SKD NSCI

(BARABANKI)
TARGET BATCH T-1/E-1
NEET TEST-06
INSTRUCTIONS Date : 15-10-2024

MAXIMUM MARKS : 720 TIME : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get
04 (four) marks.

II. For each incorrect answer, 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.

Ill. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct
answer/best option.
 Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks.
 Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each question.
 Do not erase any given answer by eraser.
Pattern of the Test
The Test pattern comprises of two Sections. Each subject consists of two sections.
Section A consists of 35 Questions and Section B is having 15 question, out of
these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total
number of questions (45 Questions) and utilization of time will remain the same.

40

SKD New Standard Coaching Institute

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 ROUGH WORK

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 SKD NSCI STUDENT’S NAME : .....................................
TARGET BATCH : T-1/E1 [NEET TEST-06]

(BARABANKI) TIME: 3 HOUR 20 MINUTES

04. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to V volt by

PHYSICS a battery. The battery is disconnected and the
separation between the plates is halved. The new
potential difference across the capacitor will be
SECTION - A
V
(1) (2) 2V
01. The Electric flux through the surface 2
V
(3) V (4)
4

05. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides:

(1) in the positive charges
(1) in Fig (iv) is the largest. (2) in both the positive and negative charges
(2) in Fig. (iii) is the least (3) in the field between the plates
(3) is the same for all the figures (4) around the edges of the capacitor plates
(4) in Fig. (ii) is same as Fig. (iii) but is smaller
than Fig. (iv) 06. A potential difference of 200 V is maintained
across a conductor of resistance 100 n. The
02. The frequency of oscillation of an electric dipole number of electrons passing through it in 1s is
moment having dipole moment p and rotational (1) 2.5 × 1016 (2) 1.25 × 1019
inertia I, oscillating in a uniform electric field E, (3) 2.5 × 1018 (4) 1.25 × 1018
is given by
07. At 1000°C the resistance of a wire is found to be
1 I 1 pE
(1) (2) four times its resistance at 0°C. The temperature
2 pE  2  I coefficient of resistance of the material of the
I wire will be:
pE
(3)  2  (4)  2  0.001 0.004
pE I (1) (2)
C C
03. What is the electric flux linked with closed 0.002 0.003
surface? (3) (4)
C C

08. An -particle crosses a space without any

deflection. If electric field E = 8 × 106 V/m and
the magnetic field is B = 1.6 T, the velocity of
(1) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C the particle is:
(2) 1010 N-m2/C (1) 2.5 × 106 m/s (2) 5 × 107 m/s
(3) 1011 N-m2/C
(3) 8 × 106 m/s (4) 5 × 106 m/s
(4) 1012 N-m2/C
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09. The magnetic field at the centre of a current- (3) A is true but R is false.
carrying circular loop having 1 A current and (4) Both A and R are false.
number of turns one will be (radius of the loop
is 1 m): 14. While keeping the area of cross-section of a
(1) 2µ0 (2) µ0/4 solenoid the same, the number of turns and length
(3) µ0/2 (4) 4µo of the solenoid are both doubled. The self-
inductance of the coil will be:
10. Select the correct statement among the
following? 1
(1) times the original value
i. A magnetic field can accelerate a charged particle. 4
ii. A magnetic field can not accelerate a charged (2) halved
particle. (3) doubled
iii. A magnetic field can increase the speed of a (4) unaffected
charged particle.
iv. A magnetic field can not change the velocity
15. When current changes from +2A to -2A in
of a charged particle.
0.05 sec, an emf of 8V is induced in a coil. The
(1) iv (2) i
coefficient of self inductance of the coil is:
(3) ii (4) iii
(1) 0.8 H (2) 0.1 H
11. Assertion (A): The resistance of a voltmeter is (3) 0.2 H (4) 0.4 H
very small as compared to the resistance of the
galvanometer, from which it is obtained. 16. The area of a square shaped coil is 10-2 m2. Its
Reason (R): The voltmeter are connected in plane is perpendicular to a magnetic field of
series to the conductor across which potential strength 10-3 T. The magnetic flux linked with
difference is to be measured. the coil is
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) 100 Wb (2) 10-5 Wb
explanation of A. (3) 10 Wb (4) 105 Wb
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A. 17. Assertion (A): An emf can be induced by
(3) A is true but R is false. moving a conductor in a magnetic field.
(4) Both A and R are false. Reason (R): An emf can be induced by changing
the magnetic field.
12. The ratio of magnetic moments of two short (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
magnets which give null deflection in tan B explanation of A.
position at 12 cm and 18 cm from the centre of a
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
deflection magnetometer is:
explanation of A.
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 9
(3) 8 : 27 (4) 27 : 8 (3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.
13. Assertion (A): A moving coil galvanometer is 2
based on heating effect of current. 18. The dimensional formula of is [where 
 0 qv
Reason (R): On heating, the coil starts to rotate
in moving coil galvanometer. is magnetic field, q charge, V electric potential
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct and  0 permeability]
explanation of A. (1) [M0 L-3T0] (2) [ML3T0]
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) [M0L3T0] (4) [ML3T0]
explanation of A.

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19. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 second.
The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
measured to be 25 seconds. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of time (3) (4)
will be
(1) 0.1% (2) 0.8%
(3) 1.8% (4) 8%
24. If R and H are the horizontal range and maximum
height attained by a projectile, then its speed of
20. The vernier scale of vernier callipers has 10
projection is
divisions. One centimetre on the main scale is
divided into ten equal parts. If 10 divisions of 4R 2 R 2g
the vernier scale coincide with 8 small divisions (1) 2gR  (2) 2gH 
gH 8H
of the main scale, the least count of the
callipers is 8H R2
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.02 cm (3) 2gH  (4) 2gH 
Rg H
(3) 0.05 cm (4) 0.005 cm

21. A ball dropped from the top of tower falls first 25. Displacement (r) of a particle in x - y plane

half height of tower in 10 s. The total time spent
by ball in air is [Take g =10m/(s2)]

varies with time t is given by r  t 2 ˆi  2ˆj m . 
Velocity of particle at t = 1 s is
(1) 14.14 s (2) 15.25 s
(3) 12.36 s (4) 17.36 s  
(1) 2iˆ  2ˆj m / s (2) 2iˆ m / s

22. The speed-time graph for a body moving along (3) 4iˆ m / s  
(4) 4iˆ  2jˆ m / s
a straight line is shown in figure. The average
acceleration of body may be 26. Consider the two statements related to circular
motion in usual notations.
  
