Question bank

General Feature

1. Steep gradients which need extra engine for hauling is known as

a) Pusher gradient*
b) Rulling Gradient
c) Reasonable gradient
d) Momentum gradient

2. Rising gradient followed by a falling gradient is known as

a) Rulling gradient
b) Momentum gradient*
c) Pusher graient
d) Aangular gradient

3. The safety in Railway in India is looked after by

a) Ministry of Railways
b) Commission of Railway Safety*
c) Railway Board
d) Headquarter Office

4. Longest platform of the world on BG is

a) At Sonepur station*
b) At Sasaram station
c) At Allahabad station
d) At Kharagpur station

5. The ruling gradient is 1 in 200 on a section of the BG track. If the track is laid in that
place at a curve of 5 degrees then the allowable ruling gradient on the curve will be
a) 1 in 16.7
b) 1 and 400
c) 1 in 240
d) 1 in 333*

6. The number of stations on Indian Railways is

a) 6000 approximately
b) 7070 approximately*
c) 8000 proximately
d) 9000 approximately

7. Longest tunnel on Indian Railway is

a) Kharbude tunnel on Konkan Railway*
b) Near Lonavala between Monkey hill and Khandala station
c) Kalka Shimla
d) Darjeeling hill Railway
8. Longest Railway Bridge on Indian Railway is
1. Sone Bridge at Dehri on Sone*
2. Yamuna Bridge at Kalpi
3. Ganga Bridge near Patna
4. Pamban Bridge

9. Longest passenger train on Indian Railway is

1. Prayagraj Express*
2. Kalka Mail
3. Himsagar express
4. Lucknow mail

10. Railway station at the highest altitude on Indian Railway is

1. Ghum station in Darjeeling Himalayan Railway*
2. Shimla station on Kalka Shimla railway line
3. Mount Abu and Abu Road Mount Road station
4. Joginder Nagar on Pathankot jogindernagar section

Track and track gauges

1.Track Structure for private siding with operating speed of 80 to 100 kmph is same as the
track structure as specified for

a) Group B route
b) Group A route
c) Group D route*
d)Group C route

2. Track structure for private siding with operating speed 50 to 80 kmph is the same as track
structure as specified for
a)Group A route
b) Group B route
c) Group D route
d)Group E route*

3. Indicate which of the statement is incorrect with regard to coning of Wheels

a)coning of wheels help the vehicle to negotiate a curve smoothly
b) It helps in smooth riding
c) It increases wear and Tear of wheel flanges*
d)it enables the outer wheel of vehicle to take a longer distance
e) it restricts the swaying of vehicles
4. Tilting of rails is done at a slope of
a. 1 in 30
b. 1 in 25
c. 1 in 20*
d. 1 in 15

5. Clear perpendicular distance between inner faces of two rails is

a. Gauge of track*
b. Inner gauge
c. Wheel base
d. Wheel gauge

6. The ratio of wheel diameter to gauge is about

a. 0. 40
b. 0.55
c. 0. 75*
d. 0. 90

7. The train runs faster on BG than on MG rail because its speed is directly proportional to
a) Weight of the train*
b) Gauge width
c)Policy of Railway Board
d) Length of the train

8. The ratio of maximum cant e and gauge G in India is about

a)1 / 100
b) 1 / 50
c)1 /10*
d) 1 / 25

9. “Composite sleeper index” is employed to determine

a) sleeper density requirement
b) number of fixtures required for a particular type of sleeper
c) durability of sleeper
d) mechanical strength of wooden sleepers and thereby gives its suitability as to be used as
li sleepers.*

10. The maximum permissible speed recommended for Indian Railways for 1 in 8 and half
crossing is
a)16 kmph*
b) 20 kmph
c)24 kmph
d) 32 kmph
11.What is the weight per meter length of 52 kg Rail?
a. 54.14 kg
b. 50.25 kg
c. 51.89 kg*
d. 53.85 kg

12.What is the height of 60 kg rail section?

a. 180 mm
b. 172 mm*
c. 185 mm
d. 165 mm

13.In M+7 sleeper density, how many sleepers are there in a km Track.
a. 1660 nos
b. 1540 nos.*
c. 1310 nos.
d. 1440 nos.

14.What is the assessed GMT service life of 60 kg 90 UTS rail?

a. 650 GMT
b. 600 GMT
c. 800 GMT*
d. 500 GMT

15.What is the assessed GMT service life of 52 kg 90 UTS rail.

a. 650 GMT
b. 600 GMT
c. 525 GMT*
d. 500 GMT

16.What is the full form UTS of rails

a. Ultimate technical Strength
b. Ultimate tensile Strength*
c. Upper Top surface
d. None of above

17.What is the width of Head of 52 kg Rail section

a. 70 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 67 mm*
d. 60 mm

18.What is the full form of GMT

a. Gross Million Tonnes*
b. Gross minimum thickness
c. Gross Maximum thickness
d. None of above

19.In Indian Railway how many Gauges of Track has been adopted
a. 1
b. 3*
c. 2
d. 4

20.What is the Highest speed of train in Indian Railway

a. 140 KMPH
b. 120 kmph
c. 160 kmph*
d. 130 kmph

21.How many divisions in Northern Railway

a. 5*
b. 4
c. 6
d. 3

22.What do you mean by BG

a. Big Gauge
b. Broad Gauge*
c. Buffer gauge
d. None of above

23.What do you mean by RDSO

a. Research & Development Standard organisation*
b. Railway Development & Standard organisation
c. Regional Development & Standard organisation
d. None of above

24.Where is the Head Quarter of Northern Railway

a. New Delhi*
b. Lucknow
c. Mumbai
d. Calcutta

25.What is the highest post in Railway

a. General Manager
b. Chief Engineer
c. Chairman Railway Board*
d. Divisional Railway Manager

26.What is the standard distance between lines in Broad Gauge

a. 1670 mm
b. 1676 mm*
c. 1665 mm
d. 1680 mm

27.What do you mean by LWR

a. Long welded Rail*
b. Long weld able Rail
c. Linear welded rail
d. None of above.

28.On the basis of temperature how many zones are in Indian railway
a. 2
b. 6
c. 4*
d. 7

29.What is the minimum distance centre to centre of straight tracks for new works/alterations to
existing works.
a. 4265 mm.
b.3660 mm.
c.5300 mm.*
d 4365 mm.

30.What is the full form of OMS used for track recording

a. Outer most Surface
b. Oscillation Monitoring system*
c. Only measuring system
d. Official measurement system
31.What is the frequency of track recording of the sections having speed more than 110 kmph
to 130 kmph
a. 4 Months
b. 2 Months
c. 6 Months
d. 3 Months*

32.What is the full form of PQRS used for Track renewal works.
a. Plasser quick Relaying system*
b. Please quick return services
c. Poor Quality renewal system
d. None of above

33.Minimum radius of curve on Broad gauge

a. 175 meter*
b. 215 meter
c. 146 meter
d. 200 meter
34.Minimum check rail clearance at Level crossing
a. 45 mm
b. 51 mm*
c. 50 mm
d. 57 mm

35.Maximum height above rail level of high passenger Platform

a. 860 mm
b. 900 mm
c. 840 mm&*
d. 875 mm

36.Minimum clearance between toe of Open switch and stock rail for new works
a. 115 mm*
b. 120 mm
c. 95 mm
d. 110 mm

37.What is the formula of TGI for track recording

a. UI+4TI+6GI+AI/10
b. 2UI+TI+GI+6AI/10*
c. 3UI+TI+2GI+5AI/10
d. 2UI+2tI+2GI+4AI/10

38.What is the limit of Unevenness of A category of track

a. 0 to 10 mm
b. 0 to 5 mm
c. 0 to 6 mm*
d. 0 to 8 mm

39.What is the difference between rail flange of 60 kg & 52 rail section

a. 20 mm
b. 18 mm
c. 14 mm*
d. 16 mm

40. what is the value of long chord for measuring unevenness in track recording

a. 3.6 meter
b. 9.6 meter*
c. 7.2 meter
d. 4.8 meter

41. Frequency of TTM tamping on PSC sleepers track

a. 2 years or 100 GMT which ever is earlier*
b. 2 years or 150 GMT which ever is earlier
c. 1.5 years or 200 GMT which ever is earlier
d. 2 years or 175 GMT which ever is earlier

42. How many sleepers are there in Fan shaped 1 in 12 turnout

a. 85 sleepers
b. 96 sleepers*
c. 90 sleepers
d. 100 sleepers

43.Minimum wing rail clearance opposing nose of crossing on Fan shaped turnout
a. 45 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 41 mm*
d. 44 mm

44.Overall length of fan shaped 1 in 12 Turnout

a. 39975 mm*
b. 41004 mm
c. 28613 mm
d. None of above

45.What is the full form of TGI

a. Track Geometry Index*
b. Track general Index
c. Track gravity Index
d. None of above

46.Permissible speed of Turnout with 1 in 12 curved switches

a. 40 kmph*
b. 25 kmph
c. 15 kmph
d. 20 kmph

47.Permissible speed of Turnout with 1 in 8.5 curved switches

a. 40 kmph
b. 25 kmph*
c. 15 kmph
d. 20 kmph

48.How many green flags are with Patroller during Hot weather patrolling.
a. 02
b. 03
c. 01
d. None of above*
49.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for TTM tamping operation in LWR/CWR.
a. Gang Mate
b. PWS
c. PWI*
d. Keyman.

