his expended council. In 1862, Lord
India Company to the British Crown. Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to
(2) It ended the policy of annexation by the his legislative council, the Raja of Benaras, the
British Govt. Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.

14
 Third Indian Councils Act, 1909 13. The purpose of Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
(1919) was.
11. Which of the following is not the main
(a) To help general public
provisions of Morley-Minto Reform?
(b) To provide dyarchy
(a) To increase the number of seats in Legislative
(c) To help Scheduled Tribes
Councils
(d) To give special assistance to Hindus
(b) Government majority in Imperial legislative
UPPSC APO 2022
Council
(c) Communal and separate electoral system Ans.(a): The Montagu-Chelmsford were reforms
introduced by the British Government in India to
(d) Elected members were not permitted at gradually introduce self-governance institutions in
Imperial legislative Council India.
MPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2017 Hence, the main purpose of Montagu-Chelmsford was
Ans. (d) The Indian Councils Act, 1909, commonly to help general public.
known as the Morley-Minto Reforms was an Act of 14. ‘Diarchy’ was established in India by which of
the Parliament of the United Kingdom that brought the following?
about a limited increase in the involvement of Indians in (a) The Indian Council Act, 1909
the governance of British India. The main provisions of (b) The Government of India Act, 1935
the Morley-Minto Reforms are : (c) The Government of India Act, 1919
(i) The number of elected members in the Imperial (d) None of the above
Legislative Council and the Provincial Legislative Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
Councils was increased, the number of members in
Ans.(c): The Government of India Act 1919, was also
the central legislative council was raised from 16 to
known as Montagu Chelmsford Reforms. The features
60. of Act 1919 were as follows :–
The number of members in the provincial legislative 1. It introduced a system of diarchy (the system of
councils was not uniform. dual governance).
It retained official majority in the central legislative 2. It introduced bicameralism and direct election in the
council but allowed the provincial legislative councils country.
to have non official majority. 3. It clearly defined the jurisdiction of central and
(ii) The elected members were to be indirectly elected. provincial governments by demarcating and
The local bodies were to elect an electoral college separating the central and provincial subjects and
which in turn would elect members of provincial the central and provincial legislatures were
legislatures, who in turn would elect members of authorised to make laws on their respective list of
the central legislature. subjects. The provincial subjects were further
(iii) The Act introduced a system of communal divided into two parts Transferred and reserved
representation by accepting separate electorates for subject. The transferred subjects were to be
administered by Governor with the aid of ministers
the Muslims and legalized ‘Communalism’ and
responsible to the legislative council. The reserved
Lord Minto came to be known as the “Father of subjects on the other hand were to be administered
Communal Electorate”. by Governor and his executive council without
(iv) Powers of legislatures, both at the centre and in being responsible to the legislative council. The
Provinces were enlarged and the legislatures could reserved subjects basically includes police, land
now pass resolutions (which may not be accepted), revenue and administration of justice.
ask supplementary question, vote upon separate 15. The Government of India Act, 1919 was based
items in the budget but the budget as a whole could upon:
not be voted upon. (a) Morley-Minto Reforms
(v) One Indian was to be appointed to the Viceroy’s (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Report
executive Council (Satyendra Sinha was the first to (c) Ramsay MacDonald Award
be appointed as a law member in 1909). (d) Nehru Report
Government of India Act, 1919 Haryana PSC (Pre) G.S. 2014
12. By which of the following Acts, the system of Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
'Chamber of Princes' with 120 members was question.
created? 16. In the Government of India Act 1919, the
(a) Charter Act of 1853 (b) Act of 1919 functions of Provincial Government were divided
(c) Act of 1909 (d) Act of 1793 into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects.
Which of the following were treated as
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 "Reserved" subjects?
Ans. (b) : The "Chamber of Princes" with 120 members 1. Administration of Justice
was established in 1920, by King Emperor George-V's 2. Local Self-Government
proclamation on 23 December 1919, after the 3. Land Revenue
Government of India Act 1919. 4. Police
15
 Select the correct answer using the code given Government of India Act, 1935
below 21. Which of the following act was described by
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Jawaharlal Nehru as the 'Charter of Slavery'?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (a) Government of India Act of 1909
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2022 (b) Government of India Act of 1919
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Government of India Act of 1935
question. (d) Government of India Act of 1947
17. Which Act during the British Colonial Era (e) Answer not known
introduced 'Dyarchy' in British India? TNPSC (Pre) 2022
(a) Regulating Act, 1773 Ans. (c) : Jawaharlal Nehru denounced the
(b) Morley-Minto Reforms Act, 1909 Government of India Act 1935 as a new Charter of
Slavery.
(c) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919
22. Federal Court of India was established in
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
which year?
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 (a) 1935 (b) 1937
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 1946 (d) 1947
question. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015
18. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly Ans.(b): The Government of India Act 1935 provided
defined for the establishment of Federal Court, which was setup
(a) The separation of power between the in 1937.
judiciary and the legislature 23. Match list I with list II and select the correct
(b) The jurisdiction of the central and provincial answer from the code given below the list:
governments List I List II
(c) The powers of the Secretary of State for India A. Indian Council 1. Beginning of
and the Viceroy Act, 1909 Diarchy
(d) None of the above B. Indian Council 2. 1916
IAS (Pre.) G.S. 2015 Act, 1935
C. Lucknow Pact 3. Lord Minto
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
D. Indian Council 4. Provincial
question.
Act, 1919 Autonomy
19. Which of the following is/are the principal Code:
feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? A B C D
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive (a) 1 2 3 4
government of the provinces (b) 4 3 2 1
2. Introduction of separate communal (c) 2 4 1 3
electorates for Muslims (d) 3 4 2 1
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the UP-UDA/LDA Spl. (Mains) G.S. 2010
centre to the provinces Ans. (d): The correct match is as follows :–
Select the correct answer using the codes given List-I List-II
below : Indian Council Act, 1909 – Lord Minto
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Indian Council Act, 1935 – Provincial Autonomy
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Lucknow Pact – 1916
IAS (Pre.) G.S. 2012 Indian Council Act, 1919 – Beginning of Diarchy
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 24. When was interim government formed under
question. Introduction of separate communal electorates the leadership of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru?
for Muslims came through Government of India Act (a) July 1946 (b) August 1946
1909. Hence statement-3 is Incorrect while rest of (c) September 1946 (d) October 1946
Given Statements are correct. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2006
20. The Indian Legislature was made bi-cameral Ans. (c) The Interim Government under the leadership
for the first time by- of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru was formed on September
02, 1946, from the newly elected Constituent Assembly.
(a) Indian Council Act of 1892
(b) Indian Council Act of 1909 25. Which of the following Acts introduced ‘The
Principle of Constitutional Autocracy’?
(c) The Government of India Act of 1919
(a) The Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) The Government of India Act of 1935 (b) The Government of India Act of 1919
Himachal PSC (Pre) G.S 2010 (c) The Government of India Act of 1935
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) The Indian Independence Act of 1947
question. MPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2017
16
Ans. (c) The Principle of ‘Constitutional Autocracy’ (iv) It further extended the principle of communal
was introduced by the Act of 1935. By this Act, it representation by providing separate electorates for
vested the executive authority of provinces in the depressed classes, women and labour.
Governors. Similarity of the center, in the Governor (v) The India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment
general on the behalf of the British Crown. of a Federal Court.
26. Which Act provided for establishing a Public (vi) The supremacy of the British Parliament remained
Service Commission for both the Union and intact under the Government of India Act, 1935.
each Provinces? The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished the
(a) Government of India Act, 1909 Council of the Secretary of State for India, which
(b) Government of India Act, 1919 was created in 1858.
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 (vii) Burma was separated from India with effect from
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 April 1937. The 1935 Act provided for the creation
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 of two new provinces of Sindh and Orissa.
Ans. (c) : The first Public Service Commission at the 28. Which among the following introduced the
provincial level was the Madras Service Commission Provincial Autonomy in British India?
established in 1930 under 1929 Act of the Madras (a) Cabinet Mission
Legislature.
(b) Simon Commission
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the
(c) Government of India Act 1935
establishment of a Public Service Commission for
Union and each Provinces. (d) Government of India Act 1919
Accordingly, under the 1935 Act, seven Public Service 7th JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1
Commissions were established in 1937; for the Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Provinces of Assam (at Shillong), Bengal (at Calcutta), question.
Bombay and Sindh (at Bombay) Central Provinces, 29. By which of the following Acts was the India
Bihar and Orissa (at Ranchi), Madras (at Madras), Council abolished?
Punjab and North-West (at Lahore) and United
(a) Morley Minto Reform 1909
Province (at Allahabad).
(b) The Government of India Act 1919
27. Which among the following was not a salient
(c) The Government of India Act 1935
feature of the Government of India Act 1935?
(d) The Indian Independence Act 1947
(a) It marked the beginning of the Provincial
Autonomy UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) G.S. 2016
(b) The Act provided for an All India Federation (Held on 20/09/2020)
(c) It abolished Diarchy at the Provincial level Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
and introduced at the Centre question.
(d) Residuary subjects were allocated to 30. In the Federation established by the Govern-
Provincial Legislatures ment of India Act of 1935, residuary powers
RAS/RTS (Pre.) G.S. 2016 were given to the?
Ans. (d) The Government of India Act, 1935 (a) Federal Legislature
introduced federal system in India. It abolished India (b) Governor General
Council. Residuary subjects was given to Viceroy not to (c) Provincial Legislature
the Provincial legislature. Its salient features are as (d) Provincial Governors
follows:-
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2018
(i) The India Act, 1935 proposed to set up All Indian
Federation, comprising of the British Indian UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2008
Provinces and Princely States. The States were Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
absolutely free to join or not to join the proposed question.
Federation. The act divided the powers between the 31. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of
centre and units in terms of three lists – Federal the Government of India Act of 1935?
list, provincial list and concurrent list. Residuary (a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the
powers were given to the viceroy (Governor provinces
General).
(b) A bicameral legislature
(ii) Diarchy was abolished in the provinces and
introduced Provincial autonomy in it's place. (c) Provincial autonomy
(iii) The India Act, 1935 introduced Diarchy at the (d) An All-India Federation
Centre. The Federal Subjects were divided into two IAS (Pre) G.S. 2000
categories namely ‘reserved’ and ‘transferred’. Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
However, it did not came into operation at all. question.
17
32. By which one of the following Acts was created Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the Federal Court in India? question.
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861 39. Which one the following is not an important
(b) Government of India Act, 1909 and permanent constituent in the
(c) Government of India Act, 1919 Constitutional History of India as adopted in
(d) None of the above the Government of India Act, 1935?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2014 (a) A written Constitution for the country
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Elected representatives responsible to the
question. Legislature
33. Which of the following Acts provided for a (c) Envisaging a scheme of Federation
federal polity in India? (d) Nomination of official members to the
(a) Government of India Act, 1909 legislature
(b) Government of India Act, 1919 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2010
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 Ans. (a) The provision for the written Constitution for
(d) India Independence Act, 1947 India was first mentioned during Cripps Mission in
UPUDA/LDA (Pre) G.S. 2010 March 1942.Rest three provisions were made in
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Government of India Act, 1935.
question. 40. Match the items given in List-A with those
34. A “federal system” and “diarchy” at the given in List-B.
“center “was introduced in India by List-A List-B
(a) The Act of 1909 (b) The Act of 1919
(a) Members of 1. 1909 Act
(c) The Act of 1935 (d) None of the above
Legislature
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2013
gained the right
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above of discussing
question. about budget and
35. The provision for the establishment of All questioning on
India Federation was included in the administrative
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 matters.
(b) August offer, 1940 (b) Religious group 2. 1919 Act
(c) Government of India Act, 1919 interests were
(d) Cabinet Mission Proposal, 1946 given excessive
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2012 importance.
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Established dual 3. 1935 Act
question. government in
36. Which one of the following Acts led to the the states.
separation of Burma from India? (d) Established dual 4. Indian Councils
(a) The Indian Council Act, 1909 government at the Act, 1892
(b) Government of India Act, 1919 Centre
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 Codes:
(d) India Independence Act, 1947 (a) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2 (b) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2011
(c) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 (d) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. TSPSC Group-II Pre-11.11.2016 Paper-I
37. The Provincial autonomy was constituted Ans.(c): The correct match is as follows :–
under which Government of India Act?
(a) 1935 (b) 1932 Provisions Acts
(c) 1936 (d) 1947 Members of Legislature Indian Councils Act,
BPSC (Pre.) 2011 gained the right of discussing 1892
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. about budget and questioning
on administrative matters.
38. The distribution of powers between the Centre
and the States in the Indian Constitution is Religious group interests 1909 Act
based on the scheme provided in the were given excessive
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 importance.
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919 Established dual government 1919 Act
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 in the states.
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 Established dual government 1935 Act
IAS (Pre.) G.S. 2012 at the Centre
18
 Cabinet Mission, 1946 Ans.(a): The correct match is as follows :–
41. The Cabinet Mission was sent to India for Act Provisions
Indian Councils Act, 1909 – First time, separate
which of the following?
representation to the
1. To establish a national government. Muslim community
2. To work out a constitutional arrangement for Govt. of India Act, 1919 – Diarchy in the Provinces
the transfer of power Govt. of India Act, 1935 – Diarchy at the Centre
3. To work out the details of Jinnah's demand for India Independence Act, 1947 – The Crown no longer
Pakistan the source of authority
(a) 1 only 44. The British Parliament passed the Indian
(b) 2 only Independence Act in :
(c) 3 only (a) January1947 (b) June1947
(d) More than one of the above (c) July1947 (d) August 1947
(e) None of the above UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2012
68th BPSC 2022 Ans. (c) The British Parliament passed the Indian
Independence Act in 1947, which was later sanctioned
Ans. (b): Cabinet Mission was sent to work out a
by the British crown on July 18, 1947.
constitutional arrangement for transfer of power. It was
neither sent to establish the Government nor to work out 45. Consider the following statements regarding
details of Jinnah's demand for Pakistan. changes made by the Indian Independence Act
of 1947 in the position of the Constituent
Indian Independence Act, 1947 Assembly:
42. Which Act was sanctioned by British 1. The Constituent Assembly was made a fully
Parliament on 18th July, 1947? sovereign body.
(a) Indian Partition Act 2. The Constituent Assembly became the first
Parliament of free India.
(b) Indian Independence Act
3. When the Constituent Assembly met as a
(c) Draft Constitution Act
Legislative body it was chaired by Dr.
(d) Constitutional Amendment Act Rajendra Prasad.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are 4. The total strength of the Constituent
correct? Assembly came down to 299 as against 389.
(a) Only (a) and (c) (b) Only (a) and (d) Answer Options:
(c) Only (a) (d) Only (b) (a) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
MH PSC (Pre) 2022 (b) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct
th (c) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Ans. (a) : On 18 July, 1947 Indian Independent Act
was passed by British Parliament. This act also (d) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct
provided for the partition of India and creation of two Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
independence dominians of India and Pakistan. Ans : (c) Elections were held for the Constituent
43. Match the Pairs : Assembly in accordance with the Cabinet Mission Plan
Act Provision of 1946. Therefore, Constituent Assembly was a
sovereign body. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
A. Indian Councils I. The Crown no
By Indian Independece Act 1947 the constituent
Act, 1909 longer the source
assembly also became a legislative body which became
of authority
First Parliament of Free India. Hence, statement 2 is
B. Govt. of India Act, II. Diarchy at the also correct.
1919 Centre When Constitution Assembly met as legislative body it
C. Govt. of India Act, III. First time, separate was chaired by G.V. Malvankar. Hence, statement 3 is
1935 representation to incorrect.
the Muslim As per the Cabinet Mission Plan, 292 members of the
community Constituent Assembly were to be elected from
D. India Independence IV. Diarchy in the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, 93 members from
Act, 1947 Provinces Indian Princely States and 4 members from the Chief
A B C D Commissioners Provinces. However, as a result of the
partition under the Mountbatten Plan of 3 June, 1947, a
(a) III IV II I
separate Constituent Assembly was set up for Pakistan
(b) IV III II I and representatives of some Provinces ceased to be
(c) III IV I II members of the Assembly. As a result, the membership
(d) IV II I III of the Assembly was reduced to 299. Hence, statement
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 4 is correct.
19

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03.
Stages of Constitution Making
1. With reference to India polity, which one of the 3. Who among the following scholars writes like
following statements would you accept as this, "India as a secular state guarantees
appropriate ideas referring to 'Equality'? Constitutional freedom of religion to all
I. The primary of equality is safeguarded persons and does not assign a special position
defined and enforced by the courts of law to any particular religion"?
rather than by the Constitution as (a) C.F. Strong (b) B.R. Ambedkar
conceptualized by A.V. Dicey. (c) Alexandrowicz (d) Gajendragadkar
II. Article 14 of the Constitution of India Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
constitution only the concept of 'Equality Ans. (b): Dr. B.R. Ambedkar wrote, India as a secular
before the law' but does not mention the State guarantees Constitutional freedom of religion to
concept of 'Equal Protection of Laws'. all persons and does not assign a special position to any
particular religion.
III. Article 194 and Article 361A of the
Constitution of India are indicative of the fact 4. Which of the following statements about the
that equality in India is not absolute. framing of the Indian Constitutions is correct?
1. Pt. Nehru's objective resolution adopted by
IV. The theory of equality includes distinction
the Constituent Assembly had a bearing on
of merit but not distinction on account of
the framing of the Constitution
hereditary titles or nobility as propounded by
2. The Preamble serves very important
the Balaji Raghavan Case(1995). purposes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. The Constitution has been ordained by the
below: people of India.
(a) III and IV (b) I and III 4. The Head of the State is elected directly by
(c) II and III (d) I and IV the people.
APPSC (Pre) 2023 Select the correct answer from the codes given
Ans. (a) : AV Dicey conceptualized equality as the below:
equal subjection of all classes to the ordinary law of the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
land administered by ordinary law courts. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the four
Article 14 of the constitution of India constitutes UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010
concept of 'Equality before the law' as well as concept Ans. (a) As per the Constitution of India, Head of the
of 'Equal Protection of Law'. State is President of India, which has been elected by the
Article 194 and Article 361A of the constitution that members of an electoral college consisting of the elected
equality in India is not absolute. members of both the Houses of Parliament and the
elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States
In Balaji Raghavan case Supreme Court propounded
and the Union Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry.
that the theory of equality includes distinction of merit Hence President of India, which is head of the State, is
but not the distinction on account of hereditary titles or not directly elected by the people. Hence statement 4 is
nobility. incorrect. Rest all three statements are correct.
Thus, statement III and IV are correct. 5. Consider the following statements in respect of
2. The provision for Election Commission in India the Constitution Day :
Constitution was inspired by which of the Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated
following countries? on 26th November every year to promote
(a) Ireland constitutional values among citizens.
(b) United Kingdom (U.K.) Statement II : On 26th November, 1949, the
(c) United States of America (U.S.A.) Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R.
(d) None of the above
Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I India.
Ans. (b) : The provision for Election Commission in Which one of the following is correct in respect
India Constitution is inspired by United Kingdom of the above statements :
(U.K.). Election Commission is a constitutional body. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Article 324-329 Under Part XV of the constitution and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Provides for the provision of Elections. Statement-I.
20
 (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct Ans. (b) Features that have been borrowed from the
explanation for Statement-I. Constitution of other countries are-
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Countries Borrowed features
incorrect. Canada Idea of federation with a
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is strong Center,
correct. Distribution of powers
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 between Center and the
Ans. (c) : The constitution day is celebrated in India on States, Residuary
26 November every year to commemorate the adoption powers with the Center
of the Constitution of India and also to promote the Japan Concept of Procedure
constitutional values among the citizen of India. Established by law
6. Which one of the following statements best United Kingdom President as nominal
reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' head, Designation of
of a country? Prime Minister, Cabinet
(a) In determines the objective for the making of System of Ministers,
necessary laws.
Parliamentary type of
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and
Government , Bicameral
a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of Parliament( Rajya
government. Sabha and Lok Sabha),
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and Speaker in Lok Sabha,
social security. Council of Ministers
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 responsible to Lok
Ans. (c) : Function of a constitution is to set some limits Sabha, Single
on the functions of the government and what a Citizenship
government can impose on it's Citizens in terms of Germany Suspension of
rights. These limits are fundamental in the sense that the Fundamental Rights
government may never trespass them. during the emergency
7. Consider the following events and arrange France Concept of Republic,
these in correct chronological order starting Ideals of Liberty,
from the earliest to the last activity– Equality and Fraternity
(I) Appointment of the Drafting Committee Australia Concurrent list,
(II) Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted Language of the
(III) Date of commencement of Indian Constitution Preamble, Provision
(IV) Constitution Assembly first met regarding commerce
Select the correct answer from the code given and trade
below Ireland Concept of Directive
Code : Principles of State
(a) I, II, IV, III (b) IV, I, II, III Policy, Election of
(c) IV, I, III, II (d) III, II, I, IV President, Nomination
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 of members in the Rajya
Ans. (b) : The correct chronological order of the given Sabha
events are as follows– Russia (USSR) Five year Plan,
First meeting of Constitution Assembly–09– Fundamental Duties
December 1946 United States Preamble ,Written
Appointment of the Drafting Committee–29 August Constitution,
1947 Fundamental Rights,
Adoption and enaction of the Indian Constitution– Functions of the
26 November, 1949 President and the Vice
Date of commencement of the Constitution of President ,Independence
India–26 January, 1950 of Judiciary, Judicial
8. The concept of Concurrent List in Indian review ,Removal of
Constitution was borrowed from Supreme Court and
(a) Canada (b) Australia High Court Judges
(c) U.S.A (d) Great Britain South Africa Election of members of
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I the Rajya Sabha,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011, 12, 14, 16 Amendment of the
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2003 Constitution

21
9. From which country, the Indian Constitution 14. The concept of Fundamental Duties in Indian
has taken reference for the idea of the Constitution has been taken from-
Fundamental Rights?
(a) Ireland (a) American Constitution
(b) United States of America (b) British Constitution
(c) United Kingdom (c) Russian Constitution
(d) Canada (d) French Constitution
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 UP Lower (Pre) G.S., 2003
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
question. Ans.(c): The correct match is :–
10. Which of the following is/are correct pair/s Provisions Sources
with regard to acceptance in the Indian Fundamental Right USA
Constitution? Directive Principles of State Policy Ireland
A. America – Post of Vice President Residual power of Center Canada
B. Canada – The concept of 'Union' For Emergency power Germany
the Central Government
C. South Africa – Election method of Rajya 15. Which one of the following is NOT correctly
Sabha matched?
D. Ireland – Nomination method of the (Provisions) (Sources)
member of the Rajya Sabha (a) Fundamental Rights - USA
by the President who have
done special work in specific (b) Directive Principles of - Ireland
area State Policy
(a) Only A (b) A and C (c) Residual Powers of Center - Australia
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
(d) Emergency powers - Germany
MH PSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above UPPSC (Pre) G.S 2021
question. Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
11. The concept of Fundamental Rights has been question.
taken from the Constitution of which country?
(a) France 16. Which one of the following pair is wrongly
(b) Britain matched?
(c) United States of America (a) Emergency provisions -Weimar Constitution
(d) Russia (b) Concurrent List - Australia
UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2006, 2010 (c) Office of Governor -Govt. of India Act, 1935
UP RO/ ARO (Pre) G.S., 2014
(d) Federal System with Strong Central Tendency
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
- Austria
question.
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
12. Concept of Directive Principles of State Policy
of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed Ans.(a/d): Emergency provisions relating to suspension
from the Constitution of which country? of Fundamental Rights were taken from Germany
(a) Britain (b) U.S.A (Weimar Constitution) while emergency provisions are
(c) Ireland (d) Japan taken from Government of India Act, 1935. Hence both
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005 options (a) & (d) are wrongly matched.
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 17. Which of the following pairs is correctly
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1994, 1988, 1999, 2000 matched?
U.P. Lower (Pre.) Spl. G.S. 2003, 2010 (a) Single Citizenship–taken from Canada
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2003, 2010 (b) Preamble of the Constitution–taken from
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd Paper 2008 United Kingdom
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Concept of Republic–taken from France
question. (d) Suspension of Fundamental Rights during
13. Indian Federation closely resembles the Emergency–taken from Russia.
Federation of GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021)
(a) U.S.A (b) Australia Ans. (c): Republic, Ideals of liberty, equality and
(c) Switzerland (d) Canada fraternity in the Preamble was borrowed from France.
Uttarakhand RO/ARO (M) 2016 Single citizenship was borrowed from England.
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
question. was borrowed from Weimar Constitution, Germany.

22
18. Match List-I with list-II and select the correct 21. Concept of Federation in India is based on
answer: which country?
List – I List - II (a) U.S.A (b) Canada
(A) Directive Principle of 1. Australia (c) Australia (d) Germany
State Policy
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017
(B) Fundamental Rights 2. Canada
(C) Concurrent List of 3. Ireland Ans. (b) The concept of the Federal system of the
Union-State relations Indian Constitution is inspired by the Constitution of
(D) India as Union of 4. United Canada. The Constitution of India gives a federal
States with greater Kingdom structure to the Republic of India, declaring it to be a
powers to center ‘Union of States’.
5. U.S.A 22. The concept of ‘A Union of States” in the
Code: Indian Constitution has been derived from:
A B C D (a) The American Declaration of Independence
(a) 5 4 1 2 (b) The Australian Constitution
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) The British North – American Act
(c) 5 4 1 2
(d) 3 5 1 2 (d) The Swiss Constitution
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
Ans. (d) : Ans. (c) The concept of ‘A Union of States’ in the
Directive Principle of State Ireland Indian Constitution has been derived from the British
Policy North American Act (Canada).
Fundamental Rights USA 23. The system of judicial review exist in
Concurrent List of Union- Australia (a) India only (b) U.S.A only
State relations (c) India and U.S.A (d) U.K only
India as Union of States with Canada UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 1998, 2008
greater powers to center UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2006, 2012, 2013
19. Assertion (A) The Constitution of India has Ans. (c) Judicial review is the power of the Supreme
become the longest one. Court and the High Courts to examine the
Reason (R) The chapter on fundamental rights Constitutionality of the Acts of the Parliament and
has been borrowed from the model of American
State Legislatures, executive orders of both Centre
Constitution.
Choose the correct answer using the following and State Governments. The system of judicial
codes review exists in India and U.S.A. The concept of
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct judicial review in Indian Constitution has been
explanation of A adopted from the Constitution of U.S.A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the 24. Match List-I with list-II and select the correct
correct explanation of A answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false
List – I List – II
(d) A is false, but R is true
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015 (Constitutional (Source)
Provision)
Ans. (b) Constitution of India is the longest written
Constitution in the world. So assertion A is correct. (A) Fundamental Rights 1. British
Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model Constitution
of American Constitution. So reason R is also true but (B) Directive Principle 2. Canadian
reason R is not the correct explanation of assertion A. of State Policy Constitution
20. In giving representation to talent, experience (C) Cabinet Government 3. Irish Constitution
and service in the composition of the Council of
States, the Constitution makers of India were (D) Union-State 4. U. S. Bills of
influenced by the example of – relations rights.
(a) Irish Republic (b) Canada Code :
(c) U.S.A (d) Australia A B C D
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 1998 (a) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (a) In giving representation to talent, experience (b) 4 2 3 1
and service in the composition of the Council of States (c) 4 1 3 2
(Rajya Sabha), the Constitution makers of India were (d) 4 3 1 2
influenced by Irish Republic. RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S. 2015
23
Ans. (d) The correct match is- Ans. (c) : India that is Bharat shall be Union of States.
Fundamental Rights - U.S Bills of Rights The word Union is derived from Constitution of
Directive Principle - Irish Constitution Canada.
of State Policy 29. The idea of Indian Constituent Assembly was
put forward for the first time by
Cabinet Government - British Constitution
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) C. R. Das
Union-State Relation - Canadian Constitution
(c) G. B. Pant (d) M. N. Roy
25. Who has said it: ‘I have not to beg pardon in APPSC (Pre) 2023
connection with the allegation that in the draft
Ans. (d) : The Idea of Indian constitutuent Assembly
of the Constitution, a major part of the
was put forward for first time by M.N. Roy.
Government of India Act, 1935, has again been
30. Need for a constitution for free India was first
reproduced’? suggested by
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Sardar Patel (a) Motilal Nehru
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) M.N. Roy
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 (c) Subash Chandra Bose
Ans. (d) The above statement was quoted by Dr. B. R. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ambedkar. (e) Answer not known
TNPSC (Pre) 2022
26. What are true about Constituent Assembly?
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer to the explanation of above
(i) Constituent Assembly's first meeting was held question.
on 9th December, 1946.
31. Consider the following statements regarding
(ii) Its first permanent President was Dr. the Constituent Assembly of India.
Sachchindanand Sinha. (i) The final session of the Constituent
th
(iii) Muslim League bycotted first meeting of Assembly was held on 24 January, 1950.
Constituent Assembly. (ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was declared to be
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) duly elected to the office of President of
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) None of the above India in this final session.
(a) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
CGPSC Pre 2022
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
Ans.(b): The permanent President of Constituent (c) Only (ii) is correct.
Assembly was Dr. Rajendra Prasad while Dr. (d) Only (i) is correct.
Sachchidanand Sinha was its temporary and first (e) Question not attempt
president as he was the eldest member. Hence RPSC (Pre) 2023
statement-II is incorrect while rest of the statements are Ans.(b): The final session of the constituent assembly
correct. was held on 24th January, 1950 and Dr. Rajendra Prasad
was declared to be duly elected President of India in this
Constitution of the Constituent final session.
32. On 13th December, 1946 ______ moved the
Assembly, Sources, Process of Objective Resolution in the Constituent
1. Formation, Committees, Assembly of India.
Characteristics etc (a) Sucheta Kripalani
(b) Sarojini Naidu
27. Constitution of India came into force on: (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(a) November 26, 1949 (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
MH PSC (Pre) 2022
(b) January 26, 1950
Ans. (d) : Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru moved the
(c) August 15, 1950
objective resolution on 13th December, 1946. The
(d) None of the above objective resolution later came to be known as
CGPSC (Pre) 2023 Preamble.
Ans. (b) : Constitution of India was adopted by the 33. On 13th December, 1946 ________ moved the
Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949 and Objective Resolution in the Constituent
came into force on 26th January, 1950. Assembly of India.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani
28. "India, that is Bharat, shall be Union of (b) Sarojini Naidu
States", (Indian Constitution). The word (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
'Union' is derived from the Constitution of (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
which country? Maharashtra PSC 2022
(a) Australia (b) Switezerland Ans. (d) : On 13th December, 1946 Pandit Jawaharlal
(c) Canada (d) U.S.A. Nehru moved the Objective Resolution in the
UPPSC (J) 2023 Constituent Assembly of India.
24
34. Constituent Assembly of India was set up- Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Under the recommendations of Cripps mission question.
(b) Under the recommendations of Cabinet 38. When did the Constituent Assembly for
mission Undivided India meet for the first time?
(c) Under the recommendations of Indian (a) 9th Nov 1946 (b) 9th Dec 1946
Independence Act th
(c) 9 Oct 1946 (d) 9th Sep 1946
(d) Under the recommendations of Mountbatten
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
plan
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2004, 2008 Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 1st 2014 question.
U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S 2009 39. The members of the Constituent Assembly
Ans. (b) The idea of Constituent Assembly was given which drafted the Constitution of India were
by M.N. Roy in 1934. In September 1945, then newly (a) Nominated by the British Parliament
elected Labour Government in Britain expressed their (b) Nominated by the Governor General
intention to create a Constituent Assembly for India to (c) Elected by the Legislative Assemblies of
frame India’s Constitution. The Cabinet Mission (three various provinces
Cabinet Ministers namely Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir (d) Elected by the Indian national Congress and
Stafford Cripps and Mr. A. V. Alexander) was sent to Muslim League
India in March 1946 to process the formalities. The IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002
Cabinet Mission Plan was a statement made by the UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1993
Cabinet Mission and then Viceroy, Lord Wavell on
May 16, 1946, which contained proposals regarding the Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Constitutional future of India. question.
35. The Constituent Assembly was composed 40. Who was the first nominated Deputy Chairman
roughly on the lines suggested by of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mountbatten (a) T.T. Krishnamachari
(b) Cripps Mission (b) V.T. Krishnamachari
(c) Cabinet Mission (c) H.C. Mukherjee
(d) India Independence Act (d) Frank Anthony
APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017) MPPSC (Pre) 2020
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (d) : On the medical grounds, Dr. Sachchidananda
question. Sinha, then temporary Chairman of Constituent
36. Which of the following statements is correct Assembly, proposed the name of Frank Anthony as first
regarding the making of the Indian temporary Deputy Chairman of Constituent Assembly,
Constitution? which was unanimously accepted by the Assembly.
(1) Some of the Princely States were not 41. Which one of the following statements is
represented in the Constituent Assembly.
correct?
(2) Elections to the Constituent Assembly were
direct, but with a limited franchise (a) The Constitution Assembly of India was
(3) The Constituent Assembly also functioned as elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the
a provisional Parliament year 1946.
(4) Some of the Constitutional provisions came (b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar
into effect before 26th January 1950 Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Constituent Assembly of India.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) The First Session of the Constituent
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) The Constitution of India was adopted on
question. 26th January, 1950.
37. With reference to Indian History, the Members IAS (Pre) G.S., 2004
of the Constituent Assembly from the
Ans. (a) The Constitution Assembly of India was elected
Provinces were
by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946. Except
(a) Directly elected by the people of those
Provinces Mahatma Gandhi and M.A.Jinnah, all the prominent
(b) Nominated by the Indian National Congress political leaders of that time were members of the
and the Muslim League Constituent Assembly. The First Session of the
(c) Elected by the Provincial Legislative Constituent Assembly of India was held on December 09,
Assemblies 1946. Two hundred and seven representatives, including
(d) Selected by the Government for their nine women were present at the inaugural session. Its
expertise in Constitutional matters temporary President was Dr.Sacchidanand Sinha.The
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 second meeting of Constituent Assembly was held on

25
11th December, 1946. Its President was Dr.Rajendra 48. The first Session of the Constituent Assembly
Prasad. The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th was held on
November, 1949 and the members appended their (a) 16th August, 1947
signatures to it on the last meeting of the Constituent (b) 26th January, 1948
Assembly on 24th January, 1950. In all, 284 members (c) 9th December, 1946
actually signed the Constitution. The Constitution of (d) 26th November, 1946
India came to force on 26th January, 1950. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2009, 2011
42. The Constitution of India was adopted on UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1995
(a) 15th August, 1947 Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) 9th December, 1946 question.
(c) 26th November, 1949 49. President of the Constituent Assembly was-
(d) 26th January, 1950 (a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar (b) Dr.K.N.Katzu
UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 (c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad (d) C.Rajagopalachari
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (U.P.PCS., 1998, 2000)
question. Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
43. The Indian Constitution was enforced on question.
(a) 15th August 1947 (b) 26th January 1947 50. The inaugural session of Constituent Assembly
(c) 9 December 1950 (d) 15thAugust 1950
th
was presides by-
Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017 (a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (*): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Dr.Sachhidanand Sinha
question. (c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
44. Mention the correct date of the last meeting of (d) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
the Constituent Assembly of India. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013
(a) 26 Nov. 1949 (b) 5 Dec. 1949 Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 24 Jan. 1950 (d) 25 Jan. 1950 question.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
51. Who headed the States Committee (for
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above negotiating with states) under the constituent
question. Assembly in the making of the Indian
45. Indian Constitution was adopted by Constitution?
Constituent Assembly on- (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Sardar Patel
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 15 August, 1949 (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) A V Thakkar
(c) 2 October, 1949 (d) 15 November, 1949 J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
(UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2000, 2002, 2006) Ans.(c): Jawahar Lal Nehru headed the States
BPSC (Pre) 1996 Committee (for negotiating with states) under the
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Constituent Assembly in the making of the Indian
question. Constitution.
46. The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 52. Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct
November 1949 by the answer from the code given below-
(a) Constituent Assembly List-I (Constituent Assembly Committee)
(b) Governor General of India (A) Fundamental Rights
(c) Parliament of India (B) Steering
(d) British Parliament (C) Union powers
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2012 (D) Drafting
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above List-II (Chairman)
question. (i) B.R. Ambedkar
47. Who presided over the first meeting of Indian (ii) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Constituent Assembly? (iii) K.M. Munshi
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (iv) Sardar Patel
(b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru Code:
(c) B.R. Ambedkar (a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(d) Sachchidananda Sinha (b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2006 (c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
question. RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
26
Ans. (*): The Correct match should be as follows- Ans. (b) Dr.Rajendra Prasad was the chairman of the
List- I List-II Ad hoc Committee on the National flag.
(Constituent Assembly (Chairman) 58. Who was the Chairman of Advisory Committee
on Fundamental Rights and Minorities
Committee) constituted by the Constituent Assembly?
Fundamental Rights - Sardar Patel (a) Pandit Nehru (b) Sardar Patel
Steering - Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) B.N.Rao (d) Ambedkar
Union Powers - Jawaharlal Nehru MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2014
Drafting - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Ans. (b) Sardar Patel was the Chairman of Advisory
Note- As none of the options are correct, the question Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities
was deleted by the RPSC. constituted by the Constituent Assembly.
53. Who among the following was the chairman of 59. Who among the following was the chairman of
the Advisory Committee on Fundamental the Union Constitution Committee of the
Rights of the Constituent Assembly? Constitutional Assembly?
(a) Maulan Abul Kalam Azad (a) B.R.Ambedkar
(b) Rajendra Prasad (b) J.B.Kriplani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Aladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper) 2019 IAS (Pre) G.S., 2005
Ans. (d) : Vallabhbhai Patel was the chairman of the Ans. (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru was the chairman of the
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constitutional
Constituent Assembly. Assembly.
54. Who headed Provincial Constitution 60. Who among the following was appointed
Committee of Constituent Assembly? Constitutional adviser to the Constituent
(a) J.B. Kriplani Assembly?
(b) H.C. Mukherjee (a) B.R.Ambedkar (b) K.T.Shah
(c) A.V. Thakkar (c) B.N.Rau (d) A.K.Ayyar
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel U.P.P.C.S (Pre.) G.S.2014
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Ans. (c) Jurist B. N. Rau was appointed Constitutional
Ans. (d) : Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel headed Provincial Adviser to the Constituent Assembly. B.N. Rau
Constitution Committee of Constituent Assembly. prepared the original draft of the Constitution, which
55. As a member of the Constituent Assembly, later was scrutinized by Drafting Committee. Drafting
Sardar Patel did not lead which of the committee was set up on 29th August, 1947 under the
following committees? chairmanship of Dr. B R Ambedkar. The Drafting
1. Committee on Tribal and Excluded Areas Committee had seven members namely Alladi Krishna
2. Committee on Minority Affairs Swami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M
3. Committee on Fundamental Rights Munshi, Mohammad Saadullah, B.L. Mittar and D.P.
4. Committee on Devolution of Power to the Union Khaitan. Later on B.L. Mittar and D.P. Khaitan were
replaced by N. Madhava Rau and T.T. Krishnamachari
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
respectively.
(c) 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 61. Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee
of the Indian Constitution?
Ans. (c) : There was no such committee of Constituent (a) N. Gopalaswamy (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Assembly called Committee on Devolution of Power to
the Union. Rest of the committees were presided by (c) K.M. Munshi (d) N. Madhya Rao
Sardar Patel. Manipur PSC-2016
56. Who headed Steering Committee of Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Constituent Assembly? question.
(a) Jawaharlan Nehru (b) K.M. Mushsi 62. Who was the Constitutional advisor during the
(c) H.C. Mookerjee (d) Rajendra Prasad drafting of Indian Constitution?
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016 (a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar (b) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (d) : Dr. Rajendra Prasad headed Steering (c) B.N. Rao (d) K.M.Munshi
Committee of Constituent Assembly. UP Lower (Pre) G.S., 1998
57. Who was the chairman of the Ad hoc Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Committee on the National flag? question.
(a) C.Rajgopalachari 63. First draft of the Indian Constitution was
(b) Dr.Rajendra Prasad prepared by
(c) J.B.Kriplani (a) B.R.Ambedkar (b) B.N.Rao
(d) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar (c) K.Santhanam (d) K.M.Munshi
U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S.2008 U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2009
27
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (C) Member of the (iii) K.M.Munshi
question. Constituent Assembly
64. The number of members included in the Representing
Constitution Drafting Committee was Rajasthan’s princely
(a) Seven (b) Nine state
(c) Eleven (d) Thirteen (D) Chairman of Union (iv) H.C. Mukherjee
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2006 Constitution
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Committee
question. Code :
65. Who amongst the following was not a member (a) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv) (C)-(ii) (D)-(iii)
of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? (b) (A)-(iv) (B)-(iii) (C)-(i) (D)-(ii)
(a) Mohammad Sadullah (c) (A)-(i) (B)-(ii) (C)-(iii) (D)-(iv)
(b) K.M.Munshi (d) (A)-(iii) (B)-(iv) (C)-(i) (D)-(ii)
(c) A.K.Ayyar RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2013
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Ans. (b) First Vice President of the Constituent
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012 Assembly was H.C.Mookerjee. K.M.Munshi was
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above originally the only Congress member of Draft
question. Committee while V.T.Krishnamachari was member of
66. Who among the following were the members of the Constituent Assembly representing Princely State of
the drafting committee of the Constitution? Rajasthan. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of
(i) N. Gopalaswami Union Constitution Committee.
(ii) Jawaharlal Nehru 69. How much time the Constituent Assembly took
(iii) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar to frame the Constitution of India?
(iv) Sardar Patel (a) 2 years 11 months 18 days
Select the correct answer using the codes given (b) 2 years 7 months 23 days
below : (c) 3 years 4 months 14 days
Codes : (d) 3 years 11 months 5 days
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv) UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) Ans. (a) Constitution Assembly took 2 years, 11
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2014 months and 18 days to frame the Constitution of India.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 70. How many Sessions of the Indian Constituent
question. Assembly were conducted for the formulation
67. The Constituent Assembly set-up a Drafting of Indian Constitution?
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. (a) 7 (b) 11
B.R. Ambedkar on (c) 12 (d) 15
(a) 13th December, 1946 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
(b) 22nd January, 1947 Ans. (b) The Constituent Assembly took almost three
(c) 3rd June, 1947 years (two years, eleven months and eighteen days) to
(d) 29th August, 1947 complete its historic task of drafting the Constitution for
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 Independent India. During this period, it held eleven
Ans. (d) Drafting committee was set up on 29th August, sessions, covering a total of 165 days. Of these, 114
1947 under the chairmanship of Dr. B R Ambedkar. days were spent on the consideration of the Draft
Constitution.
68. Match list-X with list-Y and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the list : 71. Who said “The Assembly was the Congress
List-X List-Y and the Congress was India”?
(a) Austin (b) C.R Attlee
(A) First Vice President (i) V.T.Krishnachri
of the Constituent (c) Winston Churchil (d) Lord Mountbatten
Assembly UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S., 2013
(B) Originally the only (ii) Jawahar Lal Ans. (a) Granville Austin in his book ‘The Indian
Congress Member of Nehru Constitution’ wrote that “The Assembly was the
Draft Committee Congress and the Congress was India”.

28
 72. "Can you show me one free country where (b) Mahatma Gandhi
there are separate electorates? (c) Deendayal Upadhaya
........The British element is gone, but they have (d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
left mischief behind". MPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2015
Who among the following said the above Ans. (a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar termed Constitution as
mentioned statement in the Constituent sacred document. The Constituent Assembly on 29th
Assembly debates? August, 1947 formed a 7 member drafting committee in
(a) Somnath Lahiri the leadership of B.R. Ambedkar.
(b) Jawarlala Nehru 76. The first general elections under the Indian
(c) Sardar Vallah Bhai Patel Constitution was held in
(d) N.G. Ranga (a) 1949 (b) 1950
UPPSC (Pre) G.S 2021 (c) 1952 (d) 1953
Ans. (c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel used the above- MPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2015
mentioned statement in the Constituent Assembly
Ans. (c) The first general elections under Indian
debates. Constitution were held between October 25, 1951 to
73. Who was the first Finance Minister of March 27, 1952. About 1874 candidates and 53 parties
Independent India? contested for 489 seats.
(a) R K Shanmukhan Chetty (b) John Mathai 77. Who was the first Indian Governor General of
(c) C. D. Deshmukh (d) Liaquat Ali Khan India?
Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019 (a) Mountbatten
Ans. (a): R K Shanmukhan Chetty (1947-48) was the (b) C.Rajgopalachari
first Finance Minister of independent India. Liaquat Ali (c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
Khan (1946-47) was the Finance Minister of the interim (d) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
government. MPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2010
74. Which one of these was the first law minister of Ans. (b) C. Rajagopalachari (1948-1950) was the first
India? Indian Governor General of India. After that the post of
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru Governor General was abolished. Lord Mountbatten
(b) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar was the last British Governor General of India and the
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad first Governor General of Independent of India.
(d) T.T.Krishnamachari 78. What was the duration in the making of the
st India constitution ?
UPPCS (Mains) G.s. I Paper 2012
Ans. (b) B.R.Ambedkar was the first law minister of (a) 1 year 10 months and 12 days
India after independence. (b) 2 year 10 months and 5 days
Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister and (c) 2 year 11 months and 12 days
Foreign Minister of India. (d) More than one of the above
Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad was the First Education (e) None of the above
Minister of India. 68th BPSC 2022
T.T. Krishnamachari was Finance Minister from 1964- Ans. (c): The duration in the making of the India
1966. constitution was 2 years 11 months and 18 days. The
75. Who has termed Constitution a sacred supreme laws of India was drafted by the Assembly
document? from 1946 to 1950 and was finally adopted on 26th
(a) B.R. Ambedkar November 1949 with effect from 26th, January 1950

29

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04.
Major parts of the Constitution,
Schedule, Articles
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
1. Part answer using the code given below-
List-I List-II
1. Match the pairs correctly. A. Part XV of 1. Official
A. Part –I i. Fundamental Rights Constitution Language
B. Part –III ii. Pachayat Raj B. Part XVII of 2. Elections
C. Part –IX iii. Citizenship Constitution
D. Part –II iv. The Union and its C. Part XVIII of 3. Amendment of
territory Constitution Constitution
A B C D
D. Part XX of 4 Emergency
(a) iv ii iii i
Constitution Provisions
(b) iii i ii iv
Code -
(c) ii iii i iv
A B C D
(d) iv i ii iii
(a) 1 4 2 3
MH PSC (Pre) 2023
(b) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows :- (c) 2 1 4 3
Part-I - The Union and its territory (d) 4 3 1 2
Part-II - Citizenship
Part-III - Fundamental Rights
UPPSC (J) 2023
Part-IX - Pnachayati Raj Ans. (c) : The correct match is as follows:-
Part XV of constitution - Elections
2. Which among the following (Provision–Part of
Part XVII of constituion - Official language
the Constitution) is not correctly matched?
(a) Tribunals–Part XI Part XVIII of constitution - Emergency
provided
(b) The Union Territories–Part VIII
Part XX of constitution - Amendment of constituion
(c) The Scheduled and Tribal Areas–Part X
(d) Official Language–Part XVII 5. Indian Constitution is divided in to how many
parts?
UPPCS (Pre) 2023
(a) Sixteen parts (b) Twenty two parts
Ans. (a) : The correct match is are follows :-
(c) Twenty four parts (d) Twenty five parts
Parts of Constitution Provision
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012
Part XI Relation between the
U.P. Lower Pre. 2004-05
Union and the State
UPPCS (Mains) SPl. G.S. IInd 2008
Part VIII The Union Territories
Ans. (b) When the question was asked the Constitution
Party X The Scheduled and Tribal
of India was divided into 22 Parts. Further three sub
areas
Parts have been added namely IVA (Fundamental
Part XVII Official Language. Duties), IX A (Municipalities) and XIVA (Tribunals).
3. Which of the following (Part of Indian Now it contains 25 parts.
Constitution subject) is not correctly matched? 6. Which one of the following is NOT correctly
(a) Part-III-fundamental Rights matched?
(b) Part-IV- Directive Principles of state Policy (a) Fundamental Duties – Part IVA
(c) Part-V- Fundamental Duties (b) The States – Part V
(d) Part-II-Citizenship (c) Attorney General of India – Part XIII
UPPSC (J) 2023 (d) Services under the Union – Part XIV
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above and States
question. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020
30
Ans.(c): Article 76 under Part V of the Constitution Ans. (d) The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment)
asserts that the President shall appoint a person who is Act, 1976 inserted Part XIV A in the Constitution
qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court consisting of Article 323A and 323B. Article 323A
to be Attorney General for India. Rest is correctly provides for the establishment of Administrative
matched. Tribunals for adjudication or trial of disputes and
7. Consider the following subjects and arrange complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of
service of persons appointed to public services. Article
them into sequential order as mentioned in the
323B makes provision for the creation of tribunals for
Constitution. adjudication or trial of disputes, complaints and
I. The union and its territory offences connected with tax, foreign exchange,
II. Fundamental duties industrial and labour disputes, land reforms, ceiling on
III. Citizenship urban property, elections to Parliament and State
IV. Directive Principles of State Policy Legislature. Whereas part X is related to the scheduled
Select the correct answer from the code given and Tribal Areas.
below: 10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Code: answer by using the codes given below:
(a) II, IV, I, III (b) I, III, IV, II List – I List –II
(c) III, I, II, IV (d) IV, II, III, I A. Part IX of the 1. The Union
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022 Indian Constitution Territories
Ans. (b): The correct sequential order of the given B. Part VIII of the 2. The
subjects, as mentioned in the Constitution is as follows- Indian Constitution Municipalities
Part I – The Union and its Territories (Article 1 – 4) C. Part IV A of the 3. The
Part II – Citizenship (Article 5 -11) Indian Constitution Panchayats
Part III – Fundamental Rights (Article 12 – 35) D. Part IX A of the 4. Fundamental
Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy Indian Constitution Duties
(Article 36 – 51) Codes:
Part IV A – Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
8. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
(b) 1 2 3 4
answer from the codes given below-
(c) 2 4 1 3
List-I List-II
(d) 4 3 2 1
(Part of the (Deals with subject)
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2009
Constitution)
Ans. (a) Part IX of the Constitution is related to
(A) Part I (1) Citizenship
Panchayats, Part VIII of the Constitution is related to
(B) Part II (2) Fundamental Rights the Union Territories, Part IV A of the Constitution is
(C) Part III (3) Directive related to Fundamental Duties and Part IX A of
(D) Part IV (4) The Union and its the Constitution is related to Municipalities.
Territory 11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Code : answer by using the codes given below:
(A) (B) (C) (D) List – I List -II
(a) (2) (3) (1) (4) A. Fundamental 1. Part IVA,
(b) (4) (3) (2) (1) Rights Constitution of
(c) (4) (1) (3) (2) India
(d) (4) (1) (2) (3) B. Fundamental 2. Part III, Constitution
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 Duties of India
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above C. Union 3. Part XVIII,
question. Constitution of
India
9. Which of the following is NOT correctly
D. Emergency 4. Part V, Constitution
matched as per Constitution of India?
Provisions of India
(a) The Panchayats – Part IX
Codes:
(b) The Municipalities – Part IX A A B C D
(c) The Cooperative – Part IX B (a) 2 1 4 3
Societies (b) 3 4 1 2
(d) Tribunals – Part X (c) 2 1 3 4
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre), 2016 (d) 4 3 2 1
(Held on 20/09/2020) UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2013
31
Ans. (a) Fundamental Rights are mentioned in part III, Codes :
Fundamental Duties are in part IVA, Union is in part V A B C D
and Emergency Provisions are mentioned in part XVIII (a) 3 4 1 2
of the Indian Constitution. (b) 1 2 3 4
12. Part V of the Constitution is NOT related with (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) The Executive of the Union (d) 2 1 4 3
(b) Parliament
UP RO/ ARO (Pre) G.S., 2013
(c) Executive of States
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India Ans.(c): The correct match is as follows:–
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II Part Provisions
Ans. (c) : The title of the Part V of the Constitution is Part XV of the Constitution Elections
“The Union”. Part V of Indian Constitution deals with Part XVI of the Constitution Special provisions
subjects related to Union government under Articles 52 relating to certain cases
to 151. Executives of States come under Part VI of the
Part XVII of the Constitution Official Language
Constitution under Article 152 to 237.
Part XVIII of the Indian Emergency Provisions
13. Part XVI (Article 330 to 342) is related to-
(a) Administrative Tribunals Constitution
(b) All India Services 16. Union-State relationship has been mentioned in
(c) Finance Commission which part of the Constitution?
(d) Reservation of Schedule Caste, Schedule (a) Part X (b) Part XI
Tribes in House of People and representation (c) Part XIV (d) Part XV
of Anglo-Indian community UP RO/ ARO (Pre) G.S., 2014
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2004 UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd Paper, 2004
Ans. (d) Part XVI (Article 330 to 342) of the Ans. (b) Union-State relationship has been mentioned
Constitution is related to special provisions relating to in Part XI of the Constitution.
certain classes. Article 330 is about reservation of seats
for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok 17. In which Part of the Constitution of India we
Sabha, Article 331 is representation of the Anglo-Indian find the provisions relating to citizenship?
community in the Lok Sabha. (a) Part I (b) Part II
14. Which one of the following is correctly (c) Part VII (d) Part IX
matched? Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016
(a) IInd part of the Constitution: Fundamental UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
Right Ans: (b) Citizenship is mentioned in part II of the
(b) IIIrd part of the Constitution: Citizenship Constitution.
(c) IVA part of the Constitution: Fundamental
Duties 18. The concept of three layered Panchayat is
(d) Vth part of the Constitution: Directive mentioned in which part of our Constitution?
Principle of State Policy (a) Part IX (b) Part X
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2007 (c) Part XI (d) Part XII
Ans. (c) Fundamental Rights are in part III, Citizenship U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013
is in part II and Directive Principle of State Policy is in RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2015
Part IV. Fundamental Duties are in part IVA. Hence Ans. (a) PART IX of the Constitution envisages a three-
option (c) is the correct answer. The Union Government tier system of Panchayats, namely (a) The village level
are in Part V of the Constitution. (b) The District Panchayat at the district level (c) The
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Intermediate Panchayat which stands between the
answer by using the codes given below : village and district Panchayats in the States where the
List – I List –II population is above 20 lakhs.
A. Part XV of 1. Emergency 19. Consider the following statements:
the Constitut Provisions 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
ion
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of
B. Part XVI of 2. Official Language
the India in all.
Constitution 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and twelfth schedules
C. Part XVII of 3. Special provisions were added to Constitution of India by the
the Constitut relating to certain Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
ion cases Which of the statements given above is/are
D. Part XVIII 4. Elections correct?
of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
Indian Const (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
itution IAS (Pre) G.S., 2005
32
Ans: (c) Constitution of India has 22 parts hence
statement 1 is incorrect. There are 395 Articles in the 2. Schedule
Constitution of India. Therefore statement 2 is also
incorrect. 9th Schedule was added by first Amendment, 22. With reference to the Ninth Schedule of the
10th Schedule was added by 52nd Amendment, 11th Constitution of India consider the following
Schedule was added by 73rd Amendment and 12th statements:
Schedule was added by 74th Amendment. Hence I. It was intended to protect Central and State
laws that are included in it from judicial review
statement 3 is correct. on the ground of violation of Fundamental
20. Consider the following subjects and arrange rights.
them into sequential order as mentioned in the II. The entries included in it are not restricted
Constitution. to the subject of land reforms and abolition of
the zamindari system alone.
I. The union and its territory
III. Article 31B carries a retrospective effect
II. Fundamental duties but it has ceased to be operative after the 'I.R.
III. Citizenship Coelho Case' (2007).
IV. Directive Principles of State Policy IV. The entries incorporated in it are only done
Select the correct answer from the code given so, by the power of the Central Government.
below: Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Code: (a) II and IV (b) I, II and IV
(a) II, IV, I, III (b) I, III, IV, II (c) II, III and IV (d) I and II
(c) III, I, II, IV (d) IV, II, III, I APPSC (Pre) 2023
UPPCS Pre 2022 Ans. (d) : The Ninth Schedule of Indian constitution
Ans. (b): The correct sequential order of the given contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be
challenged in courts.
subjects, as mentioned in the Constitution is as follows-
It was intended to protect Central and State laws that are
Part I – The Union and its Territories (Article 1 – 4) included in it from judicial review on the ground of
Part II – Citizenship (Article 5 -11) violation of Fundamental rights.
Part III – Fundamental Rights (Article 12 – 35) The entries included in it are not restricted to the subject
Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy of land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system
alone.
(Article36 – 51)
Article 31 B provides protection to acts and regulations
Part IV A – Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) included in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct and invalidated on grounds of violation of
answer using the codes given below the lists. fundamentals rights.
The Ninth Schedule primarily contains laws related to
List-I List-II land reforms, however some other laws like reservation
A. Citizenship 1. Part-XV are also included.
B. Fundamental duties 2. Part-XVIII In IR Coelho case it was held that all laws would be
open to Judicial Review if they violated basic structure
C. Emergency Provisions 3. Part-II of the constitution. The laws placed under Ninth
D. Election 4. Part-IV- A Scheduled after April 24, 1973 shall be open to
challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights
Codes: guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the
A B C D constitution.
(a) 3 4 2 1 23. Match the following Schedules of the Indian
(b) 2 3 1 4 Constitution (List-I) with their subject matters
(c) 4 1 3 2 (List-II):
(d) 1 3 2 4 List-I List-II
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II A. Fourth Schedule 1. Forms of Oath or
Affirmations
Ans.(a): The correct match is as follows:– B. Eleventh 2. Languages
(Subject) (Part) Article Schedule
C. Eighth Schedule 3. Powers of
Citizenship II 5 – 11
Panchayats
Fundamental duties IV-A 51-A
D. Third Schedule 4. Allocation of
Emergency Provisions XVIII 352-360 Seats in the
Election XV 324-329 A Council of States

33
 Select the correct answer using the codes given Fifth Schedule of Indian - Administration
below: Constitution of Schedule
A B C D Areas
(a) 1 3 2 4 Nineth Schedule of India - Land Reform
(b) 4 3 2 1 Constitution Laws
(c) 2 3 4 1
Tenth Schedule of Indian - Anti-defection
(d) 1 2 4 3
Constitution laws
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
26. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows :-
1. Residuary subjects are the subjects that are
List-I List-II not included in the three lists of the 7th
Fourth Schedule - Allocation of Seats in the schedule of the Constitution.
Council of States 2. According to Article 248, both the union
Eleventh Schedule - Powers of Panchayats Parliament and state legislature can make laws
Eighth Schedule - Languages on these subjects.
Third Schedule Forms of Oath or 3. Space technology is an example of a
Affirmations residuary subject.
24. The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is How many of the statement given above are
related to the administration of Tribal areas of- correct?
(a) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura & (a) Only one statement is correct.
Mizoram
(b) Only two statement are correct.
(b) Assam, Tripura, Nagaland & Mizoram
(c) Assam, Nagaland, Meghalaya & Mizoram (c) All three statements are correct.
(d) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram (d) None of the statement is correct.
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled) (e) Question not attempted
Ans. (d) :The 6th Schedule of Indian constitution is Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
related to the administration of Tribal areas of Assam, Ans. (b) : Residuary subjects are the subjects that are
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. not included in the three lists of 7th Schedule of Indians
25. Match List-I with List-II: Constitution.
List-I List-II As per Article 248 of Indian Constitution only
parliament (Not State Legislature) can make laws on
A Second Schedule i. Administration the residuary subjects.
. of Indian of Schedule
Space technology is an example of a residuary subject.
Constitution Areas
Hence, only two pairs are correctly matched.
B. Fifth Schedule ii. Comptroller &
of Indian Auditor 27. Consider the following pairs:
Constitution General 1. Establishment of standard of weight and
measures : Union List
C Nineth Schedule iii. Anti-defection
. of India laws 2. Adoption and succession : State List
Constitution 3. Betting and gambling : Concurrent List
How many of the following pairs are correct?
D Tenth Schedule iv. Land Reform
. of Indian Laws (a) Only one pair
Constitution (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: (d) None of the pairs
(a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (e) Question not attempted
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
(c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii Ans. (a) : The correct match is as follows :-
(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i Subject List
(e) Question not attempted Establishment of Union List
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023 Standard of Weight and
Ans. (c) : Measures
List-I List-II Adoption of Succession Concurrent List
Second Schedule of Indian - Comptroller & Betting and Gambling State List
Constitution Auditor General Hence, only one pair is correctly matched.
34
28. In order to provide Constitutional protection, Schedule 6- Provisions as to the Administration of
State land reforms are added to Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya,
(a) 7th Schedule (b) 9th Schedule Tripura and Mizoram
th
(c) 8 Schedule (d) 10th Schedule Schedule 7- Distribution of Legislative Power [Union
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 2003 List (98), State List (59), Concurrent List (52)]
Ans. (b) State land reforms were added to the 9th Schedule 8- Languages
schedule of the constitution to provide them Schedule 9- Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
constitutional protection. (Land Reforms) (1st Amendment, 1951)
This schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Schedule 10- Provisions as to disqualification on
Amendment in 1951 to protect the law included in it ground of defection (52nd Amendment, 1985)
from Judicial Scrutiny on the ground of Violation of Schedule 11- Powers, authority and responsibilities of
Fundamental Right. Panchayats (73rd Amendment, 1993)
29. Which of the following schdule of the Schedule 12- Powers, authority and responsibilities of
Constitution of India was added to the Municipalities (74th Amendment, 1993)
Constitution by the first Constitution 31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Amendment? answer from the codes given below the lists :
(a) Sixth (b) Tenth List – I List –II
(c) Ninth (d) Seventh A. 7th Schedule 1. Language
(e) Question not attempt B. 8th Schedule 2. Disqualification on
RPSC (Pre) 2023 ground of defection
Ans.(c): The 9th schedule was added by the first th
C. 9 Schedule 3. Distribution of
constitutional amendment Act, 1951. It was related to legislative power
agrarian reform and to abolish the Zamindari system. D. 10th Schedule 4. Validation of certain
The laws included in the 9th schedule are immune to Articles
being challenged in the court on grounds of
Codes:
inconsistency with the fundamental rights guranteed by
the constitution of India. A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
30. Which one of the following Schedules of the
(b) 2 3 4 1
Constitution of India contains provisions
(c) 3 1 4 2
regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule (d) 4 2 1 3
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S, 2016
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014 Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of above
Himachal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010 question.
Ans. (d) Basically, Schedules are list which contains 32. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
additional information which is not mentioned in Schedule of the Constitution of India, which
Articles. Originally there were eight Schedules in the one of the following statements best reflects the
Indian Constitution. Four more Schedules were added consequence of it?
through Amendment. Twelve Schedules in the Indian (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
Constitution are- tribal people to non-tribal people.
Schedule 1- The States, Union Territories (b) This would create a local self-governing
Schedule 2- Provisions (emoluments) as to the body in that area.
President and the Governors of States, Speaker and the (c) This would convert that area into a Union
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman and Territory.
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Speaker and (d) The State having such areas would be
Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the declared a Special Category State.
Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative IAS (Pre) G.S, 2022
Council of a State, Judges of the Supreme Court and of Ans. (a): The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals
the High Courts, Comptroller and Auditor-General of with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as
India well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other
Schedule 3- Forms of Oaths and Affirmations than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Schedule 4- Allocation of seats in Council of States Mizoram. If any specific area is brought under the
(Rajya Sabha) provisions of 5th scheduled of the Constitution, it will
Schedule 5- Provisions as to the Administration and prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal
Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes people.

35
33. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
India can the transfer of tribal land to private question.
parties for mining be declared null and void? 37. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule India contains
(c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule (a) Salaries of the President and Vice President
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019 (b) Tribal Areas, Scheduled Areas
Himachal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 (c) Union list, State list, Concurrent list
Ans.(b): There are provisions regarding administration (d) Languages
and control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes in Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022
the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. The Constitution Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
provides autonomy to tribal areas in matters of
38. Which one of the following Schedules of the
governance under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules. In
Constitution of India contains provisions
Samatha Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh and Others (1997)
regarding Anti-Defection Act?
case, Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
land to private parties for mining was null and void
under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. (c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1998
34. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
in order to Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st, 2012
(a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes BPSC (Pre) 1996
(b) Determine the boundaries between States Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
(c) Determine the powers, authority and 39. Match the following Schedules and subjects
responsibilities of Panchayats they deal with:
(d) Protect the interests of all the border States 1. Schedule 3 – Oath and affirmation
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2008, 2015 2. Schedule 4 – Seats allotted to Rajya Sabha
Ans.(a): The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth 3. Schedule 5 – Division of Powers
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in 4. Schedule 8 – Languages
order to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. How many pairs given above is/are correctly
According to Article 244(1) of the Constitution, The matched?
provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pair
administration and control of the Scheduled Area and (c) Only three pair (d) All the four pair
Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of J & K PSC Pre 2022
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. 6th Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of above
Schedule is related to Administration of tribal areas in question.
the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. 40. How many Schedules are there in the
35. Which one of the following pairs (Schedule – Constitution of India?
Subjects) is not correctly matched? (a) Twelve (b) Eight
(a) Ninth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the (c) Ten (d) Fourteen
Council of States Manipur PCS – 2013
(b) Third Schedule – Forms of Oaths or MPPSC (Pre) G.S, 2010
Affirmations
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
(c) Eight Schedule – Languages
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(d) Tenth Schedule – Provisions as to
correct answer from the code given below the
disqualification on ground of defection
lists.
UPPCS (Pre) 2023
List-I List-II
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above (Schedule) (Subject)
question. A. Third Schedule 1. Allocation of seats in
36. The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance the Council of States
and protection of the interests of which specific B. Fourth Schedule 2. Forms of Oath or
group of people? Affirmations
(a) Scheduled Castes C. Seventh Schedule 3. Languages
(b) Religious Minorities 4. Eighth Schedule 4. List of subject matter
(c) Scheduled Tribes of laws to be made by
(d) Linguistic Minorities the Parliament and by
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 State Legislatures
36
 Code: 46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
A B C D answer from the codes given below the list-
(a) 4 3 1 2 List-I List-II
(b) 3 4 2 1 (A) 5thSchedule (1) Union list, State list
(c) 2 1 4 3 and Concurrent list
(d) 1 2 3 4 (B) 6th Schedule (2) Administration and
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022 Control of Scheduled
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of above question. Areas and Scheduled
42. Which of the following pairs are correctly Tribes
matched? (C) 7thSchedule (3) Languages
(1) Fourth Schedule–Allocation of seats in the (D) 8thSchedule (4) Administration of
Rajya Sabha Tribal Areas in the
(2) Tenth Schedule–Provisions relating to the
Disqualification of members in legislative bodies. State of Assam,
(3) Seventh Schedule–Division of powers Meghalaya, Tripura
between Centre and State. and Mizoram
(4) Sixth Schedule–Provisions relating to the Codes:
administration of Tribal areas in some states. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (1) and (3) only (b) (2) and (4) only (a) (2) (4) (1) (3)
(c) (2), (3) and (4) only (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) (3) (1) (4) (2)
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) (c) (2) (3) (4) (1)
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above (d) (3) (1) (2) (1)
question. UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
43. The Provision of three legislative lists is found Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
in the following Schedule of the Constitution-
(a) VI (b) VII 47. Match the List–I with List–II and select the
(c) VIII (d) None of the above correct answer from the codes given below:
UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021 List–I List–II
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of above A. 7th Schedule 1. Languages
question. B. 8th Schedule 2. Disqualification on
44. Which among the following Schedules of the the ground of
Indian Constitution is related with the defection
distribution of powers between the Union and C. 9th Schedule 3. Union, State and
States? Concurrent lists
(a) Schedule VIII (b) Schedule VII
D. 10th 4. Validation of
(c) Schedule XI (d) Schedule XIV Schedule certain Acts
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
Codes:
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
A B C D
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
(a) 4 2 1 3
question.
(b) 3 1 2 4
45. Match the following:
(c) 2 3 4 1
Schedule Subject
(d) 3 1 4 2
(A) First Schedule (1) Division of powers
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre), 2016
between Union and
(Held on 20/09/2020)
States
(B) Eleventh Schedule (2) Languages Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of above
question.
(C) Seventh Schedule (3) Names of States and
Union Territories 48. The second Schedule of the Indian Constitution
mentions salary, allowances and other
(D) Eighth Schedule (4) Panchayats
privileges of certain officials. Which one of the
Codes : following is not amongst those officials?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) The Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) The Deputy Chairman of Legislative Council
(b) 1 3 4 2 (c) The Attorney General of India
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of
(d) 3 1 4 2 India
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of above question. Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
37
49. The territorial extent of the Indian States and Rights. The Parliament has the power to place a
Union Territories is prescribed in the particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
(a) First Schedule of the Constitution Hence statement 1 is correct. In I.R. Coehlo case, nine
(b) Second Schedule of the Constitution Judge Constitutional bench of Supreme Court held that
(c) Third Schedule of the Constitution any law placed under Ninth Schedule after April
(d) Fourth Schedule of the Constitution 23,1973 are subject to scrutiny of Court if they violated
Fundamental Rights and thus put the check on the
Manipur PSC-2016
misuse of the provision of the Ninth Schedule by the
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above legislative. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
question.
54. The Autonomous District Council under the 6th
50. Which one of the following Schedules of the schedule of the Constitution of India is not
Indian Constitution lists the names of states
operative to which of the following states of
and specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second North East India?
(c) Third (d) Fourth (a) Meghalaya (b) Assam
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2005 (c) Nagaland (d) Tripura
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of above question. UPPSC (J) 2023
th
51. Which one of the following statement correctly Ans. (c) : As per 6 Schedule, the administration of
describes the Fourth Schedule of the tribal areas in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Constitution of India? Tripura and Mizoram have been constituted as
(a) It lists the distribution of power between the autonomous districts, But they do not fall outside the
Union and the States executive authority of the State Concerned.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the 55. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
Constitution
Constitution of India during the prime
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the
ministership of
administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001 (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Morarji Desai
UPPCS Mains G.S. IInd 2015 UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of above question. Ans:(a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
52. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is 56. Prevention of cruelty to animal is listed in
related to – which list of the Indian Constitution-
(a) Panchayati Raj (b) Municipality (a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Union-State relations (d)None of the above (c) Concurrent List (d) Preamble
UPPCS (Mains) G.S.-IInd Paper, 2006 (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010-11 66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020
BPSC (Pre) 1994
Ans.(c): Prevention of cruelty to animal is listed in
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
concurrent list, which means that a law on the subject
53. Consider the following statements: matter of prevention of cruelty can be made by state as
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular well as Union Government.
law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution
of India. 57. Which of the following is NOT correctly
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth matched?
Schedule cannot be examined by any court (a) Public Health and Sanitation State List
and no judgement can be made on it. (b) Census Union List
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Allocation of seats Second
correct? in the Council of states Schedule
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Anti-Defection Tenth
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Schedule
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018 UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Ans. (a) It was the First Amendment in 1951 along with Ans: (c) Public health and sanitation comes under State
Article 31B under the Primeministership of Jawahar
List while census comes under Union List. Fourth
Lal Nehru that marked the addition of the Ninth
Schedule to the Constitution. This was intended to Schedule is regarding allocation of seats in Council of
protect land reform laws from being challenged in States (Rajya Sabha). Hence (c) is not correctly matched.
Courts on the grounds of violation of Fundamental Tenth Schedule is related to Anti- Defection law.

38
58. Which of the following subjects is part of the Ans.(a): Concurrent List is a list of subjects appended
Concurrent List? to a federal Constitution in respect of which the federal
(a) Extradition legislature and the State legislatures have power to
(b) Fisheries make laws. Federal law prevails in case of conflicts.
(c) Population Control and Family Planning Concurrent List has 52 subjects. Population control and
(d) Defence family planning is subject of Concurrent List.
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017 62. Under the Constitution of India, which pair of
subjects and related list is not correctly matched?
Ans. (c): Among the given options, Population Control
Subject List
and Family Planning comes under Concurrent List.
(a) Forest Concurrent List
59. Which one of the following subjects is under (b) Share Market Concurrent List
the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the (c) Post office savings bank Union List
Constitution of India? (d) Public Health State List
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2009
oilfields
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2007
(b) Agriculture
Ans.(b): Share Market has been mentioned in Union
(c) Fisheries List. Rest three pairs are correctly matched.
(d) Public health
63. Which one of the following subject comes
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2006 under Concurrent List?
th
Ans.(a): Union List under 7 Schedule of the (a) Police
Constitution has 100 entries which has veriety of (b) Criminal Procedure
subjects like preventive detention for reasons connected (c) Radio and Doordarshan
with defence, foreign affairs, security of India, atomic (d) Foreign Affairs
energy, interstate trade and commerce, cultivation, UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014
manufacture and sale for export of opium, estate duty in
Ans.(b): Criminal procedure comes under Concurrent
respect of property other than agricultural land, duties in
List while Police is State subject. Radio and
respect of succession to property other than agricultural
Doordarshan, Foreign Affairs comes under Union List.
land, regulation of labour and safety in mines and
oilfields etc. 64. Who of the following is not included in the
State-list given in the Constitution?
60. Which of the following subjects are a part of (a) Criminal Procedure Code
‘State List’ as specified in the Seventh Schedule
(b) Prisons
of the Constitution of India?
(c) Law of order
1. Markets and fairs
(d) Police
2. Public health and sanitation; hospitals and
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. - IInd Paper, 2006
dispensaries
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
3. Cultivation, manufacture, and sale for export
of opium Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
4. Insurance
5. Relief of disabled and unemployable 65. Which of the items below does not fall in the
State list?
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(a) Higher education (b) Public health
(a) 1. 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) Agriculture (d) Land and water
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5
AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
Ans. (a) : Public health, Agriculture, Land and water
Ans.(d): Cultivation, manufacturing and sale of export
are State list subjects while Higher education is a
of opium and insurance are the subjects mentioned in
subject of Union list.
Union List specified in Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India. Rest of the given subjects belong 66. Which one of the following subject is not
to State List. included in the Union List of Indian
Constitution?
61. Which of the following Entry is subject of (a) Defence (b) Foreign Affairs
Concurrent List? (c) Railway (d) Agriculture
(a) Population control and family planning Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010-11
(b) Public health and sanitation UPPCS (Pre) Opt. Pol. Science 2008
(c) Per Person Tax Ans. (d) Agriculture is mentioned in State list under
(d) Treasure Travel Schedule 7 of the Indian Constitution. Rest are
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1993 mentioned in Union List.
39
67. Marriage, Divorce, Adaptation are mentioned 71. Insurance Sector in India is enlisted in which of
in which list of the seventh Schedule of the following Schedule of the Constitution?
th th
Constitution? (a) 7 Schedule (b) 6 Schedule
th th
(a) List-I Union List (c) 9 Schedule (d) 8 Schedule
(b) List-II State List UPPSC APO 2022
(c) List-III Concurrent List Ans.(a): Insurance sector in India is enlisted in 7th
(d) Not in any one of the list schedule of Indian consitution.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2006 72. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth
UP Lower (Pre) G.S. (SPL. 2008 Schedule in the Constitution of India are made
Ans. (c) Marriage, divorce and adaptation are listed in in order to?
Concurrent list of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. (a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) Determine the boundaries between States
68. Which one of the following is not mentioned
(c) Determine the powers, authorities and
under the Union List of seventh schedule of
responsibilities of the Panchayats
Indian Constitution?
(d) Regulate the functions of Municipalities
(a) Banking (b) Insurance Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017
(c) Census (d) Gas Ans.(a): Fifth Schedule: Provisions relating to the
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1997 administration and control of scheduled areas and
Ans. (d) Gas is listed under State List of the Seventh scheduled tribes.
Schedule of the Constitution. Rest are mentioned in Sixth Schedule: Provisions relating to the administration
Union List. of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
69. Which of the following are enshrined in the and Mizoram.
third schedule of the Indian Constitution? 73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
1. Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one
of the following statements best reflects the
Union.
consequence of it?
2. Form of oath to be made by the Chief Justice (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
of Supreme Court. tribal people to non-tribal people.
3. Form of oath of office for the President of (b) This would create a local self-governing
India. body in that area.
4. Form of oath to be made by a Member of (c) This would convert that area into a Union
Parliament. Territory.
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) The State having such areas would be
below : declared a Special Category State.
Codes: UPSC IAS 2022
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 Ans. (a): The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals
(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas
as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017 other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Ans. (c) Third Schedule provides forms of Oaths and Mizoram.
Affirmations of Minister for the Union Government, Under the provisions of 5th scheduled of the
Member of Parliament, Judges of the Supreme Court and constitution of India the Governor can make regulations
High Courts, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of which would prevent the transfer of land of tribal
India, Minister for a State Government and member of people to non-tribal people.
the Legislature of the State. It is to be noted that oaths 74. Which List and Entry of Seventh Schedule of
and affirmations of President of India are not mentioned Indian Constitution is related to election of the
in the third Schedule. Hence c is the correct answer. legislature of the State?
70. Coelho case is related to which Schedule of the (a) List-I, Entry 72 (b) List-II, Entry 27
Constitution of India? (c) List-II, Entry 37 (d) List-III, Entry 32
(a) 7th (b) 8th MPPSC (Pre) 2020
(c) 9th (d) 10th Ans. (a & c): List-I, Entry 72 of the Seventh Schedule
is related to the elections to Parliament, to the
UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper Legislatures of States and to the offices of President and
Ans.(c): In Coelho case (popularly known as 9th Vice-President; the Election Commission. List-II, Entry
Schedule case), the nine Judges bench of Supreme 37 of the Seventh Schedule is related to the elections to
Court gave a unanimous verdict upholding the authority the Legislature of the State subject to the provisions of
of the judiciary to review any law which destroy or any law made by Parliament.
damage the basic structure as indicated in fundamental Note- MPPSC had considered both options a and c as
rights, even if they have been put in 9th Schedule. correct answer.
40
75. Under Constitutional provision of tax 79. Match List-I with List-II and choose the
assignment in India, which of the following is a correct answer using the code given below the
tax exclusively imposed and collected by the lists −
states? List-I List-II
(a) Land Revenue (b) Corporation Tax A. Article-26 1. Administration of
Union Territories
(c) GST (d) Income Tax B. Article-40 2. Secretariat of
th
7 JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1 Parliament
Ans. (a) : The details of taxes to be collected by the C. Article-98 3. Freedom to manage
religious affairs
Central and State Government are mentioned in
D. Article-239 4. Organisation of
Schedule VII of the Constitution. Land revenue tax is Village Panchayats
levied and collected entirely by the States. Income and
Code −
corporation tax is imposed by the Central government. A B C D
76. Which of the following is incorrect with regard (a) 3 4 2 1
to the Schedules listed in the Constitution of (b) 3 4 1 2
India? (c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
(a) There are total twelve Schedules.
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled)
(b) Schedules XI and XII were incorporated
Ans.(a):The correct match is as follows –
respectively by 73rd and 74th Constitutional
Articles Provision
Amendments.
Article 26 – Freedom to manage
(c) The Ninth Schedule was added to the religious affairs
Constitution by the First Amendment. Article 40 – Organisation of Village
(d) Anti-defection law is in the 10th Schedule of Panchayats
the Constitution and it was added by 42nd Article 98 – Secretariat of
Constitutional Amendment. Parliament
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 Article 239 – Administration of
Ans. (d) : Anti-defection law is in the 10th Schedule of Union Territories
the Constitution and it was added by 52nd Constitutional 80. Which of the following Articles of the India
Amendment in 1985. Constitution deals with the Annual Financial
statement?
77. How many items are there in the 11th Schedule (a) Aritcle72
of the Constitution of India? (b) Article 88
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) Article 112
(c) 29 (d) 32 (d) None of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 CGPSC (Pre) 2023
Ans: (c) There are 29 items related to Panchayati Raj in Ans. (c) : Article 112 deals with the Annual Financial
the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India. Statement. It provides that the president shall in respect
of every financial year cause to be laid before both the
3. Article houses of parliament a statement of the estimated
receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for
78. Which of the following Articles of the that year.
Constitution of India talks about the Uniform 81. Match List-I with List-II in reference to
Civil Code (UCC)? Constitution of India:
(a) Article 43 (b) Article 44
List-I List-II
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 46
A. Article 263 i. Finance
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I commission
Ans. (b) : Under Part IV of the Indian constitution B. Article 226 ii. High Court
Directive Principle of state Policy has been Provided. C. Article 239 iii. Inter-state
Article 44, under DPSP provides for Uniform Civil Council
Code. D. Article 280 iv. Union Territory

41
 Choose the correct answer from the options 84. Which of the following statement is not
given below included in Article 164?
(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (a) The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv Governor
(c) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (b) The Council of Ministers shall not be
(d) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i collectively responsible to the State
(e) Question not attempted Legislature
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023 (c) The other Minister shall be appointed by the
Ans. (a) The correct match is as follows :- Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
List-I - List-II (d) A Minister who for any period of six
Article 263 - Inter-state Council consecutive months is not a member of the
Article 226 - High Court Legislature of the State shall at the expiration
Article 239 - Union Territory of that period cease to be a minister
Article 280 - Finance commission MH PSC (Pre) 2023
82. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly Ans. (b) : As per Article 164 the Council of Minister
matched? shall be collectively responsible to the State Legislature.
(a) Interstate Council – Article 263 85. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists :
(b) Finance Commission – Article 280
List-I List-II
(c) Administrative Tribunal – Article 323A A. Article-324 1. National
Commission for
(d) Union Public Service – Article 315
Schedule Castes
Commission B. Article-315 2. Finance Commission
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 C. Article-280 3. Public Service
Ans : (*) Article 263 of the Constitution is related to Commission
Interstate Council, Article 280 is regarding Finance D. Article-338 4. Election
Commission, Article 323A is regarding Administrative Commission
Tribunals and Article 315 is regarding Public Service
Commissions for the Union and for the States. Code :
So all pairs are correctly matched. A B C D A B C D
83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
answer from the codes given below the lists. (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
List-I List-II UPPCS (Pre) 2023
A. Article 312 1. Election Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows–
B. Article 155 2. Public Service Articles – Provisions./Commission
commission Article-324 – Election Commission
C. Article 324 3. All India Services Article-315 – Public Service Commission
D. Article 315 4. Appointment of Article-280 – Finance Commission
Governor Article-338 – National Commission for Scheduled
Codes: Castes
A B C D
86. According to which article of the Indian
(a) 3 4 1 2
Constitution, the Union Budget of a year is
(b) 1 2 3 4
referred to as the Annual Financial Statement?
(c) 2 3 4 1
(a) Article 108 (b) Article 115
(d) 4 1 3 2
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (c) Article 113 (d) Article 112
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (a) :
List-I List-II Ans. (d) : Article 112 of the constitution requires the
government to present to parliament a statement of
Article 312 All India Services
estimated receipts and expenditure in respects of every
Article 155 Appointment of Governor financial year from April 1 to March 31. This statement
Article 324 Election is called the Annual Financial Statement, popularly
Article 315 Public Service commission known as Budget.

42
87. Consider the following pairs: (a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Article Provisions (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
1. Article 371-A - Special provisions for Nagaland (c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. Article 371-B - Special provisions for Goa (d) Prime Minister
3. Article 371-F - Special provisions for Sikkim Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022
4. Article 371-H - Special provisions for Ans.. (d) : Article 78 of the constitution lays down the
Arunachal Pradesh duties of Prime Minister.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 92. According to Article 110 of the Indian
matched? Constitution, what is included in the definition
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only of money bill?
(c) 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 3 & 4 a) Imposition of tax, abolition and repatriation in
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 its regulation
Ans. (d) : Article 371-A - Special provisions for
b) to regulate the lending of money
Nagaland.
Article 371-B - Special provisions for Assam. c) to appropriate the moneys of the Consolidated
Article 371-F - Special provision for Sikkim. Fund of India
Article 371-H - Special provision for Arunachal
Pradesh. d) to give a statement of expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India
88. Which article provides for a free and
compulsory education for all children of six to (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
fourteen years? 66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21-A
Ans.(e): Article 110 of the Constitution of India defines
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 30 the Money Bill. Following matters have been included
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 in the definition of Money Bill-
Ans. (b) : Article-21A provides for a free and • The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or
compulsory education for all children of six to fourteen regulation of any Tax,
years. • Regulation of the burrowing of money or giving of
89. Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any guarantee by the Government of India,
any member of the House to speak in his/her • The appropriation of money out of the consolidated
mother tongue? fund of India,
(a) Article 110 (1) (b) Article 122 (2) • The declaring of any expenditure to be charged on
(c) Article 120 (1) (d) Both (A) and (B) the consolidated fund of India, or in rearing the
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 amount of any such expenditure.
Ans. (c) : As per Article 120(1), the chairman of • The receipt of money on account of the consolidated
council of states or speaker of the house of the people, fund of India etc.
or person acting as such as the case may be, may permit • The speaker of Lok Sabha is final authority to decide
any member who can not adequately express himself in whether the bill is money bill or not.
Hindi or English language to address the house in his 93. The Money Bill is defined in which Article of
mother tongue. the Constitution of India?
90. Find the correctly matched Institution and (a) Article109 (b) Article 110
Articles of the Constitution from below: (c) Article 111 (d) Article 112
(a) Supreme Court of India: Article 318 UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
(b) Election Commission of India Article 324 Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Union Public Service Article 332 question.
Commission 94. Whose decision is final in deciding whether a
(d) Attorney General : Article 351 bill is a money bill or not?
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 (a) The President
Ans.. (b) : Article 324 of the constitution provides of (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Election commission of India for Superintendence, (c) The Finance Minister
Direction and Control of elections to Parliament, (d) The Supreme Court
President, Vice-President and State Legislature. APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
91. Article 78 of the Constitution of India lays Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
down the duties of the____. question.
43
95. Under which Article of the Constitution, Ans. (c) : Article 282 empowers both the union and the
Money Bill has been defined? states to make any grant for any public purpose, even if
(a) 109 (b) 110 it is not within their respective legislative competence.
These grants are known as discretionary grants because
(c) 111 (d) Both b and c the centre has no obligation to give these grants and the
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2000 matter lies within its discretion.
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 100. Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution)
question. with List II (Provisions) and select the correct
96. Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or answer using the codes given below
not? List – I List -II
(a) President (Article of Indian (Provisions)
Constitution)
(b) Finance Minister
A. Article 1. No person shall be
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha 16(2) deprived of his property
(d) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha save by the authority of
Himachal PSC (Pre) GS 2010 law
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above B. Article 29 2. No person can be
question. discriminated against in
the matter of public
97. The definition of a 'Money Bill' is given in appointment on the
which of the following Articles of Indian ground of race, religion
Constitution? or caste
(a) Article 110 (b) Article 112 C. Article 30 3. All minorities whether
(c) Article 117 (d) Article 98 based on religion or
language shall have the
UPPSC APO 2022 fundamental right to
Ans. (a) : According to Article 110, a Money Bill is a establish and administer
bill comprising laws governing taxes, the goverments educational institutions
borrowing, policies and use of funds from Consolidated of their choice
Fund of India. A money bill involves the imposition, D. Article 31 4. No citizen shall be
abolition, remission, change or regulation of any tax. denied admission into
98. Which of the following is NOT correctly any educational insti-
matched? tution maintained by the
State, or receiving State
Article Title of the Article
aid, on grounds of
(a) 93 – The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of religion, race, caste,
the House of the People language or any of them.
(b) 89 – The Chairman and Deputy Chairman Codes:
of the Council of States A B C D
(c) 99 – Oath or Affirmation by Members (a) 2 4 3 1
(d) 98 – Secretariat of the President House (b) 3 1 2 4
UPPSC APO 2022 (c) 2 1 3 4
Ans.(b): The correct match is following :- (d) 3 4 2 1
Article Title of Article IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002
93 The speaker and Deputy speaker of the Ans.(a): The Correct match is as follows :–
house of the people. (Article of (Provisions)
89 The chairman and deputy chairman of the Indian
council of states. Constitution)
99 Oath or Affirmation by members. Article 16(2) No person can be discriminated
against in the matter of public
98 Each house of partiament shall have a
appointment on the ground of race,
separate secretarial staff.
religion or caste
99. Provision for Discretionary Grant which may Article 29(2) No citizen shall be denied
be given by Central Government to States is
admission into any educational
given under which Article of the Constitution? institution maintained by the State,
(a) Article 275 (b) Article 281 or receiving State aid, on grounds
(c) Article 282 (d) Article 228 of religion, race, caste, language or
CGPSC Pre 2022 any of them.
44
 Article 30(1) All minorities whether based on (c) Article 44-Uniform Civil Code
religion or language shall have the (d) Article 48-Separation of Judiciary from
fundamental right to establish and Executive
administer educational institutions UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2013
of their choice Ans.(d): Article 39 A under Directive Principle of State
Policy is related to equal justice and free legal aid
Article 31(1) No person shall be deprived of his while.
property save by the authority of Article 40 is related to organization of village
law Panchayats.
101. Which one of the following pair is not correctly Article 44 is related to uniform civil code and
matched? Article 48 is related to organization of agriculture and
(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and animal husbandry.
forced labour - Article 23 Article 50 is related to separation of judiciary from
(b) Protection of interests of minorities - executive
Article 29 104. Match List - I with List - II and select the
(c) Remedies for enforcement of rights - correct answer using the codes given below the
lists
Article 32
List – I List – II
(d) Right of minorities to establish and
(Institution) (Articles)
administer educational institutions - Article
31 (A) Comptroller and 1. Article 315
Auditor General of
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2015 India
Ans. (d): Right of minorities to establish and administer (B) Finance 2. Article 280
educational institutions comes under Article 30. Rest of Commission
three are correctly matched. (C) Administrative 3. Article 148
102. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct Tribunal
answer using the codes given below the list: (D) Union Public 4. Article
List – I List - II Service 323(A)
Commission
(Constitutional (Source)
Codes:
Provision)
A B C D
(A) Article 40 1. Organization of village
(a) 3 2 4 1
Panchayats
(b) 3 4 2 1
(B) Article 41 2. Right to work
(c) 1 2 4 3
(C) Article 44 3. Uniform Civil Code (d) 4 1 3 2
(D) Article 48 4. Organization of UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2016
agriculture and animal
Ans.(a): Article 148 asserts that there shall be a
husbandry
Comptroller and Auditor General of India who shall be
Code : appointed by the President. Article 280 is related to
A B C D Finance Commission. Article 323(A) deals with
(a) 1 2 3 4 Administrative Tribunal and Article 315 asserts that
(b) 2 3 1 4 there shall be a Public Service Commission for the
(c) 1 3 4 2 Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
(d) 3 2 4 1 105. By which of the following Articles, the
UPUDA/LDA (Pre) G.S., 2006, 2001 procedures for the Amendment of the Indian
Constitution is given?
Ans.(a): Article 40 is related to the organization of
(a) Article - 230 (b) Article - 320
village Panchayats.
(c) Article - 358 (d) Article – 368
Article 41 is related to right to work, to education and TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014
to public assistance in certain cases.
Ans. (d) :
Article 44 is related to uniform civil code for the
Article 230- Extension of jurisdiction of High Courts to
citizens.
Union territories
Article 48 is related to organization of agriculture and
Article - 320 - Functions of Public Service
animal husbandry.
Commissions
103. Which one of the following is not correctly Article - 358 - Suspension of provisions of Article 19
matched? during emergencies
(a) Article 39A-Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid Article - 368 - Power of Parliament to amend the
(b) Article 40-Organization of Village Panchayats Constitution and procedure
45
106. Match List I with List II and select the correct 108. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists: answer using the codes given below the list:
List-I (Article of the Constitution) List-II List – I List - II
(Content)
(A) Article 14 1. Amendment
List – I List - II procedure
(A) Article 54 1. Election of the (B) Article 36 2. Council of Ministers
President of India
(C) Article 74 3. Right of Equality
(B) Article 75 2. Appointment of the
Prime Minister and (D) Article 368 4. Directive Principles
Council of the Code:
Minister A B C D
(C) Article 155 3. Appointment of (a) 2 1 4 3
Governor of state (b) 4 1 3 2
(D) Article 164 4. Appointment of the (c) 1 2 3 4
Chief Minister and (d) 3 4 2 1
Council of Ministers UPPCS (Pre) GS., 2010
Of a state
5. Composition of Ans. (d) The correct match is given below-
Legislative Article Provisions
Assemblies Article 14 Right to Equality
Codes: Article 36 Directive Principles
A B C D Article 74 Council of Ministers
(a) 1 2 3 4
Article 368 Amendment procedure
(b) 1 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 5 109. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 2 1 4 3 answer from the codes given below the lists:
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001 List – I List – II
Ans. (a) The correct matched list is given below- (A) Article 76 1. Comptroller and
List I List Auditor General
Article 54 Election of President (B) Article 148 2. Jurisdiction of
Article 75 Appointment of the Prime Minister Supreme Court
and Council of the Minister (C) Article 75 (1) 3. Attorney General
Article 155 Appointment of Governor of State of India
Article 164 Appointment of the Chief Minister (D) Article 131 4. Appointment of
and Council of Ministers of a state Union Minsters
107. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer from the codes given below:
A B C D
List–I List–II (a) 1 2 3 4
(A) Constitutional 1. Article 360 (b) 2 1 4 2
Amendments
(c) 4 1 2 3
(B) Finance 2. Article 312 (d) 2 3 4 1
Commission
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2015
(C) Financial 3. Article 280
Ans.(*) The correct match is given below-
Emergency
(D) All India Services 4. Article 368 Articles Provisions
Codes: Article 76 Attorney General of India
A B C D Article 148 Comptroller and Auditor General
(a) 1 3 4 2 Article 75 (1) Appointment of Union Minister
(b) 4 3 1 2 Article 131 Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
(c) 4 1 3 2 110. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 3 1 4 2 answer from the codes given below the lists:
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016 List – I List – II
Ans.(b): The correct match is given below- (A) Article 164 1. Appointment of
Constitutional Amendments Article 368 Chief Minister and
Finance Commission Article 280 Council of Ministers
Financial Emergency Article 360 (B) Article 155 2. Appointment of
All India Services Article 312 Governor
46
 (C) Article 75 3. Appointment of 112. Which of the following is NOT correctly
Prime Minister and matched?
Council of Ministers Fundamental Right Article
(D) Article 54 4. Election of President (a) Abolition of – Article 17
of India Untouchability
5. Structure of Legisl- (b) Protection against arrest – Article 23
ative Assemblies. and detention
Codes: (c) Freedom of Religion – Article 25
A B C D (d) Protection of Interest – Article 29
(a) 1 2 3 4 Minorities
(b) 1 2 4 5 UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre), 2016
(Held on 20/09/2020)
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 5 Ans: (b) Article 22 of the Constitution is protection
against arrest and detention in certain cases whereas
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2005, 2011
Article 23 has provision of Prohibition of traffic in
UP Lower (Pre) G.S., 2002 human beings and forced Labour. Rest is correctly
Ans. (a): The correct match is given below- matched.
Articles Provisions 113. Match List I with List II and select the correct
Article164 Appointment of Chief Minister and answer using the codes given below
Council of Ministers List – I List –II
Article155 Appointment of Governor A. Abolition of Titles 1. Article 29
Article 75 Appointment of Prime Minister and B. Freedom to 2. Article 21A
Council of Ministers manage religious
affairs
Article 54 Election of President of India
C. Protection of 3. Article 18
111. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct language of
answer from the codes given below the lists: minorities
List–I List–II D. Right to education 4. Article 26
A. Article 14 1. By law admit new Codes:
states A B C D
B. Article 2 2. Right of Equality (a) 1 3 4 1
C. Article 111 3. Protection against (b) 3 2 1 4
arrest and detention (c) 3 4 1 2
D. Article 22 4. Power of President to (d) 4 3 2 1
give assent to the Bill RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016
Codes: Ans: (c) The correct match is:–
A B C D Provision Article
(a) 1 2 3 4 Abolition of Titles Article 18
(b) 2 1 4 3 Freedom to manage religious Article 26
(c) 2 3 1 4 affairs
(d) 2 1 3 4 Protection of language of Article 29
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2006 minorities
UP Lower (Pre) Spl. G.S, 2002 Right to education Article 21A
Ans. (b) The correct match is given below:– 114. Which one of the following is NOT correctly
matched?
Article Provision
(a) Article 39 A - Equal Justice and free legal
Article 14 Right of Equality aid
Article 2 By law admit new States (b) Article 40 - Organization of the Village
Article 111 Power of President to give assent to Panchayats
the Bill (c) Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code
(d) Article 48 - Separation of Judiciary from
Article 22 Protection against arrest and Executive
detention UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020
47
Ans.(d): Article 48 of the Constitution is related to Ans.(a): Article 14 of the Constitution mentions two
organization of agriculture and animal husbandry while doctrines namely reasonable classification and intelligible
Article 50 is related to separation of Judiciary from differentia. By using this doctrine, it should be complied
Executive. Rest is correctly matched. by rule of natural justice, which says that the
115. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution discretionary power should be used in reasonable
procedure established by law has been added? manner and should not be unguided and uncontrolled.
(a) 11 (b) 16 120. The power of Judicial Review is exercised by
(c) 21 (d) 26 the Supreme Court through which Article of
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2014 the Constitution?
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 132
Ans: (c) Article 21 is protection of life and personal
liberty which asserts that no person shall be deprived of (c) Article 32 (d) Article 134
his life or personal liberty except according to APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
procedure established by law. Ans.(*): Judicial review is an important factor in
protecting the Constitutional rights and freedom, when
116. Which Article of Indian Constitution abolish the executive, judiciary and legislature frame laws.
untouchability? Article 13 of the Constitution provides power of the
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 judicial review to the Courts. This power is only
(c) Article 17 (d) Article 19 provided to the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High
MPPSC Pre 2022 Courts (Article 226). By using this power, Supreme
Ans.(c): Article 17. Abolition of Untouchability. - Court and High Courts can declare null and void any
"Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any law made by Legislature, which are not in accordance
form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability with any provisions of Part III of the Constitution.
arising out of "Untouchability" shall be an offence Note- Article 226 (High Courts) has broader
punishable in accordance with law. prospective than Article 32. It contains not only
117. Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals Fundamental Rights but also includes violation of any
with legal right.
(a) National Commission for Scheduled Castes Note- Article 137 of the Constitution is
(b) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes regarding review of judgments or orders by the
(c) National Commission for Backward Classes Supreme Court, subject to the provisions of any law
(d) National Commission for Human Rights made by Parliament or any rules made under Article
MPPSC Pre 2022 145, the Supreme Court shall have power to review any
Ans. (a): Article 338 of the Indian Constitution deals judgment pronounced or order made by it. In this case,
Supreme Court only reviews the judgements,
with National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
pronounced by it.
118. The term 'Cabinet' is mentioned in which of
121. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are
the following Articles of the Constitution? ensured by
(a) Article 273 (b) Article 74 (a) Article 310 (b) Article 311
(c) Article 175 (d) Article 352 (c) Article 312 (d) Article 315
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
Ans. (d): The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Ans.(b): Constitutional safeguards to the civil servants
Act, 1978 provided that, an Emergency can be are ensured by the Article 311 of the Constitution.
proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered Article 311 of the Constitution is regarding dismissal,
to the President by the Cabinet. The term “Cabinet” has removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in
been mentioned under Article 352 (3) of the civil capacities under the Union or a State.
Constitution. According to Article 352 (3) of the
122. The purpose of Uniform Civil Code
Constitution, President of India cannot issue emergency
incorporated in Article 44 of Indian
proclamation unless it has been communicated to him in
writing by the Union Cabinet (the Council consisting of Constitution is for:
the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank (a) National Security
under Article 75 of the Constitution). (b) Cultural Integration
119. A legislation which confers on the executive or (c) National Unity
administrative authority an unguided and (d) Welfare of Minorities
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
of application of law violates which one of the Ans.(c): The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the
following Articles of the Constitution of India? formulation of one law for India, which would be
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 28 applicable to all religious communities in personal
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 44 matter such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption.
The code comes under Article 44 of the Constitution,
IAS (Pre) G.S 2021 which lay down that the State shall endeavor to secure a
48
Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the Ans : (b) Supreme Court in Hadiya case judgment ruled
territory of India. The objective of Article 44 of the that the right to marry a person of one’s choice is
Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution was to integral to Article 21 (Protection of life and personal
address the discrimination against vulnerable groups,
harmonize diverse cultural groups and for National liberty) of the Constitution.
Unity across the country. 127. The Government of India Instituted: Bharat
123. Which Articles have been inserted to provide Ratna and Padma Shri award under-
reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (a) Article 14 of the Indian Constitution
(EWS) in 2019? (b) Article 18 of the Indian Constitution
(a) Articles 15(1) & 16(1) (c) Article 25 of the Indian Constitution
(b) Articles 15(2) & 16(2) (d) Article 32 of the Indian Constitution
(c) Articles 15(4) & 16(4) TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
(d) Articles 15(6) & 16(6)
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) Ans. (b) Government of India instituted Bharat Ratna
Ans.(d): The Constitution (124th Amendment) and Padma award under Article 18 of the Constitution.
Bill,2019, which later became the Constitution 103rd 128. The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the
Amendment Act, 2019 allowed for 10% reservation for National Flag atop the private buildings is a
the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in Fundamental Right of every citizen under:
government Jobs and seats in the institution of Higher (a) Article 14 of the Constitution
education within the general category.
(b) Article 19 (1) (a) of the Constitution
Articles 15(6) and 16(6) have been inserted in the
(c) Article 21 of the Constitution
Constitution, through the Constitution (One Hundred
and Third Amendment) Act, 2019. It also makes a note (d) Article 25 of the Constitution
of the Article 46, which asks the government to promote (e) None of the above/More than one of the
the educational and economic interests of the weaker above
sections of the society. This enables the Central BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
government and State governments to provide the Ans. (b) In Navin Jindal Vs. Union of India case, 2004,
benefits of reservation on preferential basis to the Supreme Court gave ruling that under Article 19(1) (a) of
Economically Weaker Sections in civil posts and the Constitution, citizens had the fundamental right to hoist
services and admission in Educational Institutions. the national flag on their premises around the year,
Accordingly, the provision for 10% reservation to the provided the premises do not undermine the dignity of the
Economically Weaker Sections was implemented by the tricolour. Supreme Court also ruled that the National
Government in January 2019. Honours Act and the Emblem and Names (Prevention of
Improper use) Act, 1950 will regulate the freedom.
124. 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill took the
form of______Constitutional Amendment Act. 129. As per Article 300 of the Constitution of India,
(a) 101 (b) 102 the legal name of the Government of India is-
(c) 103 (d) 106 (a) The Union Government
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I (b) The Union of India
Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020 (c) India
(d) Bharat
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021
125. Which of the following Articles provide the Ans. (b) : According to Article 300 of the Constitution,
right of access to the Internet? the Government of India may sue or be sued by the
name of the Union of India and the Government of a
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 17
State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. Thus,
(c) Article 22 (d) Article 23 the Union of India and states are legal entities for the
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) purpose of suits and proceeding.
Ans.(a): Kerala High Court’s judgment in Faheema 130. Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals
Shirin v/s State of Kerala recognized the right to
with:
internet access as a Fundamental Right forming a part
(a) Suits and proceedings
of the right to privacy and the right to education under
Article 21 of the Constitution. (b) Government contracts
(c) Attorney General
126. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(d) Restrictions on trade and commerce
safeguards one's right to marry the person of
one's choice? (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled)
(c) Article 25 (d) Article 29 Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019 question.