A. In uniform circular motion,  , v and a are
always mutually perpendicular
  
B. In non-uniform circular motion,  , v and a
are always mutually perpendicular
(1) Both A and B are true
(2) Both A and B are false
(1) 0 (2) 4 m/s² (3) A is true but B is false
(3) - 4 m/s² (4) All of these (4) A is false but B is true

23. A particle is moving in a straight line such that 27. The magnitude of force acting on a particle
its displacement (X) is related to time (t) as X = moving along x-axis varies with time (t) as
(3 - 4t + 5t²)m. The correct velocity-time (v-t) shown in figure. If at t = 0 the velocity of particle
graph will be is v0 then its velocity at t = T0 will be

(1) (2)

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 
F T
(1) v 0  0 0
F
(2) v0  0 32.  
A force F  k yiˆ  xjˆ (where k is constant)
4m 2m
acts on a particle moving in the xy plane. Starting
T 2 0 F T from origin the particle is taken along y-axis to
(3) v0  (4) v 0  0 0
4m m the point (0, a) The work done by agent applying
the force F on the particle is
28. The tension T in the string shown in figure is (1) k2(x2 + y2) (2) Zero
(3) ky (4) kx

33. A particle of mass m starts moving from origin

along x-axis and its velocity varies with position
(x) as v  k x . The work done by force acting
on it during first "t" seconds is
(1) Zero (2) 50 N mk 4 t 2 mk 2 t
(1) (2)
(3) 35 3 (4)  
3  1 50N 4 2
mk 4 t 2 mk 2 t 2
(3) (4)
29. The tension in the string connected between 8 4
blocks is
34. A chain is on a frictionless table with one fifth
of its length hanging over the edge. If the chain
has length L and mass M, the work required to
be done to pull the hanging part back onto the
80 40
(1) N (2) N table is
3 3
MgL MgL
50 (1) (2)
(3) N (4) 26 N 5 50
7
MgL MgL
(3) (4)
30. Acceleration of block A varies with time as 18 10
shown in figure the value of coefficient of kinetic
friction between bloc A and B the value of 35. The kinetic energy (K.E.) vs. time graph for a
coefficient of kinetic friction between block A particle, moving along a straight line, is shown
and B is in the figure. The force vs. time graph for the
particle may be

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.6

(3) 0.4 (4) None of these

31. The work done in extending a spring by l0 is w0

The work done in further extension l0 will be
(1) (2)
(1) 3w0 (2) 2w0
w w
(3) 0 (4) 0
2 4

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 (1) 3.18 Am2 (2) 2.08 Am2
(3) 1.28 Am2 (4) 4.38 Am2

(3) (4) 40. Which of the following cannot modify an

external magnetic field as shown in the figure?

SECTION B

36. Assertion (A): If the distance between parallel (1) Silicon (2) Sodium Chloride
plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric (3) Copper (4) Nickel
constant is three times, then the capacitor
becomes 6 times. 41. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of
Reason (R): Capacity of a capacitor does not 2 × 104 JT-1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane.
depend upon the nature of the material. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10-4 T exists
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct in the space. The work done in taking the magnet
explanation of A. slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct direction 60° from the field is
explanation of A. (1) 0.6 J (2) 12 J
(3) A is true but R is false. (3) 2 J (4) 6 J
(4) A is false but R is true.
42. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current
37. Five identical lamps, each of resistance of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting
1100 ohm are connected to 220 volt as shown in magnetic flux linked with each turn of the
the following figure. The reading of an ideal solenoid is 4 × 10-3 wb. The self-inductance of
ammeter A is: the solenoid is:
(1) 1.0 henry (2) 2.5 henry
(3) 2.0 henry (4) 4.0 henry

43. Position-time graph of a particle is given

220 220
(1)  3amp (2)  5 amp
1100 1100
220 220
(3)  2 amp (4)  1amp
1100 1100

38. To produce a magnetic field of tesla at the centre

of circular loop of diameter 1 m, the current Column I Column II
flowing through (a) Total distance covered (i) 40 m/s
(1) 2.5 × 106A (2) 5 × 106 A (b) Displacement (ii) 240 m
(3) 2.5 × 106 A d) 107 A (c) Average velocity (iii) 0 m
(d) Average speed (iv) 0 m/s
39. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area (1) a-(i), b-(iii), c -(ii), d -(iv)
of cross-section 1.6 × 10-4 m2, carrying a current (2) a-(iv),b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
of 4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing (3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
it to turn in a horizontal plane. What is the (4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?

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44. Statement I: Position-time graph of a stationary
object is a straight line parallel to the time axis. Column I Column II
Statement II: For a stationary object, the i. Force of friction is a. Fig. (i)
position does not change with time.
zero in
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
ii. Force of friction is b. Fig. (ii)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. 2.5 N in
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true. iii. Acceleration of the c. Fig. (iiii)
    block is zero inc.
45.   
The Value of A  B  A  B is 
(1) 0 (2) A2-B2 iv. Normal force is d. Fig. (iv)
   
(3) B  A 
(4) 2 B  A  not equal to 2g in

(1) i  b, ii  a, iii  a, b, c, iv  c
46. A particle moving with a constant speed of 9 km/ (2) i  b, ii  c, d, iii  d, iv  a, d
h on a circle reaches from end A to the (3) i  a, c, ii  b, d, iii  a, b, c, d, iv  c,d
diametrically opposite end B in time 2 s. The (4) i  d, ii  a, b, iii  d, iv  c
average acceleration from A to B is
49. A block of mass m moving with velocity v0
collides with another stationary block of mass
M as shown. The maximum compression in the
spring is [Assume all surfaces to be smooth and
spring constant is K]
(1) 9km/h2 (2) 18km/s2
(3) 5km /h2 (4) 2.5m/s2