50.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Lifting/Lowering of track in LWR/CWR.

a. Keyman.
b. Gangmate.
c. PWI.
d. PWS.*

51.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for packing or renewal of single isolated sleeper
not requiring lifting or slewing of track in LWR/CWR.
a. PWI
b. Keyman
c. Gangmate*
d. PWS

52.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent of Renewal of fastenings not requiring lifting in

LWR/CWR.
a. PWS
b. Gangmate
c. Keyman*
d. Gangman

53.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Renewal/recoupment of fastenings requiring

lifting in LWR/CWR.
a. PWS
b. Gangmate*
c. Keyman
d. Gangman

54.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Screening of ballast other than deep
screening in LWR/CWR.
a. PWS
b. Keyman
c. Gangmate*
d. Gangman

55.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Organising Hot weather patrolling during
summer months in LWR/CWR.
a. Gangmate
b. PWI*
c. Keyman
d. PWS
31. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for all operations regarding distressing in
LWR/CWR.
a. PWI*
b. PWS
c. Gangmate
d. Keyman

56.Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for passing of first train after buckling in
LWR/CWR.
a. PWI*
b. PWS
c. Gangmate
d. Keyman

57.How many zones are in Indian railway

a. 8
b. 10
c. 16*
d. 12

58.In LWR What is the range of Destressing temperature in 52 kg and heavier section
a. Mean rail temp+5 0C to Mean rail temp+10 0C*
b. Mean rail temp+5 0C to Mean rail temp+15 0C
c. Mean rail temp to Mean rail temp+10 0C
d. Mean rail temp+2 0C to Mean rail temp+10 0C

59.What is full form of SPURT car

a. Self propelled ultrasonic rail testing car*
b. Self pulled united rail testing car
c. Self pumped universal testing car
d. None of above

60.What do you mean by 60 kg rail

a. Weight of rail in 1 meter*
b. Area of rail of 1 meter
c. Weight of rail in 1 feet
d. Volume of rail in 1 meter

61.Points & Crossing is laid at a cant of

a. 1 in 20
b. 1 in 10
c. 1 in 15
d. NIL*
62.Minimum permissible vertical wear on nose of a 52 kg CMS crossing on Rajdhani route is
i) 6mm
ii) 8mm*
iii) 10mm
iv) 12 mm

63.Normal life of detonators is

e. 5 years
f. 10 years
g. 7 years *
h. 6 years.

64.Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges on bridges with main spans of 100metre or more
is
i. 50 mtr
j. 100 mtr
k. 200 mtr
l. a refuge over each pair*

65.Permissible creep in track is

m. 50 mm
n. 100 mm
o. 125 mm
p. 150 mm.*

66. Maximum distance covered in a day by a Patrolman should not normally exceed
q. 2 km.
r. 5 km.
s. 10 km.
t. 20 km .*

67.Curve inspection shall be carried out by Sectional PWI

a. Once in three months
b. Once in six months
c. Once in four months*
d. None of above
68.An accident has taken place at out station and main line is blocked and relief train is to be
turned out without medical car. The hooter shall be:
a. 3 long
b. 4 long*
c. 4 long, 1 short
d. 3 long, and 1 short

69.Minimum speed restriction to be imposed for Track renewal is:-

(a) Stop dead & 10 Kmph
(b) 10 Kmph
 (c) 15 Kmph
(d) 20 Kmph*

70.Service life in terms of total GMT carried for 52 kg. 90 UTS rail is:-
(a) 425 GMT
(b) 475 GMT
(c) 525 GMT*
(d) 545 GMT

71.Minimum rail section recommended for section having traffic more than 20 GMT is
(a) 90 UTS
(b) 52 Kg.
(c) 60 Kg.*
(d) None of the above.

72.Lubrication of ERC and inserts in corrosion prone areas and platform line is done:-
(a) Once in a month.
(b) Once in a fortnight.
(c) Once in a week.
(d) Once in a year.*

73.Vertical wear permissible for 60kg/90UTS. rails is:-

(a) 23 mm.
(b) 10 mm.
(c) 13 mm.*
(d) 15 mm.

74. Permissible wear of web & foot of rail due to corrosion is:-
(a) 15 mm.
(b) 1.5 mm.*
(c) 0.5 mm.
(d) 2.5 mm.

75.Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of sleeper at the rail seat on BG group
A route should be :-
(a) 350 mm.
(b) 250 mm.
(c) 300 mm.*
(d) 325 mm.

76.Sleeper density for group ‘A’ route with traffic density more than 20 GMT is:-
(a) 1560 sleepers/ Km.
(b) 1660 sleepers/ Km.*
(c) 1540 sleepers/ Km.
(d) 1340 sleepers/ Km.
77.Track structure for CC+8 t+ 2 t loaded trains is:-
(a) 52 Kg 90 UTS;PSC 1540 sleepers/ Km.; 250 mm ballast.
(b) 60 Kg 90 UTS;PSC 1660 sleepers/ Km.; 300 mm ballast.*
(c) 52 Kg 72 UTS;PSC 1540 sleepers/ Km.; 300 mm ballast.
(d) 90 R;PSC 1340 sleepers/ Km.; 250 mm ballast.

78.Deep screening of entire track must be done at least:-

(a) Once in a quarter.
(b) Once in a year.
(c) Once in 5 years.
(d) Once in 10 years.*

79.Service life of Glued insulated rail joint of 60 Kg rail is:-

(a) 300 GMT.
(b) 200 GMT.*
(c) 400 GMT.
(d) 150 GMT.

80.Service life of improved SEJ of 60 Kg rail is:-

(a) 400 GMT.
(b) 300 GMT.
(c) 200 GMT.*
(d) 150 GMT.

81.Service life of CMS crossing ( 52 Kg rail) is:-

(a) 400 GMT.
(b) 300 GMT.
(c) 200 GMT.
(d) 150 GMT.*

82.D&G charges for works estimates of CTR(P) is:-

(a) 2.25%.
(b) 1.8%.*
(c) 1.35%.
(d) 1.62%.

83. What is speed restriction on deep screening site done by BCM and tamped by machine
followed with DGS?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40*
(d) 10
 (Accidents, Derailments & Disaster Management,)

(1) ACD means

(a) Anti collision Devise*
(b) Accidents causing death
(c) Accidents causing derailment
(d) None of the above

(2) Duration of short hooter is……..

(a) 5 seconds*
(b) 10 seconds
(c) 15 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
(3) For taking track measurement at accident site stations shall be marked at ……..
Apart.
(a) 1m
(b) 2m
(c) 3m*
(d) 5m
(4) Flat tyre causes maximum damage at a speed of
(a) 90 to 100 kmph
(b) 25 to 30 kmph*
(c) 10 to 15 kmph
(d) 15 to 20 kmph
(5) As per IRCA rules, the rejection limits for wheel flange thickness is -
(a) 38mm
(b) 25.4mm
(c) 16mm*
(d) 20 mm
(6) Where Enquiries are ordered by DRM the enquiry report should be submitted to DRM
within
(a) 5 days
(b) 7 days*
(c) 10 days
(d) 12 days
(7) In a semi permanent (BG) diversion the gradient should not be steeper then
(a) 1 in 75
(b) 1 in 125
(c) 1 in 100 *
(d) 1 in 150
(8) An accident will be termed as serious accident when the loss of Railway property is
more then
(a) 3 lacs
 (b) 10 lacs
(c) 25lacs*
(d) 15 lacs
(9) *Collision as per new classification is classified as
(a) A class*
(b) B class
(C) C class
(d) none of these

(10) Number of hooters to be sounded, when the accident takes place is Loco shed or in
traffic

(a) One long hooter

(b) Two long hooters
(c) Two long & one short
(d) none to these

(11) Number of hooters to be sounded, when accident takes place out station, but main
line is clear:

(a) 02 long
(b) 03 long*
(c) 03 long 01 short*
(d) none of these

(12) Duration of lone Hooter is:

(a) 20 seconds
(b) 25 seconds
(c) 30 seconds*
(d) 50 seconds

(13) “Accident Drill” is organized by:

(a) Engg. Officers

(b) Operating Officers
(c) Engg. & operating officers *
(d) none of these

(14) When flange contact of wheel leads tread contact. Then it is known as:

(a) Zero angularity

(B) Negative angularity
(c) Positive angularity*
(d) none of these
(15) The condition will be called as thin flange, when the flange thickness becomes less
the:

(a) 10mm
(b) 12mm
(c) 16mm*
(d) 15mm

(16) Min. sleeper density in case of semi permanent diversion-

(a) (m + 2)
(b) (m + 3)*
(c) (m + 4)
(d) ( m + 7 )

(17) As per new classification of railway accident, floods breaches & land slides’ is
classified in the following class

(a) Class J
(b) Class K
(c) Class Q
(d) Class R*

(17) Diplorry can be worked:

(a) In block*
(B) without block
(c) With look put caution
(d) None of these

(18) Min. authority to be Incharge of lorry.