49
131. Which of the following Articles are exceptions 136. Which of the following Article provides for
to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Constitution of GST (Goods and Services Tax)
Articles 14 and 19? Council by the President of India?
(a) Articles 31A and 31C (b) Articles 36 and 37 (a) Article 216A (b) Article 269A
(c) Articles 25 and 45 (d) Articles 40 and 46 (c) Article 279A (d) Article 268A
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
Ans. (a): Article 31A and Article 31C are exceptions to Ans.(c): Article 279A provides for constitution of GST
the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Articles 14 and 19. (Goods and Services Tax) council by the President of
132. Which of the following Article is related to the India.
appointment of a Finance Commission by the 137. Under which Article special provision has been
President of India?
made for Finance Bill?
(a) 200 (b) 250
(a) Article 117 (b) Article 119
(c) 280 (d) None of the above
(c) Article 121 (d) Article 123
UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021
UPUDA/LDA Special (Mains) G.S., 2010
Ans. (c) : The Finance Commission is constituted by
the President under Article 280 of the Constitution, Ans. (a) Special provision for Finance Bill has been
mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of made under Article 117 of the Constitution.
tax revenues between the Union and the States and 138. Annual budget is placed under which Article of
amongst the States themselves. the Constitution?
133. Which Article of the Indian Constitution (a) Article 110 (b) Article 115
contains provision for "Promotion of (c) Article 112 (d) Article 118
Educational and Economic Interests of U.P.P.C.S (Pre) G.S, 2003, 2007
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other Ans: (c) Under the Article 112 of the Constitution,
Weaker Sections"? word ‘Annual Financial Statement’ has been used for
(a) Article 44 (b) Article 32 Budget.
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 46 139. Which of the following is correct about the
AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019 heading of the Article 162 of the Constitution of
Ans. (d) : According to Article 46 of the Constitution, India?
the State shall promote with special care the educational (a) Executive Power of State
and economic interests of the weaker sections of the (b) Conditions of Governor’s Office
people and in particular of the Scheduled Castes and the (c) Term of the Office of Governor
Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them from social (d) Extension of Executive Power of State
injustice and all forms of exploitation.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
134. As per Article 164 of the Constitution, a
Ans: (d) Article 162 of Indian Constitution related to
Minister for Tribal Welfare is compulsory for
extension of executive power of state.
which State
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra 140. Consider the following statements:
(c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pradesh 1. Article 2 of the Indian Constitution relates to
admission or establishment of new States
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
which are not part of the Union of India.
Ans. (a): According to Article 164(1) of the 2. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides
Constitution, in the state of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and for the formation of or changes in the existing
Odisha, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal States including Union territories.
welfare who may, in addition, be in charge of the
3. A Bill under Article 3 of the Indian
welfare of the scheduled castes and backward classes or
Constitution shall be introduced only in the
any other work.
Lok Sabha.
135. Which Article of the Constitution provides for
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of
(a) All of the above (b) 1 and 2
the society?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
(a) 49A (b) 47
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
(c) 48 (d) 39A
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018 Ans: (b) Article 2 of the Constitution asserts that the
Parliament may by law admit into the Union or
Ans. (d): Article 39A of the Constitution provides for establish new States on such terms and conditions, as
free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the it thinks fit. Hence statement 1 is correct. Article 3 of
society and ensures justice for all. the Constitution provides power to the Parliament for

50
the formation of new States and alteration of areas, Ans. (c) Article 17 of the Constitution is a Fundamental
boundaries or names of existing States. Hence Right, related to the abolition of untouchability.
statement 2 is also correct. A Bill under Article 3 of Article 15 of the Constitution is Prohibition of
the Constitution shall be introduced in either house of Discrimination on ground of religion, race, caste, sex or
the Parliament only after recommendation of the place of birth.
President after the Bill has been referred by the Article 16 has provision of equality of opportunity in
President to the Legislature of the affected States. matters of public employment.
Hence statement 3 is not correct. Article 18 is related to abolition of titles.
145. "......... all persons are equally entitled to
141. Which of the following is NOT possible by a freedom of conscience and the right freely to
law of Parliament under Article 3 of the profess, practice and propagate religion" is
Constitution? mentioned in which Article?
(a) Formation of new States (a) Article 22 (b) Article 26
(b) Alteration of areas of States (c) Article 25 (1) (d) Article 25 (4)
(c) Alteration of boundaries of States AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
(d) Admission of new States Ans.(c): According to Article 25(1) of the Constitution,
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 subject to public order, morality and health and to the
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally
question. entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to
profess, practice and propagate religion.
142. Which Article of the Constitution provides that
it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the 146. By which Article of the Constitution,
spread of the Hindi language, to develop is so possession of Kripan by the Sikhs is part of
that it may become the 'Lingua France' of the their religious freedom?
composite culture of India? (a) Article 24 (b) Article 25
(a) Article 343 (b) Article 348 (c) Article 26 (d) Article 27
(c) Article 350 (d) Article 351 Jharkhand PCS (Pre) G.S 2009
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 Ans. (b) Article 25 of the Constitution is related to the
freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and
Ans. (d) Article 351 of the Constitution asserts that it
propagation of religion.
shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of
the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as Article 25(2)(b) asserts that the wearing and carrying of
a medium of expression for all the elements of the kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession
composite culture of India and to secure its enrichment of the Sikh religion.
by assimilating without interfering with its genius. 147. In which Article of the Indian Constitution
provision has been made for all minorities shall
143. Indian Parliament has the power to create a
have the right to establish and administer
new State under which of the following
educational institutions of their choice?
Constitutional provisions?
(a) Article 28 (b) Article 29
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 2
(c) Article 30 (d) Article 31
(c) Article 3 (d) Article 4
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017
(e) Article 5
Ans. (c) Article 30 (1) asserts that all minorities, whether
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st Paper G.S., 2014
based on religion or language, shall have the right to
Ans. (c) Article 3 of the Constitution provides power to establish and administer educational institutions of their
the Parliament for the formation of new States and choice.
alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing Article 28 is related to freedom as to attendance at
States. religious instruction or religious worship in certain
144. Article related to the abolition of educational institutions while Article 29 is related to the
untouchability in the Indian Constitution is- protection of interests of minorities.
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 Article 31 with sub heading ‘Right to Property’ has been
(c) Article 17 (d) Article 18 omitted by the Constitution 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
UP PSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017 148. Article 28 of the Constitution prohibits:
(a) Discrimination on the basis of caste and
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S.Spl., 2004
religion
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1994 (b) Spread of communal hatred
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006 (c) Religious Education in the government
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2004-05 educational institutions
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2013 (d) Untouchability
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2012
51
Ans.(c): According to Article 28(1) of the Constitution, Ans.(a): Article 24 of the Constitution says that “No
no religion instruction shall be provided in any child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed
educational institution wholly maintained out of State to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other
funds. hazardous employment”. Such prohibition is “Absolute
149. Given below are two statements, one is labeled Prohibition”.
as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) 153. The word ‘Hindu' in Article 25 of the
Assertion (A) : Article 30 of the Constitution of Constitution of India does not include
India does not define the term ‘minorities’. (a) Buddhist (b) Jains
Reason(R) : The Constitution recognizes only (c) Sikhs (d) Parsees
linguistic and religious minorities. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2014
Codes: Ans.(d): According to Article 25(2)(b) of the
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Constitution, reference to Hindus shall be construed as
correct explanation of (A) including a reference to persons professing the Sikh,
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Jaina or Buddhist religion. Parsees are not mentioned
correct explanation of (A) under this Article.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false 154. Which Article of the Indian Constitution has
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true the provision for freedom of speech and
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 expression?
Ans.(b): Article 30 of Indian Constitution is related to (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19
rights of minorities, however the term ‘Minority’ has (c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
not been defined anywhere in the constitution. Hence Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
assertion is correct. Ans.(b): Article 19(1)(a) asserts that all citizens shall
The rights under Article 30 recognizes only linguistic have the right to freedom of speech and expression with
and religious minorities. some reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right in
Hence reason is also correct, but (R) is not correct the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the
explanation of (A). security of the State, friendly relations with foreign
150. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to
related to the Fundamental Rights against contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an
child exploitation? offence.
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 19 155. The Constitution of India does not frames the
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 24 ‘Freedom of Press’ clearly but freedom of press
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017 has been inherited in the Article-
(a) 19 (i) (a) (b) 19 (i) (b)
Ans. (d) According to Article 24 of the Constitution, no
child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed (c) 19 (i) (c) (d) 19 (i) (d)
to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other Uttarakhand UDA (Pre) 2003
hazardous employment. Ans.(a): Article 19(1)(a) asserts that all citizens shall
Article 17 is related to the abolition of untouchability. have the right to freedom of speech and expression
Article 19 is related to the protection of certain rights which includes freedom of press. Freedom of Press is
regarding freedom of speech. inherited in this Article.
Article 23 is related to prohibition of traffic in human 156. In the India Constitution, 'the freedom of
beings and forced labour. press' is included under:
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the
151. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
territory of India
prohibits child to work in any factory?
(b) Freedom to form associations
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 17
(c) Freedom to practice any profession
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
(d) Freedom of expression
UPPUDA/LDA Special (Pre) G.S., 2010
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018
question.
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
152. Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibits
question.
the employment of child in factories related to
hazardous works. Such prohibition is 157. Under which Article of the Indian
(a) Absolute prohibition Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on
State List subject for giving effect to
(b) Partial prohibition
international agreements?
(c) Reasonable prohibition
(a) Article 252 (b) Article 249
(d) Moral prohibition
(c) Article 250 (d) Article 253
MPPSC (Pre) 2020 UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
52
Ans.(d): Article 253 deals with provision related to 161. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is
legislation for giving effect to international agreements. related to Indian Foreign Policy?
Article 249 is related to the Power of Parliament to (a) Article 380 (b) Article 312
legislate with respect to a matter in the state list in the (c) Article 60 (d) Article 51
national interest. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
Article 250 is related to the power of Parliament to Ans.(d): Article 51 of the Constitution is related to
legislate with respect to any matter in the State list if a Indian Foreign Policy. Article 51 promote international
proclamation of emergency is in operation. peace and security and maintain just and honourable
Article 252 is related to the power of Parliament to relations between nations to foster respect for
legislate for two or more States by consent and adoption of international law and treaty obligations and to
such legislation by any other states. encourage settlement of international disputes by
158. Which one of the following does not fall within arbitration.
the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution? 162. Which one of the following Articles deals with
(a) Medical aid to injure by a doctor promotion of International Peace and
(b) Sexual Harassment of Women at work place Security?
(c) Pollution of the quality of water (a) 51 (b) 49
(d) Capital punishment (c) 50 (d) 48A
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017 NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
Ans.(d): Capital Punishment is also known as Death Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Penalty, violates the Article 21 of Indian Constitution question.
and it does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of 163. Fundamental Duties are listed in which Article
the Constitution. of the Constitution?
Article 21 asserts that no person shall be deprived of his (a) Article 50A (b) Article 50 B
life or personal liberty according to procedure established (c) Article 51A (d) Article 51B
by law. Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) G.S, 2006
159. Which one of the following Articles directs Ans.(c): Article 51A of the Constitution is related to
State Government to organize Village Fundamental Duties. The Fundamental Duties of
Panchayats? citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 40 Amendment in 1976 on the recommendations of
(c) Article 48 (d) Article 51 the Swaran Singh Committee. India borrowed the
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2014 concept of Fundamental Duties from then USSR.
Ans.(b): Under Directive Principle of State Policy, 164. Which one of the following Articles of the
Article 40 asserts that the State shall take steps to Constitution provides that the Speaker shall
organize village Panchayats and endow them with such have and exercise a casting vote in the case of
powers and authority as may be necessary to enable an equality of votes?
them to function as units of self government. (a) Article 99 (b) Article 103
160. Which Article of the Constitution provides for (c) Article 100 (d) Article 102
the participation of workers in the UPPCS (Pre) Re-Exam. G.S., 2015
management of the industries? Ans.(c): Article 100 of the Indian Constitution provides
(a) Article 43 (b) Article 43A that the speaker shall have and exercise a casting vote in
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 47 case of and equality of votes. The Presiding officer of a
U.P.Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2009 House does not vote in first instance, but exercise a
Ans.(b): Article 43A (Directive Principle of State casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Policy) asserts that the State shall take steps by suitable Article 99 is related to Oath or affirmation by members
legislation or in any other way to secure the of Parliament.
participation of workers in the management of Article 102 makes provision regarding disqualifications
undertakings, establishments or other organizations for membership of Parliament.
engaged in any industry. This Article was inserted by Article 103 is related to decision on questions as to
the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976. disqualifications of members.
Article 43 is related to promote cottage industries on an 165. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution
individual or co-operation basis in rural areas. did the President give his assent to the
Article 45 is related to the Provision for early ordinance on electoral reforms when it was
Childhood care and education to children below the age sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without
of 6 year. making any changes (in the year 2002)?
Article 47 states that it is a duty of state to raise the (a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
level of nutrition and the standard of living and to (c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
improve Public health. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003
53
Ans.(c): Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the (c) Duration of Houses of - 83
President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament
Parliament. It may be withdrawn at any time by the (d) Special address by the - 88
President. An Ordinance promulgated under this Article President of both houses of
shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament
Parliament but every such Ordinance shall be laid
before both House of Parliament and shall cease to UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
operate at the expiration of six weeks from the Ans.(d): The correct match is as follows–
reassemble of Parliament.
(Provisions) (Article)
166. Under which Article of the Constitution of
India, President of India has power to Appointment of Ad hoc judges in - 127
promulgate ordinance? Supreme Court
(a) Article 360 (b) Article 123
(c) Article 200 (d) Article 356 The Speaker of the House of People - 93
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
Duration of Houses of Parliament - 83
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Special address by the President of - 86
167. Which one of the following Articles of the both houses of Parliament
Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be
the duty of the Union to protect every State Note: - Whereas Article 88 of Indian Constitution is
against external aggression and internal related to the powers of Ministers and Attorney
disturbance’? General regarding the Houses.
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275 170. Funds collected through Provident Fund and
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355 small savings are part of which funds of the
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 Government?
Ans.(d): Article 355 of the Constitution asserts that it (a) Contingency Fund
shall be the duty of the Union to protect States against (b) Consolidated Found
external aggression and internal disturbance. (c) Reserve Fund
(d) Public Account Fund
168. Match list I with list II and select the correct Gujarat PSC (Civil service Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-II
answer from the code given below the lists: Ans.(d): The funds collected through provident fund
List I (Article) List II (Provisions) small saving bank deposit, department deposits,
A. Article 61 1. Removal of Deputy remittances etc. are the part of Public Account Fund of
Chairman of Rajya government which is defined under Article 266 of the
Sabha Indian Constitution.
B. Article 67(b) 2. Impeachment of 171. Which one of the following provisions deal with
President the privileges and immunities of the Members
C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice- of Parliament under the Constitution of India?
President (a) Article 104 (b) Article 105
D. Article 90 4. Removal of Speaker (c) Article 82 (d) Article 117
Code: Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2010
A B C D Ans.(b): Article 105 of the Constitution is related to
(a) 2 4 3 1 powers, privileges of the Houses of Parliament and of
(b) 3 2 4 1 the members and committees. No Member of
(c) 2 3 4 1 Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any
(d) 4 1 3 2 court in respect of anything said or any vote given by
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020 him in Parliament.
Ans.(c): Correct match is- 172. Curative Petition in India can be filed in
Article 61 - Impeachment of the President Supreme Court under Article
Article 67(b) - Removal of Vice-President (a) 138 (b) 140
Article 94 - Removal of Speaker (c) 142 (d) 146
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2014
Article 90 - Removal of Deputy
Ans.(*): None of the given options are correct. The
Chairman of Rajya Sabha concept of curative petition was evolved by Supreme
169. Which of the following is NOT correctly Court during Rupa Ashok Hura Vs. Ashok Hura case,
matched? where the issue raised pertained to whether an
Provisions Article aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the
(a) Appointment of Ad hoc - 127 final judgment/order of the Supreme Court after the
dismissal of a review petition. The provision has been
judges in Supreme Court made under Article 137 of the Constitution allows a
(b) The Speaker of the House of - 93 review of order passed by Supreme Court.
People Article 138 is related to Enlargement of the Jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court.
54
Article 140 states the ancillary powers of Supreme 177. Under which Article of the Indian
Court. Constitution, there is provision for the Election
Article 142 is related to enforcement of decrees and Commission?
orders of Supreme Court and unless as to discovery etc. (a) Article 320 (b) Article 322
Article 146 is related to the appointment of the officers, (c) Article 324 (d) Article 326
servants and expenses of the Supreme Court. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
173. Which Article of the Constitution permits the Ans.(c): According to Article 324 of the Constitution,
Supreme Court to review its own judgment or the superintendence, direction and control of the
order? elections to be vested in the Election Commission.
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 130 178. The Constitution of India provides for an
(c) Article 139 (d) Article 138 Election Commission under Article
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009 (a) 321 (b) 322
R.A.S (Pre) G.S, 2003 (c) 323 (d) 324
U.P.P.C.S. Spl (Pre) G.S, 2005 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2010, 2017
U.P.P.C.S (Pre) G.S, 1998, 2003 MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2014
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. question.
174. Procedure for creation of Legislative Council 179. A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under
in States has been described in which Article of Article 249 of the Constitution empowering
the Constitution? Parliament to legislate on a State subject in
(a) Article 368 national interest remains in force for a period,
(b) Article 69 (a) Not exceeding six months
(c) Article 269 (b) Not exceeding two years
(d) Article 169 (c) Not exceeding one year
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2007 (d) Of unlimited time
Ans.(d): Article 169 of the Constitution is related to UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. Ans.(c): Article 249 deals with power of Parliament to
According to Article 169 of the Constitution, Parliament legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the
may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative national interest. If the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has
Council of a State having such a Council or for the declared by resolution supported by not less than two third
creation of such a Council in a State having no such of the members present and voting that it is necessary or
Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes expedient in national interest that Parliament should make
a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State
membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for
less than two thirds of the members of the Assembly Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the
present and voting. territory of India. Resolution passed shall remain in force
175. Which of the following CAN NOT be dissolved for such period not exceeding one year.
but abolished? 180. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution deals
(a) House of People with
(b) Council of State (a) Emergency Power of the President
(c) Legislative Assembly (b) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
(d) Legislative Council (c) Administrative Power of the Parliament
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 (d) Legislative Powers of the Parliament with
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above respect to a matter in the State list
question. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017, 2012, 2009
176. Which Article of the Indian Constitution Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
provided the provision of Vidhan Parishad in question.
the State? 181. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution,
(a) Article 170 (b) Article 171 the Parliament can make laws on State list
(c) Article 172 (d) Article 173 subject for giving effect to international
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2014 agreements?
Ans.(*): None of the given options are correct as (a) Article 249 (b) Article 250
Article 169 of the Constitution is related to abolition or (c) Article 252 (d) Article 253
creation of Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishad) in UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2012, 2017
States. Article 170 is related to Composition of the Ans.(d): Article 253 is related to legislation for giving
Legislative Assemblies. effect to international agreements which asserts that
Article 171 of the Constitution related to composition Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or
of the Legislative Councils. any part of the territory of India for implementing any
Article 172 is regarding duration of State Legislature. treaty, agreement or convention with any other country
Article 173 is about qualification for membership of the or countries or any decision made at any international
State Legislature. conference, association or other body.
55
 182. Which Article of the Constitution deals to Ans.(c): Article 312 is related to All India Service,
provide necessary facilities by the States for the which asserts that if the Council of States (Rajya
use of mother tongue in their primary Sabha) has declared by resolution supported by not
education? less than two third of the members present and voting
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350 that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest
(c) Article 350(A) (d) Article 351 so to do, Parliament may by law provide for the
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 creation of one or more all India services common to
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001 the Union and the States.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2002 187. It has been mentioned under which Article of the
U.P. Lower (Pre) G.S., 2002 Constitution that without the proper litigation
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2003
neither tax could be imposed, nor collected?
Ans.(c): Article 350(A) provides necessary facilities (a) Article 265 (b) Article 266
for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage. It (c) Article 300 (d) Article 368
asserts that it shall be the endeavour of every State and UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2007
of every local authority within the State to provide
adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue Ans.(a): Article 265 asserts that no tax shall be levied
at the primary stage of education to children belonging or collected except by authority of law.
to linguistic minority groups. Article 266 is related to Consolidated Funds and Public
183. The provision for the representation of Anglo- Accounts of India and of the States.
Indian community in the Lok Sabha has been Article 300 is related to suits and proceedings.
made in the Constitution under: Article 368 is power of Parliament to amend the
(a) Article 331 (b) Article 221 Constitution.
(c) Article 121 (d) Article 139 188. Constitution can be amended under which
UPPCS (Pre) Re-exam. G.S., 2015 Article of the Constitution?
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd, 2015, 2017 (a) Article 368 (b) Article 360
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2013 (c) Article 356 (d) Article 352
Ans.(a): Article 331 of the Constitution asserts that the UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2008
President may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo Indian Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
community is not adequately represented in the House question.
of the people (Lok Sabha), nominate not more than two 189. Which of the following statement is correct
members of that community to the Lok Sabha. Article regarding Article 368 of the Constitution of
333 is related to the representation of one member of India?
Anglo Indian community in the Legislative Assemblies (i) Article 368 was amended by the 24th
of the States by the Governor. Constitution Amendment Act, 1971.
Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats (ii) Article 368 was amended by the 101st
in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were Constitution Amendment Act, 2016.
discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment Code :
Bill of 2019, which was enacted as the 104th (a) (i) is true and (ii) is false
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019. (b) (i) is false and (ii) is true
184. Which of the following Article is related to the (c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
representation of Anglo-Indian community in (d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
the legislative assemblies of the states? MPPSC (Pre) 2020
(a) Article - 332 (b) Article - 335 Ans.(a): Article 368 of the Constitution has been
(c) Article - 333 (d) Article – 334 amended twice by Constitution 24th Amendment Act,
7th JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1 1971 and Constitution 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Hence statement 1 is correct. 101st Constitution
question. Amendment Act, 2016 is related to Goods and Services
185. Special provision under Article 371 of the Tax Laws. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Constitution has been made for which of the 190. President rule can be imposed on the State
following State? under which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir (a) Article 370 (b) Article 368
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat (c) Article 356 (d) Article 352
(c) Nagaland
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2012
(d) Andhra Pradesh
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2011 Ans.(c): Article 356 of the Constitution asserts that if
Ans.(b): Article 371 is related to special provision with the President, on report from the Governor of the State
respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat regarding or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in
the establishment of separate development boards. which the Government of the State cannot be carried on
186. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution,
provisions has been made for All India the President may impose President Rule in that State.
Service? During President Rule, the President assumes all the
(a) Article 310 (b) Article 311 powers of the State Government, exercisable by the
(c) Article 312 (d) Article 313 State Governor or shall be exercisable by or under the
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2012 authority of Parliament.
56

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05.
Preamble of the Constitution
1. Which of the following statement/statements Select the correct answer from the code given
is/are valid with respect to the Preamble of the below-
Indian Constitution? Code:
I. The term 'democratic' as used in the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Preamble is a mix of British Fabian Socialism (c) 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
and American Populism. UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper
II. The term 'Republic' in the Preamble Ans. (a) Commonwealth, also called Common-wealth
indicates that India has an elected head, called of Nations is a free association of Sovereign States
the prime Minister. comprising United Kingdom and a number of its former
III. The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is dependencies, who have chosen to maintain ties of
neither absolute nor qualified. friendship and practical cooperation. These nations
IV. The term 'Fraternity' as used by the acknowledge the British monarch as symbolic head of
Preamble, originally denoted the dignity of the their association. India is a member of Commonwealth
individual only. nations since 1947.
Select the correct answer using the codes given The word “Sovereign” means that State has the power
below: to legislate on any subject in conformity with
(a) Only I Constitutional limitations. India is internally and
externally sovereign i.e. externally free from the control
(b) II and III of any foreign power and internally, it has a
(c) Only IV Government which is directly elected by the people and
(d) None makes laws that govern the people. No external power
APPSC (Pre) 2023 can dictate the Government of India. So the
membership of Commonwealth nations does not put the
Ans. (d) : The term 'democratic' as used in the Preamble sovereignty of India at stake.
is neither taken from British Fabian Socialism and nor 4. Who called the Preamble as Political
from American Populism. Horoscope of Indian Constitution?
The term 'Republic' in the Preamble indicates that India (a) Balwant Singh Mehta (b) N A Palkhi Wala
has an elected head, called the President. (c) B. Shiva Rao (d) K.M. Munshi
The 'Liberty' expressed in the Preamble is qualified Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
liberty. Chaatisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st Paper G.S., 2013
The term 'Fraternity' as used by the Preamble, originally Ans. (d) : K M Munshi, member of Drafting committee
denoted dignity of individual and the unity of nation. defined preamble as the "Horoscope" of Indian
Later on by 42nd Amendment Act term 'integrity' was Constitution. As Horoscope defines date of birth, and
also added. future of person similarly preamble contains date of
Hence, none of statements are correct. adoption of constitution and future aspiration and
2. Which among the following is the correct order objectives of Indian Constitution.
mentioned in Preamble of the Indian 5. Consider the following statements :
Constitution? I. The Preamble was enacted before the
(a) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic enactment of the entire Constitution.
(b) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic II. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution
(c) Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic but has no legal effect independently of
(d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic other parts.
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled) III. It is enforceble through Courts of Law.
Ans. (b) :The correct order of term mentioned in IV. The Objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal
preamble of Indian Constitution is- Sovereign, Nehru finally became the foundation for
Socialist, Secular, Democratic and Republic. the Preamble.
3. Regarding the Sovereignty of India, which of Which of the statements given above are
the following statements are correct? incorrect?
1. India is member of Commonwealth. (a) I and II only (b) II and IV only
2. Membership of Commonwealth puts the (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III only
sovereignty of India at stake
APPSC (Pre) 2023
57
Ans. (b) : The Preamble is based on the objectives (c) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist,
resolution, which was moved in the Constituent Republic
assembly by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 13th December (d) Sovereign, Democratic, Secular, Socialist,
1946 accepted on 22 January 1947 and adopted by Republic
Constituent assembly on 26 November 1949, coming TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
into force on 26 January 1950. Hence statement-I is Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
incorrect while statement-IV is correct. question.
The Preamble is the part of constitution but has no legal 10. Which of the following pairs are correctly
effect independently of other parts, that means it is not matched as mentioned in the present
enforceable through courts of law. Preamble?
Hence statement-II is correct while statement-III is (1) Justice-Social, Economic and Political
incorrect. (2) Liberty of -Thought, Expression, Belief and
6. The date for the adoption of the Constitution Faith
mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution (3) Equity of -Status and Opportunity
of India is. (4) Fraternity by-the single citizenship
th th
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 15 August, 1947 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
th (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 26 January, 1950 (d) None of the above
UPPSC APO 2022 Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (a):
question. JUSTICE- Social, Economic and Political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and
7. Who proposed the Preamble before the worship;
Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B.R. Ambedkar
FRATERNITY- Assuring the dignity of the individual
(c) B.N. Rau (d) Mahatama Gandhi and the unity and integrity of the Nation.
Uttarakhand PCS (M) GS 1st 2006 Constitution of India highlights the Fraternity i.e unity
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above and integrity of the nation by providing single
question. citizenship.
8. As stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of 11. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution,
India, India is a which Justice is provided to all its citizens?
(a) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic (a) Social, Religions and Political
Republic (b) Social, Economic and Cultural
(b) Socialist Sovereign Secular Democrat (c) Social, Political and Cultural
Republic (d) Social, Economic and Political
(c) Secular Sovereign Democratic Socialist UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
Republic UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
(d) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Republic question.
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 12. How many types of justice, liberty, equality
Ans.(d): The Preamble in it's present form reads :– and fraternity in that order have been
‘‘WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly mentioned in the preamble of Constitution of
resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN India?
SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC (a) 3, 5, 2, 1 (b) 1, 3, 5, 2
and to secure to all its citizens: (c) 2, 5, 3, 1 (d) 5, 2, 1, 3
JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political; UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
worship; question.
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to 13. Which one of the following objectives is not
promote among them all; embodied in the Preamble to the
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual Constitution of India?
and the unity and integrity of the Nation; (a) Liberty of thought
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty- (b) Economic liberty
sixty day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, (c) Liberty of expression
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS
CONSTITUTION’’. (d) Liberty of belief
IAS (Pre.)G.S, 2017
9. The sequence in which the given terms are
Ans. (b) The objective of the Preamble of Indian
mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution
Constitution is Justice, Equality, Liberty and Fraternity.
of India is:
(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Liberty in Preamble reflects liberty of thought,
Republic expression, belief, faith and worship. Hence, economic
(b) Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, liberty is not embodied in the Preamble of the
Republic Constitution of India.
58
14. Which one of the following objectives is NOT 19. In which form India has been declared in the
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution Preamble of Indian Constitution?
of India? (a) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
(a) Liberty of thought (b) A Socialist, Democratic, Republic
(b) Economic liberty (c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic,
(c) Liberty of expression Republic
(d) Liberty of belief (d) None of the above
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 BPSC (Pre) 1997-98
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017 Ans. (c) The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above declares; "We, The people of India, having solemnly
question. resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist,
15. How many types of liberty are mentioned in Secular, Democratic, Republic".
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? 20. India’s sovereignty ultimately rests with the:
(a) Seven (b) Three (a) President of India (b) People
(c) Five (d) None of these (c) Prime Minister (d) Constitution
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (b) : India's sovereignty rests with people of India.
question. 21. Which of the following words is NOT
16. India has people’s sovereignty because the mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution
Preamble of the Constitution begins with the of India?
words: (a) Sovereign (b) Democratic
(a) Democratic India (c) Secular (d) Federal
(b) Republic of India UPPSC (Pre) 2021
(c) Democracy of People Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) We, the People of India question.
BPSC (Pre.)G.S, 1994
22. The preamble of Indian Constitution declares
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above India as :
question. (a) Unitary State (b) Federal State
17. Preamble to the Constitution of India provides (c) Quasi-federal State (d) None of the above
for equality of- AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
(1) Wages (2) Status
(3) Opportunity Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below- 23. Out of the following terms, which one has not
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 been used in the Preamble of the Indian
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of the above Constitution?
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 (a) Liberty (b) Equality
(c) Freedom (d) Justice
Ans.(c): Preamble of the Constitution of India
provides for equality of Status and Opportunity. AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
18. Which one of the following describes India as a Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
secular State? question.
(a) Fundamental Rights 24. What was the exact Constitutional status of the
Indian Republic on 26th January 1950?
(b) Preamble of the Constitution (a) A Democratic Republic
(c) 9th Schedule (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005 (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Ans. (b) Preamble of the Indian Constitution describes Republic
India as Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic UPSC (IAS-Pre) 2021
Republic State. Himanchal PSC (Pre), G.S, 2016
The Fundamental Rights are defined as the basic human UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2009
rights of all citizens. These rights, defined in Part III
(Article 14 to 30) of the Indian Constitution apply Ans. (b) The exact Constitutional status of Indian
irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed Republic on 26 January 1950 was a Sovereign
or sex. Democratic Republic. 42nd Constitutional Amendment
9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to the Act (1976) added three new words Socialist, Secular
land reforms. and Integrity.
Part IV (Articles 36-51) of Indian Constitution deals 25. In the Preamble of Constitution adopted on 26
with Directive Principles of State Policy. The provisions November, 1949, which word/words was/were
contained in this Part cannot be enforced by any court, not present-
but these principles are fundamental in the governance 1. Socialist 2. Integrity
of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to 3. Secular 4. Republic
apply these principles in making laws. Choose the correct answer by following code:
59
 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 31. What is the meaning of "Secular”?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (a) All religions are equal in the eyes of the
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2009 Government
Ans. (a) The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) (b) Special importance to a religion related to
Act, 1976 amended the Preamble of the Constitution. Government
As per the 42nd Amendment, for the words ‘Sovereign (c) One religion is promoted by the Government
Democratic Republic’ the words ‘Sovereign Socialist
(d) None of the above
Secular Democratic Republic’ was substituted and for
the words ‘Unity of the Nation’, the words ‘Unity and Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019
Integrity of the Nation’ was substituted. Ans. (a): As per the Supreme Court's ruling, "Secularism"
26. These two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist ‘have means that State shall have no religion of its own and all
been added to the Preamble of the Constitution. persons of the country shall be equally entitled to the
Which was this Constitutional Amendment? freedom of their conscience and have the right freely to
(a) 25th Amendment (b) 4th Amendment profess, practice and propagate any religion.
(c) 42nd Amendment (d) 44th Amendment 32. Secular State means that:
UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 (a) The state has a religion
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017 (b) The state is anti-religious
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) The state is impartial in the matter of religion
question. (d) The state is irreligious
27. The word 'Secularism' was inserted in the Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017
preamble of the Constitution after Supreme Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Court of India observed 'secularism' was a question.
basic feature of Constitution in. 33. Which among the following is the correct
(a) 1975 (b) 1973 expression of the term ’Secular ‘in India?
(c) 1976 (d) 1961 (a) India has many religions
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 (b) Indians have religious freedom.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Following the religion depends upon the will
question. of an individual.
28. The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted in the (d) There is no religion of the State in India.
Preamble of the Indian Constitution by UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
(a) 25th Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 44th Amendment (d) 52nd Amendment question.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013 34. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Indian Constitution has been provided in
question. (a) The Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of
29. By which Constitutional Amendment Act was
State Policy
the term 'Socialist' added to our Constitution?
(c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive
(a) 40th Amendment Act, 1976
Principles of State Policy
(b) 42th Amendment Act, 1976
(d) None of the above
(c) 44th Amendment Act, 1976
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013
(d) None of the above
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021)
Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
Ans. (b) Economic Justice as the objective of Indian
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Constitution has been provided by Preamble and
question. Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP). DPSP aims
30. Which of these words was not originally to establish welfare by provision of socio-economic
mentioned in the Preamble of our justice.
Constitution? 35. In the verdict of which case Supreme Court
(a) Sovereign (b) Secular declared first time that Preamble is not a part
(c) Democratic (d) Republic of the Constitution?
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017 (a) Berubari (b) Sajjan Singh
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Golaknath (d) Keshwanand Bharti
question. UPPCG (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper
60
Ans.(a): In the Berubari case (1960), the Supreme 39. In which of the following cases Supreme Court
Court said that the preamble shows the general purpose held that the Preamble forms part of the
behind the several provisions in the constitution and Constitution?
thus a key to the minds of the makers of the constitution (a) Union of India Vs.Dr.Kohli
but despite this recognition of the significance of the (b) BanarsidasVs.State of U.P
preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that (c) Bommai Vs.Union of India
preamble is the not a part of the constitution. Later in
(d) Malak Singh Vs.State of Punjab
the Kesavahanda Bharti case (1973) and S.R. Bommai
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2012
Vs. Union of India (1994) case. The Supreme Court
rejected the earlier opinion and held that preamble is a Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
part of constitution. question.
36. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of 40. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been
India is reflected in which of the following? described as the ‘Soul’ of the Constitution?
(a) The Preamble (a) Fundamental Rights
(b) The Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy (c) The Preamble
(d) The Fundamental Duties (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2017 UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008
Ans. (a) The Preamble embodies the fundamental UPPCG (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013, 2015
values and the philosophy on which the Constitution is UP UDA/LDA (Pre) G.S 2006
based. The Preamble contains the ideals and Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) Ist Paper 2014
aspirations of the people. It reflects the objectives which
Ans. (c) The Preamble has been described as the ‘Soul’
the Constitution seeks to establish and promote. It also
of the Indian Constitution by Thakurdas Bhargav. It has
aids the legal interpretation of the Constitution. It
been also called political horoscope of Indian
reflects the minds of the framers of the Constitution.
Constitution by KM Munshi and identity card of the
Where the words were found to be vague or their
Constitution by NA Palkhiwala.
meaning are unclear, help of the Preamble could be
taken to understand the intention of the framers of the 41. The objective of Indian Constitution is
Constitution and find out whether a particular word was reflected in which of the following?
used in a wide or narrow context. Hence, Preamble is (a) Fundamental Rights
known as the "Soul of the Indian Constitution". (b) Preamble of the Constitution
37. Which of the following is the key to letter and (c) Directive Principles of the State Policy
spirit of the Indian Constitution? (d) Parliament
(a) Preamble U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013
(b) Fundamental Rights Ans. (b) The objective of Indian Constitution is
(c) Fundamental Duties reflected in the Preamble of the Constitution.
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy 42. In the case of the Government of India vs LIC
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 of India, 1995 the Supreme Court of India held
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above that
question. (a) Preamble is an integral part of the
38. In which one of the following cases has the Constitution of India
Preamble been accepted as a part of the Indian (b) Preamble is not an integral part of the
Constitution? Constitution of India
(a) A. K. Gopalan case (c) Preamble cannot be amended
(b) Keshavanand Bharti case (d) The word 'non-violence' should be included in
(c) Golaknathe case Preamble
(d) Minerva Mills case Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010 Ans. (a): In the 1995 case of Union Government vs LIC
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above of India, the Supreme Court has once again held that the
question. ‘Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution’.

61
 43. Which among the following introduced Preamble cannot override the specific provision of the
Preamble in the Constituent Assembly? Constitution. In case of any conflict between the two,
(a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar the latter shall prevail. Hence (b) is the correct answer.
46. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(b) Pt.Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal
(c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad effect
(d) Dr.C.D.Deshmukh (b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2007 effect either
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) A part of the Constitution and has the same
question. legal effect as any other part
44. The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity (d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal
enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution effect independently of other parts
of India were adopted under inspiration from IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
the- Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) American Declaration of Independence question.
(b) French Revolution 47. What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the
(c) Russian Revolution Constitution?
(d) UN charter (a) It is enforceable
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 (b) It is not enforceable
Ans. (b) : The concept of Liberty, Equality and (c) It may be enforced in special circumstances
Fraternity in Preamble of the Constitution of India was (d) None of the above
adopted from the French Motto of the French UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Revolution. Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
45. Consider the following statements in regard to question.
The Preamble of Constitution and give correct 48. Jawaharlal Nehru wrote in 1961 'India as a
answer using codes given below- secular state honours all faiths and give them
1. The objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal equal opportunities'. S. Radhakrishnan as
Nehru finally became Preamble. President of India too expresed 'when India is
2. It is non-Justifiable. said to be a secular state, it does not mean that
3. It can’t be amended. we as a people reject the reality of an unseen
4. Preamble cannot override the specific spirit or the relevance of religions to life or that
provision of the Constitution. we exalt irreligion. It does not mean that
Code : secularism itself becomes a positive religion or
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2 and 4 that the state assumes divine prerogatives'.
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2, 3 and 4 Which one of the following is best implied in
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2009 the passage?
Ans. (b) The legislative intent of the Preamble of the (a) Indian secularism is a religious, irreligious or
Constitution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru and antireligious
th
adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 (b) Indian secularism is perfectly compatible with
November, 1949. The Preamble of the Constitution of religiosity
India is part of the Constitution but is not enforceable
(c) Indian secularism does not recognise the
by courts. The Preamble is non-Justifiable which means
that courts cannot pass orders against the Government importance of religion in the public space
of India to implement the ideals in the Preamble. In the (d) Indian secularism is not required to give each
Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court said that religion equal consideration
the Preamble of the Constitution can be amended (e) Answer not known
according to Article 368 (Power of Parliament to amend
TNPSC (Pre) 2022
the Constitution) of the Constitution, but the
amendment is subject to certain conditions such as it Ans. (b) : Indian Secularism is perfectly compatible
cannot alter the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution. with religiosity is best implied in the passage.

62

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06
Union and its Territories
1. The ;'Territory of India' and the 'Union of Ans. (c) : India is a Union of States comprising 28
India' are two distinct and different expression states and 8 Union Territories Presently. Preamble of
due to which of the following reason/reasons? India constitution describes the nature of Indian State to
I. The 'Union of India' includes just States and be Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
Union Territories while the 'Territory of India' Thus both the statements are correct.
includes in addition to States and Union 3. Who among the following was not the member
Territories, those territories that may be of Reorganization Commission which was
acquired by the Government of India at any formed in 1953 and whose recommendations
future time as well. were taken into account for the States
II. The expression 'Union of India' is Reorganization Act, 1956?
mentioned in the Constitution of India, but the (a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
expression 'Territory of India' is not found in (b) Fazl Ali
the Constitution of India.
(c) K.M. Panikkar
III. The First Schedule of the Constitution of
(d) H.N. Kunzru
India is with reference to just the 'Union of
India' but not the 'Territory of India'. CGPSC Pre 2022
IV. The Union Territories are covered by the Ans. (a) : The State Reorganisation Commission was
expression 'Territory of India' and not by the appointed in 1953 under the chairmanship of the retired
expression 'Union of India'. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Fazal Ali. Its other
(a) Only I (b) Only IV two members were H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar.
(c) I and IV (d) I, II and III Pattabhi Sitaramayya was not a part of this commission.
APPSC (Pre) 2023 4. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) :
Ans. (b) : The "territory of India" and the Union of
Assertion (A) : The President can recommend to
India are two distinct and different expressions as the
the Parliament to change the boundary of any state
'Union of India' includes just states and Union territory
after seeking views of the concerned Legislature
of India includes states, Union territory and those
territories that may be acquired by the government of of that state on the subject within specified period.
India at any future time as well. Reason (R) : It is not mandatory for the President
to accept the proposal of the concerned State
Both the expression 'Union of India' and 'Territory of
India' both are mention in Indian constitution. Legislature.
The first scheduled of India constitution of India refers Select the correct answer using the code given
both expression 'Union of India' and 'Territory of India'. below–
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
The Union Territories are covered by the expression
'Territory of India' and not by the expression 'Union of correct explanation of (A)
India'. (b) (A) is false but (R) is true
Hence, 'Territory of India' and the 'Union of India' are (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correct
two distinct and different expressions are used. explanation of (A)
(a) (A) is true but (R) is false
2. Consider the following statements about Union
and its Territory. UPPCS (Pre) 2023
(1) India comprises 28 states and 8 union Ans. (a) : Assertion : The President can recommend to
Territories. the Parliament to change the boundary of any state after
(2) India, a Union of states, is a Sovereign seeking views of the concerned legislature of that state
Socialist secular Democratic Republic with a on the subject within specified period, the statement is
parliamentary system of Government. correct.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are Reason : It is not mandatory for the President to accept
correct? the proposal of the concerned state legislature, is
correct.
(a) (1) only (b) (2) only
Hence, the Assertion and Reason both are correct but
(c) Both (1) and (2) (d) None of the above
CGPSC (Pre) 2023 Reason is not the correct explanation Assertion.

63
5. Sikkim became a full-fledged state of the Union 8. Consider the following statements about the
of India in States Reorganization Commission and Act?
(a) 1974 (b) 1975 1. The commission was appointed in December,
(c) 1976 (d) None of the above 1953.
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 2. The commission was headed by Fazal Ali and
Ans. (b) : Sikkim became the 22nd State of the Indian two members of the commission were H.V.
Union on 16 May 1975 through the 36th Constitutional Kamath and Govind Ballabh Pant.
Amendment Act 1975, before it through 35th 3. The commission submitted its report on
Constitution Amendment Act, 1974 Sikkim was September 30, 1954.
terminated the protectorate status of Sikkim and 4. The States Re-organisation Act was enacted
conferred on it the status of an associate state of the
on August 31, 1956.
Indian Union.
5. The States Re-organisation Act came into
6. Which of the following statements is/are not effect on January 1, 1957.
correct about the creation of new States by the
Parliament under the Article 3 of the Indian Which of the statements give above are
Constitution? correct?
(i) The President of India is required to refer such (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
a Bill to the affected State/States in order to (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1 and 4 only
know its/their view. Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
(ii) The President is bound to accept the Ans.(d): In December 1953, the then Government
opinion/view of the affected State/States in appointed a three member State Reorganization
making recommendations to the Parliament. Commission to investigate the problems, historic
(iii) The Parliament cannot introduce a Bill to this background and existing situation of the Indian States.
effect without the prior recommendations of Hence statement 1 is correct.
the President. The State Reorganization Commission was headed by
Select the correct answer using the codes given Mr. Fazal Ali and its two other members were Pandit
below. Hridayanath Kunzru and Sardar K.M. Panikkar. The
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) Commission submitted its report to the government of
(c) Only (iii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) India on September 30, 1955. Hence statement 2 and 3
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 are not correct.
Ans. (d) : Article 3 Authorises the parliament to form a The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was an Act to
new state by separation of territory from any state or by provide reorganization of the States of India and for the
uniting two or more states or parts of states or by matters connected there with, was enacted on August
uniting any territory to a part of any state; increase or 31, 1956. Hence statement 4 is correct while statement
diminish the area of only any state, alter the boundaries 5 is incorrect.
or name of any state. 9. Which of the following group constituted State
Such bill contemplating the above changes can be Reorganization Commission?
introduced in the parliament only with the prior (a) Panikkar, Fazal Ali, Katju
recommendation of the president and before (b) Fazal Ali, Panikkar, Kunzru
recommending the bill the president has to refer the (c) Dhar, Fazal Ali, Panikkar
same to the State Legislature concerned for expressing (d) Kunzru, Katju, Dhar
it's views within a specified period. The president is not TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
bound by the views of state legislature and may either
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
accepts or reject them.
10. A Bill for the purpose of creating a new State
7. Which among the following is not a
in India must be passed by
Constitutional provision for the formation of
(a) A simple majority in Parliament and
new states?
ratification by not less than two- third of the
(a) Increase the area of any state.
States.
(b) Diminish the area of any state.
(b) A simple majority in Parliament.
(c) Alter the name of any state.
(c) A two-third majority in Parliament and
(d) A state may include a Union territory.
ratification by not less than two-third of the
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013 States.
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of above (d) None of the above
question.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013

64
Ans.(b): According to Article 3, Parliament is the sole Ans.(b): The correct chronological order is as–
authority on making a decision on a new State and as State Founded
per Article 4 a bill for the purpose of creating new state
in India must be passed by simple majority of Haryana 1st November, 1966
parliament. Goa 30th May, 1987
11. The First commission appointed by the Jharkhand 15th Nov, 2000
Government in 1948 to examine the case for the
reorganization of states on linguistic basis was Telangana 2nd June, 2014
headed by 15. The recently merged Union Territory of
(a) Justice Wanchoo "Dadra and Nagar Haveli" and "Daman and
(b) Justice M C Mahajan Diu" came into existence from which date?
(c) Justice S K Dhar (a) 19 December 2019 (b) 1 December 2019
(d) Justice R K Sharma (c) 20 January 2020 (d) 26 January 2020
(e) None of the above UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
GOA PSCS, 2022 Ans.(d): The Dadra Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
Ans. (c) : In 1948, the then government appointed a (merger of Union Territories) Act 2019, merged both
commission under the chairmanship of Justice S K Union Territories for administrative reasons on 26th
Dhar, a Judge of the Allahabad High Court, to examine January, 2020. Both the Union Territories were under
the case for the reorganization of States on the linguistic Portuguese rule for a long time and were liberated in
basis. Admitting the importance of the reorganization of December, 1961. At present, India has 8 Union
States on a linguistic basis, the commission however Territories and 28 States.
recommended reorganization on the basis of 16. Which of the following is the correct
administrative convenience rather than linguistic chronological order of the formation of the
considerations. following States in India?
12. Reorganization of States on linguistic basis was 1. Sikkim 2. Mizoram
done in? 3. Goa 4. Arunachal Pradesh
(a) 1956 (b) 1960 Codes :
(c) 1962 (d) 1978 (a) 3, 1, 2, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1990 (c) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans. (a) Reorganization of States on linguistic basis Manipur PSC-2016
was done on November 1, 1956. In 1953, Andhra Ans.(c): The correct chronological order of the
Pradesh was the first State in India to be created on formation of the given States :–
linguistic basis. This led to the demand for creation of State Year of Formation
States on linguistic basis from other parts of country Sikkim – (16 May, 1975)
and on December 22, 1953, Pandit Nehru announced Mizoram – (20 February, 1987)
the appointment of a commission under Fazal Ali to Arunachal Pradesh – (20 February, 1987)
consider this demand. The other two members of the
Goa – (30 May, 1987)
commission were K M Panikkar and HN Kunzru.
The Commission recommended reorganization into 16 17. Which one of the following is the correct
states and 3 union territories. chronological order of the formation as full
States of the Indian Union?
13. The first state in India which was created on (a) Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh - Nagaland -
linguistic basis: Haryana
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Nagaland - Haryana - Sikkim - Arunachal
(b) Haryana Pradesh
(c) Gujarat (c) Sikkim - Haryana - Nagaland - Arunachal
(d) Kerala Pradesh
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I (d) Nagaland - Arunachal Pradesh - Sikkim
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 Haryana
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above IAS (Pre) G.S., 2007
question. Ans.(b): Nagaland was carved out of Assam in 1963,
14. Consider the formation of following States and Haryana was carved out of Punjab in 1966, Sikkim
arrange these in chronological order: became part of the Indian Union in 1975 while in 1987,
I. Goa II. Telangana Arunachal Pradesh and Goa became States which were
III. Jharkhand IV. Harayana earlier Union Territories.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 18. When was the state of Nagaland formed?
below. (a) 1961 (b) 1963
Codes. (c) 1965 (d) 1967
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) IV, I, III, II TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
(c) III, II, IV, I (d) IV, III, I, II Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPSC (Pre) G.S 2021 question.

65
 19. Identify the correct chronological order in Ans.(d): Andhra Pradesh was the first State created
which the following States were created in under States Reorganization Act, 1956. The Treaty of
India from the codes given below: Yandabo was signed in the year 1826. It was a peace
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh treaty between East India Company and the King of
3. Haryana 4. Sikkim Ava that ended the First Anglo-Burmese War. The
Codes: Yandabo treaty marks the start of British rule in Assam.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 The Bilaspur district is situated in Satluj valley in
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 Himachal Pradesh. Earlier it was Princely state of
Bilaspur.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2014
Gujarat and Maharashtra were formed as independent
Ans.(b): The correct chronological order is as– States in 1960. Hence (d) is not correctly matched.
State Year of creation
24. Consider the following events:
Andhra Pradesh 1953
1. Fourth general elections in India
Haryana 1966
2. Formation of Haryana State
Himachal Pradesh 1971
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
Sikkim 1975
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
20. Which of the following States joined the Indian Which one of the following is the correct
Union after the conduct of special opinion poll chronological order of the above?
in 1975? (a) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (b) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
(a) Manipur (b) Meghalaya
(c) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (d) 4 - 1 - 2 – 3
(c) Goa (d) Sikkim
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2004
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
Ans.(a): Haryana was formed as State in 1966, fourth
Ans.(d): Sikkim joined the Indian Union in 1975 after general elections in India were held in 1967, under the
the conduct of special opinion poll. North Eastern Region (Reorganization) Act, 1971,
21. Which of the following pair is correctly Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya became full-fledged
matched? States on Jan 21, 1972 while Mysore was named as
(a) Haryana-November 1st, 1966 Karnataka State in 1973.
(b) Mizoram-25th June, 1986 25. Union territories in India is governed by-
(c) Telangana-15th August, 2014 (a) President
(d) Chhattisgarh-November 20, 2000 (b) Lieutenant Governor
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016 (c) Home Minister
Ans.(a): Haryana was granted Statehood on November (d) Administrator
1st, 1966 after the reorganization of Punjab. Mizoram UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 1995
was granted Statehood on February 20th, 1987, Ans.(a): According to Article 239 of the Constitution,
Chhattisgarh was granted Statehood on November 1st, Union Territories in India are administrated by the
2000 while Telangana was granted Statehood on June President of India through an Administrator appointed
2nd, 2014. Hence (a) is correctly matched. by him. Administrators of Andaman and Nicobar
22. The following States were created after 1960. Islands, Delhi and Puducherry are designated as
Arrange them in ascending chronological order Lieutenant Governors. The National Capital Territory of
of their formation: Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry have a
1. Haryana 2. Sikkim Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers.
3. Nagaland 4. Meghalaya 26. Who said ‘India is a ‘Quasi-Federal State’?
Choose your answer from the given codes: (a) Lord Bryce
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,3,4,1 (b) Ivor Jannings
(c) 3,1,4,2 (d) 2,4,1,3 (c) H.J. Laski
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2010
(d) K.C. Wheare
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2008
Ans.(c): The correct chronological order in ascending UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
manner is as– Ans.(d): Prof. K.C. Wheare described India as Quasi-
State Year of creation Federal State whereas D.D Basu described
Nagaland 1963 Constitution of India as neither purely unitary nor
Haryana 1966 Federal.
Meghalaya 1972 27. Who described the Indian Constitution as
Sikkim 1975 Quasi federal?
23. Which one of the following pairs is not (a) Jennings
correctly matched? (b) K.C. Wheare
(a) States Reorganization Act: Andhra Pradesh (c) Morris-Jones
(b) Treaty of Yandabo : Assam (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2006 question.

66

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07.
Citizenship
1. Which of the following statement are correct Select the correct answer by using the codes
regarding compulsory termination of Indian given below-
Citizenship by the Central Government? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(1) The citizen has shown disloyalty to the (c) Only 1 an 2 (d) Only 1 and 4
Constitution of India. UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper
(2) The citizen has unlawfully traded or Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
communicated with the enemy during war. question.
(3) The citizen has, within five years after 3. A person will lose his citizenship if
registration or naturalization, been imprisoned (a) He voluntarily surrenders his citizenship
in any country for two years. (b) The Government withdraws his citizenship
(c) He voluntarily accepts citizenship of another
(4) The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of
country
India for two years continuously.
(d) All of the above
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) (2), (3) and (4) only (e) None of these
(c) (1) and (2) only (d) (1), (2) and (3) only Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st Paper, 2012
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (d): The Constitution of India provides single question.
citizenship. It prescribes three ways of losing 4. Indian citizenship of a person can be
citizenship whether acquired under the act or prior to it terminated if
under the constitution viz, renunciation, termination and A. A person voluntary acquire the citizenship of
deprivation some other country.
• By Renunciation - Any citizen of India of full age and B. A person who has become a citizen through
capacity can make a decoration renouncing his Indian registration is sentenced to imprisonment for
citizenship 18 months within five years of his registration.
C. The government of India is satisfied that
• By Termination - When an Indian citizen voluntarily citizenship was obtained by fraud.
acquires the citizenship of another country. D. A person has shown disloyalty to the
It means an Indian person can only be a citizen of one Constitution of India.
country at a time. (a) A, B and C (b) A, C and D
Central Government may by order deprive any citizen (c) B and C (d) A, B, C and D
of Indian citizenship under special circumstances MH PSC (Pre) 2023
provided by law, which is as follows- Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
1. The citizen has disrespected the Constitution. question.
2. Has obtained citizenship by fraud. The citizen has 5. In a Modern Democratic state, citizenship is a
unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy (a) Natural right (b) Legal Right
during a war. (c) Statutory right (d) Fundamental right
3. Within 5 years of registration or naturalization, a (e) Answer not known
citizen has been sentenced two years of TNPSC (Pre) 2022
imprisonment in any country. Ans. (b) In a Modern Democratic state, citizenship is a
4. The citizen has been living outside India for 7 yearslegal right.
continuously. 6. Who is a person of Indian Origin?
2. A citizen of India loses his/her citizenship, if (a) An Indian citizen who has migrated to
he/she- another country
(b) A person of Indian origin born outside India
(a) Gives up Indian citizenship
(c) A person of Indian origin who is not a citizen
(b) Wilfully acquires the citizenship of another of India
country (d) A person who has not resided in India for the
(c) Get married to the citizen of another country purposes of Income Tax Act, 1961
(d) Criticizes the Government Manipur PCS - 2013
67
Ans.(c): A person of Indian origin is citizen of another 10. Which of the following are the ways of
country and not the citizen of India. acquiring citizenship of India?
7. The concept of Dual Citizenship in the Union of (1) Birth
India to the Persons of Indian Origin (PIO)’ (2) Descent
belonging to some specified countries was
recommended by the (3) Incorporation of Territory
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee (4) Naturalization
(b) L.M. Singhvi Committee Select the correct answer from the codes given
(c) Rajamannar Committee below:
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Codes:
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
(a) (1) and only (b) (1) and (2)
Ans. (b) : A Committee on the Indian Diaspora under
the Chairmanship of L.M. Singhvi, in 2002 (c) (1), (2) and (4) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
recommended the amendment of the Citizenship Himanchal PSC (Pre),G.S, 2013
Act,1955 to provide for grant of dual Citizenship to the Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) belonging to certain Ans. (d) The citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five
specified countries . ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired. They
8. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution are are; by birth, descent, registration and naturalization and
related to citizenship?
incorporation of territory. The provisions are listed
(a) Article 3 to 10 (b) Article 4 to 11
(c) Article 5 to 11 (d) Article 6 to 11 under sections 3, 4, 5(1) and 5(4) of the Citizenship Act,
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 1955.
Ans. (c) Part II, Article 5 to 11 of the Indian There are special provisions for citizenship of persons
Constitution is related to citizenship. covered by the Assam Accord. It was added by
9. Articles 5-11 of the Indian Constitution deals Citizenship (Amendment) Act. 1985.
with : 11. Who/which of the following is competent of
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Union and its Territory prescribe conditions for acquisition of
(c) Citizenship citizenship?
(d) Fundamental Duties (a) Election Commission
AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019 (b) President
Ans. (c) : Articles 5-11 of the Indian Constitution deals (c) Parliament and State Legislatures Jointly
with the citizenship of India. (d) Parliament
• Articles 5 of the Indian Constitution deals with UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013
citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
Ans. (d) Article 11 of Part II of the Constitution is
• Articles 6 of the Indian Constitution deals with
citizenship of certain persons who have migrated regarding power of Parliament to make any provision
from Pakistan. with respect to the acquisition and termination of
• Articles 7 of the Indian Constitution deals with citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan. 12. Provisions regarding citizenship have been
• Articles 8 of the Indian Constitution deals with provided in which part of the Constitution?
citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin (a) Part I (b) Part II
residing outside India. (c) Part III (d) Part IV
• Article 9 of the Indian Constitution states that UPUDA/LDA (Mains) G.S., 2010
“Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
foreign State not to be citizens”. question.
• Article 10 of the Indian Constitution says that any
13. Who among the following has the exclusive
person who is considered a citizen of India under any
power of determining the issue of citizenship in
of the provisions of this Part shall continue to be
India?
citizens and will also be subject to any law made by
(a) The Court (b) The President
the Parliament.
(c) Lok Sabha (d) Central Government
• Articles 11 of the Indian Constitution says that the (e) State Government
Parliament has the right to make any provision
concerning the acquisition and termination of Ans. (d) Exclusive power of determining the issue of
citizenship and any other matter relating to citizenship. citizenship in India lies with Central Government.

68
 14. Which one of the following features of 17. Which one of the following is not basic
citizenship in India is correct? element of the citizen charter?
(a) Dual Citizenship of the States and Nation (a) Description of services being provided by
(b) Single citizenship of a State department or the agency
(c) Single citizenship of whole of India (b) Promotion of various methods to get benefit
(d) Dual citizenship of India and another country from the services available
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015 (c) To expect any public record
Ans. (c) The Constitution of India provides single (d) Provision for the inspection of the agency's
citizenship for whole of India. work
15. How many years a person of Indian origin has RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
to spend to become citizen of India under the Ans. (d): Citizen's Charter is a document, which
Citizenship Act, 1955? represents a systematic effort to focus on the
(a) 5 years (b) 3 years commitment of the Organization towards its Citizens
(c) 7 years (d) 9 years in respects of Standard of Services, Information,
(e) 10 years Choice and Consultation, Non-discrimination and
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st, 2013 Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value
Ans. (c) Under the Citizenship Act 1955, persons of for Money. This also includes expectations of the
Indian origin, who are ordinarily resident in India for Organization from the Citizen for fulfilling the
seven years, could become the citizen of India. commitment of the Organization.
Citizenship of India by naturalization can be acquired There are 6 components of a Citizen's charter-
by a foreigner (not illegal migrant) who is ordinarily 1. Vision and Mission Statement.
resident in India for twelve years. 2. Details of Business transacted by the Organization
16. With reference to India, consider the following 3. Details of clients
statements 4. Details of Services provided to each client group
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 5. Details of grievance redress mechanism and how to
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of access it
State. 6. Expectations from the clients
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship
Therefore, out of the given options, provision for the
cannot be deprived of it under any
circumstances. inspection of the agency's work is not an element of
Which of the statements given above is/are Citizen's Charter.
correct? 18. When was the Citizenship (Amendment) Act
(a) 1 only passed?
(b) 2 only (a) 11th December, 2018
(c) 1 and 3 (b) 11th December, 2019
(d) 2 and 3 (c) 11th October, 2019
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2021 (d) 11th October, 2020
Ans. (a): In India, as per the Constitution, there is (e) None of the above/More than one of the
single citizenship, i.e., a person can have only one above
citizenship. Also, at a particular time, a person can have 66th BPSC (Pre) 2020
only one domicile. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Ans. (b) : The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 was
Any citizen (Citizen by birth or Naturalized Citizen), passed by Lok Sabha on 10 December 2019. The
who has reached to the age of 35, can become the Head Rajya Sabha also passed the Act on 11th December
of State, i.e., the President of India. So, statement 2 is 2019. The Act amends the Citizenship Act, 1955 so as
not correct. to provide a way to Indian citizenship certain class of
A foreigner once granted the citizenship can be illegal migrants to Indian citizenship. The citizenship
deprived of the citizenship under circumstances like Amendment Act, 2019 seeks to make illegal migrants
registration is done by fraud, person is disloyal towards who are Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jains, Parsis and
Constitution, voluntarily acquires citizenship of other Christian from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan
country, etc. So, statement 3 is not correct. eligible for Indian Citizenship.

69

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08.
Fundamental Rights
Ans. (c) : Supreme Court of India has held in some
1. Right to Equality judgements that the reservation policies made under
Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be
1. Creamy layer concept was first introduced in limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of
the case of administration while the Article 335 of the Constitution
(a) Lakshmikant Sukla Vs State of Uttar Pradesh of India does not define the term efficiency of
(b) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India administration. Hence statement-1 is correct whole
(c) K.K. Roy Vs State of Tripura statement-II is not correct.
(d) Jitendra Kumar Vs State of Uttar Pradesh 4. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 (a) The principle of natural justice
Ans. (b) The term “creamy layer" was first used during (b) The procedure established by law
the 1992 Supreme Court judgment (Indira Sawhney Vs (c) Fair application of law
Union of India) on the Mandal Commission (d) Equality before law
recommendations asking for 27% reservations for other
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023
backward classes (OBCs) in Central Government jobs.
Ans. (c) : "Due process of law" refers to just, rational
2. The decision of the Supreme Court in Indra
Sawhney Vs Union of India case deals with and fair treatment under the regular judicial
which subject? proceedings, that means the fair application of law. It
states that a person cannot be denied the life, liberty or
(a) Reservation of Other Backward Classes in
Government Jobs property without adhering to required legal procedures
and receiving the appropriate protections.
(b) Basic Structure Theory
(c) Acceptance of reservation in promotion of 5. Consider the following events and arrange
Scheduled Castes them in chronological order
(d) To increase the reservation of Scheduled (I) Sajjan Sing case
Tribes (II) Berubari case
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (III) Golaknath Case
66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020 (IV) Kesavanada Bharati Case
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Select the correct answer using the code given
question. (a) III, I, II, IV (b) IV, III, I, II
3. Consider the following statements : (c) I, II, IV, II (d) II, I, III, IV
Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has UPPSC (J) 2023
held in some judgements that the reservation Ans. (d) : The correct chronological order is as–
policies made under Article 16(4) of the Case Year
Constitution of India would be limited by Article Berubari Case 1960
335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Sajjan Sing Case 1964
Statement II : Article 335 of the Constitution of Golaknath Case 1967
India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Kesavanada Bharati Case 1973
Which one of the following is correct in respect 6. Which of the following amendment (s) provide
of the above statements : (s) for reservation in jobs and admissions?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct (a) 77th (b) 82th
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for st
(c) 81 (d) All of the above
Statement-I.
APPSC (Pre) 2023
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct Ans. (d) : The 77th amendment act, 1995 aimed at
explanation for Statement-I. extending reservations for promotions in jobs for the
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes.
incorrect. The 82nd Amendment Act Provides for relaxation in
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the
correct. standards of evaluation for reservation in matters of
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 promotion to any class or classes of services.

70
The 81st Constitutional Amendment Act 2000 Ans. (c) : A writ issued by a court to some inferior
introduced Article 16(4B) which says unfilled SC/ST authority to transfer the matter to it for its proper
quota of a particular year, when carried forward to the consideration is called certiorari. In the literal sense, it
next year will be treated separately and not clubbed means 'to be certified or to be informed, it is issued by a
with regular vacancies of the year. higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to
Thus, all three amendments are related to reservation. transfer a case pending with latter to itself or to squash
7. Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the order of the latter in a case.
the Indian Constitution? 11. Which of the following Article of the Indian
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 Constitution enables the State to make
(c) Article 17 (d) Article 22 provision for reservation in public employment
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 in favour of backward classes?
Ans. (c) : "Article 17 of Indian constitution states that (a) 16(1) (b) 16(2)
'Untouchability' is abolished and its practice in any form (c) 16(3) (d) 16(4)
is forbidden. Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
8. Assertion [A] : Rule of law entails that all Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
persons, both public and private question.
institutions, the state and other
entities are accountable to 12. An offence arising out of “Untouchability”
publicly promulgated laws. would not make out where?
Reason [R] : The rule of law forms the base to (a) The act of accused with regard to the
international peace and security, enjoyment of benefit under a charitable trust
and it is at the core to protect created for the benefit of any section of the
people's rights and their general public
fundamental freedom. (b) The act of accused is with regard to the use of
(a) [A] is true but [R] false finery
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct (c) As accused is not being competent to commit
explanation of [A] an offence
(c) [A] is false but [R] true (d) The accused and complainant victim belong
(d) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the to the same social group.
correct explanation of [A] UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014
(e) Answer not known Ans. (d) An offence arising out of “Untouchability”
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 would not make out if the accused and complainant
Ans. (b) : Rule of law is a durable system of laws, victim belong to the same social group.
institutions, norms and community commitment that 13. On the basis of which of the following grounds,
delivers four universal principles - accountability, just a citizen’s freedom of expression may not be
law, open government and accessible and impartial subjected to restriction?
justice. Rule of law entails that all persons both public
and private institutions. The state and other entities are (a) Sovereignty of India
accountable to publicly promulgated laws. The Rule of (b) Public order
law is the foundation for international peace and (c) Contempt of Court
security and to protect people's rights and their (d) Unbecoming criticism
fundamental freedom. Thus, Assertion and reason both (e) All of the above
are correct and reasons explains assertion. Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st G.S., 2013
9. A 'state' is defined under which of the following Ans. (d) Constitution of India provides freedom of
Articles? speech and expression through Article 19(1) (a) but
(a) Article 12 (b) Article 13 Article 19(2) allows for reasonable restrictions to be
(c) Article 10 (d) Article 11 imposed on freedom of speech and expression. Grounds
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 of restrictions on freedom to speech and expression are
Ans.. (a) : The term 'state' has been used in different security of State, friendly relations with foreign States,
provisions conceiving the fundamental rights defined public order, decency or morality, contempt of court,
under Article 12. defamation, Incitement to an offence, sovereignty and
10. A writ issued by a court to some inferior integrity of India.
authority to transfer the matter to it for its 14. Equal opportunity in matter of public
proper consideration is called employment is guaranteed under Article
(a) Mandamus (b) quo warranto (a) 14 (b) 15
(c) certiorari (d) Prohibition (c) 16 (d) 17
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
71
Ans.(c): Article 16 of the constitution provides for Ans.(b): Fundamental Rights are enumerated is Part III
equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of from Article 13, Article 35 of the constitution.
public employment or appointment to any office under 19. One of the implications of equality in society is
the state. the absence of
15. Which of the following Articles of the Indian (a) Privileges (b) Restraints
Constitution guarantees equality of (c) Competition (d) Ideology
opportunity to all citizens of India in matters IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
relating to public employment? Ans.(c): Equality is the state of being equal, especially
(a) Article 15 in status, rights and opportunities. Equality also implies
absence of privileges.
(b) Article 16(1) and 16(2)
(c) Article 16(3) 20. Which of the following are regarded as the
main features of the “Rule of Law”?
(d) Article 16(3), (4) and (5)
1. Limitation of powers
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
2. Equality before law
Ans.(b): Article 16 of the Constitution is related to 3. People’s responsibility to the Government
equality of opportunity in matters of public 4. Liberty and civil rights
employment. Article 16(1) asserts that there shall be
Select the correct answer using the code given
equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters
below:
relating to employment or appointment to any office
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
under the State whereas Article 16(2) asserts that no
citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
descent, place of birth, residence or any of them be IAS (Pre.) G.S, 2018
discriminated against in respect of any employment or Ans.(c): Dicey, the British Scholar gave three meanings
office under the State. Additionally Article 16(3), 16(4) of the Rule of law.
and 16(5) is related to the power of the Parliament to 1. Absence of arbitrary power means limitation on power.
make law for reservation in appointments for schedule 2. Equality before law.
caste, schedule tribe and backward classes in public 3. Liberty and civil rights.
employment. 21. Which of the following features are regarded as
16. Which of the following is correct? the core features of 'Rule of Law'?
(a) Social equality is not guaranteed in our (i) Limitation of power
Constitution. (ii) Equality before law
(b) Social equality already existed in our country. (ii) Liberty and civil rights
(c) Social equality is guaranteed in our (iv) Supremacy of Law
Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(d) None of the above.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 (b) Only (i), and (iii)
Ans.(c): Right to Equality (Article 14 to 18) is (c) Only (ii), and (iv)
guaranteed in Constitution of India. Article 14 is (d) Only (ii), (iii), and (iv)
equality before law, Article 15 is prohibition of
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or
place of birth, Article 16 is equality of opportunity in Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
matters of public employment, Article 17 is abolition of question.
untouchability and Article 18 is abolition of titles. 22. Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India is related to equality
17. Which of the following categories of Fundamental
before the law?
Rights incorporates protection against
(a) Article 16 (b) Article 15
untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(c) Article 14 (d) Article 13
(a) Right against exploitation
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
(d) Right to equality
23. The phrase 'equality before law' used in Article
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
14 of the Indian Constitution has been
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above borrowed from the constitution of
question. (a) Britain
18. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in the (b) USA
Constitution of India in: (c) France
(a) Part I (b) Part III (d) More than one of the above
(c) Part IV (d) Part V (e) None of the above
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I 68th BPSC 2022
72
Ans.(a): The Phrase ‘Equality before law’ has been Ans. (c) : Article 19(2) of the constitution permits the
borrowed from the constitution of Britain. It implies government to impose Reasonable restrictions on
that person whether rich or poor, high or low will be Exercise of freedom of Speech and Expression in the
subjected to same law of land administered by same law interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the
courts. security of the state, friendly relations with foreign
states, public order, decency or morality, or in relation
24. Reservation of schedule caste and schedule to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an
tribes in educational institutions is governed offence.
by: Thus option (c) is the correct.
(a) Article 15(4) of the Constitution 27. Consider the following statements:
(b) Article 16(4) of the Constitution 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to
(c) Article 29(2) of the Constitution be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a
(d) Article 335 of the Constitution State, a person would be required to possess
the minimum qualification laid down by the
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2003 concerned State Council of Teacher
U.P. Lower (Spl.) 2002 Education.
UPPCS (Spl.) 2004 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary
Ans.(a): Article 15(4) of the Constitution provides classes, a candidate is required to pass a
Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in
reservation of Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes in
accordance with the National Council of
educational institutions. Teacher Education guidelines.
25. Under which Article of the Constitution 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education
provision has been made for the reservation of institutions are directly under the State
O.B.C (other backward class)? Governments.
(a) Article 13(2) and 14 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Article 14 and 15 correct?
(c) Article 15(4) and 16(4) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Article 17 and 18 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Uttarakhand-PSC (Pre.) 2016 IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
Ans.(c): Under Article 15(4), special provisions may be Ans: (b) The Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment) Act,
made for the advancement of any socially and 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution to provide
free and compulsory education of all children in the age
educationally backward classes of citizens and for the
group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes whereas
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
Article 16(4) permits the State to make provisions for Education (RTE) Act, 2009, represents the
the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21-A
any backward class of citizens, which in the opinion of which means that every child has a right to full time
the State is not adequately represented in the services elementary education. Article 21-A and RTE Act came
under the State. into effect on 1 April 2010.
In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of
2. Right to Freedom section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National
26. Reasonable restrictions on 'Exercise of Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down
Freedom of Speech and Expression' under the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible
Article 19(2) are justified in the interest of for appointment as a teacher for class I to VIII. Hence
which of the following conditions? statement 1 is not correct.
I. Security of State As per the RTE Act, for appointment as a teacher in
II. Defamation any of the school, he/she should pass the Teacher
Eligibility Test (TET), which will be conducted by the
III. Sedition
appropriate government in accordance with the
IV. Public order guidelines framed by the NCTE. Hence statement 2 is
Select the correct answer: correct.
(a) Only I and II In India, more than 90% of teacher education
(b) Only II and III institutions are directly under the State Governments is
(c) Only I, II and IV not a correct statement as since RTE Act has been
(d) All of the above implemented; situation has changed due to the
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I compulsion of TET.

73
28. Which of the following is not a part of the 32. Which of the following preventive detention
Article 20 of the Constitution of India? Acts is/are not in force in India?
(a) Double jeopardy Clause (i) NSA (ii) MISA
(b) Prohibition against Self incrimination (iii) UAPA (iv) FEMA
(c) Prohibition Against Torture Select the correct answer using the codes given
(d) Ex-post Facto Law below:
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 (a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (c) : Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides for (c) Only (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (ii)
protection in respect of conviction of offences. In other Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
words, it lays down certain safeguards to the person Ans. (d) : National Security Act, 1980. Unlawful
accused of crimes as stated below : Atrocities Prevention Act 1967, Foreign Exchange
1. Ex post facto law (Article 20(1)) Management Act 1999 are in Force Presently while
2. Double Jeopardy (Article 20(2)) maintenance of Interval Security Act (MISA) 1971 was
3. Self Incrimination Act (Article 20(3)). repealed in 1977.
29. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 33. Under the Preventive Detention a person can
Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 after be detained without trial for
Superme Court's verdict in Maneka Gandhi (a) One month (b) Three months
Case, 1978. (c) Six months (d) Nine months
(a) The burden lies on the petitioner to prove that UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
the procedure established by law which Ans.(b): Preventive detention means detention of a
deprives him of life or personal liberty is person without trial and conviction by court.
arbitrary. Article 22 provides protection to person who are
(b) ‘Procedure established by law’ is by and large provides that the detention of a person cannot exceed
synonymous with the ‘Procedural due three months unless and advisory board reports
process’ as prevalent in the U.S.A./ sufficient cause for exceeded detention.
(c) Articles 21, 19 and 14 are not mutually 34. Under the Preventive Detention Act, a person
exclusive. can be arrested without trial for
(d) ‘The Right to Life’ includes ‘The Right to (a) 1 month (b) 3 months
Live with Dignity’. (c) 6 months (d) 9 months
(e) Question not attempt U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013
RPSC (Pre) 2023 Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans.(a): Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 after question.
Supreme Courts verdicts in Maneka Gandhi case, 1978 35. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India,
interlinked between Article 14, 19, 21. This Judgment with the exceptions of certain provisions stated
enlarged scope of personal liberty and preserved the there in, what is the maximum period for
fundamental & Constitutional right to life. detention of a person under preventive detention?
(a) 2 months (b) 3 months
30. From which Article of the Indian Constitution,
(c) 4 months (d) 6 months
the Supreme Court has enumerated the Right
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
to Livelihood, Right to Privacy, Right to
Dignity and Right to Hearing?. Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
(a) Article 22 (b) Article 21
36. Assertion (A) The state shall provide free and
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 20
compulsory education to all children of the age
UPPSC (J) 2023 group of six to fourteen years.
Ans. (b) : Supreme Court has enumerated the Right to Reason (R) : In a democratic society, right to
Livelihood, Right to Privacy, Right to Dignity and education is indispensible in the interpretation
Right to Hearing from Article 21 of Indian of the right to development as a human right.
Constitution. In the context of the above statements select the
31. The Supreme Court of India has declared correct answer.
'Right to Privacy' as a fundamental right under Code:
which Article of the Constitution (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(a) Article 20 (b) Article 19
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 18 correct explanation of (A).
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans.. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above (d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
question. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016

74
Ans.(a): According to Article 21A, the State shall 42. Article 21A provides free and compulsory
provide free and compulsory education to all children of education to children in the age group of-
the age group of six to fourteen years. Hence assertion (a) 3 to 12 years (b) 3 to 14 years
A is correct. In a democratic society right to education (c) 5 to 18 years (d) 6 to 14 years
is indispensible in the interpretation of the right to
development as a human right. Hence reason R is also UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
correct and R is the correct explanation of A. Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
37. Right to Education has been included into the question.
Fundamental Rights by the 43. Which Article of Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019 rights to elementary education?
(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005 (a) Article 20 (A) (b) Article 21 (A)
(c) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 (c) Article 22 (A) (d) Article 21
(d) Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
UPPCS Pre 2022 Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
th
Ans.(c): The constitution (86 Amendment) Act, 2002 question.
seeks to make right to education for children between 6
44. Which one of the following human right is also
and 14 years as fundamenetal. It added Article 21A for
the same. a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of
India?
38. The Right to Education for all between 6 and
14 years of age has been included as a (a) Right to Information
Fundamental Right in the year: (b) Right to Work
(a) 1998 (b) 2001 (c) Right to Education
(c) 2002 (d) 2000 (d) Right to Housing
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I BPSC (Pre.) G.S, 2011
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Manipur PCS - 2013 question.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 45. The aim of Right to Education Act, 2009 is to
question. make education free and compulsory. This is
39. "Right to Education" was given by which for the children who are-
amendment of the Indian Constitution? (a) Up to the primary level
(a) 80th Amendment (b) 82thAmendment (b) Up to the middle level
(c) 84thAmendment (d) 86thAmendment (c) Up to the higher secondary level
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (d) Graduation level
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2015
question. Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
40. Under the Indian Constitution "Right to question.
Education" is a :
46. When was Right to Education was added after
(a) Employment Right
amending the Constitution of India?
(b) Cultural Right
(a) 1st April, 2010 (b) 1st August, 2010
(c) Fundamental Right
(c) 1st October, 2010 (d) 1st December,2010
(d) Non- fundamental Right
BPSC (Pre.) G.S, 2011
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
question.
47. Right to Education to all children between the
41. The Constitution 86thAmendment Act, 2002
age group of 6 to 14 years is-
deals with:
(a) Right to Education as a Fundamental Right for (a) Included in the Directive Principle of State
children in the range of 6-14 years Policy
(b) Right to employment a Fundamental Right (b) A Fundamental Right
(c) Right to employment a Fundamental Right (c) A statutory Right
for rural people (d) None of the above
(d) Right to Education a Fundamental Right for UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2006
children in the range of 5-13 years Ans. (b): The Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment)
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Constitution to
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above provide free and compulsory education to all children in
question. the age group of 6 to 14 years as a Fundamental Right.

75
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Education (RTE) Act, 2009 means that every child has a question.
right to full time elementary education of satisfactory 53. In Indian Constitution, Right to Freedom has
and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies been provided by four Articles which are-
certain essential norms and standards. Article 21A and (a) Article 19 to Article 22
RTE Act came into effect on 1 April, 2010. The title of (b) Article 16 to Article 19
the RTE Act incorporates the words ‘Free and (c) Article 17 to Article 20
Compulsory Education for All’. (d) Article 18 to Article 21
48. Which Article of the Constitution of India is UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
related to protection of life and personal Ans.(a): Right to Freedom in Indian Constitution has
liberty? been provided under Article 19 to Article 22. Article 19
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 is protection of certain rights regarding freedom of
(c) Article 20 (d) Article 22 speech, Article 20 is protection in respect of conviction
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre)-2016 for offences, Article 21 is protection of life and personal
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above liberty and Article 22 is protection against arrest and
question. detention in certain cases.
49. Which Article gives safeguard to the 54. Right to clean environment is guaranteed in
Fundamental Rights of arrested person? Indian Constitution by
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 17 (a) Article 21 (b) Article 19
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
(c) Article 25 (d) Article 14
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Ans.(a): Article 21 guarantees “Protection of Life and
Personal Liberty. Article 21 guarantees fundamental
50. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. right to life. Right to environment, free of danger of
Which of the following in the Constitution of disease and infection is inherent in it.
India correctly and appropriately imply the 55. Consider the following provisions :
above statement? 1. According to Article 21 of the Indian
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Constitution, no person shall be deprived of
Amendment to the Constitution his life or personal liberty except according to
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of the 'due process of Law'.
State Policy in Part IV 2. According to Article 20(2) of the Indian
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Constitution, no person shall be prosecuted
Part III and punished for the same offence more than
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th once.
Amendment to the Constitution 3. According to Article 14 of the Indian
IAS (Pre.)G.S, 2018 Constitution, the State shall not deny to any
Ans.(c): A Nine-Judge Constitutional Bench of person equality before the law or the equal
Supreme Court held that the “Right to Privacy” is protection of the laws within the territory of
protected as intrinsic part of the right to life and India.
personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution and Which of the provisions given above is not
as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III correct?
(Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution. (a) 1 (b) 2
51. 'Right to Privacy' is protected under which (c) 3 (d) None of the above
Article of the Constitution of India? Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 19 Ans.(a): Article 21 of the Constitution of India is
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 29 regarding protection of life and personal liberty. It
IAS (Pre) G.S 2021 asserts that no person shall be deprived of his life or
personal liberty except according to ‘procedure
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
established by law’. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
52. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: Article 20(2) of the Constitution asserts that no person
(a) Right to life only shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
(b) Right to personal liberty only more than once. Hence statement 2 is correct. Further
(c) Right to liberty and privacy Article 14 provides Right to Equality which asserts that
(d) Right to life, personal liberty and right to the State shall not deny to any person equality before
privacy the law or the equal protection of the laws within the
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2018 Paper-I territory of India. Hence statement 3 is also correct.

76
56. In the context of polity, which one of the
following would you accept as the most 3. Right against exploitation
appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers 59. Which of the following are envisaged by the
Right against Exploitation in the Constitution
(b) Absence of restraint of India?
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes 1. Prohibition of trafficking in human beings
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully and forced labour
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019 2. Abolition of untouchability
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
question. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in
factories and mines
57. Which one of the following factors constitutes
Select the correct answer using the code given
the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
below:
democracy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) A committed judiciary
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Centralization of powers IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(c) Elected government Ans.(c): Right against exploitation is provided under
(d) Separation of powers Article 23 and 24 of the Constitution. Article 23 is
IAS (Pre) G.S 2021 about prohibition of trafficking in human beings and
Ans.(d): Separation of powers is the best safeguard of forced labour and Article 24 envisages that no child
liberty in a liberal democracy. Separation of power below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to
work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other
(Executive, Legislature and Judiciary) checks the abuse
hazardous employment.
of power by other organs, which helps in checking the
60. With child labour being made illegal and right
authoritarian tendencies.
to education becoming a fundamental right for
58. Consider the following statements: children, this right against exploitation has
(A) No person shall be prosecuted and become more meaningful.
punished for the same offense more than Which of the following pairs of Article provide
once, including any departmental for right to education and prohibition of child
proceedings. labour respectively?
(B) The protection against self-incrimination (a) Articles 21A and 33
extends to both oral evidence and (b) Articles 21A and 24
documentary evidence. (c) Articles 23 and 24
(C) The protection against self-incrimination (d) Articles 14 and 19
extends to both criminal and civil APPSC (Pre) 2023
proceedings. Ans. (b) : Article 21A of the constitution provides for
(a) Statement (A) is correct free and compulsory education of all children in the age
group of six to fourteen years.
(b) Statement (B) is correct
(c) Statements (A) and (B) are correct
4. Right to freedom of Religion
(d) Statements (A) and (C) are correct
Maharashtra PSC 2022 61. Which is the appropriate writ issued by the
Ans.(b): According to the principle of 'No double Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a
jeopardy' no person shall be prosecuted and punished person to a public office?
for the same offence more than once [Article 20(2)], (a) Certiorari (b) Mandamus
excluding departmental proceedings. Hence 1st (c) Prohibition (d) Quo-Warranto
statement is incorrect. Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022
Also the protection against self-incrimination extends Ans.. (d) : A writ of Warranto is a common law remedy
only to criminal proceedings and not to civil which is used to challenge a person's right to hold a
public office. This writ is used by Supreme Court to
proceedings. Hence, 3rd statement is also incorrect.
quash the appointment of a person to public office. It
The protection against self incrimination extends to was added by Eighty Sixth Amendment Act 2002.
both oral as well as documentary evidences. Hence, 2nd Article 24 provides for prohibition of employment of
statement is correct. children in factories.

77
62. Which of the following is a necessary condition (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
for the issue of a writ of quo warranto? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) To secure the release of a person who has
been imprisoned by a court of law on a IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2011
criminal charge Ans.(c): According to Article 30 (1) of the Constitution,
(b) To direct a public officer of the government all minorities, whether based on religion or language,
not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional
(c) Both (A) and (B) shall have the right to establish and administer
(d) The office must be public and it must be educational institutions of their choice. Hence statement
created by a statute or by the Constitution 1 is correct. As per the Constitution, President of India
itself
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 may nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above community in Lok Sabha (Article 331) and twelve
question. members in Rajya Sabha from amongst persons who
63. Word ‘Hindu’ used in Article 25 of the have special knowledge or practical experience in
Constitution of India does not include?
(a) Buddhist (b) Jains respect of such matters as literature, science, art and
(c) Parsi (d) Sikhs social service (Article 80). Hence statement 2 is
Uttarakhand PCS (M) GS Ind 2006 incorrect.
Ans.(c): Article 25 of the Constitution is regarding
freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats
propagation of religion. Article 25(2) (b) asserts that in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were
Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment
persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.
Parsi has not been mentioned there. Hence c is the Bill of 2019, which was enacted as the 104th
correct answer. Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
64. Given below are two statements, one is labeled The Prime Minister’s 15 Point Program launched in
as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of 2005 designed to ensure the welfare of religious
India does not define the term ‘minorities’. minorities. Currently, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs,
Reason(R): The Constitution recognizes only Buddhists, Parsis and Jains are identified as religious
linguistic and religious minorities. minorities. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Select the correct answer by using the codes
given below: 66. According to which Article of the Indian
Codes: Constitution, 'No person shall be prosecuted and
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the punished for the same offence more than once'?
correct explanation of (A)
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 20
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Ans.(b): Article 30 is right of minorities to establish question.
and administer educational institutions but the 67. Which guarantees right to freedom of religion
Constitution of India does not define the word
of all persons in all its aspects?
‘Minority’ and only refers to ‘Minorities’ and speaks of
those ‘based on religion or language’. Therefore both (a) Article 25 to 28 (b) Article 29
(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (c) Article 30 (d) Article 34
explanation of (A).
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) G.S 2011
65. In India, if a religious sect/community is given
the status of a national minority, what special Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
advantage it is entitled to? question.
1. It can establish and administer exclusive
educational institutions. 68. Right to ‘Freedom of Religion’ is guaranteed
2. The President of India automatically under the Constitution in Articles:
nominates a representative of a community to (a) 12-19 (b) 19-21
Lok Sabha. (c) 25-28 (d) 21-28
3. It can drive benefits from the prime minister’s
15-point program. OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
correct? question.

78
 Ambedkar, architect of the Indian Constitution said,
Right to Constitutional Article 32 is heart and soul of the Indian Constitution as
5. it provides remedies in case of the violation of other
Remedies
fundamental rights provided by Indian Constitution.
69. Consider the following statements concerning Hence both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
the powers of the Supreme Court to issue explanation of (A).
certain writs to stop violation of Fundamental 71. Which of the following Right was described by
Rights– Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of
(1) The Supreme Court has power to issue the Constitution?
writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, (a) Right to Property
Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari (b) Right to Life
which is appropriate for the enforcement (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
of Fundamental Rights (d) Right to Freedom
(2) Parliament may by law empower any other Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022
court to exercise within its jurisdiction the
powers given to Supreme Court. Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
Which of the above mentioned statement/ question.
statements is/are correct? 72. Which one of the following rights was
Select the correct answer from the code given described by Dr B.R.Ambedkar as the heart
below– and soul of the Constitution?
Code : (a) Right to freedom of religion
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 1 (b) Right to property
(c) Only 2 (d) Both 1 and 2 (c) Right to equality
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 (d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Ans. (d) : Article 32(2) : The Supreme Court shall have Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
power to issue directions or orders or writs, including UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
writs in nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, UPCDA/LDA Special (Pre.) G.S., 2010
Prohibition, Quo warranto and Certiorari whichever IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2002
may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd Paper, 2004
rights conferred by this part. Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Article 32(3) : Parliament may by law empower any question.
other court to exercise within the local limits of its
73. Who is the custodian of the Fundamental
jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the
Right?
Supreme Court under clause (2).
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament
70. Consider the following statements: (c) President (d) Prime Minister
Assertion (A) Dr. Ambedkar had described Article UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1992
32 of the Constitution as the very soul of it.
U.P. Lower (Pre.) 2004-05
Reason (R) Article 32 provides effective remedy Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre.) 2006
against the violation of Fundamental Rights. Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st, 2012
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Ans.(a): Supreme Court of India is custodian of the
below:
Fundamental Rights. Article 32 of the Constitution is
Codes: regarding remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental
(a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the Rights, which asserts that the citizen has right to move
correct explanation of (A). the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the
(b) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the enforcement of the rights and Supreme Court shall have
correct explanation of (A). power to issue directions or orders or writs, including
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus,
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2016 be appropriate for the enforcement of any of the
Ans.(a): Article 32 of the Constitution of India is Fundamental Rights.
remedies for enforcement of Fundamental Rights which 74. Consider the following statements:
asserts that the citizen has right to move the Supreme 1. The Indian Constitution empowers the
Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement Supreme Court to issue Writs for enforcement
of the rights. The framers of the Constitution provided of any of the Fundamental Rights conferred by
guarantee for the enforcement of Fundamental right Part III of the Indian Constitution under Art.
through legal remedy mentioned in Article 32. Dr. B. R. 32.
79
 2. The provision to issue Writs is primarily
intended to guarantee the Right to Cultural and educational
Constitutional Remedies to every citizen. 6.
3. There are six types of Writs. Rights
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? 79. Which of the following is/are correct regarding
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Article 35A of the Indian Constitution?
J & K PSC Pre-2018 (1) It was added to the Constitution by a
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Presidential order
question. (2) The Article was introduced with Article 370
75. Which of the following cases comes under the
jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme (3) It was special provision under Directive
Court? Principles of State Policy
(a) Dispute between center and state (4) It deals with Right to Constitutional Remedies
(b) Dispute between states (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(d) Remedy for the violation of the Constitution (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 1993 Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Ans.(c): Enforcement of Fundamental Rights comes Ans.(b): Article 35A was an Article under the
under the jurisdiction of Supreme Court (Article 32) and
High Courts (Article 226). Constitution of India that empowered the State
76. Which of the following is enforceable in a Legislature of Jammu and Kashmir to define
Court of Law? "Permanent Residents" of the State along with granting
(a) Fundamental Duties special privileges. The Article was revoked on 5th
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles August 2019, through a ‘Presidential Order’ along with
(d) Preamble Article 370.
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021 80. To which State in Indian Union Article 35-A
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above relates?
question.
(a) Assam (b) Sikkim
77. Which one of the following Articles guarantees
a citizen his/her 'remedial right'? (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Manipur
(a) Article 16 (b) Article 32 OPSC (OCS) Pre-2018 Paper-I
(c) Article 14 (d) Article 23
Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018 Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans.(b): Article 32 - Remedies for enforcement of question.
rights conferred by this Part- 81. Which of the following statements is/are
(1) The right to move the Supreme Court by correct?
appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of
the rights conferred by this Part is guaranteed. (a) According to Article 13 of the Indian
(2) The Supreme Court shall have power to issue Constitution, "law" includes any Ordinance,
directions or orders or writs, including writs in the order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification,
nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, custom or usage having in the territory of
quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may be India the force of law.
appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights
conferred by this Part. (b) Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment)
(3) Without prejudice to the powers conferred on the Act, 1971 excluded Constitutional
Supreme Court by clauses (1) and (2), Parliament Amendment Acts from the purview of "law"
may by law empower any other court to exercise under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution.
within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any (c) Both A and B
of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court
under clause (2). (d) Neither A nor B
(4) The right guaranteed by this Article shall not be Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
suspended except as otherwise provided for by Ans.(c): According to Article 13(3) of the Indian
this Constitution.
Constitution, "law" includes any Ordinance, order, bye-
78. In India, any violation to the right to property
cannot be challenged by filing a law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage
(a) Writ under Article 226 of the Constitution having in the territory of India the force of law. Hence
(b) Civil suit before a Court statement 1 is correct.
(c) Writ under Article 32 of the Constitution 24th Amendment Act, 1971 inserted clause (4) to
(d) Case before Lok Adalat Article 13, which stated that Article 13 would not apply
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
Ans.(c): In India, any violation to the right to property to any Constitutional amendments. Article 368 lays
cannot be challenged by filing a Writ under Article 32 down the procedure to amend the Constitution. Hence
of the Constitution. statement 2 is also correct.
80
 84. Consider the following statements:
7. Miscellaneous 1. The writ, Mandamus can be issued against
both Public Authorities and Private
82. Consider the following statements: Individuals.
I. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act
(1971) inserted a new Article 31C, whose first 2. Mandamus can be issued to enforce a
provision was declared as invalid by the contractual obligation.
Supreme Court in the Keshavananda Bharati 3. Mandamus cannot be issued against the
Case (1973). Governor of a State.
II. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills 4. Mandamus can be issued against a state of
Case (1980) considered the extension of the refund the tax collected unlawfully.
scope of the second provision of Article 31C as
invalid as well. How many of the statements given above are
III. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills correct?
Case (1980) has considered the importance of (a) Only one statement
harmony and balance between Fundamental (b) Tow statements
Rights and Directive Principles. (c) Three statements
IV. The present interpretation with respect to (d) All four statement
the Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principle is the same reiteration of the (e) Question not attempted
principle that was first propounded by the Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
Supreme Court in the Chamapakam Ans. (b) : The Writ Mandamus, literally means "we
Dorairajan case (1951). command". It is a command issued by the court to a
Which of the statement/statements given above public official asking him to perform his official duties
is/are incorrect?
(a) III and IV (b) II, III and IV that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be
(c) I, II and IV (d) Only III issued against any public body, a corporation, an
APPSC (Pre) 2023 inferior court, a tribunal or government for same
Ans. (d) : In Minerval Mill case the Supreme Court purpose.
ruled that the power of the parliament to amend the The Writ Mandamus can not be issued -
constitution is limited by the constitution. Hence, the (i) Against a private individual.
parliament can not exercise this limited power to grant (ii) To enforce a contractual obligation.
itself unlimited power.
Thus only statement-III is incorrect and rest all (iii) Against the president of India or the state
statement are correct. governors.
83. Which of the following statements is/are (iv) Against the chief justice of a High Court acting in
incorrect? judicial capacity.
A. Part III on Fundamental Rights of the The Mandamus can be issued against a state to refund
Constitution is based upon Bill of Rights of the the tax collected unlawfully.
U.S.A. Hence, only statement 3 & 4 is correct.
B. ‘‘Right to Die’’ is a Fundamental Right under 85. In India, which one of the following
Article 21 of the Constitution. Constitutional Amendments was widely
C. India Constitution is a complete Federal believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial
Constitution. interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
D. Fundamental Right can be removed under the (a) 1st Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment
Indian Constitution. (c) 44th Amendment (d) 86th Amendment
Code − UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023
(a) Only B and C (b) Only C and D Ans. (a) : When the Constitution of India enacted in
(c) Only B (d) Only B, C and D 1950, then Supreme Court and high court were given a
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled) series of judgements that had struck down the
Ans. (d) :Part-III on Fundamental Rights of the provisions of public safety, to overcome with a series of
constitution is based upon Bill of Rights of USA. judicial interpretation the government passed first
Hence statement-I is correct. Constitution Amendment Bill.
'Right to Die' is not a Fundamental Right in Indian 86. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are
constitution Hence Statement-II is incorrect. enforceable against the private individuals as
Indian constitution is auras Federal constitution. well?
Hence statement-III is incorrect. (a) Articles 15(1), 17, 18(1)
Fundamental Rights are basic structure of the (b) Articles 15(2), 17, 21
constitution, and cannot be removed under Indian (c) Articles 15(2), 17, 18(2), 26
constitution. (d) Articles 15(2), 17, 18(2), 23(1) and 24
Hence statement IV is incorrect. Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
81
Ans. (d) : The fundamental rights under the Indian 90. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights,
constitution such as 15(2), 17 (Abolition of which of the following is included in the
untouchability), 18(2) (No Citizen of India shall accept definition of ‘State’ under the Article 12?
any title from any foreign state), Article 23(1) and 24
(a) Life Insurance Corporation
are enforceable against private individuals as well.
(b) Partnership firm
87. The Constitution confers which of the following
Articles that denies the rights to aliens (Foreign (c) Company registered under company Act,
Citizens)? 1956
I. Articles 29 and 30 (d) A cooperative society registered under
II. Article 19 cooperative society Act, 1912
III. Articles 23 and 24 UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2000
IV. Article 16
Ans.(a): Article 12 of the Constitution is related to
Choose the correct answer using the codes
definition of the ‘State’ which asserts that the State
given below :
(a) II and III only (b) I, II and IV only includes the Government and Parliament of India and
(c) III and IV only (d) All of the above the Government and the Legislature of each of the
APPSC (Pre) 2023 States and all local or other authorities within the
Ans. (b) : The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part- territory of India or under the control of the
III of Indian Constitute under the articles 14, 20, 21, Government of India. In Sukhdev Vs Bhagatram case,
21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are available to all Supreme Court ruled that Life Insurance Corporation,
persons whether citizens or foreigners (except enemy ONGC and FCI (Food Corporation of India) comes
aliens). Article 15, 16, 29 and 30 is available only for
under the definition of State.
Indians.
88. Which of the following Fundamental Right are 91. Which of the following is State under the
available only to the citizens of India? Article 12 of the Constitution?
(i) Right to equal opportunity in the matter of (a) Sri Gandhi Bhandar Ashram
public employment. (b) Constitutional and Parliamentary educational
(ii) Equality before law
institute
(iii) Right to freedom of religion
(iv) Right to freedom under Article 19 (c) Educational research and training academy
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) Delhi Stock Exchange
below. U.P. Lower (Pre) G.S, 2004
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans.(d): Delhi Stock Exchange was established in 1947,
(b) Only (i) and (iv)
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) since it is regulated by SEBI (Securities and Exchange
(d) Only (ii) and (iv) Board of India) hence it comes under domain of the state.
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 92. For the enforcement of Fundamental Right, not
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above included in the word State-
question. (a) Allahabad University
89. Choose the correct answer: (b) Life Insurance Corporation of India
The fundamental rights have been described as
(c) Uttar Pradesh Electricity Board
(i) The Magna Carta of India
(d) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary
(ii) The Conscience of the Constitution
studies
(iii) The soul of the Constitution
(iv) Inspiration from bill of rights of American UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 1995, 2007
constitution Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only question.
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 93. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court
(e) Answer not known held that:
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 “Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk
Ans. (d) : Fundamental rights have been described as out his own life in the manner he likes best”?
Magna Carta of India, inspiration from bill of rights of (a) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain
American Constitution. Graville Austin has described
(b) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
fundamental rights and Directive Principles as the
conscience of the constitution. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar had (c) Bank Nationalization
declared Article 32 as the heart and soul of Indian (d) Azhar vs Municipal Corporation
Constitution. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2012

82
Ans.(b): In Golak Nath Vs State of Punjab case (1969), 99. Which of the Fundamental Right has not been
Supreme Court said Fundamental Rights enable a man provided to citizens in the Constitution of
to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best.
India?
94. At present in the Constitution of India Right of
Property is a- (a) To reside and settle in any part of the territory
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Statuary Right of India
(c) Moral Right (d) None of the above (b) Right to gender equality
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2007 (c) Right to information
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre.) 2009
(d) Right against exploitation
Ans.(b): The Constitution of India does not recognize
‘Right of Property’ as Fundamental Right. Constitution RAS/RTS (Pre.) G.S., 2003
44th Amendment, 1978, eliminated the right to acquire, Ans.(c): Among the given options, Right to information is
hold and dispose of property as Fundamental Right. not a Fundamental Right as per the Constitution of India.
However in another part of the Constitution, Article
300(A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be Right to information Act, 2005 provided practical regime
deprived of his property by authority of law. Due to of right of information for citizens of India to secure access
this, Right of Property as a Fundamental Right is now to information under the control of public authority.
substituted as ‘Statuary Right’.
100. Consider the following :
95. What is the position of the Right to Property in
India? 1. Right to education.
(a) Legal right available to citizens only 2. Right to equal access to public service.
(b) Legal right available to any person 3. Right to food.
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
Which of the above is/are human rights under
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
IAS (Pre) G.S 2021 “universal declaration of human rights”?
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
question. (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
96. Which one of the following is NOT a IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2011
fundamental right anymore?
(a) Right to property Ans.(d): Universal declaration of human rights was
(b) Right to Constitutional remedies proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in
(c) Right to move freely throughout the country Paris on 10th December, 1948 as a common standard of
(d) Right to assemble peacefully achievements for all peoples and all nations. It sets out, for
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I the first time, fundamental human rights to be universally
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 protected. Universal declaration of human rights has 30
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Articles which contains right to life, right to education,
question.
right to equal access to public service and right to food etc.
97. Which Constitutional amendment deleted the
right to property from Chapter III and made it 101. Other than the fundamental rights, which of the
legal right only? following parts of the Constitution of
(a) 24th Amendment (b) 29th Amendment India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions
nd
(c) 42 Amendment (d) 44th Amendment of the Universal declaration of human rights
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015
(1948)?
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. 1. Preamble
98. Which of the following is a statuary right but 2. Directive principles of state policy
not the Fundamental Right? 3. Fundamental duties
(a) Protection of life and personal liberty Select the correct answer using the given code
(b) To move freely throughout the territory of
below-
India
(c) To assemble peaceably (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) Right to property (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013 IAS (Pre) G.S 2020
MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 1993 Ans.(d): The Constitution of India provides special
BPSC (Pre) 1997
provisions for human rights. The Preamble, the
U.P.P.C.S (Pre.) G.S. 1992, 1994, 2000
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002-03 Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above State Policy reflect the principles and provisions of the
question. Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948).

83
102. Consider the following statements: (b) 1925 2. Madras Legislative
No one can be compelled to sing the National Council-Bill
Anthem since- introduced to throw
1. It will be violation of the Right to Freedom of open public roads
Speech and Expression and wells to all
persons
2. It will be violation of the Right to Freedom of
Conscience and Practice and Propagation of (c) 1936 3. Government of
Travancore-Temple
Religion
Entry Proclamation
3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to
(d) 1955 4. Untouchability
sing the National Anthem
Offences Act
In these statements-
Which of the pairs given below is/are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 are correct matched?
(b) 2 and 3 are correct A B C D
(c) 1,2 and 3 are correct (a) 1 2 3 4
(d) None is correct (b) 3 2 1 4
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1996 (c) 2 3 4 2
Ans.(c): In Bijoe Emmanuel Vs State of Kerala case, (d) 2 1 4 3
Supreme Court ruled that no provision of law obliges J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
anyone to sing the National Anthem as it violates the Ans.(a):
Article 19(1) (a) [freedom of speech] and 25(1)[ freedom (a) 1923 Bombay presidency-accelerate
to practice religion] of the Constitution of India. inclusion of untouchable children in
103. The Constitution of India recognizes educational institutions.
(a) Only religious minorities (b) 1925 Madras legislative council-Bill
introduced to throw open public
(b) Only linguistic minorities
roads and wells to all persons
(c) Religious and linguistic minorities
(c) 1936 Government of Travancore -temple
(d) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minority entry proclamation
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 1999
(d) 1955 Untouchability Offence act.
Ans.(c): The Constitution of India does not define the
106. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are
word ‘Minority’ and only refers to ‘Minorities’ and available only to the citizens of India?
speaks of those ‘based on religion or language’. Hence 1. Right to equality of opportunity in matter of
Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic public employment
minorities. 2. Equality before law
104. Which of the following is not a Fundamental 3. Right to freedom of religion
Right? 4. Right to freedom under Article 19
(a) Right against Exploitation Choose the correct answer.
(b) Equal pay for equal work (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) Equality before law (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(d) Right to freedom of Religion Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014 APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
Ans.(b): In the Randhir Singh Vs Union of India case, Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Supreme Court ruled that the principle of 'equal pay for question.
equal work' is not expressly declared by our 107. Which of the following Rights are available to
Constitution to be a Fundamental Right but it certainly foreigners living in India?
is a ‘Constitutional goal’. (i) Equality before law
105. Consider the following pairs with respect to (ii) Right to elementary education
legislation against untouchability. (iii) Freedom of speech
(a) 1923 1. Bombay Presidency- (iv) Freedom of movement
accelerate inclusion Select the correct answer from the codes given
of untouchable below-
children in (a) ii only (b) i & ii
educational
(c) ii & iv (d) I, ii & iii
institutions
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
84
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1. Equality before the Law
question. 2. Right against Discrimination
108. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is 3. Freedom to move freely throughout the
guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not country
to the foreign nationals living in India? 4. Right to contest election
(a) Equality before law and equal protection of Code:
law (a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4
(b) Freedom of speech and expression (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 2, 3, 4
(c) Right to life and liberty UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 2002
(d) Right to the freedom of religion Ans.(d): Article 14 of the Constitution provides
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 equality before the law or equal protection to all persons
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above within the territory of India, but right against
question. discrimination (Article 14, 15, 16), Freedom to move
freely throughout the country [Article 19(1) (d)] and
109. Choose those Fundamental Rights which are right to contest election [Article 84(a) for Parliament
provided to Indian citizens but not to non- and Article 173(a) for State Legislative Assemblies] are
citizens? provided only to Indian citizens.
I. Freedom of expression and speech
II. Equality before law 114. Which of the following is considered as
III. Interests of minorities Fundamental Rights of second generation?
IV. Protection of life and personal liberty (a) Right to work (b) Right to education
(a) I and III (b) I and IV (c) Right to freedom (d) Right to equality
(c) II and IV (d) II and III UPUDA/LDA Special (Pre.) G.S., 2010
BPSC (Pre.) G.S. 2016 Ans.(d): Right to education is considered as
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Fundamental Rights of second generation.
question. 115. Which of the following Fundamental Rights
110. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim have been not provided to foreigners?
Right to (a) Equality before law
(a) Freedom of trade and profession (b) Freedom of expression
(b) Equality before the law (c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty (d) Right against Exploitation
(d) Freedom of religion UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2007
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 1999 Ans.(b): As per the Constitution of India, Fundamental
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Rights, available to Indian citizen only and not to
question. foreigners are-
Article 15- Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
111. Which of the following Fundamental Rights religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
under the Constitution is guaranteed only to Article 16- Equality of opportunity in matters of
the citizens of India and not to foreigners living public employment.
in India? Article 19- Protection of certain rights regarding
(a) Equality before law freedom of speech, etc.
(b) Freedom of speech and expression Article 29- Protection of interests of minorities.
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty Article 30- Right of minorities to establish and
(d) Free practice of religion administer educational institutions.
UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam. G.S., 2015 Rest of the Fundamental Rights is provided
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. to both Indian citizens and foreigners.
112. Which one of the following right provided by 116. Match List-I (Article under Indian
Constitution of India is available to the Constitution) with List-II (Provision) and select
foreigners also? the correct answer:
(a) Freedom of expression List-I List-II
(b) To move freely and to reside and settle in any A Article-21 1. Protection against
part of the territory of India arrest and detention in
(c) Right to property certain cases
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies B. Article-22 2. Protection of life and
Jharkhand PSC (Pre.) G.S. 2010 personal liberty
BPSC (Pre.) 2011 C. Article-23 3. Prohibition of
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above employment of
question. children in factories
113. Which of the following Rights are not available etc.
to all persons in India? D. Article-24 4. Prohibition of traffic in
Select your answer by using the codes given human beings and
forced labour
below :
85
 Codes: (a) Articles 20 and 21 (b) Articles 14 and 15
A B C D (c) Articles 16 and 17 (d) Articles 24 and 25
(a) 2 1 4 3 UPPCS (Pre) G.S.,2015
(b) 4 3 2 1 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
(c) 1 2 3 4 Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) 2 4 1 3 question.
Manipur PSC-2016 121. Fundamental Rights are-
Ans.(a): Correct match is- (a) Justiciable (b) Non-Justiciable
Articles Provisions (c) Flexible (d) Rigid
Article 21 Protection of life and personal liberty UP Lower (Pre) G.S., 2002
Article 22 Protection against arrest and detention Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Article 23 Prohibition of traffic in human beings question.
and forced labour 122. Consider the following statements about the
Article24 Protection of employment of children in Fundamental Rights in India :
factories etc. 1. They are a guarantee against state action
117. Fundamental Rights- 2. They are enumerated in Part III of the
(a) Cannot be suspended Constitution
(b) Can be suspended by the order of the Prime 3. They ensure social, economic and political
Minister justice
(c) May be suspended on the will of President 4. They are unlike Bill of Rights in the U.S.A.
(d) May be suspended during Emergency Now, select the correct answer from the codes
UP Lower (Pre) G.S.,2002 given below:
Ans.(d): During normal circumstances, Fundamental (a) 1 and 2 are correct
Rights cannot be suspended. Fundamental Rights are (b) 2 and 3 are correct
Justiciable, which means that the citizens can seek the (c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
assistance of the courts for the enforcement of their (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Fundamental Rights under Article 32 (Supreme Court) UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 1998
and Article 226 (High Courts). Ans.(a): Part III of the Constitution of India is related to
Fundamental Rights could only be suspended during Fundamental Rights which are guaranteed by
Emergency. Article 352 of the Constitution provides for Constitution of India against State action. Social,
declaration of Emergency. Under Article 358, on a economic and political justice has been ensured by
declaration of emergency, the Fundamental Rights Directive Principle of the State Policy. Fundamental
guaranteed by Article 19 (Protection of certain Rights Rights are like the Bill of Rights in U.S.A. Hence
regarding freedom of speech etc.) stand suspended. option (a) is the correct answer.
Furthermore Article 359 of the Constitution provided 123. Which one of the following statements is
that when a proclamation of emergency is in operation, correct?
the enforcement of Fundamental Right may be (a) Rights are claims of the State against the
suspended by the issue of a Presidential order except citizens.
Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated
offences) and Article 21(Protection of life and personal in the Constitution of a State.
liberty). (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the
118. The Right to Freedom under Article 19 of the State.
Constitution of India may be suspended by the (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against
President of India? the many.
(a) Under Article 360 IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(b) Under Article 356 Ans.(c): Rights are claims (not the privileges) of the
(c) Under Article 352 citizens against the State. State originated to protect the
(d) At any time he so desires rights of its people and it is the primary responsibility of
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S, 2013 the State to protect the rights and freedoms of its subjects.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 124. Why the rights are called Fundamental Rights
question. because
119. Under the Constitution of India who is the (i) It is written in the Constitution
guardian of Fundamental Rights? (ii) It is democratic
(a) Parliament (b) President
(c) Judiciary (d) Cabinet (iii) It is public welfare
Himanchal PSC (Pre) GS, 2010 (iv) It is essential for personal development
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (v) Parliament can’t make law against it
question. (a) (i) (ii) (iii)
120. Which one among the following pairs of (b) (i) (iii) (iv)
Articles relating to the Fundamental Rights (c) (i) (iv) (v)
cannot be suspended during the enforcement of (d) (ii) (iii) (v)
emergency under Article 359 of the Indian (e) None of the above
Constitution? Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
86
 Ans.(c): The rights, which are enshrined in part III of Ans.(d): The correct match is as follows -
the Constitution, are called ‘Fundamental Rights’. Fundamental Rights Articles related
Cultural and Educational - Article 29-30
These rights ensure the fullest physical, mental and Rights
moral development of every citizen. Fundamental Right to Constitutional - Article 32
Rights generate a feeling of security amongst the Remedies
minorities in the country. Fundamental Rights provide Right against Exploitation - Articles 23-24
standards of conduct, citizenship, justice and fair play. Right ot Equality - Articles 14-18
They serve as a check on the Government. These rights 128. Which one of the following writs is issued
during the pendency of proceedings in a court?
are Justiciable. Constitution of India does not permit the (a) Mandamus (b) Certiorari
Legislature and the Executive to curb these rights either (c) Prohibition (d) Quo warranto
by law or by an executive order. UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2010
125. Which Article(s) of the Indian Constitution Ans. (c) Prohibition writ is an order from a superior
deal(s) with Fundamental Rights? court to a lower court or tribunal directing the Judge and
the parties to cease the litigation because the lower
(a) Article 343 (b) Article 51A court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or
(c) Article 36-50 (d) Article 12-35 determine the matters before it.
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017 129. A writ which is issued by the judiciary and
UP Lower (M) G.S. 2015-16 through which executive has been asked to
Ans.(d): Part III (Article 12 to 35) of the Constitution perform under authorized powers, is called as-
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
of India deals with Fundamental Rights. (c) Prohibition (d) Quo Warranto
126. Which one of the following is not among the six UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2003
Fundamental Rights provided by the Ans. (b) Mandamus is a command issued by a court to
Constitution of India? an authority directing it to perform a public duty
(a) Right to equality imposed upon it by law. The function of mandamus is
to keep the public authorities within the limits of their
(b) Right to protest, jurisdiction while exercising public functions.
(c) Right against exploitation 130. Mandamus is a writ issued by the Apex Court:
(d) Right to freedom of religion (a) Asking a public official or any authority to
UPPCS (Main G.S. IInd Paper 2015 perform legal duties
Ans. (b) The Six Fundamental Rights provided by (b) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any
person to public office
Constitution of India are-
(c) Asking a person who has detained any other
1. Right to Equality (Article 14 to 18) persons to appear before a court
2. Right to Freedom (Article 19 to 22) (d) Against any lower court not to do any act
3. Right against Exploitation (Article 23 and 24) excess of their jurisdiction
4. Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25 to 28) OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
5. Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29 and 30) Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) 131. When the Supreme Court issues a writ to a
person or to an institution to perform its duty,
127. Correctly match the following: it is called
(I) (II) (a) Certiorari (b) Mandamus
A. Cultural and 1. Articles 14-18 (c) Quo Warranto (d) Habeas Corpus
Educational UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007
Rights Ans.(b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
132. Which of the following writs can be filed for
B. Right to 2. Articles 23-24
the sack of personal liberty or freedom?
Constitutional (a) Mandamus
Remedies (b) Quo Warranto
C. Right against 3. Article 32 (c) Habeas Corpus
Exploitation (d) Certiorari
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2005
D. Right to Equality 4 Articles 29-30
Ans. (c) By Habeas Corpus writ, the court directs the
Code: person or authority, who has detained another person, to
A B C D bring the prisoner in person before the court so as to
(a) 4 3 1 2 enable the court to decide the validity, jurisdiction or
(b) 3 4 2 1 justification for such detention. Under Article 22 of the
Constitution, a person arrested is required to be
(c) 3 4 1 2 produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of his
(d) 4 3 2 1 arrest and failure to do so would entitle the arrested
CGPSC Pre 2022 person to be released.