47. The limiting value of static friction between two mM mM

(1)  v0 (2)  v0
contact surfaces is 2K  M  n  K M  n
(1) Proportional to normal force between the
surface in contact
2mM 2mM
(2) Independent of apparent area of contact (3)  v0 (4)  v0
(3) Dependent on the microscopic area of contact K M  n K M  n
(4) All of these
50. Match the following :
48. The coefficient of friction between the block and Column I Column II
the surface in each of the given figures is 0.4. (a)Work done by all (i) Change in potential
forces energy
(b) Work done by (ii) Change in kinetic
conservative forces energy
(c) Work done by (iii) Change in
external forces Mechanical energy
(iv) No change in energy
(1) (a)-(ii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (iii)
(2) (a) -(iii) (b) - (iv) (c) - (i)
(3) (a) -(ii) (b) - (iii) (c) - (i)
(4) (a) -(i) (b) - (ii) (c) - (ii)

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 (1) A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
CHEMISTRY (2) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)
(3) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I)
SECTION A
56. Which of the following has strongest
51. The atomic number of element with IUPAC
intramolecular hydrogen bonding?
name ununtrium is
(1) 103 (2) 113 OH OCH3
(3) 112 (4) 119 COOH COOH
(1) (2)
52. Statement:I Elements of a group exhibit the
same chemical properties. OH OCH3
Statement: II Elements of a group posses the
same electronic configuration of their outermost
shell. (3) (4)
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
COOH COOH
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement:I is true but statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true. 57. The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals
in methane, ethene and ethyne are, respectively,
53. Statement:I Isoelectronic species have the same (1) 25, 33, 50 (2) 25, 50, 75
ionic radii. (3) 50, 75, 100 (4) 10, 20, 40
Statement: II Isoelectronic species have the
same number of electrons. 58. Which of the following contains non-directional
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true. bonds?
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false. (1) BCl3 (2) BeCl2
(3) Statement:I is true but statement II is false. (3) RbCl (4) NCl3
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
59. Assertion: HCN is linear molecule
54. Due to their low ionization energies, the group Reason: Carbon atom in HCN is sp hybridized.
I, elements are (1) Both assertion and reason are correct
(1) Weak oxidizing agents statements and reason is the correct explanation
(2) Weak reducing agents of assertion.
(3) Strong reducing agents (2) Both assertion and reason are correct
(4) Strong oxidizing agents statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
55. Match List-I with List-II (3) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are wrong.
List -I List -II
60. Which of the following has highest bond
A. MO  A B (I) Dipolemoment dissociation energy?
B.   q  r (II) Bondingmolecularorbital (1) O2 (2) N2
b  Na Anti  Bondingmolecular (3) H2 (4) F2
C. (III)
2 orbital
61. The compound which shows metamerism is
D. MO  A B (IV) Bondorder (1) C5H12 (2) C3H8O
(3) C3H6O (4) C4H10O
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62. Select the most stable carbocation among the (1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
following. (2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement:I is true but statement II is false.
(1) (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

67. The reaction,

 CH3 3 CBr 
H O
  CH3 3 COH
2
is
(2)
(1) Elimination reaction
(2) Free radical reaction
(3) Substitution reaction
(4) Displacement reaction
(3)
68. Numbers of  and  bonds in below structure is
(4) CO NH(CH3 )

63. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than O

a secondary butyl carbocation because of which (1) 18,3 (2) 17,3
of the following?
(1) Hyperconjugation (3) 21, 4  (4) 18, 4
(2) –I effect of –CH3 groups
(3) +R effect of –CH3 groups 69. Match the column I with column II and choose
(4) –R effect of CH3 groups the correct option out of the four options.

64. On heating, some solid substances change from Column I Column II

solid to vapour state without passing through (Compound) (Classification type)
liquid state. The technique used for the (i) O (P) Benzenoid aromatic
purification of such solid substances based on
the above principle is known as (ii) (Q) Alicyclic heterocyclic
(1) Distillation (2) Chromatography
O
(3) Crystallization (4) Sublimation
(iii) (R) Non-benzenoid
aromatic
65. Order of Ka of following acids is O
(iv) (S) Aromatic heterocyclic
(I) HC  C  CH 2  COOH
(II) CH 2  CHCH 2COOH
(III) CH 3CH 2 COOH (1) i-(R), ii-(Q), iii-(P), iv-(S)
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III (2) i-(Q), ii-(S), iii-(P), iv-(R)
(3) III > II > I (4) I > III > II (3) i-(P), ii-(S), iii-(Q), iv-(R)
(4) i-(S), ii-(R), iii-(P), iv-(Q)
66. Statement:I The IUPAC name for
HC  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2 is pent-4-en-1-yne 70. Which of the following is not electron deficient?

Statement: II If there is a choice, a triple bond (1) R  N : (2) :CCl2
is always given a lower locant than a double
(3) CH 2 (4) NH 2
bond.

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71. Pure NH3 is placed in a vessel at a temperature 78. For a acid ‘A’ pH = 2 and for acid ‘B’ pH is 4.
where its dissociation is appreciable. At Then
equilibrium (1) A is more basic than B
(1) K p does not change significantly with (2) B is more acidic than A
pressure (3) A is more acidic than B
(2) Concentration of N2 does not change with (4) B is more basic than A
pressure
(3) Concentration of NH3 does not change with 79. The addition of solid carbonate to pure water
pressure causes
(4) Kp changes with pressure but  does not (1) An increase in the hydronium ion
change concentration
(2) An increase in pH
72. Which of the following relation holds true for (3) No change in pH
an equilibrium reaction, if its reaction quotient (4) A decrease in the hydroxide ion concentration
(Q) = 1?
(1) G = 0 (2) G° = 0 80. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture
(3) G > G° (4) G = G° of
(i) Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water
73. When a solution of benzoic acid was titrated with (ii) Sodium chloride and HCl in water
NaOH, the pH of the solution when half of the (iii) Ammonia and NH4Cl in water
acid neutralized was 4.2. Dissociation constant (iv) Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water
of the acid is (1) 1,3,4 (2) 2,3,4
(1) 6.31 × 10-5 (2) 3.2 × 10-5 (3) 1,2,4 (4) 1,3
(3) 8.7 × 10-8 (4) 6.42 × 10-4
81. The following reactions are known to occur in
74. Solubility of AgCl in water, 0.01 M CaCl2, the body
0.01 M NaCl and 0.05 M AgNO3 are S1, S2, S3, CO 2  H 2 O  H 2 CO 3  H   HCO3
and S4 respectively, then
If CO2 escapes from the system
(1) S1 < S2 < S3 < S4 (2) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
(1) pH will decreases
(3) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4 (4) S1 > S3 > S4 > S2
(2) Hydrogen ion concentration will diminish
(3) H2CO3 concentration will be promoted
75. pH of Ba(OH)2 solution is 12. Its solubility
(4) The forward reaction will be promoted
product is
(1) 10-6 M3 (2) 4 × 10-6 M3
-7 3 82. Solubility product principle can be applied when
(3) 5 × 10 M (4) 5 × 10-6 M3
(1) A solid is insoluble in a liquid
(2) A liquid is insoluble in another liquid
76. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 × 10-12 at 298 K. The
(3) Any ionic compound is sparingly soluble in
solubility (in mol/L) of Ag2CrO4 in a 0.1 M
a liquid
AgNO3 solution is
(4) Substance is ionic
(1) 1.1 × 10-11 (2) 1.1 × 10-10
(3) 1.1 × 10-12 (4) 1.1 ×10-9
83. In which of the following solution, AgCl has
minimum solubility?
77. A solution of NaOH contain 0.04 gm of NaOH
(1) 0.05 M AgNO3
per litre. Its pH is
(2) 0.01 M CaCl2
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 0.01 M NaCl
(3) 11 (4) 12
(4) 0.01 M NH4OH