(a) Keyman
(b) Mate
(c) PWS*
(d) none of these

(19) UCC is abbreviated for

(a) Uncontrolled cement concrete

(b) Unified Control Command
(c) Unified Command Centre*
(d) none of them

(20) In a semi permanent (BG) diversion the gradient should not be steeper then
(a) 1 in 75
(b) 1 in 125
(c) 1 in 100*
(d) 1 in 150

(Schedule of Dimensions)

(1) The minimum centre to centre distance of a B.G. track in mid-section is ………..
mm
(a) 4200
(b) 4265*
(C) 4350
(d) 4000

(2) Any deviations from the Schedule of dimensions will require prior sanction of
……….
(a) Zonal Rly
(b) Rly Board*
(c) CRS
(d) All of them

(3) The maximum gradient in station yards should be ……. Unless special safely devices
are adopted and/or special rules enforced.
(a) 1 in 400*
(B) 1 in 500
(c) 1 in 1000
(D) 1 In 600

(4) The recommended maximum gradient in the year for B.G is-
(a) 1 in 1000
(b) 1 in 1200*
( c) 1 in 1500
(d) 1 in 1800

(5)For B.G. the minimum radius of a curve is ………

(a) 150m
(b) 175*
(c) 200m
(d) 225m

(6) Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is ……. M or less in B.G.
(a) 150m
(b) 200m
(c) 208m*
(d) 225m

(7) On B.G. maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing are

(a) 51mm
( b ) 57mm*
(c) 65mm
(d) 54mm

(8) Minimum depth of space for wheel flange form rail level in B.G. is …… mm
(A) 35
(B) 38*
(C) 42
(D) 45

( 9 ) The minimum horizontal distances form centre of track to face of passenger

platform coping for B.G. is ……. Mm
(A) 1650 MM.
(B) 1670 MM*
(C)1676 MM
(D) 1685 MM

(10) What is maximum height above rail level for low-level passenger platform for BG?
(a) 300mm
(b) 455mm*
(c) 525mm
(d) 550mm

(11) Maximum curvature permitted on B.G. is

(a) 8 degree
(b) 10 degree*
(c) 12 degree
(d) 16 degree

(12) The minimum track centres in B.G. double line is

(a) 4500 mm
(b) 4750 mm
(c) 5000 mm
(d) 5300 mm*

(13) Maximum height of rolling stock on BG should be

(a) 2745mm
(b) 3250mm
(c) 3450mm
(d) 4140mm*

(14) Maximum width of rolling stock on BG should be

(a) 4745mm
(b) 3250mm*
(c) 3450mm
(d) 4140mm

(15) The gradient of a platform is generally

(a) 1 in 1000
(b) 1 in 750
(c) 1 in 500*
(d) 1 in 250

(16) Maximum clearance of check rails at level crossing for B.G. should be

(a) 48mm
(b) 57mm*
(c) 51mm
(d) 44mm

(17) Height gauges should be located at a minimum distance of….. from gate post.

(a) 5 m
(b) 7.5m
(c) 8m*
(d)10m

(18) O.D.C. Stands for

(a) On direct current

(b) Over dimensioned consignment*
(c) None of them
(d) Operating & gate

(19) In case of ‘A’ Class ODC escort is………..

(a) Necessary
(b) not necessary*
(c) does not matter
(d) on direct current

(20) For A class ODC, the gross clearance over maximum moving dimension of B.G is
(a) 150mm
(b) 175mm
(c) 225 mm*
(d) (d) 250mm

(21) For A Class, the gross clearance of over maximum moving dimension for BG is

(a) 100mm
(b) 125mm
(c) 150mm*
(d) 175mm

(22) Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is …. M or less in B.G.
(a) 150m
(b) 200m
(c) 218m*
(d) 240m

(23) On B.G. maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing are

(a) 51 mm
(b) 57mm*
(c) 65mm
(d) 70mm

(24) The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platform is ……. Mm

(a) 1000mm
(b) 1050mm
(c) 1065mm*
(d) 1075mm

(25) Minimum clearance of check rails for B.G. at level crossing should be

(a) 48mm
(b) 57mm
(c) 51mm*
(d) 44mm

Water supply
1. Specific yield of well is
a) Discharge per unit time
b) Yield of well per metre of drawdown*
c) Velocity of water per unit time
d)None of the above

2.While taking sample of water from well, sample is collected

a)About 2 metre above the bottom of wel
b) About 1 metre above the bottom of well *
c)About 1 metres below the bottom of well
d) none of the above

3. While collecting sample of water from tap the

a) Mouth of tap is heated for 5 minutes*
b) Mouth of tap is heated for 10 minutes
c)Mouth of tap is not heated
d)none of the above

4. Demand of water for passengers on railway station is

a)10 litres per passenger
b)15 litres per passenger
c) 20 litres for passenger
d) 25 litres per passenger*

5. Peak hour demand of water is taken as ---------- times the average daily demand
a)1.5
b)1.9
c)2.25*
d)2.75

6. The spacing of tube wells should generally be more than ----------from the circle of influence
a)10 metre
b)50 metre
c)100 metre*
d) 500 metre

7. The capacity of highest storage tank with efficient standby pump should be higher of the
following figures
a)1/4 the maximum water consumption in 24 hours
b)1/3 the normal water consumption in 24 hours
c)1/4 the normal water consumption in 24 hours.
d) a or b*
e) b or c
f) a of c
8. With regard to standard of quality of drinking water as laid down by Indian Railway , the
requirement (desirable) limit of total dissolved solids should not be more than---------- mg/l
a)200
b) 300
c) 400
d) 500*

9. Chandigarh is a city which has roads generally parallel or perpendicular to each other. The
ideal water supply system in such a city should be
a. Dead and system
b. Grid Iron system*
c. Ring system
d. Any of them
10. Give the most matching option out of list one and list to with regard to pipe appurtenances of
fittings
Llist I type of fitting) List -II(Function of the fitting)
A) Sluice Valves or gate Valves 1. We are provided to stop and regulate the
flow of water in course of ordinary and
emergency operations
B) Scour Valve 2. These are automatic cut off valves. when
pressure of water exceeds specific limit the wall operates automatically and saves a particular
section of pipe before bursting takes place
C) Air Valve 3. These are located at dead end and the lowest
points or depressions in the water mains. Hence are operated to remove sand or silt deposited in
the water pipe
D) Relief Valve 4. Whenever there are distinct high points in the
gradient of the pipeline. They are installed to permit expulsion of air
Matching option
A B C D
(a ) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 4 2*
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1

11. From distribution main of 40 mm size , number of service pipe of 15 mm size can be taken
off are---------
a) 3
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12*

12. From the distribution main of 40 mm size, number of service pipe of 20 mm size can be
taken off are -------
a)3
B) 6*
c) 10
d) 12

13. From distribution main of 50 mm size, number of service pipes of 15 mm size can be taken
off are ------
a) 6
b)10
c) 12
e):20*

14. PH value of drinking water as per wh0 standards should lie between
a)5 and 5.5
b)6 and 7
c) 7 and 7.5
d)7 and 8.5*

12. The amount of residual chlorine after a period of contact 10 to 20 minutes is

a. 0.1 to 0.2 ppm.*
b. 0.2 to 0.3 ppm.
c. 0.3 to 0.4 ppm
d. 0.4 to 0.5ppm
13. A rural water supply serves a population of 10, 000 at the rate of 50 litres per capita per day
. For the chlorine dose of 2 PPM the required amount of bleaching powder with 20% available
chlorine will be
a. 0.5 kg
b. 5 kg *
c. 10 kg
d. 15 kg
14. The main drawback of centrifugal pump is
a)necessity of priming
b) discharge from pump varies with the load of water
c) For high heads efficiency is low up to 50%
d) the suction lift is limited to 6 metre
e) all of the above*