87

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09.
Directive Principles of State Policy
1. With regards to Directive Principles of State Ans.(b):Article 36-51, under Part-IV of Indian
Policy, what is the correct chronological order Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State
in which the following additions changes were Policy (DPSP), it is borrowed from Ireland. They are
incorporated into the Constitution of India not enforceable by the courts but these principles
through amendments?
should apply by the states in making the laws.
I. The adding of a second aspect relating to
Article 38. Hence, both statements are correct.
II. The changing of the subject-matter of 4. Consider the following pairs:
Article 45. 1. Educational and economic interests of
III. The adding of Article of Article 43B. weaker section : Article 45 of the Constitution
IV. The adding of Article of Article 48A. 2. Educational and economic interest of SCs &
Select the answer using the codes given below: STs : Article 46 of the Constitution
(a) I, III, IV, II 3. Organization of agriculture and animal
(b) IV, I, II, III husbandry : Article 47 of the Constitution
(c) IV, II, I, III How many of the above pairs are correctly
(d) I, IV, II, III
matched?
APPSC (Pre) 2023
(a) Only one pairs
Ans. (b) : The correct chronological order of
(b) Only two pairs
amendments of articles are as follows :-
(c) All three pairs
The adding of Article 48A - 1976
The adding of a second aspect relating to Article 38 - (d) None of the pairs
1978 (e) Question not attempted
The changing of the subject-matter of Article 45 - 2002 Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
The adding of Article of Article 43B - 2011 Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows :-
2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says Educational and : Article-46
that Directive Principles of State Policy are not economic interests of
enforceable by any court? weaker sections
(a) Article 39 (b) Article 28 Educational and : Article-46
(c) Article 36 (d) Article 37 economic interest of
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I SCs & STs
Ans. (d) : Article 37 of the Indian Constitution Organisation of : Article-48
provides that Directive Principles of State Policy are not agriculture and animal
enforceable by any courts but the principles there in laid husbandry
down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of Hence, only pairs 2 is correctly matched.
the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply 5. Consider the following pairs:
these principles in making laws. 1. Right to adequate means of livelihood :
3. Consider the following statements with respect Article 39(a) of Constitution.
to Directive Principles of State Policy : 2. Equal pay for equal work for both the
1. They are not enforceable by the Courts.
women : Article 39(e) of Constitution.
2. It shall be the duty of the State to apply these
3. Right to work, education and assistance :
Principles in making laws.
Article 41 of Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given
How many of the above pairs are correctly
below:
matched?
Code − (a) Only one pair
(a) Only 1 (b) Only two pairs
(b) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three pairs
(c) Only 2 (d) None of the pairs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) Question not attempted
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled) Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
88
 Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows :- (a) Article 41 (b) Article 43
Right to adequate : Article 39(a) (c) Article 44 (d) Article 42
means of livelihood. UPPSC (J) 2023
Equal pay for equal : Article 39(d) Ans. (c) : Article 44 of Indian Constitution is related to
work for both men and the Uniform Civil Code, it directs the state to secure for
all citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the
women
country.
Right to work, : Article 41
9. Who said that, "The Directive Principles of the
education and public State Policy are the only pious aspirations of
assistance the noble souls"?
Hence, only pairs 1 & 3 are correctly matched. (a) K.C. Wheare (b) Ivor Jennings
6. Consider the following pairs: (c) Lord Acton (d) Granville Austin
1. Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid : Article 36 UPPSC (J) 2023
of Constitution Ans. (b) : Sir Ivor Jennings said DPSPs are the only
2. Promotion of Cooperative Societies : Article pious aspirations of the noble souls.
43B of Constitution Dr. B. R. Ambedkar describes these principles as 'novel
3. Participation of Workers in Management of features' of Indian constitution. The Directive Principles
Industries : Article 43A of Constitution. along with the fundamental rights contains the
How many of the above pairs are correctly philosophy of the constitution and is the soul the
constitution.
matched?
Granvelle Austin has described the directive principles
(a) Only one pair and fundamental right as the Conscience of the
(b) Only two pairs Constitution'.
(c) All three pairs 10. Match the following List-P (Directive
(d) None of the pairs Principles) with List-R (Articles):
(e) Question not attempted List-P List-R
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023 A. Equal justice and I. Article 48A
Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows :- free legal aid
Equal Justice and Free : Article 39(A) B. Protection of the II. Article 39A
Legal Aid environment
Promotion of co- : Article 43(B) C. Right to Work III. Article 41
operative societies D. Protection of Monu- IV.Article 49
Participation of : Article 43(A) ments
workers in Select correct option.
management of A B C D
industries (a) I III IV II
Hence, only pairs 2 & 3 are correctly matched. (b) II I III IV
7. Which of the following Provision is a part of (c) III I IV II
both Directive Principles of State Policy and (d) II III I IV
Fundamental Duties? (e) Question not attempt
(a) Participation of workers in management of RPSC (Pre) 2023
industries Ans.(b): The correct match is as–
(b) Uniorm Civil Code Provisions Article
(c) Guardians to provide opportunity for education Equal justice and Article 39A
to children
free legal aid
(d) Protection of environment
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 Protection of the Article 48A
environment
Ans. (d) : Article 43(A) of Directive Principles of State
Policy says that the state shall endeavor to protect and Right to Work Article 41
improve the environment and to safeguard the forests Protection of Monuments Article 49
and wild life of the country. 11. Which of the following are wrongly paired?
Article 51-A(g) of Fundamental Duties says that 'It (1) Obligation for the state and Art 48A
shall be duty of every citizen of India to protect and individual to protect
improve the natural environment including forests, environment
lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for
(2) Early childhood care and Art 45
living creatures."
education for all children
8. Which of the following Articles of Indian until they complete the age
Constitution is related to the 'Uniform Civil
of fourteen years
Code'?
89
 (3) Separate judiciary from the Art 39 Ans.(a): The 25th Amendment Act, 1971, gave
executive in the public authority to the Parliament to enact laws for
services of the state Implementing provisions of Article 39(b) and 39(c) by
(4) Voluntary formation, Art 44 inserting Article 31(c) in Part III of the Constitution of
autonomous functioning of India. First part of Article 31(c) states that while
cooperative societies enacting laws shall for the said provisions, such laws
(a) (1), (3) and (4) only not be questioned for violation for Article 14 and 19 of
(b) (2), (3) and (4) only the Constitution and the second part restricts the
(c) (1) and (2) only scrutiny of laws made under Article by the counts.
(d) (3) and (4) only 15. Which one of the following is included in the
(e) Answer not known Directive Principles of State Policy?
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 (a) Protection in respect of Conviction for
Ans. (d) offences.
Article 39 is related to adequate means of livelihood for (b) Protection of life and personal liberty.
all citizens. (c) Protection of interest of minorities.
Article 44 is related to uniform civil code. (d) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
Article 50 is related to separation of judiciary from women
execution. UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd Paper 2012
Article 43B is related to promotion of voluntary Ans.(d): Equal pay for equal work for both men and
formation, autonomous functionary, democratic control women is Directive Principle of the State Policy
and professional management of co-operative societies. mentioned in Article 39(d) of the Constitution. Rest
12. "The Directive Principles of state Policy is a three are Fundamental Rights.
cheque which is paid on bank's convenience." 16. Which of the following is/are included in the
Who said this? Directive Principles of State policy?
(a) B.R. Amebdkar (b) R.M. Munshi 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) K.T. Shah forced labour
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 2. Prohibition of Consumption except for
UPPSC (Mains) G.S IInd Paper 2007 medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and
Ans.. (d) : According to K.T. Shah, the Directive of other drugs which are injurious to health
Principles of State Policy are like a cheque on a bank Select the correct answer using the code given
payable at the convenience of the bank. below:
13. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
Directive Principles of State Policy? (c) Both 1 and 2 Only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(i) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens IAS (Pre) G.S., 2008
(ii) Promotion of international peace and security Ans.(b): Article 47 mentions prohibition of consumption
(iii) Right of minorities to establish institutions except for medical purposes of intoxicating drinks and
(iv) Organization of agriculture and animal other drugs which are injurious to health hence statement
husbandry 2 is DPSP.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Article 23 of constitution mentions prohibition or
below. trafficking in human beings and forced labour. Thus it is
(a) Both (ii) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (iv) fundamental right.
(c) Only (i) (d) Only (iii) 17. Which one of the following is a Directive
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 Principle of the State Policy?
Ans. (d) : In the above given options, Right of (a) Uniform Civil Code
minorities to establish institutions is the part of (b) Freedom of the Press
fundamental rights while the rest given options are part (c) Freedom of the Religion
of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). (d) Equality before Law
14. Which amendment of the Constitution UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010
provided that no law passed to give effect to Ans.(a): Article 44 of the Directive Principle of the
Directive Principles of State Policy contained in State Policy asserts that the State shall endeavor to
Articles 39 (b) & (c) shall be deemed to be void secure uniform civil code for the citizens throughout the
on the ground that it abridges the rights territory of India. Freedom of press in India comes
under Article 19(1) (a) which asserts all the citizens
conferred by Articles 14 and 19? shall have right to freedom of speech and expression.
(a) 25th Amendment (b) 28th Amendment Freedom of religion and equality before law comes
(c) 42ndAmendment (d) 44th Amendment under Fundamental Rights mentioned in Article 25 and
UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd Paper 2009 14 respectively.

90
18. Which one of the following is a Directive 22. Which one of the following is not Directive
principle of State Policy? Principle?
(a) The State shall endeavour to protect and (a) Prohibition of liquor
improve the environment.
(b) The State shall not deny to any person (b) Prohibiting the slaughter
equality before law. (c) Environment protection
(c) The State shall not discriminate against any (d) Free education for the children up to fourteen
person on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex years
or place or birth. UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2010
(d) Untouchability enforcement.
Ans.(d): By the Constitution 86th Amendment Act,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
2002, Article 21A was added to the Constitution which
Ans.(a): By the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act,
1976, Article 48 A was inserted which asserts that the asserts that the State shall provide free and compulsory
State shall endeavor to protect and improve the education to all children of the age of six to fourteen
environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life years and substituted a new heading for Article 45 as
of the country. Rest three given options are related to ‘provision for early childhood care and education to
Fundamental Rights. children below the age of six years’. Hence free
19. Which one of the following is not a Directive education for the children up to fourteen years is now
Principle of State Policy? Fundamental Right instead of Directive Principle of the
(a) Prohibition of Liquor
State Policy.
(b) Right to Work
(c) Equal pay for equal work 23. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory
(d) Right to Information Education Act applies to children in the age
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2006 group of
UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd Paper 2010 (a) 5 to 12 years (b) 6 to 12 years
Ans.(d): Right to Information is Fundamental right (c) 6 to 14 years (d) 6 to 16 years
under Article 21 as well as statuory right while rest are J & K PSC Pre-2018
Directive Principle of the State Policy.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
20. Which of the following is/are mentioned in the
Directive Principles of State Policy? question.
(1) Securing a social order for the promotion of 24. Which of the following is not the Directive
welfare of the people. Principle of the State Policy?
(2) Organization of Agriculture and Animal (a) Prohibition on Liquor
Husbandry. (b) Prohibition on cow slaughter
(3) Provision of giving opportunities and (c) Protection of environment
facilities to the children for their development (d) Free education for the children up to fourteen
in a healthy manner. years
(4) Provision of safeguarding public property. U.P. Lower (Pre) G.S. 2013
Choose the correct answer from the following: Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 question.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. In the Constitution of India, promotion of
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
international peace and security is included in
Ans.(c): Provision of safeguarding public property is a the
Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Constitution. (a) Preamble to the Constitution
While rest are Directive Principles of the State Policy. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
21. Constitution is silent about which of the (c) Fundamental Duties
following Directive Principle of the State (d) Ninth Schedule
Policy? IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002
(a) Adult education IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014
(b) Living wages for workers UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 2017
(c) Free legal aid to poor Ans.(b): Article 51 of the Directive Principle of the
(d) Free and compulsory education State Policy asserts that the State shall endeavour to
U.P. Lower (Pre) G.S. 2008 promote international peace and security, maintain just
Ans. (a) Under the Directive Principle of the State and honourable relations between nations, foster respect
Policy, living wages for workers is mentioned in Article for international law and treaty obligations in the
43, free legal aid to poor in Article 39A and free and dealings of organized peoples with one another and
compulsory education in Article 45. The Constitution of encourage settlement of international disputes by
India is silent about the adult education. arbitration.

91
26. Provision for Panchayati raj system in India Which of the statements given above is / are
has been made under which of the following? correct?
(a) Fundamental Rights (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Fundamental Duties (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Directive Principle of the State Policy
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015
(d) Election commission Act
BPSC (Pre) G.S., 2002 Ans.(c): Directive Principle of the State Policy
Ans.(c): Article 40 of the Directive Principle of the contained in Part IV from Article 36 to 51 of the
State Policy is regarding the organization of village Constitution of India are not enforceable by any court
Panchayats which asserts that the State shall take steps but the principles laid down therein are considered
to organize village Panchayats and endow them with fundamental in the governance of the country, making it
such powers and authority as may be necessary to the duty of the State to apply these principles in making
enable them to function as units of self government. laws to establish socio-economic democracy in the
27. Which Article of the Directive Principles of the country.
Constitution mentions about empowering 30. The ''Instrument of Instructions" contained in
Village Panchayats?
the Government of India Act 1935 have been
(a) Article 38 (b) Article 39
(c) Article 40 (d) Article 41 incorporated in the Constitution of India in the
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 year 1950 as
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) Fundamental Rights
question. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
28. Consider the following provisions under the (c) Extent of executive power of State
Directive Principles of State Policy as (d) Conduct of business of the Government of
enshrined in the Constitution of India: India
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010
code Ans.(b): The ''Instrument of Instructions" contained in
2. Organizing village Panchayats
the Government of India Act,1935 have been
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable
1950 as Directive Principle of the State Policy.
leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian 31. With reference to the Constitution of India,
Principles that are reflected in the Directive consider the following:
Principles of State Policy? 1. Fundamental Rights
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Fundamental Duties
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 Which of the above provisions of the
Ans.(b): Directive Principle of the State Policy Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the
contained in Part IV from Article 36 to 51 of the National Social Assistance Programme
Constitution of India are not enforceable by any court launched by the Government of India?
but the principles laid down therein are considered
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
fundamental in the governance of the country, making it
the duty of the State to apply these principles in making (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
laws to establish socio-economic democracy in the IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010
country. Ans.(b): The National Social Assistance Program
Article 40 is regarding village Panchayats, Article 43 is th
(NSAP) came into effect from 15 August, 1995,
regarding the promotion of cotton industry, Article 43 B represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of
is regarding management of co-operative society. the Directive Principles in Article 41( right to work, to
Article 46 is regarding social and economic education and to public assistance in certain cases) of
development of schedule caste and scheduled tribes.
the Constitution. The program introduced a national
Article 47 is regarding prohibit the consumption of
policy for social assistance for the poor and aims at
intoxicating drink, drugs and Article 48 is regarding
ensuring minimum national standard for social
prohibit the slaughter of cows.
assistance.
29. Consider the following statements regarding
the Directive Principles of State Policy: 32. MGNREGA scheme was launched to implement
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic which Article of the Constitution of India?
democracy in the country. (a) Article 43 (b) Article 45
2. The provisions contained in these Principles (c) Article 47 (d) Article 50
are not enforceable by any court. (UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2010)
92
Ans.(a): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment 36. "Directive Principles is a novel feature in a
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme is the largest constitution framed for parliamentary
social security scheme in the world which aims at democracy. They have no binding force. But
enhancing the livelihood security of people in rural whoever captures power will not be free to do
areas by guaranteeing hundred days of wage what he likes with it. He will have to respect the
employment in a financial year to rural household Directive Principles. He cannot ignore them.
whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual He may not have to answer for their breach in
work. MGNREGA was launched to implement Article a court of law, but he will certainly have to
43 of the Constitution under the Directive Principle of answer for them before the electorate at
election time."
State Policy related to living wages for workers.
Who said this?
33. Which of the following is/are listed among the (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Directive Principles in Part-IV of the (b) B.N. Rao
Constitution of India? (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
I. Equal Pay for Equal Work (d) K.M. Munshi
II. Uniform Civil Code Maharashtra PSC 2022
III. Small family norm Ans.(c): On November 19, 1948, Dr. Ambedkar,
IV. Education through mother tongue at primary speaking in the Constituent Assembly, described the
level Directive Principles as a 'Novel feature' and 'Socialistic'
Code: feature of the constitution. The given phrase is part of
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II his speech in the Constituent Assembly on 19th
(c) II and III (d) I, II and IV November, 1948.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above 37. Which of the following is described as a "novel
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016 feature" in the Indian Constitution?
Ans.(b): Directive Principles of the State Policy are (a) Fundamental Rights
contained in Part IV from Article 36 to 51 of the (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
Constitution. Article 39(d) of the Constitution is about (c) Fundamental Duties
equal pay for equal work for both men and women. (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Article 44 is about uniform civil code. Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
Small family norm has not been mentioned in the Ans.(b): Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described Directive
Constitution of India while education through mother Principles as a “Novel Feature” of the Constitution.
tongue at primary level is mentioned in Article 350 (A) They are in the nature of general directions, instructions
which is not Directive Principle of the State Policy. or guidelines to the State.
34. The provision of 'Equal pay for equal work 38. The Gandhian Principles or Philosophy have
both for men and women' under the Indian been enumerated in the:
Constitution is a: (a) Fundamental Rights
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Duty of the Employers (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Directive Principle (d) Fundamental Duties
(d) Special Enactment OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 Ans.(c): Directive Principle of State Policy are diverse
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. in nature and are believed to reflect three types of
35. According to the Constitution of India, which ideologies namely Socialistic Principle, Gandhian
of the following are fundamental for the Principle and Liberal Intellectual Principle. Directive
governance of the country? Principle of State Policy includes Gandhian principals
under Article 40, Article 43, Article 43B, Article 46,
(a) Fundamental Rights
Article 47 and Article 48. The purpose of DPSP is to
(b) Fundamental Duties
establish social and economic democracy.
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties 39. The Directive Principles of State Policy may be
classified into which of the following parts for
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013
the sake of convenient study?
Ans.(c): The Constitution of India lays down certain (a) Socialist
Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV, which (b) Liberal intellectualistic
though not justifiable but is 'fundamental in governance
(c) Gandhian
of the country' and it is the duty of the State to apply
(d) All of the above
these principles in making laws.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
93
Ans.(d): Constitution has not categorised Directive 45. Under the Indian Constitution concentration of
Principles of State Policy. However broadly it can be wealth violates:
categorised in Gandhian Liberal and socialist philosphy. (a) The Rights to Equality
Organization of village Panchayats and promotion of (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
cottage industries and Gandhian ideas. (c) The Right to Freedom
40. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive (d) The Concept of Welfare
Principles of State Policy in the Indian IAS (Pre) G.S 2021
Constitution is to establish: Ans. (b): Under the Indian Constitution, concentration
(a) Political democracy of wealth violates the Directive Principle of State
(b) Social democracy Policy. Under Article 39 of the Constitution, the state
(c) Gandhian democracy shall direct its policy towards securing that the
(d) Social and economic democracy operation of the economic system does not result in the
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002 concentration of wealth and means of production to the
common detriment.
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. 46. Which one of the following is NOT correctly
matched?
41. Which part of the Constitution of India Directive Principles of Article
declares the ideal of Welfare state? State Policy
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights (a) State to secure a social - 37
(c) Preamble Order for promotion of
(d) Seventh Schedule Welfare of people
(b) Certain principles of policy - 39
IAS (Pre) G.S 2020 to be followed by the State
Ans.(a): A welfare state is a form of government in (c) Promotion of Cooperative - 43B [Inserted
which the state protects and promotes the economic and Societies by the
social well being of its citizens. constitution
The Directive Principles of state policy (DPSP) (Ninty-
contained in the Indian Constitution (Part IV) from Seventh
Article 36 to Article 51 aim to establish social and Amendment)
economic democracy through welfare state. The idea of Act, 2011]
DPSP is adopted from constitution of Ireland. (d) Promotion of International - 51
42. The Ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Peace and Security
Constitution is enshrined in its: UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
(a) Preamble Ans.(a): The correct matching is as follows–
(b) Directive Principle's of State Policy Directive Principles of State Policy - Article
(c) Fundamental Rights (a) State to secure a social - 38
(d) Seventh Schedule Order for promotion of
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021, 2020 Paper-I
Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019 Welfare of people
Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018 (b) Certain principles of policy - 39
Haryana PSC (Pre) G.S., 2014 to be followed by the State
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015 (c) Promotion of Cooperative - 43B
U.P. Lower (M) 2013 Societies
BPSC (Pre) 1994 (d) Promotion of International - 51
Uttarakhand PCs (Pre) 2002-03 Peace and Security
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
43. India borrowed the idea of Directive Principle List-I List-II
of State Policy from the Constitution of: A. Formation of Village 1. Article-44
(a) The Weimar Republic of Germany Panchayat
(b) The Republic of Ireland B. Uniform Civil Code 2. Article-48
(c) The South Africa C. SeparationJudiciary 3. Article-50
(d) None of these from Executive
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I D. Promotion of 4. Article-51
Manipur PSC-2016 International peace
E. Agriculture and 5. Article-40
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. Animal Husbandry
44. In Indian Constitution the Directive Principals A B C D E
of State policy were incorporated in Article (a) 3 4 2 1 5
from. (b) 5 3 2 1 4
(a) Art. 40 to Art. 51 (b) Art. 36 to Art. 51 (c) 2 3 5 4 1
(c) Art. 39 to Art. 51 (d) Art. 25 to Art. 51 (d) 1 5 3 4 2
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014 (e) None of the above/More than one of the
above
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020
94
Ans.(e): Ans.(d): Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid is provided
Formation of village Panchayat – Article 40 under Article 39A. Hence 1st pair is incorrect.
Uniform Civil code – Article 44 Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry is
Separation of Judiciary from Executive – Article 50 given under Article 48. Hence 2nd option is also
incorrectly paired. Article 40 deals with Organization of
Promotion of International peace and – Article 51
Development Village Panchayat, therefore 3rd pair is also incorrect,
Article 39 deals with equal pay for equal work for both
Agriculture and Animal Husbandry – Article 48 men and women. Therefore 4th pair is correct.
48. In India, separation of judiciary from executive 53. Which one of the following is NOT correctly
is enjoined by matched?
(a) The preamble of the Constitution (Subject) (Related Articles)
(b) The directive principles of state policy (a) The separation of - Article 50
(c) The seventh schedule Judiciary from Executive
(d) The conventional practice (b) The promotion of - Article 46
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020 Educational and economic
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Interests of Scheduled Castes
Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017 And Scheduled Tribes
Ans.(b): Directive Principles of the State Policy are (c) The promotion of - Article 43A
mentioned in Part IV (Article 36 to 51) of the Co-operative societies
Constitution. Article 50 of the Constitution is related to (d) The organization of - Article 40
the separation of the judiciary from executive. Village Panchayats
49. Which of the following is not the objective of And enable them to
the Directive Principles of the State Policy? Function as the units
(a) To establish a religious State Of self government
(b) To establish a welfare State UPPSC (Pre) 2021
(c) To ensure socio-economic justice Ans. (c): Article 43B of the Constitution of India is
(d) To promote international peace and security regarding promotion of cooperative Societies. It says,
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 the State shall endeavor to promote voluntary
Ans.(a): Among the given options, to establish a formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control
religious State is not an objective of Directive Principle and professional management of co-operative societies.
of State Policy. Rest are objectives of Directive
54. The following is not one of the Directive
Principle of State Policy.
Principles is the Constitution:
50. The purpose of Uniform Civil Code (a) Increasing international trade
incorporated in Article 44 of Indian (b) Prohibition of cow slaughter
Constitution is for: (c) Equal pay for equal work of men and women
(a) National Security (d) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(b) Cultural Integration APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
(c) National Unity
(d) Welfare of Minorities Ans.(a): Among the given options, increasing
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I international trade is not a Directive Principle of State
Policy rest all are DPSP.
Ans.(c): Uniform Civil Code is common set of laws to Prohibition of cow slaughter (Article 48)
regulate personal affairs of citizen such as marriage, Equal pay for equal work of men and women [Article
divorce, adoption, inheritance irrespective of religion. It 39(d)]
aims to strengthen national unity. Separation of Judiciary from Executive (Article 50)
51. In which chapter of the Indian Constitution 55. Which one of the following is not the aim of the
there is a mention of Uniform Civil Code? concept of Directive Principle of the State
(a) In the Preamble
Policy?
(b) In the chapter on Directive Principle of State
(a) To establish a social welfare state
Policy
(b) To ensure social economic justice
(c) In the chapter on Fundamental Duties
(c) To establish a religious State
(d) In the chapter on Judiciary
(d) To establish a secular State
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S., 2013
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above UPPCS (Mains) G.S IInd 2017
question.
Ans.(c): Directive Principles of the State Policy
52. Identify the correct pair mentioning the mentioned in Part IV (Article 36 to 51) of the
Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution does not aim to establish a religious State.
Constitution of India-
(a) Equal justice and free legal aid-Article 42 56. Consider the following statements:
(b) Organization of agriculture and animal With reference to the Constitution of India, the
husbandry-Article 43 Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
(c) Organization of village Panchayat-Article 41 limitations upon
(d) That there is equal pay for equal work for 1. Legislative function.
both men and women-Article 39 2. Executive function.
RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

95
 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only Ans.(c): Article 51 A (g) under Fundamental Duties
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 asserts that it shall be the fundamental duty of every
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017 citizen to protect and improve the natural environment
Ans.(d): Directive Principles of the State Policy are
including forests and wildlife whereas Article 48 A
mentioned in Part IV (Article 36 to 51) of the
Constitution. Directive Principles are not enforceable by under the Directive Principle of State Policy is
any court but the principles therein laid down are regarding protection and improvement of environment
nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the and safeguarding of forests and wildlife. Hence (c) is
country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply the correct answer.
these principles in making laws. Hence Directive 60. Which of the following Directive Principles did
Principle of State Policy does not constitute limitations
not form part of the original Constitution and
on either legislative function or executive function. On
the other hand, Constitution of India constitutes were added through Constitutional amendments?
limitation on the functioning of both legislative and (1) To minimize inequality in income.
executive through Fundamental Rights mentioned in (2) To protect and improve the environment and
Part III of the Constitution from Article 12 to 35. to safeguard forests and wildlife.
57. With reference to the provisions contained in (3) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of
the following statements is/are correct? women
1. They shall be enforceable by courts (4) To ensure equal justice and free legal aid to
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court the poor.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to (5) To secure adequate means of livelihood for
influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given all citizens.
below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018
IAS (Pre) G.S 2020
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans.(d): The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment)
question. Act, 1976 added three more Directive Principles namely
58. Which principle among the following was 39A, 43A and 48A. Article 39A deals with equal justice
added to the Directive Principles of State Policy and free legal aid, Article 43A deals with participation
nd
by the 42 Amendment to the Constitution? of workers in the management of industries and Article
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
48A is protection and improvement of environment and
women
(b) Participation of workers in the management safeguarding of forests and wildlife. The 44th
of industries Amendment Act 1978 added one more Directive
(c) Right to work, education and public Principle, which requires the state to minimise
assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions inequalities in income states, facilities and opportunities
of work to workers (Article 38).
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017 61. Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid is a
Ans.(*): The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) (a) Directive Principle of State Policy
Act, 1976 added three more Directive Principles namely (b) Fundamental Right
39A, 43A and 48A. Article 39A deals with equal justice (c) Fundamental Duty
and free legal aid, Article 43A deals with participation (d) Duty of the Judiciary
of workers in the management of industries and Article Manipur PCS - 2013
48A is protection and improvement of environment and
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
safeguarding of forests and wildlife.
62. Which one of the following Directive Principle
59. In which of the following ‘the provisions for the
was added after the implementation of the
protection and improvement of environment
Constitution?
and safeguarding of forests and wildlife’ are
(a) Organization of village Panchayats
found in the Constitution of India?
(a) Only in the Directive Principles of State (b) Ban on cow slaughter
Policy (c) Free legal aid
(b) Only in the Fundamental Duties (d) Uniform civil code
(c) Both (a) and (b) UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S., 2014
(d) None of the above Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
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10.
Fundamental Duties
1. Which of the following statement/statements Ans.(c): The Constitution of India (Article 80) has
is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental made provision that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of
Duties? 250 members, of which 12 members shall be nominated
I. Fundamental Duties are confined to just the by the President and not more than 238 representatives
citizen of India with the exception of Article of the States and of the two Union Territories (Delhi
and Puducherry). The present strength of Rajya Sabha is
51A(i), which is also applicable to foreigners 245, out of which 233 are representative of the States
that are resident in India. and Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and 12
II. The Varma Committee on Fundamental are nominated by the President.
Duties of the Citizens (1999) had recommended 4. The word “To Abide and Respect” used under
the implementation of the Fundamental Duties the provisions of Article 51 A of the
irrespective of the existence of legal provisions. Constitution of India is concerned to
III. In 'Kesavananda Bharati' Case (1973), the (a) Constitution
Supreme Court of India held that the (b) The sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
Fundamental Duties may be used to decide the (c) Rich heritage of our composite culture
constitutionality of laws that are otherwise (d) The natural environment
ambiguous to interpret. MPPSC Pre 2022
IV. The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee had Ans.(a): Article 51A deals with the Fundamental duties
recommended for penalties to be considered in of the citizen which states:
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to abide by
the eventuality of non-compliance of any of the the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions,
Fundamental Duties. the National Flag and the National Anthem.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 5. Which one of the following is incorrect?
below: (a) Fundamental Duties are the part of the
(a) III and IV Fundamental Rights.
(b) I and II (b) Fundamental Duties are not a part of
(c) Only IV Fundamental Rights.
(d) II and IV (c) Fundamental Duties are enumerated in the
APPSC (Pre) 2023 Part –IV A of Indian Constitution.
(d) Article 51 A explains 10 duties of every
Ans. (c) : Part IV A of the constitution provides for citizen of India.
fundamental duties, added to the constitution by 42nd UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
Amendment Act in 1976 on recommendation of Swaran Ans.(a): The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in
Singh Committee. Sardar Swaran Singh recommended the Constitution of India by the Constitutional 42nd
penalties for non compliance of duties. These are Amendment Act, 1976, on the recommendations of
applicable to the citizens of India as well as foreigners Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. They are mentioned
residing in India. in Part IV-A of the Constitution, under Article 51 (A).
Thus, only statement IV is correct. Fundamental Duties are intended to serve as a constant
2. Which among the following Committees was reminder to every citizen that while the Constitution
specifically conferred on them certain Fundamental Rights,
responsible for the incorporation of
it also requires citizens to observe certain basic norms of
Fundamental Duties in the Constitution? democratic conduct and democratic behavior as rights and
(a) Wanchoo Committee duties are co-relative. Fundamental Duties are borrowed
(b) Sachar Committee from the Constitution of then U.S.S.R.
(c) Swaran Singh Committee 6. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the
(d) Bhagawati Committee Constitution on the recommendation of-
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014 (a) Swaran Singh Committee
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Shah Commission
question. (c) Administrative Reforms Commission
3. The Union Territories get representation in (d) Santhanam Committee
(a) Lok Sabha RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
(b) Rajya Sabha APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
(c) Both houses of Parliament MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(d) None of the above UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2012
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 Uttarakhand PCs (Pre) 2002-03
97
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 9. Which of the following is not a fundamental
question. duty?
7. Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution (a) To strive towards abolition of untouchability
are adopted on the lines of the Constitution of (b) To cherish and follow the noble ideas which
(a) Germany (b) USSR inspired out national struggle for
(c) Ireland (d) Canada independence
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 (c) To protect and improve the natural
environment
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) To develop scientific temper, humanism and
question. spirit of inquiry and reform
8. Which of the following is/are among the UPPSC (J) 2023
Fundamental Duties, laid down in the Indian
Constitution? Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our question.
composite culture 10. Which of the following are among the
2. To protect the weaker sections from social Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the
injustice Indian Constitution?
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of I. To protect the weaker sections from social
inquiry injustice.
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of II. To develop scientific temper and spirit of
individual and collective activity inquiry.
Select the correct answer, using the codes III. To preserve the rich heritage of our
below: composite culture.
(a) 1 & 2 Only (b) 2 Only IV. To safeguard public property and adjure
violence.
(c) 1, 3, & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 Which of the statements given above are
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 correct?
Ans.(c): Part IV-A of the Constitution specifies 11 (a) II and III only (b) I and III only
Fundamental Duties in Article 51A added after 42nd (c) II, III and IV (d) All of the above
Constitution Amendment, 1976. Article 51(A) describes APPSC (Pre) 2023
11 fundamental duties, 10 came with the 42nd Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
Amendment and the 11th was added by the 86th question.
Amendment in 2002. These Fundamental Duties are
legally not enforceable. According to Article 51A, it 11. Which of the following statements (s) is/are
shall be the duty of every citizens of India- correct regarding Fundamental Duties in the
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals Constitution of India?
and institutions, the National Flag and the 1. Ten Fundamental Duties were added in the
National Anthem Constitution by 42th amendment Act.
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which 2. In 2002, one more Fundamental Duty was
inspired our national struggle for freedom included in the list which is eleventh.
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and Select the correct answer from the codes given
integrity of India below.
(d) To defend the country and render national service Code:
when called upon to do so (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
brotherhood amongst all the people of India UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
sectional diversities; to renounce practices question.
derogatory to the dignity of women 12. How many Fundamental Duties are in Article
(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our 51A of the Constitution?
composite culture (a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
(g) To protect and improve the natural environment APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014
have compassion for living creatures UP RO/RAO (Mains) G.S., 2014
(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and Manipur PCS - 2013
the spirit of inquiry and reform Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(i) To safeguard public property and to abjure
violence 13. Fundamental duties were incorporated in the
(j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of Constitution of India-
individual and collective activity so that the (a) 40th Constitutional amendment
nation constantly rises to higher levels of (b) 42nd Constitutional amendment
endeavor and achievement (c) 43rd Constitutional amendment
(k) To provide opportunities for education to his (d) 44th Constitutional amendment
child or ward between the age of 6 to 14 year. UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 1993, 1995
This Fundamental Duty was added by 86th BPSC (Pre) G.S, 1996
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.

98
14. When Fundamental Duties were included in Select the correct answer from the given code:
the Constitution? (a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (1), (3) and (4)
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(c) (2), (3) and (4) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(c) 1978 (d) 1979
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016 AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
15. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty? question.
(a) To protect monuments and places of national 20. As per the Constitution, "to cherish and follow
importance the noble ideas which inspired our national
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment
struggle for freedom", implies the following:
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To respect the National Anthem (a) An expression of patriotism
UPPSC (Pre), G.S, 2022 (b) A Fundamental Duty of citizens
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. (c) An advised ethical value
16. Under the Constitution of India which of the (d) A cultural value of India
following is NOT a Fundamental Duty? Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
(a) To vote in General Election Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property question.
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its 21. Which of the following is/are not among the
ideas. Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 Indian Constitution?
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. 1. To safeguard public property and to abjure
17. Which of the following statement is part of violence
fundamental duties enshrined in the Indian 2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our
Constitution? composite culture
(1) To promote religious, regional and linguistic 3. To protect and improve the natural
harmony and spirit of common brotherhood. environment including forests, lakes, rivers
(2) To educate children between the age of 6 and 14. and wild life, and to have compassion for
(3) To promote secular principles.
living creatures
(a) (1) and (2) only (b) (2) and (3) only
4. To aid and assist differently able persons
(c) (1) and (3) only (d) (1), (2) and (3)
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) Select the correct answer using the code given
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above below:
question. (a) 3 only (b) 4 only
18. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Duty? J & K PSC Pre-2018
(a) To respect National Anthem Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(b) To safeguard public property 22. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity
(c) To protect monuments and places of public and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the
importance (a) Preamble of the Constitution
(d) To protect and empower the natural (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 (c) Fundamental Rights
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) Fundamental Duties
question. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015
19. Which of the following is/are among the RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2015
fundamental duties of citizens in the Indian
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Constitution?
(1) To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity 23. Under the Constitution of India, which one of
and Integrity of India. the following is not a fundamental duty?
(2) To protect the weaker sections from social injustice. (a) To vote in public elections.
(3) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our (b) To develop the scientific temper.
composite culture. (c) To safeguard public property.
(4) To promote harmony and the spirit of (d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.
common brotherhood amongst all the people IAS (Pre) G.S., 2011
of India. Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
99
 24. Which one of the following duties have been (d) Wild animal
prescribed for the citizens? UP. Lower (Pre.) G.S. SPL 2008
(1) To organize village Panchayats Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(2) To minimize inequalities in income 31. Which of the following statements regarding
(3) To defend the country the Fundamental Duties contained in the
(4) To render military service Constitution of India are correct?
(5) To secure uniform civil code I. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the
(6) To vote in public elections Constitution of India since its adoption
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 5 II. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to
(c) Only 4, 5 and 6 (d) Only 3 Citizen of India
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 III. Fundamental Duties have become a part of
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. the Constitution of India in accordance with
25. Which one of the following is not a part of the recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Fundamental Duties under Indian Constitution? Committee.
(a) To defend the country and render national service. IV. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through
(b) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our writ jurisdiction
composite culture. (a) I, II and III correct (b) I, II and IV correct
(c) To help in organizing Village Panchayats. (c) II and III correct (d) II and IV correct
(d) To safeguard public property and to abjure TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
violence. Ans.(c): Fundamental Duties were added by 42nd
UPPCS (Pre) Re-exam G.S., 2015 Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above recommendation of Swaran Singh committee. Hence
question. statement I is not correct but statement III is correct.
26. Which one of the following is NOT provided in Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Hence statement II is correct. Fundamental Duties are
Constitution? legally not enforceable. Hence statement IV is not correct.
(a) To respect the National Flag. 32. The Verma Committee on Fundamental duties
(b) To promote the spirit of brotherhood amongst was Setup in the year.
all people of India. (a) 1999 (b) 1998 (c) 1996 (d) 1994
(c) To respect our parents and teachers. TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2015
(d) To preserve the rich heritage of our Ans.(b): In 1998, Atal Bihari Vajpayee's Government
composite culture. had appointed the Justice J.S. Verma Committee to
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014 operationalize the suggestions to teach Fundamental
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. Duties to the citizens of India.
27. Which one of the following is not a 33. Which of the following statements is/are true of
Fundamental Duty? the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
(a) To respect the National Anthem 1. A legislative process has been provided to
(b) To safeguard public property enforce these duties.
(c) To protect monuments and places of public 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the
importance correct answer using the code given below:
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2007 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
28. The duty of the parents to provide Ans.(d): Fundamental duties were incorporated in the
opportunities for education to his child is Constitution of India to remind every citizen that they
prescribed in: should not only be conscious of their rights but also for
(a) Article 51-A (b) Article 51-B their duties. There is neither specific provision for
(c) Article 21-A (d) None of the above enforceability nor any specific prohibition. Hence both
Manipur PSC-2016 1and 2 are incorrect.
Ans.(a): Article 51A of the Constitution is regarding 34. Which of the following statements regarding
Fundamental Duties. Article 51A(k) mentions to Fundamental Duties is not true?
provide opportunities for education to his child or ward (a) They can be enforced by the writs
between the age of six and fourteen years. (b) They can only be promoted by the
29. Fundamental duties of Indian citizens are Constitutional method
enumerated in: (c) They can be used for interpreting ambiguous
(a) Part I of the Constitution statutes
(b) Part IVA of the Constitution (d) The performance of any particular duty
(c) Part II of the Constitution comes within the sphere of Constitutional law
(d) Part IV of the Constitution which court has to decide
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2006, 2011, 2012 UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2000
Ans.(b): Article 51 A contained in Part IV A of the Ans.(a): Fundamental Duties are not legally
Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Duties. enforceable hence cannot be enforced by writs.
Fundamental duties are intended to serve as a constant
30. Protection of which one of the following is reminder to every citizen that while the Constitution
fundamental duty of Indian citizen? specifically conferred on them certain Fundamental
(a) Village Panchayats Rights, it also requires citizens to observe certain basic
(b) National flag norms of democratic conduct and democratic behaviour
(c) Schedule caste/Schedule tribe because rights and duties are co-relative.
100

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11.
Union Executive and Legislature
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
1. President explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
1. In connection with the veto power of the Indian correct explanation of (A).
President, which one of the following (c) (A) is false but (R) is true.
statement/statements is/are valid? (d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
I. The India President possesses 'Suspensive
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled)
Veto' in the case of Money Bill but not the case
of Finance Bills. Ans. (a) :Article-53 of the Indian constitution says.
II. The India President can exercise 'Absolute The executive power of the Union Vest in the
Veto' with respect to the Government Bill at all President of India because of President of India is the
times. constitutional Head of the state.
III. The India President enjoys 'Pocket Veto' Hence both assertion (A) and reason (R) both are
indefinitely whereas the American President correct and are correct explanation of (A).
possesses 'Qualified Veto'. 3. Consider the following statements:
IV. The objective of the veto power in being 1. The election to the office of the President of
conferred upon India President is to ensure a India is held in accordance with the system of
system of checks and balances between the proportional representation by means of single
office of the President and that of the power of
non- transferable vote.
the parliament.
2. The value of the vote of each Member of
Select the correct answer using the codes give
below: Parliament from Uttar Pradesh is greater than
(a) Only III (b) I, II and IV the value of the vote of the MP from Goa.
(c) III and IV (d) Only II 3. Electors cannot use the provision of NOTA
APPSC (Pre) 2023 in election of President.
Ans. (a) : When a bill is introduced in the parliament, 4. The provisions of Anti-defection law are not
parliament can pass the bill and before the bill becomes applicable in Presidential election.
an act, it has to be presented before the president for his How many of the statement given above are
approval. It is upto the President of India to either reject correct?
the bill, return the bill or withhold his/her assent to the (a) 1 and 2 only
bill. The choice of the President over the bill is called (b) 2 and 3 only
the veto power. (c) 3 and 4 only
There are three types veto :- (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
• Absolute veto (e) Question not attempted
• Suspensive veto & Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
• Pocket veto Ans. (c) : The election to the office of the President of
The President enjoys pocket veto indefinitely whereas India is held in accordance with the system of
the American President possess qualified veto. proportional representation by means of single
Thus only statement-III is correct. transferable vote (not by non-transferable vote).
2. Given below are two statements, in which one Hence, statement-1 is incorrect.
is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as The value of vote of each members of parliament are
Reason (R):
equal for every states.
Assertion (A) : The Constitution vests the
Hence, statement-2 is incorrect.
Executive Power of the Union in the President
of India. Electors cannot use the provision of NOTA in election
Reason (R) : The President of India is the of President.
Constitutional Head of the State. Hence, statement-3 is correct.
Select the correct answer using the code given The provisions of Anti-defection law are not applicable
below: in Presidential election.
Code − Hence, statement-4 is correct.

101
4. Consider the following statements in respect of Ans. (d) : If the election of a person as a president of
election to the President of India : India is declared void by the Supreme Court acts done
by him before the date of such declaration of Supreme
1. The members nominated to either House of Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in
the Parliament or the Legislative force. Hence statement-I is not correct.
Assemblies of States are also eligible to be The Supreme Court in 1974 held that the dissolution of
included in the Electoral College. state legislature will not be a ground for preventing the
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly holding of the election on the expiry of the term of the
president. Hence statement-2 is also incorrect.
seats, higher is the virtue of vote of each The Constitution of India does not prescribe any time
MLA of that State. limit within which the president has to take decision
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya with respect to bill presented to him/her for assent.
Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. Hence statement-3 is also incorrect.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of 6. Which of the following Union Territories are
included in the electoral college to elect to
Puducherry is higher than that of
Office the President of India by the
Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of
Constitution (70th Amendment) Act, 1992 to
total population to total number of elective purpose of Articles 54 and 55 of the
seats in Puducherry is greater as compared Constitution of India?
to Arunachal Pradesh. (A) NCR of Delhi
How many of the above statements are correct? (B) Goa
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) All four (C) Pondicherry
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 (D) Lakshadweep
Ans. (a) : The electoral college for election of President Select the answer by using the codes given
includes elected members of Parliament and state below:
legislative assemblies. Thus statement I is incorrect. (a) (A), (D) only (b) (A), (B) only
(c) (A), (C) only (d) (A), (C), (D)
The value of vote of each MLA depends on the ratio of
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
the state is population and the number of MLAs in its
legislative assembly and not just on number of elective Ans. (c) : The Union Territories Delhi and Pondicherry
are included in the electoral college to elect to Office
seats. Thus statement (2) is incorrect.
the President of India by the Constitution (70th
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is Amendment) Act, 1992 to purpose of Articles 54 and 55
less than that of vote value of each MLA of Kerala. of the Constitution of India.
Thus statement is incorrect. 7. What is the correct Chronological sequence of
The vote value of each MLA of Puducherry is higher the following advisory opinions given by the
than that of Arunachal Pradesh. Thus statement is Supreme Court under Article 143 of the
correct. Constitution?
5. Consider the following statements : (A) In Kerala Education Bill
1. If the election of the President of India is (B) In President Poll
declared void by the Supreme Court of (C) In Delhi Laws Act
India, all acts done by him/her in the (D) In Cauvery Dispute Tribunal
Select the correct answer using the codes given
performance of duties of his/her office of
below
President before the date of decision
(a) (B), (A), (C), (D) (b) (B), (C), (A), (D)
become invalid.
(c) (A), (C), (B), (D) (d) (C), (A), (B), (D)
2. Election for the post of the President of Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
India can be postponed on the ground that Ans. (d) : The correct Chronological order of adivsory
some Legislative Assemblies have been opinion of Supreme Court under Article 143 are
dissolved and elections are yet to take place. follows-
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of 1) The Delhi Law Act - 1912
2) The Kerala Education Bill - 1957
India, the Constitution prescribes time 3) The President Poll - 1974
limits within which he/she has to declare 4) The Cauvery Dispute Tribunal - 1990
his/her assent. 8. Which of the following Articles of the Indian
How many of the above statements are correct? Constitution is related to the power of the
(a) Only one (b) Only two President of granting Pardon?
(c) All three (d) None (a) Article 78 (b) Article 72
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 (c) Article 80 (d) Article 81
UPPSC (J) 2023
102
Ans. (b) : Under the Indian Constitution, Article 72 (c) Quasi-judicial Procedure
empowers the President to grant pardons to persons. (d) None of these
The pardoning powersof the President are executive Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022
power and are independent of the judiciary. The Ans. (c) : The process of impeachment of President is
President while exercising all pardoning power, does given under Article 61, the procedure of impeachment
not sit as a court of appeal. of President of India is a Quasi-judicial process.
9. Consider the following Assertion (A) and 12. According to the provision of which Article of
Reason (R) and choose the correct code : the Constitution can the President of India ask
Assertion (A) : for advice from the Supreme Court?
The Parliament of India consists of the
(a) Article 142 (b) Article 145
President and two Houses.
(c) Article 147 (d) Article 143
Reason (R) :
MH PSC (Pre) 2022
The President is a part of the legislature even
though he does not sit in Parliament except for Ans. (d) : Article 143 of the India Constitution
the purpose of delivering his opening address. empowers the Supreme Court with advisory
Code : jurisdiction. As per this, the President can seek advisory
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the opinion of Supreme Court over any issue related to
correct explanation of (A). question of law or public importance.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the 13. Who among the following was the first
correct explanation of (A). Assamese to contest the Presidential Election in
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 1952 against Dr. Rajendra Prasad?
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (a) Nagendra Nath Das
APPSC (Pre) 2023 (b) Jnanadabhiram Barua
Ans. (a) : As per Article 79 the Parliament of India (c) Hem Barua
consists of the President and two Houses. (d) Chandradhar Barua
However the President does not sit in parliament except Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
in opening address. Thus, both A & R both are true and Ans. (*) : Late Nagendra Narayan Das was the first
R explains A. Assamese to contest the Presidential election in 1957
10. Consider the following Assertion (A) and (not in 1952) against Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence, none
Reason (R) and choose the correct code : of the above answer is correct.
Assertion (A) : In presidential election 1952 K.T. Shah was the
The President is the executive power of the opponent of Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Union.
14. Which of the following statement/statements
Reason
is/are correct?
The executive power of the Union shall be
(A) The President can nominate 02 members from
vested in the President and shall be exercised
the Anglo-Indian Community if not
by him either directly or through officers
adequately represented in the Lok Sabha.
subordinate to him in accordance with the
Constitution. (B) The Governor can nominate 02 members
from the Anglo-Indian Community if not
Code :
adequately represented in the Legislative
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). Assembly.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the Select the correct answer from the given code:
correct explanation of (A). (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (c) Both (A) and (B) (d) None of the above
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
APPSC (Pre) 2023 Ans. (a) : The President can nominate 2 members from
Ans. (a) : The executive power of the Union shall be the Anglo-Indian Community if not adequately represented
vested in the President and shall be exercised by him in the Lok Sabha. The Statement 1 is correct.
either directly or through officers subordinate to him in The Governor can nominate 1 member from the Anglo-
accordance with the Constitution. Hence, Assertion (A) Indian Community if not adequately represented in the
and Reason (R) both are correct and Reason (R) is Legislative Assembly. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
But the Constitutional (104th Amendment) Act, 2019,
11. The impeachment of Indian President in the removed the Anglo-Indian community's nomination-
Parliament is a
based representation in the Lok Sabha and Legislative
(a) Political Procedure
(b) Legal Procedure Assemblies.

103
15. "He represents the nation but does not lead the 20. Which of the following are the discretionary
nation"- This dictum applies on whom of the powers of President?
following? (i) To appoint Prime Minister to the leader of
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha majority party.
(b) President (ii) To summon the Parliament.
(c) Prime Minister (iii) To return a bill to the Parliament with
(d) Chief Justice of India objections.
UPPCS (Mains) G.s. IInd Paper 2007 (iv) To appoint the members of Council of
Ans. (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said, “Our President is the Ministers.
Head of the State but not of the Executive. (v) To assent the bills referred by the
He represents the Nation, but does not rule the Nation.” Governor.
The President of India is a ceremonial head and the (vi) To detain a bill.
actual power lies with elected Government. (vii) To ask the Prime Minister for such
16. The power of the President to issue ordinance information related to any matter.
is a relic of (viii) To say the Council of Ministers for
(a) G.O.I. Act of 1919 reconsideration on any advise.
(b) G.O.I. Act of 1935 (a) (i) (ii) (iv) (vii)
(c) G.O.I. Act of 1909 (b) (ii) (vi) (vii) (viii)
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947 (c) (i) (iii) (vi) (viii)
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 (d) (ii) (v) (vii) (viii)
Ans. (b) The concept of Ordinance emerged in the (e) (iii) (vi) (vii) (viii)
Government of India Act, 1935 in which the Governor Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) G.S. 2017
General was given power to issue Ordinance. Ans.(e): Discretionary powers of the President are
17. Power of the President to grant pardons etc. is a suspensive veto i.e. he can return a bill (not Money Bill)
(a) Legislative Power (b) Judicial Power to the Parliament for reconsideration, pocket veto;
(c) Executive Power (d) None of the above which is not mentioned in Constitution but the President
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010 neither ratifies nor reject nor return the bill but simply
keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period. Under
Ans. (b) The Constitution of India has provided the
Article 78 of the Constitution, the President enjoys the
judicial power to the President of India (Article 72) and
right to seek information from the Prime Minister
the Governors of States (Article 161) to grant pardons,
regarding the administration of the affairs of the Union.
reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to
Under Article 85 of the Constitution, the President can
suspend or commute the sentence of any person
summon each House of Parliament. According to
convicted of any offence. Governor of the State cannot
Article 74(1) of the Constitution, President may ask
grant pardon to somebody convicted and sentenced to
Council of Ministers for reconsideration on any advice.
death, although he can commute such sentence. Only
President of India has power to pardon death sentence. 21. The only instance when the President of India
exercised his power of veto related to
18. Clemency in Capital punishment may be
(a) The Hindu code bill
granted by:
(a) President of India (b) The PEPSU appropriation bill
(b) Chief Justice of India (c) The Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(c) Prime Minister of India (d) The Dowry Prohibition Bill
(d) The Parliament IAS (Pre) G.S., 1993
Manipur PSC-2016 Ans.(c): In 1986 President Gyani Zail Singh (1982-87)
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above exercised pocket veto to prevent the Indian Post Office
question. (Amendment) Bill from becoming law. In India,
President has three veto powers namely absolute,
19. Which the following Articles of Indian suspensive and pocket. In absolute veto, President has
Constitution empowers the President of India power to withhold his approval to any bill passed by the
to grant pardon? Parliament. Once the bill is withheld, it ends and does
(a) Article 68 (b) Article 70 not become an Act. In suspensive veto, President has
(c) Article 72 (d) Article 73 power to return the bill to the Parliament for
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 reconsideration and in pocket veto; the President neither
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above ratifies nor rejects nor returns the bill but simply keeps
question. the bill pending for an indefinite period.

104
22. Which of the following statements is not (d) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
correct about the Pocket Veto of the President? (e) None of the above
(a) The President can either gives his/her assent Chattisgarh P.C.S. 2015
to a money bill or withhold his assent to a Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
money bill but cannot return it for question.
reconsideration of the Parliament. 26. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(b) The President neither ratifies or rejects nor empowers the President to issue ordinance?
returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill (a) Article 74 (b) Article 78
pending for an indefinite period. (c) Article 123 (d) Article 124(2)
(c) Power of the President not to take any action UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015
is Pocket Veto
Ans.(c): According to Article 123 of the Constitution, if
(d) In 1986 President Zail Singh exercised it with
at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are
respect to the Indian Post Office
in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances
(Amendment) Bill.
exist which render it necessary for him to take
J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
immediate action, he may promulgate Ordinance as the
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above circumstances appear to him to require and such
question. Ordinance shall have the same force and effect as an
23. Which of the following is a "pocket veto" Act of Parliament but every such Ordinance shall be
power in the Indian context? laid before both House of Parliament and shall cease to
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha not allowing operate at the expiration of six weeks from the
presentation of a bill reassemble of Parliament. The Ordinance may be
(b) President keeping a bill pending with him, withdrawn at any time by the President.
without any time limit and without approving 27. Ordinance can be promulgated by-
(c) Prime Minister removing ministers from his (a) Lok Sabha
Cabinet without any reason (b) President of India
(d) Rajya Sabha vetoing the provision of a bill (c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
approved by Lok Sabha (d) Prime Minister
APPSC GROU-I (7-5-2017) Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. question.
24. Match the pairs regarding types of veto: 28. The Constitutional authority, vested with the
A. Absolute veto I. Neither ratifies nor power of declaring castes and tribes as the
rejects nor returns the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, is the
bill (a) President of India
B. Qualified veto II. Can be overridden by (b) Prime Minister of India
the legislature with an (c) Minister of Social Welfare
ordinary majority (d) Chairman, SC/ST Commission
C. Suspensive veto III. Can be overridden by UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
the legislature with a
Ans.(a): According to Article 341 (1) of the
higher majority
Constitution, the President may with respect to any
D. Pocket veto IV. Withholding of assent
State or Union Territory after consultation with the
to the bill
Governor of the State specify caste, races or tribes be
A B C D deemed to be Schedule Caste in relation to that State/
(a) I II III IV Union Territory. Same is applicable to the Schedule
(b) IV III II I Tribes as per the Article 342 (1) of the Constitution.
(c) IV III I II
29. Given below are two statements:
(d) III IV II I Assertion (A) The Union Executive is headed
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 by the President of India.
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Reason (R) There are no limitations on the power
question. of the President.
25. Which of the following President has exercised In the context of the above which of the
a power which is called ‘Pocket Veto’ in following is correct?
Constitutional terminology? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad correct explanation of (A).
(b) V.V Giri (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
(c) Gyani Zail Singh correct explanation of (A).
105
 (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Ans.(d): Article 111 of the Constitution asserts that
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. when a Bill has been passed by the both Houses of
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012 Parliament, it shall be presented to the President and the
Ans.(c): As per the Article 53 of the Constitution, the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill
executive power of the Union shall be vested in the or that he withholds assent.
President and shall be exercised by him either directly or
through officers subordinates to him. Hence Assertion 35. For the Constitutional matters, who has
(A) is correct. The power of President in India is checked authority to consult the Supreme Court of
and balanced by Constitutional provisions. Hence it is not India?
unlimited. Therefore reason (R) is not correct. (a) Prime Minister (b) President
30. The Constitution authorizes the President to (c) High Court (d) All of above
make provisions for discharge of duties of UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2004
Governor in extraordinary circumstances Ans.(b): According to the Article 143 of the Indian
under the Constitution, the President can seek advice from the
(a) Article 160 (b) Article 162 Supreme Court (Apex Court) on any question of law or
(c) Article 165 (d) Article 310 fact. However the advice tendered by Supreme Court is
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007 not binding to the President.
Ans.(a): According to Article 160 of the Constitution,
the President may make such provision as he thinks fit 36. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
for the discharge of the functions of the Governor of a empowers the President to consult the Supreme
State in any contingency. Court?
31. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional (a) Article 129 (b) Article 132
prerogative of the President of India? (c) Article 143 (d) Article 32
(a) Returning an ordinary Bill for reconsideration UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. Spl., 2004
(b) Returning a financial bill for reconsideration Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha question.
(d) Appointing the Prime Minister 37. According to the Constitution of India, it is
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007 duty of the President of India to cause to be
Ans.(b): Financial Bill cannot be returned by the President laid before the Parliament which of the
to the Parliament for its reconsideration as it is presented in following?
the Lok Sabha with his permission. Rest are the
Constitutional prerogative of the President of India. 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance
Commission
32. Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution vests the executive power of the 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
Union in the President? 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
(a) Article 51 (b) Article 52 General
(c) Article 53 (d) Article 54 4. The Report of the National Commission for
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper,2010 the Scheduled Castes
Ans.(c): Article 53 of the Constitution is regarding Select the correct answer by using the codes
executive power of the Union which mentions that the given below:
executive power of the Union shall be vested in the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
President and shall be exercised by him either directly (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
or through officers subordinate to him. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012
33. According to Article 53 of the Indian Ans.(c): Reports to be laid down before the
Constitution, the executive power of the Union Parliament by the President are-
shall be vested in: (i) The Annual Financial Statement (Budget) and the
(a) The Prime Minister Supplementary Statement, if any.
(b) The President (ii) The report of the Auditor-General relating to the
(c) The Council of Ministers accounts of the Government of India.
(d) The Cabinet (iii) The recommendations made by the Finance
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 Commission.
UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam G.S., 2015 (iv) The report of the Union Public Service
Commission.
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(v) The report of the Special Officer for Scheduled
question. Castes and Tribes.
34. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution (vi) The report of the Commission on backward
President of India can withhold his assent to a classes.
bill passed by both the house of Parliament? (vii) The report of the Special Officer for linguistic
(a) Article 63 (b) Article 108 minorities.
(c) Article 109 (d) Article 111 (viii) The Report of Public Accounts Committee is
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 1993 submitted to speaker.
106
38. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT (c) He has to vacate the seat immediately after
eligible to vote in Presidential election if getting elected
(a) He himself is a candidate (d) A Member of Parliament can contest for the
(b) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of election, but member of State Legislature can
not
the Lower House of the State Legislature
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd Paper 2008
(c) He is a member of the Upper House of the Ans.(c): The President shall not be a member of either
Legislature House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of
(d) He is a caretaker Chief Minister any State and if any such member is elected as
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 President, he shall be claimed to have vacated his seat
Ans.(c): The Chief Minister of a State in India is not in that House on the date on which he enters upon office
eligible to vote in President election if he is member of as President.
the upper house of the legislature. 43. The proposal for the candidate of the President
As per the Article 54 of the Constitution, the electoral of India should be ratified by at least-
(a) By ten electors (b) By twenty electors
college of President of India consists of elected
(c) By five electors (d) By fifteen electors
members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected
UPPCS (Mains) G.S IInd Paper, 2012
members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
Ans.(*): As per Presidential and Vice-Presidential
Hence member of the Upper House of the State Elections (Amendment) Act, 1974, there should be at
Legislature (Legislative Council) cannot take part in the least 10 electors as proposers and at least 10 electors as
election of the President. seconders for the election of the President of India and
39. Election to the Office of the President is in case of Vice President, it was at least twenty
conducted by electors. This Act was amended on 5th June, 1997 and
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the new provision in the case of Presidential
election, at least fifty electors as proposers and at least
(b) The Prime Minister's Office
fifty electors as seconders and in the case of Vice-
(c) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs Presidential election, at least twenty electors as
(d) The Election Commission of India proposers and at least twenty electors as seconders.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009 Hence none of the given options are correct.
Ans.(d): As per the Article 324(1) of the Constitution, 44. In the absence of the President of India, if Vice-
superintendence, direction and control of all elections to President is not available, who of the following
Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of can act as the President?
elections to the offices of President and Vice President (a) Chief Justice of India
held under Constitution shall be vested in Election (b) Prime Minister
Commission of India. (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
40. Who settles the dispute regarding the election (d) Attorney General of India
of the President of India? UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam. G.S., 2015
(a) Supreme Court (b) Election Commission Ans.(a): As per the President (Discharge of Functions)
(c) Parliament (d) None of the above Act 1969, in the event of the occurrence of vacancies in
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016 the offices of both the President and the Vice-President
Manipur PSC-2016 by reason in each case of death, resignation or removal
Ans.(a): As per the Article 71(1) of the Constitution, all or otherwise, the Chief Justice of India or in his
doubts and disputes in connection with the election of
the President or Vice President shall be inquired into absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court of
and decided by the Supreme Court, whose decision India available, shall discharge the functions of the
shall be final. President until a new President is elected or a new Vice-
41. The disputes regarding the election of President so elected begins to act as President under
President are decided by Article 65 of the Constitution, whichever is earlier.
(a) The Supreme Court of India 45. As per the Article 70 of the Constitution of
(b) The Parliament India, who will be the President in absence of
(c) The Lok Sabha President and Vice President?
(d) The Election Commission (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 (b) Prime Minister of India
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Chief Election Commissioner of India
question. (d) Chief Justice of India
42. A Member of Parliament or State Legislature UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021
can be elected as President of India, but- Uttarakhand RO/ARO (M) 2016
(a) He has to resign before contesting election Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S 2011
(b) He has to vacate the seat within six months of Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
his election question.

107
46. At least how many days, of prior notice is 51. Which of the following is part of the Electoral
required for the impeachment of the President College for the election of the President of
of India? India but does not form part of forum for his
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days impeachment?
(c) 21 days (d) 30 days (a) Lok Sabha
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. IInd Paper, 2006 (b) Rajya Sabha
Ans.(b): Article 61 of the constitution deal with (c) State Legislative Councils
impeachment provision. The president can be removed (d) State Legislative Assemblies
from office by a process of impeachment for violation IAS (Pre) G.S., 1996
of the constitution. The impeachment charges can be Ans.(d): The electoral college for election of President
initiated by either house of parliament. These charges consist of elected members of both the houses of
should be signed by one fourth members of the house Parliament and State Legislative assemblies. However
and a 14 days notice should be given to President. State Legislative assemblies are not part of impeachment
47. Under which Article of the Constitution of process.
India, impeachment on President can be 52. The President of India may be removed from
imposed? his Office by the process of impeachment on
(a) Article 356 (b) Article 75 the basis of which ground?
(c) Article 76 (d) Article 61 (a) Incapability
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017 (b) Proved misconduct
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Violation of the Constitution
question. (d) All the above
48. The vacant post of the President is to be filled UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
up within Ans.(c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days
53. The President can be impeached on the
(c) Six months (d) One year
grounds of violating the Constitution by
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2006 (a) The Chief Justice of India.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2013 (b) The Vice-President of India.
Ans.(c): According to the Article 62(2) of the (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Constitution, the vacancy for the President shall be (d) The two Houses of Parliament.
filled in no case later than six months from the date of
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008
the occurrence of the vacancy.
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
49. To whom does the President of India submit
his resignation? 54. On which matter, it is not essential to take
(a) Vice-President advice from Council of Ministers for
President?
(b) Chief- Justice
(a) Appointment of Ambassadors
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) To assent on Bills
(d) Prime Minister
(e) Chief Election Commissioner (c) To assent on Bills referred from Governor
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st, 2012 (d) To dissolve Lok Sabha
Ans.(a): According to Article 56 (1) (a) of the (e) To assent on Constitutional amendment bill
Constitution, President shall submit his resignation to Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre.) 2016
the Vice President. Ans.(d): The matters on which it is not essential for
50. The President can vacate his office by president to take advice of council of ministers is
addressing his resignation to discretionary power of President. To dissolve the Lok
(a) The Vice-President Sabha when Council of Minister loses majority is
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha discretionary power of president.
(c) The Prime Minister 55. Under which one of the following Articles, the
(d) The Chief Justice of India procedure for removal of the President of India
UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 through the process of impeachment has been
Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019 laid down?
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018 (a) Article-53 (b) Article-61
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Article-74 (d) Article-13
question. UPPCS (Pre) Re-exam. G.S., 2015
108
Ans.(b): The procedure for the impeachment of the Ans.(a): The term of office of the President is five years
President is mentioned in the Article 61 of the from the date on which he/she holds office. As per the
Constitution. According to Article 61, when a President Constitution of India, President can submit his
is to be impeached for ‘Violation of the Constitution’, resignation to the Vice-President at any time during his
the charge shall be preferred by either House of term of office. Apart from this, the President can also be
Parliament with below mentioned conditions-: removed through impeachment.
(1) The proposal to prefer such charge is contained in
58. In the Indian Constitution the method of
a resolution which has been moved after at least
fourteen days prior notice in writing signed by not election of the President of India is taken from
less than one-fourth of the total number of which country?
members of the House that have given of their (a) Ireland (b) England
intention to move the resolution. (c) USA (d) Australia
(2) Such resolution has been passed by a majority of Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
not less than two-thirds of the total membership of Ans.(a): The method of election of President of India in
that House. constitution is taken from Ireland.
(3) When a charge has been so preferred by either 59. Electoral College for the election of the
House of Parliament, the other House shall
President of India consists of–
investigate the charge or cause the charge to be
(a) All the elected members of the Rajya Sabha
investigated and the President shall have the right
to appear and to be represented at such (b) All the elected members of the Lok Sabha
investigation. (c) All the members of the state legislative
(4) If as a result of the investigation, a resolution is Assemblies
passed by a majority of not less than two-third of (d) All the elected members of both the Houses
the total membership of the House by which the of Parliament and elected members of the
charge was investigated or caused to be state legislative Assemblies
investigated, declaring that the charge preferred (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
against the President has been sustained. Such 66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020
resolution shall have the effect of removing the Ans.(e): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
President from his office as from the date on which question.
the resolution is so passed. 60. The Indian President is eligible for re-election
56. All the work of Government of India is done in for how many times?
the name of: (a) Twice
(a) The Prime Minister of India (b) Thrice
(b) The Home Minister of India (c) Any number of times
(c) The President of India (d) Once
(d) The Government of India (e) None of the above/More than one of the
AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019 above
Ans.(c): All the work of the Government of India is 67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021
done in the name of the President of India as President Ans. (c): According to Article 57 of the Indian
of India is the Constitutional head of the state. There is Constitution, a President is eligible for re-election to
a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minster as its that office for any number of times as there is no
head to advice the President. restriction regarding number of times for re-election
57. Consider the following statements and select written in the Constitution of India.
correct answer from the codes given below: 61. Consider the following statements:
1. President of India shall hold office for a term In the Electoral College for Presidential
of 5 years from the date on which he/she Election in India,
takes oath. 1. The value of the vote of an elected Member
2. The President may submit his resignation if of Legislative Assembly equals State
necessary to the Chief Justice of Supreme Population Number of elected MLAs of the
Court of India. State x 100
Codes: 2. The value of the vote of an elected Member
(a) Only 1 is correct of Parliament equals Total value of the votes
(b) Only 2 is correct of all elected MLAs/Total number of elected
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct MPs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct 3. There were more than 5000 members in the
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 latest election.

109
 Which of these statements is/are correct? Ans.(b): Constitutionally, an individual can be elected
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 as President of India any number of times. Article 52 of
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3 the Indian Constitution mentions that there shall be a
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 President of India but it does not mention about any
restrictions regarding number of times, he or she can be
Ans.(b): Value of vote of an elected MLA elected as President.
Total Population of State 1 66. What is not true in relation to election of
= ×
Total number of elected member 1000 President?
(a) Provision for process of election of President
in the state legislative assembly is described in Article 55 of Indian
Value of vote of an MP = total value of votes of all Constitution
MLAs of allStates (b) At nomination stage a candidate has to submit
= the signed list of 50 proposers and 50
Total number of elected members of Parliament seconders
62. Who amongst the following are not included in (c) Value of votes of members of State
the Electoral College for the election of the Legislature is based on the population of
President of India? respective States and it's based on 1971
(a) Elected members of the House of the People. Census data
(d) None of the above
(b) Elected members of the Council of States.
CGPSC Pre 2022
(c) Elected members of the Legislative
Assemblies of the States. Ans.(d): All the given statements in the question are
correct regarding the election of the President of India.
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Councils Article 55 provides the manner and process by which
of the States. the President of India should be elected. Also as per the
UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam G.S., 2015 Presidential and Vice Presidential Elections Rules,
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1974, the nomination of a candidate for the election of
question. President must be subscribed by at least 50 electors as
63. Which of the following are the members of the proposers and another fifty as seconders. The
Constitution 84th Amendment Act 2001, provides that
Electoral College for electing the President of untill the population figures for the first census to be
India? Select the correct answer from the codes taken after the year 2026 have been published the
given below: population of the states for the purpose of calculation of
1. All the members of the two Houses of value of the votes for the presidential election shall
Parliament. mean the population as ascertained at the 1971 census.
2. All the elected members of the State Hence, none of the given statement is incorrect.
Legislative Assemblies. 67. With reference to the election of the President
3. All the elected members of the U.T. of India, consider the following statements:
Assemblies, (i) The value of the vote of each MLA varies
4. All the Governors and Lt-Governors. from State to State.
Codes: (ii) The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Sabha is more than the value of the vote of
MPs of the Rajya Sabha
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Which of the following statements given above
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012 is/are correct?
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
question. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
th
64. By the 70 Constitution amendment, which of IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
the following two Union territories have right Ans.(a): The concept of election of President in India
to vote in the election of the President? has been borrowed from Irish Constitution. Article 55
(a) Delhi and Chandigarh of the Constitution provides manner of election of
President which shall be held in accordance with the
(b) Delhi and Puducherry system of proportional representation by means of the
(c) Delhi and Daman and Diu single transferable vote and the voting shall be by secret
(d) Chandigarh and Puducherry ballot. The President is elected by the members of an
UPPSC RO/ARO G.S.IInd Paper 2009 electoral college consisting of the elected members of
both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Union
question. Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry. For securing
65. How many times can a person be elected as the uniformity among the States as per Article 55, the
President of India? number of votes to which each State is entitled is
(a) Once determined as follows:-
(a) Every elected member of the legislative assembly
(b) No restriction of a State shall have as many votes as there are
(c) Twice multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained
(d) Two terms consecutively by dividing the population of the state by the total
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 number of elected members of the Assembly.
110
(b) If after taking the said multiples of one thousand,
the remainder is not less than five hundred then the 2. Vice-President
vote of each member shall be further increased by
one.
70. Consider the following statements about Vice-
(c) Each elected member of either House of Parliament
shall have such number of votes as may be obtained President of India.
by dividing the total number of votes assigned to (1) He is an ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya
the members of the State Legislation Assemblies by Sabha
the total number of elected members of both the (2) He is elected by members of an electoral
House of Parliament fractions exceeding one-half college consisting of members of both Houses of
being counted as one and other fractions being
disregarded. Hence statement 1 is correct while Parliament.
statement 2 is incorrect. Which of the statement/s given above is/are
68. Which of the following DO NOT participate in correct?
the process of election of President of India? (a) (1) only
1. Nominated members of both houses of (b) (2) only
Parliament (c) Both (1) and (2)
2. Nominated members of Legislative assemblies (d) None of the above
3. Elected members of legislative councils.
4. Elected members of UT legislative assemblies. CGPSC (Pre) 2023
How many statements given above is/are Ans. (c) : Article 63 of Indian contitution provides for
correct? the office of Vice-President. As per Article 64 of Indian
(a) Only one statement contitution Vice-President is ex-officio chairman of
(b) Only two statements Rajya-Sabha.
(c) Only three statements Article 66 of Indian contitution provides that the Vice-
(d) All the four statements President is elected by members of an electoral college
J & K PSC Pre 2022 consisting of members of both houses of Parliament.
Ans.(c): As per Article 54 of the constitution, the Thus both the statements are correct.
president of India is elected by the members of an 71. Consider the following pairs:
electoral college consisting of (a) the elected members
of both houses of parliament and (b) the elected 1. The Vice-President of India : Article 62 of
members of the legislative assemblies of all states Constitution
[including national capital territory of Delhi and the 2. Election of Vice President : Article 65 of
union territory of Puducherry] The members nominated Constitution
to either house of parliament or the legislative 3. Terms of office of President : Article 59 of
assemblies of states, including NCT of Delhi and Union
Territory of Puducheery, are not eligible to the included Constitution
in the electoral college. Legislative councils of state How many of the above pairs are correctly
also does not participate in voting of President. matched?
69. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, (a) Only one pair
the Governor has the power to promulgate (b) Only two pairs
ordinances during recess of Legislature? (c) All three pairs
(a) 155 (b) 156 (d) None of the pairs
(c) 212 (d) 213 (e) Question not attempted
MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
Ans.(d): Article 213 of the Constitution is power of Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows :-
Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of The Vice-President of : Article 63
Legislature. If at any time except when the Legislative India
Assembly of a State is in session or when both Houses of
the Legislature are in session (where there is a Legislative Election of Vice : Article 66
Council in a State), the Governor is satisfied that President
circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to Terms of Office of : Article 56
take immediate action, he may promulgate such President
Ordinance. Hence, none of above pairs is as correctly matched.
An Ordinance promulgated under this Article shall have 72. With reference of the election of the Vice-
the same force and effect as an Act of Legislature of the President of India, which is declared void by
State but every such Ordinance shall be laid before the the Supreme Court of India, which of the
legislative Assembly of the State or before both the following statement/s is/are correct?
House (where there is a Legislative Council in the State) (1) The acts done by him as Vice-President
and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks before such declaration are considered
from the reassembly of the Legislature. valid.
111
 (2) The acts done by him as Vice-President on Ans.(a): Electoral college of Vice President comprises
the day of such declaration are not of 788 members of both Houses of Parliament. Since,
considered valid. all the electors are members of both Houses of
Select the correct answer from the code given Parliament, the value of vote of each member of
below– parliament would be same i. e. 1.
Code : 76. Which one of the following did NOT serve as
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 Vice President before assuming the office of the
(c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 President of India?
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 (a) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans. (b) : According to Article 71(2) of Indian (b) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Constitution, if the election of a person as President or (c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
Vice President is declared void by the Supreme Court (d) R. Venkatraman
acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the UPPCS Pre 2022
powers and duties of the office of the President or Vice Ans.(b): Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was an Indian
President, as the case may be, on or before the date of politician who served as the sixth President of India,
the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be serving from 1977 to 1982. He did not serve as Vice
President of India before assuming the office of the
invalidated by reason of that declaration. President of India.
73. Vice President of India is elected by an 77. Who amongst the following elects the Vice
electoral college, consisting of President of India?
(a) Members of both the Houses of Parliament Select the correct answer from the codes given
(b) Members of Rajya Sabha only below:
(c) Elected Member of Both the Houses of 1. Member of Lok Sabha
Parliament 2. Member of Rajya Sabha
(d) Elected Members of Lok Sabha only 3. Members of Legislative Assembly
Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022 4. Members of Legislative Council
Ans. (a) : The Vice-Presedent is elected directly, by an Codes:
electoral college consisting of members (elected as well (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
as nominated) of both Houses of Parliament i.e. Lok (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sabha and Rajya Sabha by the system of proportional Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
representation using single transferable vote and the UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2012
voting is by secret ballot. Manipur PCS - 2013
74. Which of the following qualification are Ans.(a): According to Article 66(1) of the Constitution, the
necessary for the office of the Vice President of Vice President shall be elected by the members of an
India as per the Indian Constitution? electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses
(i) The person must be a citizen of India. of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional
(ii) The person must be a member of the Rajya representation by means of the single transferable vote and
Sabha. the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.
(iii) The person must be above 35 years of age. 78. The Vice-President of India is elected by the
Select the correct answer using the codes given members of an Electoral College comprising
below. (a) Only elected members of both Houses of
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (i) and (iii) Parliament.
(c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (i) and (ii) (b) All the members of both Houses of Parliament.
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 (c) Only elected members of Rajya Sabha and
Ans. (b) : The qualification needed to become a Vice- State Assemblies.
President of India are the following :- (d) Only elected members of State Assemblies.
• The person must be a citizen of India. UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd Paper 2012
• The person must be above 35 years of age. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2010
• The person must not hold any office of profit.
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
• The person must be qualified for election as a member
of the Rajya Sabha or the Council of States. question.
75. Electoral College for the 16th Vice Presidential 79. The Vice President of India is elected by-
Election of India for 2022 consists of how many I. The members of Lok Sabha
members? II. The members of Rajya Sabha.
(a) 788 (b) 545 (a) Neither I nor II (b) I only
(c) 250 (d) 798 (c ) II only (d) Both I and II
(e) None of the above/More than one of the TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014
above
67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021 Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.

112
80. The tenure of the Vice President of India is 83. The Proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice
(a) Six years President can be presented in
(b) Five years (a) Any House of the Parliament
(c) Co-terminus with that of President (b) Rajya Sabha
(d) Dependent on the will of the President (c) The Lok Sabha
Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017 (d) None of the above
Ans.(b): According to Article 67 of the Constitution, UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
the Vice-President shall hold office for a term of 5 years AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
from the date on which he enters upon his office. UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd 2007
81. Which one of the following statements about UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 2003
the Vice-President of India is incorrect? Ans.(b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(1) The electoral college for election to this 84. Consider the following statements:
office consists of the elected members of both 1. The original Constitution provided that the
the Houses of Parliament. Vice-President would be elected by the two
(2) He can hold the office of the President for a Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint
period not exceeding six months in the meeting.
absence of the President. 2. The 11th Constitutional Amendment, 1961
(3) For election to this office a candidate's nomination changed the procedure of election of the
paper must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as Vice-President.
proposers and 20 electors as seconders. 3. The Vice- President is elected by the
Codes: members of an electoral college consisting of
(a) 1 (b) 2 the elected members only of both the Houses.
(c) 3 (d) None of the above 4. The election of the Vice-President cannot be
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 challenged on the grounds that the electoral
Ans.(d): According to Article 66(1) of the Constitution, college was incomplete.
the Vice President shall be elected by the members of (a) Statements 1, 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
an electoral college consisting of the members of both (b) Statements 2, 3, 4 are correct, 1 is false
Houses of Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct. (c) Statements 1, 2, 4 are correct and 3 is false
According to Article 65 of the Constitution, the Vice- (d) Statements 2, 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
President acts as President during casual vacancy in the Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
office of the President by reason of death, resignation or Ans.(c): Under Article 66 (1) of the Constitution, the
removal or otherwise until a new President is elected as Vice- President has to be elected by members of the
soon as practicable and in no case later than six months both the Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint
from the date of occurrence of the vacancy. Hence
meeting. Hence statement 1 is correct.
statement 2 is correct.
The Constitution (Eleventh Amendment Act), 1961
As per Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections
(Amendment) Act, 1974, which was amended on 5th amended Article 66(1) of the Constitution due to the
June, 1997 and as per the new provision, in the case of reason that the requirement that members of the two
Vice-Presidential election, at least twenty electors as Houses should assemble at a joint sitting for the election of
proposers and at least twenty electors as seconders. the Vice-President seems to be totally unnecessary and
Hence statement 3 is also correct. may also cause practical difficulties. Therefore the
82. The resolution for removing the Vice- Constitution (Eleventh Amendment Act), 1961 amended
President of India can be moved in the: Article 66 (1) as Vice-President will be elected by
(a) Lok Sabha alone members of an electoral college consisting of members of
(b) Either House of Parliament both Houses of Parliament. Further the Constitution
(c) Joint sitting of the Parliament (Eleventh Amendment Act), 1961 amended Article 71 of
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
the Constitution and inserted clause 4 in Article 71 as the
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
election of a person as President or Vice President shall not
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2004
be called in question on the ground of the existence of any
UPPCS (Mains) G.S.Ist Paper 2004
vacancy for whatever reason among the members of the
Ans.(d): According to Article 67(b) of the Constitution,
a Vice President may be removed from his office by a Electoral College electing him. Hence statement 2 and 4
resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of are also correct.
all the then Members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed by The nominated members of Rajya Sabha as well as of
the Lok Sabha, but no resolution shall be moved unless Lok Sabha are also eligible to be included in the
at least fourteen days prior notice has been given of the electoral college of Vice-President. Hence statement 3
intention to move the resolution. is not correct.

113
85. Who decides the dispute regarding the election 2. A member of the State Legislature can be
of the Vice-President in India? candidate for his office.
(a) President 3. The term of the office of the Vice- President
(b) Election Commission is the same as that of the President.
(c) Supreme Court 4. He can be removed through a formal impeachment.
(d) Chairperson Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the codes given
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st, 2012 below:
Ans.(c): According to Article 71(1), all doubts and disputes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
arising out of or in connection with the election of the (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
President or Vice President shall be inquired into and decided UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd Paper 2005
by the Supreme Court, whose decision shall be final. Ans.(c): According to Article 66(3) of the Constitution,
a person is eligible for election as Vice-President if he is
86. The Vice President of India,
citizen of India, has completed the age of thirty five
1. Is the second highest dignitary of India.
years and is qualified for election as a member of the
2. Has no formal function attached to his office. Council of States (Rajya Sabha). The process of
3. Discharges the functions of the President removal of Vice-President of India has been provided in
during his absence. Article 67(b) which asserts that a Vice President may be
4. Acts as President, if the President resigns or removed from his office by a resolution of the Council
is removed or dies. of States (Rajya Sabha) passed by a majority of all the
Select the correct answer from the code given then members of the Council and agreed to by the
below: House of the People (Lok Sabha), but no resolution for
Codes: the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) All the four move the resolution. Hence statement 1 and 4 are
U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013 incorrect.
UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2010 89. How long can the Vice President act as
Ans.(d): As per the order of precedence in India, Vice President when the President cannot perform
President is the second highest dignitary of India after his duties for reasons of death, resignation
President. The only provision with regard to the Vice- removal or otherwise?
President's function in the Constitution is as the (a) 5 years (b) 1 and half years
Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64). As per the
(c) 1 year (d) 6 months
Article 65 of the Constitution, the Vice-President acts as
President, during casual vacancy in the office of the Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. Ist Paper, 2013
President by reason of death, resignation or removal. Ans. (d) Vice-President can act as a President for
87. Who among the following have held the office maximum 6 months, when the President cannot perform
of the Vice President of India? his duties for reasons of death, resignation removal or
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah otherwise. According to Article 62(2) of the
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed Constitution, an election to fill a vacancy in the office
3. Neelam Sanjiva of President occurring by reason of his death,
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma resignation or removal or otherwise shall be held as
Select the correct answer using the code given soon as possible after and in no case later than six
below:- months from, the date of occurrence of the vacancy.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only 90. Who among the following has the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only Constitutional power to declare any
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2008 geographical area as Scheduled area?
Ans.(b): List of former Vice Presidents of India is- Dr. (a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Dr.Zakir Hussain, Sh. V.V. (c) Prime Minister (d) President
Giri, Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak, Sh. B.D.Jatti, Sh. M. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2006
Hidayatullah, Sh. R. Venkataraman, Dr. Shanker Dayal Ans. (d) Article 244 of the Constitution is regarding
Sharma, Sh. K.R. Narayanan, Sh. Krishan Kant, Sh. administration of “Scheduled Areas” and Tribal Areas.
Bhairon Singh Shekhawat, Sh. M. Hamid Ansari Sh. M. As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244
Venkaiah Naidu and currently Jagdeep Dhankar is Vice (1) of the Constitution, the Scheduled Areas are defined
President of India. as such areas as the President declare to be Scheduled
Areas as per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. The
88. Which of the following statements about the specification of Scheduled Areas in relation to a State is
Vice-President of India are not correct? by a notified order of the President after consultation
1. In order to be the Vice-President, a person with the Governor of that State. Such provision is not
must be qualified for election as a member of applicable to the States of Assam Meghalaya, Tripura
the House of the People. and Mizoram.
114
91. Who, as per the provisions of the Constitution, Ans. (b) : Introduction and passage of money bills is
declares an area as a Scheduled Area? exclusive power of Lok Sabha while initiating the
(a) Prime Minister removal of Vice-President is exclusive power of Rajya-
(b) President of India Sabha. Hence, statements-I and III are incorrect.
(c) Governor In consideration of the CAG report and approval of
(d) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly proclamation of all three types of emergencies, Rajya
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal power. Hence,
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above statements II and IV are correct.
question.
95. Consider the following statements:
92. Who can alter the boundary of a Scheduled
1. Parliament can legislate on matters
Area ?
(a) The President (b) The Parliament enumerated in the State List is two or more
(c) The Governor (d) The State Assembly state legislatures pass resolutions requesting
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 the Parliament to enact such laws.
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 2. A law so enacted will be equally applicable to
question. all the states, irrespective of whether they
passed such a resolution or not.
93. What are the criteria for declaring any area as
a "Scheduled Area" under the Fifth Schedule 3. Such a law can be amended or repealed only
of Indian Constitution? by the Parliament.
(1) Preponderance of Tribal Population How many of the statements given above are
(2) Compactness and reasonable size of the area correct?
(3) A viable administrative entity such as a (a) Only one statement is correct.
District, Block or Taluka (b) Only two statements are correct.
(4) Economic Backwardness of the area as (c) All three statements are correct.
compared to the neighbouring area (d) None of the statement is correct.
(a) Only 1 and 4 (b) Only 2 and 3 (e) Question not attempted
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Parliament can legislate on matters
Ans. (d): The criteria for declaring any area as a
enumerated in the state list if two or more state
‘Schedule Area’ under the Fifth Schedule are:–
legislatures pass resolutions requesting the parliament to
1. Preponderance of tribal population, which should
not be less than 50 percent enact such laws.
2. Compactness and reasonable size of the area A law so enacted will applicable only those states,
3. Underdeveloped nature of the area which passed such resolution (not applicable to all
4. Marked disparity in the economic standard of the states) such laws can be amend or repealed only by the
people, as compared to the neighboring areas Parliament.
Hence, only statement-I & III are correct.
c. Parliament 96. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) :
94. The equal status of the Rajya Sabha with the Assertion (A) : The President is a part of the
Lok Sabha can be described by which of the Parliament.
following statement/statements?
Reason (R) : A bill passed by the two Houses of
I. Introduction and passage of Money Bills.
the Parliament cannot become a law without the
II. Consideration of the CAG's report.
assent of the President.
III. Initiating the removal of the Vice President
Select the correct answer using the code given
IV. Approval of proclamation of all the three
types of emergencies by the President below–
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) (A) is true but (R) is false
below: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(a) I, II and IV explanation of (A)
(b) II and IV (c) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(c) All correct explanation of (A)
(d) Only II (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
APPSC (Pre) 2023 UPPCS (Pre) 2023
115
Ans. (b) : Assertion (A) : The President is a part of the 99. Who decides disputes regarding
Parliament, is correct. disqualification of Members of Parliament?
Reason (R) : A bill passed by the two Houses of the (a) The President
Parliament cannot become a law without the assent of (b) The Concerned House
the President, is correct. (c) The Election Commission
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and (d) The President in consultation with the
Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). Election Commission
97. Given below are two statements: UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd, 2006, 2009
Statement I: President can dissolve the Lok Ans.(d): The President of India decides disputes
Sabha on the advice of Speaker. regarding disqualification of Members of Parliament
Statement II: Rajya Sabha under Article 312 and his decision is final. However, he should obtain the
enjoys special power to appiont members of opinion of the election commission and act accordingly.
Human Rights Commission. 100. Which State Assembly has the highest number
In the light of the above statements, choose the of MLA in India?
most appropriate answer from the options (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
given below:
(c) West Bengal (d) Andhra Pradesh
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
incorrect Ans.(a): The state of Uttar Pradesh has a bicameral
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II in legislature comprising of Legislative Council, an Upper
incorrect House and Legislative Assembly, the lower House. This
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is is the largest legislature in India. The Uttar Pradesh
correct Legislative Assembly consists of 403 elected members
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 followed by West Bengal (294) and Maharashtra (289).
Ans. (b) : President of India has the power to dissolve 101.Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly
the Lok Sabha in accordance with the Article 85(2)(b)
matched?
of the constitution of India. In this matter president acts
on the advice of the Prime Minister. Hence, statement State Members in the
(1) is incorrect. Legislative Assembly
As per Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the (a) Manipur – 62
Parliament is entitled to create one or more All India (b) Goa – 40
Services (including an All India Judicial Service) (c) Uttar Pradesh – 403
common to the Union and the States. (d) Uttarakhand – 70
Hence, statement (2) is also incorrect.
UPPCS Pre 2022
98. Which of the following statements about
membership of the Indian Parliament is/are Ans.(a): Presently, in Manipur legislative assembly,
false? there are 60 members who are directly elected from
(i) For qualifying to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya single-seat constituencies. Rest all the pairs are
Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years and correctly matched.
35 years of age respectively. 102. Under which one of the following Articles of
(ii) A person belonging to the Scheduled Castes or the Indian Constitution, provision of creation
the Scheduled Tribes can contest elections from or abolition of Legislative Councils in States is
a general constituency too. made?
(iii) If a member of the Parliament votes against the (a) Article 168 (b) Article 169
directions of his/her party, he/she can be (c) Article 170 (d) Article 171
deemed to be disqualified on the ground of UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2011, 2013
defection. Ans. (b) Article 169 of the Constitution is regarding
Select the correct answer using the codes given abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States.
below. According to Article 169 of the Constitution, Parliament
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) Council of a State having such a Council or for the
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 creation of such a Council in a State having no such
Ans. (a) : The Minimum age eligibility for the Lower Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes
House is 25 years on the other hand, to qualify for the a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total
Rajya Sabha a candidate needs to be 30 years or above. membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not
Hence, statement (1) is false while statements (2) and less than two third of the members of the Assembly
(3) are true. present and voting.

116
103. Which one of the following States is an Ans.(d): At the time when question was asked, two
exception to the Article 170 as a subject to the members from Anglo Indian community were nominated
provision of the composition of the Legislative by the President to the Lok Sabha, hence statement 1 is
Assembly, a State shall consist of not less than incorrect.
sixty members? 12 members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the
(a) Sikkim (b) Jammu & Kashmir President having special knowledge or practical
(c) Haryana (d) Uttaranchal experience in respect of such matters as literature,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 science, art and social service. Therefore statement 2 is
Ans.(a): Sikkim became the 22nd State of India by incorrect.
Constitution (Thirty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 1975. The There is no Constitutional bar for nominated members to
Act provides that the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim be appointed as Union Minister but it has not been
shall consist of not less than thirty two implemented till date. Hence statement 3 is correct.
members. Therefore Sikkim has been provided Nominated members are not entitled to vote in the
exemption from the provisions mentioned in Article 170 election of the President but in the election of the Vice
(Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not President, they have right to vote. Hence statement 4 is
more than five hundred and not less than sixty incorrect.
members) of the Constitution. th
Note: Constitution 104 Amendment Act, 2019,
104. Consider the following statements: removed the representation of Anglo-Indian community
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of in the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that
House. 106. Consider the following statements:
2. While the nominated members of the two 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject
Houses of the Parliament have no voting right or to amend a Money Bill.
in the Presidential election, they have the 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands
right to vote in the election of the Vice for Grants.
President. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual
Which of the statements given above is/are Financial Statement.
correct? Which of the statements given above is / are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.(b): According to Article 89 (1) of the IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015
Constitution, the Vice-President of India is ex
Ans.(b): According to Article 109, a Money Bill shall
officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha but he is not the
member of Rajya Sabha. According to Article 89(2) of not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
the Constitution, the Deputy Chairman is elected by and after Money Bill is passed by Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha itself from amongst its members. Hence transmitted to Rajya Sabha, it shall be returned to Lok
statement 1 is incorrect. Sabha with its recommendations within fourteen days
The electoral college for election of President consist of and Lok Sabha may accept or reject recommendations
only elected members of Parliament and state legislative provided by Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 1 is correct.
assembly and for vice president it consist of the As per constitutional provision the Rajya Sabha has no
members of Parliament. power to vote on demand for grants. It is the exclusive
105. Which of the following statements is/are privilege of Lok Sabha. Thus statement 2 is correct.
correct? When Finance Minister presents the budget with budget
(1) Only the Rajya Sabha and not Lok Sabha can speech, at the end of speech in the Lok Sabha, the
have nominated members. budget is laid before Rajya Sabha which can only,
(2) There is a Constitutional provision for discusss it and has no power to vote on the demands for
nominating two members belonging to the grants. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.
Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya Sabha. 107. Which of the following Bills can NOT be first
(3) There is no Constitutional bar for nominated introduced in Rajya Sabha?
members to be appointed as Union Ministers. (a) Ordinary Bill
(4) A nominated member can vote both in (b) Constitution Amendment Bill
Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections. (c) State Re-organization bill
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (d) Money Bill
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 UPPSC (Pre) 2021
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 question.

117
108. Consider the following statements: 111. If any member of Parliament is elected for any
1. Unlike the Rajya Sabha Chairman, the State Legislature, within how many days he has
Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suspend a to resign from the State Legislature, otherwise
member without adopting a motion for his membership of Parliament will become
suspension. void?
2. While the Rajya Sabha Chairman is (a) 10 days (b) 14 days
empowered to place a member under (c) 30 days (d) None of the above
suspension, the authority for revocation of CGPSC Pre 2022
this order is not vested in him.
Ans. (b) : A person can not be a member of Parliament
Which of the above statements is/are
and state legislature at the same time. Therefore if a
incorrect?
member of parliament is elected for any state
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
legislature, his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
fails to resign his seat in the state legislature within 14
J & K PSC Pre 2022
days.
Ans.(d): In the Lok Sabha, Rules 374 and 374(A) gives
the speaker the power to suspend a member either 112. Consider the following statements:
through a motion or by themselves. In the Rajya Sabha, (1) If a person is elected to both the House of
the suspension of a member is governed by Rule 256. Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days
Unlike the Lok Sabha the Rajya Sabha chairperson does in which House he desires to serve, otherwise
not have the power to suspend a member. In Rajya both seats become vacant.
Sabha the suspension is terminated by a motion in the (2) If a person is elected to two seats in a House
house. he should exercise his option for one,
109. Which of the following languages have been otherwise both seats become vacant.
declared by the Constitution to be the language (3) If a sitting member of one House is also
for conducting business in Parliament? elected to the other House, his seat in the first
(a) English House becomes vacant.
(b) Hindi Which of the above statements is/are not
(c) English and Hindi correct?
(d) English, Hindi and mother tongue (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S, 2013 (c) Only 1 (d) Only 3
Ans.(d): Article 120 of the Constitution is regarding Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
language to be used in Parliament. According to Article Ans.(a): If a person is elected to both the houses of
120 (1) of the Constitution, business in Parliament shall parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which
be transacted in Hindi or in English provided that the house he desires to serve. In default of such intimation,
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or Speaker of the Lok but seat in Rajya Sabha become vacant.
Sabha may permit any member who cannot adequately Further if a person is member of the Lok Sabha and
express himself in Hindi or in English to address the subsequently elected to Rajya Sabha, his/her seat in Lok
House in his/her mother-tongue. Sabha will become vacant on the date of his/her election
Article 210 of the Constitution is regarding language to to the Rajya Sabha. Same is applicable for a member of
be used in State Legislature which asserts that the Rajya Sabha elected to Lok Sabha. Hence statement (3)
business in the Legislature of a State shall be transacted is correct.
in the languages of the State or in Hindi or in English
If a person is elected to more than one seat in the Lok
provided that the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Sabha or the Rajya Sabha or in the Legislature of a
or Chairman of the Legislative Council may permit any
State, in such a case, he/she have to resign one of such
member who cannot adequately express himself in any
of the languages aforesaid to address the House in seats within fourteen days from the date of such
his/her mother-tongue. election. If the elected person fails to do so, both of
his/her seats become vacant. Hence statement (2) is
110. Under which provision can the Speaker allow
correct.
any member of the House to speak in his/her
mother language? 113. After how many days of absence from
(a) Article 110 (b) Article 122 Parliament without permission can a M.P. be
(c) Article 120(1) (d) Article 126 disqualified?
Himanchal PSC (Pre) GS, 2016 (a) 30 days (b) 60 days
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 90 days (d) 120 days
question. UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018

118
Ans.(b): According to Article 101 (4), if for a period of Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
sixty days, a member of either House of Parliament is question.
absent without permission of the House absent from all 118. With reference to the special address of the
meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat President of India, which of the following
vacant, provided that in computing the said period of statement/s is/are correct?
sixty days, no account shall be taken of any period 1. The President addresses the joint meeting of
both Houses of Parliament at the
during which the House is prorogued or is adjourned for commencements of the first session after each
more than four consecutive days. general election of the house of the first
114. Which of the following statements is correct session of each year.
regarding the legislative powers of the 2. The President in his address informs the
President of India? Parliament of the causes of its summons.
(1) The President has the power to promulgate Select the correct answer using the codes given
Ordinances during recess of Parliament and below.
Codes:
may promulgate such Ordinance as the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
circumstances appear to him to require. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(2) An Ordinance promulgated by the President UPPSC (Pre) 2021
shall have the same force and effect as an Act Ans.(c): According to Article 87(1) of the Constitution,
of Parliament. at the commencement of the first session after each
(3) But every such Ordinance shall be laid before general election to the House of the People (Lok Sabha)
both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to and at the commencement of the first session of each
operate at the expiration of three weeks from year, the President shall address both Houses of
the reassembly of Parliament. Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of
the causes of its summons.
(4) Once promulgated, an ordinance can't be
Note-Originally, the Constitution required the President
withdrawn at any time by the President. to address both Houses of Parliament at the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only commencement of “every session”. This requirement was
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 changed by the First Amendment to the Constitution.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I 119. Which of the following is required under
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. Article 108 of the Constitution of India to
summon a joint sitting of the two houses of
115. The procedure of the impeachment of the Parliament?
President of India is (a) Intention of the President
(a) Judicial procedure (b) Satisfaction of the President
(b) Quasi-Judicial procedure (c) Instruction of the President
(c) Legislative procedure (d) Consent of the President
(d) Executive procedure MPPSC Pre 2022
RAS/RTS (Pre.) G.S., 2016
Ans.(a): According to the Article 108 of the Indian
Ans.(b): Impeachment of President by parliament is constitution, the joint sitting of the Parliament is called by
quasijudicial process. the President. It is presided over by the Speaker or, in his
Quasijudicial procedure means a proceeding conducted absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in
by legislature or executive similar to court proceedings. his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
116. Indian President is the integral part of the Joint session of Parliament can be summoned in the
Parliament, because following situations - If after a Bill has been passed by
(a) He summons the two Houses at the first one House and submitted to the other House and the Bill
(b) He addresses two Houses at the first session is rejected by the other House. The Houses have finally
after each general election disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill.
(c) He may dissolve Lok Sabha More than six months elapse from the date of the
(d) All of the above reception of the Bill by the other House without the Bill
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II being passed by it. The President may, unless the Bill has
Ans.(d): Parliament means President, Lok Sabha and elapsed by reason of a dissolution of the House of the
Rajya Sabha. The President enjoys all executive powers People, notify to the Houses by message if they are
given by the Constitution. President summons the session sitting or by public notification if they are not sitting, his
of the Parliament and address the first session of intention to summon them to meet in a joint sitting for the
Parliament. President can dissolve Lok Sabha on purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill.
proposal by Prime Minister. Therefore, President is 120.Consider the following statements:
integral part of Parliament. 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a
117. Which Article is related to Special Address by prior recommendation of the President of India.
the President? 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
(a) Article 84 (b) Article 85 presented to the President of India, it is
(c) Article 86 (d) Article 87 obligatory for the President of India to give
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 his/her assent.
119
 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed 123. Which of the following statements is correct
by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a regarding the Parliamentary Privileges and
special majority and there is no provision for
Immunities?
joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above is/are (1) The Constitution has also extended the
correct? Parliamentary privileges to those persons
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only who are entitled to take part in the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 proceedings of House of Parliament.
UPSC IAS 2022
(2) Privileges are enjoyed by each House of
Ans.(b): The Bill amending the constitution does not
Parliament collectively.
require a prior recommendation from the President of
India. Hence statement (1) is incorrect. (3) Privileges are enjoyed by the members
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to individually.
the President of India, it is obligatory for the President (4) No member shall be arrested during the
of India to give his/her assent. The President cannot
session of Parliament for both civil as well
exercise his veto powers with reference to the
Constitution amendment bill. Also according to Article as criminal and prevention of detention
368, the Constitution can be amended only by a 2/3rd cases
majority in both Houses. There is no provision for a (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
joint sitting in case of a disagreement between both (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Houses. Hence 2nd and 3rd statements are correct.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
121. The Secretariat of the Indian Parliament-
(a) Is under Minister of Parliamentary Affairs Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Is under President question.
(c) Is independent of Government 124. Which one of the following statement is not
(d) Is under Supreme Court regard to powers of the Parliament?
MPPSC (Pre.) G.S, 2010 (a) Parliament can approve three types of
Ans.(c): Article 98 of the Constitution is regarding emergency provisions
Secretariat of Parliament which in turn is independent (b) It cannot abolish State Legislative Council
of Government. (c) It can alter boundaries of the States
122. Which one of the following is not a collective (d) It can establish a common High Court for
privilege of the members of Parliament? two or more States
(a) Freedom of debates and proceedings
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
(b) The Right to regulate the internal matters of
the Parliament Ans.(b): Parliament could impose three types of
(c) Freedom from attendance as Witness emergencies under the Constitution of India namely
(d) The privilege of excluding strangers from the National Emergency (Article 352), Failure of
house Constitutional machinery in States (Article 356) and
Financial Emergency (Article 360).
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
According to Article 169 (1) of the Constitution,
Ans.(c): Article 105 of the Constitution defines the
Parliament can abolish a Legislative Council or create
power and privileges of Member of Parliament and
Article 194 of the Constitution deals with power and it, if the Legislative Assembly of the concerned state
privileges of Members of the State Legislatures. passes a resolution to that effect. Hence statement (b) is
Freedom from attendance as witness is a personal not correct.
privilege of members of Parliament while rest of the
Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to
options given are collective privilege. The Constitution
has also extended the Parliament privileges to those the formation of new states and alteration of areas,
persons who are entitled to take part in the proceedings boundaries or names of existing states.
of House of Parliament or any of its committee. According to Article 231(1) of the Constitution,
Parliamentary privileges are provided only in civil cases Parliament may by law establish a common High Court
and not against criminal cases or preventive detention or
against executive order mage under legislative for two or more States or for two or more States and a
authority. Union territory.

120
 Parliamentary Procedures Ans.(a): The provision of calling attention notices has
restricted the scope of the short duration discussion.
125. The Parliament of India exercises control over Calling attention notice is introduced in Parliament by a
the functions of the Council of Ministers member to call attention of the minister to a matter of
through the urgent public importance and seek authentic
1. Adjournment motion information from him on that matter. In short duration
discussion, the Parliament member can raise such
2. Question hour
discussion on the matter of the urgent public
3. Supplementary questions importance.
Select the correct answer using the code given 128. Which one of the following motions, the
below: Council of Ministers in India can move?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) No Confidence Motion
(b) Censure Motion
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Adjournment Motion
IAS (Pre.) G.S, 2017 (d) Confidence Motion
Ans.(d): Several provisions have been made to exercise UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2006
control over the functions of the Council of Ministers UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd 2010
by the Parliament. One of them is ‘Adjournment Ans.(d): Confidence Motion is moved by the Council
of Ministers to show the majority in the House.
Motion’ where a motion for an adjournment of the
129. Which of the following motions is related to
business of the House for the purpose of discussing a
Union Budget?
definite matter of urgent public importance may be (a) Censure Motion
made with the consent of the Speaker. Another is (b) Calling Attention Motion
‘question hour ’which is the first hour of a sitting of (c) Cut Motion
Lok Sabha, devoted to the questions. “Question Hour” (d) Adjournment Motion
has assumed greater importance as the members can UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2002
UP Lower (Pre) Spl. G.S., 2002
elicit information through questions on matters affecting
Ans.(c): During the process of budget cut motions are
the day-to-day life of the citizens for which Ministers moved by members of Lok Sabha to oppose or reduce
are collectively answerable to the Legislature. Further, demand for grants. These are of three kinds:–
when a question is answered orally, supplementary 1. Policy cut motion represents the disapproval of the
questions can be asked thereon. policy underlying the demand.
2. Economy cut motion represents the economy that
126. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an
can be affected in the proposal expenditure.
adjournment motion is 3. Token cut motion ventilates a specific grievance
(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of that is within the sphere of responsibility of
urgent public importance Government of India.
(b) To let opposition members collect 130. What is the object of 'Cut Motion'?
information from the ministers (a) To put the check on the policies of the
Government
(c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in (b) To stop the functioning of ruling party
demand for grant (c) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in
(d) To postpone the proceedings to check the the Budget proposal
inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part (d) Rejection of complete financial dealings of
of some members the Government
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020
Ans.(a): An adjournment motion is an extraordinary
procedure, which when admitted leads to settings aside Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
the normal business of the house for discussing a
131. What is correct about starred question?
definite matter of urgent public importance. It needs
(i) Answer is given oral
support of 50 members to be admitted. (ii) Answer is given in written
127. The provision for Calling Attention Notices has (iii) Supplementary questions can be asked
restricted the scope of the following? (iv) Supplementary questions cannot be asked
(a) Short duration discussion (v) May be discussed on answer
(b) Question hour (vi) Speaker controls on answers
(c) Adjournment motion (a) (ii) (iv) (b) (i) (iii)
(d) Zero hour (c) (v) (vi) (d) (iii) (v)
(e) (ii) (vi)
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2010
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st G.S., 2014
121
Ans.(b): A Starred Question is the one to which a be taken up during the second phase (after 6 pm/ at the
member desires an oral answer in the house, having a end of the regular business).
distinguishing mark of an asterisk. When a question is In Rajya Sabha, total number of requests is not allowed to
answered orally, Members of Parliament have the exceed seven on a single day. The total time allocated for
option to raise the supplementary questions based on the Zero Hour is 30 minutes wherein a member gets three
replies to the starred questions. Per day, only 20 minutes to raise the issue. The session should be
questions can be listed for oral answer. completed before 1 pm.
An Unstarred Question is the one which does not call Moreover, a member is allowed to make only one Zero
for an oral answer in the House and hence on which no Hour request during a week. It is not mandatory to have a
supplementary questions can be asked. To an Un-starred Zero Hour every day during the session.
Question, a written answer is mandated to be laid on the It is to be noted that the Government is not obliged to
table after the Question Hour by the concerned answer the questions raised during the Zero Hour.
Minister. A Short Notice Question is the one which 134. 'Zero Hour' in the working of the Indian
relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can Parliament means
be asked with a shorter notice. It is answered orally (a) The first hour of the Session
followed by supplementary questions. (b) When privilege motion are accepted
132. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly (c) Hour before question hour
matched? (d) The time immediately following the question
(1) A starred Question to which a member desires hour
an Oral Answer UPPSC (Pre) 2021
(2) An Unstarred Question- Supplementary Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question can be asked subsequently question.
(3) A short Notice question-Supplementary 135. With reference to legislative procedure in
questions can be asked subsequently India, consider the following statements about
(4) A starred Question-Only 50 questions can be 'Zero Hour':
listed for oral answer a day 1. Zero Hour is the time gap between the end of
(a) 1, 2, 3 and (b) 1. 2 and 3 only Question Hour and the beginning of the
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only regular business of the House.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I 2. The time immediately before the beginning of
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Question Hour is called as Zero Hour.
question. 3. Matters of urgent importance, as agreed by the
133. Which of the following statements regarding Chair, are taken up during Zero Hour.
Zero Hour are correct? Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(1) Zero Hour is an Indian innovation in the field correct?
of Parliamentary Procedure. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(2) The Time gap between the question hour and (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
the agenda of house is known as zero Hour. J & K PSC Pre-2018
(3) This device has been in existence since 1962.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(4) It is an informal device available to the
members of the Parliament. question.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 136. ‘Zero Hour’ Parliamentary system has been
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above provided by which country?
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 (a) India (b) America
Ans.(d): The concept of ‘Zero Hour’ has been innovated (c) Britain (d) Switzerland
by India since 1962. Apart from the Question Hour, UPPCS (Mains) SPl G.S. IInd Paper, 2004
Parliament allocates additional time slot for the members Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
to discuss issues. question.
Although it’s not recognized in our Parliamentary 137. Time of zero-hour in Parliament is:
procedure, Members wishing to raise matters during the (a) 9 am to 10 am (b) 10 am to 11 am
Zero Hour need to give notice to the Speaker/Chairman
(c) 11 am to 12 noon (d) 12 noon to 1.00 pm
prior to the start of the daily session.
The notice should clearly state the subjects they want to UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper G.S. 2015
raise. The Speaker is the final authority who can either Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
reject or accept such request. question.
In Lok Sabha, only 20 matters are allowed to be raised 138. In the rules of Business of Indian Parliament, if
during the Zero Hour. Again, it is the Speaker who the Speaker admits notice of a motion but no
decides which subjects are to be discussed in the first date is fixed for its introduction-then it is
phase (after Question Hour) and which other issues could called.