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84. Assertion: Ksp is a constant value for any salt, (1) Both assertion and reason are correct
at particular temperature. statements and reason is the correct explanation
Reason: Solubility of any salt is constant at a of assertion.
particular temperature. (2) Both assertion and reason are correct
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
statements and reason is the correct explanation explanation of assertion.
of assertion. (3) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct (4) Both Assertion and reason are wrong.
statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
88. The correct order of bond strength is
(3) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are wrong. (1) I – I < F – F < Cl – F < H – F
(2) I – I < Cl – F < F – F < H – F
85. Assertion: CO2 is a Lewis acid. (3) F – F < I – I < Cl – F < H – F
Reason: H2SO4 is Arrhenius acid as well as (4) I – I < Cl – F < H – F < F – F
Bronsted acid.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct 89. The decreasing order of electron density on the
statements and reason is the correct explanation ring is
of assertion.
NH 2 NH2 NH 2 NH2
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct
statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. NH 2
(3) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong. NO2 CH3 Cl
(4) Both Assertion and reason are wrong. x y z w

SECTION - (B) (1) x > w > y > z (2) z > y > w > x
(3) x > z > y > w (4) y > z > w > x
86. The first ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol-1) and
the electron gain enthalpies in (kJ mol-1) of a 90. Number of 3° carbon and 1° hydrogen,
few elements are given below: respectively, in the following structure are
Element 𝜟𝒊 𝑯𝟏 𝜟𝒊 𝑯𝟐 𝜟𝒆𝒈 𝑯 Me Me Me H

I 520 7300 -60 H C C C C Me

II 419 3051 -48 Me Me H Me
III 1681 3374 -328 (1) 3 and 21 (2) 3 and 23
IV 1008 1846 -295 (3) 2 and 18 (4) 3 and 18
V 2372 5251 48
VI 738 1451 -40 91. A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was
Which of the above elements is likely to be the treated according to Kjeldahl’s method.
least reactive element? The ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 mL
(1) I (2) II of 0.5 M H2SO4. The residual acid required
(3) IV (4) V 60 mL of 0.5 M solution of NaOH for
neutralization. The percentage composition of
87. Assertion: LiCl is predominantly a covalent nitrogen in the compound is
compound. (1) 45% (2) 41%
Reason: Electronegativity difference between (3) 89% (4) 56%
‘Li’ and ‘Cl’ is too small
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92. Statement-1: Chloroacetic acid is more acidic 98. Which of the following aqueous solutions has
than bromoacetic acid. the highest freezing point (assuming m = M)?
Statement-2: I group present is acid decreases (1) 0.1 M KNO3 (2) 0.2 M Na3PO4
acidity of the compound (3) 0.25 M FeCl3 (4) 0.01 M Na2SO4
(1) both statement 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is
correct explanation of 1 99. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are
(2) both statement 1 and 2 are correct but 2 is 450 and 700 mm Hg at 350 K, respectively. If
not correct explanation of 1 total vapour pressure is 600 mm Hg, then find
(3) statement 1 is correct statement 2 is wrong the mole fraction of B in vapour phase.
(4) statement 1 is wrong statement 2 is correct (1) 0.70 (2) 0.30
(3) 0.40 (4) 0.60
93. Statement-1: Pyridine is more basic than
pyrrole, 100. What volume of CO2 at STP will evolve when
Statement-2: Delocalisation decreases basicity 1 g of CaCO3 reacts with excess of dil HCl?
of the compound. (1) 224 ml (2) 112 ml
(1) both statement 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is (3) 56 ml (4) 448 ml
correct explanation of 1
(2) both statement 1 and 2 are correct but 2 is
not correct explanation of 1 BOTANY
(3) statement 1 is correct statement 2 is wrong
(4) statement 1 is wrong statement 2 is correct
SECTION (A)
94. When 50 ml 0.1 M NH4OH is added to 50 ml of
101. More suitable term use for these name is - 'Dogs',
0.05 M HCl solution, the pH is nearly
'Cats', 'Mammals', 'Wheat', 'Rice', 'Plants' and
(1) 1.60 (2) 12.40
'Animals':
(3) 4.75 (4) 9.25
(1) Categories (2) Taxonomy
(3) Taxa (4) All of these
95. Among the following, which causes the greatest
change in pH on addition to 50 ml of 0.2 M oxalic
102. Reproduction is not synonymous with growth/
acid solution?
cell division in:
(1) Addition of 25 ml of 0.02 M oxalic acid
(i) Bacteria (ii) Hydra
(2) Addition of 25 ml of 1 M NaOH solution
(iii) Planaria (iv) Unicellular algae
(3) Addition of 2 ml of 0.02 M NH4OH solution
(v) Amoeba
(4) Addition of 50 ml of 0.02 acetic acid solution
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
96. When 400 g of a 20% solution by weight was
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v)
cooled, 50 g of solute precipitated. The
(4) only (i)
percentage concentration of remaining solution
is
103. How many characters for lichens are correct from
(1) 8.57% (2) 15%
given characters ?
(3) 12.25% (4) 9.5%
(i) Lichens are symbiotic associations.
(ii) It is a associations between algae and fungi
97. The volume of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 needed for the
(iii) The algal component is known as mycobiont.
neutralization of 40 ml of 0.05 M oxalic acid is
(iv) Fungal component as phycobiont.
(1) 10 ml (2) 20 ml
(v) Lichens are very good pollution indicators.
(3) 30 ml (4) 40 ml
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
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104. In given diagram of bacteriophage A, B, C and (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-V
D represents : (2) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV
(3) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV

107. Assertion: Body of fungi consist of long, slender

thread-like structures called hyphae.
Reason: The cell wall of fungi are composed of
chitin (polysaccharides)
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(1) A-Head-B-Sheath-C-Collar-D-Tail fiber (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
(2) A-Head-B-Collar-C-Sheath-D-Tail fiber is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) A-Head-B-Neck-C-Sheath-D-Tail fiber (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) All are incorrect (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

105. Fill in the blanks: 108. Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and
The : (i) is _______ aseptate and (ii) Fucus are member of :
_______asexual spores which are endogenously (1) Red alga (2) Brown alga
produced in (iii) __________ a (iv) (3) Green alga (4) Yellow alga
___________ is formed by fusion of two
gametes. 109. Which types of rhizoids are found in mosses ?
(1) (i) Mycelium (ii) Zoospores (iii) Sporangium (1) Unicellular, smooth walled, unbranched
(iv) Zygospores (2) Unicellular, tuberculated, unbranched
(2) (i) Zoospore (ii) Mycelium (iii) Sporangium (3) Multicellular with oblique septa, smooth
(iv) Zygospore walled, unbranched
(3) (i) Sporangium (ii) Mycelium (iii) Zygospore (4) None of the above
(iv) Zoospore
(4) (i) Zoospore (ii) Mycelium (iii) Sporangium 110. Assertion: Pteridophytes are considered
(iv) Zoospore precursor to the seed habit.
Reason: The development of the zygotes into
106. Match the entities in column I with their character young embryos take place outside the female
in column II: gametophytes.
Column I Column II (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
(A) Protozoans (I) Instead of a cell wall, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
they have pellicle (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
(B) Slime moulds (II) Marine forms have is not correct explanation of assertion.
silica shells on their (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
surface (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
(C) Euglenoids (III) The spores possess
true walls 111. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(D) Chrysophytes (IV) The cell wall has stiff about gymnosperms?
cellulose plates on the (1) Their seeds are not covered
outer surface (2) They are heterosporous
(E) Dinoflagellates (V) Walls are embedded (3) Male and female gametophytes are free living
with silica (4) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick
cuticle

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112. The stems are unbranched in : (iii) Fruit consists of a wall or pericarp and seeds.
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus In coconut fruit is barry, the mesocarp is fibrous.
(3) Cedrus (4) All of these (iv) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as
a drupe.
113. Select the wrong statements: (v) In mango, the pericarp is well differentiated
(1) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and into an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible
plantae mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.
(2) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes (1) One (2) Two
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding (3) Three (4) Four
structures in sporozoans
(4) Mitochondria are the power house of the cell 120. Match the following and choose the correct
in all kingdoms except monera combination from the options given:

114. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : Column I Column II

(1) Sieve tubes only A. Cruciferae I. A3+3
(2) Companion cells only B. Fabaceae II. A(5)
(3) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
(4) Albuminous cells and sieve cells C. Solanaceae III. A(9)+1
D. Liliaceae IV. A2+1
115. Thorn is a stem structure because it :
(1) Develops from stiuple (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Arises from leaf directly (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) Develops from axillary bud (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) It structure of defense (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

116. In Calotropis and Guava which type of 121. During the formation of the primary plant body,
phyllotaxy not present: specific regions of the apical meristem produces:
(1) Alternate (1) Dermal tissues (2) Ground tissues
(2) Opposite (3) Vascular tissues (4) All of these
(3) Whorled
(4) More than one is correct 122. Thick-walled, elongated and pointed cells,
lignified cell walls, usually dead and without
117. Placenta develop at the base of ovary and a single protoplasts, generally occurring in groups in
ovule is attached to it is called : various parts of the plant are characteristics of:
(1) Marginal (2) Axile (1) Sclereids (2) Collenchyma
(3) Partial (4) Basal (3) Parenchyma (4) Fibres

118. Nicotiana belongs to : 123. In monocot leaf which type of guard cell present?
(1) Malvaceae (2) Liliaceae (1) Bean shape (2) Dumb-bell shaped
(3) Solanaceae (4) Cruciferae (3) Kidney shape (4) All of these

119. How many statements are incorrect for fruit? 124. In conjoint type of vascular bundles, the xylem
(i) The fruit is a ripened ovary, developed after and phloem are situated at the same radius of
fertilisation. vascular bundles. Such vascular bundles are
(ii) If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of common in:
the ovary, it is called a parthenocarpic fruit. (1) Stems and root (2) Stems and leaves
(3) Root and leaves (4) Only stem

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125. There are usually two to four xylem and phloem (1) (A)-Dicot-stem, (B)-Monocot-stem
patches present in : (2) (A)-Dicot-root, (B)-Monocot-root
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot stem (3) (A)-Monocot-stem, (B)-Dicot-stem
(3) Dicot root (4) Monocot stem
(4) (A)-Monocot-root, (B)-Dicot-root
126. Identify the wrong statements for permanent
tissue. 128. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma
(i) In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels are membrane?
the main water transporting elements. (1) Camillo Golgi
(ii) Tracheids is a long cylindrical tube-like (2) Schleiden and Schwann
structure made up of many cells called vessel
members, each with lignified walls and a large (3) Singer and Nicolson
central cavity. (4) Robert Brown
(iii) In stem, the protoxylem lies towards
periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre. 129. Select the correct matching in the following
(iv) In root, the protoxylem lies towards the pairs:
centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the (1) Rough ER -Oxidation of fatty acids
periphery of the organ.
(2) Smooth ER -Oxidation of phospholipids
(v) A mature sieve element possesses a peripheral
cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks a (3) Smooth ER -Synthesis of lipids
nucleus. (4) Rough ER -Synthesis of glycogen
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 130. Match the columns and identify the correct
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) option:
(4) (i) and (v)
(A) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in
127. Identify given diagrams (A), (B) and choose the Golgi apparatus
correct option. (B) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure
of DNA
(C) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous
sacs in stroma
(D) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in
mitochondria
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