15.Aeration Of water is done to remove

a) Odour*
b) Colour
c) Bacterias
d) Hardness
e) Turbidity

16. Requirement of water for platform washing is

a)5 litre per square metre per day *
b)10 litre per square meter per day
c) 15 litre per square metre per day
d)20 litre per square metre per day
17. Requirement of water for apron washing
a. 5 litre per square metre per day
b. 10 litre per square metre per day *
c. 15 litre per square metre per day
d. 20 litre per square metre per day

18. The pumping system should be capable of supplying the normal quantity of water required in
24 hours in
a)12 hours or less
b) 16 hours or less
c) 20 hours or less*
d) 8 hours or less

19. Water connection given to contractor for construction work can be discontinued by giving a
notice of
a)3 days*
b) 2 days
c)7 days
d) no notice is required

BRIDGE

1. Initial inspection for PSC girders / Welded girder bridges as per IRBM 1998
a) Within one year of installation*
b) Once in 3 years
d) Once in 2 years
d) Once in 5 years

2. Periodical inspection of Welded girders

a) Once in 3 years
b) Once in 3 years*
c) Once in 2 years
d) Once in 5 years

3. Periodical inspection of PSC & Composite girders

 a) Once in 3 years
b) Once in 5 years *
c) Once in 2 years
d) Once in 5 years

4. The date of painting of steel work should be painted in white on the out side of the left girder
a) of the 1st span only
b) first span only but on all spans for Imp. Bridges*
c) of the all spans
d) None of the above

5. Camber in steel triangulated girder is provided to compensate for deflection

a) Under live load and dead load*
b) Under live load
c) Under dead load
d) None of the above

6. The length of the snap head rivet shank is, when L = length of the rivet,
G = length of grip in mm; D = Dia of rivet in mm
a) L =G +1.5 D + 1mm for every 4 mm of grip or part thereof *
b) b) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm
c) L =G +0.5 D
d) None of the above

7. The length of the countersunk head rivet shank is, when L = length of the rivet,
G = length of grip in mm; D = Dia of rivet in mm
a) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm for every 4 mm of grip or part thereof *
b) b) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm
c) L =G +0.5 D
d) None of the above

8.A bridge is generally specified as “Br. No. 180 (5x9.10m G) at km 345/5-6”.

a) Effective Span
b) Width of bridge
c) Clear Span*
d) Overall length of bridge

9. The strength of a bridge is termed as MBG loading of 1987. MBG refers to

a) Model Broad Gauge
b) Modified Budget Grant
 c) Model Budget grant
d) Modified Broad Gauge*

10.In a temporary signaling arrangements for a bridge work in BG section, caution board shall be
placed in advance of ……. m from start of the bridge/ work spot.
a) 30 m
b) 1200 m*
c) 677 m
d) 1000 m

11. Free Board is the level difference between Formation Level and …………….
a) Rail Level
b) HFL*
c) Bed Level
d) Danger Level

12. Minimum Free Board required in a bridge is

a) 1 m*
b) 1.20 m
c) 600 mm
d) 300 mm

13. Vertical Clearance (VC) in water way bridges is the level difference between
a) HFL and Formation level
b) Bed level and bottom of superstructure
c) HFL and bottom of superstructure*
d) Rail level and Formation level

14. Depth of construction in a girder bridge means the depth from

a) RL to HFL
b) RL to top of bed block *
c) RL to bottom of bed block
d) RL to Bed level

15. Skew of a bridge is the angle between

a) C.L. of water course to C.L. of track
b) C.L. of water course to C.L. of pier
c) C.L. of water course/road to normal (perpendicular) of C.L. of track*
d) C.L. of abutment to C.L. of pier

16. Angle of crossing of a bridge is the angle between

 a) C.L. of water course/road to C.L. of track*
b) C.L. of water course to C.L. of pier
c) C.L. of water course to normal (perpendicular) of C.L. of track
d) C.L. of abutment to C.L. of pier

17. In a single span bridge, the clear span is the distance between
a) Centres of Abutments
b) Inner faces of Abutments*
c) Outer faces of Abutments
d) Width of Abutment

18. Sub structure of a bridge does not include

a) Abutment
b) Girder/Slab*
c) Piers
d) Wing and Return walls

19. Super structure of a bridge includes

a) Girder/Slab*
b) Abutment
c) Piers
d) Bed block

20. Bearings are provided in bridges to transfer the load to

a) Super structure
b) Track
c) Embankment
d) Sub structure*
21. Wing walls and return walls are provided to retain
a) earth on approaches
b) ballast
c) track on approaches
d) none

22. In a temporary signaling arrangements for a bridge work in BG section, speed board shall
be placed in advance of 30 m from the
a) C.L. of the bridge
b) Termination Board
c) Start of the bridge/work spot*
d) Caution Board
23. In shallow type girders, the rail level shall be
a) 25mm above the top flange of girder*
b) near the bottom of the girder
c) near the middle of the girder
d) below the girder

24. The load transferred from rails to bottom flanges is in

a) deck type girder
b) through type girder*
c) semi-through type girder
d) plate girder

25. The load transferred from rails to web of girders is in

a) deck type girder
b) through type girder
c) semi-through type girder*
d) plate girder

26. The medium to transfer loads from superstructure to substructure is called

a) Abutment
b) Bed block
c) Bearing
d) Pier

27. Temporary staging for casting PSC Box Girder for a ROB over the Railway span shall be
removed
a) after hardening of concrete
b) before hardening of concrete
c) during concreting
d) after stressing the cables.*

28. The horizontal clearance of edge of foot over bridge structure from face of platform is
a) 6525 mm
b) 3660 mm*
c) 5330 mm
d) 5300 mm

29. The vertical clearance of bottom most foot over bridge structure above rail level is
a) 6525 mm*
 b) 3660 mm
c) 5330 mm
d) 6250 mm

30. The minimum vertical clearance of foot over bridge gangway is

a) 2100 mm
b) 3660 mm
c) 6525 mm
d) 2710 mm

31. The horizontal clearance between guard rail and running rail in BG track is
a) 25 mm
b) 250 ± 50 mm*
c) 75 mm
d) 200 ± 50 mm

32. The level of guard rail in bridges shall not be lower than that of running rail by more than
a) 25 mm*
b) 55 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 65 mm

33. The guard rail is provided in bridges to

a) prevent derailment in bridges
b) prevent falling of vehicles during derailment*
c) have good riding
d) guide the wheels

34. Steel channel sleepers are provided in bridges with superstructure of

a) PSC slab
b) PSC girder
c) Steel girder*
d) RCC Box

35.Minimum earth cushion required over RCC Box is

a) 300 mm
b) 600 mm
c) 0*
d) 1000 mm

36.The minimum vertical clearance above R.L. to bottom of ROB near the yard shall be
 a) 6525 mm*
b) 5870 mm
c) 2360 mm
d) 6250 mm

37. The minimum vertical clearance in RUB in rural area shall be

a) 5870 mm
b) 6525 mm
c) 5000 mm*
d) 5500 mm

38. The minimum vertical clearance in RUB in urban area shall be

a) 5870 mm
b) 6525 mm
c) 5000 mm
d) 5500 mm*

39. The embankment width in approach of the bridge shall be

a) 5870 mm
b) 6525 mm
c) 6850 mm*
d) 6000 mm

40. The height gauge need to be provided in

a) ROB
b) RUB*
c) FOB
d) Fly Over

41. The CRS sanction is required in the ROB project for construction of
a) Approach spans
b) Laying road
c) Railway spans
d) none

42. The temporary girders are generally required for the bridge works
a) on traffic condition*
b) under mega block
c) in cut and open method
d) in new route
43. The diameter of hole for 20 dia rivet shall be
a) 23 mm
b) 18 mm
c) 21.5 mm*
d) 22 mm

44. IS code for Steel structures is

a) IS 236
b) IS 226
c) IS 456
d) IS 800*

45. Pipe culvert is a/an

a) major bridge
b) minor bridge*
c) unimportant bridge
d) important bridge

46. One of the following works does not require CRS sanction
a) Regirdering/ Rebuilding
b) Erection of new FOB
c) Erection of platform shelter*
d) Pipe line crossing

47. Facia boards of platform shelters shall have a minimum horizontal clearance of …….
from C.L. of track at a minimum height of 4.61m above RL.
a) 2360 mm
b) 3660 mm
c) 3000 mm
d) 1600 mm*

48. At FOBs in electrified section the electrocution by live OHE wires is prevented by
providing
a) smoke gaurds
b) Roofing
c) Bottom lateral bracings
d) protective screens*

49. One of the following is a shallow foundation

a) Pile foundation
b) Raft foundation*
 c) Under reamed pile foundation
d) Well foundation