122
 (a) Call attention motion Ans.(a): An office of profit has been interpreted to be a
(b) Adjournment motion position that brings to the office-holder some financial
(c) No Confidence motion gain or advantage or benefit.
(d) No day-yet named motion The law does not clearly define what constitutes an
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 ‘Office of Profit’ but the definition has evolved over the
Ans.(d): If the Speaker admits notice of a motion and years with interpretations made in various court
no date is fixed for its discussion, it is called a "No- judgments. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Day-yet-Named Motion" and a copy of the admitted Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention
motion is forwarded to the Minister concerned with the of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended
subject matter of the motion. Admitted notices of such five times to exempt several posts from disqualification
motions may be placed before the Business Advisory on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. Hence statement
Committee for selecting the motions for discussion in 1and 2 are correct.
the House according to the urgency and importance of Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) (a) [for M.P]
the subject-matter thereof and allotting time for the
and Article 191 (1) (a) [for M.L.A] of the Constitution,
same.
an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding
139. What is meaning of Guillotine in any office of profit under the Central or State
Parliamentary procedure? Government. President for MP’s and Governor of the
(a) To stop the debate on the bill States for MLA’s take final decision on office of profit.
(b) To continue debate on the bill
142. Who decides Office of Profit?
(c) Boycott of house by the members
(a) President and Governor
(d) To adjourn the house
(b) Union Parliament
(e) To adjourn the house for the day
(c) Supreme Court
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2012
(d) Union Public Service Commission
Ans.(a): In Parliament procedure Guillotine is a closure
motion when undiscussed clauses of a bill or a UPPCS (Pre.) G.S, 2009
resolution are also put to vote along with the discussed Ans.(a): The decision about office of profit is taken by
ones due to want of time. the President of India or the Governor of the state as the
140. Quorum of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is- case may be. As per Article 103 of the constitution
(a) 1/5th of the total number of member while deciding office of profit the President shall obtain
(b) 1/6th of the total number of member the opinion of the Election Commission and shall acts
(c) 1/10th of the total number of member accordingly.
(d) 1/8th of the total number of member 143. ‘Office of Profit’ is defined-
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 1st Paper 2016 (a) By the Constitution
Ans.(c): Under Article 100 of the Constitution, the (b) By the Supreme Court
“Quorum” to constitute a meeting of either House of (c) By the Union Cabinet
Parliament is one-tenth (1/10) of the total number of (d) By the Parliament
members of the House. If at any time during a meeting UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2000
of a House, there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of Ans.(b): The definition of office of profit is not given
the Chairman or person acting as such, either to clearly in the constitution of India. However the
adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until definition has evolved over the years with interpretation
there is a quorum. made in various court judgements.
141. Consider the following statements: Hence, option (b) would be most suitable answer to the
1. The Parliament (Prevention of question.
Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several
144. Minimum how many times is it necessary for
posts from disqualification on the grounds of
the meeting of Parliament to be held every
'Office of Profit'.
year?
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five
(a) Once (b) Twice
times.
(c) Thrice (d) Four times
3. The term ‘Office of Profit' is well defined in
the Constitution of India. UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1995
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.(b): As per the Article 85 of the Constitution, there
correct? should not be gap of more than six months between the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only two sessions of the Parliament. Hence meeting of the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Parliament is necessary twice to be held every year.

123
145. Consider the following statements: 3. If more than six months have elapsed from date of
1. The President of India can summon a the receipt of the bill by other house without the bill
session of Parliament at such a place as being passed by it.
he/she thinks fit. If above situations exist president may notify his
2. The Constitution of India provides for three ‘intention’ to summon the houses to meet in joint sitting.
sessions of the Parliament in a year but it is 148. The Provision of a joint sitting of both the
not mandatory to conduct all the sessions Houses of Parliament is mentioned in the
3. There is no minimum number of days that Constitution under the following Article-
the Parliament is required to meet in a year (a) 100 (b) 108
Which of the above given statements is/are (c) 110 (d) None of the above
correct? UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only question.
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020 149. Which of the following expression is
Ans.(c): According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution, appropriate regarding the message to call joint
the President shall from time to time summon each sitting of both houses under Article 108 of the
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as Constitution of India?
he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between (a) Intention of President
its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for (b) Direction of President
its first sitting in the next session. It means that the (c) Wisdom of President
Parliament should meet at least twice a year. Hence (d) Consent of President
statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct. MPPSC (Pre) 2020
It is no where mentioned in the Constitution about
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
minimum number of days that the Parliament is
question.
required to meet in a year. Hence statement 3 is correct.
150. Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
146. Which Article empowers the President to
can take place to resolve deadlock over
Summon and prorogue either Houses of
(a) Ordinary Legislation
Parliament?
(a) Article 75 (b) Article 81 (b) Money Bill
(c) Article 85 (d) Article 88 (c) Constitutional Amendment Bill
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016 (d) Appropriation Bill
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
question. Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Joint Sitting of the Parliament 151. In case of dispute between the two houses of
147. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Indian Parliament over an Ordinary Bill, the
Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the case is referred to:
Parliament during the passage of (a) The President of India
1. Ordinary Legislation (b) The Supreme Court of India
2. Money Bill (c) Joint sitting of both the Houses
3. Constitution Amendment Bill (d) The Prime Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
below:
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
question.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2012 152. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S 2013 the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be
passed by
Ans.(a): Article 108 of the constitution deals with
(a) A simple majority of members present and
provision of joint sitting. Provision of joint sitting is
voting
applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and
(b) Three-fourths majority of members present
not to money bills or constitutional amendment bills.
and voting
Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by
(c) Two-thirds majority of the Houses
the constitution to resolve a dead lock between the two
houses over passage of a bill. (d) Absolute majority of the Houses
A Dead lock take place in following conditions:– UPPSC (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
1. If the bill is rejected by other house. Ans. (a) When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both
2. If the houses have finally disagreed as to the the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by a
amendments to be made in the bill. simple majority of members present and voting.

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153. Consider the following statements: Ans. (b) If neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the of the Lok Sabha is available during the joint sitting of
Parliament in India is sanctioned under the Parliament, in such circumstances, Deputy
Article 108 of the Constitution Chairman of the Rajya Sabha would preside over the
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya joint sitting of the Parliament. If he is also absent from
Sabha was held in the year 1961 joint sitting then such other person as may be
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of
determined by the members present at the joint sitting,
Indian Parliament was held to pass the
Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. presides over the meeting.
Which of these statements is/are correct? 157. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 statements is not correct?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 contains only provisions relating to
Ans. (d) Article 108 of the Constitution is regarding imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or
joint sitting of both the Houses in certain cases. The regulation of any tax.
first joint sitting was held on 6 and 9 May, 1961 (b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody
following disagreement between the two Houses over of the Consolidated Fund of India or the
certain amendments to the Dowry Prohibition Bill, Contingency Fund of India.
1959. The second joint sitting was held on 16 May, (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the
1978 following rejection by the Rajya Sabha of the appropriation of moneys out of the
Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977. The Contingency Fund of India.
third joint sitting was held on 26 March 2002 when the
motion to consider the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of
2002, seeking to replace the Prevention of Terrorism borrowing of money or giving of any
Ordinance (POTO) as passed by the Lok Sabha was guarantee by the Government of India.
rejected by the Rajya Sabha. IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
154. Who of the following presides over the Joint Ans.(c): Article 110 of the Constitution deals with
Session of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha money bill. The constitution lays down a special
in India? procedure for the passing of money bills in the
(a) President of India parliament. Every money bill is considered to be a
(b) Vice President of India government bill and can be introduced only by a
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha minister.
(d) Prime Minister Financial bill under 117(1) can be introduced in Lok
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2006 Sabha only with prior recommendation of President
Ans. (c) Article 108 of the Constitution is regarding however financial bill under 117(3) can be introduced
joint sitting of both the Houses in certain cases. For the without recommendation of President.
joint sitting of both the Houses, the Secretary-General All money bills are financial bills but only some
shall issue summons to each member specifying the financial bills are money bills.
time and place for a joint sitting. The joint sitting of
Parliament is summoned by the President and presided 158. Which of the following statements are correct?
over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (1) Only a Minister can present a Money Bill.
(2) All Money Bills are Financial Bills but only
155. The joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha under Article 108 is summoned by some Financial Bills are Money Bills.
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (3) Finance Bills under Article 117 can only be
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha introduced with prior permission of the
(c) Prime Minister President in Lok Sabha only.
(d) President (a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (1) and (3) only
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2015 (c) (2) and (3) only (d) (1) and (2) only
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021)
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans.(d): Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the
question. Constitution. Money Bill contains tax proposals of the
government, telling about the new taxes and changes in
156. Who presides the joint sitting of the Parliament
rates of existing taxes. It also contains government’s
if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker
expenditure, revenues and borrowings. According to the
of the Lok Sabha is available?
Constitution, a money bill contains the imposition,
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
But the imposition of local taxes doesn’t come under
(c) Senior most member of Lok Sabha
the purview of the money bill. The regulation of the
(d) A member nominated by the President borrowing of money by the Union government also
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 comes under Money Bill. The payment of money into or
125
the withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund or Codes:
the Contingency Fund of India also come under Money (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Bill. Only a Minister can present a Money Bill. Hence correct explanation of (A).
statement 1 is correct. (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
According to Rule 219 of the Rules of Procedure of Lok (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Sabha, “Finance Bill” means the Bill ordinarily (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
introduced in each year to give effect to the financial UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper
proposals of the Government of India for the following Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
financial year and includes a Bill to give effect to question.
supplementary financial proposals for any period. A 161. Which of the following are the methods of
Finance Bill is a Bill that concerns the country's Parliamentary control over public finance in
finances. It could be about taxes, government India?
expenditures, government borrowings, revenues, etc. 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before
Therefore, All Money Bills are Financial Bills but only the Parliament
some Financial Bill are Money Bills. Hence, statement 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated
2 is also correct. Fund of India only after passing the
According to Article 117(1) of the Constitution, Finance Appropriation Bill
Bills can only be introduced with prior permission of 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-
the President in Lok Sabha only under Article 117(3). on-account
Financial bill(II) can be introduced in either House of 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of
Parliament and recommendation of President is not programme of the Government against
necessary for its introduction. Therefore, statement 3 is macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by
also correct. a Parliamentary Budget Office
159. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
amended by the Rajya Sabha? Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the below:
Bill, accepting or not accepting the (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2012
further Ans. (a) Parliament acts on the behalf of people of India
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya to get information regarding public finance in India.
Article 112 of the Constitution is regarding Annual
Sabha for reconsideration Financial Statement (Budget), Article 114 is about
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of
passing the Bill India only after passing of the Appropriation Bill,
UPPCS (Mains) 2015 G.S. IInd Paper Article 115 is provision of supplementary, additional or
Ans. (a) Article 109 of the Constitution is regarding excess grants and Article 117 is regarding Finance Bill
special procedure with respect to Money Bill. Article to be introduced in the Parliament with the
recommendation of the President of India. A periodic or
109(1) asserts that a Money Bill shall not be introduced at least a mid-year review of programme of the
in the Rajya Sabha. According to Article 109 (2), after a Government is not under the Parliamentary control.
Money Bill has been passed by the Lok Sabha, it shall 162. Which one of the following is responsible for
be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its the preparation and presentation of Union
recommendations and the Rajya Sabha shall within a Budget to the Parliament?
period of fourteen (14) days from the date of its receipt (a) Department of Revenue
of the Bill return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with its (b) Department of Economic Affairs
recommendations and the Lok Sabha may thereupon (c) Department of Financial Services
either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations (d) Department of Expenditure
of the Rajya Sabha. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010
160. Consider the following: Ans.(b): The budget division of the department of
Assertion (A) Recommendations of Rajya Sabha, economic affairs in finance ministers is the nodal body
after a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and responsible for preparation and presentation of union
transmitted to the Rajya Sabha have to be budget in Parliament.
accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days from 163. Who represents the Government of India while
the receipt of recommendations and then get them presenting the budget to the Parliament?
incorporated in the Bill. (a) The Prime Minister
Reason (R) Money Bill cannot be introduced in (b) The Finance Minister
the Rajya Sabha. (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer from the codes given (d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
below: OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
126
Ans. (b) : The Finance Minister of India represents the Government to place the following along with the
Government of India while presenting the budget to the Union Budget documents in Parliament annually-
Parliament. 1. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
164. If budget is disclosed before introducing in the 2. Macroeconomic Framework Statement
Legislative Assembly, what will happen? 3. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement.
(a) Council of Ministers will have to resign The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
proposed that revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, tax revenue
(b) Chief Minister will have to resign
and the total outstanding liabilities be projected as a
(c) Finance Minister will have to resign percentage of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the
(d) All of the above medium-term fiscal policy statement.
(e) None of the above 167. Which one of the following sets of bills is
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S, 2016 presented to the Parliament along with the
Ans. (e) Highest level of secrecy is maintained to budget?
prevent the leakage of budget before presenting it to (a) Direct Taxes Bill and Indirect Taxes Bill
Lok Sabha/ State Legislature by the Finance Minister. (b) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
Nevertheless, if it is disclosed, there is no effect on (c) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
Chief Minister, Finance Minister or the Council of (d) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
Ministers. OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
165. A Bill authorizing expenditure by the Ans. (c) : Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill are
Government is: presented to the Parliament along with the Union
(a) Money Bill Budget.
(b) Appropriation Bill 168. Which of the following matters constitute
(c) Finance Bill Money Matters under Money Bill according to
(d) None of the above Article 110 of the Indian Constitution?
Manipur PSC-2016 (1) Audit and Accounts of Union or a State
Ans. (b) : A bill authorizing expenditure by the (2) Custody of Public Account of India
government is called Appropriation bill. Appropriation (3) Borrowing or Guarantee by Government of
Bill gives power to the government to withdraw funds India
from the Consolidated Fund of India for meeting the (4) Custody or Payment into Contingency Fund
expenditure during the financial year. of India
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
166. Along with the budget, the Finance Minister
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
also places other documents before the
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Parliament which include “The Macro
Economic Framework Statement” The Ans. (a): According to Article 110, all the given matters
aforesaid document is presented because this is in the question constitute the money matters under
mandated by Money Bill.
(a) Long standing Parliamentary convention 169. Which one of the following statements about a
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Money Bill is not correct?
Constitution of India (a) Money Bill can be tabled in either House of
Parliament
(c) Article 114 of the Constitution of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money
Budget Management Act, 2003 Bill or not
IAS (Pre) G.S 2020 (c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill
Ans. (d) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for
(FRBM) became an Act in 2003. It is an Act to provide consideration within 14 days
for the responsibility of the Central Government to (d) The President cannot return Money Bill to
ensure intergenerational equity in fiscal management Lok Sabha for reconsideration
and long-term macro-economic stability by removing IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2000
fiscal impediments in the effective conduct of monetary Ans. (a) Article 109(1) of the Constitution asserts that a
policy and prudential debt management consistent with Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of
fiscal sustainability through limits on the Central States (Rajya Sabha). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Government borrowings, debt and deficits, greater Article 110 (3) asserts that if any question arises
transparency in fiscal operations of the Central whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the
Government and conducting fiscal policy in a medium Speaker of the Lok Sabha shall be final. Article 109(2)
term framework. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget asserts that after a Money Bill has been passed by the
Management Act made it mandatory for the Lok Sabha, it shall be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha
127
for its recommendations and the Rajya Sabha shall Ans. (d) Consolidated Fund of India is constituted
within a period of fourteen days from the date of its under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution. All revenues
receipt of the Bill, return the Bill to the Lok Sabha with received by the Government by way of direct taxes and
its recommendations. Under the Article 110 (1) of the indirect taxes, money borrowed and receipts from loans
Constitution, the President may either give or withhold given by the Government flow into the Consolidated
assent to a Money Bill. Under the Constitution, a Fund of India. All government expenditure is made
from this fund, except exceptional items, which are met
Money Bill cannot be returned to the House by the from the Contingency Fund or the Public Account. No
President for reconsideration. money can be withdrawn from this fund without
170. Who among the following decides that a Bill is approval of the Parliament.
a Money Bill or not? 175. All revenues received by the Union
(a) President (b) Prime Minister Government by ways of taxes and other
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Finance Minister receipts for the conduct of Government
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 business are credited to :
(a) The Contingency Fund of India
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Public Account
question. (c) The Consolidated Fund of India
171. Any statutory bill can be placed on the floor of (d) The Reserve Bank of India
which House? AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
(a) Lok Sabha Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Rajya Sabha question.
(c) Floor of the one of the House 176. All revenues received by the union government
(d) None of the above by way of taxes and other receipts for the
conduct of government business are credited to
MPPCS (Pre) G.S,2010 the?
Ans. (c) Money bill could only be placed on the floor of (a) Contingency fund of India
the Lok Sabha and rest of the Bills could be placed at (b) Public account
floor of the both the Houses. (c) Consolidated fund of India
172. Which one of the following is responsible for (d) Deposits and advances fund
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2011
the establishment of ‘Contingency Fund’?
Ans.(c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(a) Legislature of any State
177. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds
(b) Parliament from the consolidated fund of India must come
(c) President from?
(d) None of the above (a) The President of India
UP RO/ARO (Mains) G.S., 2014 (b) The Parliament of India
Ans. (a) Contingency Fund is created as an impress (c) The Prime minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
account to meet some urgent or unforeseen expenditure
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2011
of the Government. Article 267(1) of the Constitution of
India provides for the establishment of Contingency Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Fund of India and Article 267(2) of the Constitution of question.
India provides for the establishment of Contingency 178. ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union Government
Fund of States. to:
(a) Go for public loan
173. Which of the following Articles of the Indian
(b) Borrow money from the Reserve Bank of
Constitution is related to Contingency Fund? India
(a) Article 265 (b) Article 266 (c) Give grant-in-aid to States
(c) Article 267 (d) Article 268 (d) Withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 of India for specific period
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. SPL. 2008
question. Ans. (d) Article 116 of the Constitution is regarding
174. Who has right to issue money from the votes on account, votes of credit and exceptional grants.
Consolidated Fund of India? The vote on account is the special provision given to the
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General Government to obtain the vote of Parliament to
withdraw money from Consolidated Fund of India when
(b) Finance Minister of India
the budget for the new financial year is not passed or
(c) Authorized Minister the elections is underway. A vote on account stays valid
(d) None of the above for two months but however it can be extended, if the
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2000 year is an election year.
128
179. The funds which are made available by the Ans.(b): Simple Closure: It is one when a member
Parliament to meet the expenses during the moves that the matter has been sufficiently discussed
period between the presentation of the Budget and be now put to vote.
and its final approval is known as- Closure by compartments: In this case the clauses of
bill of a lengthy resolution are grouped into parts before
(a) Vote on Account (b) Interim Budget
the commencement of the debate. The debate covers the
(c) Preliminary Budget (d) Gender Budget part as a whole and the entire part is put to vote.
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021 Kangaroo Closure: Under this type, only important
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the
question. intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as
passed.
180. Vote on Account is meant for Guillotine Closure: It is one when undiscussed clauses
(a) Vote on the report of CAG of a bill or a resolution are also put to vote along with
(b) To meet unforeseen expenditure the discussed ones due to want of time.
(c) Appropriating funds pending passing of 182. The Indian Parliaemnt consists of
budget (a) President
(d) Budget (b) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(c) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(e) None of the above/More than one of the
(d) None of the above
above
MPPSC Pre 2022
BPSC (Pre) G.S.,2016 Ans. (c): Legislature of the Union, which is called
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Parliament, consists of the President and two Houses,
question. known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of
181. Identify the correct match of the Indian the People (Lok Sabha). Each House has to meet within
six months of its previous sitting. A joint sitting of two
parliamentary closure motions and their
Houses can be held in certain cases.
definitions.
183. Which of the following are/is stated in the
1. Simple Closure-It is one when a member Constitution of India?
moves that the matter has been sufficiently I. The President shall not be a member of either
discussed and be now put to vote. house of Parliament.
2. Closure by Compartment-Only important II. The Parliament shall consist of the President
clauses are taken up for debate and voting and and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
the intervening clauses are skipped over and
given below:
taken as passed. Codes:
3. Kangaroo Closure-In this case, the clauses of (a) Neither I nor II (b) Both I and II
a bill or a lengthy resolution are grouped into (c) I alone (d) II alone
parts before the commencement of the debate. IAS (Pre.) G.S., 1997
Ans. (b) Article 79 of the Constitution asserts that there
The debate covers the part as a whole and the
shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist
entire is put to vote. of the President and two Houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya
4. Guillotine Closure-It is one when the Sabha). Article 59 is regarding the condition of the
undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution President’s office, which asserts that the President shall
are also put to vote along with the discussed not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a
House of the Legislature of any State. Hence both the
ones due to want of time. statements are correct.
How many statements given above is/are 184. Which of the following Article of the Indian
correct? Constitution deals with the Constitution of the
(a) Only one statement Parliament of India?
(a) Article 73 (b) Article 78
(b) Only two statements
(c) Article 79 (d) Article 72
(c) Only three statements Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019
(d) Only four statements Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
J & K PSC Pre 2022 question.

129
185. Which of the following is included in Indian (4) A Bill which has been passed by Rajya Sabha
Parliament? but is pending before Lok Sabha
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Chairman of the Lok Sabha and Lok Sabha Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
(d) President and both the Houses Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2012 question.
Ans.(d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. 189. Consider the following statements:
186. Which of the following statements is/are (i) Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has
correct? not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
prorogation. (ii) A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by
reason of Prorogation of the houses.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not
correct?
lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(a) Only (i) (b) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Only (ii)
below.
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans.(b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
190. Consider the following statements regarding
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2016
lapsing of bills in the Parliament:
Ans. (b) A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse
1. A bill pending in the Parliament lapses by
on its prorogation rather it is tabled for discussion for
reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
next session of the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 1 is
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not
incorrect.
passed by the Lok Sabha lapses when Lok
According to Article 107(5) of the Constitution, a Bill
Sabha dissolves.
which is pending in the Lok Sabha or which having been
Which of the above statements above is/ are
passed by the Lok Sabha and is pending in the Rajya
correct?
Sabha, lapse on a dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
According to Article 107 (4) of the Constitution, a Bill
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed
by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ans.(d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Further, a bill passed by both Houses of Parliament but 191. The Parliament of India has the 'Power to
pending assent of the President does not lapse. Legislate' for the following-
187. Consider the following statements- 1. Union of India
When Lok Sabha is dissolved- 2. Territory of India
1. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not 3. Indian subject resident and their property
been passed by the Lok Sabha lapses. situated anywhere in the world
2. A Bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses. Select the correct answer from the code given
3. A Bill passed by both houses but pending assent below-
of the President of India does not lapse. Code-
Choose the correct answer from the following : (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only
Codes- (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3 Ans. (b) : According to Article 245 of the Constitution,
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws for the
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above whole or any part of the territory of India. Hence, both
question. statements 1and 2 are correct.
As per the law, Parliament of India has power to
188. Which of the following Bills do not lapse on
legislate against any Indian subject resident and their
dissolution of the Lok Sabha?
property situated anywhere in the world only and only if
(1) A Bill that originated in Rajya Sabha and is
India has signed an “Extradition Treaty” with that
pending before Rajya Sabha
particular country. Otherwise it is not possible for the
(2) A Bill that originated in Lok Sabha and is
Parliament of India to legislate an Indian subject
pending before Lok Sabha
resident and their property situated anywhere in the
(3) A Bill passed by Lok Sabha but is pending
world. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
before Rajya Sabha
130
192. The Parliament of India acquires the power to Choose the correct answer by using below
legislate on any item in the State List in the given codes:
national interest if a resolution to that effect is Code:
passed by the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All four
membership UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1995
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two- Ans. (d) Union Parliament can make law for the matters
thirds of its total membership related to State List; to implement the international
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total treaties (Article 253), with the consent of the concern
membership State (Article 252), if President Rule is imposed in State
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than (Article 356), if Rajya Sabha passes resolution with two
two-thirds of its members present and voting third majority in national interest (Article 249).
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2016
196. A money bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to
Ans. (d) Article 249 of the Constitution is regarding the have been passed by Rajya Sabha also when no
power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within
in the State List in the national interest. It asserts that if (a) 10days (b) 14days
the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the
(c) 15days (d) 16 days
National interest that Parliament should make laws on a
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2016
matter in the State list, then Parliament becomes
competent to make law on that matter. Such a resolution Ans. (b) Article 109 of the Constitution is regarding
must be supported by a majority of not less than two- special procedure in respect of Money Bills. Article
third of its members present and voting. The resolution 109(5) asserts that if a Money Bill passed by the Lok
remains in force for one year. Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its
193. Which of the following statements is recommendations, is not returned to the Lok Sabha
INCORRECT regarding powers of Rajya within fourteen days (14 days), it shall be deemed to
Sabha in matters of State List? have been passed by the Rajya Sabha.
(a) Parliament can make laws with respect to the 197. Which one of the following statements about
matters in the state list if Rajya Sabha the Parliament of India is NOT correct?
declares that it is necessary for national (a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary
importance and pass as a resolution. form of Government.
(b) The resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha (b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to
must be supported by the two-thirds of the provide a Cabinet.
members present and voting. (c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted
(c) Such resolution remains in force for 30 days to the Lower House.
only. (d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of
(d) None of the above. the majority in the popular Chamber.
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2011
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (c) Among the given statements, the membership of
question. the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House (Lok Sabha)
194. Parliament can legislate on a subject in the is not correct as it is the privilege of the Prime Minister to
State list appoint the member of his cabinet irrespective of Houses.
(a) By the wish of the President Rest all the statements are correct.
(b) If the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution 198. Given below are two statements:
(c) Under any circumstances Assertion (A) The President is the part of the
(d) By asking the legislature of the concerned Parliament.
State Reason (R) A Bill passed by the two Houses of
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2012 Parliament cannot become law without the assent
of the President.
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
In the context of the above, which one of the
question.
following is correct?
195. Union Parliament can make law for the (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
matters related to State List- correct explanation of (A).
1. To implement the international treaties (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
2. With the consent of the concern State correct explanation of (A).
3. If President Rule is imposed in State (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4. If Rajya Sabha passes resolution with two (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
third majorities in national interest
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper. 2007
131
Ans. (a) Article 79 of the Constitution asserts that there Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of question.
the President and two Houses to be known respectively 203. Who amongst the following has the power to
as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of withhold assent to a Bill, after it has been
the People (Lok Sabha). Further a Bill passed by the two passed by the two Houses of Parliament?
Houses of Parliament becomes law only after the assent
(a) The President
of the President. Hence Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A). (b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
199. The Parliament can make any law for whole or
any part of India for implementing (d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
international treaties UPPCS (Mains) G.S IInd Paper 2011
(a) With the consent of all the States Ans. (a) According to Article 111 of the Constitution,
(b) With the consent of the majority of States when a Bill has been passed by the both Houses of
(c) With the consent of the States concerned Parliament, it shall be presented to the President and the
(d) Without the consent of any State President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2000, 2013 or that he withholds assent. Such provision is not
Ans. (d) Article 253 of the Constitution asserts that the applicable to Money Bill.
Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or 204. Which one of the following is empowered to
any part of the territory of India for implementing any alter the boundaries of States under the
treaty, agreement or convention with any other country Constitution of India?
or countries or any decision made at any international (a) Parliament (b) Lok Sabha
conference, association or other body. Therefore (c) President (d) Supreme Court
consent of the State is not required for implementing UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd Paper 2015
international treaties.
Ans. (a) According to the Article 3 of the Constitution,
200. Parliament can amend the provision on official
Parliament by law form a new State, increase the area of
language of India under the Constitution by:
(a) A simple majority of its members any State, diminish the area of any State, alter the
(b) 2/3rd majorities boundaries of any State and alter the name of any State.
(c) 3/4th majorities 205. Which of the following has power to form a
(d) Support of 1/3 of its members new State?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 (a) Lok Sabha (b) Parliament
Ans: (a) Parliament could amend the provision on (c) Political Parties (d) Union Government
official language of India under the Constitution by a UP RO/ARO (Mains) G.S., 2014
simple majority of its members. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013
201. Who can legislate on the subjects which are not Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
included in any of the lists of subjects given in
question.
the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament 206. Which one of the following is not correct in the
(c) State Legislature (d) Regional Councils matter of formation of new States?
UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam. G.S., 2015 (a) Parliament may by law form a new State.
Ans. (b) Article 248 of the Constitution is regarding (b) Such law shall contain provisions for the
residuary powers of legislation. Article 248 (1) asserts amendment of the First Schedule and the
that the Parliament has exclusive power to make any Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.
law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the (c) Such law shall be deemed to be an
Concurrent List or State List. Further Article 248 (2) amendment of the Constitution for the
asserts that such power shall include the power of
purpose of Article 368.
making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either
of those lists. (d) No Bill for enacting such law shall be
202. According to Article 248 of the Indian introduced in the Parliament unless it has
Constitution, Residuary Power is vested with been referred to the legislature of the State,
the whose area, boundaries or name is affected.
(a) Parliament UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011
(b) States Ans. (c) According to Article 4(2) of the Constitution,
(c) Union and States jointly provisions provided under Article 2 (Admission or
(d) President establishment of new States) shall not be deemed to be
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.

132
207. Who among the following can participate in 211. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted
the deliberations of Lok Sabha while being by
member of the Rajya Sabha? (a) Powers of the President of India
(a) Nominated member of the Rajya Sabha who (b) Judicial review
is an expert in a field (c) Leader of the opposition
(b) Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (d) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
(c) Minister who is a member of the Rajya Sabha UPPCS (Mains) G.S. Ist Paper, 2004
(d) Leader of the House in Rajya Sabha Ans. (b) Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted
(e) None of these by judicial review. Judicial review is the power of the
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st G.S., 2013 courts to consider the acts of organs of Government
Ans. (c) Article 88 of the Constitution is regarding (both executive and legislature) constitutionally and
Rights of Ministers and Attorney General of India to declare it unconstitutional or null and void, if it violates
speak and take part in the proceedings of either House the basic principles of Constitution.
of the Parliament but not entitled to vote.
208. Being a non member of both the Houses, which 4. Rajya Sabha
one of the following can take part in the
proceedings of the House?
212. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution,
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Attorney General of India can the Rajya Sabha authorize the Parliament
(c) Chief Election Commissioner to legislate on a State subject by 2/3rd majority?
(d) Chairman of National Human Rights (a) Article 249 (b) Article 243
Commission (c) Article 259 (d) Article 250
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st G.S., 2003 JPSC (Pre) 2024-I
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (a) : Article 249 of the Constitution Rajya Sabha
question. can authorize the Parliament to legislate on matters of
209. Which of the following is not authorized to take State list if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd
part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha? majority of its member present and voting.
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India 213. Consider the following statements in respect of
(CAG) the manner of election to the Council of States
(b) Attorney General of India by the electoral college :
(c) Solicitor General of India (A) They are elected in accordance with the
(d) Secretary to the President of India proportional representation system by
BPSC (Pre) G.S, 2003 means of single transferable vote.
Ans. (d) Secretary to the President of India is not (B) They are elected by second call of paper.
entitled to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha (C) Elections are required to indicate
while rest of the given options are entitled to take part candidates' multiple preferences.
in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
(D) The candidates are required to obtain the
210. Who among the following have the right to vote quota and polling will be by open ballot.
in the elections of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Which of the above statements are correct?
Sabha? Codes :
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the (a) (A), (B), (C) only (b) (A), (B) only
Parliament (c) (A), (C), (D) only (d) (A), (B), (D) only
(b) Elected members of the upper House of the Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
Parliament
Ans. (c) : The representatives of the states and Union
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the Territories in Rajya Sabha are elected by method of
State Legislature indirect election in accordance with the system of
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the proportional representation by means of single
State Legislature transferable vote. Voting is done by open ballot. In
IAS (Pre.) G.S. 1995 Proportional Representation system electors are
Ans. (d) Elected Members of the Lower House of the required to indicate preferences to all candidates. To
State Legislature (Vidhan Sabha) have the voting right win the election candidates need to secure required
in the elections of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. quota of Vote. Thus, statements A, C & D are correct.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the 214. Identity the incorrect statement regarding
Legislative Assembly of States and Union territories Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
by means of single transferable vote through (a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is the only Chairman of
proportional representation. The members of the Rajya Sabha for two consecutive terms.
Lower House of the State Legislature (Vidhan Sabha) (b) For the first constitutional amendment,
also have voting right in the elections of the Lok ratification of the Rajya Sabha was not taken.
Sabha as an ordinary citizen of India.

133
 (c) Currently eight members are elected to Rajya (c) To return a Money Bill with
Sabha from the Union Territories. recommendations
(d) There have been three occasions, when joint (d) Authorizing Parliament in the national
sitting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha was
held. interest to make a law for creation of an All
(e) Question not attempt India Service
RPSC (Pre) 2023 APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017)
Ans.(c): Dr. S. Radhakrishan is only Vice-President of Ans. (b) : Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha can
India who has served the office for two terms. Thus he authorize Parliament in the national interest to make a
is the chairman of Rajya Sabha for two consecutive law on a matter in the State List. However a Money Bill
terms.
cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, yet it is
First Constitutional Amendment was not ratified by
Rajya Sabha as First Amendment was passed in 1951 transmitted to Rajya Sabha for recommendations by
and Rajya Sabha got established in 1952. There have Lok Sabha, The Lok Sabha has the power of either
been three occasions, when joint sitting of Rajya Sabha accepting or rejecting the recommendations made by
and Lok Sabha was held which were Dowry Prohibition the Rajya Sabha. Article 312 of the Constitution of
Bill, 1962 Banking Service Commission Bill, 1978 India empowers the Rajya Sabha to authorize the
(Repeal) Bill, 1973, Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002. Parliament in the national interest to make a law for
Currently four members are elected to Rajya Sabha creation of an All India Service.
from Union Territories. Thus, statement (c) is incorrect.
215. Consider the following statements about the 217. Arrange the following States in decreasing
Rajya Sabha of the Indian Parliament : order of the number of seats of Rajya Sabha:
(i) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject (a) Gujarat > Karnataka > Kerala > Odisha
or to amend a Money Bill. (b) Karnataka > Gujarat > Kerala > Odisha
(ii) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote the Demands of (c) Karnataka > Gujarat > Odisha > Kerala
Grants. (d) Gujarat > Karnataka > Odisha > Kerala
(iii) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual CGPSC Pre 2022
Financial Statement.
(iv) If any question arises regarding whether a Bill Ans. (c) : The correct decreasing order of the number of
is Money Bill or not, the decision of the seats of Rajya Sabha for states is as below -
Chairperson shall not be final. Karnataka (12) > Gujarat (11) > Odisha (10) > Kerala
Select the correct statements using the codes (9)
given below. 218.Match List-I with List-II and select the
(a) Only (i) and (iv) correct answer using the codes given below the
(b) Only (ii) and (iii) lists.
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
List-I List-II
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(State) (Representation in
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
Rajya Sabha)
Ans. (c) : The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject
or to amend a Money Bill. Hence, statement (1) is (A) Rajasthan 1. 10 seats
correct. (B) Gujarat 2. 7 seats
The Rajya Sabha cannot vote the Demands of Grants. (C) Karnataka 3. 11 seats
Hence, statement (2) is correct. (D) Punjab 4. 12 seats
The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual financial. Codes:
Hence, statement (3) is incorrect. A B C D
If any question arises regarding whether a Bill is (a) 1 3 4 2
Monely Bill or not, the decision of the Chairperson shall (b) 2 3 4 1
not be final, it is decided by speaker and the decision of (c) 1 2 3 4
speaker shall be final. Hence, statement (4) is correct. (d) 4 3 1 2
216. Out of the following, which is not a power UPPSC (Pre) 2021
granted to Rajya Sabha? Ans. (a): The correct match is as follows :-
(a) Authorizing Parliament in the national (State) (Representation in Rajya Sabha)
interest to make a law on a matter in the State Rajasthan -10 seats
List
Gujarat -11 seats
(b) Authorizing State Assemblies in the national
interest to make law on matters in the Union Karnataka -12 seats
List Punjab -07 seats

134
219. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 222. Consider the following statements:
answer using the codes given below. 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
List-I List-II declare that it would be in national interest for
State Seats in Rajya Sabha the Parliament to legislate with respect to a
(a) Chhattisgarh - 1. 3 matter in the State List.
(b) Jharkhand - 2. 7 2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of
(c) Telangana - 3. 6 Emergency is passed only by the Lok Sabha.
(d) Uttarakhand - 4. 5
Which of the statements given above is/are
codes:
A B C D correct?
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 4 3 2 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 IAS (Pre) G.S.,2016
(d) 3 2 4 1 Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 question.
Ans. (b): The correct matching is as follows - 223. Rajya Sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha
State - (Seats in Rajya Sabha) in
Chhattisgarh - 5 (a) The matter of creating new all India services
Jharkhand - 6
(b) Amending the Constitution
Telangana - 7
Uttarakhand - 3 (c) The removal of the government
220. Which of the following special powers have (d) Making cut motions
been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Constitution of India? Ans. (b) Rajya Sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and in matters related to introduction and passage of
to change the name of a State ordinary and Constitutional Amendment Bills, financial
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Bills related to expenditure from Consolidated Fund of
Parliament to make laws in the State List and India, election and impeachment of the President,
to create one or more All India Services election of the Vice President.
(c) To amend the election procedure of the
President and to determine the pension of the 224. The representation the Rajya Sabha includes
President after his/her retirement (a) Members directly elected by citizens
(d) To determine the functions of the Election (b) Members indirectly elected by citizens
Commission and to determine the number of through their representatives
Election Commissioners (c) Members nominated by the President of Indi
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 (d) More than one of the above
Ans. (b) Rajya Sabha being a federal chamber enjoys (e) None of the above
certain special powers under the Constitution. Rajya
68th BPSC 2022
Sabha through resolution empowers the Parliament to
make laws enumerated in the State List, Rajya Sabha Ans. (d): The Council of States of Rajya Sabha is
could create one or more All India Services. Rajya represented by two types of members (i) those member,
Sabha enjoys a special power regarding emergency indirectly elected by the elected members of the
provisions. If an emergency proclamation is issued at a Assemblies of States and Union Territories in
time when Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the accordance with the system of proportional
dissolution of Lok Sabha takes place within the period representation by means of the single transferable vote,
allowed for its approval, then the proclamation remains and (2) Those members (12 in number) nominated by
effective, if the resolution approving emergency is
passed by Rajya Sabha within the period specified in the President of India from amongst person having
the Constitution. special knowledge or practical experience in Literature,
Science, Art and Social service.
221. The Council of States has exclusive powers in
relation to which of the following? The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes
(a) To initiate proceedings for the removal of the members indirectly elected by citizens through their
President representatives, and members nominated by the
president of India. Hence, both (b) and (c) are correct.
(b) To initiate proceedings for the removal of a
judges of the Supreme Court 225. Generally how many sessions are there in the
(c) To recommend creation of a new All India Lok Sabha?
Service (a) 4 (b) 5
(d) None of the above (c) 6 (d) 3
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 (e) None of the above/More than one of the
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above above
question. 67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021
135
Ans. (d) : Generally-three sessions of the Lok Sabha are 229. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by
held in a year. (a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(1) Budget session – February – May
(c) The Council of Minister
(2) Monsoon session – July – August (d) None of the above
(3) Winter session – November – December UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012
226. Which of the following are correct about the Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Rajya Sabha? question.
1. It is not subject to dissolution. 230. What is the minimum age to be a Member of
2. It has a term of five years. Parliament?
(a) 18 years (b) 21 years
3. One third of its members retire after every (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
two years. (e) More than one of the above
4. Its member shall not be less than 25 years of BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
age. Ans. (e) Article 84 of the Constitution is regarding the
Select the correct answer using the codes given qualification for membership of Parliament. Article
below: 84(b) asserts that in the case of a seat in the Rajya
Sabha, not less than thirty years of age and in the case
Codes: of a seat in the Lok Sabha, not less than twenty five
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 years of age.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 231. What is the definite number for the Members
UPPCS (Pre) G.S.,2014 of Rajya Sabha?
Ans. (c) According to Article 83 (1) of the Constitution, (a) 220 (b) 230
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to (c) 210 (d) 250
dissolution. However one-third Members of Rajya MPPSC (Pre) GS 2010
Sabha retire after every second year. A member who is Ans. (d) Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the
elected for a full term serves for a period of six years. maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250, out of which
According to Article 84(b) of the Constitution, 12 members are nominated by the President and 238 are
minimum age required for the election of Rajya Sabha representatives of the States and of the two Union
is 30 years. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct. Territories. The members nominated by the President
are persons having special knowledge or practical
227. Which of the following Articles made this
experience in respect of such matters as literature,
provision that the "Council of States'' shall
NOT be subject to dissolution? science, art and social service. However the present
strength of Rajya Sabha is 245, out of which 233 are
(a) Article 79 (b) Article 80
representatives of the States and Union territories of
(c) Article 82 (d) Article 83
Delhi and Puducherry and 12 are nominated by the
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
President.
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
232. How many members are nominated for the
question.
Rajya Sabha by the President?
228. Given below are two statements, one is labeled (a) 08 (b) 10
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). (c) 12 (d) 15
Assertion (A) : The Council of States is not UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
subject to dissolution. Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
Reason (R) : As nearly as possible 1/3 of its Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
members retire on the expiration of every second question.
year. 233. In which year was Rajya Sabha constituted for
Choose the correct answer from the code given the first time?
below. (a) 1950 (b) 1951
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (c) 1952 (d) 1953
correct explanation of (A) UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the Ans. (c) Rajya Sabha was constituted on 3rd April,
correct explanation of (A) 1952. Rajya Sabha met for the first time on 13th May,
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false 1952. Dr. S. Radhakrisnan was the first Chairman of the
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true Rajya Sabha and S.V.Krishnamoorthy Rao was the first
UPPSC RO/ARO (Mains) 2016 Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. On 23rd August,
1954, the Chairman, Rajya Sabha made an
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
announcement in the House that the Council of States
question.
would now be called ‘Rajya Sabha’ in Hindi.

136
234. The Upper house of Indian Parliament, Rajya
Sabha held its first session on: 5. Lok Sabha
(a) 26 January, 1951 (b) 28 January, 1950
(c) 13 May, 1952 (d) None of the above 240. Who among the following is the first women
UPPCS ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 Speaker in Lok Sabha?
(a) Meira Kumar (b) Urmila Singh
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Sushma Swaraj (d) Pratibha Patil
question.
UPPCS (Pre) 2023
235. Officiating Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
Ans. (a) : Smt. Meira Kumar was the first women
(a) Vice-President (b) President speaker of Loksabha. It is also important to note that
(c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker Shanno Devi was first Indian Women Speaker of a State
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011 Assembly in India. She was the speaker of Haryana
BPSC (Pre) G.S.2017-18 Legislative Assembly from 6 December, 1966 to 17
Ans. (a) According to Article 64 of the Constitution, the March, 1967.
Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya 241. Which of the following (State- Number of
Sabha. Rajya Sabha also chooses amongst its members, Members in Lok Sabha) is not correctly
a Deputy Chairman. matched ?
(a) Gujarat-26
236. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(b) Haryana -10
mentioned the posts of the Chairman and
(c) Himachal Pradesh-4
Deputy Chairman of the Council of States?
(d) Jharkhand-16
(a) Article 90 (b) Article 89 UPPSC (J) 2023
(c) Article 93 (d) Article 94 Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows :-
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 State - No. of Lok Sabha Seats
Ans. (b) : Article 89 of the Constitution mentioned the Gujarat - 26
posts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Haryana - 10
Council of States (Rajya Sabha). Himanchal Pradesh - 4
237. Chairman of which House is not its member? Jharkhand - 14
(a) Rajya Sabha Hence, pair (d) is incorrectly matched.
(b) Lok Sabha 242. Consider the following statements.
(c) Legislative Assembly (i) The Lok Sabha Elections of 1989 marked
(d) Legislative Council the end of, what Political Scientists have
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1992 called, the ‘Congress System’.
UPUDA/LDA (Mains) G.S.,2010 (ii) Indian National Congress emerged as the
BPSC (Pre) 2003, 2007 single largest party in the 1989 Lok Sabha
Ans. (a) The Vice-President of India is ex- Elections.
officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. He is not the member (a) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
of the Rajya Sabha. (b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
(c) Only (ii) is correct.
238. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is:
(d) Only (i) is correct.
(a) The Prime Minister
(e) Question not attempt.
(b) The President
(c) The Vice President RPSC (Pre) 2023
(d) The leader of the opposition party Ans.(b): Congress emerged as the largest party in the
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 1889 Lok Sabha election. Out of total 531 seats. Indian
National Congress won 197 seats, Janta Dal won 143
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
seats, Bhartiya Janta Party won 85 seats and Communist
question.
Party of India won 33 seats.
239. Who nominates the 12 members for Rajya
243. Money Bill can be presented
Sabha in India?
(a) Only in the Lok Sabh
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Justice
(b) Only in the Rajya Sabha
(c) President (d) Vice President
(c) In both the Houses
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016
(d) In joint meeting of both the Houses
Ans. (c) As per the Article 80 of the Constitution, (e) None of the above
President can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2018
having special knowledge or practical experience in the UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015
field of literature, art, science and social service.

137
Ans. (a) Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok third reading. There are four alternatives before this
Sabha and if any question arises whether a Bill is a House.
Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the (a) it may pass the bill as sent by the first house (ie,
Lok Sabha shall be final. without amendments);
(b) it may pass the bill with amendments and return it
244. Which one of the following is authorized to to the first House for reconsideration;
prorogue the session of the house of the people? (c) it may reject the bill altogether; and
(a) Speaker (d) it may not take any action and thus keep the bill
(b) Attorney General pending.
(c) Minister of Parliamentary affairs Assent of the President -
(d) President Every bill after being passed by both Houses of
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 Parliament either singly or at a joint sitting, is presented
Ans. (d) According to Article 85(2) of the Constitution, to the president for his assent. If the president gives his
President may prorogue either House of Parliament. assent to the bill, the bill becomes an Act.
245. In the each House of Parliament an ordinary 246. At which of the following stages general
Bill has to go through the following stages discussion on a Bill takes place in the Lok
(a) First reading, Second reading, committee Sabha?
stage, Report stage, third reading (a) During introduction of the Bill
(b) First reading, Committee stage, Report stage, (b) During second reading
second reading (c) During report stage
(c) First reading, Second reading, Third reading (d) During third reading
(d) None of the above UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2006
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
Ans. (c) : The Bill other than Finance Bill goes through
five stages before becoming Act and these stages are as 247. Which of the following statements is correct
follows :- regarding readings of a Bill in the Parliament?
First Reading :- (1) First Reading-No Discussion of the Bill takes
The first step includes the introduction of the Bill in place at this stage
Parliament, which is accomplished by a Minister or (2) Second Reading-House may refer the Bill to a
another member of the Parliament. He/she asks for joint committee consisting of the members
leave before introducing the Bill. They read the title and from both the Houses
objective of the Bill, thereafter, it is published in the (3) Third Reading-House may circulate the Bill
Gazettee of India. to gather public opinion
No discussion is held at this stage, and if the bill is (4) Third Reading-The Bill will be transmitted to
published in the Indian Gazette before the introduction the presiding officer who authenticates the
then the minister or M.P. does not have to seek leave Bill.
from the perspective house. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Second Reading :- (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
During this stage, the bill receives not only the general Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
but also the detailed scrutiny and assumes its final Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
shape. question.
Hence, it forms the most important stage in the 248. Which of the following is NOT correctly
enactment of a bill. In fact, this stage involves three matched?
more sub-stages, namely, stage of general discussion,
States Allocation of seats in
committee stage and consideration stage.
the House of People
Third Reading :-
(a) West Bengal - 42
At this stage, the debate is confined to the acceptance or
rejection of the bill as a whole and no amendments are (b) Tamil Nadu - 39
allowed, as the general principles underlying the bill (c) Bihar - 42
have already been scrutinished during the stage of (d) Gujarat - 26
second reading. If the majority of members present and UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
voting accept the bill, the bill is regarded as passed by Ans. (c): Bihar has 40 Lok Sabha seats. Rest are
the House. Thereafter, the bill is authenticated by the correctly matched.
presiding officer of the House and transmitted to the 249. How many members of Uttarakhand are
second House for consideration and approval. represented in the Lok Sabha?
Bill in the Second House - (a) 03 (b) 05
In the second House also, the bill passes through all the (c) 08 (d) 11
three stages, that is, first reading, second reading and UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
138
Ans. (b): There are five Lok Sabha constituencies in 255. What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of
Uttarakhand namely Almora, Garhwal, Nainital, Lok Sabha?
Haridwar and Tehri Garhwal. (a) One sixth of the total members of the House
250.Which one of the following is NOT correctly (b) One tenth of the total members of the House
matched? (c) One fourth of the total members of the House
Lok Sabha Election Year (d) One third of the total members of the House
(a) 13th – 1999
J & K PSC Pre-2018
(b) 11th – 1996
(c) 9th – 1989 UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(d) 7th – 1982 Ans. (b) According to Article 100 of the Constitution, the
UPPCS Pre 2022 quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of
Ans. (d) Lok Sabha Election Year Parliament is one-tenth (1/10) of the total number of
13th 1999 members of the House. If at any time during a meeting of
11th 1996 a House, there is no quorum, it shall be duty of the
9th 1989 Chairman or person acting as such, either to adjourn the
7th 1980 House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.
251. The deposit is forfeited for any candidate 256. Which one of the following statements is/are
contesting the election for Lok Sabha if he does not correct?
not get-
(a) 1/3rd of valid votes 1. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to
(b) 1/4th of the valid votes set out the grounds on which it is based.
(c) 1/5th of the valid votes 2. In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok
(d) None of the above Sabha procedures of admissibility have been
BPSC (Pre.) G.S, 1995 laid down in Rule 198 of Lok Sabha.
Ans. (d) As per the Election Commission of India rules, 3. A motion of no-confidence once admitted has
if the candidate fails to get a minimum of one-sixth to be taken up within ten days of the leave
(1/6) of the total valid votes polled, the deposit goes to being granted
the treasury i.e. forfeited. 4. In Italy, the government requires the support
252. The term of Lok Sabha of both houses of Parliament.
(a) Cannot be extended at any circumstances
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
(b) Can be extended by six months at a time
(c) Can be extended by one year at a time during (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
the proclamation of emergency Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
(d) Can be extended for two years at a time Ans. (a) : The Constitution of India does not mention
during the proclamation of emergency either a confidence motion or a no-confidence motion.
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002 It can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. If the
Ans. (c) According to Article 83(2), Lok Sabha, unless Government has to demonstrate its strength on the floor
sooner dissolved, shall continue for five years from the of the House, it can have a motion of confidence.
date appointed for its first meeting while a proclamation
of emergency is in operation, be extended by Parliament However, the opposition parties or any member can
by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and move a motion expressing want of confidence (no
not extending in any case beyond a period of six months confidence) in the Lok Sabha.
after the proclamation has ceased to operate. The procedure is laid down under Rule 198 of the rules
253. The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha Members of procedure and conduct of business of the Lok Sabha.
is: A no-confidence motion need not set out any grounds
(a) Five years from the date of declaration of on which it is based. Even when grounds are mentioned
election result in the notice and read out in the House, they do not
(b) Five years from the date of taking oath form part of the no-confidence motion. The member has
(c) Five years from the date of its first meeting to give a written notice of the motion before 10 am
(d) Five years as notified by the Speaker in the
House which will be read out by the Speaker in the House.
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above and accordingly, the Speaker will announce the date for
question. discussion for the motion. The allotted date has to be
254. Under the Constitution of India, the term of 5 within 10 days from the day the motion is accepted,
years of the Lok Sabha can be extended once otherwise the motion fails and the member who moved
during National Emergency of the motion will be informed about it.
(a) Six months only (b) One year only Acharya Kripalani moved the first no confidence
(c) Two years only (d) None of the above motion against Jawaharlal Nehru in August, 1963. In
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II Italy, the Government requires the support of both
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above houses of Parliament. Hence only statement 1 is not
question. correct.
139
257. Name the Prime Minister when for the first 262.Which of the following is/are the exclusive
time the No-Confidence was moved in the power(s) of Lok Sabha?
Parliament? 1 To ratify the declaration of Emergency
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru 1 To pass a motion of no-confidence against the
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri Council of Ministers.
(c) Indira Gandhi 1 To impeach the President of India
(d) Morarji Desai Select the correct answer using the code given
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 below:
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
question. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
258. Consider the following statements regarding a UPSC IAS 2022
No-Confidence Motion in India: Ans. (b) : The Proclamation of Emergency must be
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one
Motion in the Constitution of India. month from the date of its issue. If approved by both
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for
six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period
introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
with an approval of the Parliament for every six
Which of the statements given above is / are
months. As per Article 61, when a President is to be
correct?
impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014 majority of two-thirds of the total membership in each
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above house. Thus, it is not an exclusive power of the Lok
question. Sabha.
259. Who was the prime Minister when for the first However Article 75 (3) provides that the Council of
time No-Confidence motion was moved in the Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House
Indian Parliament? of the People. So, only LokSabha can pass a no-
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Indira Gandhi confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.
(c) Morarji Desai (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri Hence it is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014 263. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party
question. in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
260. Which one of the following statements is NOT 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the
Opposition” was recognised for the first time
correct?
in 1969.
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no - confidence motion has to
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a
set out the grounds on which it is based
minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be
(b) In the case of a no - confidence motion in Lok
recognised as the Leader of Opposition.
Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have
Which of the statements given above is/are
been laid down in the Rules
correct?
(c) A motion of no - confidence once admitted, (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
has to be taken up within ten days of the leave
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
being granted
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a
Ans. (b) For the first Lok Sabha (1952-57), elections
motion of no - confidence
were held for 489 seats. Indian National Congress won
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2004
364 seats followed by Communist Party of India with 16
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above seats and the Socialist Party with 12 seats. Hence
question. statement 1 is incorrect. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of
261. How many members can table the “No the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
Confidence Motion” against the Council of Dr. Ram Subhag Singh was the first leader of opposition
Ministers in the Lok Sabha? in Lok Sabha from 17 Dec 1969 to 27 Dec 1970. Hence
(a) 30 members (b) 40 members statement 2 is correct. According to Parliament rules, the
(c) 50 members (d) 60 members biggest Opposition party in the House has to have at least
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013 10 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or 55
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above seats, to be eligible for the post of Leader of Opposition.
question. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

140
264. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the (c) Any citizen of India whose name appears in
amount of Security deposited for general the electoral roll of a constituency.
category candidates and SC/ST category (d) Any citizen of India.
candidates respectively is IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(a) Rs 5,000 and Rs 2,500 Ans. (c) For contesting an election as a candidate, a
(b) Rs 10,000 and Rs 2,500 person must be registered as a voter in the voter list.
(c) Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000 Section 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951
(d) Rs 15,000 and Rs 7,500 prohibits a person from contesting unless he is an
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002 elector in any Parliamentary constituency.
Ans. (c) When the question was asked, security deposit 267. Consider the following statements:
for general candidates in case of Lok Sabha election was 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
Rs 10,000 and for scheduled caste and scheduled tribes Assembly, the winning candidate must get at
was Rs 5,000. At present, according to Representation of least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be
the People Act, 1951, for Lok Sabha election, security declared elected.
deposit for general candidates is Rs 25,000 and for 2. According to the provisions laid down in the
Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
scheduled caste and scheduled tribes candidates, security
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and
deposit is Rs 12,500. For Assembly elections, security the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
deposit for general candidates is Rs 10,000 and for Which of the statements given above is/are
scheduled caste and scheduled tribes candidates, security correct?
deposit is Rs 5,000. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
265.Which of the following is/are the exclusive (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
power(s) of Lok Sabha? IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency Ans. (d) In the election of Lok Sabha or State
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Assembly, majority of votes is sufficient to get elected
Council of Ministers. even if it is less than 50% of the total votes polled.
3. To impeach the President of India Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Speaker and Deputy
Select the correct answer using the code given Speaker of the Lok Sabha are elected by the members of
below: the Lok Sabha. This is a convention (not Constitutional
provision) that usually Speaker’s post goes to the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s post to the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Opposition. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
IAS (Pre), G.S 2022 268. Which one of the following is not correct with
Ans. (b) : The Proclamation of Emergency must be regard to the elections to the Lok Sabha?
approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one (a) The elections are on the basis of adult suffrage
month from the date of its issue. If approved by both (b) The Election Commission is required to
the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for conduct the elections.
six months and can be extended to an indefinite period (c) The electoral rolls are prepared under the
with an approval of the Parliament for every six direction and control of the President of India.
months. Hence to ratify the declaration of emergency is (d) On the request of the Election Commission,
not an exclusive power of Lok Sabha. the President is required to make available to
According to Article 75 (3) of the Constitution, Council the Election Commission such staff as may be
of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the necessary for the discharge of its functions.
House of the People (Lok Sabha). So, only Lok Sabha UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011
can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of
Ans. (c) The electoral rolls are prepared under the
Ministers. Hence it is an exclusive power of the Lok
direction and control of the Election Commission of
Sabha. As per Article 61of the Constitution, when a
India. Rest all are correct.
President is to be impeached for violation of the
Constitution, the charges can be initiated by either 269. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha as stipulated
House of Parliament. The impeachment resolution in the Constitution of India is—
needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the (a) 547 (b) 545
total membership in each house. Thus, it is not an (c) 552 (d) None of these
exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. MPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2008
266. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination Ans: (c) Maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552
paper can be filed by members. 530 members to represent the States, 20
(a) Anyone residing in India. members to represent the Union Territories and 2
members to be nominated by the President from the
(b) A resident of the constituency from which the
Anglo-Indian Community. For 17th Lok Sabha, total
election is to be contested.
strength of the members of Lok Sabha is 545.
141
Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats (c) Jain Community
in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were (d) Sikh Community
discontinued by the the 104
th
Constitutional J & K PSC Pre-2018
Amendment Act, 2019. Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
270. What can be the maximum representation 275. Which are among the following carries out
from the Union Territories to the Lok Sabha? demarcation of electoral constituencies in each
(a) 15 (b) 20 state and allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to
(c) 25 (d) None of the above different states?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 (a) Election Commission
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S.IInd 2008 (b) Register General
(c) Delimitation Commission
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) State Reorganization Commission
question. (e) None of the above
271. How many seats are reserved for schedule caste GOA PSCS, 2022
in the Lok Sabha? Ans. (c): Delimitation Commission in India carries out
(a) 59 (b) 69 demarcation of electoral constituency in each state and
(c) 79 (d) 84 allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to different states.
MPPCS (Pre) 2018 276. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched?
Ans. (d) Allocation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Article of the Indian Related State
Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha are made on the Constitution
basis of proportion of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled (a) 371A Nagaland
Tribes in the State concerned to that of the total (b) 371B Assam
population as per the provision contained in Article 330 (c) 371C Meghalaya
of the Constitution. For Scheduled Castes, 84 seats are (d) 371D Andhra Pradesh
reserved in Lok Sabha and for Scheduled Tribes, 47 MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
seats are reserved in Lok Sabha. Ans. (c)
Article 371 Special provisions for Maharashtra
272. In order to get elected for Lok Sabha, and Gujarat
minimum age required is? Article 371A Special provisions for Nagaland
(a) 18 years (b) 21 years Article 371B Special provisions for Assam
(c) 25 years (d) None of the above Article 371C Special provisions for Manipur
BPSC (Pre.) G.S. 2002 Article 371D Special provisions for Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c) Article 84 (b) of Constitution provides that the and Telangana
minimum age for becoming a candidate for Lok Sabha Article 371F Special provisions for Sikkim
election shall be 25 years. Similar provision exists for a Article 371G Special provisions for Mizoram
candidate to the Legislative Assemblies. Article 371H Special provisions for Arunachal
273. How many members may be nominated by the Pradesh
President from Anglo-Indian Community, if he 277. Which Article of the Constitution of India is
is of opinion that the community is not related to the Special provision with respect to
adequately represented in the House of the the State of Nagaland?
People? (a) Article 371 (b) Article 371 A
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) Article 371 B (d) Article 371 C
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
(c) 1 (d) 2
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2014 question.
Ans. (d) According to Article 331 of the Constitution, 278. Match the following Articles with the
the President may, if he is of opinion that the Anglo corresponding State:
Indian community is not adequately represented in the A. Article 371 A P. Assam
Lok Sabha, nominate not more than 2 members of that B. Article 371B Q. Nagaland
community to the Lok Sabha. C. Article 371C R. Manipur
Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats D. Article 371F S. Mizoram
in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were E. Article 371G T. Sikkim
th
discontinued by the 104 Constitutional Amendment (a) AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET
(b) AP, BT, CQ, DS, ER
Act, 2019.
(c) AQ, BP, CR, DT, ER
274. The President has the power to nominate two (d) AR, BQ, CP, DT, ES
members to Parliament belonging to APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
(a) Christian Community Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Anglo-Indian Community question.

142
 282. Which of the following committees contains
Parliamentary Committees representatives of both the Houses of the
6. Parliament?
Forums
(a) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and
279. Which of the following statements are correct Scheduled Tribes.
in respect of Public Accounts Committee? (b) Committee on Empowerment of Women.
(A) It comprises of 10 members of Lok Sabha (c) Committee on Privileges.
and 7 members of Rajya Sabha. (e) Estimates Committee.
(B) A member of the opposition acts as its (a) (a), (b) and (d) (b) Only (b) and (c)
Chairman. (c) (c), (d) and (e) (d) Only (a) and (b)
(C) It examines the accounts of the MH PSC (Pre) 2022
Government corporations, autonomous Ans. (a) : Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Caste
and semiautonomous bodies. and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members, 20
(D) The Committee has the power to hear elected from Lok Sabha and 10 elected from Rajya
officials or take evidence connected with Sabha.
accounts under examination. The Committee on Empowerment of women consists of
30 members of whome 20 are nominated by speaker
Select the appropriate answer by using the
from amongst the members of Lok Sabha and 10 are
codes given below
nominated by chairman of Rajya Sabha from amongst
Codes : the members of Rajya Sabha.
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) (b) (A), (B), (C) only Business Adivsory Committee and Committee on
(c) (A), (C) only (d) (B), (C), (D) only Privileges both are not joint committee. It is present in
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 both House of Parliament.
Ans. (d) : The Public Accounts Committee has 22 Estimates Committee consists of 30 members all from
members, 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha only.
Statement (1) is not correct.
Generally member of the opposition acts as its 7. Council of Ministers
chairman. So, statement (2) is correct.
It examines the accounts of the Government 283. In the union government the Council of
corporations, autonomous accounts under examination. Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
Statement (3) is correct. (a) President of India (b) Rajya Sabha
The committee has the power to hear officials or take (c) Parliament (d) Lok Sabha
evidence connected with accounts under examination. Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
Statement (4) is correct. Ans. (d) : In the Union Government the Council of
280. Public Accounts committee has the following Minister is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
members, (Give the correct answer)- 284. Which of the following statement is correct
(a) (Lok Sabha)-15, (Rajya Sabha)-07, (Total)-22 about the Prime Minister of India?
(b) (Lok Sabha)-10, (Rajya Sabha)-05, (Total)-15 (a) Prime Minister is the nominal head of the
(c) (Lok Sabha)-11, (Rajya Sabha)-05, (Total)-16 Council of Ministers
(d) (Lok Sabha)-17, (Rajya Sabha)-10 (Total)-27 (b) He is not responsible to the Parliament
UPPSC (J) 2023 (c) He cannot dismiss any of his ministers
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of above (d) Prime Minister is the real head of the Council
question. of Ministers
281. Which of the following parliamentary Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022
committees consist of only of members of Lok Ans. (d) : Prime Minister is the real head of the Council
Sabha? of Ministers.
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee 285. The Council of Minister in a State in
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings collectively responsible to
(d) None of these (a) The Chief Minister
Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022 (b) The Governor
Ans. (b) : The Estimates Committee is a Comittee of (c) The Legislative Assembly
Lok Sabha. It consists of 30 members, all from Lok (d) More than one of the above
Sabha who shall be elected by the House every year (e) None of the above
from amongst its members. 68th BPSC 2022
143
Ans. (c): According to the Article 164(2) of the Indian (c) All sections of India are to be represented in
Constitution, the Council of Minister the State is the Councils of Ministers
collectively responsible to Legislative Assembly of the (d) If both the President and the Vice President
State. demit office simultaneously before the end of
Similarly Union Council of Minister is responsible to the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the
the Lok Sabha. Parliament will officiate as the President
286. Consider the following statement: J & K PSC Pre 2022
1. The Constitution of India classifies the Ans.(b): The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses
ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, the majority in the lower house is not explicitly stated in
Minister of State with Independent Charge, constitution of India but followed as a convention.
Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 289. Out of the following statements, choose the one
2. The total number of ministers in the Union that brings out the principle underlying the
Government, including the Prime Minister, shall Cabinet form of Government :
not exceed 15 percent of the total number of (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism
members in the Lok Sabha. against the Government whose
Which of the statements given above is/are responsibilities are complex and hard to carry
correct? out to the satisfaction of all.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Government whose responsibilities are
UPSC IAS 2022 increasing day by day.
Ans. (b): There is no classification in the Constitution (c) A mechanism of Parliamentary democracy
of India for the Council of Ministers. Article 74 for ensuring collective responsibility of the
provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with Government to the people.
the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the
President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act head of the Government whose hold over the
in accordance with such advice. Hence 1st statement is people is in a state of decline.
incorrect. IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
According to the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, Ans. (c) In order to ensure the collective responsibility of
2003, that amended article 75, the total number of Government towards people, principle of Cabinet form of
ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the cabinet Government has been laid down in Parliamentary form of
of ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength democracy. According to Article 75 (3) of the
of the Lok Sabha. Hence 2nd statement is correct. Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively
287. Consider the following statements: responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
1. The word ‘cabinet’ was not a part of the 290. The Prime Minister of India is responsible
original constitution, it was added in 1978 by towards
th (a) President (b) Lok Sabha
the 44 constitutional amendment act.
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Parliament
2. ‘Ministers’ as a member of the council of
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
ministers, but does not include deputy
ministers. Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
The correct statement/s is/are:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 291. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 his/her appointment
J & K PSC Pre 2022 (a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of
th the Houses of the Parliament but must
Ans.(a): The 44 constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
become a member of one of the Houses
added the term ‘cabinet’ without defining the same
within six months
under Article 352 (3).
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of
The council of ministers consists of Cabinet ministers,
the Houses of the Parliament but must
ministers of state and deputy ministers.
become a member of the Lok Sabha within
288. What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution six months
of India but followed as a convention? (c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Parliament
the Lower House
(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012
the majority in the Lower House
144
Ans. (a) According to Article 75(5) of the Constitution, Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her question.
appointment need not necessarily be a member of one 295. The right to reshuffle the council of Ministers
of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a rest with
member of one of the Houses within six months. (a) The President (b) The Cabinet
292. Given below are two statements, one is labeled (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Speaker
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in India is Ans. (c): The right to reshuffle the council of Ministers
collectively responsible to both Lok Sabha and rest with the Prime Minister.
Rajya Sabha. 296. Which of the following is considered as the
Reason (R): Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya chief policy making organ of the Government?
Sabha are eligible to become a minister in Union (a) Ministry of Parliamentary affairs
Government. (b) Ministry of Law
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Cabinet
below. (d) Prime Minister's Office
Codes: Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct Ans. (c) : Union Cabinet is considered as the policy
explanation of (A) making organ of the government. The Cabinet
formulates the policies, which are to be submitted to the
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
Parliament for approval. Once these policies are
correct explanation of (A)
approved by the Parliament, then Union Cabinet
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false implements those policies across the nation.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
297. Which one of the following is not explicitly in
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 the Constitution of India but followed as
Ans. (d): According to Article 75(3) of the convention?
Constitution, The Council of Ministers shall be (a) The Finance Minister is to be member of the
collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Lower House
Sabha). Members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (b) Prime Minister has to resign if he loses
are eligible to become a minister in Union Government. majority in the Lower House
So (A) is false and (R) correct. (c) All parts of India are to be represented in the
293. Consider the following statements in the Council of Ministers
context of Indian Constitution: (d) In the event of both President and Vice
1. The Union Council of Ministers shall be President demitting office simultaneously,
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha prior to their tenure the Speaker of the Lower
2. Union Minister shall hold office during the House of the Parliament will officiate as
pleasure of the Prime Minister President
Of these: IAS (Pre) G.S.,1995
(a) Only 1 is correct Ans. (b) The Constitution does not mention either a
(b) Both 1 and 2 are correct confidence motion or a no-confidence motion. Article
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct 75 does specify that the Council of Ministers shall be
(d) Only 2 is correct collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok
UP RO/ARO (Pre) 2016 Sabha). This implies that the majority of Lok Sabha
Ans. (a) According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution, MPs must not be against the Prime Minister and his
the Council of Ministers shall be collectively Cabinet. No-confidence motion could only be
responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). introduced in Lok Sabha.
Hence statement 1 is correct. Article 75(2) asserts that 298. Consider the following statements
the Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is
President. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. vested in the Prime Minister.
294. As per the Constitution, a Union Minister shall 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio
hold office during pleasure of the Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
(a) Prime Minister Which of the statements given above is / are
(b) President of Ruling party correct?
(c) President (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Leader of the House (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015
145
Ans. (d) According to Article 53(1) of the Constitution, Ans. (b) According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution,
the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the the Council of Ministers shall be collectively
President and shall be exercised by him either directly responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) not
or through officers subordinates him in accordance with the Parliament hence statement 1 is incorrect.
the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Article 75(2) of the Constitution asserts that the
Cabinet Secretary is the Ex officio Chairman of the Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the
Civil Services Board. Hence statement 2 is also President. Hence statement 2 is correct.
incorrect. According to Article 78 of the Constitution, it shall be
the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all
299. According to the Constitution of India, the
decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the
'Executive Power of the Union' shall be vested administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals
in the- for legislation to the President. Hence statement 3 is
1. President also correct.
2. Prime Minister 302. With reference to Union Government, consider
Select the correct answer from the code given the following statements:
below the lists- 1. The Constitution of India provides that all
Code- Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the
sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 not 2 the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary
UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021 Affairs.
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Which of the statements given above is/ are
question. correct?
300. Consider the following statements and select (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the correct answer from the code given below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2009
1. The executive power of the Union vests in the
Prime Minister. Ans. (d) It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to
select the members of his cabinet and on the advice of the
2. The Prime Minister is appointed by the Prime Minister; the President appoints the Council of
President. Ministers. Article 75(5) asserts that the minister has to
3. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council become a member of either House of the Parliament
of Ministers. within six months after being sworn-in as the minister.
4. The Prime Minister, at the time of his Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
appointment, need not be a member of either The Union Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under
House of Parliament the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the
Codes: Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-
(a) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct. officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Hence
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. statement 2 is also incorrect.
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct. 303. A person can remain a member of the Council
(d) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct. of Ministers without being a member of the
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2004 Parliament for
Ans. (c) The executive power of the Union vests with (a) Three years (b) Two years
the President of India. Rest all the given options are (c) One years (d) Six months
correct. TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017
301. Consider the following statements: Manipur PCS - 2013
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1993, 1995
be collectively responsible to the Parliament. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office BPSC (Pre) 1994
during the pleasure of the President of India. Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the question.
President about the proposals for Legislation. 304. Assertion (A) The Council of Ministers in the
Which of the Statements given above is/are Union of India is collectively responsible both to
correct? the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Reason(R) The Member of both the Lok Sabha
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 Ministers of the Union Government.
146
 Code: 1. It came into existence in 1977
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is 2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary
the correct explanation of A. Select the correct answer from the codes given
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is below:
not the correct explanation of A. Codes:
(c) A is True but R is false (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) Only 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2007
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Ans. (d) According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution,
the Council of Ministers shall be collectively Ans: (c) Second Prime Minister of India, Lal Bahadur
responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Shastri created “Prime Minister Secretariat”. In June,
Hence assertion (A) is false. Members of both Lok 1977, then Prime Minister of India, Morarji Desai
Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers changed its name from “Prime Minister Secretariat” to
of the Union Government. Hence reason (R) is true. “Prime Minister Office” (PMO). Prime Minister’s Office
305. The Council of Ministers is collectively (PMO) is an extra-Constitutional body that has not been
responsible: mentioned in the Indian Constitution. It was given the
1. To the House of the People status of a department under the Government of India
2. Under a Constitutional obligation Allocation of Business Rule, 1961. Prime Minister Office
3. As per Article 75 (3) is headed by the Secretary to the Prime Minister,
4. As per Article 74 (3) designated as Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister.
Which of the above statements are correct? 309. The Prime Minister's Secretariat was renamed
(a) 1, and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only to the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) during
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 the Prime Ministership of _____
UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd Paper 2012 (a) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (b) According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution, (b) Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri
the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
(c) Shri Morarji Desai
shall be collectively responsible to the House of the
People (Lok Sabha). Whereas, Article 74 is related with (d) Smt. Indira Gandhi
the Council of Ministers to aid and advice President. Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
306. The Prime Minister of India is responsible to Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
whom? question.
(a) The Cabinet (b) The President 310. Which of the following is/are the function/
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) The Rajya Sabha functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
(e) None of the above 1.Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 2.Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 3.Allocation of financial resources to the
question. Ministries
307. Which one of the following is not a correct Select the correct answer using the code given
situation of the status of a Central Council of
below:
Ministers at the time of their resignation?
(a) President's rule will be imposed. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) The President will ask to continue till (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
alternative arrangement. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014
(c) Alternative arrangement means earliest Ans. (c) The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct
possible general election to be held to form a charge of the Prime Minister. The administrative head of
new Government. the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary, who is also the
(d) Outgoing Council of Ministers may have to ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The
hold charge till the formation of new
functions of Cabinet Secretariat are assistance to Cabinet,
Government.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010 support to Cabinet Committees and promotion of inter-
ministerial coordination. Allocation of financial resources
Ans. (a) When Union Council of Ministers resigns; the
President will ask to continue till alternative to the Ministries is being done by Ministry of Finance.
arrangement has been made, which means earliest 311. Department of Border Management is a
possible general election to be held to form a new Department of which one of the following
Government. Further, outgoing Council of Ministers Union Ministries?
may have to hold charge till the formation of new (a) Ministry of Defence
Government. President rule can be proclaimed under (b) Ministry Of Home Affairs
Article 356 in case of failure of Constitutional
Machinery in state. (c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and
Highways
308. With reference to Prime Minister’s Office
(PMO) which one of the statements is/are (d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
correct? IAS (Pre) G.S., 2008
147
Ans. (b) Department of Border Management works (c) Salary and allowances of the Prime Minister
under Union Ministry of Home Affairs which of India.
exclusively secure the borders and create infrastructure (d) Salary and allowances of the Chairman of the
in the border areas of country such as Indo-Pakistan, Union Public Service Commission.
Indo-Bangladesh, Indo- China, Indo-Nepal and Indo- UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011
Bhutan borders. Activities include construction of Ans. (c) Salary and allowances of the Prime Minister of
fence, floodlighting, roads, Border Out Posts (BOP) and
India is not charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Company Operating Bases etc.
316. Which one of the following terms does not
312. The Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
appear in the Constitution of India?
(a) Was created under the original Constitution.
(a) Annual Financial Statement
(b) Is an extra-Constitutional growth.
(b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Was created by 44th Amendment.
(c) Budget
(d) Was created by the 85th Amendment.
(d) Consolidated Fund of India
UPPCS (Mains) G.S.IInd Paper 2009
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011
Ans. (b) The Office of the Deputy Prime Minister of
India is not a Constitutional Office. The first Deputy Ans. (c) Under Article 112 of the Constitution, ‘Annual
Prime Minister of India was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Financial Statement’ has been mentioned which is
who was also Home Minister in Jawaharlal Nehru's usually called as budget. Appropriation Bill is
cabinet. The office has since been only intermittently mentioned in Article 114 and Consolidated Fund of
occupied. The seventh and last Deputy Prime Minister India has been mentioned in Article 266.
till date was L. K. Advani, who took on the role in 317. Which one of the following statements about
addition to Minister of Home Affairs from 2002 to 2004 the President of India is not correct?
in Atal Bihari Vajpayee's Government. (a) He is a constituent part of Parliament.
313. Which of the following statements is correct (b) He participates in the discussions in the two
about Prime Minister of India? Houses.
(a) Prime Minister is the nominal head of the (c) He addresses the two Houses at a joint
Council of Ministers meeting every year
(b) He is not responsible to the Parliament. (d) He can promulgate ordinances in certain
(c) He cannot dismiss any of his ministers. situations.
(d) Prime Minister is the real head of the Council UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010
of Ministers. Ans. (b) According to Article 85 of the Constitution,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013 President summons each house of Parliament from time
Ans. (d) Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that to time but he does not participate in the discussions in
there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime the two Houses.
Minister as its head to aid and advice the President, who 318. Consider the following statements:
shall exercise his/her functions in accordance to the 1. The President shall make rules for the more
advice. The real executive power is thus vested in the convenient transaction of the business of the
Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head. Government of India, and for the allocation
314. In India, which one among the following among Ministers of the said business.
formulates the fiscal policy? 2. All executive actions of the Government of
India shall be expressed to be taken in the
(a) Planning Commission
name of the Prime Minister.
(b) Finance Commission
Which of the statements given above is / are
(c) Ministry of Finance
correct?
(d) Reserve Bank of India (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Fiscal policy is the means by which a IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014
Government adjusts its spending levels and tax rates to Ans. (a) According to Article 77(3) of the Constitution,
monitor and influence nation’s economy. In India, fiscal the President shall make rules for the more convenient
policy is formulated by Ministry of Finance. transaction of the business of the Government of India
315. Which one of the following expenditure is not and for the allocation among Ministers of the said
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? business. Hence statement (1) is correct. Article 77(1)
(a) Salary and allowances of the Chief Justice of of the Constitution asserts that all executive action of
India the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken
(b) Salary and allowances of the Comptroller in the name of the President. Therefore, statement (2) is
and Auditor-General of India incorrect.
148
 creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in
Procedure of Parliamentary the States.
8. Which of the statement/statements given above
Proceedings
is/are correct?
319. In connection with the lapsing of Bills, which of (a) II and IV
the following statement/statements is/are valid? (b) I, III and IV
I. If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if (c) I and III
the Bill has still not been discussed in the Rajya (d) Only III
Sabha, then such a Bill does not lapse. APPSC (Pre) 2023
II. A Bill returned by the President for Ans. (d) : A private member of the House of the
reconsideration of the House will not lapse. parliament can introduce the Bill for amendment of the
However, the Lok Sabha should not have been Constitution with same procedure as of government bill.
dissolved by the time the Bill is returned. Hence, statement-I is incorrect.
III. A Bill that is passed by both the House but Article 368 of the Constitution of India provides for two
pending for president's assent will not lapse. types of amendment-special majority of 2/3rd members
IV. A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha present and voting and special majority with ratification
but which has not been passed by the Lok of half of the States by a simple majority.
Sabha will also lapse. Hence, statement-II is also incorrect.
Select the correct answer using the codes given For amendment that require ratification of half the
below: States by a simple majority, there is no boundation on
(a) Only III states to take action on bill which requires ratification of
(b) I, III and IV half of states. Hence, statement-III is correct.
(c) II and IV States can only pass resolution for creating legislative
(d) None council and its abolition. Hence, statement-IV is
APPSC (Pre) 2023 incorrect.
Ans. (a) : If Lok Sabha get dissolves then following 321. Which of the following statement is correct
conditions arise regarding the bill- regarding parliamentary privileges?
If the Lok Sabha has passed the Bill, but if the Bill has (a) Parliamentary privileges are the privileges
still not been discussed in the Rajya Sabha, then such a that are enjoyed collectively by each House of
bill lapses. the Parliament, and not by the Members
A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration of individually.
the House will not lapse if Lok Sabha have been (b) Only Member can be punished for contempt
dissolved . by reprimand and admonition but not
A Bill that is passed by both the House but pending for outsiders.
president's assent will not lapse. (c) The phrase 'Breach of privilege' has wider
A Bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha but which has implication than the 'Contempt of the House.
not been passed by the Lok Sabha will not lapse. (d) The Member cannot be arrested during the
Hence, only statement-III is correct. session of Parliament but this privilege is
320. With reference to the procedure for available only in civil cases and not in
Amendment of the Constitution, Consider the criminal cases or preventive detention cases
following statements: APPSC (Pre) 2023
I. A private member of the House of the Ans. (d) : Parliamentary privileges are the privileges
parliament can introduce the Bill for that are enjoyed collectively by each House of the
amendment of the Constitution only after the Parliament, and also by the Members individually.
prior permission of the President. If any individual or authority violates or disregards any
II. Article 368 of the Constitution of India of the privileges, powers and immunities of the House
provides for three types of amendment-simple or members of committees thereof, he may be punished
majority, special majority and ratification of for "breach of privilege" or "contempt of the House".
half of the States by a simple majority. The House has the power to determine as to what
III. For amendment that require ratification of constitutes breach of privilege and contempt. The penal
half the States by a simple majority, it is not jurisdiction of the House in this regard covers its
necessary that all the State Legislatures must
members as well as strangers and every act of violation
take action on the Bill.
of privileges, whether committed in the immediate
IV. The State Legislature can pass a resolution
presence of the House or outside of it.
requesting the Parliament to amend Article 368
A house is authorised to sentence any member or
in the same manner, as it could be done for the
committee associated with the House of punishment for
149
misconduct, disorderly behaviour, a proven breach of House will have to be referred to the law
privilege, or contempt of the House. department for consultation.
Certain types of punishment which are given upon II. A Public Bill is Always introduced in the
Parliament by the Minister or a member of the
breach of privilege are -
government party.
• Imprisonment III. A Private Bill will not reflect the policy of
• Suspension the government but upon its approval by the
• Expulsion, and House, a Private Bill wound have reflected the
• Reprimand policy of the government.
IV. Public Bill and Private Bills, regardless of
The Member cannot be arrested during the session of the differences between them, are governed by
Parliament but this privilege is available only in civil the same general procedure and are required
cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention to be passed through the same stages in the
cases. Hence, only statement-IV is correct. House.
322. In the context of the enactment of Budget, Select the correct using codes given below:
which of the following statement/statements (a) II and III (b) I, III and IV
(c) Only I (d) Only IV
is/are valid?
APPSC (Pre) 2023
I. The Appropriation Bill carries an automatic Ans. (d) : Public Bill and Private Bills, regardless of the
repeal clause. differences between them, are governed by the same
II. The provision 'Vote on Account' has become general procedure and are required to be passed through
ineffectual after the re-scheduling of the budget the same stages in the House.
cycle from the last day of February to the first There is no provision that private bill should be referred
day of February. to law department.
III. Amendments to either reject or reduce a Public bill is always introduced by a minister not
tax can not be moved in case of the Finance member of parliament.
A private bill may or may not reflect policy of
Bill.
government.
IV. The expenditure charged on the
324. Which of the following statement/statements
Consolidated Fund of India can only be is/are valid regarding the office of the 'Whip'?
discussed. I. Although not mentioned in the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given of India, the office of the 'Whip' has however
below: been incorporated in the Chief Whips of
(a) I and IV Recognised Parties and Groups in parliament
(b) I and III (Facilities) Ac, 1998'.
(c) Only II II. The role of the Chief Whip of the
government party in the Lok Sabha is served
(d) Only IV by the Minister of State for Parliamentary
APPSC (Pre) 2023 Affairs.
Ans. (a) : The appropriation bill gives power to the III. All political parties - whether ruling or
government to withdraw funds from consolidated fund opposition, will have own Whips in the
of India for fulfilling the expenditure during the Parliament.
IV. The Chief Whip is not responsible to the
financial year. The unique feature of an appropriation leader of the House but is responsible only to
bill is its automatic repeal clause whereby the Act gets the leader of the party that has appointed
repealed by itself after it meets statutory purpose. him/her to the office of Chief Whip.
During an outgoing government, an interim budget is Select the correct answer using the codes given
presented or a vote on account is sought. The next below:
government will be responsible presenting whole (a) I and IV (b) Only III
(c) II and III (d) II and IV
budget. Thus the provision of vote on Account is still APPSC (Pre) 2023
effective even after rescheduling of budget cycle. Ans. (b) : A whip is a written order that political party
The amendment to reject or reduce tax can be moved in issue to its members for being present for an important
case of finance bill. vote, or that they vote only in a particular way. The
The expenditure charged on consolidated Fund of India office of 'whip' is mentioned neither in the constitution
can only be discussed and can not be voted. of India nor in the Rules of House nor in a
parliamentary statue. It is based on the conventions of
323. In the context of distinctions existing between a the parliamentary government. Thus statement-I is
Public Bill Private Bill, select the incorrect.
statement/statements that is/are valid: All political parties whether ruling or opposition will
I. A Private Bill which has been introduced by have their own whips. The role of chief of whip of the
a Member of Parliament sitting in the government in Lok Sabha is served by Union Finance
opposition and which has been approved by the Minister (not minister of state).
Thus only statement III is correct.
150
325. Which of the following statements are correct Which of the statements given above is/are
about the difference between censure and no- correct?
confidence motion? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(i) A censure motion should state the reason (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
for its adoption. On the other hand, a no- UPSC IAS 2022
confidence motion need not state the reason for Ans. (b): A nominated member of a House shall be
its adoption. disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins
(ii) A no-confidence motions can be moved any political party after the expiry of six months from
the date on which he takes his seat after complying with
only against the Council of Ministers. In the requirements of article 99 or, as the case may be.
contrast, a censure motion can be moved Hence 1st statement is incorrect. The law does not
against the Council of Ministers or an specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide
individual Minister, or a group of Ministers. on a disqualification plea under the Tenth Schedule.
(iii) The government must resign if a no- Hence 2nd statement is correct.
confidence motion is passed. On the other 327. Consider the following statements regarding
hand, the government need not resign if a 'Zero Hour' of Lok Sabha :
censure motion is passed. A. The time immediately following the question
hour and laying of papers and before any listed
(iv) A censure motion can be moved in both the business is taken up in the house has come to be
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no- known as the zero hour.
confidence motion can be moved only in the B. For raising matters during the zero hour
Lok Sabha. members has to give notice between 8.00 a.m.
to 9.30 a. m everyday to the Speaker.
Select the correct answer using the codes given C. At present, thirty matters per day as per their
below. priority are allowed to be raised during zero
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) only hour.
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only D. There is no maximum limit on the number of
matters that can be raised on any given day as
(c) (i) and (ii) only there is no provision in rules about Zero Hour.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only Which of the statements given above are
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023 correct?
Ans. (d) : Censure and No-confidence motions are two (a) A and B (b) A, B and D
(c) B, C and D (d) A and D
devices of parliamentary proceedings which are used in
MH PSC (Pre) 2023
parliament and state legislature.
Ans. (d) : • The time immediately following the
A censure motion should state the reason for its
Question Hour and laying of papers and before any
adoption. On the other hand, a no-confidence motion listed business is taken up on the House has come to be
need not state the reason for its adoption. popularly known as the 'Zero Hour'. Thus, statement (1)
A no-confidence motions can be moved only against the is correct.
Council of Ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can • For raising matters during the 'Zero Hour' in Lok
be moved against the Council of Ministers or an Sabha, Members has to give notice before 10 a.m.
individual Minister, or a group of Ministers. every day to the speaker. Thus, statement (2) is not
If a no-confidence motion is passed in the Lok Sabha correct.
the entire ministry including the Prime Minister must • At present, twenty matters per day as per their
priority in the ballot are allowed to be raised during
resign from office. 'zero hour'. Thus, statement (3) is not correct.
A censure motion can be passed both in the Lok Sabha • There is no maximum limit on the number of matters
and the Rajya Sabha whereas a no-confidence motion that can be raised on any given day as there is no
can be moved only in Lok Sabha. A government must provision in rules about Zero Hour. Thus, statement
resign if a no-confidence motion is passed but no (4) is correct.
resignation is required in case of censure motion. 328. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill
Hence, All the statements are the correct. in the Indian Parliament, consider the
326. With reference to anti-defection law in India, following statements :
consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or
cannot join any political party within six months reject the Bill.
of being appointed to the House. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or
which the presiding officer has to decide a reject the Bill, it can only make
defection case. recommendations.
151
 3. In the case of disagreement between the Ans. (a) : A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is by reason only that it provides for the imposition of
no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for licences or fees
sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. for services rendered or by reason that it provides for
How many of the above statements are correct? the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023 local purposes. Thus, all above statement is correct.
Ans. (a) : Finance bill is an example of money bill. It is
331. Which of the following expenditures is charged
passed during the budget for enacting tax proposals.
The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the finance bill on the Consolidated Fund of India?
but only can recommend changes which the Lok Sabha (A) Administrative expenses of the Supreme
can accept or not. Hence statement-1 is incorrect when Court.
money bill is passed by the Lok-Sabha. It is transmitted (B) Administrative expenses of the
to the Rajya Sabha for it's consideration. The Rajya Comptroller and Auditor General.
Sabha has restricted powers with regard to money bill. (C) Grants-in-aid for States in need of
It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can only make
recommendations. Hence statement-2 is correct. assistance.
Because of finance bill is a money bill and there is no (D) Money required for making loans to the
provision for holding joint sitting for a money bill. States.
Hence statement-3 is also incorrect. Select the appropriate choice by using the
[Finance bill and Financial bill both are different.] codes given below :
329. With reference to the joint sitting of Parliament, (a) (A), (B) only
which statement/s is/are correct? (b) (A), (B), (C) only
(1) Article 109 provides for the joint sitting of (c) (B), (C), (D) only
both Houses in certain cases.
(2) The Speaker presides the joint sitting of (d) (A), (B), (C), (D)
the two Houses of Parliament. Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
Select the correct answer using the code given Ans. (d) : Administrative expenses of the Supreme
below– Court, Administrative expenses of the Comptroller and
Code : Auditor General, Grants-in-aid for States in need of
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both 1 and 2 assistance, Money required for making loans to the
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1 States are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 Thus, all the above statments are correct.
Ans. (d) : Article 108 provides for the joint sitting of 332. Parliament authorizes a lumpsum grant to the
both Houses in certain cases. executive to cover the expenditure for a short
Joint sitting is presided over by the speaker of the Lok period before passing of the Appropriation Act
Sabha, or in their absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the by means of which of the following
Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of instruments?
the Rajya Sabha. (a) Votes of credit
330. Which of the following bills is considered (b) Exceptional grant
neither a money bill nor a financial bill, if it (c) Supplementary grants
deals only with matters? (d) Vote on account
(A) The bill relating to imposition of fines or
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
other pecuniary penalties
(B) If it relates to the demand of payment of Ans. (d) : Parliament authorizes a lumpsum grant to the
fees for licenses or fees for service rendered executive to cover the expenditure for a short period
(C) If it relates to imposition, abolition, before passing of the Appropiation Act by means of an
remission, alteration or regulation of any instrument called as Vote on Account.
tax by any local authority or body for local 333. Traditionally 'Zero Hour' in the Parliament of
purposes India begins at-
(D) All municipal taxations (a) At 10:00 A.M. (b) At 11:00 A.M.
Select the correct answer by using the codes· (c) At 12:00 Noon (d) At 9:00 A.M.
given below : UPPSC (J) 2023
Codes :
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) (b) (B), (C) only Ans. (c) : Zero hour was introduced in the Indian
(c) (B), (C), (D) only (d) (A), (B), (D) only Parliamentary affairs in 1962, it takes place at about 12
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 noon.

152
334. As per Article 110 of the Constitution what is Ans. (b) The Parliamentary controls are defined in the
true about money bill? Constitution. The operation of controls is ensured
(1) All the expenditure made by Prime Minister of through committees established by Parliamentary rules.
India These committees are Public Accounts Committee
(2) Imposition, abolition, rescission, alteration or (PAC), Committee on Public Undertaking (CoPU),
regulation of any tax Estimates Committee (EC), Committee on Subordinate
(3) Appropriation of money out of consolidated Legislation and Departmentally Related Standing
fund of India Committees (DRSC).
(4) Custody of the consolidated fond or 337. Which of the following committees contains
contingency fund of India, the payment of representatives of both the Houses of the
money into or the withdrawal of money from Parliament?
any such fund (A) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes
Choose the correct answer from the options and Scheduled Tribes
given below: (B) Committee on Empowerment of Women
(a) (2), (3), (4) (b) (2) and (4) (C) Business Advisory Committee
(c) (1), (2), (3) (d) (3), (4), (1) (D) Committee on Privileges
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 (E) Estimates Committee
(a) (A), (B) and (D) (b) Only (B) and (C)
Ans. (a) : Article 110 of the Constitution defines money
(c) (C), (D) and (E) (d) Only (A) and (B)
bill which includes Imposition, abolition, rescission,
alteration or regulation of any tax, Appropriation of Maharashtra PSC 2022
money out of consolidated fund of India and Custody of Ans. (d) : The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled
the consolidated fund or contingency fund of India, the Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members
payment of money into or the withdrawal of money (20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha), the
from any such fund while All the expenditure made by Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women
Prime Minister of India are not covered under Article also consists of 30 members (20 from the Lok Sabha
110. Hence, option (a) is correct. and 10 from the Rajya Sabha). However Business
Advisory Committee and Committee on Previleges are
335. Which one of the following statement is not house specific committees which are created by the
correct regarding ‘‘No-Confidence Motion’’? respective houses by its own members.
(a) 27 Non-Confidence Motions, 9 Confidence Estimates Committee is a Committee of Lok Sabha
th
Motions have been moved till 15 August, consisting of members of Lok Sabha only.
2023. 338. With reference to the Parliament of India, which
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri faced the most No- of the following Parliamentary Committees
Confidence Motions per office year. scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the
(c) The member who wants to move No- powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-
confidence Motion shall give notice to the laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or
speaker of the Lok Sabha in writing. delegated by the Parliament are being properly
(d) No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in exercised by the Executive within the scope of
Lok Sabha. such delegation?
(e) Question not attempt. (a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
RPSC (Pre) 2023
(c) Rules Committee
Ans.(a): 28 No Confidence motions, 11 confidence (d) Business Advisory Committee
motions have been moved till 15th August, 2023. Indira IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
Gandhi faced the most no confidence motions, Lal Ans. (b) : The need for having a separate
Bahadur Shastri faced most per year of office and Parliamentary Committee for the subordinate
Narasimha Rao won with the narrowest margin. The legislation was felt for the first time by Dr. B.R.
member who wants to move no confidence motion shall Ambedkar, then Law Minister of India.
give notice to the Speaker of Lok Sabha in writing and • For the first time the Committee on Subordinate
no confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha. Legislation was constituted in December, 1953.
Thus, option (a) is correct. • The most effective control that Lok Sabha exercises
336. In what way does the Indian Parliament over subordinate legislation is through its scrutiny
exercise control over the administration? Committee namely “Committee on Subordinate
(a) Through Consultative committees of various Legislation”.
ministries • The functions of the Committee on Subordinate
(b) Through Parliamentary committee Legislation are to scrutinize and report to the House
(c) By making the administrators send periodic whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-
reports rules, bye-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs delegated by Parliament are being properly
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001 exercised within such delegation.
153
 • The Committee on Subordinate Legislation Ministry of Parliamentary affairs is entrusted with the
examine all Regulations, Rules, Sub-rules, Bye- responsibility of coordinating, planning and arranging
laws, etc. commonly known as ‘Orders’, whether Government business in both the Houses of Parliament.
laid on the Table of the House or not, framed in For this purpose, the ministry works under the overall
pursuance of the provisions of the Constitution or a direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
statute delegating power to a subordinate authority, Affairs. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
to make such Orders. nominates Members of Parliament on committees,
• The Committee shall consist of not more than councils, boards and commissions etc set up by the
fifteen members, who shall be nominated by the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha, provided that a Minister Government in various ministries. Therefore all the
shall not be nominated a member of the Committee. statements are correct.
• The term of office of the Committee is one year 341. Consider the following statements:
from the date of its appointment. Committee on 1. The Chairman of the Committee on public
Subordinate Legislation is constituted in the Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the
beginning of a new Lok Sabha and then Lok Sabha.
reconstituted annually. 2. The Committee on Public Accounts
339. Which of the following is a Parliamentary comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members
Committee relating to delegation of power to of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of
make rules and regulations to the Executive? industry and trade.
(a) Committee on Executive Legislation
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Committee on Administrative Legislation correct?
(d) Committee on Delegated (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled) IAS (Pre) G.S., 2007
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. question.
340. Consider the following statements: 342. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament?
associated with Committees on Public (a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Accounts and Public Undertakings, members
(b) The Prime Minister
of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely
from Lok Sabha. (c) The President
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works (d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
under the overall direction of Cabinet UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2014
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2006
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
nominates Members of Parliament on question.
Committees, Councils, Boards and
Commissions etc. set up by the Government 343. Tenure of the members of the estimate
of India in the various ministries. committee is-
Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) 2 years (b) 1 years
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 years (d) 4 years
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
GOA PSCS, 2022 Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 question.
Ans. (d) The Committee on Public Accounts is the
oldest Parliamentary committee and was first 344. Which one of the following is the largest
constituted in 1921. The committee consists of 22 Committee of the Parliament?
members, 15 members are elected from Lok Sabha and (a) The Committee on Public Accounts
7 members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with (b) The Committee on Estimates
it. The Speaker is empowered to appoint the Chairman (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
of the Committee from amongst its members. The (d) The Committee on Petitions.
Committee on Public Accounts is constituted by the
Parliament each year. IAS (Pre) G.S.,2014
Estimates Committee is the largest Parliamentary UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017
committee consisting of 30 members elected every year Ans. (b) The Committee on Estimates (30 members) is
by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members to the largest committee of the Parliament. All the 30
examine the Budget estimates of the Union members of this Committee are from Lok Sabha only.
Government. No minister shall be appointed as a The Rajya Sabha has no representation in Estimates
member of Estimates Committee. committee.
154
345. Which is the largest Committee of the Indian Ans. (b) The Public Accounts Committee consists of 22
Parliament? members, 15 members are elected from Lok Sabha and
(a) Public Accounts Committee 7 members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with
(b) Estimates Committee it. The Committee on Public Accounts scrutinizes the
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings Appropriation Accounts of the Government of India and
(d) Committee on Petitions the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 India.
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 350. The Public Accounts Committee of Indian
question. Parliament scrutinizes the-
346. Estimates Committee is constituted from the (a) Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
members of General
(a) Both the Houses (b) The Rajya Sabha
(b) Consolidated Fund of India
(c) The Lok Sabha (d) None of these
(c) Public Account of India
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010
(d) Contingency Fund of India
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. UPPSC (Pre) 2021
347. How many members are from the Lok Sabha Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
and the Rajya Sabha respectively in the question.
Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of 351. Which of the following must be approved by
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ? Public Accounts Committee before being
(a) 15, 15 (b) 15, 10 submitted to Parliament?
(c) 20, 10 (d) 10, 10 (a) Additional Grant
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 (b) Exceptional Grant
Ans. (c) : The Committee on the welfare of (c) Token Grant
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 (d) Excess Grant
members, 20 elected by Lok Sabha from amongst its UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
members in accordance with the system of proportional Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
representation by means of the single transferable vote
Ans. (d): Excess Grant must be approved by Public
and 10 elected by Rajya Sabha from amongst its
member. The Chairperson of the committee is appointed Accounts Committee before being submitted to
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst the Parliament.
members of the committee. A Minister is not eligible Excess Grant – The Public Accounts Committee
for election to the committee. The term of committee examines Excess Grant and gives recommendations to
does not exceed one year. the Parliament. Excess Grant is the grant in excess of
348. The members of Standing Committee of the approved grants for meeting the requisite expenses
Parliament are taken from the Lok Sabha and of the government. When actual expenditure incurred
Rajya Sabha in which ratio? exceeds the approved grants of the Parliament, the
(a) Two and one respectively. Ministry of Finance and Ministry of Railways presents a
(b) Three and one respectively. Demand for Excess Grant. The Comptroller and Auditor
(c) Four and one respectively. General of India bring such excesses to the notice of the
(d) In equal numbers from both the Houses Parliament.
Haryana PSC (Pre) G.S. 2014 Additional grant- This grant is provided when the
government requires funds for any new service in
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2013
addition to the services envisaged/contemplated in the
Ans. (a) The proportion of number of members of the financial statement of that year.
two Houses on Standing Committee is approximately in
Token Grant - This grant is issued when funds are
the ratio of 2 Members of Lok Sabha to 1 Member of
needed for a new service in addition to the one already
Rajya Sabha.
offered.
349. Consider the following statements: The
Exceptional Grant - It is provided for a specific
Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. Consist of not more than 25 Members of the purpose and does not form part of the current service of
Lok Sabha that financial year.
2. Scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of 352. Who amongst the following attends the
Government Meetings of the Public Accounts Committee of
3. The Public Accounts Committee examines the Parliament?
the report Comptroller and General of India
(a) Attorney General of India
Which of the statements given a above is / are
(b) Solicitor General of India
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(e) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2011
155
Ans. (c) The Committee on Public Accounts Ans. (a) : The Ministry of Parliamentary affairs
scrutinizes the Appropriation Accounts of the organizes the conference of whips of All India Political
Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller Parties, at the centre as well as in the states, for which a
and Auditor General of India. Comptroller and Auditor suitable venue and date are decided well in time. An
General of India (CAG) attend the meeting of the Public idea of providing a suitable forum for periodical
Accounts Committee of the Parliament. meetings and mutual exchange of views amongst the
Whips in Parliament as well as the State Legislatures
353. The report of Public Accounts Committee is
was conceived as early as in 1952. The Whip's
presented in the
conference usually makes a number of
(a) Lok Sabha (b) President’s office
recommendations for smooth and efficient working of
(c) Finance Ministry (d) Prime Minister’s office Parliament and the State Legislatures in the light of the
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2015 experience gained by the Whip's.
Himanchal PSC (Pre) 2011 357. With reference to anti-defection law in India,
Ans. (a) The report of Public Accounts Committee is consider the following statements:
presented in the Lok Sabha. 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator
354. Which two committees of the Parliament are cannot join any political party within six
described as ‘twin Sister’s’ committees? months of being appointed to the House.
(a) Public Accounts Committee and Estimates 2. The law does not provide any time-frame
Committee within which the presiding officer has to
(b) Public Accounts Committee and Committee decide a defection case.
on Public Undertakings Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Law Committee and Committee of Delegated correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Legislation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Committee on Privileges and Committee on
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2022
Petitions
Ans. (b): As per Section 2 subsection 3 of the Tenth
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 Schedule of the Constitution, a nominated member of a
Ans. (a) Public Accounts Committee and Estimate House shall be disqualified for being a member of the
Committee are called twin-sister committee as Public House if he joins any political party after the expiry of
Accounts Committee is concerned with the spending of six months from the date on which he takes his seat.
public funds while Estimate Committee examines the Hence 1st statement is incorrect.
Budget estimates of the Union Government. The Presiding Officers of the Legislature (Speaker,
355. Which of the following is not a financial Chairman) are the deciding authorities in defection
cases. The law does not provide a time-frame within
committee of the Parliament?
which the presiding officer has to decide a defection
(a) Public Accounts Committee case. Hence 2nd statement is correct.
(b) Estimates committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertaking
Legislative Process of
(d) Joint committee on offices of profit 9.
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 Parliament
Ans. (d) Joint Committee on Office of Profit is not 358. What will be effect of dissolution of the Lok
financial committee of the Parliament. This committee
Sabha on business pending in the House in the
examines the composition and character of committees and
following consignees?
other bodies appointed by Central, State and Union
Territory Governments and recommends whether person (a) A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
holding these offices should be disqualified from being (b) A bill passed by the Lok Sabha pending in
elected as Member of Parliament or not. Rest of the given the Rajya Sabha does not lapse
committees are financial committee of the Parliament. (c) A bill passed by both the Houses but
356. The All India Whips Conference is organized pending assent of the President lapses
by: (d) Dissolution of the House does not wipe out
(a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs contempt proceeding in the House
Select the appropriate answer by using the
(b) Chief Ministers of States
codes given below :
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) (A), (B), (C) only (b) (A), (B), (D) only
(d) Vice-President of India
(c) (A), (C) only (d) (A), (D) only
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
156
Ans. (d) : The effect of dissolution of the Lok Sabha on 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the
business pending in the House in the following Parliament.
consignees - 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing
Committees
• A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses. 3. Finance commission
• A bill passed by the Lok Sabha pending in the Rajya 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
Sabha lapse. Commission
• A bill passed by both the Houses but pending assent 5. NITI Aayog
of the President does not lapse. Select the correct answer using the code given
• Dissolution of the House does not wipe out contempt below.
proceeding in the House (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Thus, statements (a) & (d) are correct. (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2 and 5
359. Consider the following statement and find the IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019
incorrect answer: Ans: (a) In India, Parliamentary scrutiny of the
1. The constitution imposes limits to President to regulators can take place through the following means;
give assent to the bill passed by the state question hour, discussions in Parliament and
legislature Parliamentary committees.
2. The President may refer a reserved bill to the In India, there are 24 department related to Standing
Supreme Court, under Article 143 for Committees that comprise members from both Houses
discussion of Parliament. These committees are ministry specific
3. The power of the President assent to the bill and may review the working of regulators within their
passed by the State Legislature and Parliament respective departments. Parliament may establish ad-
are the same hoc committees which may examine the working of
4. The President cannot keep a bill of the regulators.
Parliament pending at his hands for an The two Parliamentary committees on finance, which
indefinite period of time exercise oversight of regulators are; the Committee on
(a) 1 and 4 only incorrect Estimates and the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
(b) 1 and 3 only incorrect The Committee on Estimates reviews budgetary
(c) 2 and 3 only incorrect estimates of Government departments. Such estimates
include the budget of regulators.
(d) 3 and 4 only incorrect
362. On which of the following, a Parliamentary
(e) Answer not known
Committee has not been set up?
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 (a) Public Undertakings
Ans. (b) : The constitution does not impose limits on (b) Government Assurances
President to give assent to the bill passed by the state (c) Estimates
legislature. Hence, statement (1) is incorrect. (d) Welfare of Minorities
The President may refer a reserved bill to the Supreme UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2012
Court, under Article 143 for discussion. Hence, Ans. (d) Committee on Public Undertakings examines the
statement (2) is correct. working of the public undertakings specified in the Fourth
The power of the President assent to the bill passed by Schedule. The Committee on Public Undertakings shall
the State Legislature and Parliament are not the same. consist of not more than 22 members comprising 15
Hence, statement (3) is incorrect. members who shall be elected by the Lok Sabha every
The President can keep a bill of the Parliament pending year from amongst its members according to the principle
at his hands for an indefinite period of time. Hence, of proportional representation by means of the single
transferable vote and not more than 7 members of Rajya
statement (4) is correct. Sabha to be nominated by that House for being associated
360. The Consultative Committee of members of with the Committee. A Minister shall not be elected a
Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by member of the Public Undertakings Committee and that if
the a member, after his election to the Committee is appointed
(a) President of India a Minister; he/she shall cease to be a member of the
(b) Ministry of Railways Committee from the date of such appointment. The term
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs of office of members of the on Public Undertakings
Committee shall not exceed one year.
(d) Ministry of Transport
Government Assurances Committee consist of 15
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 members nominated by Speaker.
Ans. (c) The Consultative Committee of Members of Estimates committee consist of 30 members, who are
Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the elected form Lok Sabha every year.
Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. For the welfare of the minorities, Government has set
361. In India, which of the following review the up a National Commission for Minorities under the
Independent regulators in sectors like National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Hence
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc? it is not a Parliamentary committee.