131. Which one of the following cell organelles is

enclosed by a single membrane ?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplasts
(3) Lysosomes (4) Nuclei

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132. Which of the following are NOT considered as 138. Study the pathway given below:
the part of endomembrane system? In which of the following options correct words
A. Mitochondria for all the three blanks a, b and c are indicated.
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
(1) B and D only (2) A, C and E only
(3) A and D only (4) A, D and E only

133. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
PS I and PS II
(2) Both ATP and NA DPH + H + are synthesized
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack
NADP reductase
(4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II

134. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for

the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during
Calvin cycle?
(1) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(2) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2
(3) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH2
(4) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH2 (1) a-Decarboxylation,b-Reduction,
c- Regeneration
135. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption (2) a-Fixation, b-Transamination,
maxima at: c-Regeneration
(1) 680 nm (2) 700 nm (3) a-Fixation,b-Decarboxylation,
(3) 660 nm (4) 780 nm c-Regeneration
(4) a-Carboxylation,b-Decarboxylation,
SECTION (B) c- Reduction
136. Which is associated with splitting of water
molecule during photosynthesis? 139. Statement I: Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are
(1) PS-I (2) PS-II synthesised by non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Both (4) None or Z-scheme of electron flow.
Statement II: Splitting of water is associated
137. Which of the following combinations is required with PS-I.
for chemiosmosis? (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(1) Membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
ATP synthase (2) If both assertion and reason are true, but
(2) Membrane, proton pump, proton gradient, reason is not the correct explanation of the
NADP synthase assertion.
(3) Proton pump, electron gradient, ATP synthase (3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Proton pump, electron gradient, NADP (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
synthase

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140. Match column I with column II, and choose the 144. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of:
correct combination from the options given (1) Two chromatids and one centromere
below. (2) Two chromatids and two centromere
Column I Column II (3) Four chromatids and two centromere
(Compound) (Number of carbons) (4) Four chromatids and four centromere
a. RuBP 1. Two
b. PEP 2. Three 145. Select the correct statement about G1-phase:
c. PGA 3. Four (1) Cell is metabolicaly inactive
d. OAA 4. Five (2) DNA in the cell does not replicate
a b c d (3) It is not a phase of synthesis of
(1) 3 4 2 1 macromolecules
(2) 1 2 4 3 (4) Cell stops growing
(3) 4 2 2 3
(4) 3 2 2 4 146. Arrange the following events of meiosis in
correct sequence
141. Cells of root tip of onion have 14 chromosomes (A) Crossing over
in each cell, how many chromosomes will the (B) Synapsis
cell have at G1-phase, after S-phase, and after
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata
M-phase respectively?
(1) 7, 14, 14 (2) 14, 28, 28 (D) Disappearance of nucleolus
(3) 14, 14, 14 (4) 7, 28, 14 (1) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(2) (B), (A), (D), (C)
142. During which stage homologous chromosomes (3) (B), (A), (C), (D)
start pairing together? (4) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
147. ATP is known as energy currency of the cell
because
143. Which of the following is true for crossing over?
(1) It stores energy in its phosphate bonds
(i) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic
material between two homologous chromatids. (2) It releases energy by breaking its phosphate
(ii) Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated bond whenever required and gets converted to
process and the enzyme involved is called ADP.
recombinase. (3) both (1) and (2)
(iii) Crossing over leads to recombination of (4) none of the above
genetic material on the two chromosomes.
(iv) Recombination between homologous 148. Respiratory substrates are the organic substances
chromosomes is completed by the end of which are during respiration to liberate energy.
diplotene. (1) oxidised (2) reduced
(v) Crossing over started in pachytene.
(3) synthesised (4) both (1) and (2)
(vi) It responsible for variation in organism.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 149. Instantaneous source of energy is
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (1) proteins (2) fats
(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) (3) nucleic acids (4) glucose.

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150. Complete the following biochemical equation of (3) Hindbrain consists of cerebellum.
respiration and select the correct answer. (4) Medulla oblongata passes out through the
C6H12O6 + 6O2    foramen magnum.