50. Minimum vertical clearance (VC) for a slab/ girder bridges with discharge of 0-30
cumecs is
a) 300 mm
b) 1500 mm
c) 1800 mm
d) 600 mm*

51. Maximum vertical clearance (VC) for a slab/ girder bridges with discharge above 3000
cumecs is
a) 300 mm
b) 1500 mm
c) 1800 mm*
d) 600 mm

52. For end bearing piles, the minimum spacing of piles of diameter ‘d’ shall be
a) 3d
b) 2d
c) 2.5d*
d) 5d
53.
54. Weep holes are provided in
a) piers
b) trestle piers
c) foundation
d) abutments*

55. The pressure on soil worked out shall be ……… the SBC of the soil.
a) more than
b) equal to
c) not equal to
d) less than*

56. ………….. soil has the least SBC of the soil.

a) Hard moorum
b) Stiff clay
c) Black cotton soil*
d) Soft rock
57. The minimum edge distance for rivets of diameter ‘d’ in steel plates shall be
a) 2 x d
 b) 3 x d
c) 1.5 x d*
d) 2.5 x d

58. The minimum pitch of rivets of diameter ‘d’ in steel plates shall be
a) 2 x d
b) 3 x d
c) 1.75 x d
d) 2.5 x d*

58) Rail Cluster, as temporary arrangement can be used upto a span of

a) 3.66m*
b) 6.1m
c) 12.2m
d) 18.3 m

59) Speed restriction required for using CC cribs as temporary arrangement is

a) 20 kmph*
b) 40 kmph
c) 35 kmph
d) 30 kmph

60) The minimum cushion specified over an arch bridge is --

a) 0.5m
b) 0.9m
c) 1.0m*
d) 1.2 m

61) In case of water crossing danger level in bridges

a) speed restriction be imposed
b) traffic be suspended till water recedes
c) traffic be suspended till a responsible person inspects the site and declares it safe
for running traffic*
d) bridge watchman is to be posted

62) From fatigue considerations, bridges are designed for --

a) 2 million cycles
b) 1 million cycle
c) 10 million cycles*
d) 3 million cycles

63) Structural steel for railway loading above 0oC temperature conforms to --
 a) IS 2062 grade A
b) IS 2062 grade B*
c) IS 2062 grade C
d) None of the above

64) Bearings for plate girders are --

a) roller bearing
b) sliding bearings
c) centralised articulated bearings*
d) None of the above

65) Bentonite is used in pile driving --

a) to facilitate pile driving
b) to enable proper pile concreting
c) to stabilize the bore hole walls*
d) None of the above

66) In a routine pile load test the test load is --

a) 1.25 times the design load
b) 1.5 times the design load*
c) 1.75 times the design load
d) 2 times the design load

67) In the eight digit code given in the rating system the first digit is called --
a) URN
b) ORN*
c) CRN
d) None of the above
68) An important bridge is one which has total waterway of equal to or more than
a) 1000 sq.metres.*
b) 800 sq. metres
c) 500 sq. metres
d) 300 sq. metres

69) Well foundation may be of the following type

a) circular
b) D type
c) Double D type
d) Any of the above*
70) Maximum tilt specified during sinking of well foundation is
a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 100*
d) 1 in 150

71) Foundation and substructure of the bridge should be inspected by SE/P.Way/Works

a) Once a year any time
b) Once a year before monsoon*
c) Once a year after monsoon
d) Once in 3 months

72) For a major bridge, the URN would comprise of

a) single digit
b)eight digits*
c) six digits
d) four digits

73) Speed restrictions is suggested for distressed bridges on Group I

a) upto maximum of 15 kmph*
b) 25 kmph
c) 50 kmph
d) 60 kmph

74) Speed restrictions is suggested for distressed bridges on Group II

a) upto maximum of 15 kmph
b) 25 kmph to 50 kmph*
c) 75 kmph
d) 60 kmph

75) Settlement of foundations or Tilted piers and abutments will be considered as distressed
bridge as
a) Group I*
b) Group II
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

76) Cracks in return walls/ wing walls or Slight tilting/ bulging of abutments are the signs of
distressed bridge under
a) Group I
b) Group II*
 c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

77) In arch bridges, Cracks/ lean/ bulge in parapet walls, Bulging or separation of spandrel
from arch barrel, are the signs of distressed bridge under
a) Group I
b) Group II*
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

78) Special inspection of distressed bridges shall be carried out by Asst. Engineer is
a) Once in three months
b) Once in two months*
c) Once in a month
d) Once in six months

79) Special inspection of distressed bridges Group II shall be carried out by Inspector
(Concerned) is
a) Once in three months*
b) Once in two months
c) Once in a month
d) Once in six months

80) Temporary arrangements for rebuilding of Railway bridges can be executed by providing
a) Temporary girder
b) Temporary diversion
c) Any of the above*
d) None of the above

81) Callendar Hamilton spans are normally available maximum up to

a) 60 ft.
b) 100 ft.
c) 150 ft.
d) 200 ft.*

82) In areas where there is no severe corrosion Finishing coat will be

a) Two coats of aluminium paint to IS : 2339
b) One coat of zinc chromate priming to IS : 104
c) Two cover coats of red oxide paint to IS :123*
 d) One coat of zinc chrome - red oxide priming to IS : 2074

83) In areas where there is severe corrosion Finishing coat will be

a) Two coats of aluminium paint to IS : 2339*
b) One coat of zinc chromate priming to IS : 104
e) Two cover coats of red oxide paint to IS :123
f) One coat of zinc chrome - red oxide priming to IS : 2074

84) Entire steel work of girder bridge should be painted at regular interval; known as
a) patch painting
b) periodical through painting*
c) Any of the above
d) None of the above

85) When as small area of girder bridge should be painted when requiring immediate
painting; known as
a) patch painting*
b) periodical through painting
c) Any of the above
d) None of the above

86) Elcometer is used to measure the ………..

a) cross level
b) Gauge
c) Thickness of paint*
d) All the above

87) Repairing by cement pressure grouting can be adopted in case of

a) Honey comb concrete
b) Hollow masonry, Dormant cracks
c) Deep leached mortar joints
d) all the above*

88) Cement pressure grouting is suitable for

a) Very fine crack
b) weathered concrete
c) Active crack where cause of crack is known and remedial action has been taken*
d) Crushed masonry
89) Epoxy pressure grouting is suitable for
a) wide and deep crack
b) fine and deep crack
c) fine but not very deep crack*
 d) None of the above

90) In cement pressure grouting, pressure is kept as

a) 2 to 4 kg./sqcm.*
b) 3 to 6 kg./sqcm.
c) 3 to 10 kg./sqcm.
d) 3.5 to 7 kg./sqcm.

91) In Epoxy pressure grouting, pressure is kept as

a) 2 to 4 kg./sqcm.
b) 3 to 6 kg./sqcm.
c) 3 to 10 kg./sqcm.
d) 3.5 to 7 kg./sqcm.*

92) In cement pressure grouting, water cement ratio is kept as

a) 0.4 to 0.5*
b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.25 to 0.35
d) 0.35 to 0.5

93) In guniting/ shotcreting , water cement ratio is kept as

a) 0.4 to 0.5
b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.25 to 0.35
d) 0.35 to 0.5*

94) In cement pressure grouting holes should be drilled at spacing in both direction at
a) 150 – 500 mm
b) 450 mm
c) 500 – 750 mm*
d) 1000 mm

95) In cement pressure grouting G.I pipes of diameter …… and ……length, should be fixed
in drilled holes
a) 12 to 20 mm, 200 mm*
b) 12 to 20 mm, 300 mm
c) 12 to 25 mm, 500 mm
d) 20 to 25 mm, 300 mm
96) Paint is the mixture of …….
a) Binder, Pigment & Solvent*
b) Binder & Pigment
c) Binder & Solvent
d) None of the above

97) CC Crib stands for

a) Cement concrete
b) Criss crossing
c) Christ church*
d) None of the above

98) While painting with red oxide paint, a little quantity of ………..shall be added to the
paint while doing the first coat to distinguish it from the second coat
a) little blue paint
b) lamp black*
c) red paint
d) green paint

99) While painting with Aluminium paint, a little quantity of ………..shall be added to the
paint while doing the first coat to distinguish it from the second coat
a) little blue paint*
b) lamp black
c) red paint
d) green paint
100) Shelf life of Paint Red Oxide Ready mixed (IS : 123)
a) 4 month
b) 1 year*
c) 6 month
d) None of the above

101) Shelf life of Paint aluminium when paste and oil are mixed
a) Oneday*
b) 1 year
c) 6 month
d) None of the above

102) The maximum time lag between surface preparation and the application of primer coat
shall not exceed
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours*
 c) 48 hours
d) 36 hours