157
363. Which one of the following is not a Standing 366. Which of the following statements is/ are
Committee of Parliament? correct in respect of the Chairman of the Rajya
(a) Committee on Public Accounts Sabha?
(b) Estimate Committee (A) The Vice-president of India is ex officio
(c) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings. (B) He may be removed from his office by
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 majority of all the members of the House.
Ans.(*) In India, there are two types of Parliamentary (C) At least 15 days advance notice has to be
Committee namely Ad hoc Committee and Standing given for the intention to remove the
Committee. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a person.
specific purpose and they cease to exist when they (D) The Vice-president can preside over a
finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. sitting of the Rajya Sabha when resolution
Standing Committees are permanent committees. All for his removal is under consideration.
the committees given in the option are Standing Select the correct answer by using the codes
Committee of Parliament. given below :
364. Which of the following are the Financial (a) (A), (B), (C) only (b) (A), (B) only
Committees of Parliament in India? (c) (A), (C), (D) only (d) (A), (D) only
1. Public Account Committee Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
2. Estimates Committee
Ans. (d) :The Vice-President of India is ex-officio
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer from the code given
The Vice-President can be removed from office by a
below:
resolution of the Rajya Sabha, passed by a majority of
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 its members at that time and agreed to by the Lok
Sabha. A resolution for this purpose may be moved only
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007
after a notice of at least a minimum of 14 days has been
Ans. (d) Public Account Committee, Estimates
given at such as intention.
Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings are
financial committees of the Parliament of India. While the resolution is in effect for the removal of Vice-
President, he cannot preside over the house as
Chairman, although he can be part of the house.
Presiding Officer of
10. 367. Consider the following statements:
Parliament (a) A panel of Chairpersons is elected by the
Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
365. In case both the Speaker and the Deputy
Speaker are absent from the House, the (b) A member of the panel of Chairpersons can
Speaker's duties are to be performed by preside over the Lok Sabha when the office of
whom? the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant.
(A) By such person as determined by the rules (c) In absence of the Speaker, the Deputy
of procedure of the House Speaker and member of the panel of
(B) By the oldest available member of the Chairpersons, the Speaker's duties are to be
ruling party performed by the President.
(C) By such other person as nominated by the Which of the statements given above is/are
President to conduct the proceeding of the correct?
House (a) Only (a) (b) Only (b)
(D) By such other person as may be (c) (a) and (c) (d) None of the above
determined by the House MH PSC (Pre) 2022
Codes : Ans. (a) : A panel of Chairperson is elected by the Lok
(a) (A), (B) only (b) (B), (C) only Sabha from amongst its members. Statement (a) is
(c) (A), (C) only (d) (A), (D) only corret.
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 368.With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,
Ans. (d) : At the commencement of houses or from consider the following statements:
time to time as the case may be, the speaker shall 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
nominate from amongst the members a panel of not Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy
more than ten Chairpersons, any one of whom may to Speaker shall be held on such date as the
preside over the house in absence of the speaker and the Speaker may fix.
deputy speaker when so requested by the speaker or, in 2. There is a mandatory provision that election of a
absence of the speaker and the deputy speaker when so candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall
requested by the speaker or, in absence of the speaker, be from either the principal opposition party or
by the deputy speaker. the ruling party.
158
 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of Ans. (d) : As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of of Business in Lok Sabha, at the commencement of the
the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. House or from time to time, the speaker shall nominate
4. The well established parliamentary practice from amongst the members a panel of not more than 10
regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is chairpersons, any of whom may preside over the house
that the motion is moved by the Speaker and in the absence of the speaker and the deputy speaker.
Hence, statements (1) & (3) are incorrect.
duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Again in case of vacancy of the office of speaker and
Which of the statements given above are the deputy speaker the house would be presided over by
correct? such member of the house as appointed by the President
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 for the purpose. Hence, statement (2) is also incorrect.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only 370. Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha of
UPSC IAS 2022 the Indian Parliament?
Ans. (a): As per Rule 8 of Procedure and Conduct of (a) Hukum Singh (b) K.S. Hegde
Business in Lok Sabha, the election of a Deputy (c) M.A. Ayyangar (d) G.V. Mavalankar
Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every Ans. (d) : The first Lok Sabha was Constituted in 1952.
member notice of this date. There is no mandatory G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok
provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Sabha. As Speaker of Lok Sabha, he made several
innovations to the rules of the house. He was largely
Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal
responsible for the ‘Question Hour’ session being a
opposition party or the ruling party. It is only by
regular and significant aspect of the Parliament.
convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is
371. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker,
offered to the opposition party in India. In case of the
consider the following statements:
absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of
over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the the President.
business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at
same power as the Speaker when presiding over the the time of his/her election but has to become
sitting of the House. The Deputy Speaker is also elected a member of the House within six months
by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after from the date of his/her election.
the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her
provision and or established practice of moving the resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy
motion for his election by the speaker and it is Speaker.
seconded by the prime minister. Which of the statements given above is /are
correct?
369. Consider the following statements : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(A) A panel of Chairpersons is elected by the (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Lok Sabha from amongst its members. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012
(B) A member of the panel of Chairpersons Ans. (b) According to Article 93 of the Constitution,
can preside over the Lok Sabha when the the Lok Sabha shall choose two members of the House
office of the Speaker or the Deputy to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
Speaker is vacant. House. The Speaker may at any time resign from office
(C) In absence of the Speaker, the Deputy by writing under his hand to the Deputy Speaker. The
Speaker and member of the panel of Speaker can be removed from office only on a
Chairpersons, the Speaker's duties are to resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the
then members of the House. It is also mandatory to give
be performed by a member appointed by
a minimum of 14 days notice of the intention to move
the President.
the resolution. Hence only statement 3 is correct.
Which of the statements given above is/are
372. The Lok Sabha Speaker is:
correct?
(a) Elected by the Members of Parliament of the
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) majority party in the House
(c) (A) and (C) (d) None of the above (b) Elected by the Members of the Parliament of
Maharashtra PSC 2022 both the House

159
 (c) Appointed by the President in consultation send to every member notice of this date. There is no
with the Prime Minister mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as
(d) Elected by the House from among its own Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the
members principal opposition party or the ruling party. It is only
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above offered to the opposition party in India. In case of the
question. absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker presides
over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the
373. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed by
business in the house. The Deputy Speaker has the
(a) A resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a
same power as the Speaker when presiding over the
majority of the Members of the House.
sitting of the House. The Deputy Speaker is also elected
(b) Two third majority of the members of the
by the Lok Sabha from amongst its member’s right
House.
after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There
(c) Order of the President.
is no provision and or established practice of moving
(d) Simple majority of the Parliament. the motion for his election by the speaker and it is
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 seconded by the prime minister.
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 376. Which one of the following presides the joint
question. sitting of the Parliament?
374. To whom does the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (a) President
address to resign from the office? (b) Speaker of the Rajya Sabha
(a) The President (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Prime Minister (d) None of the above
(c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2014
(d) The Chief Justice of India Ans. (c) As per the Article 118(3) of the Constitution,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014 the joint sitting of the Parliament shall be presided by
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 377. The function of the Pro-Tem Speaker is to
question. (a) Conduct the proceeding of the House in the
375. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok absence of Speaker
Sabha, consider the following statements: (b) Swear in members
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of (c) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is
Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy unlikely to be elected
Speaker shall be held on such date as the (d) Only check if the election certificates of the
Speaker may fix. members are in order.
2. There is a mandatory provision that election of UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2010
a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c) When the Lok Sabha and Legislative
shall be from either the principal opposition
Assemblies have been elected but the vote for the
party or the ruling party.
Speaker and Deputy Speaker has not taken place, the
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of Pro-Tem Speaker is chosen for the conduct of the
the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of house. The appointment has to be approved by the
the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. President. Usually, the senior most member of the house
4. The well established Parliamentary practice is selected for the post. The main duty of the Pro-Tem
regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is Speaker is to administer the oath of office to new
that the motion is moved by the Speaker and members of the house. He also enables the House to
duly seconded by the Prime Minister. elect the new Speaker. Once the new Speaker is elected,
Which of the statements given above are the office of the pro tem speaker ceases to exist.
correct?
378. Who is generally appointed as a Protem
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
Speaker?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only (a) The speaker of the outgoing Lok Sabha
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2022 (b) The Dy.Speaker of the outgoing Lok Sabha
Ans. (a): According to Article 93 of the Constitution, (c) One of the senior most members of the newly
Lok Sabha shall, as soon as may be, choose two elected Lok Sabha
members of the House to be respectively Speaker and (d) The leader of the opposition party in the
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. As per Rule 8 of outgoing Lok Sabha
Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary-General shall question.
160
379. Pro-Tem Speaker has been appointed by- 384. Who nominates the chairman of the public
(a) President of India accounts Committee of the Indian Parliament?
(b) Vice-President of India (a) The Prime Minister
(c) Prime Minister of India (b) The Speaker of the House of People
(d) Chief Justice of India (c) Minister of Parliament Affairs
Uttarakhand RO/ARO (M) 2016 (d) Committee of Parliamentary Affairs
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
380. Which of the following doesn’t take oath of the
office? 385. Who among the following is NOT appointed by
the President of India?
(a) President (b) Vice- President
(a) A Special Officer for the Scheduled Castes
(c) Speaker (d) Prime Minister
and Tribes
(e) Members of the Council of Ministers
(b) Special Officer for the Linguistic Minorities
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (c) Among the given options, the Speaker does not (d) The Attorney General of India
take oath of the office of Speaker. He/She takes oath as UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
a member of the Parliament. Ans. (c) : Among the given options, Speaker of Lok
381. The speaker of the Lok Sabha makes use of his Sabha is not appointed by the President of India.
casting vote only? Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by member of the
(a) To save the existing government. Parliament by Simple Majority of member present and
(b) In Case of Constitutional Amendment. voting in the House.
(c) In case of emergency.
(d) In case of a tie when votes are equally 11. Miscellaneous
divided.
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd Paper 2008 386. Consider the following statements about the
Ans. (d) Speaker can cast his vote when the Cabinet secretariat.
Government and opposition get equal votes on a (1) The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly
particular. under the Vice-President of India.
(2) The administrative head of the secretariat is
382. Who appoints the chairman of Public Accounts
the Cabinet secretary who is also the ex-officio
Committee?
Chairman of the Civil services Board.
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
(b) Prime Minister
correct?
(c) President of India (a) (1) only
(d) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (b) (2) only
UP Lower (Mains) G.S., 2013 (c) Both (1) and (2)
Ans. (a) The Public Accounts Committee examines the (d) None of the above
expenditure of the public money by the Government. It CGPSC (Pre) 2023
examines the amount granted by the Parliament and the Ans. (b) : Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under
amount actually spent. It consists of 22 members, 15 the Prime Minister of India (not Vice-President). Thus
from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. A statement 1 is incorrect.
minister cannot be elected as a member of the Public The administrative head of the secretariat is the Cabinet
Accounts Committee. The chairman of the Public secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the
Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Civil services Board. Thus statement 2 is correct.
Lok Sabha from the opposition as a convention. 387. Consider the following pairs:
383. The reason for the Public Accounts Committee 1. Consolidated Fund of India : Payment from
of Parliament being headed by a member of the the fund can be made without Parliamentary
opposition party in the Lok Sabha is appropriation.
(a) Rules framed by the Government 2. Contingency Fund of India : Held by
(b) Convention Finance Secretary on behalf of the President of
(c) Rules of procedure of Parliament India.
(d) Presidential order 3. Public Account of India: Executive requires
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 Parliamentary approval to withdraw money
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above from this account.
question. How many of the above pairs are correct?

161
 (a) Only one pair (A) Dismissal from Government service for
(b) Only two pairs corruption
(c) All three pairs (B) Dismissal from Government service for
(d) None of the pairs disloyalty to the State
(e) Question not attempted (C) If such person is an undischarged insolvent
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023 (D) If such person holds an office of profit
Ans. (a) : The correct match is as follows :- under certain State Government
Consolidated fund of : The government needs Choose the correct answer using the codes
India Parliamentary approval given below
to withdraw money (a) (A), (C) only (b) (B), (C) only
from this fund. (c) (C), (D) only (d) (A), (B), (D) only
Contingency fund of : Held by Finance Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
India secretary on behalf of
President of India. Ans. (c) : Under Article 102(1) of the constitution a
Public Account of : Executive does not person is disqualified from being chosen as and from
India requires parliamentary being a member of the House of Parliament, if such
approval to withdrawn person is an undischarged insolvent and if such person
money from this holds an office of profit under certain State
account. Government.
388. Consider the following statements relating to Hence, option (c) is correct.
Parliamentary Privileges enjoyed by a member
390. Which of the following matters are required to
of the House. Which of the following statements
be passed by special majority votes instead of
are true?
(A Freedom of speech inside the Parliament simple majority votes?
House is absolute in nature. (A) Removal of the Speaker and the Deputy
(B) A member's freedom of speech is subject to Speaker of the House
provisions of the Constitution and to the (B) Removal of the Chief Election
rules and standing orders regulating the Commissioner and the other Election
procedure of the Parliament. Commissioners
(C) No member of the Parliament is liable to (C) Removal of the Chairman of the Rajya
any proceedings in any Court in respect of Sabha
anything said or any vote given in the (D) Removal of the Deputy Chairman of the
Parliament. Rajya Sabha
(D) A member who accepted bribe as a motive Select the correct answer by using the codes
or reward and voted in the Parliament can given below
claim immunity from criminal Codes :
proceedings. (a) (A), (B), (C), (D) (b) (A), (C), (D) only
Select the correct answer by using the codes (c) (C) only (d) (A), (B), (C) only
given below : Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023
Codes : Ans. (*) :
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) (b) (A), (C), (D) only Removal of the Speaker - Effective Majority
(c) (B), (C), (D) only (d) (B), (C) only and the Deputy Speaker
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 of the House
Ans. (c) : A member's freedom of speech is subject to Removal of the Chief - Special Majority
provisions of the constitution and to rules and standing Election Commissioner
orders regulating the procedure of parliament under
and the other Election
Article 105. It is not absolute in nature, however no
Commissioners
members of parliament is liable to any proceedings in
any court in respect of anything said or any vote given Removal of the - Effective Majority
in the parliament. Chairman of the Rajya
389. Under Article 102(1) of the Constitution, a Sabha
person is disqualified from being chosen as, Removal of the Deputy - Effective Majority
and from being a member of the House of Chairman of the Rajya
Parliament under which of the following Sabha
grounds?
162
391. Which of the following is correct in respect of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
anti-defection law? (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
(A) It was introduced by the Constitution UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020
(fifty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1985 Ans: (d) The process of removal of Judges of the
(B) It amended four articles of the Supreme Court and High Courts is mentioned in Article
Constitution such as Articles 101(3)(a), 124(4) of the Constitution, which asserts that the Judges
102(2), 190(3)(a) and 191 (2) of the Supreme Court and High Courts shall not be
(C) It added the Tenth Schedule to the removed from his office except by an order of the
Constitution President passed after an address by each House of
(D) A member of the House belonging to any Parliament supported by a majority of the total
political party shall be disqualified if he is
membership of that House and by a majority of not less
being expelled or suspended from such
than two third of the members of that House present and
political parties
voting has been presented to the President in the same
Select the correct answer by using the codes
session for such removal on the ground of proved
given below :
misbehaviour or incapacity.
Codes :
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) (b) (A), (C), (D) only According to Article 148 of the Constitution, there shall
(c) (B), (C), (D) only (d) (C), (D) only be a Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG),
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 who shall be appointed by the President and shall only
be removed from office in like manner and on the like
Ans. (c) : Anti-Defection Law was introduced by the
grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Article 317
Constitution (fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985.
(1) of the Constitution asserts that the Chairman or any
Hence, statement (1) is not correct. While other
statements are correct. Hence, option (c) is correct. other member of a Public Service Commission shall
only be removed from his office by order of the
392. Under the Indian Constitution, if any question
President on the ground of misbehavior. Hence
arises as· to whether a member of either House
Parliament does not play any role on the removal of
of the Parliament has become subject to any
disqualification under Article 102 ( 1), then the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
issue has to be decided by which of the 394. Which of the following is not the essential
following constitutional authorities? condition for a political party to be recognized
(A) The Speaker or the Chairman as a national party?
(B) The Election Commission of India (a) If a party gets six percent of the total valid
(C) The President of India votes polled in the election for Lok Sabha in
(D) The Supreme Court of India four or more States.
Select the correct answer by using the codes (b) If a party sends four elected members to the
given below : Lok Sabha.
(a) (A), (B), (D) only (b) (A), (B) only (c) If a party gets two percent of the total number
(c) (B), (C) only (d) (C) only of seats in Lok Sabha from not less than three
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 States.
Ans. (c) : Any question related to the decision on (d) If a party is recognized as a State Party in at
question as to disqualification of members shall be least two States.
referred to the President and his decision shall be final. Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2018
Before giving any decision on any such question, the Ans. (d) A political party shall be treated as a
President shall obtain the opinion of the Election recognized national political party if and only if the
Commission of India and shall act according to such political party fulfills any of the following conditions-
opinion. • The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha (11
393. In the removal of which of the following seats) from at least 3 different States.
officials does the Parliament NOT play any • At a General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative
role? Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in four
1. Judges of the High Court States and in addition it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats.
2. Judges of the Supreme Court • A party gets recognition as State Party in four or
3. Chairman of the Union Public Service more States.
Commission For recognition as a State political party-
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India • At General Elections or Legislative Assembly
Choose the correct answer from the codes elections, the party has won 3% of seats in the
given below: legislative assembly of the State (subject to a
Codes: minimum of 3 seats).
163
 • At a Lok Sabha General Elections, the party has 24. Officers of the rank of Liutenant General or
won 1 Lok sabha seat for every 25 Lok Sabha seat equivalent rank.
allotted for the State. 25. Additional Secretaries to the Government of
• At a General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative India, Director- Central Bureau of Investigation ,
Assembly, the party has polled minimum of 6% of Director General- Border Security Force, Director
votes in a State and in addition it has won 1 Lok General- Central Reserve Police, Director-
Sabha or 2 Legislative Assembly seats. Intelligence Bureau
• At a General Election to Lok Sabha or Legislative 26. Joint Secretaries to the Government of India
Assembly, the party has polled 8% of votes in a 396. Consider the following functionaries
State. 1. Cabinet Secretary
395. Which one of the following is the correct 2. Chief Election Commissioner
sequence in the descending order of precedence 3. Union Cabinet Ministers
in the warrant of precedence? 4. Chief Justice of India
(a) Attorney General of India - Judges of the Their correct sequence, in the Order of
Supreme Court - Members of Parliament- Precedence is
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court- Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
of India - Members of Parliament IAS (Pre) G.S., 2000
(c) Attorney General of India- Deputy Chairman Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the Supreme question.
Court - Members of Parliament 397. As per Indian Protocol, who among the
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court - Attorney following ranks is highest in the order of
General of India- Deputy Chairman of Rajya precedence?
Sabha - Members of Parliament (a) Deputy Prime Minister
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2004 (b) Former President
Ans. (d) Table of Precedence- (c) Governor of a State within his State
1. President (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Vice-President IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003
3. Prime Minister Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
4. Governors of States within their respective States question.
5. Former Presidents, Deputy Prime Minister
6. Chief Justice of India, Speaker of Lok Sabha 398. As per Indian protocol, who among the
7. Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Chief Ministers following ranks highest in a State in order of
of States within their respective States, Deputy precedence?
Chairman- Planning Commission, Former Prime (a) Deputy Prime Minister
Ministers, Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha (b) Former President
and Lok Sabha, Holders of Bharat Ratna (c) Governor of the State
decoration (d) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
8. Ambassadors, High Commissioners of Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
Commonwealth countries accredited to India, Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Chief Ministers of States outside their respective question.
States, Governors of States outside their 399. In the Indian Order of Precedence, who
respective States amongst the following comes first?
9. Judges of Supreme Court, Chairperson-Union (a) The Chairman of UPSC
Public Service Commission, Chief Election (b) The Chief Election Commissioner
Commissioner, Comptroller and Auditor General (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General
of India (d) The Chief Justice of High Court
10. Deputy Chairman Rajya Sabha, Deputy Chief
Ministers of States, Deputy Speaker- Lok Sabha, (e) None of the above/ More than one of the
Members of the Planning Commission, Ministers above
of State of the Union BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
11. Attorney General of India, Cabinet Secretary, Ans. (e) As per the sequence of precedence, Judges of
Lieutenant Governors within their respective Supreme Court, Chairperson-Union Public Service
Union Territories Commission, Chief Election Commissioner and
12. Chiefs of Army Staff holding the rank of full Comptroller and Auditor General of India have been
General or equivalent rank. provided same precedence.
14. Chairman and Speakers of State Legislatures 400. The status of the Chief Election Commissioner
of India is equal to the
within their respective States, Chief Justices of
(a) Chief Justice of India
High Courts within their respective jurisdictions
15. Cabinet Ministers in States within their respective (b) Governor of a State
States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories. (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
17. Judges of High Courts within their respective (d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly of State
UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd Paper, 2016
jurisdictions
21. Members of Parliament Ans. (*) As per the table of the precedence, office of the
23. Secretary to the President, Secretary to the Prime Chief Election Commissioner of India is equivalent to
Minister, Secretary- Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha, the Judges of Supreme Court and Comptroller and
Solicitor General Auditor. Hence none of the given options are correct.

164

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12.
State Executive and Legislature
1. Consider the following statements regarding (c) The Ordinance may be withdrawn by the
the special provisions to some of the States of Governor at any time.
India made by the Constitution: (d) It is not discretionary power of the Governor.
(i) Article 371C provides for the special Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
provisions for the State of Assam. Under this
Article, the President of India is empowered to Ans. (a) : As per Article 213 of the constitution, the
provide for the creation of committee of the Governor of a state can promulgate ordinance when
Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of legislature or both the Houses there of are not in
members elected from tribal Areas of the State session. These ordinances must be approved by the
and Such other members as he/she may specify. State legislature within six weeks from it's reassembly.
(ii) Article 371C was added by the 22ndd
Amendment Act of 1969. 1. Governor
(iii) Article 371D deals with special provisions
with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh 4. Which of the following statements is/are not
and Article 371E deals with the establishment true about the 'governor'?
of Central University in Andhra Pradesh. (a) He appoints the Advocate General of a State
(iv) 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
which was made in 1973, inserted Articles 371D (b) He appoints the Chancellor of Universities in
and 371E into the Constitution of India. the State
Select the incorrect statement/statements using (c) He appoints the Chief Minister
the codes given below. (d) He appoints the state Election Commissioner
(a) (i) only (e) Answer not known
(b) (iii) and (iv) only TNPSC (Pre) 2022
(c) (i) and (ii) only Ans. (b) : The Governor of any state himself acts as
(d) (i) and (iii) only Chancellor of Universities in the state and he appoints
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023 the Vice-Chancellors of the Universities in the state.
Ans. (b) : Article 317 C deals with special provisions Hence, option (b) is not correct, while rest options are
with respect to state of Manipur. It was added by the correct.
Twenty Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971. 5. The first lady to become Governor of a state in
Article 371D deals with special provisions with respect India is ______.
to the State of Andhra Pradesh and Article 371E deals
(a) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
with the establishment of Central University in Andhra
Pradesh. (b) Padmaja Naidu
32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which was made (c) Sarojini Naidu
in 1973, inserted Articles 371D and 371E into the (d) Sarla Grewal
Constitution of India. Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022
Hence, statements (iii) & (iv) are correct. Ans. (c) : Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to hold
2. Who was the founder of 'Republican Party of the office of governor of Independent India. She served
India'? as the governor of Uttar Pradesh from 15 August 1947
(a) Dr. Rammanohar Lohiya to 2 March 1949.
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose 6. Which of the following statements are true
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar about Governor of a State?
(d) Charu Majumdar (i) The executive power of the state is vested in
UPPSC (J) 2023 him
Ans. (c) : The Republican Party of India was founded (ii) He must have attained 35 years of age
by the Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. (iii) He holds office during the pleasure of the
3. Which of the following is not a correct option President
about the Governor's power to make (iv) The grounds of his removal are laid down in
Ordinance? the Constitution
(a) The Governor may promulgate Ordinance Select the correct answer using the codes
when Legislature or both the Houses thereof given below :
are in session. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Article 213 of the Constitution empowers the (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) all of the above
Governor to promulgate Ordinances. J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
165
Ans. (b) : According to Article 153 of the Constitution, 11. Which of the following appoints the Governor?
there shall be a Governor for each State. (a) Union Ministry
According to Article 154 of the Constitution, The (b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
executive power of the State shall be vested in the (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly (d) President of India
or through officers subordinates to him in accordance UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2012
with the Constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
correct. question.
According to Article 155 of the Constitution, the 12. Consider the following and select the correct
Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President. answer by using code given below:
According to Article 157 of the Constitution, a person 1. The Governor shall take oath or affirmation
to be eligible for appointment as Governor should be before entering upon his office
citizen of India and has completed the age of 35 years. 2. The format of oath or affirmation is given in
Hence statement 2 is also correct. the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
According to Article 156 (1) of the Constitution, the 3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the
Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the oath or affirmation in the presence of Chief
President. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct. Justice of the High Court or in his absence
The grounds of removal of Governor of a State are senior most Judge of the High Court
nowhere laid down in the Constitution, as he holds 4. The process of oath or affirmation is given in
office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, the Article 159 of the Indian Constitution
statement 4 is not correct. Code:
7. Who remains in office as long as the President (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
of India wishes? (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Governor UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2009
(b) Election Commissioner Ans. (d) Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor
(c) Judges of Supreme Court for each state. Before entering upon his office, the
(d) Speaker Lok Sabha Governor shall take oath or affirmation which is given
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 in Article 159. The format of oath and affirmation is
given in the third schedule of Indian Constitution.
Ans.. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
question. 13. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
8. The Constitution of India does not contain any
provision of the impeachment of - (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed
(a) The President as Governor for two or more States at the
(b) The Governor of a State same time
(c) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in
(d) The Vice-President of India India are appointed by the Governor of the
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court
Ans.. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above are appointed by the President
question. (c) No procedure has been laid down in the
9. Which of the following is not correctly Constitution of India for the removal of a
matched? Governor from his/her post
(a) Article 153 - Governors of States (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
(b) Article 154 - Executive power of States legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
(c) Article 155 - Removal of Governor appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of
(d) Article 156 - Term of office of Governor majority support
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (c) In India same person can be appointed as
question.
Governor for two or more states at the same time.
10. The Governor of the State is appointed under Hence, statement (a) is incorrect. The Judges of High
the Article of the Constitution
Court are appointed by the President. Hence, statement
(a) 153 (b) 154
(b) is also incorrect.
(c) 155 (d) 156
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015 The constitution does not lay down any grounds upon
which governor may be removed by the President.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Hence, statement (c) is correct.

166
In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative 17. Which of the following statements are correct?
setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the President (1) In general, the Governor of State appoints the
on the basis of Majority support. Hence, statement (a) is leader of the majority party in the State
incorrect. legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister
(2) When no party gets clear majority in
14. Indian constitution does not provide any
assembly, Governor may exercise his
procedure to remove the personal discretion in the selection and
(a) President (b) Vice President appointment of the Chief Minister
(c) Governor (d) Judge of Supreme Court (3) A member of legislative assembly of the State
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 is only eligible to become Chief Minister.
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of above (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
question. (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
15. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding judicial powers of the Ans. (c): It is the general practice that the Governor of
State appoints the leader of the majority party in the
Governor of state?
State legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. Hence
(a) He can grant reprieves, respites, remissions of statement 1 is correct.
punishment of any person convicted of any When no party gets a majority in the elections, governor
offence against law relating to a matter to exercises his own discretion and appoint a Chief
which the executive power of the state Minister accordingly but the appointed Chief Minister
extends. should prove the majority on the floor of the House
(b) He makes appointments, posting and within specific time. Therefore, statement 2 is also
promotions of the district judges in correct.
consultation with the state High Court. Any person is eligible to become the Chief Minister of a
(c) Both (a) and (b) State provided he/she shall be elected from any house of
State Legislature within 6 months of his/her
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
appointment as a Chief Minister. Hence, statement 3 is
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) not correct.
TNPSC (Pre) 2022
18. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (c): Article 161 of the Constitution is regarding 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted
power of the Governor to grant pardon and to suspend, against the Governor of a State in any court
remit or commute sentences in certain cases. According during his term of office.
to Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor of a 2. The emoluments and allowances of the
State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves,
Governor of a State shall not be diminished
respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend,
during his term of office. Which of the
remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted
of any offence against any law relating to a matter to statements given above is/are correct?
which the executive power of the State extends. Hence (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
statement 1 is correct. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
According to Article 233 of the Constitution, the IAS (Pre) G.S.2018
posting and promotion of District Judges in any State Ans. (c) Like the President of India, a Governor of a
shall be made by the Governor of the State in State is also entitled to a number of privileges and
consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction immunities. During his term of office, he is immune from
in relation to such State. Hence statement 2 is also
any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal
correct.
acts. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Governor is
16. The regulation with regard for peace and good
entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as
government in a Scheduled Area would be
issued by may be determined by Parliament. His emoluments and
(a) The President (b) The Parliament allowances cannot be diminished during his term of
(c) The State Assembly (d) The Governor office. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 19. Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans. (d): As per Fifth Schedule [Article 244(1)] of the (a) The same person cannot be appointed as
Constitution, Governor of each State (except Assam, Governor for two or more States at the same
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram) having schedule time.
areas therein, issue regulation from time to time (b) No procedure has been laid down in the
regarding peace and good governance in a schedule Constitution of India for the removal of a
area. Governor from his post.
167
 (c) The Governor should be a member of either According to Article 166 of the Constitution, the
House of the Parliament. Governor shall make rules for the more convenient
(d) The Governor appoints the Chancellors of the transaction of the business of the Government of the
Universities in the State. State, which in turn is not being done by the Governor
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 on his own discretion but on the advice of the State
Ans. (b) As per the Article 153 of the Constitution, the Government. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
same person can be appointed as Governor for two or 21. When a Bill is reserved by the Governor for the
more States at the same time. Hence statement 1 is
consideration of the President, within what
incorrect.
time he must return the Bill?
No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution for
the removal of a Governor from his/her post. Hence (a) Three months (b) Six months
statement 2 is correct. (c) One year (d) There is no time limit
According to Article 158 of the Constitution, the OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
Governor shall not be a member of either House of Ans. (d) : When a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the
Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State consideration of the President, the President may either
specified in the First Schedule and if a member of either give his assent to the Bill or withhold his assent to the
House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of Bill, provided that the Bill is not a Money Bill. The
any such State is appointed Governor, he shall be President may direct the Governor to return the Bill to
deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the the House or, as the case may be, the Houses of the
date on which he enters upon his office as Governor.
Legislature of the State together with such a message as
Therefore statement 3 is incorrect. Governor himself is
mentioned in the first provision to Article 200 and when
the Chancellor of the State Universities. Hence
statement 4 is also incorrect. a Bill is so returned, the House or Houses shall
reconsider it accordingly within a period of six months
20. Which of the following are the discretionary
powers given to the Governor of a State? from the date of receipt of such message and if it is
1. Sending a report to the President of India for again passed by the House or Houses with or without
imposing the President's rule amendment, it shall be presented again to the President
2. Appointing the Ministers for his consideration.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State It is not mentioned in the Constitution, whether it is
Legislature for consideration of the President obligatory on the part of the President to give his assent
of India to such a Bill or not.
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of 22. Under which Article of the Constitution, the
the State Government Governor can reserve the bill for the
Select the correct answer using the code given consideration of the President?
below. (a) Article 199 (b) Article 200
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Article 201 (d) Article 202
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of above
Ans. (b) According to Article 356 of the Constitution,
question.
the President on the report of the Governor of the State
may impose President’s rule in the State. This is 23. Which one of the following statements about
discretionary power of the Governor and he is not the Governor of Maharashtra is true?
bound to take advice from the Council of Ministers on (a) He can nominate one member to the Legislative
such matter. Hence statement 1 is correct. Council from the Anglo-Indian community.
In any State, appointment of minister is prerogative of (b) He can nominate at least two members to the
the Chief Minister. Governor of the State appoints the Legislative Assembly from the Anglo-Indian
ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. Therefore community
this is not the discretionary power of the Governor. (c) He has been given special responsibility
Hence statement 2 is incorrect. under Article 371 (2).
According to Article 200 of the Constitution, Governor (d) He cannot reserve the bill for the
may reserve certain Bills passed by the State Legislature consideration of President, dealing with
compulsory acquisition of property under
for consideration of the President of India which is
Article 31A of the Constitution
discretionary power of the Governor. Hence statement 3
is correct. Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019

168
Ans. (c) : According to Article 333 of the Constitution, (b) All State universities and central universities
the Governor of a State may, if he is of opinion that the in the State
Anglo Indian community needs representation in the (c) All State universities as well as private
Legislative Assembly of the State and is not adequately universities in the State
represented therein, nominate one member of that (d) All State universities, central universities in
community to the Assembly. Hence both statement 1 the State and all private universities in the
and 2 are incorrect. State
Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016
in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were Ans. (a) The Governor of the State is the Chancellor of
discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment the all State Universities and he appoints the Vice-
Bill of 2019, which was enacted as the 104th Chancellors of the State Universities.
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019. 27. According to which Article of Constitution of
According to Article 371(2) of the Constitution, India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the
Governor has been given special responsibility by the Governor of a State?
President for the establishment of separate development (a) Article 163 (b) Article 164
boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of (c) Article 165 (d) Article 166
Maharashtra, the equitable allocation of funds for Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S, 2016
developmental expenditure over the said areas, an Ans. (b) According to Article 164(1) of the
equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for Constitution, the Chief Minister shall be appointed by
technical education and vocational training and the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed
adequate opportunities for employment in service under by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
the control of the State Government, in respect of all the 28. The provision that Governor shall address the
said areas. Hence statement 3 is correct. Legislative Assembly of the State is in which
Under Article 31A (1) of the Constitution, Governor can Article of the Constitution of India?
reserve the bill for the consideration of President, dealing (a) 172 (b) 176
with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A (c) 182 (d) 183
of the Constitution. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. (e) 187
24. Whether Governor of a State has the power to Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st Paper, 2012
dissolve the State Legislature? Ans. (b) According to Article 176 of the Constitution,
(a) Yes at the commencement of the first session after each
(b) No general election to the Legislative Assembly and at the
(c) He/She can only recommend commencement of the first session of each year, the
(d) Only President Can Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly.
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 29. Which among the following Articles of the
Ans. (a) : According to Article 174(2)(b) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to
Constitution, Governor may dissolve the Legislative issue the ordinance?
Assembly. (a) Article 208 (b) Article 212
25. When the same person is appointed as a (c) Article 213 (d) Article 214
Governor of two or more States, the UPPCS (Mains) ,G.S. IInd Paper 2017
emoluments and allowances payable to the Ans. (c) Under Article 213 of the Constitution, when
Governor shall be the Legislature is not in session and if the Governor is
(a) As expressed wish of the Governor satisfied that circumstances exist which require him to
(b) As decided by the President take immediate action, he may legislate by Ordinance.
(c) As decided by the Home Ministry An Ordinance promulgated under Article 213 shall have
(d) It shall be allocated among the States in such the same force and effect as an Act of the Legislature of
proportion as the President may by order the State. The Ordinance expires after six weeks of the
determine reassembly of the Legislature unless it is approved by
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016 the Legislature. The Ordinance may be withdrawn at
any time by the Governor.
Ans. (d) According to Article 158(3A) of the
Constitution, when the same person is appointed as 30. The Governor of a State can promulgate
Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and ordinance during recess of Legislature under
allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated which of the following Articles of the Constitution?
among the States in such proportion as the President (a) Article 123 (b) Article 213
may by order determine. (c) Article 220 (d) Article 220
UPPSC RO/ARO (Mains) 2016
26. Choose the correct answer: Governor of the
Rajasthan is Chancellor of Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) All State universities question.

169
31. Ordinance issued by the Governor of the any 35. Which one of the following suggested that the
State should be necessarily approved by? Governor should be an eminent person from
(a) President
outside the State and should be a detached figure
(b) Legislature of the State
(c) Council of Ministers of the State without intense political links or should not have
(d) None of the above taken part in politics in the recent past?
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2008 (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (1966)
question.
32. Article 156 of the Constitution of India (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
provides that the Governor shall hold the office (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
for a term of five years from the date on which (d) National Commission to Review the Working
he enters upon his office. Which of the
of the Constitution (2000)
following can be deduced from this?
I. No Governor can be removed from the office IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019
till completion of his term Ans: (c) Government on June 9, 1983, constituted a
II. No Governor can continue in office beyond
Commission under the Chairmanship of Justice Ranjit
the period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given Singh Sarkaria with Shri B. Sivaraman and Dr. S.R. Sen
below: as its members to review the working of the existing
Codes: arrangements between the Union and the States in the
(a) I only (b) II only
changed socio-economic scenario. Chapter IV of the
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1995 Sarkaria Commission report (1988) illustrated the role
Ans. (d) According to Article 156 (1) of the of the Governor. Sarkaria Commission recommended-
Constitution, the Governor shall hold office during the • Governor should be an eminent person and not
pleasure of the President therefore he can be removed
from his post any time. Article 156 of the Constitution belong to the state where he is to be posted.
asserts that a Governor shall hold office for a term of • State Chief Minister should have a say in the
five years from the date on which he enters upon his appointment of Governor.
office and continue to hold office until his successor
enters upon his office. Hence both the statements are • Governor should be a detached figure without
incorrect. intense political links or should not have taken part
33. Which of the following statements regarding in politics in recent past.
Governor is not correct?
• Governor should not be a member of the ruling
(a) He is part of the State Legislature
(b) He can pardon death penalty party.
(c) He does not appoint the Judges of the State 36. Consider the following statements:
High Court
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the
(d) He does not hold emergency powers
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005 Administrator of Chandigarh
Ans. (b) According to Article 161 of the Constitution, 2 The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the
Governor has power to grant pardons, to suspend, Administrator of Lakshadweep
remit or commute sentences in certain cases but in
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
case of pardoning death penalty, power lies
exclusively with President of India under Article 72 of (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the Constitution. Rest of the options are correct (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
regarding Governor of a State.
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2009
34. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution,
governor has the power to pardon? Ans. (a) Ever since June 1984, the Governor of Punjab
(a) Article 171 (b) Article 161 has been functioning as the Administrator of Union
(c) Article 173 (d) Article 163 Territory of Chandigarh. Lakshadweep is uni-district
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Union Territory, administered by the President through
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. an administrator (Article 239).

170
 (a) Governor of the State
2. State Legislature (b) Minister of Law & Justice of the State
(c) Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative
37. Which of the following State Bill/Bills will have Assembly
to be mandatorily reserved for the President's (d) Chief Minister of the State
consideration? UPPSC (J) 2023
I. A Bill that proposes to give effect to certain Ans. (c) : When the Speaker has to vacate his seat in the
Directive Principles of State Policy. State Legislative Assembly, he will submit his
II. A Bill requiring prior Presidential sanction resignation in his own handwriting with signatures to
but which was however not obtained under Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly.
Article 304. 40. Which of the following statements is not one of
III. A Bill that attracts the provision of Article the power of the Speaker of the Legislative
288. Assembly?
IV. A Bill seeking to operate a provision that (a) He has no veto except in case of tie.
belongs to one of the Concurrent List entries (b) A Speaker may by removed from office by a
but which is however repugnant to any Union resolution of the Assembly passed by a
law. majority of all the then members of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given Assembly after fourteen days notice of the
below. intention to move such a resolution.
(a) I and IV (c) The Speaker vacates his office if he ceases to
(b) I, II and IV be a member of the Assembly.
(c) Only III (d) The Speaker will preside when a resolution
(d) I and III for his removal from office is under
APPSC (Pre) 2023 consideration of the Assembly.
Ans. (c) : Article 288 of the constitution provides for APPSC (Pre) 2023
exemption from taxation by states in respect of water or Ans. (d) : Speaker is a Presiding Officer of Legislative
electricity in certain cases. The article also mentions Assembly. Usually, the speaker remains in office during
that if bill attracts provisions of Article 288 it is the whole life of Assembly. However he vacates his
mandatory to reserve the bill for President's office earlier in following cases -
consideration. 1) If he ceases to be member of the Assembly.
38. With reference to the composition of the 2) If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and
Legislative Council in a state of India, which of 3) If he is removed by a resolution by majority of all the
the following statement/s is/are correct? then members of the assembly (an effective majority)
(1) In the Legislative Council there may not be such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14
more than one-third members of the total days advance notice.
membership of the Legislative Assembly of When a resolution for his removal from office is under
that state. consideration of the Assembly the speaker will not
(2) The Legislative Council of a state must preside the assembly.
have at least forty members in it. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
Select the correct answer using the code given 41. The Legislative Council can be created by the
below– Parliament of India with a
Code : (a) Simple Majority (b) Effective Majority
(d) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (c) Special Majority (d) Absolute Majority
(b) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022
Ans. (a) : According to Article 169 of Indian
UPPCS (Pre) 2023
Constitution the Parliament can create or abolish the
Ans. (a) : Composition of Legislative Council in State State Legislative Council with a simple majority if that
of India : In the legislative council there may not be State Legislature passes a resolution for that with a
more than one third members of the total membership special majority.
of the Legislative Assembly of that state & the
42. A State Legislative Council in India can be
legislative council of a state must have at least forty
created or abolished by
members in it. Hence both the statements are correct. (1) The Parliament by law in pursuance of the
39. In such situation, when the Speaker has to State Assembly resolution to that effect
vacate his seat in the State Legislative (2) The President on the recommendation of the
Assembly, he will submit his resignation his Governor of concerned State
own handwriting with signatures to whom (3) The Governor on the recommendation of the
among the following? Council of Ministers of concerned State
171
 Select the correct option/s Ans. (b): Article 169 of the Constitution does not
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only impose an obligation on the Union Government to take
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only action for initiating legislative in Parliament.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I 47. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India
question. can be larger in size than half of the
43. Which Article of the Indian Constitution Legislative Assembly of that particular State
empowers the Parliament of India to create or 2. The Governor of a State nominates the
abolish Legislative Councils, if the Legislative Chairman of Legislative Council of that
Assembly of the State passes a resolution to particular State.
that effect? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Article 168 (b) Article 167 correct?
(c) Article 166 (d) Article 169 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Maharashtra PSC 2022 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015
question. Ans. (d) According to Article 171 of the Constitution, the
44. The duration of State Legislative, Assembly be total number of members in the Legislative Council
extended by Parliament for a period of (Vidhan Parishad) of a State shall not exceed one third
(a) Six months (b) One year (1/3) of the total number of members in the Legislative
(c) Two years (d) None of these Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) of that State. Hence statement 1
Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022 is incorrect. According to Article 182 of the Constitution,
members of the Legislative Council choose Chairman of
Ans. (b) : The term of assembly can be extended during
the Council. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
the period of national emergency by a law of Parliament
for one year at a time (for any length of time). However, 48. What is correct about State Legislative
this extention can not continue beyond a period of six Council?
months after the emergency has ceased to operate. (i) Its tenure is 6 years
(ii) It is a permanent house
45. No Money Bill can be introduced in the
(iii) It cannot be dissolved
Legislative Assembly of a State, except on the
recommendations of (iv) 1/6 members are elected by local institutions
(a) The Parliament (v) 1/6 members are elected by Legislative Assembly
(b) The Governor of the State (vi) On every two years 1/3 members are retired
(c) The President of India (vii) Deputy Governor is Chairman of the house
(d) A special committee of ministers (viii) The tenure of its member is 6 years
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2012 (a) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
(b) (iii) (vi) (vi) (viii)
Ans. (b) No Money Bill can be introduced in the
(c) (ii) (iii) (vi) (viii)
Legislative Assembly of a State except on the
(d) (ii) (v) (vi) (viii)
recommendations of the Governor of the State.
(e) (i) (iii) (vi) (vii)
46. Which of the following statement about Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st G.S., 2014
resolution adopted by a State Legislative
Ans. (c) Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is the
Assembly under Article 169 of the Constitution
upper house in the State. Just like Rajya Sabha, it is a
of India for the abolition of the State
permanent house. It cannot be dissolved. The term of
Legislative Council is correct?
each member is 6 years and 1/3 members of the House
(a) It does impose an obligation on the Governor retire after every two years.
to reserve resolution for the consideration of Article 171 of the Constitution is regarding
the President. composition of the Legislative Councils which asserts
(b) It does not impose an obligation on the Union that the total number of members in the Legislative
Government to take action for initiating Council of a State shall not exceed one third (1/3) of the
legislative in Parliament. total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of
(c) It does not impose an obligation on the that State.
Governor to reserve resolution for the Manner of Election
consideration of the President. • One-third of the MLCs are elected by the state's
(d) It does impose and obligation on the Union MLA.
Government to take action for initiating • Another one-third by a special electorate
legislation in Parliament. comprising sitting members of local governments
RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021 such as Municipalities and district boards.
172
 th th (a) Joint sitting of both the Houses
• 1/12 by an electorate of teachers and another 1/12
by registered graduate. (b) Council may send the bill back to the
th
• The remaining (1/6) members are appointed by the Assembly for reconsideration
Governor for distinguished services in various fields (c) Bill may be sent to the Governor for
namely, Literature, Science, art Cooperative examination
movement and Social service. (d) The fate of the bill ends
49. The members of a State Legislative Council are APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
not chosen by which of the following categories Ans.(d): The fate of the bill ends if a bill passed by the
of persons? legislative council is disapproved by the legislative
(a) Members of the local bodies/Panchayats assembly then it becomes dead.
(b) Teachers
55. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) Graduates
regarding Legislative Council of the state?
(d) Industrialists
(1) The strength of the Legislative Council shall
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
not exceed one-third of the total strength of
67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled)
state Legislative Assembly.
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(2) The strength of Legislative Council shall not
50. How many members of the total number of be less than 40.
members of the Legislative Council are elected (3) The Chief Minister of a State acts as the
by the Legislative Assembly?
leader of the State Legislative Council also.
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/12
(4) One-sixth members of the state Legislative
(c) 1/4 (d) 1/3
Council are elected by the elected members of
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
the State Legislative Assembly.
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
51. How many members are nominated to the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
State Legislative Council by the Governor?
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
(a) One-third (b) One-sixth
(c) One-twelfth (d) One-eighth Ans. (d): According to Article 182 of the Constitution,
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 members of the Legislative Council choose Chairman
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. of the Council. Therefore, third statement is not correct.
Rest of the given statements are correct.
52. The number of nominated members in the
Legislative Council is 56. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a
(a) 1/3 of the total strength State in India, consider the following
(b) 1/4 of the total strength statements:
(c) 1/6 of the total strength 1. The Governor makes a customary address to
(d) None of the above Members of the House at the commencement
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017 of the first session of the year.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule
question. on a particular matter it follows the Lok
Sabha rule on that matter.
53. State Council can hold an ordinary Ordinance
Which of the statements given above is/are
up to which of the following time period?
correct?
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 6 months (d) 14 days
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Ans.(b): An ordinary or non-money bill can be
introduced in either house of the state legislature. It Ans.(a): Governor can address the state legislature at
should be passed by both the houses to become a law. If the commencement of the first session of each year
the bill is moved and passed in the Legislative Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Assembly in the first instance it goes to the Legislative Article 208 of the Constitution: A house of the
Council. The Legislative Council can hold the bill for a legislature of a state may make rules for regulating
maximum period of 4 months. subject to the provisions of this constitution, its
54. If a bill is introduced in the Legislative Council procedure and the conduct of its business. Thus it's not
of the State and sent to the Legislative mandated in the constitution for the State Legislature to
Assembly, which rejects the bill then what is follow/copy the rules of Lok Sabha.
the next course of action? Hence, statement 2 is wrong.

173
57. Consider the following statement: The Ans. (d) : Quorum is the minimum number of members
Constitution of India provides that required to be present in the House before it can transact
1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall any business. The quorum shall be ten member or one
consist of not more than 450 members chosen
tenth of the total number of members of legislative
by direct election from territorial
constituencies in the State assembly, whichever is greater.
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen 61. State Legislature takes parts in the election of
to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a which of the following?
State if he/she is less than 25 years of age I. President of India
Which of the statements given above is/are II. Vice- President of India
correct? III. Members of the Rajya Sabha
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
IV. Members of the State Legislative Council
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2008 Choose the correct answer-
Ans. (b) According to Article 170 of the Constitution, (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of (c) I and II (d) I, II and IV
not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen Uttarakhand PCS (Pre)1st Paper 2014
by direct election. Special provisions have been made Himachal PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
through amendments for some of the States like Sikkim, Ans. (b) State Legislature takes parts in the election of
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Goa. Hence statement
President of India, Members of the Rajya Sabha and
1 is incorrect.
A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in Members of the State Legislative Council, While in the
the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 election of Vice-President of India only members of
years of age and for the State Legislative Council, Parliament is participated. Hence, option (b) is correct.
minimum age is 30 years. Hence statement 2 is correct. 62. If in an election to a State Legislative
58. According to Article 170 of the Indian Assembly, the candidate who is declared
Constitution, the minimum and maximum elected loses his deposit, it means that
number of members of the Legislative (a) The polling was very poor
Assemblies of any State can be respectively-
(a) 40 and 400 (b) 50 and 540 (b) The election was for a multi-member
(c) 50 and 500 (d) 60 and 500 constituency
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014 (c) The elected candidate’s victory over his
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017 nearest rival was very marginal
(d) A very large number of candidates contested
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the election
question.
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 1995
59. What can be the minimum strength of Council
of Ministers including Chief Minister in the Ans. (d) As per the Election Commission of India rules,
States? if the candidate fails to get a minimum of one-sixth
(a) 10 (b) 12 (1/6) of the total valid votes polled, the deposit goes to
(c) 13 (d) 14 the treasury. Such situation may arise if a very large
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 number of candidates contested the election and votes
polled are divided among them. Victory of any
Ans. (b) Article 164(1A) of the Constitution asserts
candidate is decided on numbers of votes polled in
that the total number of Ministers including the Chief
Minister in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not favour of him irrespective of condition of the deposit.
exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members 63. Who of the following is empowered to dissolve
of the Legislative Assembly of that State provided that the Legislative Assembly of a State?
the number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister in (a) The Governor
a State shall not be less than twelve. (b) The Speaker of Legislative Assembly
60. What is the 'Quorum' required in the State (c) The Chief Minister
Legislature to hold a meeting? (d) The Chief Justice, High Court
(a) Thirty members or one tenth of total AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
membership, whichever is less Ans. (a) : According to Article 174 (2) (b) of the
(b) One-half of the total membership of the Constitution, Governor of the State is empowered to
House dissolve the Legislative Assembly. A 2016 verdict of
(c) One-fourth of the total membership of the the Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebia case, which had
House resulted from a Constitutional crisis in Arunachal
(d) Ten members or one tenth of the total Pradesh, had expressly emphasized that a “Governor
members of the House, whichever is greater can summon, prorogue and dissolve the House, only on
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers”.
174
64. In the case of a bill passed by the State
Legislature, Governor can reserve it for the Chief Minister and Council
consideration of the President. 3.
1. The President may declare or withhold his of Ministers
assent to the bill.
2. The President may return the bill for 66. Match the following constitutional articles
reconsideration to the State Legislature. related to Chief-Minister of a State:
3. State Legislature must reconsider the bill Subject Matter Article No.
within three months and if passed again it is (a) Council of Ministers to aid 1. 164
obligatory upon the President to give his and advice Governor
assent. (b) Other provisions as to 2. 166
4. In case of reconsidered bill which is passed Ministers
again by State Legislature, President shall (c) Conduct of business of the 3. 167
declare his assent within a period of six Government of a state
months. (d) Duties of Chief Minister 4. 163
Which of the statements given above are with respect to furnishing of
correct? information to Governor etc.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019 (a) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (a) : According to Article 201 of the Constitution, (b) 2 4 1 3
when a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the (c) 3 2 1 4
consideration of the President, the President either (d) 4 1 2 3
assents to the Bill or withholds the bill provided that (e) Answer not known
where the Bill is not a Money Bill. Further, the TNPSC (Pre) 2022
President may direct the Governor of the State to return Ans. (d)
the Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration. Subject Matter Article No.
Hence both statement 1 and 2 are correct. Council of Ministers to aid and advice 163
Article 201 asserts that when a Bill is returned by the Governor
President to the State Legislature for reconsideration, Other provisions as to Ministers 164
the House or Houses shall reconsider it accordingly Conduct of business of the 166
within a period of six months from the date of receipt of Government of a state
such message and if it is again passed by the House or Duties of Chief Minister with respect 167
Houses with or without amendment, it shall be to furnishing of information to
presented again to the President for his consideration. It Governor etc.
is not mandatory for the President to give his assent on
such Bill. Hence both statement 3 and 4 are not correct. 67. The head of the government and leader of the
65. Consider the following statements: House in Legislative Assembly of Assam
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly province in British India was known as the
shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to (a) Chief Minister (b) Prime Minister
be a member of the assembly. (c) Governor (d) Speaker
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is Assam PSC (Pre) 2022
dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her Ans. (b) : The head of government and leader of the
office immediately.
House in Legislative Assembly of Assam Province in
Which of the statements given above is/are
British India was known as the Prime Minister of
correct?
Assam.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 68. Select the Constitutional duties of the Chief
IAS (Pre.) G.S, 2018 Minister from the following by using codes
Ans. (a) Usually, the Speaker remains in office during given below:
the tenure of the particular Assembly. However Speaker I. The Chief Minister communicates to the
vacates his office earlier in any of the following three Governor all decisions of the Council of
circumstances: Ministers related to the administration of the
1. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly. affairs of the State
2. If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
II. The Chief Minister communicates to the
3. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a
majority of all the then members of the assembly. Governor the proposal for the legislation
Such a resolution can be moved only after giving III. The Chief Minister participates in the meeting
14 days advance notice. Hence statement 1 is of National Development Council
correct. Article 179 of the Constitution provides IV. The Chief Minister submits for the
that whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the consideration of the Council of Ministers any
Speaker shall not vacate his office until matter on which decision has been taken by a
immediately before the first meeting of the newly minister but which has not been considered
elected Assembly after the dissolution. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct. by the council as if the Governor requires

175
 Code:
(a) I and II Special Provision for Some
4.
(b) I and IV States
(c) I, II and III
71. Choose the correct matches
(d) I, II and IV
1. Art 371 Provision with respect to
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S, 2013
the states of Maharashtra
Ans. (d) Article 167 of the Constitution is regarding and Gujarat
duties of the Chief Minister. It asserts that it is the duty 2. Art 371 A Provision with respect to
of the Chief Minister- the states of Nagaland
1) To communicate to the Governor of the State all 3. Art 371 D Provision with respect to
decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the the states of Andhra
administration of the affairs of the State and Pradesh
proposals for legislation. 4. Art 371 H Provision with respect to
2) If the Governor so requires, to submit for the the states of Tamil Nadu
consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter (a) 2 and 4 are correct
on which a decision has been taken by a Minister (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
but which has not been considered by the Council. (c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
3) To furnish such information relating to the
(e) Answer not known
administration of the affairs of state and proposals
for legislations as the governor call for but it is not TNPSC (Pre) 2022
mandatory for the Chief Minister to attain the Ans. (d) :The correct match is as -
meeting of National Development Council. He may Art 371 Provision with respect to the states of
send his representative to participate in the meeting Maharashtra and Gujarat
of the National Development Council. Art 371 A Provision with respect to the states of
69. Salary and allowances of the ministers of the Nagaland
State Government is determined by- Art 371 B Provision with respect to the states of
(a) Chief Minister Assam
(b) Governor Art 371 C Provision with respect to the states of
(c) Chief Secretary Manipur
(d) State Legislature Art 371 D Provision with respect to the states of
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S., 2008 Andhra Pradesh or Telangana
Ans. (d) Salary and allowances of the ministers of the Art 371 E Establishment of Central University
State Government is determined by the respective State in Andhra Pradesh
Legislature. Art 371 F Provision with respect to the states of
Sikkim
70. Consider the following statements:
Art 371 G Provision with respect to the states of
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by
Mizoram
the Governor of that State.
Art 371 H Provision with respect to the states of
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed Arunachal Pradesh
tenure. Art 371 I Provision with respect to the states of
Which of the statements given above is/are Goa
correct? Art 371 J Provision with respect to the states of
(a) 1 only Karnataka
72. Consider the following statements and choose
(b) 2 only
the correct option :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) The special provisions for Nagaland are made
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 in Article 371 (A).
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2016 (b) No act of the Parliament in respect to the
Ans. (d) The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by religious or social practices of Nagas can be
applied without the approval of the Legislative
the Chief Minister of that State and the Chief Secretary
Assembly of Nagaland.
in a State has no fixed tenure as he holds the office upon (c) Tuensang is the most developed district of
the pleasure of the Chief Minister. Nagaland.
176
 (a) Statement (a) and (b) are correct demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur
(b) Only Statement (a) is correct Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram,
(c) Statement (a) and (c) are correct Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
(d) All the statements are correct 2. Constitution of India and United States of
MH PSC (Pre) 2022 America can envisage a dual policy (The
Ans. (a) : Article 371(A) makes the following special Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
provisions for Nagaland - 3. A neutralized citizen of India can never be
1) The Acts of parliament relating to the following deprived of his citizenship.
matters would not apply to Nagaland unless the Which of the following statements given above
State Legislative Assembly so decides - is/are correct?
i) Religions and social practices of the Nagas. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
ii) Naga customary law and procedure. (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
iii) Administration of Civil and Criminal Justice IAS (Pre) G.S., 2005
involving decisions according to Naga customary Ans. (d) Article 371A to 371 I were inserted in the
law and Constitution of India to meet the regional demands of
iv) Ownership and transfer of land and its resources. Nagaland, Assam, Manipur Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim,
The Tuensang district of Nagaland is one of the Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
most backward district of the country. Hence, Article 371 A is regarding special provision with respect
statement (c) is wrong while the statements (a) and to the Nagaland
(b) are correct. Article 371B is regarding special provision with respect to
73. Which Article of the Constitution of India the Assam
provided special status to the State of Jammu Article 371C is regarding Manipur
and Kashmir? Article 371 D is regarding Andhra Pradesh
(a) Article 360 (b) Article 370 Article 371 E is regarding establishment of central
(c) Article 375 (d) Article 378 university in Andhra Pradesh
Uttarakhand- PSC (Pre) - 2016 Article 371 F is regarding special provisions with respect
Ans. (b) When the question was asked article 370 of the to Sikkim
constitution of India provided special states to the state Article 371 G is regarding Mizoram
of Jammu & Kashmir. In 2019 the special status was Article 371 H is regarding Arunachal Pradesh
revoked. Article 371 I is regarding special provisions with respect
74. Articles of the Constitution of India that apply to Goa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
on their own to the State of Jammu and Constitution of India and United States of America
Kashmir, are envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but
(a) Articles 1 and 241 United States of America has dual citizenship while
(b) Articles 2 and 356 Republic of India has single citizenship. Hence statement 2
(c) Articles 1 and 370 is incorrect. Any citizen of India can be deprived of his/her
(d) Articles 370 and 371A citizenship by the provisions (naturalization, registration,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016 by voluntarily acquiring citizenship of another country)
Ans. (c) Article 1 and 370 of the Constitution of India is mentioned in the Constitution of India. Hence statement 3
applicable on their own to the State of Jammu and is also incorrect.
Kashmir. Article 1 is name and territory of the Union 76.
Special provisions with respect to State of
and Article 370 was temporary provisions with respect Manipur are provided in Indian Constitution
to the State of Jammu and Kashmir which granted under_______.
special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. (a) Article 371-A (b) Article 370-B
In 2019 the special status was revoked. (c) Article 371-C (d) Article 372-D
75. Consider the following statements: Manipur PSC-2016
1. Article 371A to 371I were inserted in the Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Constitution of India to meet regional question.

177
77. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India Article 370 of the Constitution of India was a temporary
makes special provision for which of the provision which grants special autonomous status to
following State(s)? Jammu and Kashmir. The Jammu and Kashmir
(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat Assembly was bicameral legislature consist of Assembly
(b) Assam and Council. The tenure of the Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Nagaland Assembly was six years. Hence the tenure of the Chief
(d) Manipur Minister of Jammu and Kashmir was six years.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010 Note: On 5th August, 2019, Government of India
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above introduced Jammu and Kashmir (Reorganization) Bill,
question. 2019, to repeal Article 370 (Except the first clause of
78. Which region of the country conferred special Article 370) of the Constitution. Under Article 370(3),
status under Article 371-J of the Constitution there is a provision that President on recommendation
of India? of the Parliament has the power to amend or cease the
(a) Nagaland implementation of Article 370, through a public
(b) Hyderabad and Karnataka notification. President of India gave his assent to
(c) Maharashtra and Gujarat Jammu and Kashmir (Reorganization) Act, 2019 on 9th
(d) Ladakh August, 2019 which made Jammu and Kashmir a Union
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 territory with a Legislative Assembly along with Union
Ans.(b): By the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth Territory status to Ladakh without a Legislative
Amendment) Act, 2013, Article 371-J was inserted into Assembly. Two Union Territories (Jammu and
Constitution, which is regarding establishment of a Kashmir, Ladakh) came into existence on 31st October,
separate development board for Hyderabad- Karnataka 2019.
region.
80. The tenure of the Chief Minister of the Jammu
79. Arrange the following events in a chronological & Kashmir is-
order and select the correct answer from the (a) Four years (b) Five years
codes given below: (c) Six years (d) Seven years
I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the instrument of
UPPCS Spl. (Pre.) G.S., 2008
Accession
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
II. Constitution of India was enforced
question.
III. Accession to India ratified by the sovereign
81. The Governor has the power to impose
Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir
IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Governor's rule in the State of:
Kashmir came into force (a) Tripura (b) Nagaland
Code : (c) Mizoram (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(a) I, III, IV, II (b) III, IV, I, II Himachal PSC (Pre) G.S, 2011
(c) I, II, III, IV (d) IV, III, II, I Ans.(d): In Jammu and Kashmir, Governor's rule was
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 mentioned under Article 370 Section-92.
Ans. (c) Maharaja Hari Singh of Jammu and Kashmir 82. Among which of the following States nominates
signed the Instrument of Accession with the Indian two woman representatives to the State
Government on October 26, 1947. Assembly?
The constitution of India was enforced on January 26, (a) Himachal Pradesh
1950. (b) Kerala
th
On 15 February, 1954 the assembly members who were (c) Jammu and Kashmir
present cast a unanimous note ratifying the state's (d) Uttar Pradesh
accession to Indian State of Jammu and Kashmir and UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2004
enacted it's own constitution, which were was formally Ans.(c): The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was
adopted by constituent assembly on November 17, 1956 provided that 2 women can be nominated to the
and entered into force on January 26, 1957. assembly by the governor.

178
 83. The nomenclature of the Executive Head of the 1. Odisha Legislative Assembly passed
Government of Jammu and Kashmir was resolution for creation of Legislative Council
changed From Sadar-i-Riyasat to Governor in recently.
1965 by 2. Currently, five states have Legislative
(a) Lok Sabha Resolution Councils.
(b) The Executive Order of the President 3. Proposals to create Legislative Councils in
(c) The 6th Amendment in the State Constitution Kerala and Gujarat are pending in Parliament.
of J&K. 4. 1/12th members of Legislative Councils are
(d) The State Government under Article 371. elected by registered graduates.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007 Which of the above statements are correct?
Ans. (c) The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Sixth (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
Amendment) Act, 1965 amended the State Constitution (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
and replaced the words ‘Sadar-i-Riyasat’ with Governor Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
and ‘Prime Minister’ with Chief Minister. Ans. (d) : On 6th September, 2018, Odisha Assembly
passed a resolution for the creation of Legislative
5. Miscellaneous Council. Hence statement 1 is correct.
As of January 2020, 6 out of 28 states have a
84. Which of the following States in India does not Legislative Council. The States with bicameral
have a Legislative Council so far even though legislature includes Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka,
the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh. These states
1956 provides for it? have both the Legislative Council and Legislative
(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar
Assembly. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
(c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Rajasthan
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1995 and Assam are pending in Parliament. Hence statement
Ans. (d) Madhya Pradesh does not have a Legislative 3 is also incorrect.
Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh 1/12th members of Legislative Councils are elected by
Amendment) Act, 1956 made provision for it. registered graduates. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Currently, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka,
88. Which State Legislature mentioned below is
Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh have
not bicameral?
Legislative Councils.
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
85. Which one of the following States does not have (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
a bicameral legislature? Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
(a) U.P. (b) M.P.
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(c) Bihar (d) Karnataka
89. Which of the following states does not have a
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
bicameral legislature?
question.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Telangana
86. The year in which the two Houses of Vidhan (c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal
Mandal in Uttar Pradesh came into existence Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S 2019
(a) 1937 (b) 1947
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(c) 1948 (d) None of the above
90. Which of the following Legislative house can be
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I abolished?
Ans. (a) : Two Houses of Vidhan Mandal (State (a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
Legislature) in Uttar Pradesh came into existence on 1st (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Vidhan Sabha
April, 1937. RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016
87. Consider the following statements: Ans.(c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.

179

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13.
Union Territory and Special area
1. Which one of the following is correctly (a) War
matched? (b) External Aggression
(a) Article 17-Equality before law (c) Armed Rebellion
(d) Internal Disturbance
(b) Article 78-Formation of Parliament AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
(c) Article 193-Salary and perks of Members of Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Parliament question.
(d) Article 352-Declaration of emergency 5. According to the Article 352 of Constitution of
UP Lower (Pre) G.S., 2002 India, the President is empowered to proclaim
Ans. (d) : Article 17 is related to abolition of emergency if he is satisfied that the security of
untouchability. India or any part of the territory of India is
threatened by which of the following situations?
Article 78 is related to duties of Prime Minister as I. War
respects the furnishing of information to the President. II. External Aggression
Article 22 is related to protection against arrest and III. Armed rebellion-
detention in certain cases. Select the answer using the code below.
Article 193 is related to Penalty for sitting and voting (a) I only (b) I and II
before making Oath or affirmation under Article 188 or (c) I, II and III (d) II only
Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018
when not qualified or when disqualified.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Article 352 is related to declaration of national question.
emergency on the basis of external aggression and 6. Under which of the following circumstances
armed rebellion. Hence, (d) is the correct answer. can an emergency be declared in India?
2. Who has the authority to proclaim emergency in (1) External aggression
the State? (2) Armed rebellion
(a) Governor (b) Prime Minister (3) Internal unrest
(4) Financial crisis
(c) President (d) Parliament
Codes:
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018 (a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (1), (3) and (4)
Ans.(c): President of India has the authority to proclaim (c) (2), (3) and (4) (d) (1), (2) and (4)
emergency in the state. Article 356 deals with Himachal PSC (Pre) GS, 2010
emergency in state. Ans.(d): Emergency in India can be declared in India
on the grounds of (i) War (ii) External aggression (iii)
3. Under which Article, President of India could Armed rebellion and (iv) financial crisis. Emergency is
declare ‘National Emergency’? declared by the President of India.
(a) Article 352 (b) Article 370 7. Who amongst the following is empowered to
(c) Article 371 (d) Article 395 declare emergency under the Indian
Manipur PCS - 2013 Constitution?
BPSC (Pre) G.S, 2011 (a) The Vice-President
(b) The President
Ans. (a) : Article 352 is regarding the proclamation of (c) The Prime Minister
the national emergency which asserts that if the President (d) The Home Minister
of India is satisfied with a grave emergency exists Himachal PSC (Pre) GS, 2010
whereby the security of India or any part is threatened, Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
whether by “war” or “external aggression” or “an armed question.
rebellion”, then he may proclaim a state of national 8. Under which Article of the Indian
emergency for the whole of India or a part of India. The Constitution, it is the duty of the Union govt. to
proclamation of the emergency can be questioned in protect states against external aggression and
internal disturbance:
court and must be approved by both Houses of (a) 355 (b) 356
Parliament within one month of proclamation. The effect (c) 352 (d) 360
of the proclamation of emergency is the emergence of the RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2008
full-fledged Unitary Government. Ans.(a): According to Article 355, it is the duty of the
4. The President of India cannot proclaim Union to protect every State against external aggression
National Emergency under Article 352 in the and internal disturbance and to ensure that the
entire country or in any part of it, on the Government of every State is carried on in accordance
ground of : with the provisions of Constitution.

180
 Ans. (c) : Dilip Singh Bhuria committee was
1. UTs established by the Government of India in 1994 to study
various aspects of tribals self rule and tribal affairs for
9. The reference to National Capital Territory of tribals living in scheduled areas of India. Later it paved
Delhi is found in the way for Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas
(a) Article 239 A (b) Article 239 AA Act, 1996.
(c) Article 239 AB (d) Article 239 B 12. Consider the following statements with
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 reference to Scheduled areas -
Ans. (b) According to Article 239 AA of the 1. The President of India notifies Scheduled
Constitution, as from the date of commencement of areas.
the Constitution (Sixty-Ninth Amendment) Act, 1991,
2. State with scheduled areas need to constitute a
the Union territory of Delhi shall be called the National
Tribal Advisory Council.
Capital Territory of Delhi and the administrator
appointed under Article 239 shall be designated as the Select the correct answer from the code given
Lieutenant Governor. below:
10. Which of the following statement(s) is true Code −
about the union territories of India? (a) Neither 1 nor 2
1. From 26th Jan. 2020, Dadra and Nagar Haveli (b) Only 2
and Daman and Diu are combined into a single (c) Both 1 and 2
territory. (d) Only 1
2. Articles 239 to 241 in Part VII of the UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled)
constitution deal with union territories. Ans.(c):The President of India notifies India's
3. The two union territories from the former state Scheduled Areas. States with Scheduled Areas need
of Jammu and Kashmir are Ladakh and to constitute a Tribal Advisory Council with upto 20
Jammu and Kashmir. members. Hence, both statements are correct.
4. The largest union territory of India is
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 13. As per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct how many members shall be there in Tribal
(b) 1 and 3 are correct Advisory Council to be constituted by a State?
(c) 2 and 4 are correct (a) Up to 10 (b) Up to 20
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (c) Up to 25 (d) Up to 50
(e) Answer not known APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 Ans.(b): A tribal advisory council is a must for the
Ans. (b) : Dadar and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu states having scheduled areas–
are combined into a single territory from January 26, It has 20 members (Three Fourth of which are
2020. scheduled tribes representatives in that state legislative
Hence, statement-1 is correct. assembly.
Articles 239 to 241 in part VIII (not part VII) of the 14. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the
constitution deal with Union Territories. Hence, administration of Scheduled Areas and
statement-2 is incorrect. Scheduled Tribes in Schedule – V
In 2019, the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir was (a) May be altered by the Governor
bifurcated into two separate Union Territories namely (b) May be altered by the president
Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh and Jammu and (c) May be altered by the Parliament by
Kashmir became largest Union Territory of India. Constitutional Amendment requiring special
Hence, statement-3 is correct while statement-4 is majority
incorrect. (d) May be altered by the Parliament by ordinary
legislation
2. Scheduled and Tribal areas MH PSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (a) : Provisions of the constitution relating to the
11. Which Committee's report paved the way for
administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes
the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas)
in Schedule-V may be altered by Governor with further
Act, (PESA) 1996 for ensuring tribal self-rule
assent by President.
for people living in Scheduled Areas of India?
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee 15. With reference to 'Schedule Areas' in India,
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee consider the following statements :
(c) Bhuria Committee 1. Within a State, the notification of an area
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee as Scheduled Area takes place through an
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I Order of the President.

181
 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Ans. (b) Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India is
Scheduled Area is the District and the regarding administration of tribal areas in the States of
lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Sixth
States are required to submit annual Schedule also provides provision for the Constitution of
reports to the Union Home Ministry on the District Councils and Regional Councils.
administration of Scheduled Areas in the
States. 19. Which of the following deals with Sixth
How many of the above statements are correct? Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None (a) Tribal Advisory Council
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023
(b) Autonomous District Council
Ans. (b) : As per Article-244 'scheduled areas' in India
shall be declared by the President. The largest (c) Municipal Council
administrative unit forming the scheduled area is the (d) Metropolitan Council
District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018
Block. The Governor of the concerned states are
required to submit annual reports to the President on the Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
administration of scheduled areas in the states. Hence 20. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals
statements 1, 2 are correct while statement-3 is not
correct. with the administration and control of Scheduled
16. Grants to the Autonomous Tribal Areas are Area and Scheduled Tribes in the four States.
provided by the: (a) Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, and Nagaland
(a) Article 272 (b) Article 274 (b) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(c) Article 275 (1) (d) Article 280
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 (c) Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and
Ans. (c) : Article 275(1) of Indian Constitution Nagaland
provides for specific grants for promoting the welfare of (d) Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland
the Scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019
administration of the Scheduled areas (also autonomous
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Tribal areas) in a state.
21. The provisions of the sixth Schedule of Indian
17. The specifications required for a community to
Constitution are applicable in which of the
be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are
following states?
1. indications of primitive traits
(a) Tripura (b) Sikkim
2. distinctive culture
(c) Nagaland (d) All of the above
3. shyness of contact with the community at
large UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
4. backwardness and geographical isolation Ans:(a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Which of the above are correct? 22. Under which Act the Schedule Caste and
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4 Schedule Tribes Atrocity Removal Law
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
implemented?
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023
(a) Act 1990 (b) Act 1989
Ans. (d) : The Criteria presently followed by
specification of a community as a Scheduled Tribes are: (c) Act 1992 (d) Act 1991
i) Indication of primitive traits. MPPSC (Pre) G.S, 2015
ii) Distinctive Cultures. Ans. (b) The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
iii) Geographical Isolation. (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is an Act to prevent the
iv) Shyness of contact with the community at a large commission of offences of atrocities against the members of
and the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and to
v) Backwardness. provide for special courts for the trial of such offences.
However, these criteria are not spelt out in the 23. The Government enacted the Panchayat
constitution. Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in
18. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India 1996. Which one of the following is not
deals with the administration of tribal areas of identified as its objective?
which of the following States? (a) To provide self-governance
(a) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa (b) To recognize traditional rights
(b) Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(c) Uttarakhand, Manipur, Jharkhand
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
(d) Nagaland, Arunachal, Tripura
UPPCS (Mains) G.S., IInd Paper, 2016 IAS (Pre) 2000
182
 Ans.(c): The Parliament enacted PESA in 1996 with the Ans. (*) : The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension
objectives :– to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, also called PESA, is a
• To provide self-rule for the bulk of the tribal Central legislation that extends the Provisions of the
population.
• To have village Governance with participatory Panchayats, as given in Part IX of the Constitution to the
democracy and to make the Gram Sabha a nucleus of Fifth Schedule Areas with certain modifications and
all activities. exemptions. These areas have preponderance of tribal
• To evolve a suitable administrative framework with population. The States with Fifth Schedule Areas that are
traditional practices. covered under PESA are Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
24. When was the Panchayat (Extension to the Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana (total 10).
Parliament? 27. Which of the following statements is not
(a) 1998
correct about the Inner Line Permit (ILP)
(b) 1996
(c) 1995 system?
(d) 1993 (a) It is a special pass or permit to quasi visa that
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022 is required by Indian citizens to enter
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above protected/restricted area of state for a limited
question. period
25. Consider the following statements: (b) It was introduced by the then British India
(1) The provisions of Part IX of the Constitution Government to protect indigenous tribal
relating to the Panchayats are not applicable people from encroachment into their areas by
to the Fifth Schedule Areas. outsiders
(2) At present seven states have Fifth Schedule (c) Union government notifies the protected
Areas. area/restricted area under ILP regime and
(3) The Parliament has enacted the PESA Act in state governments under the Bengal Eastern
1996 for such areas. Frontier Regulation, 1873, issue ILP
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (d) This permit or quasi visa regime is presently
(a) 1 and 2 operational in Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal
(b) 1 and 3 Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram
Manipur PSC-2016
(c) Only 1
Ans. (c) : Inner Line Permit System is implemented
(d) All of the above
under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR)
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018
1873, the ILP is an official travel document that allows
Ans.(b): The provisions of Part IX of the constitution
inward travel of an Indian citizen into a
relating to Panchayats are not applicable to the fifth
protected/restricted area for a limited period. This Act
schedule areas. However the parliament may extend these
was enacted during the British era to protect the
provisions to such areas, subject to such exceptions and
modification as it may specify. Under this provision the Crown’s own commercial interests by preventing
parliament has enacted the 'Provisions of the Panchayat ‘British subjects’ (Indians) from trading within these
Act' 1996 popularly known as PESA. At Present 10 states regions. In 1950, the Indian government replaced
are under fifth schedule. ‘British subjects’ with ‘Citizen of India’. An imaginary
Thus, statements 1&3 are correct. line known as the inner-line was created to divide
26. The number of States covered under the between the two communities so that neither party
provisions of the Panchayats (Extension of could go beyond the line without a permit from the
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 are appropriate authorities. Under Section 2 of the
(a) 14 (b) 8 Regulation of 1873, the ILP was only applicable to the
(c) 6 (d) 12 three North-Eastern States viz. Mizoram, Arunachal
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2018 Paper-I Pradesh and Nagaland.

183

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14.
Procedure for Constitution
Amendment & Major Amendments
1. Consider the following statements about the Ans. (c) : By the 77th Amendment Act, reservation in
'Basic structure' of the constitution: promotion for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
I. The doctrine of the 'Basic structure' has been Tribes was ensured by inserting Clause '4A' in Article
incorporated into Constitution of India by an 16.
Act of Parliament. 3. Match List-I with List-II:
II. Presently the parliament under Article 368 List-I List-II
of the Constitution of India can amend any
A. 26th i. Reservation
part of the Constitution without affecting the
Constitutional for EWS.
'Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Amendment
III. Parliament's limited power to amend the
Constitution is also an element of the 'Basic B. 52nd ii. Education as
Constitutional fundamental
Structure' of the Constitution.
Amendment right
IV. The Supreme Court in the 'Kumar Padma
Prasad Case' (1992) has declared that the C. 86th iii. Eradication as
mandate to build a 'welfare state' is an element Constitutional Privy Purse
if the 'Basic structure of the Constitution. Amendment
Which of the statements given above are D. 103rd iv. Anti-defection
correct Constitutional law
(a) I, II and III Amendment
(b) II, III and IV Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) II and III given below:
(d) II and IV (a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
APPSC (Pre) 2023 (b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
Ans. (c) : The Doctrine of Basic structure was (c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
propounded by Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharti (d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Case 1973. The Supreme Court has defined elements of (e) Question not attempted
basic structure from time to time. Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
Hence, statement-I is incorrect. Ans. (a) : The correct match is as follows :-
The parliament under Article 368 of the Constitution of List-I List-II
India can amend any part of the Constitution without 26th Constitutional - Eradication as Privy
affecting the 'Basic Structure of the Constitution. Amendment Purse
Hence, statement-II is correct. 52nd Constitutional - Anti defection law
Parliament's limited power to amend the Constitution is Amendment
also an element of the 'Basic Structure' of the 86th Constitutional - Education as
Constitution. Amendment fundamental right
Hence, statement-III is correct. 103rd Constitutional - Reservation for
Kumar Padma Prasad case 1992 is about appointment of Amendment EWS.
Judges. 4. Consider the following statements:
Hence, statement-IV is incorrect. 1. Pirvy purse referred to a specific sum of
2. Under which Amendment Act was the money that was payable annually to rulers of
reservation in promotion for the Scheduled former princely states that signed the
Castes and Scheduled Tribes ensured by Instrument of Accession.
inserting Clause '4A' in Article 16? 2. The payment of privy purse was a
(a) 75th Amendment Act, 1994 constitutional obligation before 42nd
(b) 76th Amendment Act, 1994 Amendment.
(c) 77th Amendment Act, 1995 3. The abolition of Privy Purse was justified on
(d) 108th Amendment Act, 2008 the ground that is stood against the principle of
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I egalitarianism enshrined in the Constitution.
184
 How many of the statements given above are Ans. (a):
correct? I.Golak Nath case - 27 February 1967.
(a) Only one statement is correct. III. The Constitution (Twenty-Fourth Amendment) Act-
(b) Only two statements are correct. 5 November 1971.
(c) All three statement are correct. II. Keshawanand Bharti Case - 1973.
(d) None of the statements is correct. IV. The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act-
(e) Question not attempted 1976.
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
7. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (b) : Privy Purse refers to a specific sum of money
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic
that was payable annually to rulers of formers princely
structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism,
states that signed Instrument of Accession. It was
fundamental rights and democracy.
abolished through 26th constitutional amendment act,
1971 on the ground that is stood against the principle of 2. The Constitution of India provides for
egalitarianism enshrined in the constitution. Hence, ‘Judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’
statement I & III are correct. liberties and to preserve the ideals on which
the Constitution is based.
5. Consider the following statements:
1. In order to form a new state in the Indian Which of the statements given above is/are
Union, the Parliament can amend the correct?
provisions of the Constitution with a Simple (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Majority. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. To amend the provisions of Directive IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Principle of State Policy, the Parliament Ans. (b) The Supreme Court recognized Basic Structure
requires a Special Majority. concept for the first time in the historic Kesavananda
3. To amend Article 368 of the Constitution, the Bharati case in 1973. The Supreme Court declared that
Parliament requires Special Majority along Article 368 did not enable Parliament to alter the basic
with the consent of half of the state legislatures. structure or framework of the Constitution and
How many of the statement given above are Parliament could not use its amending powers under
correct. Article 368 to damage, emasculate, destroy, abrogate,
(a) Only one statement is correct. change or alter the basic structure or framework of the
(b) Only two statement are correct. Constitution. Various features like independent
(c) All three statement are correct. Judiciary, rule of law, free and fair elections, separation
(d) None of the statements is correct. of powers etc. emerged as basic structure of the
(e) Question not attempted Constitution from various judgments given by Supreme
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023 Court. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Ans. (c) : Article 4 of Indian constitution says, in order Judicial review is defined as ‘the power of the Court to
to form a new state in the Union of India, the Parliament determine whether the acts of Legislature and Executive
needs a simple majority and by ordinary legislative are consistent with the Constitution or the
process. Hence, statement-I is correct. Constitutional values’. The concept of judicial review
In amending, in the provision of Directive Principle of lies in the supremacy of the Constitution of the land.
State Policy (DPSP), the parliament needs a special Therefore judicial review safeguards the citizen’s
majority. Hence, statement-II is also correct. liberty and preserves the ideals of the Constitution.
Since, Article 368 of the constitution has federal Hence statement 2 is correct.
features, hence in amending Article 368, parliament
requires special majority along with consent of half of 8. The word ‘Socialist’ was inserted into the
the state legislature. Hence, statement-III is also correct. Preamble of the Constitution by:
(a) The Constitution (Thirty-Eight Amendment)
6. Consider the following and arrange these in
Act, 1975
chronological order:
(b) The Constitution (Thirty-Nine Amendment)
I. Golak Nath Case
Act, 1975
II. Keshawanand Bharti Case
(c) The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment)
III. 24th Constitution Amendment Act
Act, 1976
IV. 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
(d) The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment)
Select the correct answer from the codes given
Act, 1978
below.
Codes: Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
(a) I, III, II, IV (b) I, II, III, IV Ans. (c) : Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) III, I, II, IV (d) III, I, IV, II (1976) added three new words - Socialist, Secular and
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 Integrity into the Preamble of the Constitution.

185
9. Article 371G was inserted into the Constitution 3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article
of India through the: 39A, Article 43A and Article 47.
(a) Constitution Fifty-second Amendment Act, 4. It granted power to the President, in
1986 consultation with the Election Commission, to
(b) Constitution Fifty-third Amendment Act, disqualify members of the State Legislatures.
1986 Which of the above statements are incorrect ?
(c) Constitution Fifty-fourth Amendment Act, (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
1986 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(d) Constitution Fifty-fifth Amendment Act, 69th BPSC (Pre) 2023
1986 Ans. (c) : The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act is
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 also known as mini constitution. It added ten
Ans. (b) : Article 371G is related to State of Mizoram fundamental duties in Part IV(A) of the constitution.
and it was inserted into the Constitution of India The Amendment added three words 'Socialist', Secular
through the Fifty-third Amendment Act, 1986. and Integrity to the constitution.
10. Consider the following statements: It added three Directive Principles of States Policy 39A,
(1) Constitution's 61st amendment is related to the 43A and 48A.
reduction in voting age. The Amendment also empowered President to
(2) Constitution's 93rd amendment is related to disqualify members of State Legislatures in consultation
reservation for EWS category. with Election Commission of India. Earlier this power
(3) Constitution's 86th amendment added Article was vested in Governor of State.
19A in the constitution. Thus, Statement 2 & 3 are incorrect.
(4) In 2002, duty of parents to provide education to
12. Sikkim became a state of India under which of
their children between 6 to 14 years was added.
the following Amendments of the Constitution?
Choose the correct answer from the
options/given below: (a) 30th Amendment (b) 36th Amendment
nd
(a) (1) and (2) only (b) (2) and (3) only (c) 32 Amendment (d) 40th Amendment
(c) (3) and (4) only (d) (4) and (1) only Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 Ans.. (b) : Sikkim became the 22nd State of the Indian
Ans. (d): Union on 16 May, 1975 through the 36th Constitutional
Amendment Act Amended Provisions of the Amendment Act 1975. Before it through 35th
Constitution Constitution Amendment Act, 1974, the status of Sikkim
as a protectorate state was terminated and Sikkim was
61th, 1989 Reduced the voting age from 21
given the status of 'Associate State' or India.
years to 18 years for the Lok
Sabha and Legislative Assembly 13. In which case did the Supreme Court give the
elections. doctrine of ‘Basic Structure’ of the
86th, 2002 Made elementary education a Constitution?
fundamental right and also (a) Keshavanand Bharti case
added new fundamental duty (b) Golakhnath case
under Article 51-A which reads- (c) Indira Swahney case
It shall be the duty of parent or (d) Sankari Prasad case
guardian to provide education to 69th BPSC (Pre) 2023
their children from 6 to 14 years Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S., 2018
of age. Ans: (a) The Supreme Court recognized Basic Structure
93rd, 2005 Empowered the state to make concept for the first time in the historical Kesavananda
special provisions for the Bharati case in 1973.
socially and educationally The Supreme Court declared that Article 368 did not
backward classes or the enable Parliament to alter the basic structure or
Scheduled Caste and Tribes in framework of the Constitution and Parliament could not
educational institutions use its amending powers under Article 368 to damage,
including private educational emasculate, destroy, abrogate, change or alter the basic
institutions. structure or framework of the Constitution.
103rd, 2019 Make any special provision for 14. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the
reservation of E.W.S. doctrine of “Basic Structure of the
11. Consider the following statements regarding Constitution” in
the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of (a) The Golaknath Case in 1967
India : (b) The Keshavanand Bharati Case in 1973
1. It added three words to the Preamble (c) The Shankari Prasad Case in 1951
‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’. (d) The Sajjan Singh Case in 1965
2. It added eight Fundamental Duties to the UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020
Constitution. OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
186
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (a) : The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
question. 2015 transferred 111 Indian enclaves to Bangladesh and
15. In which of the following cases did the 51 Bangladesh enclaves to India. Hence, statement
Supreme Court of India pronounce the verdict under option (a) is incorrect.
that the basic structure of the Constitution 19. By which Constitutional Amendment,
cannot be amended by the Parliament? minimum age for voting rights was reduced
(a) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India from 21 years to 18 years in 1989?
(b) Golaknath vs State of Punjab (a) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerla (b) 62nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union of India. (c) 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 (d) 64th Constitutional Amendment Ac
CGPSC Pre 2022
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Ans. (a) : The Constitution sixty-first Amendment Act,
1989 lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.
16. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the
doctrine of ‘Basic Structure of the 20. By which amendment of the Constitution, ‘Delhi’
Constitution' in has been made National Capital Region?
(a) The Golaknath Case in 1967 (a) 75th (b) 73rd
th
(b) The Sajjan Singh Case in 1965 (c) 70 (d) 69th
(c) The Shankari Prasad Case in 1951 UPPCS Pre 2022
(d) The Keshavanand Bharati case in 1973 Ans. (d): The Sixty-Ninth Amendment Act of 1991
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2012 accorded a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi
UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam G.S., 2015 by designating it as the National Capital Territory of
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Delhi. The amendment also provided for the creation of
question. a 70-member legislative assembly and a 7-member
17. Which of the following elements come under council of ministers for Delhi.
basic structure of the Indian Constitution as 21. Which of the following provisions were made
declared by the Supreme Court? by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978?
(1) Federalism (A) Provided for the creation of the All India
(2) Social Justice Judicial Service.
(3) Effective Access to justice
(B) Empowered the President to send back
(4) Freedom and Dignity of the individual
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) (2), (3) and (4) only once, the advice of the Cabinet for
(c) (1), (2) and (3) only (d) (1) only reconsideration.
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) (C) Provided that the Fundamental Rights
Ans. (a): The phrase 'basic structure' was introduced for guaranteed by Article 20 and Article 21
the first time in Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973. The cannot be suspended during the National
concept of basic structure includes- Emergency.
1. Supremacy of the Constitution (D) Shifted five subjects from the State list to
2. Republican and Democratic form of government the Concurrent list.
3. Secular character of the Constitution (a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) (A), (B) and (D)
4. Separation of powers between the legislature, (c) Only (C) and (D) (d) Only (B) and (C)
Executive and the Judiciary
Maharashtra PSC 2022
5. Federal character of the Constitution
6. The mandate to build a welfare state contained in the Ans. (d) : The All India Judicial Services was first
Directive Principles of State Policy proposed by the 14th report of the Law Commission in
7. Unity and integrity of the nation, etc. 1958. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 did not provide
18. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, for the creation of the All India Judicial Services.
2015 was brought for exchange of territories Hence, 1st statement is incorrect.
between India and Bangladesh. What is not Also, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 shifted 5
true in reference to this? subjects to concurrent list from state list namely-
(a) Under this, India transferred 51 enclaves to • Education
Banglandesh whereas Bangladesh transferred • Forest
111 enclaves to India.
• Protection of wild animals & birds
(b) Under this, 6.1 km undemarcated boundary
• Weight and measures
land was demarcated.
(c) Due to this, territories of four States got • Administration of justice, constitution and
changed. organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and
the High court. Hence, 4th statement is also incorrect.
(d) None of the above.
Rest of the statements are correct.
CGPSC Pre 2022
187
22. Which of the following Constitution Ans. (b): The Power of Parliament to amend the
Amendments was the first Constitutional Constitution and its procedure has been laid down in
Amendment, which was rectified by the State Article 368 of the Constitution. An Amendment may
Legislature according to the requirements of be initiated by introducing a Bill in either House of the
the provision of the Article 368 (2) of the Parliament and once it is passed in each House by a
Constitution? majority of the total membership of that House and
(a) First Constitutional Amendment, 1951 majority of two third members present and voting, it
(b) Second Constitutional Amendment, 1952 shall be presented to the President, who shall give his
(c) Third Constitutional Amendment, 1954 assent to the Bill. Therefore, a bill amending the
(d) Fourth Constitutional Amendment, 1954 Constitution does not require a prior recommendation
of the President of India. Hence, statement 1 is not
MPPSC Pre 2022
correct.
Ans. (c): Third Constitutional Amendment, 1954 was The President is bound to give his assent to
the first Constitutional Amendment, which was ratified Constitution Amendment Bill passed by Parliament by
by the State Legislature according to the requirements the prescribed special majority and where necessary,
of the provision of the Article 368 (2) of the ratified by the requisite number of State Legislatures.
Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
23. Consider the following statements: In case of any disagreement between the two Houses of
An amendment of the Constitution of India can Parliament on a Constitution Amendment Bill, there
be initiated by the cannot be a joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament on
I. Lok Sabha II. Rajya Sabha the Bill as Article 368 of the Constitution requires each
III. State Legislatures IV. President House to pass the Bill by the prescribed special
Which of the above statements is/are correct? majority. Hence, statement 3 is also correct.
(a) I alone (b) I, II and III 26. Consider the following statements
(c) I, II and IV (d) I and II 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India
can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 1999
the Lok Sabha only.
Ans. (d) Article 368 of the Constitution is regarding 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes
power of Parliament to amend the Constitution, which in the federal character of the Constitution,
asserts that an amendment of the Constitution may be the amendment also requires to be ratified by
initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either the legislature of all the States of India.
House of Parliament and the Bill is to be passed in each Which of the statements given above is/are
House by a majority of the total membership of that correct?
House and two third of members present and voting. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
24. Amendment of the Constitution of India can be (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
initiated in IAS (Pre) G.S.,2013
(a) The Lok Sabha Ans.(d): See the explanation of above question.
(b) The Rajya Sabha
27. According to the Indian Constitution, the
(c) Both House of Parliament Constitutional Amendment of the following
(d) Either (b) or (c) topics requires consent of at least half of the
Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018 State Legislatures-
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1. Federal provision of the Constitution
question. 2. Rights of the Supreme Court
25. Consider the following statements: 3. The process of the Constitutional Amendment
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a 4. Formation of new States or transformation in
prior recommendation of the President of India. the borders and names of the States
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is Code:
presented to the President of India, it is (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2, 4
obligatory for the President of India to give (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4
his/her assent. UP Lower (Pre) G.S, 2003
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed Ans.(a): Article 368 of the Constitution is regarding
by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a power and procedure of the Parliament to amend the
special majority and there is no Constitution. The various categories of amendment to
the Constitution can be summarized as follows:
provision for joint sitting.
Amendment by Simple Majority- As the name
Which of the statements given above is/are suggests, an Article can be amended in the same way by
correct? the Parliament as an ordinary law is passed which
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only requires simple majority. These Articles are specifically
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 excluded from the purview of the procedure prescribed
IAS (Pre), G.S, 2022 under Article 368.
188
Amendment by Special Majority- Articles which can Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
be amended by special majority are laid down in question.
Article 368. Amendments in Fundamental Rights, 31. The power of Parliament to amend the
Directive Principles of State Policy come under the Constitution is limited by the
procedure of amendment by special majority. All (a) Supreme Court (b) Civil Society
amendments, falling under this category must be passed (c) State (d) Constitution
by a majority of total membership of each House of APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
Parliament as well as two third of the members present
and voting. Ans. (a): The power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution is limited by the Supreme Court. The
Amendment by Special Majority and Ratification by Supreme Court recognized “Basic Structure” concept
States- Amendment to certain Articles requires special
majority as well as ratification by States. Ratification by for the first time in the historic Kesavananda Bharati
States means that there has to be a resolution to that case in 1973. The Supreme Court declared that Article
effect by at least one-half of the State legislatures. 368 did not enable Parliament to alter the basic structure
These Articles include Article 54 (Election of or framework of the Constitution and Parliament could
President), Article 55 (Manner of election of President), not use its amending powers under Article 368 to
Article 73 (Extent of executive power of the Union), damage, emasculate, destroy, abrogate, change or alter
Article 162 (Extent of executive power of State), the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.
Article 124 to Article 147 (The Union Judiciary), 32. The concept of ‘Basic Structure of the
Article 214 to Article 231 (The High Courts in the Constitution’ was propounded by the Supreme
States), Article 241 (High Courts for Union Territories), Court in the case of
Article 245 to Article 255 (Distribution of Legislative (a) Keshvanand Bharti vs State of Kerala – 1973
powers) and Article 368 (power of the Parliament to (b) Golaknath vs State of Punjab – 1967
amend the Constitution and procedure) itself. Any list (c) Chitralekha vs State of Mysore – 1964
of Seventh Schedule or representation of States in (d) Yusuf vs State of Bombay – 1954
Parliament as mentioned in the Fourth Schedule is also UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022
included.
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
28. Which of the following statements is/are question.
correct regarding Special Majority rules in
Parliament? 33. Which of the following statements about the
(a) Special majority is a majority of the total first amendment to the Constitution is/are
membership of each House and a majority of true?
2/3 of the members of each House present I. The first amendment was enacted in 1952.
and voting. II. The first amendment was enacted before the
(b) In above statement total membership means first general elections.
the total members comprising the House III. It was enacted by provisional Parliament.
irrespective of fact whether there are (a) I and II are true (b) II and III are true
vacancies and absentees. (c) I and III are true (d) I, II and III are true
(c) Both (a) and (b) TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) Ans. (b) The first Amendment to the Constitution carried
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) out on 18th June, 1951. It was related to land and agrarian
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above reforms. The First Amendment Act, 1951 inserted Ninth
question. Schedule to the Constitution to protect the land reform
29. Which of the following parts of the and other laws present in it from the judicial review.
Constitution cannot be amended by a simple Hence statement I is not correct. First general election in
independent India was held between 1951 to 1952. Hence
majority? statement II is correct. The first Amendment to the
(a) Creation of a new State Constitution was enacted by provisional Parliament.
(b) Process of the election of the President Hence statement III is also correct.
(c) Official language of the Union or States 34. The First Amendment to the Constitution
(d) Provision of Quorum carried out in 1951 related to
(e) All of these (a) Security of the country
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Security of the Prime Minister
question. (c) Protection of agrarian reforms in certain
30. Creation of a new state requires a majority for States
Constitutional Amendment? (d) Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes
(a) Simple UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
(b) Two-third Ans. (c) The First Amendment to the Constitution
(c) Three-fourth carried out on18 June, 1951 was related to land and
(d) Two-third plus ratification by half of all states agrarian reforms. The First Amendment Act, 1951
(e) None of the above/More than one of the inserted Ninth Schedule to the Constitution to protect
above the land reform and other laws from the judicial review.
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016 It inserted Articles 31A and 31B. It also amended
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre.) 1st Paper, 2012 Articles 15, 19, 85, 87, 174, 176, 341, 342, 372 and 376.
189
35. When did the first amendment of the Indian (c) 32nd Amendment Act
Constitution take place ? (d) 58th Amendment Act
(a) June 18, 1951 (b) June 18, 1952 UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
(c) July 18, 1953 (d) July 18, 1954 Ans. (d) : The Constitution (Fifty- Eight Amendment)
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Act, 1987 inserted Article 394 A to the Constitution to
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above provide for an authoritative text of the Constitution of
question. India in Hindi language.
36. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution 40. Consider the following statements:
was added by: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of
(a) 21st Amendment (b) Sixth Amendment India introduced an Article placing the
(c) First Amendment (d) Ninth Amendment election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018 review.
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2013 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India
question. as being violative of the independence of
37. Which of the following Articles were repealed judiciary.
from Indian Constitution by ‘Constitution 26th Which of the statements given above is/are
Amendment Act, 1971'? correct?
(a) Art. 291 and Art. 362 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Art. 283 and Art. 283-A (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Art. 251 and Art. 256
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019
(d) Art. 301 and Art. 304
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2018 Paper-I Ans : (b) A challenge to Prime Minister Indira
Gandhi's election victory was upheld by the Allahabad
Ans. (a) : The Constitution (Twenty-Sixth Amendment) High Court on grounds of electoral malpractice in 1975.
Act, 1971 was regarding termination of the privy purses Meanwhile, Parliament passed the Constitution (Thirty-
and privileges of the Rulers of former Indian States. Ninth Amendment) Act, 1975 which removed the
The Constitution (Twenty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 1971 authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate petitions
repealed Article 291 and Article 362 of the regarding elections of the President, Vice President,
Constitution and inserted a new Article 363A to the Prime Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Instead,
Constitution. a body constituted by Parliament was vested with the
Article 291- Privy purse sums of Rulers power to resolve such election disputes. Hence
Article 362- Rights and privileges of Rulers of Indian statement (1) is incorrect.
States The Constitution (Ninety-Ninth Amendment) Act,
Article 363A- The Prince, Chief or other person who, at 2014 provided for the formation of a National Judicial
any time before the commencement or the Constitution Appointments Commission (NJAC). In October 2015, a
(Twenty sixth Amendment) Act, 1971, was recognized Supreme Court Bench presided by Justice J.S Khehar in
by the President as the Ruler of an Indian State or any a majority of 4:1 rejected 99th Constitutional
person who, at any time before such commencement, Amendment Act (also known as NJAC Act) on the
was recognized by the President as the successor of grounds of violation of independence of Judiciary.
such Ruler shall, on and from such commencement, Hence statement 2 is correct.
cease to be recognized as such Ruler or the successor of 41. Which Constitutional Amendment Act dealing
such Ruler. with National Judicial Appointments
Note- The “Privy Purse” was a specific amount of Commission, was declared unconstitutional by
money that was to be paid annually by the Indian the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court?
government to the rulers of princely states and their (a) 98th Constitutional Amendment Act
successors, who had acceded to India. (b) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
38. When was the special rights and privy purse (c) 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
enjoyed by the Indian Princely States (d) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
abolished? RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
(a) 1950 (b) 1949 Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 1962 (d) 1971 question.
MPPSC (Pre) 2020 42. With reference to the Parliament of India,
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above consider the following statements:
question. 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by
39. Which Constitutional Amendment Act among a member of Parliament who is not elected
the following provided for an authoritative text but only nominated by the President of India.
of the Constitution of India in Hindi language? 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been
(a) 57th Amendment Act passed in the Parliament of India for the first
(b) 31st Amendment Act time in its history.
190
 Which of the statements given above is/are suspended only in case of proclamation on the ground
correct? of war or external aggression and not on grounds of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only armed rebellion. Hence statement 3 is also correct.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 If the situation improves, the emergency can be revoked
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017 by another proclamation by the President of India. The
Ans. (d) A Bill can be introduced either by a minister or 44th Amendment of the Constitution provides that ten
a member other than a minister. If a Bill is introduced by percent or more members of the Lok Sabha can
a minister, it is called a Government Bill and if a Bill is requisition a meeting of the Lok Sabha and in that
introduced by a member, then it is called as a Private meeting; it can disapprove or revoke the emergency by
a simple majority. In such a case emergency will
Member's Bill. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 14 Private
immediately become inoperative. Hence statement 4 is
Member Bills have been passed by the Parliament since
incorrect.
independence. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
45. Which of the following Article was inserted by
43. Which Constitution amendment increased the
the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide
numbers of Members of Parliament from Lok
for participation of workers in management?
Sabha to 545 from 525?
(a) Article 38 (b) Article 39 A
(a) 31st Amendment (b) 35th Amendment
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 43 A
(c) 42nd Amendment (d) 45th Amendment
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd Paper, 2004
st Ans: (d) The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment)
Ans.(a): In the 31 Constitutional Amendment Act, Act, 1976 inserted Article 43A as one of the Directive
1972 the seats of Lok Sabha was increased from 525 to Principle of State Policy regarding participation of the
545. The purpose of this act was to increase the workers in management.
representation of state in the Lok Sabha. This was done 46. Which of the following Constitutional
after the census of 1971. amendment formally inducted Sikkim as a
44. Which one of the following has not been State in to the Union of India?
provided by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (a) 34th (b) 35th
th
Act of 1978 relating to National Emergency? (c) 36 (d) 37th
(a) A proclamation of National Emergency will UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005, 2006
not be issued by President unless there is a U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013
written recommendation of the Cabinet. UPUDA/DA (Pre.) G.S., 2006
(b) The expression 'internal disturbances' has Ans. (c) 36th Constitution Amendment Act, 1975
been replaced by 'armed rebellion'. included Sikkim as a full-fledged State in the First
(c) The six fundamental rights under Article 19 Schedule of the Constitution and allotted Sikkim one
can be suspended only when the National seat in the Rajya Sabha and one seat in the Lok Sabha.
Emergency is declared on grounds of war or 47. By which Constitutional Amendment, the
external aggression and not on grounds of subject of ‘Education’ was transferred from
armed rebellion. State list to concurrent list?
(d) The President must issue a proclamation of (a) 5th (b) 9th
nd
revocation any time if any House of (c) 42 (d) 44th
Parliament passes a resolution disapproving Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016
of the continuance of the proclamation. UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019 Ans. (c) Through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976,
Ans. (d) : The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) five subjects namely education, forests, weights and
Act, 1978 provided that an Emergency can be measures, protection of wild animals and birds,
proclaimed only on the basis of written advice tendered administration of Justice were transferred from State
to the President by the Cabinet. Hence statement 1 is List to Concurrent List.
correct. 48. Under the Constitution of India Education as a
Before 1978, an emergency could be declared on the subject of legislation is included in:
grounds of war, external aggression or internal (a) The Union List
disturbance, which was too vague and broad in sense. (b) The State List
The 44th Constitutional Amendment substituted the (c) The Concurrent List
word ‘armed rebellion’ for internal disturbance. Hence (d) The Residuary Power
statement 2 is also correct. Himanchal PSC (Pre), G.S, 2011
Before the 44th Amendment, it was provided in the Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Constitution that during the proclamation of National question.
Emergency, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 49. The authoritative text of the Indian
are automatically suspended and this suspension Constitution in Hindi was authorized to be
continues till the end of the emergency. But after the published by which of the following
44th Amendment, Freedoms listed in Article 19 can be Constitutional amendment?