(1) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Energy

155. Which characters for columnar or cuboidal are
(2) 12CO2 + 4H2O + Energy
incorrect from given characters ?
(3) 12CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
(i) The cuboidal epithelium is composed of a
(4) 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
single layer of tall and slender cells.
(ii) Nuclei in cells of cuboidal epithelium are (
ZOOLOGY located at the base
(iii) The free surface of columnar epithelium may
have microvilli.
SECTION - (A) (iv) The columnar epithelium is found in the
lining of stomach and intestine and help in
151. Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called secretion and absorption.
polyp medusa in which (v) Ciliated epithelium is modified columnar or
(1) Former produces medusa sexually cuboidal cells and bear cilia on their free surface.
(2) Later forms polyp asexually (vi) The function of ciliated epithelium is to move
(3) Former is a sessile and cylindrical form particles or mucus in a specific direction over
(4) Later is umbrella shaped, example includes the epithelium.
Hydra
(vii) Epithelium is present in the inner surface
of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian
152. Which of the following is incorrect for Scypha?
tubes.
(2) It is primitive acellular asymmetrical animal
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(2) It has a water canal system
(3) Digestion is intracellular (2) (i), (iii) and (v)
(4) Sexes are not separate (3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (i) and (ii)
153. Assertion (A): Aschelminthes are commonly
known as roundworms. 156. Match the entities in Column I with their
Reason (R): The body of aschelminthes is characters in Column II regarding average
circular in the cross-section. composition of cells :
In the light of above statements, select the correct Column I Column II
option. (Component) (% of the total cellular
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the mass)
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A) Water (i) 2
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the (B) Proteins (ii) 5-7
Reason is not the correct explanation of the (C) Carbohydrates (iii) 1
Assertion (D) Lipids (iv) 70-90
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(E) Nucleic acids (v) 10-15
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(F) Ions (vi) 3
statements
(1) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(i), E-(iii), F-(ii)
154. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. brain of frogs. (2) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(i), E-(ii),F-(iii)
(1) Unpaired diencephalon is present in (3) A-(v), B-(vi), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(ii), F-(iii)
forebrain. (4) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(ii), E-(i),F-(iii)
(2) Midbrain contains olfactory lobes.
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157 Which one of the following is incorrect 162. Assertion (A): The cardiac output of an athlete
(1) Inulin is homopolymer during exercise will be much higher than that of
(2) Polysaccharides are not sweet in taste an ordinary man.
(3) Homopolymers always have complex helix Reason (R): Cardiac output is based on the
structure body's ability to alter the heart rate but not stroke
(4) None volume. In the light of above statements, choose
the correct option.
158. In humans, the partial pressure of oxygen in the (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
alveoli of lungs is Reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Less than the partial pressure of oxygen in (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
systemic vein. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) Less than the partial pressure of oxygen in assertion
systemic artery (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Less than the partial pressure of oxygen in
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
atmospheric air
(4) Same as that in blood vessels supplying the
systemic artery 163. Urine formation involves three main processes
namely, glomerular filtration, reabsorption and
159. Amount of O2 delivered tissues under by 500 secretion, that takes place in different parts of
mL of oxygenated blood to tissues under normal the nephron. The first step in urine formation is
physiological conditions is the filtration of blood, which is carried out by
(1) 100 mL (2) 500 mL the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration.
(3) 125 mL (4) 25 mL Which statement is not correct for it?
(i) On an average, 1100-1200 ml of blood is
160. Assertion : 500 ml air inspired or expired during filtered by the kidneys per minute.
a normal respiration per minute. (ii) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
Reason: Healthy man can inspire or expire causes filtration of blood through 5 layers.
approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per (iii) The epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule
breathing. called podocytes.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the (iv) Podocytes are ( arranged in an intricate
reason is correct explanation of assertion. manner so as to form filtration slits or slit pores.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason (v) Blood is filtered so that almost all the
is not correct explanation of assertion. constituents of the plasma except the corpuscles
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. pass on to the lumen of the Bowman's capsule.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. (vi) Glomerular filtration is considered as a
process of ultra filtration.
161. Which is the correct sequence of arrangements (1) (v) and (vi) (2) (ii) and (v)
of types of WBC in decreasing order in terms of (3) (iv) and (vi) (4) (i) and (ii)
their number per mm³ of human blood?
(1) Eosinophils > basophils > neutrophils >
164. A diagrammatic representation of a reabsorption
monocytes
and secretion of major substances at different
(2)Neutrophils > lymphocytes > eosinophils >
parts of the nephron (Arrows indicate direction
basophils
of movement of materials.) with substances
(3)Neutrophils > monocyles > lymphocytes >
labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Select option which
basophils
correctly identifies them?
(4)Monocytes > lymphocytes > basophils >
eosinophils

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 167. Read the following statements carefully w.r.t
skeletal muscle and choose the correct answer.
Statement A: Each fascicle consist of numerous
muscle fibres.
Statement B: All fascicles of a muscle are held
together by fascia.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

(1) 1-Na, 2-NH3 , 3-NaCl, 4H2O , 5-NaCl and 168. Read following statements A and B and choose
6 - H2O the correct answer
(2) 1-NH3 , 2-Na+, 3-H2O, 4-NaCl, 5-NaCl and Statement A: All voluntary muscles are striated
6-Urea but all striated muscles are not voluntary.
(3) 1-NH3 2 -K+ , 3-H2O , 4-NaCl, 5-NaCl and Statement B: All smooth muscles are
6-Urea involuntary but all involuntary muscles are not
(4) 1-NH3,2-K+, 3-H2O, 4-NaCl, 5-NaCl and smooth.
6- H2O
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
165. Arrange the events which occur during muscle (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
contraction.
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
(a) Action potential causes the release of
Ca2+ions into the sarcoplasm. (4) Only statement B is incorrect
(b) Activated myosin head binds to the exposed
active sites on actin to form cross bridge.
169. According to sliding filament theory of muscle
(c) A neural signal at neuromuscular junction
contraction
causes the release of acetylcholine which
generates action potential. (1) Thick filaments slide over thin filaments
(d) Increase in Ca²+ levels leads to the binding (2) Thin filaments slide over thick filaments
of calcium with troponin on actin filaments
(3) Both the filaments slide towards H-zone
thereby unmasking active sites of actin.
Choose the correct option. (4) Contraction of only thick filament occurs
(1) a  c  b  d (2) a  c  d  b
(3) c  a  d  b (4) c  d  a  b
170. In humans, a comparison of the volume of the
166. A motor unit is formed by glomerular filtrate formed per day with that of
(1) A mixed nerve along with the muscle fibres the urine released per day suggest that
(2) A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres approximately X % of the filtrate is reabsorbed
connected to it by the renal tubules.
(3) A sensory neuron along with the muscle fibres Here 'X' is
connected to it (1) 99 (2) 70-80
(4) A sensory neuron, motor neuron and muscle
fibres connected to it. (3) 80 (4) 70-75

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171. Fill in the blanks with the correct option. (1) Both statement I and II are correct
(a) Cerebral cortex is made up of I matter. (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(b) II part of brain connects brain and spinal cord.
(3) Only statement I is correct
(c) Corpora quadrigemina are present on III side
of (4) Only statement II is correct
midbrain.
175. The cerebrum wraps around a structure which is
I II III
a major co-ordinating centre for sensory and
(1) Grey Medulla Dorsal
motor signaling is.
(2) White Pons Ventral
(1) Thalamus (2) Hypothalamus
(3) Grey Midbrain Dorsal
(4) White Pons Ventral (3) Cerebellum (4) Medulia oblongata