103) The maximum time lag between the primer coat and the Ist finishing coat shall not
exceed
a) 3 days
b) 7 days*
c) 4 days
d) 12 days

104) For railway bridges with spans in excess of 30.5m, generally provided with
a) deck type girders
b) open web through girders*
c) semi through girders
d) shallow type girders

105) Mostly long span rail-cum road bridges are provided with
a) rocker & roller bearings
b) segmental roller with oil bath*
c) Sliding bearings
d) centralised bearings

106) The advantages of electrometric bearings are

a) Permits movement of the structure in all directions
b) Serves as a shock absorber due to anti-vibration properties of elestomeric
c) better dispersion of longitudinal forces to the approaches
d) All of the above*

107) Length of guard rails to be bent so as to be brought together at the middle of the
track.(L2)
a) 3200 mm
b) 4875 mm*
c) 3655 mm
d) None of the above

108) The size of bridge timber required for the standard spans up to 18.3 m
a) 250 x 150mm*.
b) 250 x 180mm.
c) 250 x 240mm
d) 250 x 200mm
109) Rail joints should be avoided within ……………of a bridge abutment.
a) 6 m
b) 3 m*
c) 4 m
d) 10 m
110) In case of LWR track, full ballast section as specified in LWR Manual should be
provided up to ……….. from the bridge abutment.
a) 200 m
b) 50 m
c) 300 m
d) 100 m*

111) Clear distance between consecutive sleepers not to exceed on bridges in BG is

a) 450 mm*
b) 600 mm
c) 510 mm
d) 500 mm

113) In Girder and Slab Bridges Danger level should be marked below bottom of girders/slabs
for water way is > 6.10 < 12.2 m
a) 300 mm
b) 600 mm
c) 450 mm*
d) 500 mm

114) In Girder and Slab Bridges Danger level should be marked below bottom of girders/slabs
for water way is > 12.20 < 30.5 m
a) 300 mm
b) 600 mm*
c) 500 mm
d) 450 mm

115) For Box Culverts Danger level is to be taken as

a) at the top of slab
b)one third height below bottom of slab
c) at the bottom of slab*
d) None of the above

116) The danger level should be marked with a bright red band …… wide centrally over a
white band …… wide for a length of………
 a) 5 cm, 10 cm, 60 cms*
b) 10 cm, 20 cm, 60 cm
c) 15 cm, 30 mm, 60 cm
d) None of the above

117) Renewal of slack rivets should be taken up in steel girder bridges:

a) All rivets which are hand loose or which have lost 50% of their head by corrosion.
b) All hammer loose rivets where corrosion has set in between the head and the plate.
c) In end stiffeners when the percentage of hammer loose rivets is >30%
d) All the above*

118) In flange splices when the number of hammer and hand loose rivets is 30% or more of
the total rivets on any side of the splice location,
a) Need no be renewed
b) wait for 100% loose rivets
c) all the rivets should be renewed.*
d) None of the above

119) Corrosion in Steel girder bridges may be prevented by :

a) Protective coatings by painting
b) Metallising
c) Use of epoxy based paints
d) All the above*

120) Surface preparation for Metallising the abrasives used for final cleaning is
a) Chilled iron grit G.24, as defined in BS : 2451
b) Washed salt free angular silica sand of mesh size 12 to 30 with a minimum of 40%
retained on a 20 mesh
c) either (a) or (b) *
d) d) neither (a) or (b)

121) Minimum length of steel channel sleeper in BG

a) 2500mm
b) 2440mm*
c) 2400mm
d) 2600mm

122) Length of bridge timber in BG

a) outer to outer of girder plus 305mm
 b) 2440mm
c) whichever is more in a) & b)*
d) whichever is less in a) & b)

123) Periodicity of Under water inspection

a) Once in a year
b) Once in two years*
c) Whenever high flood occurs
d) Along with detailed inspection of SE/Br

128) Definition of major bridge

a) Single span of 12m & above
b) Total linear water way more than 18m
c) Both a) & b)*
d) None of the above

124) Definition of minor bridge

e) Single span less than 12m
f) Total linear water way less than 18m
g) Both a) & b)*
h) None of the above

125) Permitted wind velocity for running of trains on the bridge

a) 72 km/h*
b) 58 km/h
c) 64 km/h
d) No limits

126) Periodicity of recording of camber in PSC girders

a) Once in a year*
b) Once in two years
c) Once in three years
d) During the detailed inspection of SE/Br.

127) Weight of steel crib 75x75x10mm angles

a) 200kg
b) 187.2kg*
c) 210kg
d) 185kg
128) Conventional method of camber recording
a) Piano wire with counter weight*
b) By using leveling instrument
c) Offset method
d) None of the above
129) Flood level gauge to be marked in
a) All important bridges*
b) All major bridges
c) All minor & major bridges
d) All bridges

130) Velocity of water can be measured by

a) Anemo meter
b) Elco meter
c) Current meter*
d) Thermo meter

131) Flood level gauge to be marked

a) commencing from bed level to top
b) commencing from bottom of girder towards bed level*
c) commencing from Rail level
d) commencing from Danger level

132) Shallow type girder can be used in

a) ROBs
b) RUBs*
c) FOBs
d) None of the above

133) Under slung girders can be used in

a) Plain section
b) Ghat section*
c) Aquaduct
d) Viaduct

134) Spacing of Trolley refuges

a) Every 100m
b) If span is more than 100m, on each pier
c) Ballasted deck bridges – every 50m
d) All the above*

135) Testing of welds by

a) Dye penetrant test
b) Magnetic particle inspection
c) Radiographic inspection
d) All the above*

136) Rebound hammer is used for

a) To find the strength of concrete*
 b) To form rivet heads
c) To break the concrete structures
d) None of the above

137) Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity test is meant for

a) Identifying the integrity of concrete*
b) Finding the strength of concrete
c) To know the crack in steel structure
d) To know the flaw in rail

138) The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted bridge on BG
should not exceed
a)300mm
b)400mm
c)450mm*
d)550mm

139) The total number of bridges on I.R.is about

a)1 Lac
b)1.25 Lacs*
c)1.50 Lacs
d)2 Lacs

140) Which para of Engineering code deals with cost sharing of ROB/RUBs
a) 1716
b) 1814
c) 1816*
d) 1819

141) What is the carriageway of two lane ROB on National Highway

a)10.00m
b)8.5
c)9.50*
d)10.50

142) The depth of 19.81 mlong service girder is about………

a)1.67 m
b)1.16 m*
c)0.95 m
d)1.52 m

143) BGML loading stands for

 a)Broad gauge mineral loading
b) Broad gauge modified loading
c)Broad gauge mainline loading*
d) None of above

144) MBG loading stands for

a)MineralBroad gauge loading
b) Modified Broad gauge loading*
c)MediumBroad gauge loading
d) None of above

145) RBG loading stands for

a)Revised Broad gauge loading
b) Rolling Broad gauge loading
c)Railway Broad gauge loading
d) None of above

146) BGML loading caters for maaaaximum axle load of…….tonnes for locomotive with
trailing load of………tonnes/metre.
a)22.9,7.67*
b)22.5,7.67
c)25,7.67
d)None of above

147 RBG loading caters for maaaaximum axle load of…….tones for locomotive with trailing
loadof…… tonnes/metre of track with maximum axle load of…….tonnes for wagons
a)22.9,7.67,25
b)22.5,7.67,22.9*
c)25,7.67,22.9,
d)None of above

148) Piano wire is used for measuring the-

a) Distortion
b)Camber in PSC girder
c)Both a & b*
d)None of above
149) When the railway crosses a deep vally without perinial water,it is called…….
a)Aqueduct *
b)Cause way
c)Via-duct
d)River crossing
150) What is the clear distance between two consecutive bridge Timbers or Girder bridge?
(a) 450 mm
(b) 510 mm*
(c) 500 mm
(d) 520 mm

151) What is the clear distance between two consecutive steel channel sleepers on Girder
bridges?
(a) 450 mm*
(b) 510 mm
(c) 500 mm
(d) 460 mm

152) For painting, the unit of rate is per

a) Sqm
b) cum
c) 10sqm *
d) 10cum

153) When proposed depth of construction of a bridge is more than the existing depth of
construction in a bridge work, the existing rail level requires
a) Lowering
b) Lifting*
c) Slewing
d) None

154) Which cement should not be used for bridge slabs ro RCC frames
a) OPC
b) Portland Pozzolana cement *
c) Portland furnace slag cement
d) Rapid hardening cement
155) Standard bag of cement in ……… kg
a) 52 kg
b) 30.5kg
c) 10.7kg
d) 50 kg*

156) The concrete under water minimum grade of cement recommended by IS code
a) M 10
 b) M 15
c) M 20*
d) M 25