191
 (a) 57th Amendment, 1987 53. Which one of the following Amendments to the
(b) 58th Amendment, 1987 Constitution for the first time, made it
(c) 59th Amendment, 1988 obligatory for the President to act on the advice
(d) 60th Amendment, 1988 of the Council of Ministers?
UP RO/ ARO (Pre) G.S, 2016 (a) 41st Amendment (b) 44th Amendment
Ans. (b) By the Constitution 58th Amendment Act, (c) 54th Amendment (d) None of the above
1987 provided for authoritative text of the Indian Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Constitution in Hindi language and gave the same legal Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
sanctity to the Hindi language of the Constitution. question.
50. By which of the following Amendments of the 54. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were
Indian Constitution word ‘Co-operative added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution
Societies’ was added in Article 19(1) (c)? by:
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (a) The Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act
(b) 73rd Amendment Act, 1993 1950
(c) 97th Amendment Act, 2011 (b) The Constitution (First Amendment) Act
(d) 36th Amendment Act, 1975 1963
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016 (c) The Constitution (Forty-First Amendment)
Ans. (c) The Constitution (Ninety-Seventh Act 1976
Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted the word ‘Co-operative (d) The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment)
Societies’ in Article 19(1) (c). This Amendment also Act 1976
added Article 43 B in the Constitution which asserts TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
that the State shall endeavour to promote voluntary
formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
and professional management of co-operative societies. question.
The definition of co-operative Societies has been given 55. Which Constitutional Amendment added
in Article 243 ZH. ''Integrity" in the Preamble?
51. By which Constitutional Amendment the word (a) 42th (b) 30th
"Cooperative Societies" was added in Article (c) 25 th
(d) 15th
19 of the Indian Constitution?
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
(a) 76th Constitutional Amendment
(b) 80th Constitutional Amendment Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 95th Constitutional Amendment question.
(d) 97th Constitutional Amendment 56. Which of the following amendment/s in the
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 Indian Constitution was/were equated with
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above ‘Mini Constitution’?
question. (a) 24th and 25th Amendments
52. By which Amendment, words socialist, secular (b) 42nd Amendment
and national unity and integrity has been (c) 44th Amendment
added to the Constitution of India? (d) 73rd and 74th Amendments
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2018
(c) 52nd Amendment (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
BPSC (Pre) 2003 question.
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2008 57. Under which Constitution amendment, 10
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 1991, 2010 Fundamental Duties of the citizens were
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003, 2006 included in the Constitution?
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2013 (a) 24th (b) 38th
nd
(c) 42 (d) 44th
Ans. (a) The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment)
Haryana PSC (Pre), G.S. 2014
Act, 1976, was enacted during the emergency (25 June
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
1975 – 21 March 1977). This Amendment brought question.
about the most widespread changes to the Constitution
58. Fundamental Duties by the citizens were added
of India in its history and is sometimes called a ‘Mini- to the Constitution of India by which
Constitution’. By this Amendment, three new words Amendment?
Socialist, Secular and Integrity were added in the (a) 38th (b) 41st
nd
Preamble. (c) 42 (d) 45th
A new Part IV A (Fundamental Duties by the citizens) Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
was added. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015
Four Articles namely 39, 39A, 43A and 48A were MPPSC (Pre) GS 1990
added to the Directive Principles of the State Policy. BPSC (Pre) 2007
Constitution 42nd Amendment made the President Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
bound by the advice of the Union Cabinet. question.
192
59. The word ‘Socialist’ was added to Preamble of Ans. (b) Directive Principles of the State Policy have
the Constitution of India by which of the been given preference over Fundamental Rights
following Amendment? mentioned in Articles 14 and 19 through 42nd
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment Constitutional Amendment, 1976. Hence statement 1 is
th
(c) 46 Amendment (d) 74th Amendment incorrect. However this provision was abolished by
(e) None of the above Supreme Court in Minerva Mill case, 1980. Supreme
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016 Court ruled that the preference shall be given only to
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Directive Principles of the State Policy mentioned in
question. Article 39(b) and (c) over Fundamental Rights
60. According to which one of the following mentioned in Articles 14 and 19. Hence statement II is
Constitutional Amendments in the Indian correct.
Constitution the Right to Property has been 63. The President’s power to Veto a Bill from
abolished? Amendment of the Constitution has been taken
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 away by substituting the word “shall give the
(b) 43rd Amendment Act, 1977 consent” by which Amendment?
(c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 (a) Twenty third Amendment
(d) 45th Amendment Act, 1979 (b) Twenty fourth Amendment
MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 1994, 2008 (c) Forty second Amendment
(d) Forty fourth Amendment
UPPCS (Mains) SPl. G.S. IInd 2004
RAS/RTS (Pre.) G.S., 2015
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2013, 2014, 2015
U.P. Lower (Pre.) Spl. G.S. 2004 Ans. (c) The President’s power to veto a Bill from
Amendment of the Constitution has been taken away by
UPUDA/LDA Special (Mains) G.S., 2010
substituting the word “shall give the consent” by the
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010-11
42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.
Ans. (c) 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978)
repealed Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31 of the 64. Which one of the following amendments to the
Constitution, which were about the right to acquire, Indian Constitution empowers the President to
hold and dispose of property as a Fundamental Right. send back any matter for reconsideration by
However in another part of the Constitution, Article the Council of Ministers?
300(A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be (a) 39th (b) 40th
deprived of his property save by authority of law. Right (c) 42nd (d) 44th
to Property as a Fundamental Right is substituted as IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002
Legal Right from this amendment. Ans. (d) Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act,
61. During which Prime Minister's regime the 1978, empowers the President to send back any matter
right to property was excluded from the list of for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers.
Fundamental Rights? 65. Which one of the following is not properly
(a) Rajeev Gandhi (b) Morarji Desai matched?
(c) Indra Kumar Gujral (d) H.D. Devogowda (a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment–Funda-
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2012
mental duties
Ans. (b) Right to property was excluded from the list of (b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment–Anti
Fundamental Rights under the regime of Prime Minister
of Morarji Desai in the year 1977. Defection law
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment–Panchayati
62. Consider the following statements:
I. Through 44th Constitutional Amendment, Raj
1978, all the Directive Principles of the State (d) 84th Constitutional Amendment–Centre–
Policy have been given preference over State Relations
Fundamental Rights mentioned in Articles 14 Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S, 2010
and 19. Ans. (d) The Constitution 84th Amendment Act, 2001 is
II. Supreme Court has laid down in its verdict in related to delimitation up to the year of 2026. Rest are
Minerva Mill case, 1980 that the preference properly matched.
shall be given only to Directive Principle of 66. According to 84th Constitutional Amendment
the State Policy mentioned in Article 39(b) Act, till which year the total number of existing
and (c) over Fundamental Rights mentioned seats in Lok Sabha shall remain unaltered?
in Articles 14 and 19. (a) 2041 (b) 2031
(a) Only I is correct. (c) 2026 (d) 2025
(b) Only II is correct. UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
(c) Both I and II are correct.
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) Neither I nor II are correct. question.
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S. 2013
193
67. By which Constitutional Amendment the voting State the correct answer using the codes given
age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years? below:
(a) Sixty third Amendment (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Sixty second Amendment (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Sixty first Amendment IAS (Pre) G.S., 2011
(d) Sixtieth Amendment Ans. (d) The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 Act, 1992 inserted Article 243ZD which mandates that
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2007, 2010, 2014 a District Planning Committee shall be constituted at the
UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2004 district level in every State to consolidate the plans
MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 2010-11 prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in
BPSC (Pre) 2007-08 the district and to prepare a draft development plan for
Ans. (c) The Constitution (Sixty- First Amendment) the district as a whole. Article 243K of the Constitution
Act, 1988, amended Article 326 of the Constitution. It made provision for the State Election Commission to
reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years. conduct Panchayat elections at the State level. Article
68. Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 243I prescribed that the Governor should constitute a
years was exercised for the first time in the Finance Commission to review the financial position of
General Election of the Panchayats.
(a) 1987 (b) 1988 72. Who has been authorized to constitute Finance
(c) 1989 (d) 1990 Commission to review financial position of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2011 Panchayat?
Ans. (c) By the Constitution (Sixty-First Amendment) (a) The Chief Minister of a State
Act, 1988, Article 326 of the Constitution was amended (b) The Speaker of a legislative assembly
to reduce the voting age from 21 years to 18 years and (c) The President of India
was implemented on 18th March, 1989. (d) The Governor of a State
69. Under which of the following Constitutional 7th JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1
Amendments, 30% seats in the village Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Panchayats have been reserved for the woman question.
in India?
73. By which one of the following Constitutional
(a) 70th Amendment (b) 71st Amendment
Amendments Delhi has become 'National
(c) 73rd Amendment (d) 74th Amendment
Capital Region'?
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
(a) 61st Amendment (b) 69th Amendment
Ans. (c) The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) (c) 71st Amendment (d) 79th Amendment
Act, 1992, provided Constitutional status to the
Panchayati Raj Institutions in India through insertion of UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022
Article 243 to Part IX of the Constitution. This UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009
Amendment also provided one-third reservation for Ans. (b) By the commencement of the Constitution
woman in village Panchayats. (Sixty-Ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union
70. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital
refers to the Territory and the Administrator appointed under Article
(a) Generation of gainful employment for the 239 shall be designated as the Lieutenant Governor.
unemployed and the underemployed men and There is a Legislative Assembly for the National
women in rural area Capital Territory of Delhi and the seats in such
(b) Generation of employment for the able bodies Assembly are filled by members chosen by direct
adults who are in need for any desirous of election from territorial constituencies in the National
work during the lean agricultural season Capital Territory.
(c) Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant 74. Delhi has been made National Capital Region
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country by which of the following Amendment?
(d) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and security (a) 67th (b) 68th
of person, equality before law and equal th
protection without discrimination. (c) 69 (d) 70th
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2000 UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. question.
71. The Constitution (Seventy- Third Amendment) 75. Mizoram has been granted the status of the
Act, 1992 which aims at promoting the State by which of the following Constitution
Panchayati Raj Institutions in country, Amendment?
provides for which of the following? (a) 54th (b) 55th
nd
1. Constitution of district planning committee (c) 52 (d) 53rd
2. State Election Commission conducting RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2015
Panchayat elections Ans. (d) The Constitution 53rd Amendment Act, 1986
3. Establishment of State Finance Commission provided statehood to the Mizoram.
194
76. Which one of the following Constitutional (c) It was inserted into the Article 61 of the
Amendments states that the total number of Indian Constitution through Clause (2D) by
Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the the 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act of
Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen 2005.
percent of the total number of members of the (d) It was inserted into the Article 83 of the
Indian Constitution through Clause (1B) by
House of the People?
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
(a) 90th (b) 91st 1976.
(c) 92nd (c) 93rd Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2009 Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (b) The Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment) question.
Act, 2003 inserted clause (1A) in Article 75 of the 80. Which Constitutional Amendment has limited
Constitution which asserts that the total number of the number of Central Ministers to 15% of the
ministers including the Prime Minister in the Council of total numbers of the Lok Sabha?
Ministers shall not exceed fifteen per cent (15%) of the (a) 90th (b) 91st
nd
total number of members of the House of the People (c) 92 (d) None of the above
(Lok Sabha). Further, clause (1A) has been added to UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017
Article 164 of the Constitution which asserts that the Manipur PSC-2016
total number of ministers including the Chief Minister UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam. G.S., 2015
in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed IAS (Pre) G.S., 2007
fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 1st Paper 2004
Legislative Assembly of that State provided that the Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
number of ministers including Chief Minister in a State
81. Under which one of the following Constitution
shall not be less than twelve. Amendments Acts, four languages were added
77. Which of the following Constitutional to the languages under the Eighth schedule of
Amendment Acts restricted the size of the the Constitution of India, thereby raising their
Council of Ministers to 15 Percent of the total number to 22?
members of the Lok Sabha? (a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(a) 95th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2009 (b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(b) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
(c) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 IAS (Pre) G.S., 2008
(d) 90th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 Ans. (c) The Constitution (Ninety-Second Amendment)
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above Act, 2003 added four languages namely Bodo, Dogri,
66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020 Santhali and Maithili to the Eighth Schedule of the
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Constitution thereby raising the total number of
languages to 22 listed in Eighth Schedule. Of these
question. languages, 14 were initially included in the
78. The total number of ministers including the Constitution. Sindhi language was added by the
Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than Constitution (Twenty- First Amendment) Act, 1967.
(a) 12 (b) 10 Thereafter three more languages namely Konkani,
(c) 15 (d) 7 Manipuri and Nepali were included by the Constitution
(Seventy-First Amendment) Act, 1992. Subsequently
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above 82. In 1993, which of the following language was
question. not included in the Eighth Schedule?
79. "The total number of Ministers, including the (a) Maithili (b) Santhali
Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers (c) Bodo (d) Dogri
shall not exceed 15% of the total number of UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2021
members of the House of the People." Choose Ans. (*) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the correct answer with respect to this question.
statement. Note: Commission considered (b) as its correct answer.
(a) It was inserted into the Article 75 of the Indian 83. The total number of official languages in India
Constitution through Clause (1A) by the 91st is
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. (a) 20 (b) 22
(b) It was inserted into the Article 57 of the (c) 24 (d) 26
Indian Constitution through clause (3C) by Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019
the 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act of Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
2000. question.
195
84. Which of these Constitutional amendments Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats
does not pertain to addition of more languages in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were
in the 8th Schedule? discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment
(a) 21st Amendment (b) 71st Amendment Bill of 2019, which was enacted as the 104th
nd
(c) 92 Amendment (d) 29th Amendment Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 89. Which Constitution Amendment added a new
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Article to the Constitution to provide ‘Right to
question. Education’?
85. Manipuri Language was inserted in the 8th (a) 86th Amendment (b) 87th Amendment
th
Schedule of the Constitution of India by: (c) 88 Amendment (d) 89th Amendment
(a) The Constitution (90th Amendment) Act UPPSC (Mains) G.S. IInd 2006
(b) The Constitution (71th Amendment) Act Ans. (a) The Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (72th Amendment) Act Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Constitution to
(d) None of the above provide free and compulsory education of all children in
Manipur PSC-2016 the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental
Right. Article 21A and Right to Education Act came
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
into effect on 1 April 2010.
question.
90. Which of the following Amendments has made
86. The 71st Amendment of the Constitution added
free and compulsory education for children
the following languages to the Eighth Schedule:
between the age of 6 to 14 years as a
(a) Manipuri, Konkani and Nepali
Fundamental Right?
(b) Manipuri, Bodo and Nepali
(a) 8th Amendment (b) 24th Amendment
(c) Bodo, Dogri and Santhali th
(c) 45 Amendment (d) 86th Amendment
(d) Konkani, Maithili and Dogri
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
Manipur PCS - 2013
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
question.
91. ‘Right to Education’ proposed by 86th
87. With which subject the 97th Constitution
Amendment was implemented in which year?
Amendment Act of 2012 is concerned?
(a) From 2002 (b) From 2004
(a) Free and compulsory education of children
(c) From 2008 (d) From 2010
till the age of 14 years
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 1st 2014-15
(b) Organizing and working of co-operative
societies Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
(c) Stringent measure to deal with terrorism
(d) Provision of Lok Pal to prevent corruption 92. Which Constitutional amendment virtually
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005 transferred Article 45 from Part IV (Directive
Principles) to Part III (Fundamental Rights) in
Ans. (b) The Constitution (Ninety-Seventh Amendment)
the form of Article 21 A?
Act, 2011 is related to co-operative societies. By this
(a) 86th Amendment (b) 25th Amendment
Amendment, a new Article 43B was inserted in Part IV
(c) 73rd Amendment (d) 90th Amendment
(Directive Principles) of the Constitution and in Part III
(Fundamental Rights), after word “or Unions” the words Himanchal PSC(Pre) G.S. 2012
“Cooperative Societies” was added. Ans. (a) Article 45 under the Directive Principle of
88. The 79th Amendment of the Indian State Policy from Part IV is regarding provision for free
Constitution is related to and compulsory education for children. The
(a) Centre-State Relations Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
(b) Establishment of two political parties inserted Article 21A in the Constitution to provide free
(c) Fundamental Rights and compulsory education to all children in the age
(d) Reservation of SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right
and State Assemblies under Part III of the Constitution.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009 93. The 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill deals
Ans. (d) The Constitution (Seventy-Ninth Amendment) with the
Act, 2000, extended reservation for Scheduled Caste, (a) Continuation of reservation for backward
Scheduled Tribes and nomination of Anglo Indian classes in educational institutions
members in Parliament and State Assemblies for (b) Free and compulsory education for all
another ten years i.e. up to 2010. children between the age of 6 and 14 years
196
 (c) Reservation of 30 percent post for women in 97. Which one of the following cases prompted
Government recruitments Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional
(d) Allocation of more number of Parliamentary Amendment Act?
seats for recently created States (a) Golaknath case
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002 (b) Minerva Mill case
Ans. (a) The Constitution 93rd Amendment, 2006 added (c) Kesavananda Bharti case
clause (5) in Article 15, which asserts that nothing shall (d) Shankari Prasad case
prevent the State from making any special provision by Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
law for the advancement of any socially and
educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Ans. (a) The Supreme Court in the well-known Golak
Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in so far as Nath case reversed its own earlier decisions
such special provisions relate to their admission to upholding the power of Parliament to amend all parts of
educational institutions including private educational the Constitution including Part III relating to
institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other Fundamental Rights. Constitution (Twenty-Fourth
than the minority educational institutions. Amendment) Act, 1971 amended Article 368 to clarify
94. By which Constitutional Amendment OBCs that when a Constitution Amendment Bill passed by
have been given 27 percent reservation in the both Houses of Parliament is presented to the President
admission to educational institutions? for his assent, he should give his assent thereto. The 24th
(a) 92nd (b) 93rd Amendment Act also seeks to amend Article 13 of
(c) 94th (d) 96th the Constitution to make it inapplicable to any
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 1st Paper 2014 amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 98. The Doctrine of Fundamental Rights cannot be
question. amended under Article 368 was propounded by
95. 93rd Constitutional Amendment is related to the Supreme Court of India in.
whom? (a) Gopalan v/s State of Madras
(a) To Panchayati Raj Institutions (b) Keshavanada Bharati v/s State of Kerala
(b) To Fundamental Duties (c) Golaknath v/s State of Punjab
(c) To the North-Eastern States of India (d) Menaka v/s Union of India
(d) Reservation of OBCs in educational Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
institutions Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Uttarakhand RO/ARO (M) 2016 question.
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 99. Which of the following cases prompted the Indian
question. Parliament to enact 24th Amendment Bill?
96. Consider the following statements about the (a) Golaknath Case
108th Constitutional Amendment Bill: (b) Shankari Prasad Case
(1) It related to reservation of one-third seats in (c) Keshvananda Bharati Case
Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies (d) Shah Banu Case
for women. TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2015
(2) Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 9th March, Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
2010.
question.
(3) Lok Sabha never voted on the Bill.
(4) It was lapsed after the dissolution of the 15th 100. The Constitutional Amendment Act 104th -2019
Lok Sabha. is related to-
(a) Article-334 (b) Article-234
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (c) Article-134 (d) None of above
(a) Only 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4 UPPSC ACF-RFO (Mains) (IInd Paper), 2019
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (a) : Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 Amendment) Act, 2019 came into force on 25th January,
Ans. (d) The Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill, 2008, 2020 to amend Article 334 of the Constitution. Article
seeked to reserve one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha 334 of the Constitution lays down that the provisions of
and the State Legislative Assemblies for women. One- the Constitution relating to the reservation of seats for
third of the total number of seats reserved for SC/ST shall the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the
be reserved for women of those groups in the Lok Sabha representation of the Anglo-Indian community by
and the legislative assemblies. Reserved seats may be nomination in the House of the People and Legislative
allotted by rotation to different constituencies in the State Assemblies of the States shall cease to have effect on
or Union Territory. Reservation of seats for women shall the expiration of the period of 70 years from the
cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of this commencement of the Constitution. In other words,
Amendment Act. The Rajya Sabha passed the bill on these provisions ceased to have effect on the 25th
March 9, 2010. However, the Lok Sabha never voted on January, 2020, if not extended further. Therefore, with a
the bill. The bill lapsed after the dissolution of the 15th view to retaining the inclusive character as envisioned
Lok Sabha in 2014. by the founding fathers of the Constitution, it is
197
proposed through Constitution (One Hundred and Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Fourth Amendment) Act, 2019 to continue the question.
reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the 104. The official name of GST Bill is:
Scheduled Tribes for another ten years i.e. up to 25th (a) A Constitution (121st Amendment) Bill, 2014
January, 2030. (b) The Constitution (121st Amendment) Bill,
Note- In January 2020, the Anglo Indian reserved seats 2015
in the Parliament and State Legislatures of India were (c) The Constitution (122nd amendment) Bill,
discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment 2014
Bill of 2019, which was enacted as the 104th (d) The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill,
2015
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019. OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
101. Which Constitutional amendment is done to Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
pass the GST bill? question.
(a) 101st (b) 120th 105. Which Constitutional Amendment was moved
nd
(c) 122 (d) 115th to turn the goods and Services Bill into a law?
KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II (a) 118th (b) 120th
Ans. (a): In order to implement GST (Goods and (c) 122nd (d) 127th
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017
Services Tax), Constitutional (122nd Amendment) Bill,
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
2014 was introduced in the Parliament and passed by
question.
Rajya Sabha on 03rd August, 2016 and Lok Sabha on
106. The GST Bill which came into implementation
08th August, 2016. The Constitutional Amendment Bill from 1st July, 2017 is:
was passed by more than 15 States and thereafter (a) Bill No. 122 and Act No. 101
President gave assent to “The Constitution (One (b) Bill No. 123 and Act No. 98
Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016” on 8th, (c) Bill No. 119 and Act No. 100
September, 2016. Article 279 A (4) was added to the (d) Bill No. 101 and Act No. 97
Constitution by the Constitution 101st Amendment Act, OPSC (OCS) Pre-2018 Paper-I
through which a GST Council has been set up.
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Note- As per Article 279A of the amended question.
Constitution, the GST Council, which is a joint forum
107. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act the
of the Centre and the States, shall consist of the G.S.T. was introduced?
following members: - (a) 96th (b) 98th
th
1. Union Finance Minister – Chairperson (c) 100 (d) 101th
2. The Union Minister of State, in-charge of Revenue UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
of finance – Member Ans. (d) : Goods and Services Tax (GST) was
3. The Minister in-charge of finance or taxation or any introduced by the Constitution (One Hundred and First
other Minister nominated by each State Government - Amendment) Act, 2016. By this amendment, after
Members Article 246 of the Constitution, the following Article
102. Which of the following Constitution shall be inserted, namely:—
Amendment Acts made necessary provisions 246A.(1) - Notwithstanding anything contained in
for the implementation of GST (Goods and Articles 246 and 254, Parliament and subject to clause
Service Tax) regime? (2), the Legislature of every State, have power to make
(a) 101st Amendment Act laws with respect to goods and services tax imposed by
(b) 102nd Amendment Act the Union or by such State.
(c) 103rd Amendment Act (2) Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with
(d) 104th Amendment Act respect to goods and services tax where the supply of
goods or of services or both takes place in the course of
UPPSC (Pre) 2021
inter-State trade or commerce.
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
108. Match List I with List II and select the correct
question. answer from the code given below:
103. Which Statement among the following is not List-I List-II
true about the GST Council? A. Curtailment of (i) 61st Amendment
(a) It is a statutory body the power of
(b) It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India judicial review
(c) It decides the rates of taxes on goods and B. Abolition of (ii) 42nd Amendment
services except some items. Right to property
(d) It was constituted by the President of India. as a fundamental
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 right

198
 C. Lowering the (iii) 38th Amendment 110. Match List I with List II and select the correct
voting age from answer using the codes given below the Lists:
21 to 18 List-I List-II
(A) The Constitution (i) Establishment of
D. Addition of the (iv) 44th Amendment (sixty-ninth state level Rent
word secular in Amendment) Act, Tribunals
the preamble 1991
Codes: (B) The Constitution (ii) No reservations
A B C D (Seventy-fifth for Scheduled
(a) 1 2 4 3 Amendment) Act, Castes in
1994 Panchayats in
(b) 2 4 1 3 Arunachal Pradesh
(c) 3 4 1 2 (C) The Constitution (iii) Constitution of
(d) 4 1 3 2 (Eightieth Panchayats in
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017 Amendment) Act, Villages or at other
Ans. (c) : The correct match is as follows - 2000 local levels
Curtailment of the power (D) The Constitution (iv) Accepting the
- 38th Amendment (Eighty-third recommendations
of judicial review Amendment) Act, of the Tenth
Abolition of Right to - 44th Amendment 2000 Finance
property as a fundamental Commission
right (v) According the
Lowering the voting age - 61st Amendment Status of National
from 21 to 18 Capital Territory
to Delhi
Addition of the word - 42nd Amendment A B C D
secular in the preamble (a) 5 1 4 2
109. Match List I with List II and select the correct (b) 1 5 3 4
answer from the code given below: (c) 5 1 3 4
List-I List-II (d) 1 5 4 2
A. 93rd 1. Parliaments power IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001
Amendment to amend Ans: (a) The correct match is as follows -
Amendment Provision
Fundamental Rights
The Constitution According the Status of
B. 97th 2. Abolition of
(Sixty-ninth National Capital Territory
Amendment Princely states,
Amendments) Act, to Delhi
titles and pensions
th 1991
C. 24 3. Reservation of
The Constitution Establishment of state
Amendment OBC’s in unaided
(Seventy-fifth level Rent Tribunals
educational
Amendment) Act,1994
institutes
The Constitution Accepting the
D. 26th 4. New Cooperative
(Eightieth recommendations of the
Amendment Act
Amendment) Act,2000 Tenth Finance
Codes: Commission
A B C D
The Constitution No reservations for
(a) 1 3 2 4 (Eighty-third Scheduled Castes in
(b) 3 4 1 2 Amendment) Act,2000 Panchayats in Arunachal
(c) 4 2 3 1 Pradesh
(d) 3 1 2 4 111. Match the following Constitutional
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 Amendments.
Ans. (b) Correctly matched list is give below- List-I List-II
th
rd
93 Amendment Reservation of OBC’s in (a) 13 Amendment (i) Nagaland
(b) 18th Amendment (ii) Anti-defection
unaided educational institutions law
th
97 Amendment New cooperative Act (c) 39th Amendment (iii) Redefined State
24th Amendment Parliament’s power to amend (d) 52nd Amendment (iv) The election of
Fundamental Rights President, Vice-
th President,
26 Amendment Abolition of special privileges Speaker and
of Princely states, titles and Prime Minister
pensions cannot be
challenged
199
 A B C D B. The Constitution 2. Amendment in
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (Ninety Fifth Article 334
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Amendment) Act,
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 2009
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) C. The Constitution 3. Amendment in
(e) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (Ninety Sixth Eight Schedule
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 1st G.S., 2014 Amendment) Act,
Ans. (e) : 2011
List-I List-II D. The Constitution 4. Amendment in
13th Amendment, 1962 Nagaland (One hundred third Article 15
Amendment) Act,
18th Amendment, 1966 Redefined State 2019
39th Amendment, 1975 The election of
Code:
President, Vice-
President, Speaker A B C D
and Prime Minister (a) 1 2 3 4
cannot be challenged (b) 1 2 4 3
52nd Amendment, 1985 Anti-defection law (c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
112. Match the List I with List II and select the
UPPSC RO/ARO (Mains) 2016
correct answer using the code given below the
Ans (a):
lists.
(Act) (Amendment)
Amendment of the Subject The Constitution - Amendment in
Constitution of India (Ninety Fourth Article 164
a 52nd Amendment 1. Reduction of Amendment) Act, 2006
voting age from The Constitution - Amendment in
21 years to 18 (Ninety Fifth Article 334
years Amendment) Act, 2009
b. 73nd Amendment 2. Right of The Constitution - Amendment in Eight
Education (Ninety Sixth Schedule
Amendment) Act, 2011
c. 61st Amendment 3. Panchayati Raj The Constitution (One - Amendment in
d. 86th Amendment 4. Disqualification hundred third Article 15
on grounds of Amendment) Act, 2019
defection 114. Match List-I with List-II in connection with the
A B C D amendment of Indian Constitution and select
(a) 4 1 3 2 correct answer from the option given below:
(b) 2 3 1 4 List-I List-II
(c) 4 3 1 2 (i) 73rd Amendment (a) Introduction of
Panchayat Raj
(d) 2 1 3 4
Addition of part IX
J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I) to the Indian
Ans. : (c) Constitution
Amendment of Subject (ii) 86th Amendment (b) Free and compulsory
Constitution of India education to children
52nd Amendment - Disqualification on between 6 and 14
(iii) 100th Amendment years
ground of defection
(c) Introduction of Gods
73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj and Services Tax
61st Amendment - Reduction of voting (iv) 101st Amendment (GST)
age from 21 years to (d) Exchange of some
18 years enclave territories
86th Amendment - Right to education with Bangladesh,
113. Match List-I with List-II and select correct Conferment of
answer from the code given below: citizenship rights to
List-I List-II citizens of enclave's
(Act) (Amendment) resulting to signing
A. The Constitution 1. Amendment in of Land Boundary
(Ninety Fourth Article 164 Agreement (LBA)
Amendment) Act, Treaty between India
2006 and Bangladesh

200
 a b c d Ans. (c) : The Puducherry was incorporated in the
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Union of India by the 14th Constitutional Amendment
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Act, 1962.
(c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 118. Which of the following Schedule was inserted
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) by the 74th Amendment Act?
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 (a) 12th Schedule (b) 11th Schedule
Ans. (d): 73rd Amendment Act was passed in 1992 and th
(c) 13 Schedule (d) 10th Schedule
it came in to effect on 24th April 1993. The Act TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
empowered State governments to take the necessary
Ans. (a) : 11th and 12th schedule was inserted by 73rd
steps that would lead to the formalization of the Gram
and 74th constitutional amendment respectively.
Panchayat.
86th Amendment inserted Article 21A in Indian 119. 52nd Constitution Amendment is related to
Constitution that provides “The State shall provide free (a) Anti Defection
and compulsory education to all children of 6 to 14 (b) Reservation
years in such manner as the State, may by law (c) Election
determine.” (d) Reservation of the minorities
100th Amendment gave effect to acquiring of certain UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2006
territories by India and transfer of certain other Ans. (a) The Tenth Schedule, popularly known as Anti-
territories to Bangladesh. Defection Act was included in the Constitution by 52nd
101st Amendment introduced a National Goods and Constitution Amendment Act, 1985. Disqualification
Services Tax (GST) in India from 1 July 2017. under the grounds of Anti-Defection Law under Article
115.The concept of ‘Basic Structure of the 102(2) [For Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha] and 191(2)
Constitution’ was propounded by the Supreme [For State Legislature and State Legislative Council] is-
Court in the case of (i) If an elected member voluntarily gives up his
(a) Keshvanand Bharti vs State of Kerala – 1973 membership of a political party
(b) Golaknath vs State of Punjab – 1967 (ii) If he votes or abstains from voting in such House
(c) Chitralekha vs State of Mysore – 1964 contrary to any direction issued by his political party or
(d) Yusuf vs State of Bombay – 1954 anyone authorized to do so without obtaining prior
UPPCS Pre 2022 permission.
Ans. (a): The doctrine of basic structure was 120. Which one of the following amendments to the
propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of Constitution of India sought to curb political
Kesavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala in 1973. In defections?
this case, the Supreme Court redefined the relationship (a) 42nd (b) 52nd
between the judiciary, executive and legislature and set (c) 62nd (d) 70th
limits on the amendments that can be made to the
GOA PSCS, 2022
Constitution.
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Basic Structure of the question.
1.
Constitution 121. The Tenth Schedule added to the Constitution
of India by the 52nd Amendment relates to:
116. Under which Constitutional amendment
(a) Anti-defection law (b) Land Reforms
reservations to Economically Weaker Sections
(c) Panchayati Raj (d) Languages.
(EWS) was given?
Himanchal PSC (Pre), G.S, 2011
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 103rd Amendment
th
(c) 104 Amendment (d) 105th Amendment Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 question.
rd
Ans. (b) : 103 Constitutional amendment gives 122. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be
reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). created, which one of the following Schedules
of the Constitution must be amended?
117. Which constitutional amendment incorporated
Puducherry in the Union on India? (a) First (b) Second
(a) Tenth (b) Twelfth (c) Third (d) Fourth
(c) Fourteenth (d) Twenty second UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011
(e) Answer not known Ans. (a) If a new state is to be created, first Schedule of
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 the Constitution is to be amended.

201

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15.
Emergency Provisions
1. Which of the following is/are the 4. Which one of the following is the correct
consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, statement with regard to the Emergency
declaration of a financial emergency? Provisions of Indian Constitution?
1. The President may order the States to reduce (a) The Constitution mentions four types of
the salaries and allowances of all or any class of emergency.
employees serving in connection with the State (b) Emergency provisions are described from
affairs. Articles 340 to 356 in the Constitution.
2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by (c) Financial emergency has never been imposed
the State Legislature are not required to be in India.
reserved for the consideration of the President. (d) Emergency under Article 356 can be imposed
3. The President can issue directions for the on the failure of Constitutional Machinery at
reduction of salaries and allowances of all or the union level.
any class of employees serving in connection Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
with the affairs of the Union, including the Ans. (c) Part XVIII of the Constitution has made
Judges of the Supreme Court and the High provision for three types of emergencies namely
Courts. national emergency (Article 352), emergency due to
4. Money Bills or other financial bills are to be failure of Constitutional machinery in States (Article
reserved for the consideration of the President
after they are passed by the Legislature of the 356) and financial emergency (Article 360). Financial
State. emergency has never been imposed in India till date.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 5. How many emergency provisions are there
below. under the Constitution of India?
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4 (b) Only 2 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) Only 1 and 2 (d) All of the above (c) 3 (d) 1
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2014
Ans. (a) : The consequences invoking Article 360 Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(Declaration of a financial emergency) are following :- question.
• The president may order the states to reduce the 6. If the President of India exercises his power as
salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees provided under Article 356 of the Constitution
serving in connection with state affairs.
in respect of a particular state, then
• Money bills or other financial bills are to be reserved (a) The Assembly of the state is automatically
for consideration of the president after they are passed dissolved
by Legislature of the state.
(b) The powers of the Legislature of that State
• Also, the president can issue directions for the
reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class shall be exercisable by or under the authority
of persons serving in connection with affairs of Union, of the Parliament
including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High (c) Article 19 is suspended in that state
Courts. (d) The President can make laws relating to that
2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution has State
the provisions for a Financial Emergency? IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
(a) Art. 254 (b) Art. 354 Ans. (b) Article 356 carries the marginal heading
(c) Art. 260 (d) Art. 360 ‘Provisions in case of failure of Constitutional machinery
in States’. When Article 356 is imposed, President
Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022 dismisses the Council of Ministers headed by Chief
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above question. Minister and administers state through Governor. The
3. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the Assembly of the State is not dissolved. President may
following Articles of the Indian Constitution suspend or terminate the Assembly only after the
proclamation is being passes by the Parliament. Hence
was to remain a dead-letter? statement 1 is not correct.
(a) Article 360 (b) Article 356 If the President rule is imposed under Article 356,
(c) Article 352 (d) Article 32 President may by proclamation assume to himself all or
Himanchal (PSC) Pre, G.S, 2014 any of the functions of the Government of the State and is
Ans. (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, while seeking adoption of exercisable by the Governor of the State, President
Articles 356 had ironically stressed that members ought declares that the powers of the Legislature of the State
to expect that “such Article will never be called into shall be exercisable by or under the authority of
operation and that they would remain a dead letter”. Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct.
202
According to the Constitution 44th Amendment, Also the Apex Court made it clear that a Presidential
freedoms listed in Article 19 can be suspended only in Proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial
case of proclamation on the ground of war or external review. The verdict also categorically ruled that the
aggression. Hence statement 3 is not correct. floor of the Assembly is the only forum that should test
When President Rule is imposed under Article 356, the majority of the government of the day and not the
Parliament (Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President) can subjective opinion of the Governor.
make laws relating to that State. Hence statement 4 is not 10. Consider the following statements in respect of
correct. financial emergency under Article 360 of the
7. Which of the following are not necessarily the Constitution of India:
consequences of the proclamation of the (1) A Proclamation of financial emergency
President’s rule in a State? issued shall cease to operate at the expiration
(1) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly of two months, unless before the expiration of
(2) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the that period it has been approved by the
State resolution of both houses of Parliament.
(3) Dissolution of the local bodies (2) If the proclamation of financial emergency is
Select the correct answer using the code given in operation, it is competent for the President
below: of India to issue directions for the reduction
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only of salaries and allowances of all or any class
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of persons serving in connection with the
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017 affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges
Ans. (b) Article 356 of the Constitution is regarding the of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
provisions, in case of failure of Constitutional Which of the statements given above is/are
machinery in State. Once Article 356 (President’s rule) correct?
is imposed, the Government of the State (Council of (a) 1 only (b) 2only
Ministers) will not be functional and the State will come (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
under the direct control of the Central Government
through the Governor. When the President's rule is IAS (Pre) G.S., 2007
imposed, the assembly either is dissolved or is Ans. (a) Article 360 of the Constitution of India is
suspended for the time. Dissolution of the local bodies regarding provisions as to Financial Emergency.
is not related to President Rule under Article 356. Financial Emergency shall cease to operate at the
8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals expiration of two months unless before the expiration of
with the imposition of the President's rule? that period, it has been approved by resolutions of both
(a) Article 344 (b) Article 356 Houses of Parliament. Article 360 (4) (b) asserts that if
(c) Article 375 (d) Article 344 Financial Emergency is in operation, President may
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021 issue directions for the reduction of salaries and
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 allowances of all or any class of persons serving in
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017 connection with the affairs of the Union including the
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
question. Financial Emergency may be revoked or varied by a
9. In which case did the Supreme Court deliver subsequent proclamation.
the landmark Judgment dealing with 11. Under which Article of the Constitution,
imposition of President's Rule in the States? Financial Emergency can be imposed?
(a) Golaknath (b) Maneka Gandhi (a) 350 (b) 352
(c) Minerva Mills (d) S.R. Bommai (c) 356 (d) 360
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 UPPSC (Pre) ACF-RFO Mains
Ans. (d) : S.R. Bommai was the Chief Minister of the (IInd Paper), 2019
Janata Dal government in Karnataka. His government Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
was dismissed on April 21, 1989 under Article 356 of question.
the Constitution and President’s Rule was imposed on 12. Article 360 of the Indian Constitution deals
March 11, 1994.He moved to Supreme Court, where a with-
nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (a) War emergency
issued the historic order , which in a way put an end to (b) Constitutional Emergency in the States.
the arbitrary dismissal of State governments under (c) Financial Emergency
Article 356 by spelling out restrictions. (d) Administrative Emergency
The verdict concluded that the power of the President to TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2015
dismiss a State government is not absolute. The verdict Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
said that the President should exercise the power only question.
after his proclamation is approved by both Houses of 13. How many times Financial Emergency has
Parliament. Till then, the President can only suspend the been imposed in India?
Legislative Assembly by suspending the provisions of (a) 5 times (b) 4 times
Constitution relating to the Legislative Assembly. In (c) Once (d) Never
case both Houses of Parliament disapprove or do not UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2006
approve the Proclamation, the Proclamation lapses at
the end of the two-month period. In such a case, the Ans.(d): Financial Emergency in India has never been
government which was dismissed revives. imposed till date.
203
 14. What is correct about external emergency as Ans. (d) Once imposed, President Rule can continue for
per Article 352? 6 months and can be extended to a maximum of 3 years,
(i) It is proclaimed by the President. subject to Parliament’s approval for every six months. It
(ii) It should be approved by the Parliament can be revoked any time by a simple majority in the
within two months. Parliament.
(iii) It should be approved by the Parliament 19. The term of Legislative Assembly could be
within one month. extended during emergency-
(iv) It should be approved by the Parliament by (a) By the President
simple majority. (b) By the Governor of the State
(v) It should be approved by the Parliament by (c) By the State Legislative Assembly
2/3 majority. (d) By the Parliament
(vi) It can be revoked by simple majority in UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. Spl., 2004
Parliament. Ans. (d) While a Proclamation of National Emergency
(vii) It can be revoked by 2/3 majority in is in operation, the Parliament may extend the normal
Parliament. tenure of a legislative assembly (5 years) by one year
(viii) It can be approved in joint session of each time. It is subject to a maximum period of 6
Parliament. months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (viii) (b) (i) (iii) (vi) (viii)
(c) (i) (iii) (v) (vi) (d) (i) (iv) (vi) (viii) 20. Which one of the following cannot be
(e) None of the above suspended or restricted even during national
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 emergency?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of the
Ans.(c): Article 352 of the Constitution is regarding country.
proclamation of National Emergency. President can (b) Right to life and personal liberty.
proclaim National Emergency at any part of the country (c) Right to move freely throughout the territory
or whole India on the ground of “War” or “External
Aggression” or “Armed Rebellion”. of India.
The President can proclaim a National Emergency only (d) Right to carry on any profession or business.
after receiving a written recommendation from the UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008
Cabinet. Article 352(4) asserts that the Proclamation of Ans. (b) During National Emergency, all Fundamental
national emergency must be approved by both houses of Rights are deemed to be suspended except Article
Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
Article 352(6) asserts that a resolution may be passed by 20(Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and
either House of Parliament only by a majority of the total Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty).
membership of that House and by a majority of not less 21. Even during Emergency, the following rights
than two thirds of the members of that House present and cannot be suspended:
voting. Article 352(8) asserts that such resolution could be (a) Right under Article 21
revoked by a simple majority in the Parliament. (b) Right under Article 19
15. Which of the following is not the ground for (c) Right under Article 14
the proclamation of National Emergency? (d) Right under Article 22
(a) War APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
(b) External aggression Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Threat to internal peace question.
(d) Armed rebellion
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016 22. Some of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in
the Indian Constitution can be suspended only
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above by:
question. (a) A proclamation of National emergency
16. Which one of the following is the time limit for (b) Any act passed by the Lok Sabha
the ratification of an emergency period by the (c) Government Notification
Parliament? (d) The judicial decision of the Supreme Court
(a) 14 days (b) 1 month TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017
(c) 3 month (d) 6 months Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2006 question.
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 23. Under which Article of the Indian
question. Constitution, it is the duty of the Union
17. A proclamation of emergency must be placed Government to protect States against external
before the Parliament for its approval- aggression and internal disturbance?
(a) Within one month (b) Within two month (a) 355 (b) 356
(c) Within six month (d) Within one year
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. 2003 (c) 352 (d) 360
RAS/RTS (Pre.) G.S., 2008
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Ans. (a) Article 355 of the Constitution asserts that it
18. President’s Rule can be imposed for a shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State
maximum period of- against external aggression and internal disturbance and
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years to ensure that the Government of every State is carried
(c) 6 months (d) 3 years on in accordance with the provisions of the
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1992 Constitution.
204

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16.
Centre-State Relations and
Inter-State Relations
India, wound be shared between the Center
1. Centre-State Relations and the States.
II. Article 268A and Article were both repealed
1. In the context of Center- State Relations which Constitution of India were both repealed by
of the following statement/statements are same Constitutional Amendment Act.
valid? III. Tax on the sale of petroleum crude is levied
I. Punchhi Commission had recommended that by the Centre but collected by the States.
the procedure that is followed for that removal IV. The net proceeds of tax categories that are
of President should also be applicable for the falling under Article 269 of the constitution of
impeachment of Governors as well. India, do not form a part of the Consolidated
II. The law that is made by the parliament with Fund of India.
respect to any matter in the State List in Which of the above statement/statements is/are
relation to the State in which President's rule is valid?
imposed, cannot be re-enacted by the State (a) II and IV (b) Only IV
Legislature after the President's rule is ended. (c) Only III (d) I and III
III. The Sarkaria Commission was not the first APPSC (Pre) 2023
to recommend establishment of an Inter-State Ans. (b) : The proceeds of the surcharges that are levied
Council. on taxes and duties referred to in Article 269 and Article
IV. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a resolution 270 of the Constitution of India, is not shared between
declaring interest that the Parliament should the Center and the States.
make laws with respect to Goods and Services Article 268 A of the constitution was repealed by 101st
Tax. Amendment Act while Article 272 was repealed the
Select the correct answer using the codes given 80th Amendment Act. Tax on sale of Petroleum crude is
below: levied and collected by centre.
(a) Only III The net proceeds of tax categories that are falling under
(b) I and III Article 269 of the constitution of India, shall be
(c) II, III and IV assigned to states and distributed among states and do
(d) I, III and IV not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
APPSC (Pre) 2023 3. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (b) : Punchhi Commission had recommended that (1) According to Article 262 of the Indian
the procedure that is followed for that removal of Constitution, the Parliament may by law
President should also be applicable for the impeachment provide for the adjudication of interstate river
of Governors as well. water dispute.
Laws made during Presidents rule in state remain (2) Article 262 empowers the President of India
effective even after end of President rule. to set up an interstate river water dispute
Establishment of Inter State council was firstly tribunal.
recommended by first Administrative Reform Select the incorrect statements:
Commission. (a) Both 1 and 2
Only Rajya Sabha can pass resolution empowering (b) Only 1
parliament to make laws on subjects of state list in (c) Only 2
National Interest. GST is not the subject of state list. (d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
Thus, only statements I and III are correct. Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
Ans. (c) Article 262 of the Constitution is regarding
2. Consider the following statements in
adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter State
connection with the distribution of tax revenues rivers or river valleys which asserts that the Parliament
between the Center and the States: may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute
I. The proceeds of the surcharges that are or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or
levied on taxes and duties referred to in Article control of the waters of, or in, any inter State river or
269 and Article 270 of the Constitution of river valley. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
205
The Parliament has enacted Inter-State River Water Ans. (d) Article 249(1) of the Constitution asserts that if
Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019 to Constitution of a the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported
single tribunal with different benches and the setting up by not less than two thirds of the members present and
of strict timelines for adjudication. voting that it is necessary or expedient in national
interest that Parliament should make laws with respect
4. Match List-I with List-II : to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in
List - I List II the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make
A. Stamp duties and I. Duties levied by the laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India
duties on medical Union Government with respect to that matter while the resolution remains
but collected and in force. Article 249(2) further asserts that a resolution
appropriated by the passed under clause (1) shall remain in force for such
state period not exceeding one year.
B. Duties on II. Taxes levied and 6. Which of the following statements are correct
succession to collected by the regarding the legal relationship between the
property other than Union but assigned Central and State Government in India?
agricultural land to the States A. The subject of transfer of property other than
C. Taxes on income III. Taxes levied and agricultural land is included in the Concurrent
other than collected by the Union List.
corporation tax and and distributed B. The subject of wealth tax on property other
taxes on between the Union than agricultural land is included in the Union
agricultural income and the States List.
D. Excise duty on iv. Taxes levied and C. The subject of entertainment tax is included in
items other than collected by the the Concurrent List.
medical and toilet Union but which D. The subject of 'Antiquities Museum' is
preparation may be distributed included in the StateList.
between the Union (a) A, B and C (b) B, C and D
and the states (c) A, B and D (d) A, C and D
Choose the correct answer from the options MH PSC (Pre) 2023
given below: Ans. (c) : Entry 6 of concurrent list (List III) mentions
A B C D the transfer of property other than agricultural land.
(a) I II III IV Thus, statement (A) is correct. Entry 86 of Union list
(b) I III IV II (List-I) mentions "taxes on the capital value of assets
(c) II I III IV exclusive of agricultural land". Thus, statement (B) is
correct.
(d) I IV III II
Entry 62 of state list (List-II) mentions taxes on
Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020 "entertainment". Thus, statement (C) is incorrect.
Ans. (a) : Entry 12 of state list (List-II) mention about Museums.
A. Stamp duties and I. Duties levied by the Thus, statements (D) is correct.
duties on medical Union Government but 7. Which one of the following Commission did
collected and recommend the establishment of an Inter-
appropriated by the State Government Council in place of Inter-State
(Article 268) Council?
B. Duties on succession II. Taxes levied and (a) Rajmannar Commission
to property other collected by the Union (b) Punchhi Commission
than agricultural but assigned to the States (c) Administrative Reforms Commission, 1969
land (Article 269) (d) Sarkaria Commission 1969
C. Taxes on income III. Taxes levied and (e) Question not attempt
other than collected by the Union RPSC (Pre) 2023
corporation tax and and distributed between Ans.(d): Sarkaria Commission made total 247
taxes on agricultural the Union and the States recommendations to improve centre-state relations. Its
one of recommendation was to setup a Permanent Inter-
income (Article 270) State Council called Inter-Government Council.
D. Excise duty on items IV Taxes levied and The commission was appointed in 1983 under the
other than medical collected by the Union chairmanship of R.S. Sarkaria, a retired Judge of
and toilet but which may be Supreme Court.
preparation distributed between the 8. Arrange in chronological order
Union and the States 1. Sarkaria Commission
(Article 272) 2. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
5. A resolution passed under clause (1) of Article 3. Rajamannar Committee
249 shall remain in force for a period not 4. Administrative Reforms Commission
exceeding (a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(a) One month (b) Three months (c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) Six months (d) One year (e) Answer not known
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2016 TNPSC (Pre) 2022
206
Ans. (b) : The correct Chronological order of committee (a) Dave Committee
are as follows :- (b) G. V. Ramkrishna Committee
• Balwantrai Mehta Committee - 1957 (c) M.M. Punchhi Commission
• Administrative Reforms Commission - 1966 (d) J. K. Santhanam Committee
• Rajamannar Committee - 1969 Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
• Sarkaria Commission - 1983 APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017)
9. Which Article of the Indian Constitution Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
describes "The executive power of every state question.
shall be so exercised as not to impede or
prejudice the exercise of the executive power of 13. As recommended by Justice M.M. Punchhi
the Union"? Commission on Centre - State relations, the
(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258 Governor of a State shall have
(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356 (a) a tenure fixed for 3 years
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022 (b) no fixed tenure
Ans.. (a) : Article 257 of the constitution "The (c) a tenure determined by the State Assembly
executive power of every state shall be so exercised as (d) a tenure fixed for 5 years
not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
power of the Union. Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
10. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution refers to question.
(a) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha 14. Which of the following recommendations of the
(b) Appointment powers of the President Rajamanar Committee on Centre-State
(c) Administered powers of the Parliaments
relation has been accepted by the then Central
(d) Legislative power of the parliament with
Government?
respect to subjects in the state
(a) Transfer of certain provisions from Union
Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2022
List and Concurrent list to State List
Ans. (d) : Article 249 empowers the Parliament to
legislate with respect to a matter in the state list in the (b) Omission of Article 256, 357 and 365
national interest. (c) Replacement of Planning Commission with a
statutory body
11. Which of the following is not related to Center-
State relationship? (d) None of the above
(a) Sarkaria Commission Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
(b) Rajamannar Committee Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Indrajit Gupta Commission question.
(d) Punchhi Commission 15. The recommendations of Sarkaria Commission
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015 relate to which of the following?
Ans: (c) The Indrajit Gupta Committee was related to (a) Distribution of revenue
State funding of election which backed the idea of State (b) Power and functions of the President
funding of elections on principle. Sarkaria Commission (c) Membership of Parliament
was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and (d) Centre-State relations
balance of power between State and Central government UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
and suggest the setting up a permanent Inter-State Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Council. Rajamannar Committee was appointed by Tamil
question.
Nadu Government in 1969 to examine Center-State
relationship. One of its recommendations was abolition 16. Which Commission advocated the
of All India Services. Government of India rejected all its establishment of a permanent Inter-state
recommendations. The Government of India constituted Council, called 'Inter-governmental Council?
Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations on 27th (a) Punchhi Commission
April 2007 to look into the new issues of Centre-State (b) Sarkaria Commission
relations keeping in view the changes that have taken (c) Radhakrishnan Commission
place in the polity and economy of India. Punchhi (d) Moily Commission
Commission in its report recommended that there should Jharkhand PSC (Pre.) G.S. Ist Paper, 2013
be provision for impeachment of the Governor by the
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
State Legislature along the same line as that of President
question.
of India and should have a fixed tenure of five years.
17. Which of the following was the member of
12. Which one of the following Commissions/
Sarkaria Commission?
Committees recommended that 'there should
(a) V.Shankar (b) K. Hanumanthhaiya
be provision for impeachment of the Governor
(c) Dr.S.R.Sen (d) O.V.Algesan
by the State Legislature along the same line as
that of President of India? UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017

207
Ans. (c) With a view to reviewing the working of the 22. The source of the formation of Inter State
existing arrangements between the Union and the States Council is-
in the changed socio-economic scenario, the (a) Constitutional provision
Government of India on June 9, 1983 constituted a (b) Parliamentary law
commission under the Chairmanship of Justice R.S. (c) Recommendation of Planning Commission
Sarkaria with Shri B. Sivaraman and Dr. S.R. Sen as its
(d) Ethics approved after Chief Ministers meeting
members. Sarkaria commission has submitted his final
report in October 1987. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2000
18. "Cooperative Federalism" in Centre - State Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
relations is recommended for the first time by question.
(a) Sarkaria Commission 23. Under which Article of the Constitution Inter-
(b) Rajamannar Commission State Council is being constituted?
(c) Venkatachaliah Commission (a) Article 254 (b) Article 260
(d) M.M. Punchhi Commission (c) Article 263 (d) Article 267
APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017) U.P. Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2009
Ans.(a): "Cooperative Federalism" in Centre State Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
relations was recommended for the first time by question.
Sarkaria Commission. The essence of co-operative 24. Center and State Governments gets
federalism is that the Centre and the State Governments authorization-
should be guided by the broader national concerns of (a) From Constitution of India
using the available resources for the benefit of the (b) From President of India
people. Co-operative federalism encourages the (c) From Prime Minister of India
Government at different levels to take advantage of a (d) From the Parliament of India
large national market, diverse and rich natural resources UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. IInd Paper
and the potential of human capabilities in all parts of the
Ans. (a) The Constitution of India provides a dual polity
country and from all sections of the society for building
with a clear division of power between Union and States,
a prosperous nation.
each being supreme within the sphere allotted to it. Article
19. The Chairman of Sarkaria Commission was- 245 to 255 in part XI of the Constitution of India deals
(a) Ranjit Singh Sarkaria with the legislative relationship between Center and State.
(b) Rajiv Singh Sarkaria
25. Which part and chapter of the Indian
(c) Sivaraman Singh Sarkaria
Constitution deal with the legislative relations
(d) Ramesh Singh Sarkaria between the Union and the States?
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014 (a) Part XI and Chapter I
Ans.(a): Sarkaria Commission constituted on June 9, (b) Part XI and Chapter II
1983 under the chairmanship of Ranjit Singh Sarkaria. (c) Part XII and Chapter I
20. On the recommendation of which Commission / (d) Part XII and Chapter II
Committee, the Inter-State Council was set up UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012
in India? Ans. (a) Part XI and Chapter I of the Constitution of India
(a) Punchhi Commission deals with the legislative relations between the Union and
(b) Rajmannar Committee the States while chapter II deals with administrative
(c) Kothari Committee relations between the Union and the States.
(d) Sarkaria Commission
26. Which one of the following Articles of the
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 Constitution of India says that the executive
APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017) power of every State shall be so exercised as
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the
21. Who is the Chairman of the Inter-State execution power of the Union?
Council? (a) Article 257 (b) Article 258
(a) The President of India (c) Article 355 (d) Article 356
(b) The Union Cabinet IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014
(c) The Prime Minister Ans. (a) Article 257(1) of the Constitution asserts that
(d) The Union Home Minister the executive power of every State shall be so exercised
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the
Ans.(c): Prime minister acts as the chairman of the executive power of the Union and the executive power
Interstate Council. The Inter-State Council is a of the Union shall extend to the giving of such
constitutional body setup on the basis of provisions in directions to a State as may appear to the Government
Article 203 of the constitution of India. of India to be necessary for that purpose.

208
27. Division of Constitutional power between 31. In order to impose any international treaty at
Center and State is provided in- any part of India or whole India, Parliament
(a) Fifth Schedule (b) Sixth Schedule could make any law?
(a) With the consent of all States
(c) Seventh Schedule (d) Eight Schedule
(b) With the consent of majority States
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 1993
(c) With the consent of related States
Ans. (c) Division of Constitutional power between
(d) Without the consent of any State
Center and State is provided in the Seventh Schedule of
the Constitution. It has been divided in three lists AP PSC Group-2 Screening-2019
namely Union, State and Concurrent list. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2006

28. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India Ans. (d) Article 253 of the Constitution asserts that the
Parliament has power to make law for the whole or any
distributes power between the Union and the
part of the territory of India for implementing any
States?
treaty, agreement or convention with any other country
(a) First Schedule (b) Second Schedule or countries or any decision made at any international
(c) Sixth Schedule (d) Seventh Schedule conference, association or other body, without the
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I consent of any state.
Ans.(d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. 32. Where there is conflict between the Concurrent
List and the State List:
29. Constitution of India provides three Articles
(a) Matter will be referred to the speaker of Lok
for the division of power between Center and
Sabha
States. Which of the two Articles among given
(b) Matter will be referred to the President
Articles regulates the distribution of power?
(c) Concurrent List shall prevail
(a) Article 245 and 246 (b) Article 4 and 5
(d) State List shall prevail
(c) Article 141 and 142 (d) Article 56 and 57
TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2003
Ans.(c): According to the Article 254 of Constitution of
Ans. (a) The relationship between Center and State are India, If there is a conflict between the law made under
divided as legislative relations, administrative relations Concurrent list and that of under the State list, the law
and financial relations. Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of made under the Concurrent list shall prevail.
the Constitution deals with the legislative relations
between the Center and the State. Article 256 to 263
deals with administrative relationship while Article 268
2. Inter-state Relations
to 293 deals with the provisions of financial relations
33. In which of the following, the Parliament, by
between Center and States.
law, excluded the jurisdiction of the Supreme
30. The Provisions regarding division of taxes Court in dispute between the States of India?
between the Union and the States (A) Water of inter-State rivers or river valleys
(a) Can be suspended during financial emergency. (B) Matters referred to Finance Commission
(b) Can be suspended during National emergency. (C) Adjustment of certain expenses between
(c) Cannot be suspended under any circumstances. Union and States under Article 290
(d) Can be suspended only with the consent of (D) A dispute arising out of any treaty or
majority of the state Legislatures. agreement etc.
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010-11 Select the correct answer using the codes given
below :
Ans. (b) During national emergency, the President by
Codes :
order can direct that all provisions regarding division of
(a) (A), (C), (D) only (b) (B), (C), (D) only
taxes and grants-in-aid remain suspended. However
such suspension shall not go beyond the expiration of (c) (A), (B), (D) only (d) (A), (B), (C), (D)
the financial year. Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023

209
Ans. (d) : Supreme Court has original exclusive 35. Which of the following is/are extra-
jurisdiction over dispute between two states. However Constitutional and extra legal device(s) for
this jurisdiction does not extend to following :- securing cooperation and coordination between
(a) A dispute arising out of any treaty or agreement etc. the States in India?
which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction I. National Development Council
does not extend to such a dispute. II. The Governors Conference
(b) Inter-State water disputes :- The inter-State River III. Zonal Councils
water disputes Act. 1956 mentions neither Supreme IV. The Inter-State Council
Court nor any other court have jurisdiction in Choose the correct answer from the codes
respect of any water dispute. given below:
(c) Matters referred to the finance commission. Codes:
(d) Adjustment of certain expenses between the center (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
and the states. (c) III and IV (d) IV Only
34. Which of the following statements are correct I.A.S. (Pre) G.S. 1995
regarding North Eastern Council?
Ans.(*): National Development Council is neither a
(1) Both the Governors and the Chief Ministers Constitutional nor a statutory body but it is an apex
of the North Eastern States are the members body for decision making on development matters in
of the North Eastern Council. India. It was set up in 1951. The Governor's conference
(2) It functions as a regional planning body for is also extra constitutional and extra legal conference.
the North-Eastern area. However Zonal council and inter council are statutory
(3) Priority is given to projects and schemes body and constitutional body respectively. Zonal
which will benefit two or more states of the Councils and Inter-State Councils are also tools for
North-Eastern area. securing cooperation and coordination between the
States in India.
(a) (1) and (2) only (b) (1) and (3) only
(c) (2) and (3) only (d) (1), (2) and (3) 36. Which one of the following is not a feature of a
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) Zonal Council?
Ans. (d): The North Eastern Council (NEC) was (a) It is a Constitutional body
established by North Eastern Council Act, 1971 for (b) Five Zonal Councils have been set up under
securing balanced and coordinated development and the States Reorganization Act, 1956
facilitating effective co-ordination amongst seven (c) Chandigarh although not a state is included in
North-Eastern States (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Zonal Council
Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland Tripura). (d) It is an Advisory body
Sikkim was added as 8th Member State and North
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
Eastern Council was mandated to function as a statutory
Ans. (a) Five Zonal Councils were established in the
Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern Region.
year 1957 under states Reorganization Act, 1956
The Council comprises of Governors and Chief
Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern. It
Ministers of constituent States and three members to be
meant to provide a common meeting ground to the
nominated by the President. The Union Home Minister
States and Union Territories in each zone. It is an
is ex-officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council and
statutory body advisory body not a Constitutional body.
Minister of State for Ministry of development of North
Each Zonal Councils consists of the following
Eastern Region (MDONER) is the ex-officio Vice-
members:-
Chairman of the North Eastern Council. Government
a) Home Minister of Central Government.
always gives priority to those projects, which will
benefit two or more North- Eastern States. Hence, all b) Chief Ministers of all the states in the zone.
the statements are correct. c) Two other Ministers from each state in the zone.

210
 d) Administrator of each Union Territory in the zone. (4) Joint meetings of two or more Zonal Councils
The Home Minister of Central government is the are presided over by the Union Home Minister.
common Chairman of the five Zonal Councils. Each (a) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Chief Minister acts as a Vice-Chairman of the Council (b) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct
by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a (c) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct
time. The Zonal Council meetings are chaired by the
Union Home Minister. Chandigarh falls under the (d) Statements 3 and 4 are correct
Northern Zone Council. Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2018
37. Which of the following statements about Zonal Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Councils are not correct? question.
(1) The Zonal Councils are the Constitutional bodies. 41. The Chairman of Zonal Council in India is:
(2) They are established by the States (a) Finance Minister
Reorganisation Act of 1956. (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(3) Home Minister of the Central Government is (c) Union Home Minister
the Chairman of Zonal Councils. (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(4) India is divided into seven zones and OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
provided a Zonal Council for each zone.
Ans.(c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 4
42. Which of the following states is NOT the
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above member of Western Zonal Council?
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2017 (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
Ans.(b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. (c) Rajasthan (d) None of the above
38. The Chairman of Zonal Council in India is: UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
(a) Finance Minister Ans.(c): Western Zonal Council - Gujarat,
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha Maharashtra, Goa and Union Territory of Dadra and
(c) Union Home Minister Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha The Northern Zonal Council - Haryana, Himachal
Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan,
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I Delhi, Union Territory of Chandigarh, Jammu and
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Kashmir, Ladakh.
question. Central Zonal Council - Chhattisgarh, Madhya
39. Which of the following statements are correct? Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
(1) The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies as Eastern Zonal Council - Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand and
they were created under Parliamentary law West Bengal.
(2) In total, six Zonal Councils were created Southern Zonal Council - Kerala, Andhra Pradesh,
under States Reorganization Act 1956 Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Puducherry,
(3) Zonal Council consists of Union Finance Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
Minister and Chief Ministers of all States in Note- The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii)
the zone. Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v)
Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not
(4) A separate North East Zonal Council was
included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems
created later which made total 6(six) Zonal
are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under
councils in India
the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Sikkim has also been
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only included in the North Eastern Council by North Eastern
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Council (Amendment) Act, 2002.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I 43. Who among the following is empowered to
Ans. (*): Kindly refer the explanation of the above establish the inter-state council?
question. (a) Parliament (b) President
40. Consider the following statements: (c) Speaker of Loksabha (d) Prime Minister
(1) Zonal Councils are the Constitutional bodies. UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2017
(2) The Prime Minister acts as the Chairman of Ans. (b) The President of India under Article 263 can
all Zonal Councils. establish Inter-State Council, if at any time it appears to
(3) Each Chief Minister acts as the Vice- him that the public interest would be served by it's
Chairman of the Zonal Council by rotation. establishment.

211

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17.
Judiciary
1. Which of the following is a court of record? Conferment on the : Article 139
(a) Supreme Court Supreme Court of
(b) High Court powers to issue certain
(c) Lower Courts writs
(d) Both Supreme Court & High Court Civil and judicial : Article 139
UPPSC (J) 2023 authority to act in aid
Ans. (d) : Both Supreme Court & High Court shall be a of the Supreme Court
court of record under Article 129 and 215 respectively. Civil and Judicial : Article 144
authority to act in aid
1. Supreme Court of the Supreme Court
Hence, none of above pairs is as correctly matched.
2. Which one of the following pairs (Article- 4. Judicial process in India is based on:
Provision) is not correctly matched? (a) The Constitution
(a) Article 124 - Supreme Court to be a Court of (b) The due process of routine law
Record. (c) Conventions
(b) Article 132 - Appellate Jurisdiction of (d) The procedure established by law
Supreme Court. (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(c) Article 143 - Advisory Jurisdiction of 67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled)
Supreme Court. Ans. (d) : Judicial process in India is based on the
(d) Article 136 - Special leave to appeal by the “Process Established by Law”, borrowed from Japan.
Supreme Court. 5. With reference to the Constitution of India,
Prohibitions or limitations or provisions
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled) contained in ordinary laws cannot act as
Ans.(a):Article 124 of Indian Constitution deals with prohibitions or limitations on the
the establishment and constitution of Supreme Constitutional powers under Article 142 it
Court,while Article 129 of the Indian constitution could mean which one of the following?
empowers the supreme court to be a court of record. (a) The decisions taken by the Election
Hence pair (a) is incorrectly matched, while rest pairs Commission of India while discharging its
are correctly matched. duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
3. Consider the following pairs: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not
1. Enlargement of Jurisdiction of the Supreme constrained in the exercise of its powers by
Court : Article 138A of Constitution of India. laws made by the Parliament.
2. Conferment on the Supreme Court of powers (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the
to issue certain writs : Article 139A of country, the President of India can declare
Constitution of India. Financial Emergency without the counsel
3. Civil and judicial authority of act in aid of from the Cabinet.
the Supreme Court : Article 144A of (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on
Constitution of India. certain matters without the concurrence of
How many of the above pairs are correctly Union Legislature.
matched? IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019
(a) Only one pair Ans: (b) According to Article 142 of the Constitution,
(b) Only two pairs the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction
may pass such decree or make such order as is
(c) All three pairs
necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or
(d) None of the pairs matter pending before it and any decree so passed or
(e) Question not attempted orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023 territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed
Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows :- by or under any law made by Parliament. Under Article
Enlargement of : Article 138 142, Supreme Court of India has powers to pass an
Jurisdiction of order (under extraordinary circumstances) which
Supreme Court overrides the laws made by the Parliament.

212
6. Article 142 of the Indian Constitution, dealt 10. What is are the provision (s) to safeguard the
with which of the following? autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Seat of Supreme Court
I. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges,
(b) Ancillary powers of Supreme Court
(c) Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court the President of India has to consult the Chief
(d) Enforcement of decrees and order of Supreme Justice of India.
Court II. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 the Chief Justice of India only.
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above III. The salaries of the judges are charged on the
question. Consolidated Fund of India on which the
7. The resignation letter by a Judge of Supreme legislature does not have to vote.
Court is addressed to–
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice of India correct?
(c) The Prime Minister (a) I and III only (b) I and II only
(d) The senior most Judge of Supreme Court (c) III only (d) I, II and III
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 APPSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (a) : According to Article 124(2) of the Ans. (c) : The Judges of Supreme Court are appointed
Constitution, a judge of Supreme Court can resign by
writing to the President. The tenure of the Supreme by President after consultation with Chief Justice and
Court judge is 65 years whereas a high court judge 62 such other Judges of the Supreme Court and High
years. Courts as he deems necessary. Hence, statement (I) is
8. Under Article 133 of the Constitution, the incorrect.
appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in The Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from
appeals from High Courts in the Civil matters his office by an order of the President. Hence, statement
pertains only to a
(a) question of law (II) is also incorrect.
(b) question of law and facts The salaries of the Judges are charged upon
(c) substantial question of law of general consolidated fund of India on which the legislature does
importance not have to vote. Hence, statement (III) is correct.
(d) substantial question of law of constitutional 11. Consider the following statements about the
interpretation
Manipur PSC (Pre) 2023 collegium system :
Ans. (c) : In Civil Cases an appeal lies to the Supreme 1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member
Court from any Judgement of High Court if High Court body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief
certifies - Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other
1) That the cases involves a substantial question of law seniormost Judges of the Court at that time.
of general importance and
2. The Parliament by law has evolved the
ii) That the question needs to be decided by the
Supreme Court. collegiums system.
9. Which of the following are not included in the 3. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High
original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? Courts are appointed only through the
I. A dispute between two or more States. collegium system.
II. A dispute regarding elections to either House of 4. The collegium system was introduced in the
the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State. year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the
III. A dispute between the Government of India
and a Union Territory. landmark First Judges Case.
IV. A dispute between the Government of India Which of the above statements is/are correct?
and one or more States. (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Choose the correct answer using the codes (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
given below :
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV Ans. (d) : Collegium system is the system of
APPSC (Pre) 2023 appointment and transfer of Judges that has evolved
Ans. (c) : The Supreme Court decided the disputes through Judgements of the Supreme Court and not by
between different units of the Indian federation, the Act of Parliament. In Second Judges Case (1993)
Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in Supreme Court introduced Collegium System. The
following cases- Collegium consists of five Judges which is headed by
a) Disputes between the centre and one or more states.
b) Disputes between centre and any state or states on incumbent Chief Justice India and comprises of four
one side and one or more other states on the other side. other senior most Judges of the Court at the time.
c) Dispute between two or more states. Hence, only statements (I) & (II) are correct.

213
12. According to the India Constitution, Judicial 15. Which of the following statements are
Review in India is based on regarding Public Interest Litigation?
(i) Rule of Law (a) The person who is filing the petition must be
the affected person/victim in the litigation.
(ii) Procedure established by Law
(b) The petition is accepted by the court only if
(iii) Precedents and Conventions there is interest of the affected person/victim
Select the correct answer using the codes given involved.
below. (c) Both A and B
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (d) Neither A nor B
(c) Only (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (b) : As per Indian Constitution, Judicial review is question.
based on procedure established by law. 16. Justice P.N. Bhagwati was a pioneer of?
13. Consider the following statements about the (a) Public Interest Litigation
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) (b) Judicial Review
(i) The concept of PIL originated and developed in (c) Fundamental rights
the United Kingdom (d) Land reforms
(ii) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017
Bhagwati were the pioneers of the PIL in India. Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(iii) PIL intends to bring justice within the reach of the question.
poor masses 17. The concept of Public Interest Litigation
(iv) PIL is essentially a co-operative effort on the part originated in:
of the petitioner to secure observance of the (a) India (b) Britain
Constitutional rights. (c) America (d) Canada
(v) PIL is considered as absolutely necessary for NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
maintaining the rule of law and meaningful Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
realization of the fundamental rights. question.
Which of the statements given above is/are 18. The concept of Public interest Litigation, which
correct? has become quite popular in India in the recent
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4 years, originated in ?
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (a) United Kingdom (b) USA
J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I) (c) Australia (d) Canada
Ans.(c): The Supreme Court has defined the PIL as legal Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017
action initiated in a Court of Law for the enforcement of Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Public interest or general interest in which the public or a question.
class of community have pecuniary interest or some interest 19. Public Interest Litigation has been introduced
by which their legal rights or liabilities are affected. by
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated (a) A Parliamentary Act
and developed in the USA in the 1960s and in India it was (b) A Constitutional Amendment
introduced in early 1980s. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and (c) Judicial initiative
Justice P.N. Bhagwati were the Pioneers of the concept of (d) None of the above
PIL. The real purpose of PIL are :- UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008
i) Vindication of Rule of Law.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
ii) Facilitating effective access to justice to socially and question.
economically weaker sections of society and
iii) Meaning realisation of the Fundamental Rights. 20. Where Public Interest litigation (PIL) can be
introduced?
Any public spirited citizen can move/approach the court
(a) Only in the Supreme Court of India
for the public cause (in the interest of the public or public
welfare) by filing a petition in Supreme Court under (b) Only in the High Courts of States
Article 32 of the Constitution and in High Court under (c) Only in the Administrative Tribunals
Article 226 of the Constitution. (d) Both in Supreme Court and High Courts
The person who is filing the petition need not to be the Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 1st 2014
affected person/victim in the litigation and also not to Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
be in involved. question.
14. Who was the Chief Justice of India when 21. Judicial activism in India is the result of several
factors but the most prominent of them is:
public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced (a) Over enthusiasm of the court
to the Indian Judicial System? (b) Public interest litigation
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi (c) Political corruption
(c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati (d) Failure of Parliamentary control
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2006 Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018 Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of above question. question.
214
22. Who said 'judicial activism' should not become Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
'judicial adventurism'? question.
(a) Justice A.S. Anand 29. Match List-I (Writ) with List-II (Meaning) and
(b) Justice Ranjan Gogoi select the correct answer:
(c) Justice Deepak Mishra List-I List-II
(d) Justice P.N. Bhagavati
A Certiorari 1. To be certified
7th JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1
B. Habeas Corpus 2. What is your
Ans. (a) : Justice Anand said, 'judicial activism' should
authority
not become 'judicial adventurism'.
C. Mandamus 3. To have the body
23. ‘Judicial Activism’ in India is related to-
of
(a) Committed judiciary
D. Quo Warranto 4. We command
(b) Public interest litigation
(c) Judicial review Codes
(d) Judicial freedom A B C D
UPRO/ ARO (Pre) G.S., 2014 (a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
Ans.(b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
(c) 4 3 2 1
24. By which of the following writs the court can (d) 1 3 4 2
cause any person who has been detained or Manipur PSC-2016
imprisoned to be physically brought before the Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
court?
30. Match the following
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
(a) Certiorari 1. Issued when a govt.
(c) Prohibition (d) Certiorari official infringes
Mizoram PCS (CCE) - 2018 rights of an
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. individual by not
25. Which writ provided in the Indian Constitution doing legal duty
is invoked when a court asks a person detained (b) Habeas 2. A higher court orders
by police to be produced before it? Corpus the lower court of
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus transfer a pending
(c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition matter to a higher
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017 authority or court
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Prohibition 3. Arrested person to
question. be presented before
26. Which one of the following writs can be filed district magistrate
against a private person also? within 24 hours
(a) Quo Warranto (b) Certiorari (d) Mandamus 4. Higher court order
(c) Habeas Corpus (d) Mandamus
of lower court to
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
transfer the case if
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
the lower court
27. Which one of the following is a bulwark of seems to be
personal freedom?
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus overriding its
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari jurisdiction area
Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017 A B C D
Ans. (b): Habeas Corpus is related to personal (a) 2 1 4 3
freedom. (b) 4 3 1 2
• Habeas corpus means ‘To have the body of’. (c) 3 1 2 4
• Mandamus means ‘We command’. (d) 2 3 4 1
• Quo-Warranto means ‘By what authority or warrant’. J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
• Prohibition means to Forbid. Ans. : (d) The correct match is as follows :
• Certiorari means ‘‘To be certified’ or to be informed.
Certiorari - A higher court orders the lower
28. Which of the following is NOT correctly
court to transfer a pending matter
matched?
to a higher authority or court
(a) Habeas corpus To have the body of
(b) Mandamus We command Mandamus - Issued when a government
(c) Prohibition To be certified official infringes rights of an
(d) Quo-Warranto By what authority individual by not doing legal
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 duty.
215
 Habeas - Asserted person to be presented Which of the statements given above are
Corpus district magistrate within 24 hrs. correct?
Prohibition - Higher court orders a lower court (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
to transfer the case if the lower (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
court seems to be overriding its IAS (Pre) G.S, 2022
jurisdiction area. Ans. (c): Mandamus is a command issued by the court
31. Consider the following statements: to a public official asking him to perform his official
1. The Writ of Mandamus is issued by the duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can
Supreme Court or High Court when any also be issued against any public body, a corporation
public authority has to do a public duty, but for the same purpose. It is not applicable against a private
fails to do so. entity unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. The Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Mandamus will lie against Company even though it may be
Supreme Court or High Court for quashing the a Government Company. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
order already passed by an inferior Court, Quo Warranto is issued by the court to enquire into the
Tribunal or Quasi Judicial Authority. legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
Which of the statements given above is/are Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by
correct? a person. Unlike the other writs, this can be sought by
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only any interested person and not necessarily by the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 aggrieved person.
J & K PSC Pre-2018 Hence only 1st and 3rd statements are correct.
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. 35. In India, Judicial Review implies
32. Under the Constitution of India, the power to (a) The power of the judiciary to pronounce upon
issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in: the Constitutionality of laws and executive
orders.
(a) The District Courts
(b) The power of the judiciary to question the
(b) The High Courts only wisdom of the laws enacted by the
(c) The Supreme Court only legislatures.
(d) Both the High Court and the Supreme Court (c) The power of the judiciary to review all the
Himanchal PSC (Pre), G.S, 2011 legislative enactments before they are
Ans. (d) The Supreme Court has been empowered to assented to by the President.
issue writs in the nature of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, (d) The power of the judiciary to review its own
Prohibition and Certiorari and Quo warranto for judgments given earlier in similar or different
protecting the Fundamental Rights (Article 32(2)). cases
Similar power has been conferred on the High Courts Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
via Article 226. The High Court can issue the above IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
writs for protecting the fundamental as well as statutory
Ans. (a) : The concept of judicial review has been taken
and common law rights.
from U.S.A.
33. Which one of the following Constitutional Judicial review is defined as ‘the power of the Court to
remedies is also known as 'postmortem'? determine whether the acts of Legislature and Executive
(a) Prohibition (b) Mandamus are consistent with the Constitution or the
(c) Certiorari (d) Qua warranto Constitutional values’.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above The concept of judicial review lies in the supremacy of
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 the Constitution of the land. Since the Judiciary is the
Ans : (c) A writ of Certiorari can only be issued by the guardian of the Constitution, therefore it is under its
Supreme court under Article 32 and a High court under purview to check actions which are inconsistent with
Article 226 to direct, inferior courts, tribunals or the Constitution.
authorities to transmit to the court the record of The tool of judicial review empowers the judiciary to
proceedings disposed of or pending therein for scrutiny strike down any action, which is in conflict with the
and if necessary, for quashing the same. But a writ of Constitution.
Certiorari can never be issued to call for the record or
papers and proceedings of an Act or Ordinance and for The power of the Judicial review is provided by the
quashing such an Act or Ordinance. Hence writ of Constitution to the Supreme Court under Article 32 and
certiorari can be considered as post-mortem. Article 136 and to the High Courts under Article 226
34. With the reference to the writs issued by the and Article 227.
Courts in India, consider the following 36. In India, the power of judicial review is
statements: enjoyed by
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private (a) The Supreme Court alone
organization unless it is entrusted with a
public duty. (b) The Supreme Court and High courts
2. Mandamus will not lie against Company even (c) All the Court
though it may be a Government Company. (d) None of the above
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Warranto. question.

216
37. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power Ans. (a) Indira Swahney Vs Union of India case is
of ‘Judicial Review’ which implies that it can: related to reservation for other backward classes (OBC)
(a) Review the working of the subordinate courts based on the recommendation made by Mandal
(b) Review the judgments Commission.
(c) Initiate cases at its own discretion 42. In which year was the Collegium System for
(d) Declare the laws passed by the legislature and the appointment of Judges adopted by the
orders issued by the executive as Supreme Court of India?
unconstitutional if they contravene any (a) 1993 (b) 1996
provision of the Constitution (c) 2000 (d) 2004
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I Uttarakhand-PSC (Pre.) -2016
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (a) The Collegium method was created as a result
question. of judgment of the Supreme Court in 1993 (Supreme
38. In India, the power of judicial review is Court Advocate-on-Record Association case). Under
enjoyed by the Collegium system of appointment and transfer of
(a) The Supreme Court alone Judges of High Courts, the Chief Justice of the
(b) The Supreme Court as well as High Courts respective High Court and two other senior most Judges
(c) All the Courts of the same High Court comprise a Collegium to
(d) None of the above identify the suitable candidates and recommend them
UPPCS (Mains) G.s. IInd 2017 for the appointment as a Judge of the High Court. The
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above shortlisted candidates are scrutinized by a Collegium of
question. the five senior most Judges of the Supreme Court
39. Judicial Review is a symbol of: headed by the Chief Justice of India.
(a) Parliamentary Government The same Collegium of the Supreme Court identifies
(b) Presidential Government serving Judges and Chief Justice of the High Courts for
(c) Unitary Government the elevation to the Supreme Court.
(d) Federal Government There is no mention of the Collegium either in the
TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017 original Constitution or in successive Amendments.
Ans. (d) : Judicial Review is a symbol of Federal 43. Collegium system of appointment of Supreme
feature Government. Court Judges derives sanction from
(a) The Constitution
40. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). (b) Consent of Government
Assertion (A) : The Supreme Court of India has (c) Decisions of Supreme Court
exclusive Jurisdiction regarding Constitutional (d) President of India
validity of Central laws. APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
Reason (R) : The Supreme Court is the Guardian Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
of the Indian Constitution. question.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 44. The correct sequence of Chief Justice of
below : Supreme Court of India is-
Codes: (a) B.P. Sinha, P.B. Gajendragadkar, S.R.Das
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) K.G. Balakrishanan, S.H. Kapadia, H.L.
correct explanation of (A) Dattu
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (c) Ranjan Gogoi, N.V. Raman, Deepak Mishra
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (d) H.L. Dattu, T.S. Thakur, Jagdish Singh
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true Khehar
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
Ans: (a) By the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, Ans. (d): Chief Justice of India mentioned in the
1976, Article131A was inserted which conferred on the question are- (in chronological order)-
Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction in regard to S.R. Das - 01-02-1956 to 30-09-1959
the Constitutional validity of Central laws. Supreme B.P.Sinha - 01-10-1959 to 31-01-1964
Court is called the Guardian of the Constitution as P.B. Gajendragadkar - 01-02-1964 to 15-03-1966
Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the K.G. Balakrishnan - 14-01-2007 to 12-05-2010
Constitution. Hence Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A). S.H. Kapadia - 12-05-2010 to 28-09-2012
H.L. Dattu - 28-09-2014 to 02-12-2015
41. Supreme Court's Judgement in Indira
T.S. Thakur - 03-12-2015 to 03-01-2017
Sawhney Vs. Union of India is related to which
issue? Jagdish Singh Khehar- 04-01-2017 to 27-08-2017
(a) Reservation for OBC Deepak Mishra - 28-08-2017 to 02-10-2018
(b) Reservation for Scheduled Castes Ranjan Gogoi - 03-10-2018 to 17-11-2019
(c) Reservation for Minorities N.V. Ramana - 24-04-2021 to 26-08-2022
(d) Reservation for Scheduled Tribes U.U. Lalit - 27-08-2022 to 08-11-2022
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2016/ 2018 D.Y. Chandrachud - 09-11-2022 to Incumbent.

217
45. The Supreme Court in India was inaugurated (ii) Article 32 of the Constitution gives extensive
on which date? original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard
(a) 27th January, 1950 (b) 28th January, 1950 to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(c) 29th January, 1950 (d) 30th January, 1950 (iii) The Supreme Court has been conferred with power
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2013 to direct transfer of any Civil of Criminal cases
Ans. (b) The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated from one High Court to other.
on 28th January, 1950. It succeeded the Federal Court (iv) The Supreme Court is federal Court, the highest
of India established under the Government of India Act court of appeal.
1935. 51. Which of the following Article makes provision
H.J. Kania was the first Chief Justice of India. that "the law declared by the Supreme Court
46. When was Supreme Court of India shall be binding on all the Courts within the
territory of India"?
inaugurated? (a) Article 140 (b) Article 141
(a) Jan 26, 1950 (b) Jan 26, 1950 (c) Article 142 (d) Article 143
(c) Jan 28, 1950 (d) April 26, 1950 UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
Ans. (b) : According to Article 141 of the Constitution,
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding
question. on all courts within the territory of India.
47. The current approved number of Judges of 52. Consider the following statements-
Supreme Court of India is 1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the
(a) 20 (b) 25 jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as
(c) 30 (d) 31 its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 the Constitution.
Ans. (*) After the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) 2. The officers and servants of the Supreme
Amendment Bill was passed by Parliament in August Court and High Courts are appointed by the
2019, the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court will be concern Chief Justice and the administrative
34 (Including Chief Justice of India) expenses are charged on the Consolidated
48. The Supreme Court of India, consist of one Fund of India.
Chief justice and- Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 32 other Judges (b) 33 other Judges (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 34 other Judges (d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2005
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans.(d): Article 138 of the Indian Constitution deals
question. with the power of Parliament that Parliament can
enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
49. Who /which of the following is the custodian of Article 146 clause (3): Says that the administrative
the Constitution of India? expenses of the Supreme Court, including all salaries,
(a) The President of India allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of the
(b) The Prime Minister of India officers and servants of the court, shall be charged upon
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat the Consolidated Fund of India, and any fees or other
(d) The Supreme court of India moneys taken by the court shall form part of that fund.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 Article 229 clause (3): The administrative expenses of
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2015-16 a High Court, including all salaries, allowances shall be
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015 charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the state.
Ans. (d) Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the Hence, no statement is correct.
country, which acts as the custodian of the Constitution 53. The minimum number of Judges of the
and serves as the final court of appeal. The Supreme Court Supreme Court required for hearing any case
and High Courts can declare a law as unconstitutional, if it involving interpretation of the Constitution is
contravenes any provisions of the Constitution. (a) Ten (b) Nine
(c) Seven (d) Five
50. The Supreme Court is a UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2012
(a) protector of human rights UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2012
(b) final interpreter of the Constitution Ans. (d) According to the Article 145(3) of the
(c) civil court Constitution, the minimum number of Judges, who are
(d) federal court to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a
(e) None of the above/More than one of the substantial question of law as to the interpretation of
above Constitution shall be five (5).
67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021 54. The Supreme Court does hear the cases in New
Ans. (e) : Jurisdiction of Supreme Court are as follows;- Delhi but can also hear it any other place
(i) The Supreme Court has original, appellate and (a) On the recommendation of the President
advisory jurisdiction extends to any dispute (b) If the Judges of the Supreme Court decides it
by majority
between the Government of India and one or more (c) On the recommendation of the Parliament
states or between the Government of India and any (d) On the request of the State Legislature
state or states on the other side. UPPCS (Mains) Spl. G.S. IInd 2008
218
Ans. (a) According to Article 130 of the Constitution, 58. Which of the following type of Judge/Judges
the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other can be appointed in the Supreme Court of
place as the Chief Justice of India may with the India?
approval of the President.
(i) Ad hoc Judge
55. Who appoints the Judges of the Supreme
Court of India? (ii) Additional Judge
(a) Prime Minister (b) President Code :
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) Lokpal (a) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(e) None of the above/ more than one from above (b) (i) is false and (ii) is true
BPSC (Pre) G.S., 2017 (c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
Ans. (b) The Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by (d) Both (i) and (ii) are false
the President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the
President after consultation with such Judges of MPPSC (Pre) 2020
Supreme Court and High Courts as he deems necessary. Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
The other Judges are appointed by President after question.
consultation with Chief Justice and such other Judges of 59. Which of the following statements are correct
Supreme Court and High Courts as he deems necessary.
regarding ad hoc judges in Supreme Court of
56. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is
vacant or when the Chief Justice is, by reason India?
of absence or otherwise, unable to perform the (1) In the Supreme Court both High Court judge
duties of his office, the duties of the office are and the retired Supreme Court judge can act
performed by an acting Chief Justice. Who as ad hoc judge.
appoints the acting Chief Justice? (2) The Chief Justice of India can appoint retired
(a) President of India judge as ad hoc judge only with the previous
(b) Senior most Judge of the Supreme Court (Ex-
officio) consent of the Parliament.
(c) Prime Minister of India (3) The Constitutional protection against removal
(d) Vice-President of India of judge of the Supreme Court is also
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013 applicable to him.
Ans. (a) According to the Article 126 of the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
Constitution, when the office of Chief Justice of India is (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
vacant or when the Chief Justice is, by reason or Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
absence or otherwise, unable to perform the duties of Ans. (d): As per Article 128 of Indian Constitution at
his office, the duties of the office shall be performed by any time, the Chief Justice of India can request a retired
such one of the other Judges known as an acting Chief Judge of High Court (who is duly qualified for
Justice of the Supreme Court as the President may appointment as a Judge of Supreme Court) to act as a
appoint for the purpose. Judge of Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can
57. Who can appoint an ad hoc judge in the do so only with preivous consent of President such
Supreme Court? Judges will also enjoy all the privilges of Judge of
(a) President of India Supreme Court that means he have also the
(b) Minister of Law constitutional protection in the case of removal.
(c) Collegium of the Supreme Court 60. Whose previous consent is required under
(d) Chief Justice of India with the Permission of Article 224 (1) of the Constitution to request a
the President
person who held the office of a judge of the
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2012
same or any other High Court to sit and act as
Ans. (d) Article 127 of the Constitution is regarding
appointment of ad hoc Judges in Supreme Court. Article a judge of the High Court for that State?
127 asserts that if at any time there should not be a (a) The President (b) The Parliament
quorum of the Judges of the Supreme Court available to (c) The Governor (d) Chief Justice of India
hold or continue any session of the Court, the Chief TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017
Justice of India may with the previous consent of the
President and after consultation with the Chief Justice Ans. (a) : As per Article 224-A of Indian Constitution,
of the High Court concerned, request in writing the At any time the Chief Justice of a High Court can
attendance at the sittings of the Court as an ad request a retired Judge of that High Court or any other
hoc Judge for such period as may be necessary. Such High court to act as a Judge of High Court of that state
Judges of a High Court should be duly qualified for for a temporary period. He can do so only with the
appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court to be previous consent of President.
designated by the Chief Justice of India.
Further Article 224 of the Constitution asserts that if by 61. In order to appoint as the Judge of the
reason of any temporary increase in the business of the Supreme Court, a person should be the
High Court, it appears to the President that the number advocate of the High Court for at least
of the Judges of that court should be for the time being (a) 20 years (b) 10 years
increased, the President may appoint duly qualified
persons to be Additional Judges of the High Court for (c) 8 years (d) 25 years
such period not exceeding two years. Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2004

219
Ans. (b) A person to be appointed as a Judge of 2. Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness
Supreme Court should have following qualification :- of the senior most Judge to hold the officer of
1) He should be citizen of India. the Chief Justice of India, consultation with
other Judge as envisaged in Article 124(2) of
2) i) He should have been a Judge of High Court (or the Constitution, would be made for the
High Courts in succession) for five year or appointment of the next Chief Justice of
ii) He should have been an advocate of High Court (or India.
Courts in succession) for 10 years. 3. After receipt of the recommendation of the
iii) He should be a distinguised jurist in the opinion of Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of
the President. Law, Justice and Company Affairs will put up
62. What is the age of the retirement of the Judge the recommendation to the President in the
of the Supreme Court? matter of appointment.
(a) 60 years (b) 62 years The correct statement/s is/are
(c) 65 years (d) 70 years (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(e) None of the above/ more than one of above (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 J & K PSC Pre 2022
Ans. (c)The age of retirement of a Supreme Court Judge Ans.(d): The Union Minister of Law, Justice and
is 65 years. Company Affairs would, at the appropriate time, seek
the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of
63. The Judges of the Supreme Court hold office India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of
till they reach the age of India. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
(a) 58 years (b) 60 years Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the
(c) 62 years (d) 65 years senior most Judge to hold the officer of the Chief
UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 Justice of India, consultation with other Judge as
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above envisaged in Article 124(2) of the Constitution, would
question. be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of
64. After retirement, Supreme Court Judge could India. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
practice- After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice
(a) Only in Supreme Court of India, the Union Minister of Law, justice and
company affairs will put up the recommendation to the
(b) Only in High Court Prime Minister in the matter of appointment. Hence,
(c) In Supreme Court and High Court Statement (3) is incorrect.
(d) Not in any court
68. Consider the following statements:
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 1997 1. The motion to impeach a judge of the
Ans. (d) According to Article 124 (7) of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by
Constitution, no person who has held office as a Judge the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the
of the Supreme Court shall plead or act in any court or Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968
before any authority within the territory of India. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives
65. A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his details of what constitutes 'incapacity and
office by writing a letter to proved misbehavior' of the Judges of the
(a) The Chief Justice (b) The President Supreme Court of India.
(c) The Prime Minister (d) The Law Minister 3. The details of the process of impeachment of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2014 the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are
Ans. (b) According to Article 124(2) (a) of the given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act. 1968.
Constitution, a Judge may by writing under his hand 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge
addressed to the President, resign his office. is taken up for voting, the law requires the
motion to be backed by each House of the
66. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court Parliament and supported by a majority of
are determined by total membership of that House and by not
(a) Pay Commission appointed by then President. less than two-thirds of total members of that
(b) Law Commission House present and voting.
(c) Parliament Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Council of Ministers correct?
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
Ans. (c) According to Article 125 of the Constitution, (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court is IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019
determined by the Parliament.
Ans: (c) The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 is an Act to
67. Consider the following statements regarding regulate the procedure for the investigation and proof of
CJI: misbehavior or incapacity of a Judge of Supreme Court or
1. The Union Minister of Law, Justice and
Company Affairs would, at the appropriate High Courts and for the presentation of an address by
time, seek the recommendation of the Parliament to the President. It provides details of the
outgoing Chief Justice of India for the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme
appointment of the next Chief Justice of Court and High Courts of India on the grounds of ‘proved
India. misbehavior or incapacity’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
220
According to Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, Speaker of the 70. Consider the following statements and state
Lok Sabha either admit the motion to impeach the which one of them is correct?
Judge or refuse to admit the same. Hence statement 1 is (a) Supreme Court of India has only original
incorrect. jurisdiction.
The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts can (b) It has only original and appellate jurisdiction
be removed on the ground of proved misbehavior or (c) It has only advisory and appellate jurisdiction
incapacity but the Constitution of India neither defines (d) It has original, appellate as well as advisory
nor gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and jurisdiction
proved misbehavior' of the Judges of the Supreme Court UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2010
of India. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect. Ans.(d): In India, the Supreme Court has Original,
The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure Appellate and Advisory jurisdiction. Original
relating to removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court by jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the
process of impeachment. A removal motion is signed by particular court is approached first. Its Original
100 members in the case of Lok Sabha or 50 members jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. Article 143
in the case of Rajya Sabha. If Speaker/Chairman admit covers its Advisory Jurisdiction.
the motion the it will have to passed by special majority 71. The following comes under the original
(not less than two third of total member of that house jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
presents and voting). (a) Challenging arbitrary action of a Government
Hence, statement (4) is correct. Body
69. What is the provision to safeguard the (b) Dispute between the Centre and a State of
autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? between any two states
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, (c) Appeal from the Appellate Tribunal to
the President of India has to consult the Chief Supreme Court
Justice of India. (d) Reference by the President on the
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed Constitutional validity of an Act
by the Chief Justice of India only. Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Ans.(b): Original Jurisdiction: There are certain
Consolidated Fund of India to which the cases which fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the
legislature does not have to vote. Supreme Court. It means that all such cases begin or
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the originate in the Supreme Court, only. It also means that
Supreme Court of India are made by the such cases cannot be initiated in any other court. The
Government only after consulting the Chief cases or disputes that come under the Original
Justice of India. jurisdiction are given below:–
Which of the statements given above is/are • Dispute between Government of India on the side
correct? and one or more states on the other side.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only • Disputes between two or more states.
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 72. The power of Supreme Court of India to decide
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 the disputes between Centre and States falls
Ans. (a) According to Article 124 of the Constitution, under which Jurisdiction?
while appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the (a) Appellate Jurisdiction
President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of (b) Advisory Jurisdiction
India. Hence statement 1 is correct. (c) Constitutional Jurisdiction
The process of removal of Judges of the Supreme Court (d) Original Jurisdiction
and High Courts is mentioned in Article 124(4) of the MPPSC Pre 2022
Constitution which asserts that the Judges of the Ans.(d): See the explanation of above question.
Supreme Court and High Courts shall not be removed 73. Which of the following are included in the
from his office except by an order of the President original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
passed after an address by each House of Parliament 1. A dispute between the Government of India
supported by a majority of the total membership of that and one or more States
House and by a majority of not less than two third of the 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of
members of that House present and voting has been the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
presented to the President in the same session for such 3. A dispute between the Government of India
removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or and a Union Territory
incapacity. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 4. A dispute between two or more States
The salary of the Judges of the Supreme Court is Select the correct answer using the codes given
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India (salary of below:
the Judges of the High Courts are charged upon the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Consolidated Fund of respective State) to which the (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Legislature does not have to vote. Hence statement 3 is IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012
correct. Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme question.
Court of India is absolute discretion of Chief Justice of 74. In order to settle the dispute between the
India and Government has nothing to do with that. Center and the State, the jurisdiction of the
Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Supreme Court comes under
221
 (a) Consultant (b) Appellate 79. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to
(c) Constitutional (d) Original the President on a matter of law or fact
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1996, 2014 (a) On its own initiative
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2004 (b) Only if he seeks such advice
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Only if the matter relates to the Fundamental
question. Rights of the citizen
75. All the disputes related to the interpretation of (d) Only if the issue poses a threat to the unity
the Constitution could be taken to the Supreme and integrity of the country
Court -
Maharashtra PSC 2022
(a) Under original jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001
(c) Consultant jurisdiction Ans. (b) According to Article 143 of the Constitution, If
(d) None of the above at any time it appears to the President that a question of
UP Lower (M) G.S. 2013 law or fact has arisen which is of such a nature and of
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the
question. opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the
76. Which Article of the Constitution of India question to the Supreme Court for consideration and the
deals with the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may after such hearing as it thinks fit,
Supreme Court in connection with report to the President its opinion.
Constitutional cases? 80. Consider the following statements:
(a) Article 131 The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to
(b) Article 132 the President of India on matters of law or fact
(c) Article 132 read with Article 134A 1. On its own initiative (on any matter of larger
(d) Article 133 read with Article 134A public interest).
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2001
2. If he seeks such an advice.
UPUDA/LDA (Pre.) G.S., 2001
3. Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental
Ans.(c): Article 132 of the Indian Constitution deals
with Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in certain Rights of the citizens.
cases. While 134 A is related to the certification by the Which of the statements given above is/are
High Court that the matter is related to the interpretation correct?
of the Constitution and must be heard by the Supreme (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Court. Hence Article 132 read with Article 134A (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2
reflects the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010
77. The power of Supreme Court of India to decide Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the disputes between Centre and States falls question.
under which Jurisdiction?
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction 81. The advisory powers of the Supreme Court of
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction India imply that it may
(c) Constitutional Jurisdiction (a) Advice to the President on the issues of law
(d) Original Jurisdiction or fact which is of public importance.
MPPSC Pre 2022 (b) Advice to the Government of India on all
Ans.(d): See the explanation of above question. Constitutional matters
78. Which of the following is concerned with the (c) Advice to the Prime Minister on legal
Supreme Court of India? matters.
(a) Appellate jurisdiction (d) Advice to all the above persons.
(b) Original jurisdiction UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
(c) Collegium system Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) More than one of the above question.
(e) None of the above
82. Which of the following statements are correct
68th BPSC 2022
regarding Advisory Jurisdiction of the
Ans. (d): The Supreme Court of India is the Court of Supreme Court?
final appeal and the highest constitutional court. It
(1) It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its
enjoys Original Jurisdiction (Article 131) appellate
opinion on any matter referred to it by the
Jurisdiction (Article 132, 133) and Advisory
Jurisdiction (Article 143) the system of appointment President.
and transfer of judges of the Supreme Court is known as (2) At least Five Judge Bench of the Supreme
Collegium System. Hence out of the given options (a), Court hears any reference made to it under its
(b) and (c) are concerned with the Supreme Court of power of Advisory Jurisdiction.
India. (3) The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a
All the three option are associated with the Supreme reference under Advisory Jurisdiction is not
Court of India, Hence, correct answer is option (d). binding on the President.
222
 (a) (3) only (b) (1) and (3) only 85. Which of the following courts in India is/are
(c) (2) and (3) only (d) (1), (2) and (3) known as the court(s) of Records?
(a) The High Court only.
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021)
(b) The Supreme Court only.
Ans. (c): The Supreme Court is not bound to give its (c) The High Courts and the Supreme Court.
opinion on any matter referred to it by the President. (d) The District Courts
Rather, the Supreme Court may decide to give its UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008
opinion under Article 143. Therefore, statement 1 is not Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
correct. question.
According to Article 145(3) of the Constitution, the 86. Which one of the following is correct with
minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the regard to the power to review any judgment
pronounced or order made by the Supreme
purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial Court of India?
question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution (a) The President of India has the power of
or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article review such a judgement or order.
143 (Power of President to consult Supreme Court) shall (b) The Supreme Court has the power to review
be five. Hence, statement 2 is correct. its own judgement or order.
The views taken by the Court is not binding on the (c) The Cabinet has the power to review such a
judgement or order with the permission of the
President. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.
President of India.
83. Which one of the following subjects comes (d) The Supreme Court it does not have the
under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme power to review its own judgement or order.
Court and the High Court? UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2011
(a) Mutual disputes among States Ans. (b) According to Article 137 of the Constitution,
(b) Dispute between Centre and State the Supreme Court shall have power to review any
judgment pronounced or order made by it and can
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights change the Judgement.
(d) Protection from the violation of the 87. Which of the following is correct about the
Constitution Supreme Court regarding its judgement?
UPPCS (Mains) G.S.-IInd Paper, 2006 (a) It can change the judgement
Ans. (c) Protection of Fundamental Rights comes under (b) It cannot change the judgement
the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the (c) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the
judgement
High Courts. Article 32 of the Constitution empowers (d) Only the Ministry of Law can change the
Supreme Court to provide remedies for the enforcement judgement
of the Fundamental Rights and Article 226 of the UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
Constitution empowers the High Courts for the Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
protection of Fundamental Rights. question.
84. The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court of 88. According to the latest Supreme Court
Record’. It implies that- judgement on Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT),
which of the following is true?
(a) It has to keep a record of its decisions
(a) High Courts cannot entertain writ petitions
(b) All its decisions have evidentiary value and against verdict of AFT.
cannot be questioned by any court (b) High Courts can entertain writ petitions
(c) It has the power to punish for its contempt against verdict of AFT.
(d) No appeal can be made against its decisions (c) High Courts can entertain writ petitions
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S., 2008 against verdict of AFT concerning officials
below the rank of Major only.
Ans. (b) A ‘Court of Record’ is a court, the records of (d) None of the above
which are admitted to be of evidentiary value and they UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S., 2014
are not to be questioned when they are produced in any Ans. (a) As per the recent Supreme Court verdict, High
court. The Supreme Court has two powers. Courts cannot entertain writ petitions against verdict of
(a) The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT).
Supreme Court are recorded for perpectual 89. Of the following statements, which one is not
memory and testimony. correct?
(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court either (a) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950
with simple imprisonment for a term upto six (b) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal
in the country
months or with fine upto ì 2000 or with both.
(c) Supreme Court can hear from any High
According to Article 129 of the Constitution, the
Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial
Supreme Court shall be a court of record. Article 215 of (d) Supreme Court can hear from any High
the Constitution contains similar provision with respect Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-
to High Courts. martial
223
Ans. (d) According to Article 136 of the Constitution, the
Supreme Court may in its discretion grant special leave to 2. High Court
appeal from any judgment, decree, determination,
sentence or order in any cause or matter passed or made
by any court or tribunal in the territory of India except to 95. Consider the following statements regarding
any judgment, determination, sentence or order passed or Article 226 of the Constitutions of India:
made by any court or tribunal constituted, related to the (i) Article 226 of the Constitution of India
Armed Forces. Hence statement (d) is incorrect while rest empowers a High Court to issue writs including
of the given options are correct.
90. Which Article of the Constitution of India habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari,
Conferred special leave petitions to the prohibition and quo warranto for the
Supreme Court? enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the
(a) Article 136 (b) Article 32 citizens and for any other purpose.
(c) Article 139 (d) Article 226
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 (ii) The phrase 'for any other purpose' refers
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right.
question. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the
91. The power to increase the number of judges in High Court is wider than that of the Supreme
the Supreme Court of India is vested in Court.
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament (iii) The Supreme Court can issue writs only
(c) The Chief Justice of India for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
(d) The Law Commission and not for any other purpose, i.e., it does not
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2014
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021 extend to a case where the breach of an
ordinary legal right is alleged.
Ans. (b) According to Article 124(1) of the (iv) The High Court can issue writs to any
Constitution, power to increase the number of Judges in person, authority and government not only
the Supreme Court of India is vested with the
Parliament. within its territorial jurisdiction but also
92. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of
increased by which of the following? action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.
(a) By the President of India Select the correct statement using the codes
(b) With the resolution passed by the Parliament
(c) Law made by the Parliament given below.
(d) By the President of India after consultation (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
with Chief Justice of India (b) (iii) and (iv) only
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 1st 2014
(c) (i) and (iii) only
Ans. (c) According to Article 138 of the Constitution,
Parliament by law may increase the jurisdiction of the (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Supreme Court. ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
93. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Ans. (d) : Article 226 of the Constitution of India
Supreme Court of India with respect to any
matter included in the Union List of Legislative empowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas
Powers rests with: corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo
(a) The President of India warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament of the citizens and for any other purpose while the
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Supreme Court (Article 32) can issue the writs of
Company Affairs habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above quo-warranto for enforce of fundamental rights only not
question. for any other purpose. Thus, writ jurisdiction of High
94. Consider the following statements: Court is wider than Supreme Court.
1. The constitution of India doesn’t declare the Hence, statements (i) & (iii) are correct.
location of the seat of the Supreme Court.
2. CJI can appoint other places as the seat of the The phrase 'for any other purpose' refers to the
Supreme Court only after the approval of the enforcement of an ordinary legal right. This implies that
President.
the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that
3. The President of India can order the Supreme
Court to change its seat of location. of the Supreme Court.
The correct statement/s is/are Hence, statement-(ii) is correct.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 The High Court can issue writs to any person, authority
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 and government not only within its territorial
J & K PSC Pre 2022
Ans.(c): The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if
other place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, the cause of action arises within its territorial
with the approval of President, from time to time, appoint. jurisdiction. Hence, statement (iv) is also correct.
224
96. Match list-I with List-II regarding High Courts Ans.(b): According to Article 217(1) of the Indian
in the State according to the Constitution of Constitution, a Judge of High Court of Rajasthan other
India and select the correct answer using the than Cheif Justice of Rajasthan High Court is appointed
codes given below. by President after consultation with Governor of
List-I Lis-II Rajasthan, Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of
A. Article 214 1. Each High court Shall Rajasthan High Court.
be a Court of record 99. High Courts are instituted as;
B. Article 215 2. High Court for each (a) Constitutional courts under Part VI, chapter
State V, Article 214 of the Indian Constitution
(b) Constitutional courts under Part VII, Chapter
C. Article 216 3. Appointment and V, Article 214 of the Indian Constitution
condition of the Office (c) Constitutional courts under Part VI, chapter
of a Judge of a High VI, Article 214 of the Indian Constitution
Court (d) Constitutional courts under Part VIII, Chapter
D. Article 217 4. Constitution of High V, Article 214 of the Indian Constitution
Courts Haryana PSC (Pre) G.S. 2014
Codes: Ans.(a): Part VI, chapter V, Article 214 of the
A B C D Constitution defines High Courts for States.
(a) 2 1 4 3 100. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution
(b) 4 2 3 1 there is provision for the High Courts for
(c) 3 4 1 2 Union Territories?
(d) 1 2 3 4 (a) Article 240 (b) Article 241
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (c) Article 242 (d) Article 239
Ans. (a) : UPPSC RO/ARO (Mains) 2016
List-I List-II Ans. (b) : Article 241 of the Constitution provides
provisions for the High Courts in Union Territories.
Article 214 High Court for each State
Article 215 Each High court Shall be a Court 101. Who of the following is not a part of the
process while appointing a judge of the High
of record
Court?
Article 216 Constitution of High Courts (a) Chief Justice of India
Article 217 Appointment and condition of the (b) Chief Justice of the Concerned High Court
Office of a Judge of a High Court (c) Attorney General of India
97. The authority to determine the number of (d) Governor of the concerned state
Judges in a High Court rests with which of the Manipur PCS - 2013
following entities? Ans. (c) : According to Article 217(1) of the
(a) The President Constitution, a Judge of a High Court shall be appointed
(b) The Chief Minister of the State by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister of India, the Governor of the concerned State and the
(d) The Parliament Chief Justice of the concerned High court.
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 102. A judge of the High Court submits his
Ans. (a) : The authority to determine the number of resignation to-
Judges in a High Court rest with discretion of the (a) President
President. It means the President determines the (b) Chief Justice of India
strength of High Court form time to time depending (c) Chief Justice of the concerned State
upon it's workload. (d) Governor of the State
BPSC (Pre) 2007
98. According to Article 217(1) of the Constitution,
a Judge other than the Chief Justice of Ans. (a) According to Article 217(1) of the
Constitution, a Judge of a High Court may submit his
Rajasthan High Court is appointed by the
resignation to the President.
President after consultation with.
(a) Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court, 103. When the office of Chief Justice of a High
Court is vacant, the duties of the office shall be
Attorney General of India and Governor of performed by
Rajasthan. (a) Senior most judge available
(b) Governor of Rajasthan, Chief Justice of India (b) Such one of the other judges of the court as
and Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court. the President may appoint
(c) Union Law and Justice Minister and (c) Such one of the other judges of the court as
Governor of Rajasthan. the President may appoint after consultation
(d) Chief Justice of India and Governor of with Governor of State
Rajasthan. (d) Senior most judge available after consultation
(e) Question not attempt with council of ministers
RPSC (Pre) 2023 Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
225
Ans. (b): According to Article 223 of the Constitution, Which of the statements given above is/are
when the office of Chief Justice of a High Court is correct?
vacant or when any such Chief Justice is, by reason of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
absence or otherwise, unable to perform the duties of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
his office, the duties of the office shall be performed by
such one of the other Judges of the Court known as IAS (Pre) G.S., 2007
Acting Chief Justice, the President may appoint for the Ans. (a) The process of removal of the Judges is same
purpose. for the Judges of the Supreme Court as well as High
104. Which of the following statements are correct Courts. A Judge of High Court shall not be removed
regarding High Courts in India? from his office except by an order of the President
passed after an address by each House of Parliament
(1) Generally there are four categories of Judges supported by the majority of the total members of the
in the High Courts. House and by the majority of not less than two-third of the
(2) Permanent Judge, Additional Judge, Acting members of the House present and voting has been
Judge and Ad Hoc Judges are the four types presented to the President in the same session for such
of judges in High Court. removal on the ground of ‘proved misbehavior or
(3) The Gujarat High Court was established in incapacity’. Hence statement 1 is correct.
the year 1965 along with Kerala High Court According to Article 220 of the Constitution, a Judge of
the High Court after its retirement shall not plead or act
(4) At present there are 25 High Courts in India in any court or before any authority in India except the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only Supreme Court and other High Courts. Hence statement
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only 2 is incorrect.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I 107. Who of the following has to decide finally if any
Ans. (*): Generally there are four categories of Judges question arises as to the age of a Judge of a
appointed by President in the High Court namely Chief High Court of the State?
Justice of High Court, Permanent Judge (Article (a) Chief Justice of High Court
(b) Governor of the State
217(1)), Additional Judge and Acting Judge (Article
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
224), Ad-hoc Judges are appointed in Supreme Court (d) President of India after consultation with the
(not in High Court by President). Hence, statements (2) Chief Justice of India
is correct while statement (1) is incorrect. UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Gujarat High Court came into existence on 1st May, Ans. (d) : According to Article 217 (3) of the
1960 as a result of bifurcation of the former State of Constitution, if any question arises as to the age of a
Bombay into two States of Maharashtra and Gujarat. judge of High Court, the question shall be decided by
Therefore statement 3 is not correct. the President after consultation with the chief justice of
There are 25 High Courts in India. The Calcutta High India and the decision of the President shall be final.
Court is the oldest and was established in 1862. The 108. Consider the following statements:
newest High Courts are the Telangana Court and 1. A person who has held office as a permanent
Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in
Andhra Pradesh High Court, both established in the
any court or before any authority in India
year 2019. Hence, statement 4 is also correct. except the Supreme Court.
105. Who has the authority to transfer a Judge from 2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a
one High Court to any other High Court? Judge of a High Court in India unless he has
(a) Prime Minister for at least five years held a judicial office in
(b) Chief justice of India the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) President correct?
(d) The Union Law Minister (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) : According to Article 222(1) of the IAS (Pre) G.S., 2006
Constitution, the President may, after consultation with Ans. (d) According to Article 220 of the Constitution, a
the Chief Justice of India, transfer a Judge from one Judge of the High Court after its retirement shall not
plead or act in any court or before any authority in India
High Court to any other High Court.
except the Supreme Court and other High Courts.
106. Consider the following statements: Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High According to Article 217 of the Constitution, a person
Court in India is same as that of removal of a shall be qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High
Judge of the Supreme Court. Court if he held a judicial office in the territory of India
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent for at least ten years or has for at least ten years been an
Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts
any court or before any authority in India. in succession. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
226
109. Which of the following statement is/are (a) I, II and IV (b) II and III
correct? (c) I and IV (d) IV only
(1) The salaries and allowances of the judges of IAS (Pre) G.S., 2008
the high court are charged to the consolidated IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001
Fund of India.
(2) The salaries, allowances and pensions of the Ans. (d) At present there are 25 High Courts in India.
staff as well as the administrative expenses of Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
High Court are charged to the Consolidated 6 High Courts have jurisdiction over more than one
Fund of States. State and Union Territory. They are Bombay High
(3) The retired judges of a high court cannot Court (Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and
practice in any court except Supreme Court. Daman and Diu), Calcutta High Court (West Bengal
(a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (2) and (3) only and Andaman and Nicobar Island), Gauhati High Court
(c) (2) only (d) (1) and (3) only (Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh),
GUJARAT PSC CIVIL PRE-PAPER-I (21-3-2021) Kerala High Court (Kerala and Lakshadweep), Madras
Ans. (c): The Salaries, Pension and Allowances of the High Court (Tamil Nadu and Pondicherry), Punjab and
Supreme Court Judges are charged upon the Haryana High Court (Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh).
Consolidated Fund of India; whereas the Salaries and Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Allowances of the High Court Judges are charged upon Among the Union Territories, Delhi alone has a High
the Consolidated Fund of the States and the Pension of Court of its own. Hence statement 3 is also incorrect.
the High Court Judges are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India. The retired judges of a High Court Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62
cannot practice in any court except Supreme Court and therefore statement 4 is correct.
other High Courts. 114. Consider the following statements:
110. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of 1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
the High Court are charged to the 2. Punjab, Haryana and Union Territory of
(a) Consolidated Fund of India Chandigarh have a common High Court.
(b) Consolidated Fund of State 3. National territory of Delhi has a High Court
(c) Contingency Fund of India of its own.
(d) Contingency Fund of the State Which of the above statements is /are correct?
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002 (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
question. IAS (Pre) G.S., 2005
111. Where from the pension of a retired High
Court Judge is charged? Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of above question.
(a) Consolidated fund of India. 115. Which of the following places does not fall
(b) Consolidated fund of the state where he last under the territorial establishment jurisdiction
served. of Bombay High Court?
(c) Consolidated fund of the different states 1. Daman and Diu
where he has served. 2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Contingency fund of India. 3. Goa
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2013 4. Lakshadweep
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Choose the correct option from the following:
question. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
112. Acting judges are appointed in- (c) Only 4 (d) 3 and 4
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
(c) District Court (d) Both (a) and (b)
UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019 Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre), 2016 (Held on 20/09/2020) question.
Ans. (b) : The President appoint a duly qualified person 116. Which one of the following High Courts has the
as an acting Judge of High Court when a Judge of that Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
High Court is unable to perform the duties of his office Nicobar Islands?
due to absence or any other reason or appointed to act (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
temporarily as Chief Justice of that High Court. (c) Madras (d) Orissa
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003
113. Consider the following statements regarding
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the High Courts in India: question.
I. There are eighteen High Courts in India. 117. Which are the four North Eastern States who
II. Three of them have jurisdiction over more share a common High Court at Gauhati?
than one State. (a) Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal
III. No Union Territory has a High Court of its Pradesh
own. (b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Sikkim and Manipur
IV. Judges of the High Court hold office till the (c) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal
age of 62. Pradesh
Which of these statements is /are correct? (d) Assam, Sikkim, Manipur and Mizoram
UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
227
Ans. (a): The states of Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and (a) Article 228 (b) Article 214
Arunachal Pradesh are jointly under the jurisdiction of (c) Article 234 (d) Article 226
the Gauhati High Court. Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
118. Which State got a separate High th
Court on 1st Ans. (d) : Article 226 of the Constitution empowers the
January 2019, which is the 25 High Court of High Courts to issue, to any person or authority, including
India?
(a) Telangana (b) Mizoram the government directions, orders or writs including writs
(c) Sikkim (d) Andhra Pradesh in the nature of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition,
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Quo Warranto, Certiorari or any of them.
Ans.(d): The State of Andhra Pradesh got a separate High 124. Which one of the following writs can be issued
Court on 1st January, 2019, which became 25th High Court by a High Court to secure liberty of the
of India. individual?
119. Which of the following High Courts has the (a) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto
largest number of Benches? (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Prohibition
(a) Kolkata High Court UPPCS (Pre.) Re-exam. G.S., 2015
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court Ans. (c) Habeas Corpus writ can be issued by a High
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Gauhati High Court Court to secure liberty of the individual. The court
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2007 directs the person or authority who has detained another
Ans. (d) Gauhati High Court has largest number of Benches. person to bring the the prisoner before the court so as to
The Gauhati High Court has three outlying Benches namely enable the court to decide the validity, jurisdiction or
Kohima Bench for Nagaland, Aizawl Bench for Mizoram and justification for such detention.
Itanagar Bench for Arunachal Pradesh. 125. The power of Judiciary to review a determine
120. On which date High Court of Tripura was validity of a law/policy or an order is known as:
established? (a) Judicial Decree
(a) 25th April, 2013 (b) 23th March, 2013
(c) 25th March, 2013 (d) 10th February, 2012 (b) Judicial Action
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 (c) Judicial Promulgation
Ans. (b): The Tripura High Court was established on (d) Judicial Review
23rd March 2013 by the North-Eastern Areas Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
(Reorganisation) and other related Law's (Amendment)
Act, 2012. Ans.(d): The power of Judiciary to review a determine
121. When were High Courts of Bombay, Madras validity of a law/policy or an order is known as
and Calcutta established? Judicial Review.
(a) 1861 (b) 1851
(c) 1871 (d) 1881 126. Which of the following is not correct regarding
UPPCs (Pre.) G.S., 2013 the High Court in India?
UPUDA/LDA Special (Pre.) G.S., 2010 (a) Second appeal to the High Court is within its
Ans. (a) High Courts of Bombay, Madras and Calcutta appellate jurisdiction.
were established in 1861 under the British Parliament's (b) Every Judge of a High Court is appointed by
Indian High Courts Act, 1861.
122. With reference to the Constitution of India, the President.
consider the following statements : (c) Governor of the State appoints the Judges of a
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to High Court.
declare any central law to be Constitutionally (d) High Courts may accept a petition related to
invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India ‘Public Interest Litigation’.
cannot be called into question by the UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper, 2016
Supreme Court of India. Ans. (c) The Judges of the High Courts are appointed
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? by the President. Hence statement (c) is incorrect.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Second appeal shall lie to the High Court from every
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 decree passed in appeal by any court subordinate to the
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019 High Court, if the High Court is satisfied that the case
Ans : (d) The Constitution Forty-Third Amendment) involves a substantial question of law. Public interest
Act, 1977 restored the power of High Courts to declare
any central law invalid. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. litigation is a litigation which can be filed in Supreme
In Keshwanand Bharti case, Supreme Court ruled that Court/ High Court by any public spirited person for the
Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution protection of public interest.
(including Preamble of the Constitution) under Article
368 of the Constitution provided such amendment does 127. Which one of the following is not the main
not alter the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution. So jurisdiction of the High Court of a State?
any alteration in the basic structure of the Constitution (a) Advisory jurisdiction
could be question by the Supreme Court of India.
Therefore statement 2 is also incorrect. (b) Original jurisdiction
123. Which Article of our Constitution empowers (c) Supervisory jurisdiction
the High Courts to issue certain writs on the (d) Appellate jurisdiction
Fundamental Rights? UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2007