172. Arrange the following in the correct sequence: 176. At resting stage, the sodium-potassium pump
(1) This binding opens ion channels allowing the transports
entry of ions, which can generate a new potential (1) 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into the cell
in the post-synaptic neuron. (2) 3H+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
(II) The vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane
(3) 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
and release their neurotransmitters in the synaptic
cleft. (4) 3Na+ outwards for 2H+ into the cell
(III) Impulse arrives at the axon terminal.
(IV) The axon terminals contain vesicles filled 177. Hypothalamus is the part of the brain which
with these neurotransmitters. controls both body temperature and also helps
(V) The released neurotransmitters bind to their in regulation of
receptors present on the post-synaptic membrane.
(1) Inspiration and expiration
(VI) It stimulates the movement of the synaptic
vesicles towards the membrane. (2) Urge for eating
(1) (IV), (III), (VI), (II), (V), (I) (3) Gastric secretions
(2) (I), (II), (VI), (III), (IV), (V) (4) Heart beat
(3) (V), (III), (VI), (II), (IV), (I)
(4) (IV), (II), (VI), (III), (V), (I)
178. Read the given statements and select the correct
173. When a neuron is not conducting impulse, the option.
axonal membrane is comparatively more Statement I: Impulse transmission is faster
permeable to- across an electrical synapse than that across a
(1) K+ ions chemical synapse.
(2) Na+ ions and negative protein Statement II: The pre- and post-synaptic
(3) negative protein and K+ ions
(4) K+ and Na+ ions membranes are in very close proximity at
electrical synapse as compared to chemical
174. Read the given statements and select the correct synapse.
option. (1) Both statement I and II are correct
Statement I: Electrical synapses in our body are (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
more abundant than chemical synapses. (3) Only statement I is correct
Statement II: Chemical synapses have faster
transmission of impulse as travel in axon. (4) Only statement II is correct

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179. Match Column I with Column II and choose the 183. Which of the following is correct with respect
correct combination from the options given to the state of neuron at rest?
Column I Column II (1) The inside of the neuron is negatively charged
(a) Afferent fibres (i) Relay impulses from and outside of the neuron is positively charged.
CNS to skeletal muscles (2) There is same electrical charge on both
(b) Efferent fibres (ii)Transmits impulses outside and inside of a neuron.
from the CNS to smooth (3) The outside of the neuron is more negatively
muscles charged than the inside.
(c) Somatic neural (iii) Transmits impulses (4) K+ leaks into a neuron at rest.
system from tissues/organs to
the CNS 184. _______areas of brain are responsible for
(d) Autonomic neural (iv)Transmit regulatory complex functions like intersensory association,
system impulses from the CNS memory and communication.
to tissues/organ (1) Motor (2) Sensory
(1) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
(3) Association (4) All of these
(2) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
(3) a - (iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv)
(4) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii) 185. The midbrain is located between
(1) Thalamus and hypothalamus only
180. Statement I: The endocrine system provides an (2) Pons and medulla
organized network of point-to-point connections (3) Thalmus/Hypothalamus of forebrain and
for quick coordination. pons of the hindbrain
Statement II: The neural system provides (4) Cerebrum and thalamus
chemical integration through hormones.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true. SECTION B
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false. 186. During the conduction of impulse through a
(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true. neuron, the electrical potential on the inner side
of the axonal membrane is
181. Assertion: Centres for cardiac activity are (1) First positive, then negative, and then positive
present in the medulla. (2) First negative, then positive, and then
Reason: Medulla is the terminal part of the negative
brainstem. (3) First negative, then positive, and continues
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the to be positive
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (4) First positive, then negative, and continues
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but to be negative
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion. 187. Find the incorrect match.
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(1) Thalamus-Controls respiration,
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
cardiovascular reflexes
182. In visceral neural system, impulses travel (2) Association area-Neither clearly sensory nor
(1) Only from CNS to viscera motor in function
(2) Only from viscera to CNS (3) Hypothalamus-Controls body temperature,
(3) From CNS to viscera and vice versa urge for eating and drinking
(4) From CNS to skeletal muscles (4) Corpus callosum-Tract of nerve fibres which
connect the two cerebral hemispheres

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188. Select the structure present in bipolar neuron but 195. In the myofibrils of muscle fibre :
not in unipolar neuron. (1) Myosin is found (2) Actin is found
(1) Cell body (2) Axon (3) ATP is found (4) All of these
(3) Dendrites (4) Both (1) and (2)
196 Ammonia is the chief excretory substance in :
189 The membranes enclosing the brain is known (1) Horse and whale
as: (2) Cartilaginous fishes
(1) Meninges (2) Nephron (3) Whale and tortoise
(3) Nephron (4) Axon (4) Freshwater fishes

190. 1f a person has lost his memory in an accident, 197. Protonephridia are primarily concerned with:
the following part of the brain have got injured: (1) lonic and fluid volume regulation, i.e.,
(1) Diencephalon (2) Medulla oblongata osmoregulation
(3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum (2) Removal of nitrogenous wastes and
osmoregulation
191 Write 'T' for true and 'F' for false statements and (3) Removal of nitrogenous wastes only
choose the correct answer. (4) Removal of nitrogenous wastes and maintain
(i) Cerebellum forms the major part of human a fluid and ionic balance
brain.
(ii) A deep cleft divides cerebrum transversely 198. Correct order of excretory organs in cockroach,
into two cerebral hemisphere. earthworm and man respectively :
(iii) The cerebral cortex is referred to as gray (1) Skin, malpighi tubules, kidney
matter. (2) Malpighian tubules, nephridia, kidney
(iv) Cerebral hemisphere are connected by tract (3) Nephridia, malpighi tubule, kidney
of nerve fibre called corpus callosum. (4) Nephridia, kidney, green gland
(1) (i)-T, (ii)-F, (iii)-T, (iv)-T
(2) (i)-T, (ii)-T, (iii)-F, (iv)-F 199. Match the items of column I with those of
(3) (i)-F, (ii)-T, (iii)-T, (iv)-T column II :Column I
(4) (i)-F, (ii)-F, (iii)-T, (iv)-T Column I Column II
(A) Ammonotelism (i) Birds
192 Joint between bones of cranium is : (B) Bowman's capsule (ii) Water reabsorption
(1) Hinge joint (2) Synovial joint (C) Micturition (iii) Bony fish
(3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Fibrous joint (D) Uricotelism (iv) Urinary bladder
(E) ADH (v) Renal tubule
193 Which of the following is incorrect for muscles ? (1) (A)-(v), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i), (E)-(iv)
(1) Muscle is a specialised tissue of mesodermal (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i), (E)-(iv)
origin (3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i), (E)-(ii)
(2) About 40-50 per cent of the body weight of a (4) (A)-(i), (B)-(v), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii ), (E)-(iv)
human adult is contributed by muscles
(3) They have special properties like excitability, 200. Which of the following statements is correct?
contractility, extensibility and elasticity (1) ADH- causes diuresis
(4) None of the above (2) Aldosterone-facilitates Na+ reabsorption
(3) ANF-narrowing of blood vessels
194. Mitochondira are present in : (4) Rennin-causes low blood pressure.
(1) Red muscle fibres (2) White muscle fibres
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

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