157) What is DPC?

a) Damp proof course *
b) weathering course
c) Treatment the foundation
d) Treatment over the roof

158) Elastomeric bearings are made of natural or synthetic rubber of

shore hardness of approximately.
a) 30 to 40
b) 50 to 70*
c) 40 to 50
d) 60 to 70

159 Investigation for important bridges may be carried out in which stage
a) Technical feasibility study (reconnaissance survey)
b) Techno-economic feasibility study (preliminary engineering survey)
c) Detailed survey and project report stage (final location survey)
d) All the above *

160) At locations where access to the new bridge construction is available by rail, the launching
of girders upto 18.3 m which method is ideal.
a) slew in slew out method b) gantry method
c) Launching of girders with the help of a BFR*:
d) Pantoon method

161) The normal procedure for promotion should be by …………..Qualified men will be
entitled to promotion by seniority within their own groups.
a) Trade test* b) Interview
c) Recommendation d) Random selection

162) Payment to bridge staff on the section will be made by the pay clerk in the presence of
a) SSE/SE/JE/ P.Way b) SSE/SE/JE/ Br.*
c) SSE/SE/JE/ Works d) Office clerk
163) If the SSE/SE/JE/ Br. working in the section is not readily available, another SSE/SE/JE
may be authorised by …………….. to witness payment on the section.

a) DEN b) SSE/SE/JE/
c) AEN (Bridges)* d) Office clerk

164) The Indian Railways Way and Works Manual was first published in the year 1954.
a) 1956 b) 1999
c) 1954* d) 1998

165) Indian Railway Bridge manual established in

a) 1998* b) 1999
c) 1989 d) 1954

166) While finalizing the IRBM, which of the following have been taken into account.
a) Indian RailwaysGeneral Rules 1976
b) Indian Railways Code for Engineering Department 1993
c) Bridge Rules and Substructure d) All the above*

167) A bridge having super structure with “Single or duplicate girders with cross sleepers on
top flanges” is classified as
a) RSJ girder bridge
b) Cross Girder
c) Deck plate girder*
d) Open web girder

Fill up the blanks with suitable words.

1. Super structure including bearings of all steel Girder of span 12.20m and above is
to be inspected by …SE./Br.…once in 5 years
2. A bridge foundation having less then 2M depth below bed level in case of arch
bridges and 1.2M depth below bed level in case of other bridges is termed as
…Shallow foundation..
3. Paint Zinc chromate primer confirms to IS …104….
4. Paint Zinc chromate Red oxide primer confirms to IS …2074….
5. Paint Red Oxide confirms to IS …123….
6. Paint Aluminium confirms to IS …2339….
7. Abbreviation of DFT ……Dry Film Thickness………
8. Metallising is the process of spraying of …Zinc.. or ..Aluminium.. on the
surface prepared girder.
9. Greasing of bearings of Steel girder bridges is done once in -…Three.. years.
10. Abbreviation of PTFE is……Poly Tetra Fluoro Ethylene …
11. Trolley refuges are provided at every …100 m on long bridges
12. Girders which are overstressed and kept under observation are to be inspected
once in …a… year by SE/Br.
13. Abbreviation of NRS …Numerical Rating System…
14. Abbreviation of CRN …Conditional Rating Number…
15. Abbreviation of ORN …Overall Rating Number
16. Abbreviation of URN … Unique Rating Number
17. Abbreviation of RUB …Road Under Bridge…
18. Abbreviation of ROB … Road Over Bridge
19. Abbreviation of FOB … Foot Over Bridge
20. Abbreviation of HFL …High Flood Level…
21. Stock indent form No is … S1313…….
22. Disposal of Unserviceable materials is under Form No. S.1539…
23. Abbreviation of RL-BF is …Depth from rail level to bottom of foundation
24. Abbreviation WL is Well Foundation
25. Abbreviation of ON is …..Open Foundation
26. Abbreviation of CCN is …Cement Concrete …
27. Abbreviation of BF is ……Bottom of Foundation………
28. Abbreviation of TF is ……Top of Foundation
29. Abbreviation of S is ………Sand……
30. Abbreviation of C is ………Clay……
31. Abbreviation of BC is ……Black cotton soil……..
32. PSC is the abbreviation of….Prestressed Concrete…..
33. The minimum thickness of Metallising is 115 micron
34. The average thickness of Metallising is 150micron
35. The weight of rivet testing hammer is 110 gm
36. The URN of minor bridge shall be represented by its ORN
 37. The abutment the weep holes should be provided one metre horizontal and one
metre in vertical in a staggered manner
38. Painting during night and early morning avoided because of dew
39. In important bridge the total linear waterway is 300 m or the total water way is
1000 sq.m.
40. In case of underwater independency diver will be employed in depth beyond 10
m should be medically checked
41. Normally centre to centre spacing of pile should not be more than 4d where d is
the dia of pile shaft
42. Renewal of loose rivet shall be taken up in end bearing stiffener when the % of
hammer loose rivet is 30%
43. In case of distressed bridge category II, ADEN shall inspect the bridge once in 6
months
44. Greasing of bearing shall be done with grease graphite
45. In case of bridge is distressed category I then special restriction of 15 kmph shall
be imposed
46. The form number used for preparation of indent of stock item is S1313
47. The form used for preparation of Indent on non – stock item is S 1302
48. In case of transfer of material from one custodian to another through is ST 47
challan
49. The wind velocity is measured using Anemometer
50. As per GCC Engineer shall mean DEN / XEN

State whether true of false

1. Phosphor Bronze bearing need not be greased. True

2. Primer coat protects the steel from weather. False
3. Clear span is more than the effective span False
4. Danger level is always above HFL False
5. Acetelyne gas cylinders are always kept vertical True
6. A speed restriction of 15 kmph can be imposed in a Neutral section False
7. A bridge of single span of 12.1 m is called a minor bridge False
8. Camber is measured at the ends of a girder False
9. Temporary girders are used for normal sectional speed. False
10. 4 SWG electrode is thicker than 6 SWG electrodes. True
11. Red lead paint is not poisonous. False
12. Wire rope pulleys are interchangeable with manilla rope pulleys. False
 13. Portal bracing of a through girder is deeper than sway bracing. True
14. Numerical ledger shows the name of staff in numerical order. False
15. Hemispherical Tanks having inner ties False
16. Water tanks are to be painted inside once in 5 years. False
17. In case of Tremie concreting for 20 mm size of aggregate the tremie pipe should not
be less than 200 mm. True
18. The dry film thickness of paint shall be measured by anemometer
False
19. The ord. MS Rivet testing hammer can be used for testing metalised girders. False
20. The distance between center to center of bearing is effective span of a girder bridge.
True
21. Guard rail should be provided on all major and minor girder bridges. True
22. A bridge foundation having less then 1.2M depth below bed level is termed as
shallow foundation. True
23. When cracks are active but cause of cracking has been determined and remedial
action has been taken cement pressure grouting is used. True
24. Shelf life of Paint Red Oxide Ready mixed (IS : 123) is 4 month. False
25. IRBM consists of 14 chapters True

Multiple choice Questions on Level crossings

TVU is abbreviated for

a) Track vulnerable unit
b) Train vehicle unit *
c) Total vehicle unit
d) Traffic variation unit

2. Indication post for detonator should be provided at a distance of ---------meter and ---------
meter for BG level crossing
a) 400 meters in 800 meters
b) 500 meters and 1200 meters
c) 600 meters and 1200 meter *
d)600 meters and 1000 meters

3. For protection of level crossing gate in an emergency on BG double line the Gateman should
place one detonator at one place and 3 detonators at a subsequent place at a distance of ------- a)
and------- meters respectively
b) 400 meters in 800 meters
c) 500 meters and 1000 meters
d) 600 meters and 1200 meters*
e) 800 meters in 1500 meters

4. Periodical Census of traffic at unmanned level Crossings should be done once in

a) Once in 6 years
b) Every year
c) Once in 3 years*
d) Once in 5 years

5. Level Crossing beyond the outermost stop signals is called

a) Engineering Gate*
b) Traffic Gate
c) Engineering and Signal Gate
d) Signal Gate

6. On an unmanned level crossing stop board should be provided at a distance of --------- from
the centre of nearest track
a) 5 meters *
b) 6 meters
c) 3 meters
d) 7.5 meters

7. Speed breaker has to be provided on road approaches of level crossing at maximum feasible
distance within Railway boundary but not exceeding
a) 10 meters
b) 15 meters
c) 20 meters*
d) 200 meters

8. The rail joint should be located at ----------- from the end of level crossing
a) 2 meters
b) 3 meters *
c) 5 meters
d)6 meters