228
Ans. (a) Supreme Court and High Courts both have Ans. (c): According to the Consumer Protection Act
original, supervisory and appellate jurisdiction but 1986, a consumer dispute redressal forum to be known
as 'Direct Forum' should be established by the state
Article 143 of the Constitution confers upon the government in each district of the state by notification,
exclusive advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. provided that the state government may, if it deemed fit
128. Match List I with List II and select the correct establish more than one district forum in district. Hence,
Ist statement is correct.
answer using the codes given below As per section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act 1986,
List - I List –II each district forum shall consist of a president and two
(Article) (Provisions) other members one of whom shall be a women. Hence
2nd statement is also correct as power section 11 of the
A. 215 1. Transfer of a Judge from one Consumer Protection Act 1986, the District Forum shall
High Court to another have jurisdiction of entertain complaints where the
B. 222 2. Power of superintendence over value of goods or services and the compensation, if any,
chain does not exceed rupess twenty lakhs. Hence, 3rd
all courts by the High Court statement is incorrect.
C. 226 3. Power of High Courts to issue The correct answer is option (e). Pecuniary Jurisdiction
certain writs was amended from 1 crore to 50 lakhs in Dec, 2021, so
no statement is incorrect.
D. 227 4. High Courts to be courts of
130. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
record correct regarding appointment of District
Codes: Judges in India?
A B C D (1) They are appointed by the Governor of the
State only.
(a) 4 1 3 2
(2) They are appointed by the Governor of the
(b) 2 1 3 4 State with consultation of the State High Court.
(c) 1 4 3 2 Select the answer using the code given below-
(d) 4 2 3 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2013 UPPSC (J) 2023
Ans: (a) The correct match is as follows :- Ans. (b) : The appointment, posting and promotion of
Articles Procedure district Judges in a state are made by the governor of
state in consultation with the High Court.
Article 215 High Courts to be courts of record
131. Which of the following statements related to
Article 222 Transfer of a Judge from one High the Central Administrative Tribunal are
Court to another Correct?
Article 226 Power of High Courts to issue I. It is statutory body.
II. It's members are drawn from adminstrative
certain writs background only.
Article 227 Power of superintendence over all III. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in
courts by the High Court the Code of Civil Procedure.
IV. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All-India
services as well as Central services and Central
Subordinate Courts and Government posts.
3. V. It was set up in 1985.
Tribunals Choose the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(a) II, III and V (b) I and IV
129. With reference to the Consumer Disputes (c) I, III, IV and V (d) II and III
Redressal at the district level in India, which APPSC (Pre) 2023
one of the following statement is not correct? Ans. (c) : The Parliament passed the Administrative
(a) The State Government can establish more Tribunals Act in 1985. It authorises the central
government to establish one central administrative
than one District Forum in a district if it triabunal and the state administraive tribunals. Hence, it
deems fit. is a statutory body.
(b) One of the members, of the District Forum It's members are drawn from both Judicial and
shall be a women. administrative streams and are appointed by the
President. Hence, statement-II is incorrect.
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints
It is not bounded by the procedure laid down in the
where the value of goods or services does not Civil Procedure Code of 1908, it works on principle of
exceed rupees fifty lakhs. natural justice.Hence, statement-II is correct.
(d) More than one of the above The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was setup
(e) None of the above in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi. Hence,
68th BPSC 2022 statement-IV is also correct.
229
132. Which of the following statements is/are Ans. (b): Police Custody means that police has the
correct about the National Green Tribunal? physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody
I. It was set up under the National Green means an accused is in the custody of the concerned
Tribunal Act, 2010. Magistrate. In former, the accused is lodged in police
II. NGT is bound by the procedure laid down station lockup while in latter, it is the jail. Hence,
under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. statement 1 is not correct.
III. NGT has six places of sitting throughout the During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of
country. the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect.
However, the court may allow the interrogations to be
Choose the correct answer using the codes conducted if court is of the opinion that the
given below : interrogation being necessary under the facts produced
(a) I only (b) II and III only before the court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(c) I and II only (d) I, II and III 136. Consider the following statements:
APPSC (Pre) 2023 1. The highest criminal court of the district is
Ans. (a) : National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
body setup under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2. The District Judges are appointed by the
2010. The tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid Governor in consultation with the High
down under the code of Civil Procedure 1908, but shall Courts.
be guided by principles of "natural justice" the NGT has 3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a
five places of sittings, New Delhi is the principle place District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader
of sittings. of seven year's standing or more, or State.
133. Who said, Delegated legislation and 4. When the Sessions Judge awards death
administrative tribunals are the manifestation sentence, it must be confirmed by the High
of "New despotism"? Court before it is carried out.
Which of these statements given above are
(a) John E. Kersell (b) Sir Cecil Carr correct?
(c) Lord Hewart (d) D.L. Hewit
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(e) Answer not known
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
IAS (Pre.) G.S., 2004
Ans. (c) : Lord Hewart said, Delegated legislation and
administrative tribunals are the manifestation of "New Ans. (d) Article 233 of the Constitution is regarding
despotism". appointment of District Judge. Article 233(1) asserts
134. Identify the incorrect statement about Lok that the appointments of persons to be and the posting
adalat and promotion of District Judges in any State shall be
(a) Lok adalat is mechanism for speedy trial of made by the Governor of the State in consultation with
the disputes the High Court. Article 233(2) asserts that a person not
(b) It is not a tool of the legal system already in the service of the Union or of the State shall
(c) It is a kind of forum to settle cases in an only be eligible to be appointed a District Judge, if he
amicable manner has been for not less than seven years as an advocate.
(d) Lok adalat goes to the people to deliver The highest court in each district is that of the District
justice at their door steps and Sessions Judge. This is the principal court of civil
(e) Answer not known jurisdiction. This is also a court of Sessions. Sessions
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 triable cases are tried by the Sessions Court. It has the
Ans. (e) : Lok Adalat is one alternate dispute resolution power to impose any sentence including capital
mechanisms where disputes pending in the court of law punishment (death sentence) but it must be confirmed
or at pre-litigation stage are settled amicably. by the High Court before it is carried out. Hence all four
Mobile Lok Adalats are organized in various parts of statements are correct.
the country which travel from one location to another to
137. The term District Judge is mentioned in which
resolves disputes and deliver justice at door steps. Thus,
answer can not be determined. of the following Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 230 (b) Article 231
135. With reference to India, consider the following
statements: (c) Article 232 (d) Article 233
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the (e) None of the above
custody of the concerned magistrate and such Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 2016
accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in question.
charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate 138. The District and Session both judges work
the suspect without the approval of the court. directly under the control of
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) District Collector
correct? (b) Governor of State
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Law Minister of State
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) High Court of the State
IAS (Pre) G.S 2021 UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
230
Ans. (d): Under Article 235 of the Constitution, both the Ans. (b) Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 extends to the
District and Sessions Judges work under the control of the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland,
High Court of the State. In addition, the posting, promotion Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and to the tribal areas.
and discharge of persons of the judicial service of the State According to Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008, Gram
and persons holding any office from the post of District Nyayalaya shall exercise both civil and criminal
Judge, etc., are vested with the High Court. jurisdiction. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Gram
139. Which one of the following writs examines the Nyayalaya shall try to settle the disputes as far as
functioning of subordinate courts? possible by bringing about conciliation between the
(a) Quo Warranto (b) Mandamus parties and for this purpose; it shall make use of the
(c) Certiorari (d) Habeas Corpus conciliators to be appointed for this purpose. Hence
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 statement 2 is correct.
Ans. (c) Certiorari is a writ issued by a superior court 143. With reference to the Consumer Disputes
for the re-examination of an action of a lower court. Redressal at district level in India, which one of
Certiorari is also issued by an appellate court to obtain the following statements is not correct?
information on a case pending before it. (a) A State Government can establish more than
140. According to Constitution of India, the term one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
‘District Judge’ shall not include (b) One of the members of the District Forum
(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate shall be a woman
(b) Session Judge (c) The District Forum entertains the complaints
(c) Tribunal Judge where the value of goods or services does not
(d) Chief Judge of a small cause court exceed rupees fifty lakhs
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1996 (d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or
Ans. (c) According to Article 236(a) of the any service provided may be filed with a
Constitution, the expression District Judge includes District Forum by the State Government as a
Judge of a city civil court, additional District Judge, representative of the interests of the
Joint District Judge, Assistant District Judge, Chief consumers in general
Judge of a small cause court, Chief Presidency IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010
Magistrate, Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate,
Sessions Judge, Additional Sessions Judge and Ans. (c) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is a social
Assistant Sessions Judge. Hence Tribunal Judge is not legislation that lays down the rights of the consumers
included in the term of District Judge. and provides promotion and protection of the rights of
141. According to Article 236(a) of the Indian the consumers.
To provide inexpensive, speedy and summary redressal
Constitution, the expression "District Judge"
of consumer disputes, quasi-judicial bodies have been
includes_____. set up in each district, State and at the National level
(a) Judge of a city civil court, Additional district called the District Forums, the State Consumer Disputes
Judge, Joint district judge, Assistant district Redressal Commissions and the National Consumer
judge. Disputes Redressal Commission respectively.
(b) Chief Judge of a small cause court. Each District Forum is headed by a person who is or has
(c) Chief presidency magistrate, Additional chief been or is eligible to be appointed as a District Judge,
presidency magistrate. two other members having sound knowledge of law,
(d) Sessions judge, Additional sessions Judge and economics, commerce, public affairs etc and one of
assistant session’s judge. them must be woman.
A State Government can establish more than one
Choose the correct answer from options given
District Forum in a district, if it deems fit. The
below: provisions of this Act cover ‘goods’ as well as
(1) A, C and D (2) A, B and D ‘services’.
(3) B and C only (4) All of the above A written complaint can be filed before the District
Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020 Consumer Forum for pecuniary value of up to rupees
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above twenty lakh, before State Commission for value up to
question. rupees one crore and before the National Commission
for value above rupees one crore in respect of defects in
142. With reference to the 'Gram Nyayalaya Act', goods and or deficiency in service. Hence statement (c)
which of the following statements is/are correct? is not correct.
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear 144. With reference to National Legal Services
only civil cases and not criminal cases. Authority, consider the following statements:
2. The Act allows local social activists as 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent
mediators/reconciliators. legal services to the weaker sections of the
Select the correct answer using the code given society on the basis of equal opportunity.
below. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Services Authorities to implement the legal
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 programmes and schemes throughout the
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2016 country.
231
 Which of the statements given above is/are 146. Which of the following statements are correct
correct? regarding 'Tribunals in India’?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (1) Tribunals are administrative bodies
(C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 established for the purpose of discharging
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 quasi-judicial duties.
Ans. (c) The National Legal Services Authority (2) Tribunals act on the Principle of Natural
(NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Justice.
Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free legal services to (3) Tribunals were added to the Constitution by
the weaker sections of the society. the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of (4) Tribunals in India were created on the
National Legal Services Authority and the senior most recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Judge of the Supreme Court is the Executive Chairman Committee.
of the Authority. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
The principal objective of NALSA is to provide free (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
and competent legal services to the weaker sections of Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
the society and to ensure that opportunities for securing Ans. (c): Tribunal is an administrative body established
justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of for the purpose of discharging quasi-judicial duties. An
economic or other disabilities and to organize Lok Administrative Tribunal is neither a Court nor an
Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. Spreading executive body. It stands somewhere midway between a
legal literacy and awareness, undertaking social justice Court and an administrative body. The delay in justice
litigations etc are other objectives of NALSA. administration is one of the biggest obstacles which
NALSA works in close coordination with the various have been tackled with the establishment of Tribunals.
State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Authorities and other agencies for a regular exchange of With the enactment of Administrative Tribunals Act,
relevant information, monitoring and updating on the 1985, Tribunals have been vested with the powers of
implementation and progress of the various schemes. Civil Court in respect of some matters including the
145. In India, legal service authorities provide free review of their own decisions and are bound by the
legal services to which of the following type of principles of natural justice. Hence, statement 2 is also
citizens? correct.
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
1,00,000 provided for the insertion of Articles 323-A and 323-B
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than in the Constitution of India, whereby the goal of
Rs 2,00,000 establishment of Administrative Tribunals by the
Parliament as well as the State Legislatures. Therefore,
3. Member of other backward classes(OBC) with statement 3 is not correct.
an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
Swaran Singh Committee, which was appointed to
4. All senior citizens study the required changes in fundamental laws,
Select the correct answer using the given code recommended in 1976 that the Administrative Tribunals
b e l o w - may be set up under a Central law, both at the State
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only level and at the Centre to decide cases relating to
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only service matters. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2020 147. Under the Constitution of India,
Ans. (a) As per the Legal Services Authorities Act, Administrative Tribunals are related with
1987, following are entitled to free legal services: (a) Article 322 (b) Article 323
(a) A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe (c) Article 323 A (d) Article 323 B
(b) A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution Ans. (c): Article 323A deals with the Administrative
(c) A woman or a child Tribunal under the Constitution of India. The provision
(d) A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person regarding tribunal was not in the original Constitution,
(e) A person under circumstances of undeserved want it was included in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Tribunals play an
violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake important and distinct role in the judicial system. They
or industrial disaster hear disputes related to environment, armed forces,
(f) An industrial workman taxation and administrative issues to reduce the burden of
(g) Income Ceiling to Rs.1,25,000/- p.a. for legal aid courts burdened with pending cases. The Administrative
before Supreme Court of India and to Rs.1,00,000/- Tribunal was established by the Administrative Tribunal
p.a. for legal aid up to High Courts. Act, 1985, an Act of Parliament. It originated from Article
Limit for Transgender is Rs. 2,00,000. Hence statement 323A of the Constitution.
1 and 2 are correct. 148. Consider the following statements:
There is no such provision for free legal aid specifically 1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was
for OBCs. Senior citizens eligibility for free legal aid set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal
depends on the rules framed by the respective State Bahadur Shastri.
Governments in this regard. Hence statement 3 and 4 2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both
are not correct. judicial and administrative streams.
232
 Which of the statements given above is are 151. Which one of the following statements about
correct? 'Lok Adalat' is incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Under the Legal Services Authorities Act of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2009 1987, Lok Adalats have been given a
Ans. (b) The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) statutory status.
had been established (under the Prime Ministership of (b) Lok Adalats can be constituted of serving or
Rajiv Gandhi) in the year 1985 under Article 323A of
retired judicial persons only.
the Constitution for adjudication of disputes and
complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of (c) Every award made by the Lok Adalat is final
service of persons appointed to public services and and binding on the parties.
posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or
(d) The award passed by the Lok Adalat is
other authorities under the control of the Government.
There are 17 Benches in the Central Administrative deemed to be a decree of a civil Court.
Tribunal all over India. A Bench consists of one Judicial Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
Member and one Administrative Member.
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
149. The decision of the Central Administrative
Tribunals can be challenged in the Supreme question.
Court of India under the 152. Which reference to family courts, which of the
(a) Article 323 A (b) Article 329
following statements is/are correct?
(c) Article 243 C (d) Article 343
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020 1. Family courts were established under Family
Court Act. 1984.
Ans. (a) : Initially, the decision of the Central
Administrative Tribunal could be challenged before 2. It excludes representation by lawyers.
Supreme Court under Article 323A of the Constitution, Choose the correct answer from the codes
by filing Special Leave Petition. However, after the given below.
Supreme Court’s decision in L. Chandra Kumar’s case, Codes:
the orders of Central Administrative Tribunal are now (a) Only 1 is correct
being challenged by way of Writ Petition under Article (b) Only 2 is correct
226/227 of the Constitution before respective High (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Court in whose territorial jurisdiction the Bench of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Tribunal is situated.
150. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the UPPSC ACF Mains Paper II 2021
following statements is correct? Ans. (a): The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the establishment of Family Courts by the State
matters at pre-litigation stage and not those
matters pending before any court Governments in consultation with the High Courts to
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of
civil and not criminal in nature disputes relating to marriage and family affairs. As per
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or the Act, it is mandatory for the State Government to set
retired judicial officers only and not any other
person up a Family Court for every city or a town whose
(d) None of the statements given above is correct population exceeds ten lakhs.
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010 The Family Courts Act dispenses with the service of the
Ans.(d): Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute lawyer. Section 13 makes it abundantly clear
redressal mechanism and it is a forum where disputes
pending in the court at pre litigation stage are "Notwithstanding anything contained in any law, no
settled/compromised amicable. party to a suit or proceeding before a Family Court shall
The Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases which are be entitled, as of right, to be represented by a legal
pending in a court or which are at pre-litigation stage
practitioner."
are settled amicably.
The cases may be civil or petty criminal cases. The award Section 11 of the Family Courts Act makes it obligatory
made by Lok Adalat is binding on all parties and seemed on the part of the Court to hold the proceedings in
to be a decree of civil court. camera if any party so desires. These may also be held
Lok Adalat have been given statutory status under legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987. in camera if the court so deems fit.

233

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18.
Local Government
3. Which of the following statements is not true
1. Panchayati Raj regarding 'Gram Sabha'?
(a) It has the powers and functions at the village
1. Consider the following Assertion (A) and level, like state Legislature has at the state
Reason (R) and choose the correct code: level.
Assertion (A): (b) Its powers are determined by the Central
In connection with their own resource Government
collection the Panchayats at the village level are (c) It is a Village Assembly consisting of all
better placed than the panchayats at the registered voters in the area of Panchayat.
Intermediate and the District levels. (d) (a) and (c) both.
Reason (R): UPPCS (Pre) 2023
The Gram Panchayats have their own tax Ans. (b) : Gram Sabha is defined as a village assembly
domain whereas the other two tiers have to consisting of all registered voters in the area of
depend only no tolls, fees and non-tax revenue Panchayat, and it has the powers and functions at the
for internal resource generation. village level, like state legislature has at the state level.
Code: 4. With reference to the recommendations of the
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) on Panchayati
(A). Raj, which of the following statement/s is/are
correct?
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not
(1) The three tier system of Panchayati Raj
explain (A).
should be replaced by the two tier system.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) A block should be the first point for
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. decentralization under popular supervision
APPSC (Pre) 2023 below the state level.
Ans. (a) : In connection with their own resource Select the correct answer using the code given
collection the Panchayats at the village level are better below–
placed than the panchayats at the Intermediate and the Code :
District levels because the Gram Panchayats have their (a) Both 1 and 2
own tax domain whereas the other two tiers have to (b) Only 1
depend only no tolls, fees and non-tax revenue for (b) Neither 1 nor 2
internal resource generation. Hence, both (A) and (R) (d) Only 2
are true, and (R) explains (A). UPPCS (Pre) 2023
2. Which of the following Committees were Ans. (b) : Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) submitted
appointed to inquire into the working of its report in August, 1976, with 132 recommendations
Panchayati Rai Institution in India? for reviving and strengthening the Panchayati Raj
I. L.M. Singhvi Committee System. According to its recommendations the three tier
II. G.V.K. Rao Committee Panchayati Raj system should be replaced with a two
III. Ashok Mehta Committee tier structure with a district level Zila Parishad and a
IV. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Mandal Panchayat consisting of a collection of villages
Select the correct answer: with a combined population of 15000 to 20000 people.
(a) Only I, II and III And below the state level a district should be the first
(b) Only III and IV point of decentralization under popular supervision.
(c) Only II, III and IV Hence only 1st statement is correct.
(d) All of the above 5. All elections to the Panchayats are conducted
JPSC (Pre) 2024-I by–
Ans. (d) : The following Committees were appointed to (a) Election Commission of India
inquire into the working of Panchayati Raj Institution - (b) Panchayati Raj Commission
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - 1956 (c) State Election Commission
Ashok Mehta Committee - 1977 (d) State Legislature
G.V.K. Rao Committee - 1985 UPPCS (Pre) 2023
L.M. Singhvi Committee - 1986 Ans. (c) : The State Election Commission is responsible
P.K. Thungan Committee - 1988 for conducting Panchayat or local body elections.
234
6. With reference to the reservation of seats for Choose the correct answer using the codes
women in Panchayati Raj Institutions, which of given below :
the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) II, III and IV (b) I, II and III
(1) It is provided in the Article 243D(3) of the (c) I and II (d) All of the above
Indian Constitution. APPSC (Pre) 2023
(2) The reservation shall cease to have effect on the Ans. (d) : Article 243-I of Indian Constitution provides
expiration of the period specified in Article 334. for the provision of appointment of state finance
Select the correct answer from the code given commission at every five year to review the financial
below- position of the Panchayats. It makes recommendations
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
to the Governor as the principles which should govern
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 the distribution between the state and the Panchayats of
UPPSC (J) 2023 the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees
Ans. (a) : Article 243D(3) of the constitution provides leviable by the state. It also recommends the
for minimum one third reservation to the women in determination of the taxes, duties and fees which may
Panchayats for directly elected seats. The reservation in be assigned to or appropriated by the Panchayats.
Panchayats for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes
cease to have effect on expiration of the period 10. Which of the following subjects are listed in the
specified in Article 334. However, there is no time limit 11th Schedule?
for women's reservation. Thus, statement 1 is correct I. Women and Child Development
and statement 2 is incorrect. II. Public Distribution System
7. The tenure of every Panchayat in India is five III. Libraries
years from: IV. Slum Improvement and Upgradation
(a) the scheduled date of its first meeting V. Markets and Fairs
(b) the date of notification of the election Choose the correct answer using the codes
(c) the date of declaration of election results given below :
(d) the date of oath of office by members (a) I, II and V
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 (b) I, II, III and IV
(c) I, II, III and V
Ans. (a) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) All of the above
provided Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj
APPSC (Pre) 2023
Institutions. The Act provides for a five year term of
office to the Panchayat at every level from the date of Ans. (d) : The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution
its first meeting. However, it can be dissolved before contains 29 items. In the above question all given items
the completion of its term. are listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
8. Which one is not a Local Self Government? 11. Consider the following statements:
(a) Panchayati Raj Institution (1) Part-IX was inserted in the constitution by
73rd constitutional amendment.
(b) Municipal Council
(2) Art. 243D provide reservation to women in
(c) Municipal Corporation
Gram Panchayats.
(d) Autonomous District Council
(3) Panchayats are not dependent on States for
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023 their budgets.
Ans. (d) : Panchayati Raj Institutions, Municipal (4) States legislature can't make laws for auditing
Council and Municipal corporation are local self the accounts of Panchayats.
government. Autonomous District Councils are Choose the correct answer from the options
provided under Schedule VIth of the constitution. These given below:
are provided in states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram (a) (1) and (2) only
and Tripura for Tribal governance. (b) (2) and (3) only
9. Which of the following statements is correct (c) (3) and (4) only
with respect to the State Finance Commission? (d) (4) and (2) only
I. It is required to appoint a State Finance Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023
Commission once in five years. Ans. (a) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
II. It recommends the determination of taxes, added Part IX to the constitution which provided
duties, tolls and fees assigned to the Panchayats constitutional status to Panchayats.
and Municipalities. Article 243 to 343-O of the constitution deals with
provisions of Panchayat. Article 243-D of the
III. Article 243 deals with Constitution of finance constitution provides reservation to women in the state
commission to review financial position of legislature may make provisions with respect to
Panchayats. auditing.
235
12. Through which Amendment Act, the existing, Ans. (b) In 1978, Ashok Mehta Committee
‘Village Level Workers’ has been substituted recommended the creation of Nyaya Panchayats.
by the ‘Gram Vikas Adhikari’? 16. Which of the following recommendation(s)/are
(a) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) true regarding Balwant Rai Mehta
Act, 2015 Committee?:
(b) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) 1. Establishment of three-tier Panchayti Raj
Act, 2017 System
(c) The Rajasthan Panchyati Raj (Amendment) 2. All planning and development activities
Act, 2019 should be entrusted to Panchayati Raj
(d) The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) institutions
Act, 2021 3. Political parties should field candidates in the
(e) Question not attempt Panchayati Raj elections.
RPSC (Pre) 2023 4. District Collector should be the Chairman of
Zilla Parishad
Ans.(d): The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Amendment
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Act 2025 village level workers has been substituted by
Gram Vikas Adhikari. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. In which part of Indian Constitution the
J & K PSC Pre-2018
Panchayati Raj system is incorporated?
(a) Part IX (b) Part IX-A Ans.(b): Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed
(c) Part XII (d) Part XII-A on 16th January 1957 and submitted its report on 24th
November 1957. This Committee recommended the
Tripura PSC (Pre) 2022
establishment of the scheme of 'democratic
Ans. (a) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act decentralization', which finally came to be known as
added Part IX to the constitution which provides for Panchayati Raj.
Panchayati Raj Institutions. This Amendment Act The major recommendations of the Balwant Rai
envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Mehta Committee are-
Panchayati Raj System which carries out the functions (1) Establishment of a three tier Panchayati Raj System.
& powers assigned by the State Legislature. These three tiers are-
14. State Chief Election Commissioner is (i) Gram-Panchayats at the village level or at the
appointed by - bottom
(a) Governor (ii) Panchayat Samiti at the block level or in the
middle
(b) President of India
(iii) Zila Parishad at the district level
(c) Chief Justice of Hight Court
(2) All planning and development activities should be
(d) Home Minister entrusted to Panchayati Raj institutions.
MPPSC Pre 2022 (3) District Collector should be the Chairman of Zilla
Ans. (a): Article 243K of the Constitution of India Parishad.
states that the superintendence, direction and control of 17. The recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta
the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of Committee led to the introduction of .......... in
all elections to the Panchayats (Municipalities under India?
Article 243(ZA) shall be vested in a State Election (a) IITs
Commission, consisting of a State Election (b) SC/ST Commission
Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor. (c) Railway reservations
15. Which one of the following Committees/Com- (d) Panchayati Raj
missions recommended the creation of Nyaya Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017
Panchayats? Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee question.
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee 18. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) G.V.K. Rao Committee correct regarding Ashok Mehta Committee
Report (1978)?
(d) Sarkaria Commission
(1) Committee recommended for two-tier system
(e) None of the above
of Panchayati Raj.
BPSC (Pre) G.S., 2018
(2) A district should be the first point for
Uttarakhand-PSC (Pre) 2016 decentralization below the state-level
236
 (3) Zila Parishad should be the executive body Select the correct answer from the codes given
and should be responsible for planning at the below.
district level.
Codes:
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) I, II, III, IV (b) III, I, IV, II
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I (c) II, I, III, IV (d) III, II, IV, I
Ans. (d): Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj UPPSC (Pre) 2021
Institution was appointed in 1977 by Janata Ans. (b): The Correct chronological order is-
government. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee- 1957
Important recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Ashok Mehta Committee - 1977.
committee are- G.V.K. Rao Committee - 1985.
1. Recommended a two-tier system instead of a three- L.M.Singhvi Committee - 1986.
tier system. 21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
2. Panchayati Raj institutions should have the answer using the codes given below the lists–
compulsory power of taxation to mobilize their own List-I List-II
financial resources. (Panchayati Raj (Year)
3. There should be a regular social audit. committees)
4. A Ministry for Panchayati Raj should be appointed.
(A) C.H. Hanumantha 1. 1985
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (B) G.V.K. Rao 2. 1986
answer from the code given below the lists.
(C) Ashok Mehta 3. 1984
List-I List-II
(D) L.M. Singhvi 4. 1957
(Committee) (Year of
(E) Balwant Rai Mehta 5. 1977
Appointment)
A B C D E
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1. 1957
(a) 4 5 1 3 2
B. Ashok Mehta Committee 2. 1977
(b) 2 4 1 3 5
C. L. M. Singhvi Committee 3. 1986
(c) 5 3 2 4 1
4. P.K. Thungun Committee 4. 1988
(d) 3 1 5 2 4
Code:
66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (d) : The Correct Match is as follows–
(b) 1 2 3 4 Panchayati Raj Committees - Year
(c) 2 3 1 4 C.H. Hanumantha Rao - 1984
(d) 3 4 2 1 G.V.K. Rao - 1985
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022 Ashok Mehta - 1977
L.M. Singhavi - 1986
Ans. (b): The correct match is as follows-
Balwant Rai Mehta - 1957
(Committee) (Year of
Appointment) 22. Arrange the folowing committees on
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1957 Panchayati Raj in chronological order-
Ashok Mehta Committee 1977 (1) L.M. Singhvi Committee
L. M. Singhvi Committee 1986 (2) B.R. Mehta Committee
P.K. Thungun Committee 1988 (3) Ashok Mehta Committee
20. Consider the following Committees on (4) Thungan Committee
Panchayati Raj and arrange these in Select the correct answer from the codes given
chronological order: below-
I. Ashok Mehta Committee Codes -
II. L.M. Singhvi Committee (a) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (b) 3, 4, 1 and 2
III. B.R. Mehta Committee (c) 4, 3, 2 and 1 (d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
IV. G.Y.K Rao Committee UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (IInd Paper), 2019
237
Ans. (d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - 1957 (b) L.M. Singhvi Committee
Ashok Mehta Committee - 1977 (c) Ashok Mehta Committee
L.M. Singhvi Committee - 1986 (d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
P.K.Thungan Committee - 1988 TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
23. Arrange these committees related to Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Panchayati Raj in chronological order: question.
1. Rao Committee 27. Which of the following are the
2. L.M. Singhvi Committee recommendation/recommendations of the L.M.
3. B.R. Mehta Committee Singhvi Committee?
4. Ashok Mehta Committee (I) Nyaya Panchayats should be created for a
Select the correct answer using given codes: cluster of villages
(a) 2, 3, 1 and 4 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (II) Consitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj
(c) 3, 4, 1 and 2 (d) 4, 3, 2 and 1 institutions
nd (III) More financial resources for village
UPPCS (Mains) 2017 G.S. II Paper
Ans. (c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - 1957 panchayts
Ashok Mehta Committee - 1977 (a) II & III (b) I & III
G.V.K. Rao Committee - 1985 (c) I & II (d) All of these
L.M. Singhvi Committee - 1986 Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
24. Who is considered as the “Architect of Ans. (d): In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi Government appointed
Panchayati Raj” in India? a committee on the ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj
(a) Acharya Narendra Deo institutions for democracy and development’ under the
(b) G.V.K. Rao chairmanship of L.M.Singhvi. L.M.Singhvi committee
(c) B.R. Mehta recommended providing more financial resources and
(d) L.M. Singhavi constitutional status to the Panchayats to strengthen
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016 them. The Nyaya Panchayat should be established for
Ans. (c) Balwant Rai Mehta, the second Chief Minister cluster of villages.
of Gujarat is considered as the 'Architect of Panchayati 28. Which committee was appointed in 1986 to
Raj' in India. deal with ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj
25. Which of the following Committee institutions for democracy and development’?
recommended for according a Constitutional
Position to Panchayati Raj? (a) Ashok Mehta Committee
(a) L. M. Singhvi Committee (b) G.V.K.Rao Committee
(b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (c) L.M.Singhvi Committee
(c) Rao Committee (d) Santhanam Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (a) In 1986 L.M. Singhvi Committee
question.
recommended that the Panachayati Raj institution
should be constitutionally recognized, protected and 29. When did the Union Cabinet chaired by the
preserved. For this purpose a new chapter should be Prime Minister approved the adoption of
added in the Constitution. Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act?
Basically it was primarily suggested by Ashok Mehta (a) 21 October, 2019
Committee in 1977 but after the collapse of the Janta (b) 21 August, 2020
Government, it leads to no action on its (c) 5 August, 2020
recommendations. (d) 21 October, 2020
26. Constitutional Status to the Panchyat Raj J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
st
Institution was initiated based on the Ans. (d) : On 21 October 2020, the Union Cabinet
recommendation of. chaired by the Prime Minister approved the adoption of
(a) G.V. K. Rao Committee Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act.
238
 30. Who was India’s Prime Minister when the (a) I, II and III (b) II and IV
government introduced the modern Panchayati (c) Only II (d) None
Raj system by the 73rd Constitutional APPSC (Pre) 2023
Amendment Act and gave it a Constitutional Ans. (c) : Central Finance Commission may
Status? recommend resources to Panchayats from centre's
(a) P.V. Narasimha Rao resources.
Panchayats are eligible for loans from the State
(b) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
Government.
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the
(d) Chandra Shekhar State Government is empowered to devolve its own
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 funds to the Panchayats on recommendation of state
Ans.(a): The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of finance commission.
1992 was introduced by Union Government under the Internal Resource Generation is facilitated for all
Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao. panchayat.
Hence, only statement-II is correct.
31. Which among the following constitutes
33. Which statement is correct about Panchayati
‘Finance Commission’ to review the financial
Raj?
condition of the Panchayats? (a) The Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad are
(a) Chief Minister of the concerned State constituted with directly elected members.
(b) Finance Minister of the concerned State (b) Minimum age is 18 years to contest the
(c) Governor of the concerned State election at the Panchayat level.
(d) Panchayati Raj Minister of the concerned (c) Election of the Panchayati Raj Institutions is
State conducted under the supervision of the State
Election Commission.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Article 243I of the Constitution prescribes that
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled)
the Governor of a State shall constitute a Finance
Ans. (c) :Article 243K of Indian constitution says
Commission to review the financial position of the Election of the Panchayati Raj Institutions is
Panchayats. conducted under the supervision of the state Election
commission.
2. Co-operative Societies 34. Consider the following statements and choose
the correct option:
32. Which of the following source/sources of (1) The subject, 'Co-operative Societies' has
revenue qualifies/qualify for being given to the been included in the Constitution of India
Panchayats? by the 97th Amendment in 2011.
(2) The right to establish 'Co-operative
I. The tax proceeds that are assigned to the
Societies' is given in Article 19(1)(c).
States from the Centre may be again re-
(3) The first law related to Co-operative
distributed to the panchayats as recommended Societies in India was passed in the tenure
by the Central Finance Commission. of Lord Curzon.
II. Loans from the State Government. (a) (1) and (3) are correct
III. Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of (b) (2) and (3) are correct
India, the State Government is empowered to (c) (1) and (2) are correct
devolve its own funds to the Panchayats even in (d) All the three statements are correct
the absence of the State Finance Commission's Maharashtra PSC 2022
recommendations. Ans. (d) : Article 19(1)(c) provides for the right to
IV. Internal Resource Generation is facilitated establish Co-operative Societies (inserted by the
only in the case of Panchayats situated in Constitution 97th Amendment Act 2011). Hence, both
statements, first and second are correct. In 1904, the Co-
Scheduled Areas as per the Fifth Schedule.
operative Credit Societies Act was passed by Lord
Select the correct answer using the codes given Curzon which was the first law related to Co-operative
below Societies in India. Hence, 3rd statement is also correct.

239

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19.
Official Languages
1. Consider the following statements regarding Ans. (d) According to Article 348 of the Constitution,
the provisions of official languages in India: all proceeding in the Supreme Court and High Courts of
(i) Article 343 of the Constitution of India has India shall be in English language, until Parliament by
made Hindi in Devanagari Script as the law provides for another langauge.
National Language of India. 3. The official language of the Supreme Court is-
(ii) The legislature of a State may by law adopt (a) Hindi-Devnagri
any one or more of the languages in use in the
(b) Urdu/Parasi
State as the official language/languages of the
State as per article 345 of the Constitution of (c) English
India. (d) 18 languages described in the Constitution of
(iii) The Assam official Language Act, 1960 has India
been legislated as per Article 345 of the Uttarakhand RO/ARO (M) 2016
Constitution of India. Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Select the correct statements using the does question.
given below.
4. Which of the following is/are the main
(a) (i) and (ii) only
objective/ s of Committee of Parliament on
(b) (ii) and (iii) only Official language?
(c) (i) and (iii) only
A. To review the progress made in the use of
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) Hindi for official purposes of the Union
Assam PSC 2023 and to make recommendations to increase
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023 the use of Hindi.
Ans. (d) : Article 343 of constitution has made Hindi in B. Looking into the linguistic demands for
Devnagari script as official langauge (not national) new States and make suggestions in the
language of India. regard.
As per Article 343 of constitution, state may by law C. Identify the endangered language and
adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the make recommendations to protect and
state or Hindi as official language. Thus, the Assam preserve them.
official Language Act was passed in 1960 recognizing
D. Examine the vernacular education and
Assamese as official language in Assam.
make recommendations for effective
2. Under which law is it prescribed that all implementation of the three languages
proceeding in the Supreme Court or India shall
formula.
be in English language?
(a) A only
(a) The Supreme Court rules, 1966
(b) B, C and D
(b) Article 145 of the Constitution of India.
(c) A and D
(c) A Legislation made by Parliament.
(d) All of the above
(d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
MH PSC (Pre) 2023
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013

240
 Ans. (a) : The official language Act (1963) provided for (c) 345
setting up of a committee of parliament for (d) 346
recommending an official language. The committee was RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2002
comprise of 30 members of parliament 20 from Lok
Ans. (c) According to Article 345 of the Constitution,
Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or
The main objective of the committee is to review the more of the languages in use in the State as an official
progress made in the use of Hindi for the official language. Article 343 asserts that the official language
purposes of Union and submit a report to the President. of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. Article
Thus, only statement 1 is correct. 344 provided for the constitution of a Commission or
Committee of Parliament on official language while
5. The Constitution of India initially permitted
Article 346 is related to official language of
the use of English language for all official
communication between the States and to the Union.
purposes for a period of–
8. Which Article of Indian Constitution speaks
(a) 20 years
about official languages of Indian Union?
(b) 10 years
(a) Art. 341
(c) 5 years
(b) Art. 339
(d) 15 yars
(c) Art. 343
UPPCS (Pre) 2023
(d) Art. 336
Ans. (d) : Article 343 of the constitution mentions that
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2018 Paper-I
the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Devnagari script. The Article also allows use of English
question.
for all official purpose for a period of 15 years initially.
9. The mandate of the official language
6. Under which Article of the Constitution a
commission under Article 344 is/are
Speaker allows any member to speak in
1. The progressive use of the Hindi language for
Parliament in his/her mother language?
the official purposes of the Union
(a) Article 19(1)
2. Restrictions on the use of the English
(b) Article 343(1)
language for all or any of the official
(c) Article 120(1) purposes of the Union
(d) Article 210(1) Choose the correct statement(s):
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 (a) 1 Only
Ans. (c) : Article 120(1) of Indian constitution (b) 2 Only
provided that the Chairman of the Council of states or (c) Both 1 and 2
speaker of the House of people or person acting as such (d) Neither 1 nor 2
as the case may be, may permit any member who can't
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to
Ans. (c) According to Article 344(2) of the
address the House in his mother-tongue.
Constitution, It shall be the duty of the Commission to
7. In which Article of Indian Constitution the make recommendations to the President as to (a) The
procedure for adoption of official language or progressive use of the Hindi language for the official
languages of State is given? purposes of the Union (b) Restrictions on the use of the
(a) 343 English language for all or any of the official purposes
(b) 344 of the Union. Hence both the statements are correct.

241

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20.
Commission/Council/Tribunal
1. What type of party system does India have? I. Bahujan Samaj Party
(a) Single party system II. Samajwadi Party
(b) Two-party system III. Telugu Desham Party
(c) Three-party system IV. All India Trinamool Congress
(d) Multi-party system Select the correct answer from the code given
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 below.
Ans. (d): In India, there is a multi party system. Code:
• More than two parties have a reasonable chance of (a) III, I, II, IV (b) II, I, III, IV
coming to power either on their own strength or in (c) III, II, I, IV (d) I, II, III, IV
alliance with others. Thus in India, we have a UPPCS Pre 2022
multiparty system.
Ans. (a): List-I List-II
• Two-party system– Only the two main parties have
(Political Parties) (Year Of Establishment)
a serious chance of winning a majority of seats to
form a government. The United States of America Telugu Desam Party March 1982
and the United Kingdom are examples of a two party Bahujan Samaj Party 14 April 1984
system. Samajwadi Party 4 October 1992
• One-party system–Only one party is allowed to All India Trinamool Congress 1 January 1998
control and run the government. For example, in
China, only the communist party is allowed to rule.
1. Constitutional body
2. What is the minimum percentage of votes a
party should get in the previous election to
become a national party in India? 4. Consider the following statement connection
with the office of Comptroller and Auditor
(a) 10% of the valid vote in four or more states
General of India (CAG) :
(b) 4 per cent of the valid vote in four or more
states I. CAG can be removed by the President only
in accordance mentioned in the Constitution
(c) 15% of the valid vote in two states
but this does not mean that the CAG can be
(d) 6% of the valid vote in more than half of the impeached from office in the same manner as
states a Judge of the Supreme Court.
(e) None of the above/More than one of the
II. Some public corporations are audited
above
exclusively by private professional auditors,
66th BPSC Re-Exam 2020 and the CAG may have no involvement at all.
Ans. (e) : A political party would be considered a III. The CAG can conduct legal regulatory and
national party if :- propriety audit but not performance audit.
• It is 'recognised' in four or more states as a state party. IV. The constitution of India has not specified
• If it polls atleast 6% of total valid votes in any four or any criterion for the appointment of CAG.
more states in the last Lok Sabha or Assembly reactions Which of the above statement/statements is/are
and has atleast four MPs in the last Lok Sabha Polls. valid?
• If it has won atleast 2% of total seats in the Lok Sabha (a) I and II
from not less than three states.
(b) Only IV
Thus, none of the answer is correct.
(c) II and III
3. Consider the following Political Parties and
(d) II and IV
arrange them in the chronological order of their
establishment. APPSC (Pre) 2023

242
Ans. (d) : Part V of the constitution (Articles 148-151) Ans. (a) : The correct match is as follows
provides for the office of CAG. The constitution of
(Political Parties)
India has not specified any criterion for the appointment
of CAG. CAG can be removed from the office in the (Years of
same manner as of Judge of Supreme Court or High Establishment)
Court. Communist Party of India 1964
The CAG can conduct legal, regulatory propriety and (Marxist)
performance audit. Communist Party of India 1925
There are some public corporations which are audited Bahujan Samaj Party 1984
exclusively by private professional auditors and CAG
All India Trinamool 1998
may have no involvement at all. Thus, only statements
(II) and (IV) are correct. Congress (AITC)

5. Consider which among the following is not a 7. The members of the Pachayat Samiti are
constitutional body in India. (a) Nominated by the Block Development
(a) Niti Aayog Officer
(b) Nominated by the Zila Panchyat Chairman
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Directly elected by the people
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Indirectly elected by the members of the
(d) National Human Rights Commission
Village Panchyat
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2023
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2013
Ans. (a & d) : NITI Aayog and National Human Rights Ans. (d) Panchayat Samiti also called Taluka Panchayats
Commission is not a constitutional body in India. or Block Panchayats is the intermediate level in Panchayati
6. Match the following political parties listed in Raj Institutions. The Panchayat Samiti acts as the link
List–I with their years of establishment in List– between Gram Panchayat (Village) and Zilla Panchayat
II : (District). These blocks do not hold elections for the
Panchayat Samiti council seats. A Panchyat Samiti
List—I List—II constituted by the members includes all the Sarpanchas or
(Political Parties) (Years of Chairperson of the Grams Panchayat within the Block,
Establishment) MPs, MLA's MLCs of that Block. Directly elected
members, the elected members of Zila Parishad from that
a. Communist Party of 1. 1964 Block and some officers of that Block. The term of each
India (Marxist) Panchayat Samiti is five years in all the states.
b. Communist Party of 2. 1998 8. At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate
India in a Panchayati Raj Structure?
c. Bahujan Samaj Party 3. 1925 (a) Village Level
(b) Gram Panchayat Level
d. All India Trinamool 4. 1984
(c) Block Level
Congress (AITC)
(d) District Level
Select the correct answer using the codes given 68th BPSC-2022
below.
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
(a) a b c d
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
1 3 4 2 question.
(b) a b c d
9. Which among the following is the middle unit
2 1 4 3 of Three Tier Panchayati Raj System?
(c) a b c d (a) Gram Panchayat (b) Panchayat Samiti
2 1 3 4 (c) Zila Parishad (d) Gram Sabha
(d) a b c d OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
3 4 1 2 Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
69th BPSC (Pre) 2023 question.

243
10. Members of Panchayat Samiti are elected- vi. Budget can be passed in the adjourned
(a) Directly elected by the public meeting where Quorum is not present
(b) Elected by the members of the Panchayat vii. Audit report can be passed in the adjournment
meeting where Quorum is not present
(c) Nominated by the District Magistrate
viii. Sarpanch can be dismissed if Quorum is not
(d) Appointed by the open competition present in five subsequent meeting of Gram
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010 Sabha
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2002 (a) i ii v
Ans.(b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. (b) iii vi viii
11. In Panchayati Raj system the Panchayat Samiti (c) iv vi vii
is constituted at the (d) v vi vii
(a) Village level (b) Block level (e) vi vii viii
(c) District level (d) State level Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) G.S., 2015
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2015 Ans. (d) 1/10 Quorum is essential in the meeting of the
Gram Sabha. The presence of 1/3 woman is essential in
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above the meeting of the Gram Sabha. The meeting of the
question. Gram Sabha is postponed in case Quorum is not met. If
12. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India meeting of Gram Sabha is postponed continuously for
is only a/an five times then Sarpanch can be dismissed. Both Budget
(a) Advisory Body and Audit report cannot be passed if Quorum is not
present.
(b) Consultative Committee
15. Who presides the meeting of Gram Sabha in
(c) Co-ordinating and Supervisory Authority
Schedule Areas?
(d) Administrative Authority (a) Sarpanch
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Deputy Sarpanch
question. (c) Sarpanch or Deputy Sarpanch
13. As per Article 243 of the Constitution, the (d) Schedule Tribe member present
following would be the members of "Gram Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015
Sabha":
Ans. (d) The meeting of Gram Sabha in scheduled areas
(a) All adults with age of 18 years and above in are presided by the schedule tribe member present at
the Panchayat area that particular meeting.
(b) All voters as per electoral rolls relating to the 16. When the Sarpanch of the Gram Panchayat is
Panchayat area elected indirectly? (According to Chhattisgarh
(c) All citizens residing in the Panchayat area Panchayati Raj Act, 1993, Article 13)
(d) All persons allowed by the Gram Panchayat (a) When the Sarpanch tenders his resignation
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 (b) When the Sarpanch is recalled
Ans. (b): According to Article 243 (A), Gram Sabha (c) When the Sarpanch is dismissed
means a body consisting of persons registered in the (d) When the election of Sarpanch is pending
electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the (e) All the above
area of Panchayat at the village level. Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2017
14. What is not correct about Gram Sabha? Ans. (d) According to Article 13 of the Chhattisgarh
i. 1/10 Quorum is essential in the meeting of the Panchayati Raj Act, 1993, Sarpanch of the Gram
Gram Sabha Panchayat is elected indirectly if election of the
Sarpanch is scheduled to be held in near future.
ii. The presence of 1/3 woman is essential in the
meeting of the Gram Sabha 17. Which of the following taxes is levied by the
Gram Panchayats?
iii. Sarpanch and Panch are responsible for
Quorum. (a) Sales Tax (b) Land Revenue Tax
iv. The meeting of the Gram Sabha can be (c) Tax on Local (d) None of the above
adjourned in the absence of Quorum. UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2018
v. Quorum is essential in adjourned meeting. Ans: (c) Taxes on local fairs is levied by the Gram
Panchayats.
244
18. In the areas covered under the Panchayat Ans. (c): Panchayat Samiti also called Taluka
(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, Panchayat or block Panchayat is the intermedicate level
what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI). Few gram
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent Panchayat are grouped to form a panchayat Samiti
alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. (Block or mandal). They operate at the block level and
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor act as a link between Gram Panchayat (village) and
forest produce. District Panchayat (district).
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required
for granting prospecting licence or mining At Block level body a panchayat samiti operates a
lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. panchayati Raj structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are
21. The minimum age for contesting elections in
correct?
the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only many years according to the 73 rd
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Constitutional Amendment Act?
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 (a) 21 years
Ans. (b) As per the provisions of the Panchayats (b) 25 years
(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, every (c) 15 years
Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land (d) More than one of the above
in the scheduled areas and to take appropriate action to
(e) None of the above
restore any unlawfully alienated land of a scheduled
tribe. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest 68th BPSC 2022
rd
produce. The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or Ans. (a): According to the 73 Constitutional
the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting
mandatory prior to grant of prospecting licence or elections in the Panchayati Raj Institution should be 21
mining lease for ‘minor’ minerals not for all minerals years (Article 243 F).
(all non timber forest produce of plant origin including 22. Consider the following statements:
bamboo, brush wood, stumps, cane, tussar, cocoons, In the post-73rd Amendment Act. There has to
honey-wax, lac, tendu leaves, medicinal plants, herbs, be decentralization of
roots, tubers, etc.) in the scheduled areas. Hence 1. decision-making powers
statement 3 is incorrect.
2. system as a whole
19. The provision of reservation of seats for 3. judicial powers
Scheduled Tribes in Municipalities in Madhya 4. administrative powers
Pradesh has been made under which of the
Which of the above statement are correct?
following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 243 T(1) (b) 243 S (1)
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 243 R(1) (d) 243 U (1)
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
MPPSC (Pre) 2020
(d) More than one of the above
Ans. (a) : Article 243 T(1) deals with the reservation of (e) None of the above
seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every
68th BPSC 2022
Municipality of India. Therefore the provision of rd
reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in Ans. (b): The 73 Constitutional Amendment Act,
Municipalities in Madhya Pradesh has been made under 1992 enforced the Panchayati Raj System in India. It
this Article 243 T (1). aims to promote democratic decentralisation of system
as a whole, administrative powers and decision making
20. At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate powers to promote democracy at grassroots level and to
Panchayati Raj structure? oversee the regional development of the country.
(a) District level 23. What is/are true among the following?
(b) Gram Panchayat level (i) By 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments,
(c) Block-level body Three-tier Governance System was
(d) More than one of the above introduced in the Constitution.
(e) None of the above (ii) This system was copied from the Constitution
68th BPSC 2022 of Australia.

245
 (iii) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act is related Assertion (A): The 73rd Amendment of the
to giving constitutional recognition to Constitution is considered to be a watershed in the
Panchayats. history of local self government in India.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) Reason (R): The 73rd Constitution Amendment
(c) Only (i) (d) None of the above conferred the much coveted Constitutional status on
CGPSC Pre 2022 Panchayats.
Ans. (c) : The three-tier governance system for local Select the correct answer from the code given
bodies and Panchayats are original concept of Indian below:
Polity. It is not copied from Australian constitution.
Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. Code:
Also the 74th Constitutional Amendment is related to (a) (A) is false but (R) is true
urban local bodies and not to Panchayats. Hence 3rd (b) (A) is true but (R) is false
statement is also incorrect. (c) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments provides correct explanation of (A)
constitutional status to panchayats and municipal (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
administration. Hence, 1st statement is correct. correct explanation of (A)
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
UPPCS Pre 2022
answer from the code given below the lists. rd
List-I List-II Ans. (d): The 73 Constitutional Amendment Act,
(Committee) (Year of 1992 provided constitutional status to the Panchayati
Appointment) Raj Systems. It added a new Part IX to the constitution
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1. 1957 covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O). That's
B. Ashok Mehta Committee 2. 1977 why it is considered as watershed in the history of local
C. L. M. Singhvi Committee 3. 1986 self-government. Hence both A and R are correct and R
4. P.K. Thungon Committee 4. 1988 is a correct explanation of A.
Code: 27. Which State does not have Panchayat system?
A B C D (a) Mizoram (b) Meghalaya
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 1 2 3 4 (c) Kerala (d) Nagaland
(c) 2 3 1 4 (e) None of the above/More than one of the
(d) 3 4 2 1 above
UPPCS Pre 2022 67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021
Ans. (b): The correct match is as follows- Ans. (e) : Currently, the Panchayat Raj system has been
List-I List-II implemented in all states and Union territories of India
(Committee) (Year of except a few. These include Nagaland, Mizoram and
Appointment) Meghalaya and one Union territory namely Delhi.
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1957
Ashok Mehta Committee 1977 28. In which of the following States Panchayati Raj
L. M. Singhvi Committee 1986 was introduced first?
P.K. Thungon Committee 1988 (a) U.P (b) Bihar
25. When was the Panchayats (Extension to the (c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019
Parliament? Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015
(a) 1998 (b) 1996
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1998
(c) 1995 (d) 1993
UPPCS Pre 2022 UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2012
Ans. (b): After the recommendations of Bhuria UPPCS (Mains) G.S., 2003
committee in 1995, the Parliament enacted the BPSC (Pre) 1999
Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 1996
(PESA) to extend Part IX of the Constitution with
certain modifications and exceptions to the Scheduled V Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006
areas. At present Scheduled V areas exist in 10 States Ans. (c) In 1957, the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
viz. Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal recommended for the introduction of a three-tier
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Panchayati Raj System in India. These recommendations
Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana. The Ministry of were accepted by the National Development Council in
Panchayati Raj is the nodal Ministry for implementationJanuary, 1958. Rajasthan was the first state to establish
of the provisions of PESA in the States. Panchayati Raj. Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by the
nd
26. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). October 1959 at Nagaur in Rajasthan.

246
29. For launching of Panchayati Raj institutions (c) Administrative delegation
throughout the country, National Development (d) Direct democracy
Council approved the recommendations of IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
Balwant Rai committee in
Ans.(b): Local self-government can be best explained as
(a) 1955 (b) 1956
an exercise in democratic decentralization. It has two
(c) 1957 (d) 1958 core guiding principles, i.e. decentralization and grassroot
(e) None of the above empowerment. It is under the 73rd and 74th constitutional
GOA PSCS, 2022 amendment.
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above 35. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj
question. system is to ensure which among the following?
30. Balwant Rai Mehta committee in its report 1. People's participation in development
suggested 2. Political accountability
(a) Three tier system (b) One tier system 3. Democratic decentralization
(c) Four tier system (d) Two tier system 4. Financial mobilization
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Select the correct answer using the code given
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above below.
question. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Which State first adopted the Panchayati Raj
in India in 1959? IAS (Pre) G.S., 2015
(a) Rajasthan (b) Kanataka Ans. (c) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992
has added a new Part IX (consisting of 16 Articles) and
(c) Gujarat (d) Punjab
the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. The 73rd
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha as the
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform
functions and powers entrusted to it by the State
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Legislatures. The amendment provides for a three tier
question.
Panchayat Raj System at the village, block and district
32. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee is related to: levels. The basic objective of the Panchayati Raj is to
(a) Panchayati Raj System evolve a system of democratic decentralization and
devolution of power with a view to ensuring rapid
(b) Centre-State relations
socio-economic progress and justice.
(c) Rural Development
36. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as
(d) Electoral Reforms Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S, 2010 Assertion (A): The 73rd Amendment of the
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Constitution is considered to be a watershed in the
question. history of local self government in India.
33. National Panchayati Raj Day in India is Reason (R): The 73rd Constitution Amendment
celebrated on conferred the much coveted Constitutional status on
Panchayats.
(a) 26 January (b) 2 October
(c) 21 April (d) 24 April Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Code:
J & K PSC Pre-2018
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans: (d) In India, 24th April is celebrated as National
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
Panchayati Raj Day every year. The day marks the
passing of the Constitution (73rd Amendment), 1992, (c) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Act which came into existence with effect from 24th correct explanation of (A)
April, 1993. (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
34. Local self-government can be best explained as
an exercise in UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022
(a) Federalism Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
(b) Democratic decentralisation
247
37. How many tiers of governance are there in the 43. The fundamental objective of Panchayati Raj
Panchayati Raj system of governance? System is to ensure which of the following?
(a) 3 (b) 4 1. People's participation in development
(c) 5 (d) Not defined 2. Political accountability
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017
3. Democratic decentralization
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
4. Financial mobilization
question.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
38. Which of the given Amendment in the Indian
Constitution led to the beginning of Panchayati below
Raj in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 64th Constitutional Amendment Act UPPSC ACF-RFO Mains (Ist Paper), 2019
(c) 62nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) 69th Constitutional Amendment Act question.
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
44. 'Panchayati Raj' is included in the
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
(a) Union list (b) Concurrent list
Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017
(c) State list (d) Residuary power
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019
39. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act relates Ans. (c): ‘Panchayat, being “Local government”, is a
to: State subject and is part of State list under Seventh
(a) The fiscal relation between Centre and State Schedule of the Constitution.
(b) The prudent fiscal management by State 45. Which one of the following functions is not the
government concern of the local government?
(c) The functioning of rural local body
(a) Public health
(d) The functioning of urban local body
(b) Sanitation
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
(c) Maintenance of public order
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. (d) Public Utility Services
40. Which part of the Constitution has the NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
provisions for Panchayati Raj System? Ans. (c): Maintenance of public order is not the concern
(a)IX (b) VI of the local government. Maintenance of public order
(c) III (d) IVA comes primarily in the domain of State government.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 Section 31 of the Police Act, 1861 defines the term
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 'Maintenance of public order'.
question.
46. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is not
41. The Panchayati Raj System was adapted to
applicable to which of the States given below?
(a) Make people aware of politics.
(a) Nagaland and Mizoram only
(b) Decentralise the power of democracy.
(b) Jammu Kashmir and Nagaland only
(c) Educate the peasants.
(c) Jammu Kashmir and Mizoram only
(d) None of the above
(d) Mizoram, Nagaland and Jammu and Kashmir
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
TSPSC Group 1st and 2nd (Pre) 2017
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. Ans. (*) : The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is
42. When was the third tier added to Indian not applicable to three States namely Meghalaya,
Federal System? Mizoram and Nagaland, as the traditional local
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 institutions of self-government exist in these Schedule
VI States.
(c) 1992 (d) 1993
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 Note- In Jammu and Kashmir, after the removal of
Article 370, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. partially implemented.

248
47. A two- tier system is prescribed by the 73rd Ans. (b) : The Panchayti Raj Institution consists of three
Amendment Act, 1992 for States with levels namely Gram Panchayat at village level, Block
population less than: Panchayats at inter mediate level and Zila Panchayats at
(a) 20 Lakhs (b) 15 Lakhs district level. Thus, Assertion (A) is correct. Panchayat at
(c) 10 Lakhs (d) 5 Lakhs the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State
having a population of not exceeding twenty lakhs. Hence
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
Reason (R) is also correct but is not correct explanation of
Ans. (a): Part IX of the Constitution provides for setting (A).
up of three tiers of Panchayats (only two tiers in case of
50. Read the following statements around Article
States or Union Territories having population less than
243 H of the Indian Constitution.
20 Lakhs)-
(1) Authorize a Panchayat to levy, collect and
(1) Gram Panchayat at village level appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in
(2) Intermediate Panchayats at sub-district level in accordance with such procedure and subject to
between Gram Panchayats and District Panchayats such limits.
(3) District Panchayats at District level (2) Assign to a Panchayat such taxes, tolls and
It also provides for Gram Sabha (general assembly of fees levied and collected by the State
registered voters, who reside in the area of Gram Government for such purposes, and subject to
Panchayat) as a forum for direct participation of such conditions and limits.
villagers in local governance. (3) Provide for making such grants-in-aid to
48. Three stages system of Panchayati Raj system the Panchayat from the Consolidated Fund of
th the Centre.
(73 Constitutional Amendment Act) includes
Which of these statements is/are true?
(a) Gram Panchayat, Kshetra Panchayat, Zila
Panchayat (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
(b) Block Committee, Zila Parishad, Panchayat (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Samiti J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
(c) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti,Block Ans. (a) : Article 243H of the Constitution is regarding
committee power of Panchayats to impose taxes and funds of
Panchayats.
(d) Gram Panchayat, Block committee, Zila
Parishad According to Article 243H (a) of the Constitution, the
Legislature of a State may by law authorize a Panchayat
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject
question. to such limits. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
49. Given below are two statements, one is labeled According to Article 243H (b) of the Constitution, the
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) Legislature of a State may by law assign to a Panchayat
such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by
Assertion (A): In every State Panchayat shall be the State Government for such purposes and subject to
constituted at the village, intermediate and district such conditions and limits. Hence, statement 2 is also
level. correct.
Reason (R): Panchayat at the intermediate level According to Article 243H (c) of the Constitution, the
may not be constituted in a State having a Legislature of a State may by law provide for making
population of not exceeding twenty lakhs. such grants in aid to the Panchayats from the
Select the correct answer using the codes given Consolidated Fund of the State. Hence, statement 3 is not
below: correct.
Code: 51. Who makes provisions with respect to the
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the maintenance of accounts by the Panchyats and
the auditing of such accounts?
correct explanation of (A)
(a) Finance commission of the Concerned State
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (b) Legislature of the State
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) District Collector
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(e) None of the above
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
GOA PSCS, 2022
249
Ans. (b) : Under the provisions of Article 243J of the (a) 243 D (b) 243 C
Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, (c) 243 B (d) 243 A
make provisions with respect to the maintenance of NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such
Ans. (a): Article 243D is regarding reservation of seats
accounts.
in Panchayats. According to Article 243 D (1), in every
52. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives Panchayat, seats should be reserved for Schedule Caste
provisions to set up Panchayats? and Schedule Tribe candidates as per their population.
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 25 In addition to that, Article 243D (2) makes provision
(c) Article 243 (d) Article 42 for the reservation of seats for woman belonging to
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2011 Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribe in clause (1).
Further, According to Article 243D (3) of the
Ans. (c) Article 243 under Part IX of the Constitution
Constitution, not less than one third (including the
gives provision to set up village Panchayats.
number of seats reserved for women belonging to the
53. Which of the following was constituted under Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total
the Panchayati Raj system? number of seats to be filled by direct election in every
(a) Khap Panchayat (b) Caste Panchayat Panchayat shall be reserved for women and such seats
(c) Gram Panchayat (d) Jan Panchayat may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above a Panchayat.
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2019 57. The Panchayati elections are scheduled in the
month of September 2018 in Punjab. Consider
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the following statements about the Panchayati
question.
Raj Institutions. Which of them is incorrect?
54. Consider the following statements: (a) The term of the office to the Panchayat at
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person every level is 5 years.
to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. (b) The direction and control of preparation of
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature electoral roles and conduct of all elections to
dissolution continues only for the remainder Panchayats shall be vested in the Election
period. Commission of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) The State legislature may make provisions
correct? with respect to all matters relating to elections
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only to the Panchayats.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) The 73rd Amendment Act provides for the
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2016 reservation of not less than one-third of total
number of seats for women (including
Ans. (b) According to Article 243(F) (1) (a) of the
number of seats reserved for women
Constitution, minimum age for the election as a member of
belonging to SC/ST).
a Panchayat is 21 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The members of a reconstituted Panchayat shall enter upon Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2018
their offices on the date fixed for the reconstitution of the Ans. (b) According to Article 234E of the Constitution,
Panchayat and shall continue only for the remainder of the the term of the office of the Panchayat at every level is
period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have 5 years. Hence statement (1) is correct.
continued. Hence statement 2 is correct. According to Article 243K of the Constitution,
55. A person can contest election for Panchayat if elections for Panchayats shall be conducted by the State
he completes the age of Election Commission. Hence statement (2) is incorrect.
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years Article 243K (4) of the Constitution, the State
(c) 21 years (d) 18 years legislature may make provisions with respect to all
matters relating to elections to the Panchayats.
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 1st 2014
Therefore statement (3) is correct.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Article 243D provides for the reservation of not less
question. than one-third of total number of seats for women
56. Under which Article, one of the following (including number of seats reserved for women
categories enjoys reservation for Panchayat belonging to SC/ST). Hence statement (4) is also
membership in proportion to their population? correct.
250
58. With reference to Panchayats which of the 61. Article________ was inserted into Constitution
statements is/are correct? under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
1. Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the (a) 245 B (b) 244 B
women of SC/ST categories (c) 243 B (d) 242 B
2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
persons living in the village Ans (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
3. There will be a Panchayat at intermediate question.
level 62. In which part of the Indian Constitution has
Select the correct answer using the codes given the provision for Panchayats been made?
below: (a) Part IX (b) Part IV
Codes: (c) Part III (d) Part X
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 and 3 Himanchal PSC (Pre), G.S, 2011
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 3 Only Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 question.
Ans: (d) According to Article 243(D)(3) of the 63. What is the minimum population below which
Constitution, not less than one third (including the number at the intermediate level the Panchayats are not
of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled constituted as per provisions of the Indian
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total number of Constitution (73rd Amendment Act)?
seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall (a) 25Lakh (b) 20Lakh
be reserved for women. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. (c) 35Lakh (d) 30Lakh
According to Article 243(b), Gram Sabha means a body UPPCS (Mains) G.S IInd 2017
consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls Ans.(b) According to Article 243(b)(2) of the
relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat Constitution, Panchayats at the intermediate level may
at the village level. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect. not be constituted in a State having a population not
According to Article 243(B)(1), there shall be constituted exceeding twenty lakhs.
in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and 64. The decision to hold Panchayat Elections under
district levels. Hence, statement 3 is correct. the Constitutional Provisions is taken by
59. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be (a) Central Government
held within: (b) State Government
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months (c) The Election Commission India
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year (d) The State Election Commission
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2002 UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2008
BPSC (Pre) 2004
Ans. (c) Duration of Panchayats is five year. Fresh
election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed Ans. (b) The decision to hold Panchayat elections under
before the expiry of its term or in case of dissolution, the Constitutional provisions is taken by State
before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the date Government. The Panchayat elections are conducted by
of its dissolution. State Election Commission.
65. The superintendence, direction and control of
60. Constitutional status has been provided to
all elections to the Panchayats are vested in
Panchayats-
(a) The Governor
(a) Under the Article 226
(b) The Election Commission of India
(b) Under the Article 243
(c) The District Panchayat Raj Officer
(c) Under the Article 239
(d) The State Election Commission
(d) Under the Article 219
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020
Rajasthan (RAS/RTS) (Pre), 2006
Ans. (d) According to Article 243K of the Constitution,
Ans. (b) Panchayats have been provided Constitutional the superintendence, direction and control of the
status by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 preparation of electoral rolls for and the conduct of all
under Article 243 of the Constitution. Several elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State
provisions for Panchayats have been made under Part Election Commission consisting of a State Election
IX (Article 243 to 243I) of the Constitution. Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.

251
66. Which Article of Indian Constitution directed Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the states to organize village Panchayats as question.
units of self-government?
69. Which part of the Constitution has the
(a) Art. 38 (b) Art. 39
provisions for Panchayati Raj System?
(c) Art. 40 (d) Art. 41
(a) IX (b) VI
(e) None of the above
(c) III (d) IV (a)
GOA PSCS, 2022
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
Ans. (c) : Article 40 under the Directive Principles of
State Policy directs the State to take steps to organize Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
village Panchayats and endow them with such powers question.
and authority as may be necessary to enable them to 70. Which one of the following is incorrect in
function as units of self-government. respect of Local Government in India?
67. Consider the following statements: (a) According to the Indian Constitution, local
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains government is not an independent tier in the
provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by federal system
the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India for women
contains provisions for municipalities and the (c) Local government finances are to be provided
Article 243 Q envisages two types of by a Commission
municipalities - Municipal Council and a
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined
Municipal Corporation for every state.
by a Commission
Which of the statements given above is/are
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1995
correct?
Ans. (a) Local Governance in India has been formalized
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
under the Panchayati Raj System since 1992. The
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Panchayati Raj system is a three-tier system with
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2005 independent elected bodies at the village, taluk and
Ans. (a) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 district levels. Hence first statement is incorrect.
has added a new part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Currently 33% of the seats rd
in local bodies are reserved
Constitution. The 73th Amendment envisages the for women as per the 73 and 74th Amendment Act of
nd
foundation of the Panchayat Raj System. Hence the constitution of India. Hence, 2 statement is also
incorrect.
statement 1 is correct.
Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains 71. Who among the following is authorised to
make provisions with respect to the
provisions for municipalities. Article 243Q of the
composition of Panchayats?
Constitution is regarding the formation of Municipalities.
It asserts that there shall be three type of municipalities (a) Governor of State
namely Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area (an area (b) Legislature of State
in transition from a rural area to an urban area), (c) Parliament of India
Municipal Council for a smaller urban area and (d) President of India
Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area. Hence UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
statement 2 is incorrect.
Ans. (b) According to Article 243(C)(1) of the
68. Part IX - A of the Constitution of India gave a Constitution, Legislature of a State by law make
Constitutional foundation to the Local Self provisions with respect to the composition of the
Government units in the following areas- Panchayats.
1. Rural areas 72. Which of the following is not a part of the
2. Urban areas Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
Select the correct answer from the code given (a) Libraries
below the lists: (b) Fuel and Fodder
Code (c) Rural Sports
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Technical Training
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021 67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled)

252
Ans. (c): Eleventh Schedule was added by the 74. Gram Panchayat Development Plan covers all
Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992. subjects mentioned in 11th schedule of Indian
Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G) contains following Constitution. It covers how many subjects?
29 subjects- (a) 24 (b) 27
1. Agriculture including agriculture extension (c) 29 (d) 31
2. Land improvement, implementation of land
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation
3. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
development question.
4. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry
5. Fisheries 1. Comptroller and Auditor
6. Social forestry and farm forestry
7. Minor forest produce
(a) General of India
8. Small scale industries, including food processing
industries 75. Which among the following is not true about
the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
9. Khadi, village and cottage industries
10. Rural housing I. The administrative expenses of his office
are subject to vote of Parliament.
11. Drinking water
II. He is not eligible for further office under
12. Fuel and fodder
the Government of India or of any State
13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and
after he quits office.
other means of communication
III. The CAG can be removed from office on
14. Rural electrification, including distribution of
electricity the ground of proven incapacity or
misbehaviour after an address by both the
15. Non-conventional energy sources
houses of Parliament.
16. Poverty alleviation program
Select the correct answer:
17. Education, including primary and secondary schools
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III
18. Technical training and vocational education
19. Adult and non-formal education (c) Only II (d) Only I and III
20. Libraries JPSC (Pre) 2024-I
21. Cultural activities Ans. (a) : Under Part-V (Article 148-151) office of
22. Markets and fairs CAG is mentioned. Article 148 provides that CAG is
23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary appointed by the President. Its tenure is 6 years or
health centers and dispensaries maximum upto 65 years of age (which ever is earlier).
24. Family welfare He can be removed from his office in sameway as the
Judge of High Court or Supreme Court. The CAG can
25. Women and child development
be removed from office on the ground of proven
26. Social welfare, including welfare of the incapacity or misbehaviour after an address by both the
handicapped and mentally retarded
house of parliament. The administrative expenses is
27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of salary, pension etc are not subjected to vote of
the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes parliament. Thus only statement-I is incorrect.
28. Public distribution system
76. The accounts of the state fund for persons with
29. Maintenance of community assets
disabilities shall be audited by the-
73. Which Article gives the list of 29 functions to (a) Comptroller (b) Auditor-General
be performed by the Panchayati Raj
Institutions? (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above
(a) Article 243(H) (b) Article 243(E UPPSC (J) 2023
(c) Article 243(F) (d) Article 243(G) Ans. (c) : The accounts of the state Fund of persons
(e) None of the above/More than one of the with disabilities shall be audited by the Comptroller and
above Auditor General of India at such intervals as may be
66th BPSC (Pre) 2020 specified by him and any expenditure incurred by him
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above in connection with such shall be payable from the state
question. Fund to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

253
77. Match the following List-P (CAG) with List-R (a) Comptroller and Auditing General of India
(Articles): (b) The Auditor General
List-P List-II-R (c) The Finance Secretary
A. Appiontment of CAG I. Article 148 (d) The Accountant General
B. Duties and Powers of II. Article 151 TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
CAG Ans. (a) The financial control is exercised by the
C. Form of Accounts of III. Article 149 Parliament over the executive through Comptroller and
Auditor General of India. The Comptroller and Auditor
The Union
General of India, a constitution authority under the
D. Audit Reports IV. Article 150 Constitution of India acts as a watchdog of the Parliament
Select correct option. and conducts audit to see that the expenditure incurred by
A B C D the Executive is for the purpose voted by the Parliament
and is within the sanctioned grants.
(a) I III IV II
81. Consider the following statements about the
(b) II I III IV
Comptroller and Auditor General of India:
(c) III I IV II
(A) He holds office during the pleasure of the
(d) II III I IV President.
(e) Question not attempt (B) He draws the same salary as a Supreme
RPSC (Pre) 2023 Court Judge.
(C) Before entering upon his office, he swears
Ans.(a) : The correct match is as follows :-
an oath or affirmation before the Chief
Appointment of CAG - Article 148 Justice of India.
Duties and Powers of - Article 149 (D) He may be removed by the President only
CAG after an enquiry by the Supreme Court of
India.
Form of Accounts of The - Article 150 Which of the statements given above is/are
Union correct?
Audit Reports - Article 151 (a) Only (A) (b) Only (B)
78. The audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor (c) Only (A) and (C) (d) Only (B) and (D)
General of India is examined by Maharashtra PSC 2022
(a) Public Accounts Committee Ans. (b) : According to Article 148 of the Constitution
(b) Public Undertaking Committee of India there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor
General of India who shall be appointed by the
(c) The Estimates Committee
President and shall only be removed from office in like
(d) None of the above manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the
UPPCS Pre 2022 Supreme Court. Hence statements A and D are
Ans. (a): The Public Accounts Committee examines incorrect. As per Article 148(2). He swears an oath or
the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor affirmation before the President. Therefore statement C
General of India (CAG), which are laid before the is also incorrect.
Parliament by the President. According to the section 3 of The Comptroller and
79. Comptroller and Auditor General of India Auditor General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of
submits its reports relating to accounts of the Service) Act, 1971, the salary of the Comptroller and
Union to Auditor General of India will be equal to the salary of
(a) Chief Justice of India(b) Prime Minister the judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement B is
(c) Vice President (d) None of the above correct.
MPPSC Pre 2022 82. The Office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India was created
Ans. (d): The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India relating to the accounts of the Union (a) Through an Act of Parliament
shall be submitted to the President, who in turn lays (b) By the Constitution
these reports before both the Houses of the Parliament. (c) Through a Cabinet Resolution
80. The financial control exercised by the (d) None of the above
Parliament over the executive through UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2012
254
Ans. (b) According to Article 148 of the Constitution, Ans. (b): The Comptroller and Auditor General draws
there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor General of its power and duties from the Article 149 to 151 of the
India (CAG), who shall be appointed by the President Constitution of India. It is essential for him to work in
and shall only be removed from office in like manner close coordination with the Government concerned in
and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme order to enforce propriety and legality of the public
Court. Salary and expenses of CAG is charged (not expenditures. He has to uphold the Constitution and
Voted) to the Consolidated Fund of India. Constitution Laws of Parliament in the field of financial
disallows his holding of any other Government office administration. Hence both (A) and (R) are individually
after his term expires.
true and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).
83. The Comptroller and Auditor General is
appointed by the President of India under 87. In which year was accounting separated from
which Article auditing and Comptroller and Auditor
General’s task only remained confined to
(a) Article 162 (b) Article 148
auditing the Government Accounts?
(c) Article 153 (d) Article 174
(a) 1975 (b) 1977
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
(c) 1976 (d) 1981
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
question.
Ans: (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General was both
84. Comptroller and Auditor General have been the audit and accounting authority for the Centre as well
appointed by the President. He can be removed as the States. The accounting functions were taken away
from his post in the case of the Centre in 1976 and handed over to the
(a) By President Controller General of Accounts (the Principal
(b) On the recommendation of both the Houses Accounting Authority of the Government of India)
of the Parliament while accounts of the States continue to be compiled by
(c) Supreme Court the CAG. Several entitlements functions in the States
(d) By the Supreme Court on the were also transferred from the CAG to State
recommendation of President Governments between 1976 and 1989.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2006 88. Who is called the Guardian of Public Purse?
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) President
question. (b) Comptroller and Auditor General
85. The term in office for the Comptroller and (c) Parliament
Auditor General of India is- (d) Council of Ministers
(a) 4 Years (b) 5 Years UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008
(c) 6 Years (d) 7 Years Ans. (b) Comptroller and Auditor General is called
Ans. (c) The term in office for the Comptroller and Guardian of Public Purse.
Auditor General of India is 6 years or 65 years 89. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a
(whichever is earlier). friend and guide of:
86. Assertion (A): The Duty of Comptroller and (a) Select Committee
Auditor General is not merely to (b) Estimates Committee
ensure the legality of expenditure (c) Prime Minister
but also its propriety.
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Reason (R): He has to uphold the Constitution
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (M) 2007
and the Laws of Parliament in the
field of financial administration. Ans. (d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true friend and guide of Public Accounts Committee. Public
Accounts Committee examines the report of accounts of
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the the Union Government submitted by the Auditor and
correct explanation of (A) Comptroller General of India to the President.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false The Audit Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a General submitted to the Parliament and State
correct explanation of (A) Legislatures consist of compliance and performance
RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021 audit reports covering revenue collection and
255
expenditure of Government, separate audit reports on accounts of the Union Government submitted by the
the functioning of certain autonomous bodies as Auditor and Comptroller General of India. Hence
provided by legislation, reports on the financial positionstatement 2 is correct.
of Central and State Governments and reports on the While dealing with the audit and accounting of
adherence to the Appropriation Acts passed by government companies, if CAG finds out any violation
Parliament and Legislatures. of law, it is duty of the CAG to submit its report to the
The Comptroller and Auditor General also submit the concerned authority and its reports can be used by
certified annual accounts of the States known as the investigating agencies to press charges against those
who have violated the law while managing public
Finance and Appropriation Accounts to the State
finances. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Legislatures.
As per the Constitution of India, CAG has no judicial
90. The audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor power to prosecute. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
General of India is examined by
92. Which one of the following duties in NOT
(a) Public Accounts Committee performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
(b) Public Undertaking Committee General of India?
(c) The Estimates Committee (a) To audit and submit report on all expenditure
(d) None of the above from the Consolidated Fund of India.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022 (b) To audit and report on all expenditure from
the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) To audit and submit report on all trading,
question. manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
91. In India, other than ensuring that public funds (d) To control the receipt and issue of public
are used efficiently and for intended purpose, money and to ensure that the public revenue
what is the importance of the office of the is lodged in the exchequer
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf Ans.(d): The constitution under Article 149, authorises
of the Parliament when the President of India the parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of
declares national emergency/financial CAG in relation to accounts of the union and the states
emergency. and of any other authority or body. He audits and
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or prepares report on all expenditure from Consolidated
programmes by the ministries are discussed Fund of India. He audits the contingency Fund and
by the Public Accounts Committee. Public Accounts of India and of each state. He also
audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss
3. Information from CAG reports can be used
accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary accounts
by investigating agencies to press charges kept of by any department of the central and state
against those who have violated the law while governments. He has not power to control the receipt
managing public finances. and issue of public money and to ensure that the public
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting revenue is lodged in the exchequer.
of government companies, CAG has certain 93. Consider the following statements
judicial powers for prosecuting those who
(i) It shall be the duty of the Comptroller and
violate the law. Auditor-General to audit all receipts which
Which of the statements given above is/are are payable into the Consolidated Fund of
correct? India.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (ii) The Comptroller and Auditor General shall
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 have authority of audit and report on the
accounts of stores or stock kept in any office
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012
or department of the Union or a State.
Ans. (c) Under Article 148 of the Constitution, the
Choose the correct option
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an
authority to audit all receipts and expenditures of the (a) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Government of India and State Governments (b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
irrespective of National Emergency/Financial (c) (i) is incorrect but (ii) is correct
Emergency. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. (d) (i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect
Public Account Committee examines the report of MPPSC (Pre) 2020

256
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above 97. Who is the government's chief legal advisor
question. and its primary lawyer in the supreme Court of
94. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action India?
on the comments of the Comptroller and (a) The Solicitor General of India
Auditor General vests with (b) Chief Justice of India
(a) President of India (c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) Supreme Court (d) None of the above
(c) Parliament CGPSC (Pre) 2023
(d) National Development Council
Ans. (d) : In the Supreme Court of India Chief Legal
UP RO/ARO (Mains) G.S., 2014 advisor of Government is Attorney General of India.
Ans. (c) According to Article 151(1) of the Article 76 of the constitution provides for Attorney
Constitution, the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. However commission has considered
General of India relating to the accounts of the Union option (a) as correct.
shall be submitted to the President, who shall cause
them to be laid before each House of Parliament. So it is 98. With reference to the Attorney General of
the ultimate responsibility of the Parliament to take India, which of the following statement/s is/are
action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor correct?
General. (1) A person is appointed as Attorney General,
95. The power to grant or refuse leave to the who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge
Comptroller and Auditor General shall vest in of the Supreme Court.
the (2) The Attorney General can be removed
(a) Finance Minister through the same process as the Judges of
(b) President the Supreme Court
(c) Prime Minister Select the correct answer from the code given
(d) Chief Justice of India below–
MPPSC Pre 2022 Code :
Ans. (b): The power to grant or refuse leave to the (a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2
Comptroller and Auditor-General and to revoke or (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Only 1
curtail leave granted to him, shall vest in the President. UPPCS (Pre) 2023
Ans. (d) : Article 76 of the Indian Constitution under its
part V deals with the position of Attorney General of
1. Attorney General of India & India. A person is appointed as Attorney General, who
(b) Advocate General of States is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme
Court but he remain in the office till the pleasure of the
96. Consider the following statements with president.
reference to Attorney General of India - 99. Union Public Service Commission may ....... to
1. He holds office during the pleasure of the serve the needs of the state
Prime Minister. (a) On request of the Election Commission with
2. He is not entitled to the privileges of a Member approval of the President.
of Parliament.
(b) On request of the Governor with approval of
Select the correct answer from the code given the Prime Minister.
below:
(c) On request of the Governor with approval of
Code − the President.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) On request of the Chief Minister with
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2 approval of the Prime Minister.
UPPCS RO/ARO (Pre) 2023 (Cancelled) 7th JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1
Ans. (c) :Article-76 of Indian constitution deals with Ans. (c) : According to Article 315(4) of the
the position of attorney General of India. He holds Constitution, the Public Service Commission for the
office during the pleasure of president and he is Union, if requested so to do by the Governor of a State,
entitled to privileges of a member of parliament. may, with the approval of the President, agree to serve
Hence both statements are incorrect. all or any of the needs of the State.

257
100. Union Public Service Commission submits its Ans: (b) According to Article 315(2) of the Constitution,
annual report to two or more States may agree that there shall be one
(a) Prime Minister Public Service Commission for that group of States and if
(b) President a resolution to that effect is passed by the House of each
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha of those States, Parliament may by law provide for the
appointment of a Joint State Public Service Commission
(d) Home Minister
to serve the needs of those States. The Chairman and
UP Lower (Pre) G.S., 2013
other members of Union Public Service Commission and
UPUDA/LDA Special (Pre) G.S., 2010 Joint Public Service Commission shall be appointed by
Ans. (b) According to the Article 323 of the the President and in the case of a State Commission, by
Constitution, it shall be the duty of the Union Public the Governor of the State.
Service Commission to present annually a report to the
103. A Joint Public Service Commission for two or
President as to the work done by the Commission and it
shall be the duty of a State Commission to present more States can be established by
annually a report to the Governor of the State as to the (a) Union Public Service Commission
work done by the Commission. (b) Parliament, if requested by concerned State
101. Which among the following is not correct about (c) Rajya Sabha
UPSC? (d) Lok Sabha
(a) The Chairman and members of the UPPCS Pre 2022
Commission hold office for a term of 5 years.
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) The President can remove Chairman or any
other member. question.
(c) It is a Central recruiting agency India. 104. A Joint Public Service Commission for two or
(d) It is an Independent Constitutional body. more State can be established by
Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020 (a) Union Public Service Commission
Ans. (a): According to Article 316(2) of the (b) Parliament, if requested by concerned State
Constitution, a member of a Public Service Commission (c) Rajya Sabha
shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on (d) Lok Sabha
which he enters upon his office or until he attains, in the UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022
case of the Union Commission, the age of sixty-five
years (65) and in the case of a State Commission or a Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Joint Commission, the age of sixty-two years (62), question.
whichever is earlier. Rest of the given statements is 105. A Joint State Public Service Commission may
correct regarding UPSC. be established for two or more States
Note- According to Article 316(2)(a), a member of a (a) If respective States agree in this regard
Public Service Commission may resign his office, by (b) Parliament appoints Joint State Public Service
writing under his hand addressed, in the case of the Commission by law
Union Commission or a Joint Commission, to the (c) Both (a) and (b)
President and in the case of a State Commission, to the
(d) None of the above
Governor of the State.
MPPSC (Pre) 2020
Joint Public Service Commission
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
102. Choose the correct alternative: question.
The Chairman of a Joint Public Service
State Public Service Commission
Commission for two or more States is
appointed by 106. The functions of the State Public Service
Commission of Uttar Pradesh can be extended
(a) The Governor of the largest state
by -
(b) The President of India
(a) Prime Minister
(c) A Committee of Governors of all the States
(b) Union Minister of Personnel, Public
Concerned
Grievances and Pensions
(d) The President of India on the
(c) The President
recommendation of the Governors concerned
(d) Uttar Pradesh State Legislature
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016
UPPSC (Pre) 2021
258
Ans. (d): Article 321 of the Constitution is regarding of a State, and in computing the said period of ten years
power to extend functions of Public Service any period before the commencement of this Constitution
Commission. According to Article 321 of the during which a person has held office under the Crown in
Constitution, an Act made by Parliament or, as the case India or under the Government of an Indian State shall be
may be, the Legislature of a State may provide for the included.
exercise of additional functions by the Union Public 110. Who can remove the Chairman of the State
Service Commission or the State Public Service Public Service Commission?
Commission as respect to the services of the Union or (a) The President on the recommendation of the
the State and also as respect to the services of any local Supreme Court
authority or other body which is constituted by law or
(b) The Governor on the recommendation of the
any public institution. Hence the functions of the State
Public Service Commission of Uttar Pradesh can be High Court
extended by Uttar Pradesh State Legislature. (c) The Chief Justice of the High Court
107. The Members of the State Public Service (d) The Governor of the concerned State on his
own
Commission are appointed by-
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice Ans. (a) According to Article 317 (1) of the
Constitution, the Chairman or any other member of a
(c) Chief Minister of the State Public Service Commission shall only be removed from
(d) Governor of the State his office by order of the President on the ground of
Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021 misbehavior after the Supreme Court, on reference
being made to it by the President has on inquiry held in
Ans. (d) : According to Article 316 (1) of the accordance with the procedure prescribed in that behalf
Constitution, the members of the State Public Service under Article 145 reported that the Chairman or such
Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State. other member, as the case may be, ought on any such
108. Which of the following Articles empowers the ground to be removed.
Governor to appoint the Chairman and other Note- According to Article 317(2) of the Constitution,
members of a State Public Service Commission? the President, in the case of the Union Commission or a
(a) Article 314 (b) Article 315 Joint Commission and the Governor, in the case of a
State Commission, may suspend from office the
(c) Article 316 (d) Article 317 Chairman or any other member of the Commission in
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 respect of whom a reference has been made to the
Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Supreme Court under clause (1) until the President has
question. passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme
Court on such reference.
109. Chairperson and Members of the State Public
111. A member of State Public Service Commission
Service Commission are appointed by
may be removed by-
(a) Governor
(a) The Governor on the basis of impeachment in
(b) Chief Minister Vidhan Sabha
(c) President (b) The Governor, after the enquiry conducted by
(d) Chairman, Union Public Service Commission the Supreme Court
MPPSC Pre 2022 (c) The President, after the enquiry conducted by
the Supreme Court
Ans. (a): Article 316 refers to the appointment of
Chairman and other members of a Public Service (d) The Governor, after the enquiry conducted by
Commission: the High Court
The Chairman and other members of a Public Service UPPSC (Pre) 2021
Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Commission or a Joint Commission, by the President, question.
and in the case of a State Commission, by the Governor 112. Who can remove the Members of Union Public
of the State: Provided that as nearly as may be one-half of Service Commission before completion of their
the members of every Public Service Commission shall term of Office?
be persons who at the date of their respective (a) By Prime Minister
appointments have held office for at least ten years either (b) President on the recommendation of Supreme
under the Government of India or under the Government Court
259
 (c) President on the recommendation of (c) The provisions of Article 311 are applicable
Parliament to permanent civil servants only and not to
(d) By Cabinet temporary servants.
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (d) Suspension of government servant from
service is neither dismissal nor removal and is
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
not within the scope of protection of Article
question.
311.
113. Under which Article of the Constitution a Maharashtra PSC 2022
member of the Public Service Commission can
be removed? Ans.(c): Article 311 of the Constitution of India
provides for facilitating the dismissal or removal of civil
(a) 315 (b) 316
servants in India at the same time it also provides for
(c) 317 (d) 318 the safeguard or protection to the civil servants against
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2010 unlawful and unreasonable dismissal or removal. The
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above protection under Article 311 is applicable to persons
question. appointed as civil servants in all natures - permanent
civil servants, temporary civil servants, officiating civil
114. The Madhya Pradesh Public Service servants or civil servants on probation. Hence,
Commission shall consist of maximum statement (3) is incorrect. Rest are correct statements.
(a) Four members (b) Five members
117. Consider the following statements:
(c) Six members (d) Seven members
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General
MPPSC Pre 2022 of India are the only officers of the Government
Ans. (d): As per Section 3 of the Madhya Pradesh who are allowed to participate in the meetings
Public Service Commission (Conditions of Service) of the Parliament of India.
Regulations, 1973 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
The Commission shall consist of not more than seven Attorney General of India submits his
members. The Governor may appoint one of the resignation when the Government which
members to be the Chairman thereof. appointed him resigns.
However in its official answer key the commission had Which of the statement given above is/are
accepted option (b) as correct answer. correct?
115. Under which Provision, the Madhya Pradesh (a) 1 only
Public Service Commission has been (b) 2 only
constituted?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Section 118(2) of the States Reorganization
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Act, 1956
UPSC IAS 2022
(b) Section 118(3) of the States Reorganization
Act, 1956 Ans. (d) : However, the Attorney General of India has
(c) Section 118(1) of the States Reorganization the right to audience in all Courts in India as well as the
Act, 1956 right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament
without the right to vote. The Solicitor General of India
(d) Section 116(4) of the States Reorganization has no such privilege.
Act, 1956
As per Article 76, the Attorney General shall hold
MPPSC (Pre) 2020 office during the pleasure of the President. There is no
Ans. (b) : The Madhya Pradesh Public Service mention in the Indian Constitution of the need for him
Commission has been constituted under section 118 (3) to submit his resignation when the Government which
of the States Reorganization Act by the order of the appointed him resigns.
President. Hence both the statements are incorrect.
116. Which one of the following statements about 118. Which of the following is not a true statement
dismissal or removal of persons employed in about the Attorney General of India?
civil capacities under the Union or State
(a) He is not a member of the Cabinet
(Article 311) is not correct?
(b) He has Right to speak in the House of
(a) Protection under Article 311 is not available
Parliament
to military personnel.
(c) He has Right to vote in the Parliament
(b) The employees of statutory corporations such
as the LIC, ONGC are not entitled to the (d) None of the above
protection of Article 311. UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2017
260
Ans. (c) According to Article 76 of the Constitution, (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (v)
the President shall appoint a person, who is qualified to (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (iii) and (v)
be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
Attorney-General for India. It shall be the duty of the
Attorney-General to give advice to the Government of Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
India upon such legal matters and to perform such other question.
duties of a legal character. In the performance of his 122. Consider the following statements about the
duties, the Attorney-General shall have right of Attorney-General of India:
audience in all courts in the territory of India. He has (i) He is appointed by the President of India.
right to speak in the both Houses of Parliament but don't
(ii) He must have the same qualifications as are
have right to vote in the both Houses of Parliament. The
Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
of the President and shall receive such remuneration as (iii) He must be a member of either House of
the President may determine. Parliament.
119. Consider the following statements in the (iv) He can be removed by impeachment by
context of Attorney General of India: Parliament.
1. The President shall appoint a person who is Which of these statements are corrects?
qualified as to be appointed a Judge of the (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
Supreme Court (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
2. The Attorney General shall receive such
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2000
remuneration as the Parliament may determine.
UP RO/ARO (Mains) G.S., 2014
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Only 1 is correct question.
(b) Only 2 is correct 123. How is the Attorney General of India appointed?
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct (a) By the Parliament
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct (b) By the President
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020 (c) By the President on the recommendation of
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above the Parliament
question. (d) By the Chief Justice
120. Who appoints the Attorney General of India? (e) By the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) The Prime Minister (b) The Lok Sabha Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre)1st Paper G.S., 2013
(c) The President (d) None of the above Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
124. Who among the following holds his/her office
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above during pleasure of the President?
question.
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
121. Consider the following statements about the (b) Chief Election Commissioner
Attorney General of India:
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(i) He is appointed by the President of India
(d) Attorney General of India
(ii) He must have the same qualifications as are
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
required by for a Judge of the High Court
(iii) He has right to speak in either House of Ans. (d) Attorney General of India holds his/her office
Parliament during pleasure of the President. Comptroller and Auditor
General of India and Chief Election Commissioner of
(iv) He can be removed by following the process
India can be removed from the office like manner and on
of impeachment
the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. The
(v) He has right of audience in all courts in the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from office
territory of India
only on a resolution of the House passed by a majority of
Which of the above mentioned statements are all the then members of the House.
correct?
261
125. Consider the following statements: Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Attorney General of India can question.
1. Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
129. The remuneration of an Advocate General
2. Be a member of a committee of the Lok
Sabha would be
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha (a) Equal to that of a High Court Judge
4. Vote in the Lok Sabha (b) As determined by the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) Equal to that of the Chief Secretary of the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 State
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only (d) Equal to that of the Cabinet Minister of the
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2001 State
Ans. (c) According to Article 88 of the Constitution, APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
the Attorney General of India shall have the right to
speak in and to take part in the proceedings of either Ans. (b): According to Article 165(3) of the
House, any joint sitting of the Houses and any Constitution, the Advocate General shall hold office
committee of Parliament of which he may be named a
during the pleasure of the Governor and shall receive
member but shall not be entitled to vote in Lok Sabha.
such remuneration as the Governor may determine.
126. Who among the following can attend the
meeting of both Houses of Parliament while not 130. Consider the following statements:
being a member of either?
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General
(a) Solicitor General of India
of India are the only officers of the Government
(b) Vice-President of India
who are allowed to participate in the meetings
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) Attorney General of India of the Parliament of India.
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Attorney General of India submits his
question. resignation when the Government which
Advocate General of State appointed him resigns.
127. Which one of the following is legal advisor to Which of the statement given above is/are
the State Government?
correct?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Advocate General (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Solicitor General (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General IAS (Pre) G.S, 2022
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2014 Ans. (d) : In the performance of his duties, the
Ans. (b) According to Article 165 of the Constitution, Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all
the Governor of each State shall appoint a person, who courts in the territory of India. He has right to speak in
is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to the both Houses of Parliament but don't have right to
be Advocate General for the State. Further it shall be
vote in the both Houses of Parliament but such right is
the duty of the Advocate General to give advice to the
Government of the State upon such legal matters and to not available to Solicitor General of India. Hence
perform such other duties of a legal character. statement 1 is not correct.
128. Who appoints the Advocate General for the As per Article 76 (4) of the Constitution, the Attorney
State? General shall hold office during the pleasure of the
(a) President President. There is no provision in the Constitution of
(b) Prime Minister India that the Attorney General of India submits his
(c) Governor
resignation, when the Government which appointed
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
him resigns. Therefore, statement 2 is also not correct.
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2014
262
 133. With reference to the Finance Commission of
India, consider the following statements:
1.(c) Finance Commission 1. The Finance Commission is statutory body.
2. The Finance Commission was set up under
131. With reference to Union Finance Commission, Article 280 of the Constitution.
which of the following statement/s is/are
correct? 3. The recommendations made by the Finance
(1) Finance Commission has a Chairman and Commission are only advisory in nature.
six members. 4. The first Finance Commission was set up in
(2) It submits its report to the NITI Aayog. 1950.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the above statements are correct?
below– (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
Code :
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
(a) Only 1 (b) Neither 1 nor 2
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(c) Only 2 (d) Both 1 and 2
UPPCS (Pre) 2023 67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled)
Ans. (b) : Union Finance Commission is set up under Ans. (c): According to the Article 280 of the
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Finance Constitution, the President at the expiration of every
Commission has a Chairman and Four members. It fifth year or at such earlier time as the President
submit its report to the President of India. considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance
132. Match List – I with List – II and select the Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four
correct answer using the code given below the other members to be appointed by the President.
lists:/ Therefore, Finance Commission of India is a
List - I List - II Constitutional body. Hence, statement 1 is not correct
but statement 2 is correct.
(Public Service (Articles)
Commission) The recommendations made by the Finance
A. Appointment and 1. Article 320 Commission are only advisory in nature. Hence,
terms of office of statement 3 is correct.
members The First Finance Commission was constituted under
B. Functions of Public 2. Article 322 the Chairmanship of K.C. Neogy on 6th April, 1952.
Service Commissions Fifteenth Finance Commissions have been constituted
C. Expenses of Public 3. Article 316 so far at intervals of every five years. Hence, statement
Service Commissions 4 is not correct.
D. Reports of Public 4. Article 323 134. Which of the bodies recommends the
Service Commissions
distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be
Code: shared between the Centre and the States, and
A B C D allocation between the States, the respective
(a) 3 1 4 2 shares of such proceeds?
(b) 3 1 5 4 (a) NITI Aayog
(c) 1 3 2 4
(b) Finance Commission of India
(d) 3 4 1 2
(c) Inter State Council
UPPSC APO 2022
(d) Nation Development council
Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows :-
APPSC (Pre) 2023
(Public Service (Articles)
Commission) Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
question.
Appointment and terms of Article 316
office of members 135. Who among the following was the Chairman of
the First Finance Commission of India?
Functions of Public Service Article 320
Commissions (a) Shri. Santhanam (b) Shri. K.C. Neogy
Expenses of Public Service Article 322 (c) Dr. Raj Mannar (d) Shri. A.K. Chanda
Commissions UPPSC (Pre) 2021
Reports of Public Service Article 323 Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Commissions question.

263
136. Article 280 of Indian Constitution is associated Select the answer using the codes given below.
with Codes:
(a) Finance commission (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(b) Election Commission explanation of (A)
(c) Public Service Commission (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
(d) Union Public Service Commission correct explanation of (A)
UK RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
question. UPPSC (Pre) 2021
137. Who constitutes the Finance Commission of Ans. (d): The qualifications of the Chairman and
India? Members of the Finance Commission are determined
(a) President by the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous
Provisions) Act, 1951, made by the Parliament. Hence
(b) Finance Minister
Assertion is not correct. Qualifications for
(c) Parliament appointment and the manner of selection of members
(d) Reserve Bank Governor of the commission have been laid down in Finance
Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019 Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951.
The Chairman of the Finance Commission shall be
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
selected from among persons, who have had
question.
experience in public affairs and the four other
138. Finance Commission is constituted after every members shall be selected from among persons –
(a) 3 years (b) 2 years (1) Who are or have been or are qualified to be
(c) 5 years (d) 4 years appointed as Judges of a High Court
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2008 (2) Who have special knowledge of the finances and
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above accounts of Government
question. (3) Who have had wide experience in financial
matters and in administration
139. To review the financial position of Panchayats,
the State Government constitutes every five (4) Who have special knowledge of economics
years a/an (5) Chairman and Members of Finance Commission of
India are appointed by the President of India.
(a) finance committee
Hence, Reason is correct.
(b) advisory commission
141. State Finance Commission is constituted under
(c) advisory committee the Article of the Constitution of India-
(d) finance commission (a) According to Article 243(H)
(e) None of the above/More than one of the (b) According to Article 243(I)
above (c) According to Article 243(J)
67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021 (d) According to Article 243(K)
Ans. (d) : A State Finance Commission reviews the Uttarakhand UDA (Pre) 2003
financial position of the panchayats in a state and makes Ans. (b) According to Article 243(I) of the
recommendations to the Governor about the principles Constitution, the Governor of a State shall, at the
that should govern the distribution of tax proceeds-taxes expiration of every fifth year, constitute a State Finance
duties, levies, tool fee collected by the state between the Commission to review the financial position of the
state and its Panchayati Raj institutions at all three Panchayats and to make recommendations to the
levels-village level, block level and district level. Governor of the State.
140. Given below are two statements one is labeled 142. Consider the following statements
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R): The function(s) of the Finance Commission
Assertion (A): The President of India determines is/are
the qualifications of the Chairman and Members 1. To allow the withdrawal of money out of the
of the Finance Commission. Consolidated Fund of India.
Reason (R): Chairman and Members are 2. To allocate between the States the shares of
appointed by the President of India. proceeds of taxes.

264
 3. To consider applications for grants-in-aid (c) Inter State Council
from States. (d) National Development Council
4. To supervise and report on whether the Union APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
and state governments are levying taxes in Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
accordance will the budgetary provisions question.
Codes : 145. With reference to the finance commission of
(a) only 1 India, which of the following statements is
correct?
(b) 2 and 3
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for
(c) 3 and 4 infrastructure development.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (b) It facilitates the proper distribution of
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2010 finances among the public section
undertakings.
Ans. (b) It is the duty of the Finance Commission to
(c) It ensures transparency in financial
make recommendations to the President as to— administration.
(i) The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
between the Union and the States which are to be above is correct in his context.
or may be divided between them and the allocation IAS (Pre) G.S., 2011
between the States of the respective shares of such
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
proceeds. question.
(ii) The principles which should govern the grants-in- 146. Which of the following statements is correct in
aid of the revenues of the States out of the reference to the Finance Commission of India?
Consolidated Fund of India. (a) It facilitates the judicial distribution of
(iii) The measures needed to augment the Consolidated finance among PSU’s.
Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the (b) It ensures transparency in financial
Panchayats in the State on the basis of the administration
recommendations made by the Finance (c) It deals with the financial relations between
Commission of the State. States and Center
(iv) The measures needed to augment the Consolidated (d) It ensures financial prudence of State
Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Government.
Municipalities in the State on the basis of the Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
recommendations made by the Finance Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Commission of the State. question.
(v) Any other matter referred to the Commission by the 147. Which one of the following authorities
President in the interests of sound finance. recommends the principle governing the
grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of
143. The primary duty of the Finance Commission the Consolidated Fund of India?
of India is- (a) Finance Commission
(a) To give the recommendations on distribution (b) Inter-State Council
of tax revenue between the Union and States
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(b) To prepare the Union Annual Budget
(d) Public Accounts Committee
(c) To advise the President on financial matters
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2001
(d) To allocate funds to various Ministries/
Departments of the Union and State Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Governments question.
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 148. Who of the following shall cause every
recommendation made by the Finance
Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Commission to be laid before each House of
question. Parliament?
144. The Percentage of distribution of revenue from (a) The President of India
taxes between the Centre and the State is (b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
recommended by the (c) The Prime Minister of India
(a) Finance Commission (d) The Union Finance Minister
(b) NITI Aayog IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003
265
Ans. (a) According to Article 281 of the Constitution,
the President shall cause every recommendation made State Public Service
by the Finance Commission together with an 1.(e)
explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon Commission
to be laid before each House of Parliament.
149. Which among the following is responsible for 152. Consider the following statements regarding
revenue sharing between the State Government Rajasthan Public Service Commission.
and Local Government? (i) The chairman and members of the
(a) Chief Minister commission are appointed by the Governor
(b) Governor of Rajasthan.
(c) State Finance Commission (ii) The chairman or any other member of the
commission shall only be removed from his
(d) None of the above
office by order of the President.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2013
(a) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
Ans. (c) State Finance Commission is mentioned in
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
Article 243(I) of the Constitution. The functions of
State Finance Commission are- (c) Only (ii) is correct.
(i) The distribution of the net proceeds of the taxes, (d) Only (i) is correct.
duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State between (e) Question not attempt
the State and the Panchayats, which may be divided RPSC (Pre) 2023
between them and the allocation between the
Ans.(b): The provisions regarding the composition of
Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of
such proceeds. Rajasthan public service commission (state public
service commission) are provided in Part-XIV of the
(ii) The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.
fees which may be assigned as or appropriated by Article 316 defined appointment and term of office of
the Panchayats.
members of UPSC as well as SPSC and Article 317
(iii) The grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the defines removal and suspension of a member of both
Consolidated Fund of the State. the UPSC or SPSC.
150. The State Finance Commission is a
(a) Legal body
1.(f) Election Commission
(b) Non-statutory body
(c) Constitutional body 153. Which of the following statement/statements
(d) None of the above can be attributed correctly to the exercise of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016 Delimitation?
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above I. The principle of 'one man' one vote reiterates
question. the need for the exercise of Delimitation.
II. The Government of India can set up a
Delimitation Commission for the
Union Public Service Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies in
1.(d) a select States or UTs.
Commission
III. The Delimitation Commission can only
151. Which of the following is not a function of the recommend the re-delimitation of territorial
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)? Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies
but cannot recommend on the reservation of
(a) Conduct examinations for appointments to the
seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
services of the Union
Tribes.
(b) Consultation on all disciplinary matters
IV. The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation
(c) Method of recruitment Commission of India is the Ministry of Law
(d) Manner of reservation and Justice.
APPSC (Pre) 2023 Select the correct answer using the codes gives
Ans. (d) : The function of UPSC is to conduct below:
examinations for appointments to services of the Union, (a) I, II and IV (b) II and III
consultation on all disciplinary matters, and method of (c) Only IV (d) I, III and IV
recruitment. Manner of reservation is not a function of
UPSC. APPSC (Pre) 2023

266
Ans. (a) : Delimitation means the process of fixing There is no constitutional limitation on retiring
number of seats and boundaries of territorial commissioners for further appointments. In Anoop
constituencies in each state for the Lok Sabha and Baranwal case, Supreme Court gave institutional
Legislative Assemblies. It also includes determining the mechanisms for selection of CEC.
seats to be reserved for scheduled caste and scheduled 155. Consider the following factors regarding the
tribes in these houses. The principle behind need of declaration of a political party as a State Party
delimitation is Principle of "one man one vote". To by the Election Commission of India:
ensure principle of delimitation, commission is setup by
(i) If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in
an Act of Parliament.
the State in a general election to the respective
The Government of India can set up a Delimitation State Legislative Assembly and also, it wins 2
Commission for the Parliamentary and Assembly seats in the same State Legislative Assembly
Constituencies in a select States or UTs.
(ii) If it secures 6% of the total votes in the
The Nodal Ministry for the Delimitation Commission of
State in a general election to the Lok Sabha
India is the Ministry of Law and Justice.
and also, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha the
Thus statement I, II and IV are correct. same State
154. Consider the following statement with (iii) If it wins 3% of seats in the Legislative
reference to the Election Commission of India: Assembly at a general election to the
I. The Constitution of India has debarred the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned or
retiring Election commissioners from any 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more)
further appointment by the government. (iv) If it secures 16% of the total valid votes
II. In 'Anoop Baranwal Case' (2023) the polled in the State at a general election to the
Supreme Court has directed the Government Lok Sabha from the State or to the State
to treat the Regional Commissioners on par Legislative Assembly
with the Election Commissioners (other than
Select the incorrect factor/factors using the
the Chief Election Commissioner) as far as
codes given below.
removal from office is concerned.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
III. Since its inception the Election Commission
had functioned as a multi-member body. (b) (iii) and (iv) only
IV. The power of superintendence, direction (c) (i) and (iii) only
and control of election to the office of Vice- (d) (iv) only
President of India is vested in the Election
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
Commission.
(a) II and III Ans. (a) : A party is recognised as a state party in a
(b) Only IV state if any of following conditions is fulfilled :-
(c) Only II • If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the State
(d) I, II and IV in a general election to the respective State Legislative
Assembly and also, it wins 2 seats in the same State
APPSC (Pre) 2023
Legislative Assembly.
Ans. (b) : Article 324 of constitution provides for the
Election Commission of India and vests the ECI with • If it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a
power of Superintendence, direction and control of general election to the Lok Sabha and also, it wins 1
Elections to Parliament, State legislatures office of seat in the Lok Sabha the same State.
President and Vice President. • It is wins 3% of seats in the Legislative Assembly at a
The Constitution provides that ECI shall consist of general election to the Legislative Assembly of the State
Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other concerned or 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is
Election Commissioners as the President may time to more).
time fix. The president may also appoint Regional • If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or
Commissioners after consultation with ECI. any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general
Originally ECI had only CEC, but in 1989 first time two election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned.
additional commissioners were appointed. The concept • If it secures 8% of the total valid votes polled in the
of multi-member commission has been in operation state at a General Election to the Lok Sabha from the
since then with decision making power by majority state or the legislative assembly of the state. This
vote. condition was added in 2011.

267
156. Consider the following statements regarding (a) (i) and (ii) only
the Delimitation Commission of India: (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(i) The Delimitation Commission is appointed (c) (i) and (iv) only
by the President of India and works in
(d) (iii) only
collaboration with the Election Commission of
India. ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
(ii) Article 82 of the Constitution of India Ans. (c) : Article 324 of the constitution provides for
states that the Parliament is required by law to the Election Commission empowered to supervise,
enact a Delimitation Act following each Census. direction and control of elections to parliament, state
(iii) The first delimitation exercise in post- legislature, president and vice president. Rajiv Kumar is
independent India was held in 1952 as per the present Chief Election Commissioner joined office on
1951 Census. 15th May 2022. There is no provision for reconstitution
(iv) The present delimitation of parliamentary of Election Commissioner.
constituencies has been done on the basis of the Thus, statement 1 & 4 are incorrect.
2001 Census figures under the provision of the
Delimitation Act, 2002. 158. Who among the following is the Head of the
Delimitation Commission, constituted in March
Select the correct statement/statements using
2020 to redraw Lok Sabha and Assembly
the codes given below.
Constituencies of the Union Territory of
(a) (i) only
Jammu and Kashmir?
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(a) Ranjan Gogoi
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(b) Arun kumar Mishra
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) Madan Lokur
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
(d) Ranjna Prakash Desai
Ans. (d) : Article 82 of the Constitution of India states
that the Parliament is required by law to enact a UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Delimitation Act following each Census. Ans. (d) : Government of India has reconstituted the
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the Delimitation Commission for four North Eastern States
President of India and works in collaboration with the namely Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland
Election Commission of India. and for Union Territory of Jammu Kashmir on 6th
The first delimitation exercise in post-independent India March, 2020 under the chairpersonship of former
was held in 1952 as per the 1951 Census. Supreme Court Judge, Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai.
The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies 159. Consider the facts given below:
has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures 1. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election
under the provision of the Delimitation Act, 2002. Commissioner of India.
Hence, all the statements are correct. 2. Rama Devi was the first woman Chief
157. Consider the following statements regarding Election Commissioner of India.
the Election Commission of India: Choose the correct answer from the codes
(i) The Election Commission of India is a given below.
body constitutionally empowered to conduct
Codes:
free and fair elections to the National and State
Legislatures including the Panchayats. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(ii) The power of the Election Commission of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India is derived from Article 324 of the UPPSC (Pre) 2021
Constitution of India. Ans. (c): Sukumar Sen was an Indian civil servant, then
(iii) Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Chief Secretary of West Bengal, who was the first Chief
Commissioner who Joined his office on 15th Election Commissioner of India, serving from 21st
May, 2022. March 1950 to 19th December 1958.
(iv) The Election Commission is reconstituted Ms Ramadevi was the Chief Election Commissioner of
every five years. India from November 26, 1990 to December 11, 1990.
Select the incorrect statement/statements using She was the only woman to hold the post. She was
the codes given below. succeeded by TN Sheshan.
268
160. The powers of the Election Commission include Ans. (a) The functions of the Election Commission of
which of the following? India are superintendence, direction and control of the
I. The Election Commission takes decisionss on preparation of the electoral rolls for the conduct of all
every aspect of conduct and control of elections to the Parliament and to the Legislature of
elections from the announcement of elections every State and of elections to the offices of President
to the declaration of results. and Vice President. Election Commission of India
II. During the election period, the Election prepares electoral rolls for all above said elections.
Commission can order the Government to Election Commission recognizes political parties and
dismiss some government officials. provides them election symbols. Proclamation of final
verdict in case of election dispute lies with President
III. When on election duty, Government officers
which in turn shall obtain the opinion of the Election
work under the control of the Election
Commission and shall act according to such opinion.
Commission.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given 162. Consider the following statements with
below : reference to India :
(a) I and II only (b) I and III only 1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other
Election Commissioners enjoy equal power
(c) I only (d) All of the above
but receive unequal salaries
APPSC (Pre) 2023 2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled
Ans. (d) : The powers and functions of the Election to the same salary as is provided to the judge
Commission with regard to election to the Parliament, of the Supreme Court
State Legislatures are as - 3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not
i) The Election Commission takes dicision on every be removed from his office except in like
aspect of conduct and control of elections from the manner and on like grounds as a judge of the
announcement of elections to the declaration of Supreme Court
results. Hence, statmement-I is correct. 4. The term of office of the Election
ii) During the election period the Election Commission Commissioner is five years from the date he
can order the government to follow some guidelines assumes his office or till the day he attains the
to prevent use and misuse of government power to age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
enhance it's chance to win elections or to transfer Which of these statements are correct?
some government officials (not for dismissed) . (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Hence, statement-II is correct. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
iii) When on election duty, Government officers work IAS (Pre) G.S., 2002
under the control of the Election Commission.
Ans. (b) The salary of the Chief Election Commissioner
Hence, statement- III is correct.
and other Commissioners is same as that of Judge of the
161. Consider the following tasks: Supreme Court. Hence, statement 1 is not correct but
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of statement 2 is correct.
free and fair elections. According to Article 324 (5) of the Constitution, Chief
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all election Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his
to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the office except in like manner and on the like grounds as
Office of the President and the Vice a Judge of the Supreme Court and any other Election
President. Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be
3. Giving recognition to political parties and removed from office by the President of India except on
allotting election symbols to political parties the recommendation of the Chief Election
and individuals contesting the election. Commissioner. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of The Chief Election Commissioner and other
election disputes. Commissioners of Election Commission may, at
Which of the above are the functions of the anytime, resign by writing under his hand addressed to
Election Commission of India? the President of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4 The term of the Election Commissioner is six years
(c) 1 and 3 (4) 1 ,2 and 4 from the day he assumes office or till the day he attains
the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence,
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2003 statement 4 is not correct.
269
163. Consider the following statement: (c) The Chief Election Commissioner is merely
(i) The Chief Election Commissioner of the first among equals.
Election Commission of India is paid the (d) In case of difference of opinion amongst the
salary equal to the salary of the Judge of the Chief Election Commissioner and other
Supreme Court. Election Commissioners, the matter is
decided by majority.
(ii) The term of Chief Election Commissioner of
the Election Commission of India shall be for Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
a period of 6 years from the date of assuming Ans.(b): According to Article 324 (5) of the Constitution,
office or till the age of 65 years, whichever Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from
comes first his office except in like manner and on the same grounds
as a Judge of the Supreme Court and any other Election
(iii) An Election Commissioner may, at anytime,
Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be
resign by writing under his hand addressed to
removed from office except on the recommendation of the
the Chief Election Commissioner, resign his Chief Election Commissioner. Hence statement (a) is
office. correct. Originally the Election Commission had only a
Choose the correct statement. Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) Chief Election Commissioner and two Election
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) only Commissioners. The concept of multi-member
Commission has been in operation till date with decision
MPPSC (Pre) 2020 making power by majority vote. So Chief Election
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Commissioner is merely first among equals. Hence both
question. statement (c) and (d) are correct.
164. The Chief Election Commissioner of India As per the official answer key provided by the
holds office for a period of: commission, statement (b) is wrong but the Chief
Election Commissioner enjoys the same status and
(a) Six years receives salary and perks as available to Judges of the
(b) During the pleasure of the President Supreme Court.
(c) For six year or till he attains the age of 65 The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from
year office only through impeachment by Parliament (same
(d) For five year or till the age of 60 years, as Supreme Court Judges). Hence statement (b) is also
whichever is earlier? correct.
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I 167. Study the following statements and select the
correct answer from the code given below:
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Assertion (A) The State Election Commission is a
question.
Constitutional authority.
165. The Election Commissioner can be removed by Reason (R) Elections to rural local bodies are
the overseen by the Election Commission of India.
(a) Chief Election Commissioner Codes:
(b) Prime Minister (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(c) President on the recommendation of the Chief explanation of (A).
Election Commissioner (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
(d) Chief Justice of India correct explanation of (A).
UPPCS (Pre) Re-exam. G.S., 2015 (c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2014
Ans. (d) Election Commission of India and State
166. Which one of the following statements about
Election Commissions are Constitutional bodies. Hence
Election Commission of India is false?
Assertion A is correct. Superintendence, direction and
(a) Only the Chief Election Commissioner has a control of the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct
security to tenure but not to the other Election of all elections to the Gram Panchayat and Zila
Commissioners. Pachayat shall be vested in the State Election
(b) The Chief Election Commissioner holds the Commission. It consists of a State Election
position or status of a judge of the Supreme Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor of the
Court. State. Hence Reason R is incorrect.

270
168. Which one of the following is correct in respect The Constitution of India was specifically amended in
of the commencement of the election process in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the
India? first census after 2026.
(a) The recommendation for election is made by The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power
the government and the notification for body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be
election is issued by the Election Commission called in question before any court. These orders come
(b) The recommendation for election is made by into force on a date to be specified by the President of
the Election Commission and the notification India in this behalf. The copies of its orders are laid
for election is issued by the Home Ministry at before the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly
the Centre and Home Deparments in the concerned but no modifications are permissible therein
States by them.
(c) The recommendation for election is made by 170. Who recognises the political parties in India?
the Election Commission and the notification (a) President of India
for election is issued by the President and (b) Election Commission of India
Governors of the States concerned (c) Ministry of Law and Justice
(d) Both the exercises of making a (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
recommendation for election and that of UK-PSC (Pre) 2016
issuing a notification in respect of it are done Ans. (b) Election Commission of India recognises the
by the Election Commission political parties in India.
IAS (Pre) G.S., 1995
171. Consider the following statements:
Ans. (c) As per the Representation of the People Act, (i) The Chief Election Commissioner of the
1951, the President issues notification for the election Election Commission of India is paid a salary
on the recommendation of the Election Commission. equal to the salary of the Judge of Supreme
169. With reference to the Delimitation Court.
Commission, consider the following statements: (ii) The term of Chief Election Commissioner of
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission India shall be for a period of 6 years from the
cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. date of assuming office or till the age of 65
2. When the orders of the Delimitation years whichever comes first.
Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or (iii) An Election Commissioner may at any time
State Legislative Assembly, they cannot by writing under his hand addressed to the
effect any modifications in the orders. Chief Election Commissioner, resign his
Which of the statements given above is/are office.
correct? Which statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) i and iii (b) i and ii
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) I, ii and iii (d) iii only
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2012 MPPSC Pre 2022
Ans. (b): According to the Chief Election
Ans. (c) The Delimitation Commission demarcates the
Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners
boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per
(Conditions of Service) Act, 1991-
provisions of the Delimitation Act.
-The Chief Election Commissioner of the Election
In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been
Commission of India is paid a salary equal to the salary
constituted four times in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002
of the Judge of the Supreme Court.
respectively.
-The term of Chief Election Commissioner of India
Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by
shall be for a period of 6 years from the date of
law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census and after
assuming office or till the age of 65 years whichever
the commencement of the Act; the Central Government
comes first.
constitutes a Delimitation Commission. The present
-The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election
delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis
Commissioner may, at any time, by writing under his
of 2001 census figures under the provisions of
hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
Delimitation Act, 2002.
271
172. Consider the following statements: (c) Conduct of elections to Parliament
1. The Election Commission of India is a five- (d) Conduct of elections to the State legislatures.
member body. TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2015
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
election schedule for the conduct of both question.
general elections and bye-elections.
174. The Election Commission was converted into
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
‘Three Members Commission’ in the following
relating to splits/mergers of recognised
year:
political parties.
(a) 1987 (b) 1988
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (c) 1989 (d) 1990
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2006
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
175. Which one among the following commissions
Ans. (d) The Election Commission of India was
was set up in pursuance of a definite provision
established in accordance with the Constitution of India
under an Article of the Constitution of India?
on 25th January, 1950. The Election Commission of
India is an autonomous Constitutional authority (a) University Grants commission
responsible for administering Parliament and State (b) National Human Rights Commission
Legislatures election processes in India. (c) Election Commission
The Election Commission of India administers elections (d) Central Vigilance Commission
to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative IAS (Pre) G.S., 2006
Assemblies and the offices of the President and Vice
President of India. Ans. (c) Article 324 of the Constitution is regarding
Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be
Originally the commission had only one Chief Election
vested in an Election Commission. According to Article
Commissioner. It currently consists of Chief Election
324 (1) of the Constitution; superintendence, direction
Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. For
and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls and
the first time two additional Commissioners were
th conduct of all elections to the Parliament and to the
appointed on 16 October 1989 but they had a very
st st Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices
short tenure till 1 January 1990. On 1 October 1993,
of President and Vice President shall be vested in
two additional Election Commissioners were appointed.
Election Commission.
The concept of multi-member Commission has been in
operation since then with decision making power by 176. Which Article in the Indian Constitution is
majority vote. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. related with the establishment of the Election
Commission of India?
Election Commission of India decides the election
schedule for the conduct of both general elections and (a) Article 324 (b) Article 148
bye-elections. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect. (c) Article 342 (d) Article 325
Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted (e) None of the above/More than one of the
the compositions of political parties. This has led to a above
number of disputes over which section of a divided 66th BPSC (Pre) 2020
party gets to keep the party symbol and how to classify
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the resulting parties in terms of national and State
question.
parties. The Election Commission of India has to
resolve these disputes although its decisions can be 177. Election Commission of India is
challenged in the courts. Hence statement 3 is correct. (a) Statutory body
173. Which one of the following is not a function of (b) Administrative body
Chief Election Commission of India? (c) Enacted body
(a) Conduct of elections to the office of the State (d) Constitutional body
Governor. Uttarakhand RO/ARO (M) 2016
(b) Conduct of elections to the offices of the Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
President and Vice-President. question.

272
178. Which one of the following functions is not
related to the Election Commission? National Commission for
(a) Direction and control of the preparation of the
electoral rolls. Scheduled Castes and
(b) Conduct of all elections to the Parliament and 1.(g)
Legislatures of every States. National Commission for
(c) To conduct the election of the offices of Scheduled Tribes
President and Vice President.
(d) To make provision with respect to elections
to Legislatures. 182. The National Commission for Scheduled
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2009 Castes, while investigating any matter or
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above inquiring into any complaint, has the powers
question. on the following matters :
179. The Model Code of Conduct for elections is (a) It can receive evidences on affidavits.
issued by the Election Commission as per (b) It can requisition any public record from any
(a) Rules in the Constitution
(b) Rules in the Indian Penal Code court or office.
(c) Issued for voluntary compliance (c) It can issue summons for the examination of
(d) Rules laid down in the Peoples witnesses and documents.
Representation Act Choose the correct answer using the codes
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017
given below:
Ans. (d): The Model Code of Conduct for elections is
issued by the Election Commission of India as per (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
Rules laid down in the Peoples Representation Act, (c) I and III only (d) All of the above
1951. As per the Election Commission of India, the APPSC (Pre) 2023
model code of conduct was first observed during the
1960 polls. The Model Code of Conduct consists of a Ans. (d) : The National Commission for Scheduled
set of guidelines expected to be abiding by the Castes (SCs) is a constitutional body established by
political parties, their campaigners and the candidates. Article 338. It's functions are :-
The Election Commission brings the Model Code of
(a) Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any
conduct into effect to ensure free and fair elections.
person from any Part of India and examining him
180. While deciding any question relating to the
disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the on oath.
President shall obtain the opinion of (b) Receiving evidence on affidavits.
(a) Chief Justice of India (c) Requisitioning any public record from any court or
(b) Election Commission of India office.
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) Issuing summons for examination of witness and
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2015 documents.
Ans. (b) According to Article 103 of the Constitution, More ever above that the commission presents an
if any question arises as to whether a member of either annual report to the President.
House of Parliament has become subject to any of the
disqualifications, the question shall be referred for the 183. Which of the following is not the function of the
decision of the President and his decision shall be final. National Commission for Scheduled Castes ?
Before giving any decision on any such question, the (a) Providing constitutional protection to
President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Scheduled Castes.
Commission and shall act according to such opinion.
(b) To submit the report to the Prime Minister
181. Under Article 103 of the Constitution of India,
the President shall obtain the opinion of which related to the protection of Scheduled Castes.
of the following authority before giving any (c) To investigate any that violates the interests
decision on any question regarding the of Scheduled Castes.
disqualification of the members of the Lok (d) None of the above
Sabha?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha APPSC (Pre) 2023
(b) Election Commission Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
(c) Supreme Court question.
(d) Attorney General
RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021 184. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (SC) is constituted by which Article of the
question. Constitution?

273
 (a) Article 337 (b) Article 338
(c) Article 336 (d) Article 335 1. National Commission for
MH PSC (Pre) 2022 (h) Backward Classes
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
question. 187. Which of the following is/are a duties of
185. Which of the following is correct? National Commission for Backward Classes?
(a) To enquire into specific complaints with
Union Public Service Commission is-
respect to the deprivation of rights and
(a) Regulatory Body safeguards of the socially and educationally
(b) Statuary Body backward classes
(c) Established by Parliamentary Ordinance (b) To participate and advise on the socio-
(d) Constitutional Body economic development of the socially and
nd educationally backward classes
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. II Paper 2014
(c) To discharge other functions in relation to the
Ans. (d) According to Article 315 of the Constitution,
protection, welfare development and
there shall be a Public Service Commission for the
advancement of socially and educationally
Union and a Public Service Commission for each State. backward classes
Hence Union Public Service Commission is a
(d) All of the above
Constitutional body.
MH PSC (Pre) 2023
186. Which one of the following is not a statuary
Ans. (d) : 102nd Constituion Amendment Act, 2018
function of UPSC?
provides constitutional status to the National
(a) To advice the government on the methods of Commission for Backward Classes. It's functions are as
recruitment, promotion and control of public follows -
services.
• It investigates and monitors all matters relating to
(b) To look after the interest and rights of civil safeguards provided for socially and educationally
servants. backward classes under the constitution or under any
(c) To hear appeals from civil servants and law.
redress their grievances. • It participate and advises on socio-economic
(d) To supervise the functioning of the State development of socially and educationally backward
Public Service Commission. classes.
Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 • It evaluates progress of their development under
Ans. (b) Under Article 320 of the Constitution, the Union and States.
Public Service Commission is required to be consulted • Presents its report to president annually.
on all matters relating to recruitment to civil services • Enquire into specific complaints w.r.t. deprivations of
and posts. The functions of the Public Service rights and safeguards of socially and educationally
Commission are- backward classes.
• Conduct examinations for appointment to the 188. Under which Article, Scheduled Caste/
services of the Union. Schedule Tribe has been granted fundamental,
• Direct recruitment by selection through interviews. socio- economic, political and cultural rights?
(a) Article 20 (b) Article 19
• Appointment of officers on promotion / deputation
/ absorption. (c) Article 18 (d) Article 17
MPPSC (Pre) G.S, 2015
• Framing and amendment of recruitment rules for
various services and posts under the Government. Ans. (d) Article 17 of the Constitution is regarding
abolition of untouchability. The enforcement of any
• Disciplinary cases relating to different Civil
disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence
Services.
punishable in accordance with law. Article 17 provides
• Advising the Government on any matter referred to fundamental, socio- economic, political and cultural
the Commission by the President of India. rights to Scheduled Caste / Schedule Tribes in India.

274
189. The causes which are not atrocity on scheduled Ans. (b) : The Constitution (89th Amendment) Act,
caste and scheduled tribe according to the 2003 divided the National Commission for Scheduled
report of National Commission of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes into two separate
Caste and Scheduled Tribe in the Year 1990. commissions. By the virtue of this Amendment Article
338 provided for a National Commission for Scheduled
(a) Land alienation (b) Bonded labour Castes and Article 338 (A), inserted by the 89th
(c) Indebtedness (d) Religious causes Amendment, created National Commission for
Scheduled Tribes.
MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2015
192. Provision for appointment of National
Ans. (d) According to the report of National Commission
Commission for SC’s and ST’s has been made
of Schedule Caste and Scheduled Tribes, 1990; land in the Constitution under Article
alienation, bonded labour and indebtedness are the causes
(a) 338 and 338A (b) 337
of atrocity but religious causes are not one of them.
(c) 334 (d) 339
190. Which of the following statements is/are UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2013
correct about National Commission for Ans.(a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Scheduled Tribes [NCST]? 193. Under which Article of the Constitution the
(A) It is a constitutional body which came into Separate Scheduled Tribe Commission was
existence in 2004. established?
(B) Its functions is to inquire into specific (a) 337 (b) 338 (c) 338-A (d) 340
complaints with respect to the deprivation Uttarakhand-PSC (Pre) 2016
of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Tribes. 194. National Commission for Schedule Tribes
(C) It works to improve literacy rate of Tribal recommends that the National Education
community. Commission must be setup for every.
(a) One year (b) three year
(D) Its function is to facilitate women
(c) Two year (d) Five year
empowerment of Tribal women.
TNPSC (Pre) G.S 2015
(a) Only (A)
Ans. (d) : National Commission for Schedule Tribes
(b) Only (A) and (B) recommends that the National Education Commission
(c) Only (A), (B) and (C) must be setup for every five years.
(d) All of the above
Maharashtra PSC 2022 Non-constitutional bodies
Ans. (d) : The National Commission for Scheduled 2. and other organizations
Tribe came into existence in 2004 when the 89th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 divided the (a) ___________________________________
National Commission for Scheduled Castes and
Niti Aayog
Scheduled Tribes. Hence, 1st statement is correct. It
195. Three year Action Plan of NITI Aayog
inquires into the specific complaints with respect to
suggested a "Judicial Performance Index". It
deprivation of rights and safeguard of Scheduled Tribes. has been suggested to assess the performance of
Hence, 2nd statement is also correct. It also facilitate (a) The Supreme Court
women empowerment of Tribal Women. Therefore, 3rd
(b) The District Courts and Subordinate Courts
statement is also correct.
(c) The High Courts
191. The National Commission for Scheduled Caste (d) All of the above
(SC) is constituted by which Article of the
Tripura PCS (NCS) Pre-2020
Constitution?
(a) Article 337 Ans. (b) : NITI Aayog suggested for the introduction of
a “Judicial Performance Index”. Such an index could be
(b) Article 338 established to help High Courts and Chief Justice of the
(c) Article 336 High Courts to keep a track of performance and process
(d) Article 335 improvement at the district courts and subordinate
Maharashtra PSC 2022 levels for reducing delay.
275
196. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog 200. How many items in XII Schedule of Indian
comprises of: Constitution are given for the Municipalities?
(a) Prime Minister and all Chief Ministers (a) 18 (b) 19
(b) Chief Ministers and Experts and specialists (c) 200 (d) None of the above
(c) All Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
(d) Chief Ministers and Union Finance Minister Ans. (a) : Twelfth Schedule was added by the
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I Constitution (Seventy-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992.
Ans. (c) : In 2015, Planning Commission of India was Twelfth Schedule (Article 243W) contains following
replaced by NITI Aayog. The aim of NITI Aayog is to 18 subjects-
achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance 1. Urban planning including town planning
cooperative federalism in India. The Governing Council 2. Planning of land use and construction of buildings
of NITI Aayog comprises the Prime Minister of India, 3. Planning for economic and social development
Chief Minister's of all the States and Union Territories, 4. Roads and bridges
Lt. Governors of other UTs, Ex-Officio Members, Vice
Chairman, Full-Time Members and special Invitees. 5. Water supply for domestic, industrial and
commercial purposes
197. Which of the following statement is/are correct
6. Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid
about the NITI Aayog?
waste management
1. The aim of NITI Aayog is to achieve
7. Fire services
Sustainable Development Goals and to
enhance cooperative federalism in the 8. Urban forestry, protection of the environment and
country. promotion of ecological aspects
2. The Prime Minister of India is the ex officio 9. Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of
Chairperson of the NITI Aayog. society, including the handicapped and mentally
retarded
3. There are 8 full time members in the NITI
Aayog. 10. Slum improvement and upgradation
(a) Only 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 11. Urban poverty alleviation
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 1 and 2 12. Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as
parks, gardens, playgrounds
KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
13. Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic
Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. aspects
198. Which of the following Articles of the Indian 14. Burials and burial grounds; cremations, cremation
Constitution provides provisions for a Public grounds and electric crematoriums
Services Commission for the Union and a 15. Cattle pounds; prevention of cruelty to animals
Public Service Commission for each state?
16. Vital statistics including registration of births and
(a) Article 315 (b) Article 320
deaths.
(c) Article 312 (d) Article 318
17. Public amenities including street lighting, parking
UPPSC (J) 2023 lots, bus stops and public conveniences
Ans. (a) : Article 315 defines Constitution of Public 18. Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries
Service Commission for Union and for the States of
201. Which one of the following was NOT proposed
India.
by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the
199. Which of the following may make provisions area of Panchayati Raj?
with respect to the maintenance of accounts by (a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local
the Municipalities and the auditing of such bodies will be reserved for women candidates
accounts? at all levels
(a) Governor of State (b) The States will constitute their Finance
(b) CAG Commission to allot resources to Panchayati
(c) Legislature of a State Raj Institutions
(d) President of India (c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I be disqualified to hold their offices if they
have more than two children
Ans. (c): According to Article 243Z of the Constitution,
(d) The elections will be held in six months time
the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions
if Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or
with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the
dissolved by the State government
Municipalities and the auditing of such accounts
IAS (Pre) G.S.,1997
276
Ans. (c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be Ans. (a) Panchayati Raj Institutions receive funds by
disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than the grants from the Union Government based on the
two children was not proposed in 73rd Constitution recommendations of the Union Finance Commission,
Amendment, 1992, regarding Panchayati Raj. Later after grants/loans by the State Government based on the
1991 census, National Development Council set up a recommendations of the State Finance Commission,
committee on population which recommended legislation assistance by central cooperative banks and programme-
in Parliament prohibiting persons with more than two specific allocation under centrally sponsored schemes.
children from holding any post from Parliament to National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Panchayats. A number of States have adopted this norm (NABARD) provides credits to boost rural economy.
for elected Panchayats, urban local bodies, cooperatives. 205. Which of the following is related to the theme
Rajasthan was the first State to implement such of ‘Grass Root Democracy’?
recommendations. Rest of the given options were part of
(a) Lokpal
the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
(b) Panchayati Raj System
202. Reservation of seats in Panchayat elections for
(c) Inter-State Council
Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the State of
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Assam (d) Regional Politics
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2013
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Haryana
Ans. (b) Grass root democracy has been established in
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
India through 73rd Amendment of the Constitution
Ans. (c) According to the Constitution (Eighty-Third which is related to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Amendment) Act, 2000, since no scheduled castes exist
206. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayati Raj system
in the State of Arunachal Pradesh, it is proposed to insert have no powers of awarding imprisonment
a new clause (3A) in Article 243M of the Constitution to except in the State of-
exempt the State of Arunachal Pradesh from the
(a) Bihar (b) Jammu and Kashmir
application of Article 243D relating to the reservation of
seats in Panchayats for the Scheduled Castes. (c) Maharashtra (d) West Bengal
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd Paper 2005
203. The number of seats reserved for women in
Panchayati Raj Institutions in U.P is Ans. (a) Under the Bihar Panchayati Raj Act, 2006, the
Gram Courts have power of awarding imprisonment.
(a) One- third of the total seats
(b) In proportion to the woman’s population 207. 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj
Institutions is legalized in certain States such as
(c) One- fourth of the total seats
I. Bihar II. Uttarakhand
(d) As per the requirement of the circumstances
III. Madhya Pradesh IV. Himachal Pradesh
UPPCS (Pre) G.S., 2016
(a) Only III (b) Only II and III
Ans. (a) According to Article 243(D) of the
Constitution, not less than one third (including the (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II , III and IV
number of seats reserved for women belonging to the (e) None of the above
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the total BPSC (Pre) G.S., 2018
number of seats to be filled by direct election in every
Ans. (d) Currently 20 States in India provide 50%
Panchayat shall be reserved for women.
reservation for woman in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
204. Consider the following sources of Revenue of These States are Assam, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
the Panchayats: Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand,
1. Local Authority Grant by Finance Kerala, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Commission Odisha, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana,
2. Assistance by Central Cooperative Banks Tripura, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Punjab.
3. Allocations for centrally sponsored schemes 208. Which one of the following functions is not the
4. NABARD concern of Local Self-Government?
5. Allocation from State Finance Commission (a) Public Health
Of the above, the correct sources of Finance for (b) Sanitation
Panchayats would be (c) Public Utility Services
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) only 1 and 2 (d) Maintenance of Public Order
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2. 4 and 5 (e) None of the above
nd
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. II Paper 2007 BPSC (Pre) G.S., 2017
277
Ans. (d) Maintenance of Public Order is State subject. Ans. (a) According to Article 243 E of the
Rest of the given options are subjects related to Constitution, every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved,
Panchayats. shall continue for five years from the date appointed of
its first meeting.
209. Which one of the following is not concerned
with the Panchayats? 213. State Election Commissioner for the election of
Panchayat would be appointed by-
(a) The State Election Commission will conduct
Panchayat elections (a) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act (b) President of India
(c) There shall be a fixed five year term for all (c) Governor of the State
the Panchayats. (d) None of the above
(d) Fresh elections would have to be held within UP Lower (M) G.S., 2013
six months of the dissolution of a Panchayat. Ans. (c) According to Article 243 K of the
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. II Paper 2010 Constitution, all elections to the Panchayats shall be
nd

vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a

Ans. (b) The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act gave State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the
Constitutional status to Municipalities. Rest of the given Governor of the State.
options are related to Panchayats.
214. If the President of the Zila Panchayat is
210. The system of Panchayati Raj is mentioned in suspended, what will happen?
(a) The Union List (b) The State List (a) The Vice President of the Zilla Panchayat
(c) the Concurrent List (d) None of the above will be act as acting President
(e) None of the above (b) The Vice President will become President
BPSC (Pre) G.S., 2018 (c) The office of the President will be vacant
Ans. (b) Panchayats have been provided Constitutional (d) The members will elect President temporarily
status under Article 243 of the Constitution. Several (e) None of the above
provisions for Panchayats have been made under Part Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2017
IX (Article 243 to 243I) of the Constitution. The Ans. (d) According to the Chhattisgarh Panchayati Raj
system of Panchayati Raj is mentioned in the State List. Act, 1993, in the event that the Sarpanch of Gram
Panchayat/ President of Zila Panchayat is suspended
211. Which one of the following Articles provides
,the Secretary or the Chief Executive Officer of the
reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes concerned Panchayat shall cause to be called a special
and Scheduled Tribes in the Panchayats? meeting of the Panchayat immediately (but not later
(a) 243 (D) (b) 243 (C) than fifteen days from the date of receipt of information
(c) 243 (B) (d) 243 (A) from prescribed authority) and the members shall elect
from amongst themselves, a person to hold the office of
Uttarakhand-PSC (Pre)-2016 Sarpanch or President temporarily and such officiating
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) 2016 Sarpanch or President shall perform all the duties and
Ans. (a) Article 243 (D) of the Constitution provides exercise all the powers of Sarpanch or President during
the period for which such suspension continues.
reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in the Panchayats. Article 243(A) is 215. If a candidate expired before polling in
regarding power and functions of the Gram Panchayats, Panchayat election, then what shall be
happened?
Article 243 (B) is about Constitution of the Panchayats
and Article 234 (C) is regarding composition of the i. Polling shall be postponed
Panchayats. ii. Polling shall not be postponed
iii. If remained only one candidate, then polling
212. The tenure of every Panchayat in India is five will be postponed
years from-
iv. If remained more than one candidate then
(a) The scheduled date of its first meeting polling will not be postponed
(b) The date of notification of election (a) i.ii (b) ii, iii
(c) The declaration of the election results (c) iii, iv (d) ii, iv
(d) The date of oath of office by members (e) None of the above
UP Lower (M) G.S., 2013 Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2017
278
Ans.(c): If a candidate expired before polling in (iii) The tenure of municipal council is 5 years.
Panchayat election and if only one candidate remained (iv) If municipal council is dissolved in two years,
for election, polling will be postponed. Whereas if there then new municipal council will be organised
is more than one candidate, polling will not postponed
for three years.
and process of election would continue.
(v) If municipal council is dissolved in two years,
216. Consider the following statements:
then new municipal council will be organised
In India, a metropolitan planning committee:
for five years.
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the
Constitution of India. (a) (i) (iii) (v)
2. Prepares the draft development plans for (b) (ii) (iii) (iv)
metropolitan area. (c) (i) (iii) (iv)
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing (d) (ii) (iii) (v)
government sponsored schemes in the
metropolitan area. (e) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2017
correct? Ans. (b) Constitution (Seventy Forth Amendment) Act,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 1992 has introduced a new Part IXA in the Constitution
(c) 1, 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 which deals with Municipalities from Article 243P to
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2011 243ZG. The duration of Municipality has been fixed at
Ans. (d) Article 243 ZE of the Constitution is regarding five years from the date of its first meeting. According
committee for metropolitan planning. Article 243ZE (3) to Article 243U(4), a Municipality constituted upon the
asserts that every metropolitan planning committee shall dissolution of a Municipality before the expiration of its
prepare draft development plans for metropolitan area. duration shall continue only for the remainder of the
This Article further asserts that the metropolitan planning period for which the dissolved Municipality would have
committee has sole responsibility to implement continued.
government sponsored schemes in metropolitan area.
Hence all the statements given are correct. 220. A person shall not be disqualified for being
chosen as a member of a municipality
217. In which one of the following areas does the
State Government NOT have control over its (a) At the age of 21 years
local bodies? (b) At the age of 19 years
(a) Citizen's grievances (b) Financial matters (c) At the age of 18 years
(c) Legislation (d) Personal matters
(d) At the age of 20 years
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2001
7th JPSC (Pre) 2021 Paper-1
Ans. (a) State Government controls the functioning of
the local bodies in the areas related to legislation, Ans. (a) : According to Article 243V (1)(a), no person
financial, personnel etc. Citizen’s grievances are shall be disqualified to be a member of a municipality
monitored and addressed by the local bodies. on the ground that he is less than twenty five years of
218. In India the first Municipal Corporation was age, if he has attained the age, of twenty one years.
set up in which one among the following 221. Who among the following are appointed by
places? President of India?
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras
I. Chairman, Finance Commission
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi
II. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
UPPSC (Pre) 2021
III. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Ans. (b): The first Municipal Corporation was set up
in the former Presidency Town of Madras in 1688 and Choose the correct answer from the codes
was followed by similar corporations in Bombay and given below.
Calcutta in 1726. Codes:
219. What is correct about the tenure of municipal (a) I only (b) I and II only
council?
(c) I and III only (d) II and III only
(i) The tenure of municipal council is counted
from the date of declaration of election result. IAS (Pre) G.S., 1994
(ii) The tenure of municipal council is counted UPPCS(Mains) G.S. IInd Paper,2005
from the date of its first meeting. Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S,2006

279
Ans. (c) Article 280 of the Constitution is regarding Ans. (a) : The National Human Rights Commission is
Finance Commission. It asserts that the President, on an independent statutory body established to protect and
every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission promote human rights in India. It was established under
which shall consist of a Chairman and four other the protection of Human Rights Act 1993.
members to be appointed by the President. Section 45 in The NHRC comprises of a chairperson, five full time
the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 asserts members and seven deemed members.
that the Chief Minister of a Union Territory which has
Three members out of five permanent members to be
Legislative Assembly shall be appointed by the
appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of,
President. Planning Commission was established in
or practical experience in, matters relating to human
1950 to oversee the country’s economic and social
rights.
development, mainly through the formulation of five-
year plans. The commission was chaired by Prime The NHRC has certain limitations in its jurisdiction and
Minister and a deputy chairman and other members can not investigate cases that are older than one year.
were appointed by the Prime Minister. In January 2015, Any Member of the State Human Rights Commission
Planning Commission was transformed to NITI Aayog shall be removed from his office by order of President
(National Institute for Transforming India). on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity
after the inquiry of the Supreme court.
Union Territory of Ladakh need to follow the guidelines
National Human Rights
2. issued by NHRC. Thus all statements are incorrect.
Commission and State 223. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
(b)
Human Rights Commission describes the Central Vigilance Commission?
(a) Article 268 (b) Article 280
222. Which of the following statement/statements is (c) Article 276 (d) None of the above
/are correct in relation to the Human Rights UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2020
Commissions in India?
Ans: (d) The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
I. The role to undertake functions relating to
was set up by the Government of India in February,
human rights in the Union Territory of
1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on
Ladakh may be conferred upon a Sate Human
Prevention of Corruption headed by Shri K. Santhanam
Rights Commission by the Central
to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the
Government.
field of vigilance.
II. Only 2 person can be appointed as member
Central Vigilance Commission is conceived to be the
of the National Human Rights Commission
apex vigilance institution, free of control from any
under the category of possessing knowledge or executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity
practical experience with respect to human under the Central Government and advising various
rights. authorities in Central Government organizations in
III. The President can remove the Chairperson planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their
of the State Human right Commission on the vigilant work. Consequent upon promulgation of an
ground of proved misbehaviour. However, the Ordinance by the President, the Central Vigilance
President has to seek the opinion of the Commission has been made a multi member
Supreme Court in this matter. Commission with "Statutory Status" with effect from
25th August, 1998.
IV. The National Human Right Commission is
not empowered to inquire into any matter after The CVC Bill was passed by both the houses of
the expiry of two years from the date on which Parliament in 2003 and the President gave its assent on
September 11, 2003. Thus the Central Vigilance
the act constituting violation of human rights is
Commission Act 2003 came into effect from that date.
alleged to have committed.
224. Who amongst the following can be the
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Chairman of the National Human Rights
below:
Commission?
(a) None (a) Any serving judge of the Supreme Court
(b) III and IV (b) Any serving judge of the High Court
(c) Only IV (c) A retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) I, II and III (d) A retired Chief Justice of High Court
APPSC (Pre) 2023 UPPCS (Mains) 2015 G.S. IInd Paper
280
Ans. (c) The National Human Rights Commission Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(NHRC) of India was established on 12th October, 1993. question.
The statue under which it is established is the Protection
of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the 228. Who is included in the Committee which
Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. recommends names for the appointment of
Therefore National Human Rights Commission is a Chairperson and Members of State Human
Statuary body. Rights Commission?
The Commission consists of a chairman, five full-time
(a) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
members and seven deemed members. The statue lays
down qualifications for the appointment of the (b) Governor
chairperson and members of the commission. The (c) Leader of opposition
chairperson should be a retired chief justice of India or
Judge of Supreme Court. (d) Chief Justice of High Court
225. Consider the following statements regarding MPPSC Pre 2022
the National Human Rights Commission of Ans. (a): The Chairperson and members of the State
India:
Human Rights Commission are appointed by the
(1) Its chairman must be retired Chief Justice of
Governor, on the recommendation of a committee
India
consisting of:
(2) It has formation in each State as State Human
Rights Commission -The Chief Minister (chairperson)
(3) Its powers are only recommending in nature -The Home Minister
(4) It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a -The Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative
member of the Commission
Council
Which of the above mentioned statements are
correct? -The Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative
(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) (2) and (3) Assembly
(c) (2), (3) and (4) (d) (1) and (3) -The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 -The Chairman of the Legislative Council
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 229. The Chairman of National Human Rights
question.
Commission is appointed by the President on
226. The National Human Right Commission is a the recommendation of a committee of certain
(a) Constitutional body persons. Who among the following is/are not
(b) Extra Constitutional body part of that committee?
(c) Statutory Body
(1) The Prime Minister
(d) Public-Private Body
(2) The Home Minister
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S. 2019
(3) Leader of Opposition party in the Lok Sabha
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. (4) Leader of the Opposition party in the Rajya
Sabha
227. Which of the following statements are correct
about the National Human Rights Commission? (5) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(1) The National Human Rights Commission is (6) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
an independent body.
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 2 and 4
(2) It is not Constitutional body.
(c) Only 5 and 6 (d) Only 6
(3) It is a statutory body.
(4) It is a multi-member body. Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2017
Select the correct answer from the codes given Ans.(d): Chairman and other members of the National
below: Human Rights Commission are appointed by the
President on the recommendation of a committee
Codes:
chaired by Prime Minister and other members, which
(a) (1) and (2) (b) (1), (2) and (4) includes Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Union Home
(c) (1), (2) and (3) (4) (1), (2), (3) and (4) Minister, Leader of Opposition in both the Houses of
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S, 2014 Parliament and Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
281
 III. Chairperson and members shall be eligible
for re-appointment.
Which of the above Statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) I, II and III (d) I only
APPSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
question.
As per Protection of Human Right (amendment) Act 232. With reference to the National Human Rights
2019, the key provsions are -
Commission, which of the following statements
• The Chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of is/are correct?
India or a Judge of the Supreme Court and members
should be serving or retired Judge of the Supreme 1. It was established on October 2, 1993
Court, a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High 2. It is a statutory body.
Court and three persons (out of which at least one Select the correct answer using the code
should be a women).
given below.
• Term of the Chairperson and member shall be three
years. (a) Only 2
• Chairperson and members shall be eligible for re- (b) Only 1
appointment. (c) Neither 1 nor 2
230. The Chairman and Members of the National (d) Both 1 and 2
Human Rights Commission are appointed on
UPPSC APO 2022
the recommendation of a committee
consisting of : Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of above
(i) Speaker of the Lok Sabha question.
(ii) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(iii) Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha 2. Central Vigilance
(iv) Leader of opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(v) Prime Minister (c) Commission
(vi) Union Home Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given 233. Who was the Chairman of the First Law
below: Commission in Independent India?
(a) i, iii, v, vi (a) Justice V. K. Sundaram
(b) i,iii and v (b) Justice T. V. Venkatarama Aiyar
(c) i,iii,iv and v (c) Mr. M.C. Setalvad
(d) i,ii,iii,iv,v and vi
(d) Justice J. L Kapur
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
(e) None of the above/More than one of the
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above above
question.
67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021
231. With reference to the Protection of Human
Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the Ans. (c) : The government of India established the first
following statements about National Human law commission of Independent India in 1955 with the
Right Commission (NHRC) : then Attorney-General of India, Mr. MC Setalvad, as its
I. Judge of the Supreme Court can now be chairman. Since-then twenty one more law
appointed as Chairperson of the commissions have been appointed each with a three
Commission.
year term. 22nd law commission Chairman is Justice
II. Term of the Chairperson and members
Ritu Raj Awasthi.
shall be three years.
282
 industry potential of women, women's voluntary
2. National Commission for organizations (including women activist),
administration, economic development, health,
(d) Women education or social welfare
3. A Member-Secretary to be nominated by the
234. Who among the following was the first Central Government (an expert in the field of
Chairperson of the National Commission for management, organizational structure or
Women? sociological movement or an officer, who is a
(a) Jayanti Patnaik member of a civil service of the Union or of an all-
India service or holds a civil post under the Union
(b) Dr. Poornima Advani with appropriate experience).
(c) Dr. V. Mohini Giri 236. Who among the following was the first
(d) Vibha Parthasarthy Chairperson of the National Commission for
Maharashtra PSC 2022 Women?
Ans. (a) : The very first National Commission for (a) Jayanti Patnaik
st (b) Dr. Poornima Advani
Women was constituted on 31 January 1992 and its
first Chairperson was Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik. (c) Dr. V. Mohini Giri
235. Which of the following statements are correct? (d) Vibha Parthasasrthy
(1) The National Commission for Women was MH PSC (Pre) 2022
constituted in 1992 for protecting and Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of above
promoting the interests and rights of women question.
(2) It was established under a legislation enacted
by the Parliament in 1990 2. National Commission for
(3) The Ministry of Women and Child
Development Government of India, is the (e) Minorities
nodal Ministry for the Commission
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 237. With reference to the National Commission for
Minorities, consider the following statements :
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
I. It was set up under the National Commission
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I for Minorities Act, 1992.
Ans. (c): The National Commission for Women was set II. Minister of Minority Welfare has notified five
up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National religious communities under "Minority"
Commission for Woman Act, 1990. The Ministry of status, to date.
Women and Child Development, Government of India III. It can make recommendation for the effective
is the nodal Ministry for the Commission. The First implementation of safeguards for the
Commission was constituted on 31st January 1992 with protection of minorities by Central or State
Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik as the Chairperson. Governments.
The main aim of the National Commission for Which of the above statements are correct?
women is to-
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
1. Review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for
(c) I, II and III (d) I and III only
women
APPSC (Pre) 2023
2. Recommend remedial legislative measures
Ans. (d) : National Commission for Minorties Act,
3. Facilitate redressal of grievances
1992 was setup under National Commission Minorities
4. Advise the Government on all policy matters Act, 1992. Till date 6 religious communities viz. the
affecting women Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddists and Zoroastrians
The commission shall consist of- (Parsis) and Jains (2014) were notified as minority
1. A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, community.
to be nominated by the Central Government. Functions - Evaluation of the progress of the
2. Five Members to be nominated by the Central development under the Union and States Monitoring of
Government from amongst persons of ability, working of the safeguards for minorities provided in the
integrity and standing, who had experience in law or constitution and laws enacted by parliament and the
legislation, trade unionism, management of an state legislature.

283
 The Act allows setting up of Anti Corruption
2. Ombudsman called Lokpal at the Centre and
Lokpal and Lokayukta Lokayukta at the State level. The Lokpal consists of a
(f) Chairperson and eight members. Four of the judicial
members have been former Chief Justices of different
238. Which of the following statement/statements High Courts and the four non-judicial members have
is/are incorrect regarding the Law Commission been from All India Services/Central Services.
of India? A five member panel comprising Prime Minister, Lok
Sabha Speaker, Leader of the Opposition, Chief Justice
I. It is a non-constitutional quasi judicial body.
of India and an eminent jurist nominated by the
II. One of its function is to communicate its President selects the Lokpal.
opinion to the President on subject relating to In 2019, retired Supreme Court judge Pinaki Chandra
legal administration. Ghose was appointed as the first Lokpal of India.
III. Its reports are not submitted to the The Lokpal will cover all categories of public servants
Parliament. including the Prime Minister but the armed forces do
IV. It has no suo motu decision power to not come under the ambit of Lokpal.
undertake research by itself. 240. On 23rd March, 2019 the first Lokpal of India
Select the answer using the codes given below: was appointed. Identify the first Lokpal from
(a) II and III the option given below.
(b) Only III (a) Dr. Soumya Swaminathan
(c) All (b) Ms. Reema Saud
(d) I, II and IV (c) Shri N.R. Modi
(d) Shri Pinaki Chandra Ghose
APPSC (Pre) 2023
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre-2021
Ans. (c) : Law Commission of India is neither
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Paper-I
constitutional and nor quasi-judicial body.
One of its function is to communicate its opinion to the Ans.(d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
government on subject relating to legal administration. 241. Key Provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta
Its reports are submitted to the government. (Amendment) Act, 2016 :
It has suo motu decision power to undertake research by A. It amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act,
2013 (which came into force on 16 January
itself.
2014).
Hence, none of the statements are correct.
B. It also amended Section 44 of the 2013 Act that
239. The Lokpal bill was First introduced in the Lok deals with the Provision of furnishing details of
Sabha in which year? assets and liabilities of Public Servants.
(a) 1968 (b) 1967 C. Made it compulsory that all States should
(c) 1965 (d) 1964 set up the office of the Lokayukta within one
year.
TNPSC (Pre) G.S 2015
D. The Amendment has removed the period of 30
Ans. (a) : The concept of Constitutional ombudsman days for furnishing details of assets and
was first proposed by the then law minister Ashok liabilities of Public Servants.
Kumar Sen in Parliament in the early 1960s. The term Which of the statements given above are
lokpal and lokayukta were coined by Dr.L.M. Singhvi correct ?
as the Indian model of ombudsman for the redressal of (a) A, B and C (b) A, B and D
public grievances.
(c) A, C and D (d) All of the above
The Lokpal Bill was introduced in Parliament in 1968
MH PSC (Pre) 2023
but was not passed. Eight attempts were made till 2011
to pass the Bill. In 2011, the government formed a Ans. (b) : Key provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta
Group of Ministers, chaired by Pranab Mukherjee to (amendment) Act - 2016 -
suggest measures to tackle corruption and examine the • It amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013,
proposal of a Lokpal Bill. In 2013, Lokpal and which came into force on 16 January, 2014.
Lokayuktas Bill, 2013, were passed in both Houses of • It also amended section 44 of 2013 Act, that deals
Parliament. In 2016, Lok Sabha agreed to amend the
with provision of furnishing details of assets and
Lokpal Act and Bill was sent to Standing Committee
liabilities of public servant.
for review.
284
• The amendment has removed the period of 30 days Ans.(d): The Right to Information Act - 2005, mandates
for furnishing details of assets and liabilities of public timely response to citizens requests for government
servants. information. Sections 12 of the Right to Information
Act is not related to functions and powers of the Central
But, under Lokpal and Lokyuktas Act, 2013, it is
Information Commission.
mandatory that all states should set up office of
Lokayukta within one year. 245. National Policy on Voluntary Sector (2007)
covers which of the following voluntary
242. With reference to the Competition Commission organizations?
of India, consider the following statements :
(a) Formal and Informal Groups
I. It is statutory body established under
(b) Community-based organizations
Competition Act, 2002 as amended by the
(c) Charitable organizations
Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007.
(d) Support organizations
II. It consists of a chairperson and five members
appointed by the Central Government. (a) Only (c)
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) Only (a) and (b)
(c) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(a) I only (b) II only
(d) All of the above
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
MH PSC (Pre) 2022
APPSC (Pre) 2023
Ans. (d) : According to National Policy on Voluntary
Ans. (a) : Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a Organizations - 2007, voluntary organizations includes-
statutory body of the Government of India responsible
• Formal as well as informal groups.
for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002, as amended by
the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007 it was duly • Community based organisations.
constituted in March 2009. • NGOs.
The Commission consists of a Chairperson and six • Charitable organisations.
Members who shall be appointed by the Central • Support organizations.
Government.
246. National Commission for Backward Classes is
Hence, statement-I is correct while statement-II is an outcome of which of the following landmark
incorrect. judgments of Supreme Court
243. The first ‘Lokayukta’ was established in which (a) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India, 1951
of the following States? (b) Minerva Mills Ltd and others vs Union of
(a) Odisha (b) Kerala India and others, 1980
(c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab (c) Indra Sawhney & Others Vs. Union of India, 1992
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above (d) None of the above
67th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2022 (Cancelled) Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
Ans. (c): Maharashtra was the first state to establish the Ans. (c): National Commission for Backward Classes is
an outcome of the landmark judgment of Supreme
institution of the Lokayukta in India. The institution
Court namely Indra Sawhney & Others Vs. Union of
came into effect on 25th October 1972.
India, 1992.
National Commission for Backward Classes was
2. Various Important initially constituted by the Central government by the
National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993
(g) Commissions and so far the Commission had been reconstituted 7
times up to 2016. The present Commission (8th) has
244. Which of the following sections of the Right to been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted
Information Act is not related to the functions through the Constitution (One Hundred and Second
and powers of the Central Information Amendment) Act, 2018 by inserting Article 338B to the
Commission? Constitution to form a commission for the socially and
educationally backward classes to be known as National
(a) 25 (b) 19
Commission for Backward Classes.
(c) 18 (d) 12
The Commission consists of a Chairperson, Vice-
(e) Question not attempt Chairperson and three other Members in the rank and
RPSC (Pre) 2023 pay of Secretary to the Government of India.

285
 247. Which of the following is not true about the rights or liabilities are affected. Both citizens and
objectives of the Right to Information Act? organisations can file PIL.
The Supreme court under Article 32 and High Court
(a) To promote transparency and accountability under Article 226 of India can entertain PIL.
in the working of the government The common rule of Locus standi is relaxed (Not
(b) To make our democracy work for the people enforced) so as to enable the court to look into the
in real sense grievances complained on behalf of poor deprived
(c) To empower the women and weaker sections illiterate and the disabled who can not vindicate the
of the society legal wrong or legal injury caused to them for violation
(d) To empower citizens of any constitutional or legal right.
Hence, only statements 1, 3 & 4 is correct.
RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
250. Which among the following is NOT correctly
Ans. (c): Right to Information Act (RTI) was enacted matched?
on 15th June, 2005. The basic object of the Right to Bodies Establish-ment
Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote (a) Inter-state Council – 1990
transparency and accountability in the working of the (b) National – 1954
Development Council
Government, contain corruption and make Indian (c) Central Vigilance – 1964
democracy work for the people in real sense. commission
248. Right to Information Act in India was enacted (d) National Human – 1993
in the year Rights Commission
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre), 2016
(a) 2004 (b) 2005 (Held on 20/09/2020)
(c) 2008 (d) 2012 Ans: (b) National Development Council was constituted
Tripura TPSC (TCS) Pre-2019 on August 6th, 1952. Rest is correctly matched.
251. Arrange the following in ascending order of their
Manipur PCS - 2013 formation.
J & K PSC Pre-2018 (I) Planning Commission
Ans.(b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (II) Zonal Councils
(III) National Integration Council
question. (IV) National development Council
Code :
(a) I II III IV
2. (b) I IV III II
Miscellaneous (c) I IV II III
(h) (d) I III IV II
TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
249. Consider the following statements: Ans. (c) : Planning Commission - March 1950
1. Public Interest Litigation is a action initiated National Development Council - August 1952
Zonal Councils - 1956
in a court of law for the enforcement of public National Integration Council - October 1961
interest. 252. Arrange the following international groups in
2. PIL has reinforced the principle of locus order of their establishment from older to
standi. newer:
3. Both citizens and organizations can file a (1) Paris Club
PIL. (2) Organistion of Petroleum Exporting Countries
(OPEC)
4. Supreme Court under Article 32 and High (3) Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD)
Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of (4) Wassenaar Arrangement
India can entertain PILs. Choose the correct answer from the options
How many of the statement given above are given below:
correct? (a) (2), (4), (1), (3) (b) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) (1), (2), (4), (3) (d) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023
(e) Question not attempted Ans. (c) : The order of International groups in their
establishment from order to newer-
Haryana PSC (Pre) 2023
International groups - Year of Establishment
Ans. (d) : The Supreme Court has defined the PIL as a Paris Club - 1956
legal action initiated in a court of law for the Organisation of petroleum
enforcement of public interest or general interest in Exporting Countries (OPEC) - 1960
which the public or a class of community have Wassenaar Agreement - 1996
pecuniary interest or some interest by which their legal Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue - 2018
286

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21.
Miscellaneous
1. In connection with Goods and Services Tax IV. Its headquarters is located in Mumbai.
(GST) Council, which of the following Select the correct answer:
statement/statements is/are valid?
(a) Only I, III and IV
I. The GST Council was established as a
(b) Only I, II and III
statutory body it was later turned into a
Constitution federal body by an amendment of (c) Only II and III
the Constitution. (d) All of the above
II. The proceedings of the GST Council will be JPSC (Pre) 2024-I
invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in
Ans. (b) : The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
the appointment of a person as a member of
(TRAI) is a statutory body setup under Telecom
the Council.
Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. It was
III. In the event of any dispute between more
established to regulate telecom services, including
than two states over GST issues, the GST
fixation/revising tariffs. Its headquarters is located at
Council has to refer the matter to be
adjudicated by the Public Accounts Committee New Delhi.
of the Parliament 3. Which architect has designed the new building
IV. The GST Council is required to make of the Indian Parliament?
recommendation to the Center and the States (a) Ravi Modi
on the threshold limit of turnover below which (b) Bimal Roy
goods and services may be exempted from
GST. (c) Bimal Patel
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) D. Radhakrishnan
below: JPSC (Pre) 2024-I
(a) II and III (b) I and IV Ans. (c) : The Architect, Bimal Patel has designed the
(c) Only IV (d) Only II new building of the Indian Parliament.
APPSC (Pre) 2023 4. Which of the following statements are correct
Ans. (d) : The GST Council was established as a about the Women's Reservation Bill, 2023?
Constitution federal body by starting itself. (i) The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023
The proceedings of the GST Council can not be proposes 33% reservation for women in the
invalidated in the eventuality of any defect in the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of States and
appointment of a person as a member of the Council National Capital Territory of Delhi.
There is no provision of referring the dispute to public (ii) Similar reservation will also be provided
accounts committee of parliament. within the seats reserved for SC and ST.
The GST Council is required to make recommendation (iii) The Bill proposes that the reservation will
to the Center and the States on the threshold limit of continue for 25 years.
turnover below which goods and services may be
exempted from GST. (iv) The Bill which reserves 33% of seats for
women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
Hence, only statement IV is correct.
includes the quota for women from the OBCs.
2. Which of the following statements are true
Select the correct answer using the codes given
about Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
below.
(TRAI)?
I. It was first established in 1997. (a) (i) and (ii) only
II. It is a statutory body. (b) (i) and (iii) only
III. It was established to regulate telecom (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
services, including fixation/revising (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
tariffs. ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023

287
Ans. (a) : The Women's Reservation Bill, 2023 Select the correct answer using the codes given
proposes 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha below.
and the Assemblies of States and National Capital (a) (i) and (iii) only
Territory of Delhi.
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
Similar reservation will also be provided within the
seats reserved for SC and ST. (c) (iii) only
The Bill proposes that the reservation will be provided (d) (iv) only
for period of 15 years. The bill does not provides ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
explicit quota to women from OBC.
Ans. (c) : The correct match is as follows:-
Hence, only statements (i) & (ii) are correct.
5. Which of the following lists is correct carrying Finance Commission of : Constitutional Body
the names of the five-member bench of the India
Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Securities and Exchange : Statutory Body
Verdict on 9th November, 2019? Board of India
(a) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok
Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice NITI Aayog : Executive Body
D.Y. Chandrachud, justice S. Abdul Nazeer Reserve Bank of India : Statutory Body
(b) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok
Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. 7. Protection of wildlife comes under which of the
Y. Chandrachud, Justice Surya Kant. following in the Constitution on India?
(c) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok (i) Fundamental Duties
Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice (ii) Directive Principles
D.Y. Chandrachud, Justice Surya Kant (iii) Seventh Schedule
(d) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Mohammad
(iv) Fundamental Rights
Hidayatullah, Justice Sharad A. Bobde,
justice D.Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Select the correct answer using the codes given
Nazeer. below.
Assam PSC 2023 (a) (i) and (ii) only
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023 (b) (ii) and (iv) only
Ans. (a) : The five member bench of the Supreme Court (c) (i) and (iii) only
that passed the Ayodhya verdict were following:- (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Justice Ranjan Gogoi, - (Then Chief Justice) ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023
Justice Ashok Bhushan,
Ans. (d) : Protection of wildlife is not a fundamental
Justice Sharad A. Bobde,
right while it comes under fundamental duties, Directive
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, Principles and Seventh Scheduled of the constitution.
Justice S. Abdul Nazeer
8. Consider the following statements regarding
6. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly the Goods and Services Tax (GST) of India:
matched?
(i) GST is a successor to VAT used in India on
(i) Finance : Constitutional the supply of goods and services.
Commission Body
of India (ii) GST came into effect from 1st July, 2017
through the implementation of the one hundred
(ii) Securities : Statutory and first Amendment of the Constitution of
and Body India.
Exchange
Board of (iii) Every decision of the GST Council is to be
India taken by a majority of not less than three
fourths of the weighted votes of the members
(iii) NITI Aayog : Constitutional
present and voting at the meeting.
Body
(iv) The GST Council is chaired by the Prime
(iv) Reserve : Statutory Minister of India.
Bank of Body
Select the correct statement/statements using
India
the codes given below.

288
 (a) (i) only 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case,
(b) (ii) only parole cannot be denied to such prisoner
because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only Release on Parole Rules.
ASSAM PSC (Pre) 2023 Which of the statements given above is/are
Ans. (d) : GST is a successor to VAT used in India on correct?
the supply of goods and services. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Hence, option (i) is correct.
IAS (pre) G.S 2021
GST came into effect from 1st July, 2017 through the
implementation of the one hundred and first Ans. (b): Parole is not seen as a matter of right. It is
given to a prisoner for a specific reason like the death of
Amendment of the Constitution of India.
a relative or to attend the marriage of a family member
Hence, statement-(ii) is correct. and is subject to the prisoner’s behaviour. Parole is
The tax rates, rules and regulations are governed by usually, but not necessarily, granted when the
GST council which consist of Finance Minister of conviction has been for minor offences and the term of
Central government and all the states. The council is imprisonment is short, as defined by the State’s prison
manual. The granting authority for parole is the deputy
chaired by Union Finance Minister. home secretary of the state government. Hence
Hence, statement (iii) is correct, while statement (iv) is statement 1 is not correct.
incorrect. Prison is a State subject under the State List of the
**************** Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. The management
and administration of prisons fall exclusively in the
9. Match the List-I with List-II and select the domain of state governments and are governed by the
correct answer using the codes given below the Prisons Act, 1894 and the Prison Manuals of the
Lists. respective State governments. Hence, each State
List-I List-II Governments have their own Prisoners Release on
Parole Rules. Therefore statement 2 is correct.
a. Independent of Judiciary 1. Administrative
11. With reference to India, consider the following
Adjudication
statements:
b. Executive Legislation 2. Parliamentary
1. Government law officers and legal firms are
form of recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers
Government and patent attorneys are excluded from
c. Quasi-judicial function 3. Appointment and recognition as advocates.
transfer of Judges 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the
rules relating to legal education and recognition
d. Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
of law colleges.
Codes:
Which of the statements given above is/are
A B C D correct?
(a) 2 1 4 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 3 4 1 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 IAS (Pre) G.S 2022
(d) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (b): Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent
attorneys are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no
J & K PSC Pre 2022
prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. Hence 1st
Ans.(b): statement is incorrect.
Independence of judiciary – Appointment and transfer The Bar Council of India, under Section 7 (1) (h) of the
of Judges. Advocates Act, 1961, is empowered to promote legal
education and lay down standards of such education in
Executive legislation – Ordinance consultation with the Universities imparting such
Quasi-Judicial function – Administrative judication education. The Bar Council of India visits and inspects
Collective responsibility – Parliamentary form of Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its
government statutory function of promoting legal education and
laying down standards in consultation with the
10. With reference to India, consider the following Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. Hence
statements: 2nd statement is correct.

289
12. Which of the following statements are correct Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the
regarding National Population Register (NPR)? National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
(1) It is prepared under The Citizenship Act, Statement II : The ratio of the length to the
1955 height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.
(2) NPR comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs Which one of the following is correct in respect
(3) It includes certain demographic particulars of the above statements :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Ans. (d): The National Population Register (NPR) is a and Statement-II is not the correct
list of “Usual Residents of the country”. A “Usual explanation for Statement-I.
Resident of the country” is one, who has been residing
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
in a local area for at least last six months or intends to
incorrect.
stay in a particular location for the next six months.
National Population Register is not a citizenship (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
enumeration drive as it would record even a foreign correct.
national staying in a locality for more than six months. UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023
The National Population Register is being prepared under Ans. (d) : The use, display and hoisting of National
provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Flag in the country is guided by an overarching set of
Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of instructions called the Flag code of India 2002. As per
National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. Hence, statement 1 Flag Code of India 2002 the National Flag cannot be in
is correct. the dimension of 600 mm × 400 mm. The code states
that the National Flag can be of standard dimensions as
National Population Register has been conducted in
follows–
conjunction with the house-listing phase, the first
phase of the Census by the Office of Registrar General Flag Size No. Dimension in mm
of India (RGI), Ministry of Homes Affairs for Census 1 – 6300 × 4200
2021. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.
2 – 3600 × 2400
The NPR will collect both demographic data and
3 – 2700 × 1800
biometric data. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct.
4 – 1800 × 1200
13. Who circulated a questionnaire on Uniform 5 – 1350 × 900
Civil Code in October, 2016 to solicit opinions
from the public at large? 6 – 900 × 600
(a) Ministry of Law and Justice 7 – 450 × 300
(b) National Commission for Minorities 8 – 225 × 150
(c) National Human Rights Commission 9 – 150 × 100
(d) National Law Commission Hence statement-1 is incorrect.
APPSC Group-II 26.02.2017 The National Flag should be rectangular in shape and
the ratio of length to the height of the flat shall be 3 : 2.
Ans. (d): National Law Commission circulated a
Hence statement (2) is correct.
questionnaire on Uniform Civil Code in October, 2016
to solicit opinions from the public at large. Article 44 of 15. Consider the following statements:
the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall (1) Article 340 of the Constitution deals with the
endeavor to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code appointment of Commission for Backward
throughout the territory of India. A uniform civil code Classes.
means that all sections of the society irrespective of their (2) Article 341 of the Constitution deals with
religion shall be treated equally according to a national Scheduled Tribes.
civil code, which shall be applicable to all uniformly. It (3) Article 342 of the Constitution is related to
covers areas like-marriage, divorce, maintenance Scheduled Castes.
inheritance, adoption and succession of the property. (4) Article 342A has been added through 102nd
14. Consider the following statements in respect of Constitutional amendment.
the National Flag of India according to the Flag Choose the correct answer from the options
Code of India, 2002 : given below:

290
 (a) (1) and (2) only (b) (2) and (3) only II. Constitutional Amendment under Art. 368
(c) (3) and (4) only (d) (1) and (4) only III. National emergency under Art. 352
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 IV. Ordinance under Art. 123
Ans. (d) : Article 340 of the Constitution deals with (a) Only I correct
appointment of commission of backward classes. (b) Only II correct
Article 341 of the Indian Constitution authorises the (c) All of the above are correct
President to declare certain castes and classes as
Scheduled Castes in a State or a Union Territory. (d) None of the above are correct
Article 342 deals with declaration of Scheduled Tribes. MH PSC (Pre) 2023
Article 342A was inserted into the Constitution of India Ans. (a) : Fundamental duties under Article 51A were
through the 102nd Amendment, empowers the President added to the constitution through 42nd Amendment Act.
to specify the socially and educationally backward Rest of all provisions were in original constitution.
classes with respect to a State or Union Territory. 18. Consider the following statements :
16. Match the following: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the
Committee Year Central Government has a duty to protect
States from internal disturbances.
(a) Goswami committee on 1. 1993
electoral reforms 2. The Constitution of India exempts the
States from providing legal counsel to a
(b) Vohra committee 2. 1998
person being held for preventive detention.
report
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism
(c) Indrajit gupta 3. 2008 Act, 2002, confession of the accused before
committee on state
the police cannot be used as evidence.
funding of Elections
How many of the above statements are correct?
(d) The second 4. 1990
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
administrative Reforms
UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023
Ans. (b) : Article 355 of the constitution provides for
(a) (b) (c) (d)
the responsibility of Union to protect states from
(a) 1 3 3 4
external aggression and internal disturbance.
(b) 3 2 1 4
Article 22 of constitution of India exempts the states
(c) 2 4 3 1 from providing legal counsel to a person being held for
(d) 4 1 2 3 preventive detention.
(e) Answer not known As per Section 32(1) of POTA, 2002, Confession of the
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 accused before a police officer not lower in rank than a
Ans. (d) : The correct match is as follows :- Superintendent of police can be used as evidence.
Thus statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is
Committee Year
incorrect.
Goswami committee on electoral 1990
reforms 19. Consider the following organizations/bodies in
India :
Vohra committee report 1993
1. The National Commission for Backward
Indrajit gupta committee on state 1998 Classes
funding of Elections 2. The National Human Rights Commission
The second administrative 2008 3. The National Law Commission
Reforms
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
17. After the extensive discussion in the Commission
Constituent Assembly, the following provisions
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
was/ were included. Which Article does not
include? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) All four
I. Fundamental duties under Art. 51A UPSC IAS (Pre) 2023

291
Ans. (a) : In the given options, the National Ans. (b) : National Flag was adopted by the Constituent
Commission for backward classes (NCBC) is a Assembly on 22 July, 1947. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy has
constitutional body under Article 338(B) While the also worked as 4th speaker of the Lok Sabha (17 March,
National Humans rights commission and the National 1967 - 19 July, 1969).
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission are statutory
body under protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, and 22. Assertion [A] :Federalism is merely an
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 respectively. The institutional arrangement for
National Law Commission is neither Constitutional nor sharing power across multiple
statutory body. Hence only one pair is correctly levels of government based on the
matched. principle of shared rule and self
20. Match List I with List II rule.
List-I List-II Reason [R] : Federations, have constantly
adjusted and adopted depending
(A) Domestic Violence (i) 1961
on political, social and economic
Act
situations.
(B) Sexual Harassment at (ii) 1987 (a) [A] is true but [R] is false
workplace
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct
(C) Commission for Sati (iii) 2013 explanation of [A]
(D) Dowry Prohibition (iv) 2005 (c) [A] is false but [R] is true
Act
(d) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the
Choose the correct answer from the options correct explanation of [A]
given below:
(e) Answer not known
(A) (B) (C) (D)
TNPSC (Pre) 2022
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Ans. (b) : Federalism is merely an institutional
(c) (ii) (iv) (ii) (iii) arrangement for sharing power across multiple levels of
government based on the principle of shared rule and
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
self rule because Federations, have constantly adjusted
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023
and adopted depending on political, social and
Ans. (b) : The correct match is as follows :-
economic situations. Hence, Both (A) and (R) are true
Domestic Violence Act - 2005
and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Sexual Harrasment at Workplace - 2013
23. Match the following:
Commission for Sati - 1987
Dowry Prohibition Act - 1961 Chairman Committee
21. Given below are two statements: (a) Kaka Kalekar 1. Tribal
Statement I: National Flag was adopted by the Development
Constituent Assembly on 22 July, 1947.
(b) Xaxa 2. 7th pay
Statement II: Neelam Sanjiva Reddy has also commission
worked as Speaker Lok Shabha prior to his
election as President of India. (c) Mandal 3. Second backward
class commission
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options (d) Justice A.K. 4. First backward
given below: Mathur class commission
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are (a) 1 3 4 2
incorrect (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) Statement I is correct and Statement II in (c) 1 4 3 2
incorrect
(d) 3 2 4 1
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
correct (e) Answer not known
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2023 TNPSC (Pre) 2022

292
 Ans. (b) : 26. Which of the following statement is/are
correct?
Chairman Committee
1. The universal declaration of human rights was
Kaka Kalekar First backward class
commission in 1948

Xaxa Tribal Development 2. Article 1 says that all human beings are born
free
Mandal Second backward class
commission 3. UDHR has altogether 32 articles.

Justice A.K. Mathur 7th pay commission 4. UDHR was adopted by United Nations General
Assembly
24. Match the following and select the correct
answer (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Nayak Committee 1. Unorganised sector (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

(b) Tarapore Committee 2. Centre-state relations (e) Answer not known

(c) Rajamannar 3. Availability of TNPSC (Pre) 2022

Committee Credit to SSI Ans. (d) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
was adopted on 10 December 1948 by United Nations
(d) Arjun Sen Gupta 4. Capital account
General Assembly.
Committee Convertibility
UDHR has altogether 30 articles.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Article 1 of UDHR says that all human beings are born
(a) 4 3 2 1 free. Hence, (2) and (4) statements are correct.
(b) 1 2 4 3 27. Who was the president of the 1957 National
(c) 3 4 2 1 Commission for Female Education?
(d) 3 2 1 4 (a) Anutai Wagh
(e) Answer not known (b) Shantabai Dani
TNPSC (Pre) 2022
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
Ans. (c) : The correct match is as follows :- (d) Durgabai Bhagwat
Nayak Committee Availability of MH PSC (Pre) 2022
Credit to SSI
Ans. (c) : Durgabai Desmukh was the president of the
Tarapore Committee Capital account 1957 National Commission for Female Education.
Convertibility
28. Which of the following is not a Panchsheel
Rajamannar Committee Centre-state
principle of Indian foreign policy?
relations
(a) Mutual respect for each other's territorial
Arjun Sen Gupta Committee Unorganised sector
integrity and sovereignty
25. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (b) Mutual non-interference
1. Article 361 The President enjoys (c) Peaceful coexistence
protection from (d) None of the above
2. Article 352 National emergency MH PSC (Pre) 2022
3. Article 356 President Rule in State Ans. (d) : The Panchsheel principle implies the five
principles of conduct in International relations -
4. Article 360 Finance commission
The five principles were -
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only i) Mutual respect for each-other's territorial integrity
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 4 only and sovereignity.
(e) Answer not known ii) Non-aggression.
TNPSC (Pre) 2022 iii) Non-interference in each-other's internal affairs.
Ans. (d) : Finance Commission is a constitutional body iv) Equality and mutual benefits.
under Article 280. Hence pair 4 is incorrectly matched
while rest of option is correctly matched. v) Peaceful Co-existence.

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29. Match the following : Ans. (b) :
List-I List-II Event Year
A. Monetary Policy 1. Union Home Magna Carta - 1215
Committee French Revolution - 5 May, 1789
B. GST Council 2. Union Finance Universal Declaration of - 10 Dec, 1948
Minister Human Rights

C. NITI Aayog 3. RBI Government Adoption of the International - 16 Dec, 1966

Covenant on Civil and
D. Cabinet Committee on 4. Prime Minister Political Rights
Parliamentary Affairs of India 31. In which election in India was VVPAT used for
Select the correct answer using the codes given the first time on experimental basis?
below. (a) By poll in Nagaland, 2013
(a) a b c d (b) Lok Sabha Elections, 2014
2 3 4 1 (c) Assembly Elections, Goa, 2017
(b) a b c d (d) By poll in Madhya Pradesh, 2017
APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017)
3 2 4 1
Ans. (a) : For the first time, Voter Verifiable Paper
(c) a b c d
Audit Trail (VVPAT) with Electronic Voting Machines
3 2 4 1 was used for the bypoll of Noksen Assembly seat in
(d) a b c d Tuensang district of Nagaland in 2013.
2 3 1 4
32. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 concerned with
Ans. (c) : The correct match is as follows :- (a) Jammu and Kashmir
List-I List-II (b) Assam Accord
Monetary Policy RBI Government (c) Electoral Reforms
Committee (d) Women Empowerment
GST Council Union Finance UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II

Minister Ans. (c) : Dinesh Goswami Committee, formed in

1990, was concerned with Electoral Reforms.
NITI Aayog Prime Minister
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
of India answer from the code given below the lists.
Cabinet Committee on Union Home Minister List-I List-II
Parliamentary Affairs (Newly Elected (State)
Presiding Officer
30. Choose the correct chronological sequence of
the following events in the context of of Vidhan Sabha)
recognition of human rights : A. Ramesh Tawadkar 1. Goa
(i) Magna Carta B. Kultar Sandhwan 2. Punjab
(ii) French Revolution C. T. Satyabrat 3. Manipur
(iii) Universal Declaration of Human Rights D. Ritu Khandari 4. Uttarakhand
(iv) Adoption of the International Covenant on Code:
Civil and Political Rights A B C D
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 2 3 1 4
below. (b) 1 4 3 2
(a) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) 3 2 4 1
(c) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (d) 1 2 3 4
Assam PSC (Pre) 2022 UPPCS Pre 2022
294
Ans. (d) : 37. Which of the following items is wrongly
List-I List-II matched?
(Newly Elected (State) (a) 11th December, 1946 : Jawaharlal Nehru
moved the Objective Resolution in the
Presiding Officer
Constituent Assembly.
of Vidhan Sabha)
(b) 29th August, 1947 : Drafting committee was
Ramesh Tawadkar - Goa
set up
Kultar Sandhwan - Punjab
(c) 26th November, 1949 : The people of India
T. Satyabrat - Manipur adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the
Ritu Khandari - Uttarakhand Constitution
34. Who was the chairman of the drafting (d) 24th January, 1950 : Constitution was finally
committee of the Indian Constitution? signed by the members of the Constituent
(a) K.M.Munshi (b) Dr.Rajendra Prasad Assembly.
(c) B.R.Ambedkar (d) Dr.Sampurnanand Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
th
Chhatisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S., 2003 Ans. (a) : On 13 December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal
Ans. (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution. Hence (a) is
drafting committee of the Indian Constitution. not correctly matched. Rest is correctly matched.
35. Which of the following statements are correct 38. Which of the following Bills was drafted by Dr.
regarding the evolution of Indian Constitution? B.R Ambedkar as the first law minister of India?
(1) The Constituent Assembly held its first (a) Hindu Code Bill
meeting on December 9, 1946 (b) Indian Code Bill
(2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent (c) Hindu Marriage Bill
chairman of the Constituent Assembly
(d) Human Rights Bills
(3) C Rajagopalachari moved the 'Objective
Himanchal PSC (Pre) G.S., 2018
Resolution' on January 11, 1947
(4) The 'Objective Resolution' laid down the Ans. (a) As a first law minister of India, Dr. B.R
fundamentals and philosophy of the Ambedkar drafted Hindu Code Bill on 11th April, 1947.
Constitutional structure 39. Who among the following introduced the
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only Hindu Code Bill ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (a): The first meeting of Constituent Assembly (c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedker
was held in Delhi on December 1946. Dr. (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Sachchidanand Sinha was the first temporary chairman Tripura TPSC (TCS) Pre-2019
of the Assembly. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was
elected as the President and its Vice President was Ans.(c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Harendra Kumar Mukherjee. 40. Which of the following statements regarding
Before framing the Constitution, an Objective the Constituent Assembly are not true?
Resolution was moved by Nehru in 1946. This I. It was not based on adult franchise.
resolution enshrined the aspiration and values behind II. It resulted from direct elections.
the Constitution making.
III. It was a multiparty body.
36. On which of the following dates, Constituent
IV. It worked through several committees.
Assembly of India adopted the National Flag?
Select the correct answer from the codes given
(a) 22 January, 1950 (b) 24 January, 1950
below.
(c) 22 July, 1947 (d) 22 July, 1948
Codes :
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
(a) I and II (b) II and III
Ans. (c) The National Flag of India was adopted in its
(c) I and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
present form during the meeting of Constituent
Assembly held on the 22 July 1947. IAS (Pre) G.S., 1993

295
Ans. (b) Members of Constituent Assembly were Ad hoc Committee on the Rajendra Prasad
indirectly elected by the provincial assemblies. The National Flag
members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by
the members of the Provincial Assemblies by method of Committee on the Functions of G.V. Mavalankar
single transferable vote system of proportional the Constituent Assembly
representations. Hence it was not based on adult States Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
franchise.
Advisory Committee on Vallabhbhai Patel
41. Which among the following is INCORRECT
Fundamental Rights, Minorities
statement about constituent assembly?
and Tribal and Excluded Areas
(a) It worked with the help of a large number of
committees, the most important among them Minorities Sub-Committee H.C. Mukherjee
being the drafting committee Fundamental Rights Sub- J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities communities were adequately Committee
represented in the assembly
North-East Frontier Tribal Areas Gopinath Bardoloi
(c) It was elected on the basis of universal adult
and Assam Excluded & Partially
franchise
Excluded Areas Sub-Committee
(d) Its electoral process was based on 6th
Schedule of the Act of 1935 which allowed Excluded and Partially Excluded A.V. Thakkar
for a restricted franchise based on tax, Areas (Other than those in Assam)
property and education qualification Sub-Committee
MPPSC (Pre) GS 1st Paper 2012 Union Powers Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
42. Who was the Chairman of the Provincial
Drafting Committee B.R. Ambedkar
Constitution Committee of the Constituent
Assembly? 43. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (a) The Nehru Report (1928) had advocated the
(b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Constitution of India
(d) Sardar Patel (b) The Government of India Act, 1935 referred
to Fundamental Rights.
UPPCS (Mains) G.s. IInd Paper 2008
(c) The August Offer. 1940 included the
Ans. (d) Sardar Vallabai Patel was the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights.
Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent (d) The Cripps Mission 1942 referred to
Assembly. The Constituent Assembly selected 22 Fundamental Rights.
committees to deal with diverse task of Constitution-
UPPCS (Mains) G.S. IInd 2009
making. Out of these, 10 were on procedural affairs and
12 were on substantive affairs. List of the major Ans. (a) The Draft Constitution prepared by the
committees is given below– committee was called the Nehru Committee Report or
Nehru Report. This committee was headed by Motilal
Name of the Committee Chairman Nehru with Jawaharlal Nehru as the Secretary. Other
Committee on the Rules of Rajendra Prasad members were Ali Imam, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Mangal
Procedure Singh, M S Aney, Subhas Chandra Bose, Shuaib
Qureshi and G R Pradhan. The report was submitted at
Steering Committee Rajendra Prasad the Lucknow session of the all-party conference on
Finance and Staff Committee Rajendra Prasad August 28, 1928. This was the first major attempt by
Indians to draft a Constitution for them.
Credential Committee Alladi Krishnaswami Recommendations of the report were; Dominion Status
Ayyar for India (like Canada, Australia, etc.) within the British
House Committee B. Pattabhi Commonwealth, nineteen Fundamental Rights,
Sitaramayya including right to vote for men and women above 21
years of age, no State religion, no separate electorates
Order of Business Committee K.M. Munsi for any community etc.

296
44. Consider the following statements: 46. Identify the correct match:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Person Oath or affirmation
Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 before
was passed. 1. CJI – President
2. The Constitution of India empowers the 2. Judges of Supreme Court– CJI
Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish 3. Speaker of Lok Sabha – President
for contempt of the mselves. 4. Attorney General – CJI
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil How many statements given above is/are correct?
Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
(a) Only one statement
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the
(b) Only two statements
Powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
(c) Only three statements
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) All the four statements
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 J & K PSC Pre 2022

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only Ans.(b):

UPSC IAS 2022 Person Oath or affirmation before
CJI President
Ans. (b) : The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was
passed after the Report of the H. N. Sanyal Committee Judge of Supreme Court President
on Contempt of Courts, 1963. Hence 1st statement is Attorney General CJI
correct. Note: As there is no oath of office to be administered to
The Supreme Court and the High Courts of India have the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
been empowered with the power to penalize for 47. The division of each State into territorial
Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and 215 of the constituencies for the Lok Sabha is done by the
Constitution of India. Hence 2nd statement is correct. Delimitation Commission. This delimitation
The Constitution of India does not define Civil has been freezed till which year?
Contempt and/or Criminal Contempt. Hence Statement (a) 2025 (b) 2026
3 is incorrect. (c) 2027 (d) 2024
Parliament framed the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, (e) None of the above/More than one of the
laying down procedure and punishment for contempt of above
court. Parliament has power to amend certain clauses of 67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021
the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 but according to
Ans. (b) : The division of each state into territorial
latest Supreme Court ruling, no law can take away
constituencies for the Lok Sabha is done by the
Court’s power to punish for contempt. Hence statement Delimitation Commission. This delimitation has been
4 is correct. freezed till 2026.
45. If 'One Nation One Election' is to be realized in 48. One of the following now is not a Department
India, which Article of the Indian Constitution of Finance Ministry:
will require an amendment?
(a) Department of Economic Affairs
(a) Article 172 (b) Article 356
(b) Department of Expenditure
(c) Article 246 (d) Article 83
(c) Department of Revenue
(e) None of the above/More than one of the
(d) Department of Banking Affairs
above
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
67th BPSC (Re-exam) 2021
Ans. (d) : On 7th July, 2021, a new department was
Ans. (e) : If 'One Nation One Election' is to be realized added to Finance Ministry namely the Department of
in India and to sync the term of the State Legislative Public Enterprise (DPE), which was part of the Ministry
assemblies with the Lok Sabha, the term of State of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises. With this,
Legislative assemblies can be reduced and increased
Finance Ministry has now six departments-
accordingly However, to do so, constitutional
1. Department of Economic Affairs
amendments may be needed in Article 83, 85, 172, 174
and 356 2. Department of Expenditure

297
3. Department of Revenue 51. The National Disaster Management Division in
India is the nodal division in the Ministry of
4. Department of Investment and Public Asset
Home Affairs for disaster management. Who is
Management (DIPAM) the Ex-officio Chairman of the National
5. Department of Financial Services Disaster Management Authority?
6. Department of Public Enterprise (DPE) (a) The Prime Minister
49. What is the latest status of the Muslim Women (b) The Home Minister
(Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019? (c) The Defence Minister
(a) The Bill was presented in Lok Sabha (d) The Health and Family Welfare Minister
(b) The Bill was passed by Lok Sabha and is UPPSC (Pre) 2021
pending in Rajya Sabha Ans. (a): On 23 December 2005, the Government of
India enacted the Disaster Management Act, 2005,
(c) The Bill has been passed both by Rajya Sabha
which envisaged the creation of National Disaster
and Lok Sabha. Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime
(d) The Bill has become an Act Minister and State Disaster Management Authorities
Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I (SDMAs) headed by respective Chief Ministers to
spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated
Ans. (d): The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on approach to Disaster Management in India. All the
Marriage) Bill, 2019 has become an Act as it has been appointed members of National Disaster Management
passed by the Parliament. The Muslim Women Authority serve for tenure of five years from the date of
(Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019 declares assumption of charge.
the instant divorce granted by pronouncement of talaq 52. Which of the following labour related Acts
three times as void and illegal. It provides for have been amalgamated into the 'Code on
imprisonment for a term upto 3 years and fine to the Wages, 2019?
husband, who practiced instant Triple Talaq. I. Minimum Wages Act
50. Which of the following gave legal basis to extra II. Payment of Bonus Act
ordinary powers exercised by the Government III. The Contract Labour Act
of India during Lockdown? IV. Equal Remuneration Act
1. Mental Health Care Act, 2017 Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Disaster Management Act, 2005 below.
3. Enemy Property Act, 1968 Codes:
4. Epidemic Disease Act, 1897 (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) I, II and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV
below: UPPSC (Pre) 2021
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (c): The Code on Wages, 2019 replaces the
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4 following four Acts-
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020 (i) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
Ans. (c) Besides the some provisions of the (ii) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
Constitution, the Government of India took recourse to (iii) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
Article 256 of the Constitution, which stipulates that the (iv) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.
Center can give directions on how to implement laws 53. The Protection of Children from Sexual
made by Parliament. The Center also took recourse to Offences Act (POCSO Act) was passed by the
two other laws which provide the Center and the States Indian Parliament in.
statutory basis for acting against the pandemic namely (a) 2011 (b) 2012
the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 and the Disaster (c) 2013 (d) 2014
Management Act, 2005. Mizoram PCS (CCE) 2017
The Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 is an Act to provide Ans. (b) : The Protection of Children from Sexual
for the better prevention of the spread of Dangerous Offences Act (POCSO Act), 2012 is an Act to protect
Epidemic Diseases. Disaster Management Act, 2005 children from offences of sexual assault, sexual
mandates setting up a three-tier Disaster Management harassment and pornography and provide for
Authority at the National, State and District level to establishment of Special Courts for trial of such
formulate a disaster plan for its level. offenses.

298
54. The Child Labour (Prohibition and 56. Who among the following is head of the
Regulation) Act was amended in 2016 to National Council for Senior Citizens?
abolish child labour in all occupations and
processes except in. (a) Prime Minister of India
(a) Where the child helps his family or family (b) Chairman of National Development Council
enterprises other than hazardous occupations (c) Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog
or processes
(b) Construction industry (d) Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment

(c) Domestic work Tripura TPSC (TCS) pre-2019

(d) Brick kiln industry Ans. (d): In pursuance of the National Policy for Older
TSPSC Group-II Pre-11.11.2016 Paper-I Persons (NCOP) a National Council for Older Person
(NCOP) was constituted in 1999 under the
Ans. (a) : The Child Labour (Prohibition and
chairpersonship of the minister for social justice and
Regulation) Act, 1986 was amended in 2016. The Act
empowerment to oversee implementation of the policy
was amended to add the section, which says this Act
and advise the government in the formulation and
does not apply to the children-
implementation of policy and programs for the aged.
1. Who helps his family or family enterprise, which is
other than any hazardous occupations or processes, after In 2012, the National Policy for Older Persons was
his school hours or during vacations and helps his reconstituted in order to encourage more participation
family or family enterprise, which is other than any from every region and renamed as National Council of
hazardous occupations or processes, after his school Senior Citizens (NCSrC).
hours or during vacations. 57. In order to provide the Right to Food to every
2. Works as an artist in an audio-visual entertainment citizen in India National Food Security Act was
industry, including advertisement, films, television enacted in which of the following year:
serials or any such other entertainment or sports (a) 2009 (b) 2010
activities except the circus, subject to such conditions
(c) 2013 (d) 2016
and safety measures, as may be prescribed.
(e) None of the above
55. The Persons with disabilities (Equal
Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full GOA PSCS, 2022
Participation) Act, 1995 provides 3% Ans. (c) : Though the issue of 'food security' at the
reservation for disabled persons in house hold is continuously being addressed by the
(a) All posts and services under the Government government since long, through the public distribution
of India system and the targeted public distribution systems the
(b) Post identified as suitable enactment of the National Food Security Act, (NFSA)
(c) Lower level and entry level jobs only 2013 came on July 5, 2013. It marked a paradigm shift
(d) Desk jobs only in the approach to food security from welfare to rights
TSPSC Group-II Pre-11.11.2016 Paper-I based approach. National Food Security Act legally
entitles up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of
Ans. (a) : The Persons with Disabilities (Equal
the urban population to receive subsidized food grains
Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full
under targeted Public Distribution System (PDS). About
Participation) Act, 1995 has come into enforcement on
two third of the population is covered under this Act.
February 7, 1996. This law is an important landmark
and is a significant step in the direction to ensure equal 58. National Food Security Act came into force
opportunities for people with disabilities and their full from
participation in the nation building. The Persons with (a) 2011 (b) 2012
Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights
(c) 2013 (d) 2014
and Full Participation) Act, 1995, provides 3%
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I
reservation for disabled persons in all posts and services
under the Government of India. Ans.(c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.

299
59. The Environmental (Protection) Act was 62. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
enacted in 1986 was last amended in; was adopted on-
(a) 1992 (b) 2001 (a) December 1, 1948
(c) 2011 (d) None of the above (b) December 10, 1948
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2017 (c) December 11, 1948
Ans. (d) The aim of the Environment Protection (d) December 30, 1948
Act, 1986 is to improve and protect the Mizoram PSC (CCE) -2021
human environment, most importantly to prevent
Ans. (b) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
hazards from happening and causing damage to the
(UDHR) is an international document adopted by the
ecology. On November 19th, 1986, the Environment
United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). It
Protection Act, 1986 came into force and was extended
to the whole India. The Environment Protection establishes the rights and freedoms of all members of
Act of 1986 was last amended in 2015 as Environment the human race. The Universal Declaration of Human
(Protection) (Fifth Amendment) Rules, 2014. Rights was accepted by the UNGA as per the resolution
217 during the session on 10 December, 1948. The
60. When the Environment (Protection) Act for the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights has 30 Articles.
protection and preservation of environment
was passed by the Government of India? 63. Which of the following statements is/are
(a)1971 (b) 1974 correct regarding the U.N. (United Nations)
Convention against Torture (CAT)?
(c)1981 (d) 1986
(a) It is an international human rights instrument
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2022
aimed to prevent inhuman degrading
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
treatment around the world.
question.
(b) India has recently ratified this Convention
61. The Government of India enacted Wild Life
(c) Both A and B
(Protection) Act 1972 with the objective of:
(d) Neither A nor B
(a) Effectively protecting the protected wildlife
of this country and to control smuggling and Gujarat PSC Pre-2019 Paper-I
to illegalize trade in wildlife and its Ans. (a): The Convention against Torture and other
derivatives Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment
(b) Effectively protecting the wildlife to move from (UNCAT) is an international human rights treaty under
one place to another into inhabited places the review of the United Nations that aims to prevent
(c) Effectively protecting the wildlife of this torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman or degrading
country and to control poaching, smuggling treatment around the world.
and illegal trade in wildlife and its derivatives
It was adopted by the General Assembly of the United
(d) None of the above Nations on 10th December 1984 (Resolution 39/46). The
th
Haryana PSC (Pre) G.S 2014 Convention entered into force on 26 June 1987 after it
had been ratified by 20 States.
Ans. (c) Wildlife Protection Act 1972 was passed on
August 21, 1972 but was later implemented on India has signed this convention in October 1987, but is
September 9, 1972.This Act prohibits the capturing, yet to ratify it.
killing, poisoning or trapping of wild animals. The 64. The number of Judges in the International
objectives of Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 are Court of Justice is
prohibition of hunting, protection and management of (a) 15 (b) 10
wildlife habitats, establishment of protected areas,
(c) 11 (d) 14
regulation and control of trade in parts and products
derived from wildlife and management of zoos. Punjab PSC (Pre) G.S 2015

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Ans. (a) The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the The Committee on Public Accounts is the oldest
principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It was Parliamentary committee that examines the accounts
established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United showing the appropriation of sums granted by
Nations and began work in April 1946. The seat of the Parliament for expenditure of Government of India and
Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague such other accounts of autonomous and semi-
autonomous bodies. Since 1967, a convention has been
(Netherlands).
established whereby an eminent leader from the
Of the six principal organs of the United Nations opposition in Lok Sabha is appointed as its chairperson
(General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and but it is not a provision, which has been provided in the
Social Council, Trusteeship Council, International Constitution.
Court of Justice and UN Secretariat, it is the only one 66. Which one of the following is the oldest and
not located in New York (United States of America). most important committee of Indian
The Court’s role is to settle in accordance with Parliament?
international law, legal disputes submitted to it by (a) Public accounts committee
States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions (b) Standing committee
referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and (c) Estimate committee
specialized agencies. (d) Committee on Public Undertaking
The Court is composed of 15 Judges, who are elected UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
General Assembly and the Security Council. question.
65. Which of the following statements is/are included 67. Consider the following statements
as provision of the Indian Constitution? 1. According to Constitution of India, A person
1. The person to be appointed as Governor of a who is eligible to vote can be made a minister
State should be a domicile of some other in a state for six months even if he/she is not
State of the Indian Union. a member of the legislature of that state
2. There should be at least one Muslim judge in 2. According to the representation of people act,
1951, a person convicted of a criminal
the Supreme Court so as to ensure its secular
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for at
character.
least five years is permanently disqualified
3. The Chairman of the Public Accounts from contesting an election even after his
Committee of the Parliament should belong to release from prison.
a party in the opposition. Which of the above given statements is/are
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 correct?
(c) None of the above (d) 1 and 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c) According to Article 155 of the Constitution, IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the Ans. (a) A person who eligible to vote can be made a
President by warrant under his hand and seal. There is minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a
member of the legislature of that State provided he/she
no Constitutional provision regarding the Governor of a
should be get elected to the House within 6 months of
State shall be domicile of some other State but this is a
his/her appointment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
practice developed over the years and may be treated as
According to Section 8 in The Representation of the
emerging convention of the Indian Constitution.
People Act, 1951; A person convicted of any offence
The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two
Supreme Court are appointed by the President under years [other than any offence referred to in sub-section
clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution. There is no (1) or sub-section (2)] shall be disqualified from the
provision in the Constitution regarding Muslim Judge in date of such conviction and shall continue to be
Supreme Court to ensure its secular character but again disqualified for a further period of six years since his
this is a practice developed over the years. release. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

301
68. Which one of the following best defines the Ans. (b): In February 2004, P.C. Hota was appointed
term 'State'? by the Government of India as the Chairman of the
(a) A community of persons permanently Committee on Civil Services reforms. The Committee
occupying a definite territory independent of submitted its report to the Government of India within
external control and possessing an organized six months.
government 71. In the context of India, which one of the
(b) A politically organized people of a definite following is the characteristic appropriate for
bureaucracy?
territory and possessing an authority to
(a) An agency for widening the scope of
govern them, maintain law and order, protect
Parliamentary democracy
their natural rights and safeguard their means
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of
of sustenance federalism
(c) A number of persons who have been living in (c) An agency for facilitating political stability
a definite territory for a very long time with and economic growth
their own culture, tradition and government (d) An agency for the implementation of public
policy
(d) A society permanently living in a definite
territory with a central authority, an executive IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
responsible to the central authority and an Ans. (a) While the policies are made by the government
independent judiciary but their implementation on ground is done by
IAS (Pre) G.S 2021 bureaucracy through bureaucrats. These bureaucrats
works as a bridge between government and people.
Ans. (a): In political science, the term “State” has a
more specific and definite meaning. Word State means 72. With reference to the Union Government,
a community or society, politically organized under one consider the following statements :
independent government within a definite territory. It 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee
alone has the prerogative of making laws. The suggested that a minister and a secretary be
lawmaking power derives from sovereignty, which is designated solely for pursuing the subject of
the most distinctive characteristic of the State. administrative reform and promoting it.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was
constituted on the recommendation of the
69. In which landmark judgment delivered in 2016,
Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966,
did the Supreme Court issue guidelines on drought
and this was placed under the Prime Minister's
management to the Government of India? charge.
(a) Swaraj Abhiyan Vs Union of India
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) PUCL Vs Union of India correct?
(c) Common Cause Vs Union of India (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Mahipal Singh Rana Vs State of UP (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017) IAS (pre) G.S 2021
Ans. (a) : The Supreme Court issued guidelines on Ans. (d): First Administrative Reforms Commission
drought management to the Government of India in its suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated
landmark judgment delivered in the case of Swaraj solely for pursing the subject of administrative reform
Abhiyan Vs Union of India dated 11th May 2016. and promoting it. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted
70. In which year P.C. Hota Committee on Civil
on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms
Services Reforms was constituted?
Commission, 1966 and this was placed under the charge
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 of Cabinet Secretariat. In 1985, it was placed under the
(c) 2005 (d) 2006 overall charge of the Prime Minister, assisted by a
UPPSC (Pre) 2021 Minister of State. Hence statement 2 is also not correct.
302
73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Code :
answer from the code given below the lists- (a) I, III, II, IV
List-I List-II (b) II, III, I, IV
(Minimum (Office/Post)
(c) II, I, III, IV
Qualification
of Age) (d) II, I, IV, III
A 21 years 1 President of India TNPSC (Pre) G.S. 2016
B 25 years 2 Member of Panchayat Ans. (c) :
1. Ayyangar Committee- Criminal
C 30 years 3 Member of State Tribes Act enquiry - 1949-50
Legislative Assembly 2. Gorwala Committee on proposed
D 35 years 4 Member of State Legislation for the regulation of
Legislative Council
Stock Exchanges and Contracts in
Code- Securities - 1951
A B CD 3. Appleby Report on Public
(a) 2 3 41
Administration in India - 1953
(b) 1 2 43
Administrative Reforms
(c) 2 1 34
4. Commission to examine the Public
(d) 4 1 23
UPPSC RO-ARO Mains 2021 Administration of the country - 1966

Ans. (a) : The correct match is- 76. With reference to India, consider the following
List-I List-II statements:
(Minimum (Office/Post) 1. Government law officers and legal firms are
Qualification of Age) recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers
21 years - Member of Panchayat and patent attorneys are excluded from
25 years - Member of State Legislative Assembly recognition as advocates.
30 years - Member of State Legislative Council 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the
35 years - President of India rules relating to legal education and recognition
74. Which one of the following said, "A of law colleges.
Constitution, like a machine, is a lifeless thing? Which of the statements given above is/are
It acquires life because of the men who control correct?
it and India needs today nothing more than a
set of honest men who will have the interest of (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the country before them"? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad UPSC IAS 2022
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans. (b): Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
attorneys, are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. Hence
RPSC (RAS) (PRE.) 2021
statement (1) is incorrect. The Bar Council of India
Ans. (a): The given statement was given by the first visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the
President of India Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
country as part of its statutory function of promoting
75. Arrange the following Committee in legal education and laying down standards in
Chronological order.
consultation with the Universities in India and the State
(a) Gorwala Committee
Bar Councils. The Bar Council of India is a statutory
(b) Ayyangar Committee
body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act
(c) Appleby Report 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission education in India. Hence 2nd statement is correct.

303
 77. The Madhya Pradesh State Election Commission 79. At the national level, which ministry is the
was constituted on nodal agency to ensure effective
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and
(a) 1 February, 1994 (b) 1 March, 1994 Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
(c) 1 April, 1994 (d) 1 May, 1994 of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
MPPSC (Pre) 2020 (a) Ministry of Environments, Forest and Climate
Change
Ans. (a) : The Madhya Pradesh State Election (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
Commission was constituted on February 1, 1994. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
Article 243K and Article 243 ZA provides for (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Constitution of State Election Commission. The State IAS (PRE) G.S 2021
Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of Ans.(d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
State. 80. Consider the following statements about the
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
78. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act,
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of 2006.
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the (1) It does not recognize Individual rights like
authority to initiate the process for Rights of self-cultivation.
determining the nature and extent of individual (2) It recognizes the community Rights as
or community forest rights or both? Grazing and Fishing
(a) State Forest Department (3) It ensures land tenure, livelihood and food
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner security of the forest dwelling Scheduled
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/ Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers
(4) It protects the tribal population from eviction
Mandai Revenue Officer without rehabilitation and settlement.
(d) Gram Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are not
IAS (Pre) G.S., 2013 correct?
Ans. (d) Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal (a) 1 and 2 (b) 4 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only
agency at the national level to ensure effective
J&K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
implementation of the Schedule Tribes and other
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Traditional Forest Dwellers under Recognition of Forest question.
Rights Act, 2006.
81. How many times has the President's Rule been
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers imposed in Nagaland so far?
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is an Act to (a) Never (b) Once
recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in (c) Twice (d) Four times
forest land in forest dwelling scheduled tribes and other Nagaland PSC (NCS) Pre 2017
traditional forest dwellers, who have been residing in Ans. (d) : Till date, President's Rule has been imposed
in Nagaland for four times.
such forests for generations but whose rights could not be
82. Protection of women from Domestic Violence is
recognised. Whereas the recognized rights of the forest a _______.
dwelling scheduled tribes and other traditional forest (a) Constitutional Right (b) Fundamental Right
dwellers include the responsibilities and authority for (c) Human Right (d) Legal Right
sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and Karnataka PSC GP 24.08.2020
maintenance of ecological balance and thereby Ans. (d): Protection of women from Domestic Violence
strengthening the conservation regime of the forests is a Legal Right.
while ensuring livelihood and food security of the forest • Legal rights are the rights that exist under the rule of
dwelling scheduled tribes and other traditional forest legal system or by virtue of decisions of suitably
authoritative bodies within them.
dwellers.
• Protection of women from Domestic Violence is a
As per the provisions provided by the Act, the forest land legal right because it is recognized by the 'The
to be diverted for the development purposes should be Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005.
less than one hectare and the clearance of such
• Protection of women from Domestic Violence has
developmental projects shall be subject to the condition
neither been provided as a Fundamental Right nor
that the same is recommended by the Gram Sabha. mentioned anywhere in the Constitution.
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