9. The frequency of census at a level crossing having TVU between 75000 to 1 lakh will be once
a) In 2 years
b) In 3 years*
c) In 4 years
d) Every year

10. For Skew level crossings the angle of crossing should not be less than
a) 60 degree
b) 45 degree
c) 30 degree
d) 15 degree

11. Minimum distance of gate post from centre line of nearest track on BG is
a) 2 meters
b) 3 meters*
c) 4 meters
d) 5 meters

12. Minimum distance of duty hut from centre line of nearest track on BG is
a) 2 meters
b) 3 meters
c) 4 meters
d) 6 meters*

12. Level crossing is classified on the basis of

a) Class of road
b) TVU*
c) Volume of road traffic
d) Volume of rail traffic

13. The Assistant Divisional Engineer should inspect the equipment at every manned level
crossing on the subdivision once in
a) 2 months
b) 3 months
c) 4 months
d) 6 months*

14. On Broad gauge tracks whistle indicator shall be provided at a distance of ---------- from
level crossing along the track
a) 400 meters
b) 600 meters*
c) 350 meters
d) 500 meters

15. On Broad Gauge tracks Banner flag at a level crossing shall be provided at a distance of---
---------- from ends of check rail before opening the gate for road traffic.
a) 5 meters*
b) 3 meters
c) 6 meters
d) 30 meters

16. Fish plated joint shall be avoided in check raisl and on the running rails within--------- from
the end of level crossing
a) 3 meters*
b) 5 meters
c) 10 meters
d) 12 meters

17. Stop boards on either side of approaches of all unmanned level crossings shall be provided at
-------------from the centre line of nearest track.
a) 3meters
b) 5 meters*
c) 6 meters
d) 10 meters

18. Speed breaker of approved design shall be provided on either side of level crossing at ------
within Railway boundary
a) 5 meters
b) 15 meters
c) 20 meters*
d0 30 meters

19. Minimum length of check rail for square crossing shall be -------- more than the width of
gate a) 1 meters
b) 2 meters*
c) 3 meters
d) 5 meters

20. The minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at all BG level crossings shall be
a) 51 to 57 mm*
b) 44 to 48 mm
c) 41 to 45 mm
d) 55 to 70 mm

21. In case of Shot Welded Rails the fish plated joint should be avoided on Level Crossings
within a distance of --------- from end of level crossing
a) 3 meters
b) 4 meters
c) 5 meters
d) 6 meters*
22. There should not be any combination joint on level crossing proper and its approaches up to
a) 15 meters
b) 30 meters
c) 40 meters
d) 50 meters*

23. The Height Gauge for a level crossing should be located at least --------- from the gate post a)
3 meters
b) 5 meters
c) 8 meters*
d) 10 meters

24. Traffic census at a level crossing shall be done by

a) A team of SSE/ P Way and SSE/ Works
b) A team of SSE/ P Way and Traffic inspector
c) A team of SSE/ P Way and Signal Inspector
d) A multidisciplinary team of SSE/ P Way, Signal Inspector and Traffic Inspector*.

25. Frequency of overhauling for a level crossing with PRC sleepers shall be-
a) Every year
c) Every 2 years*
c) Every 3 years
d) Every 5 years

26. A level crossing qualifies for construction of Road Over Bridge/ Under Bridge on Cost
sharing basis with State Government when the Train Vehicle Unit is more than
a) 50,000
b) 1, 00,000*
c) 3, 00,000
d) 5, 00,000

27. On Indian Railways a new level crossing can be provided with the approval of
a) Chief engineer
b) General Manager
c) Commissioner of Railway Safety
d) None of the above*

28. In LWR track on BG

a) Level crossing should be separated by providing SEJs
b) Level crossing cannot be provided in LWR.
c) Level crossing should not fall within the breathing length of LWR*
d) Level crossing should be laid with rail free fastenings.

29. In case of a curved track on electrified, double line, BG section

a) Duty hut cannot be provided for a level crossing.
b) Duty hut should be on the inside of the curve.
c) Duty hut should be on the outside of the curve.*
d) Duty hut can be provided on any side of the curve.

30. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from the rail level on BG track is
a) 44 mm
b) 48 mm
c) 38 mm
d) 51mm

Soil mechanics

1. Which of the statements with regard to formation is correct

(1) One of the Functions of the formation is to facilitate drainage
(2) Width of bank for double railway line is 12.155 meters
(3) Width of cutting for double railway track is 11.750 meters
(4) Centre to centre of formation for double line is 4.725 meters
(5) Width of formation is different for concrete sleeper track and other than concrete sleeper
track

a) 2, 3, 5
b) 3, 4, 5*
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 4, 5

2. Centre to Centre spacing of formation for double railway line for Broad Gauge is
a) 1676 mm
b) 4725 mm
c) 4265mm
d) 5300 mm*

3. Earthwork in embankment for railway with manual compaction should be done in layers not
exceeding--------------
a) 15 centimeter
b) 20 centimeters
c) 25 centimeters
d) 30 centimeters*

4. To provide inverted filter to improve the bearing capacity of soil the liquid limit of blanketing
material should not be greater than
a) 5
b) 20
c) 27
d) 35*
5. To provide inverted filter to improve the hearing capacity of soil the plasticity index of
blanketing material should not be greater than
a) 15*
b) 20
c) 27
d) 35

6. The bottom of side drains should be below the formation level by at least------------
a) 45 cm
b )30 cm*
c) 15 cm
d) 60 cm

7. Cross slope of the formation to have good drainage of Ballast section is

a) 1 in 40*
b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 30
d) 1 in 20

8. The side slope of formation in embankment is

a) 2 : 1*
b) 1: 1
c) 1:5
d) 1:3

9. The side slope of formation in embankment /cutting depends on

a) Shearing strength of soil and its angle of repose*
b) Angle of repose
c) Bearing capacity of the soil
d) Optimum moisture content of the soil

10. The recommended width of Double line cutting formation for B G is

a) 10210 mm
b) 10 975 mm
c) 11555 mm*
d) 10 820 mm

11. The recommended width of Single line formation cutting for BG excluding drain is
a) 6250 mm*
b) 6850mm
c) 54 90mm
d) 6100mm

12. In case of compaction of soil by sheep foot roller maximum thickness of layer should not
exceed buy more than -------------- centimeter of length of their teeth
a) 5 centimeter*
b) 4 centimeter
c) 3 centimeter
d) 2 centimeter

13. The catch water drains are provided in the

a) Formation in the embankment
b) Formation in cutting*
c) Zero fills formation
d) Steep gradient

14. Cross sectional area of catch water drain should not be more than
a) 0 .75 square meter*
b) 0. 90 square meter
c) 0. 80 square meter
d). 50 square meter

15. Density of each compacted layer should be ascertained by taking soil samples on either side
of Central Line at
a) 5 meter interval
b) 10 meter interval*
c) 12 meter interval
d) 15 meter internal

16. For laying a Railway track the prepared surface ready to receive the ballast is called
a) Sub ballast
b) Formation*
c) Blanket
d) Cushion

17. The height of formation depends upon the

a) Ground contours and the gradient adopted*
b) Ground contour only
c) Gradient adopted only
d) Rainfall intensity over the year

18. The dry density of soil is

a) Always greater than the saturated density
b) Weight of soil solids per unit of total volume prior to drying*
c) Total weight of soil solids per unit of its total volume
d) Total weight of soil mass per unit of its total volume

19. The ratio of volume of water present in a given soil sample to the total volume of voids in it
is known as
a) Percentage of air voids
b) Degree of saturation *
c) Void ratio
d) Porosity

20. The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of voids is known as
a) Percentage of air voids
b) Porosity
c) Degree of saturation
d) Air content*

21. At the liquid limit

a) The soil just begins to crumble when rolled into a thread
b) The shearing strength against flowing is negligible
c) The shearing strength against flowing is a small but definite*
d) The soil will not get fully saturated

22. The property of soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly, without rupture, without elastic
rebound and without volume change is known as
a) Porosity
b) Plasticity*
c) Stiffness
d) Plastic limit

23. The minimum water content in soil at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into
threads 3 mm in diameter is known as
a) Plastic limit
b) Liquid limit
c) Consistency limit
d) Shrinkage limit

24. The minimum water content at which a reduction in water content will not cause a decrease
in the volume of a soil mass is known as
a) Plastic limit
b) Shrinkage limit*
c) Liquid limit
d) Consistency limit

25. The numerical difference between the liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil is known as
a) Liquidity index
b) Plasticity index *
c) Shrinkage index
d) Consistency index

26. In India soils are classified by

a) MIT classification
b) Unified soil classification system*
c) International classification system
d) Particle size classification

27. The consistency index of soil is

a) (Natural water content - liquid limit) / plasticity index
b) (Natural water content - liquid limit )/ liquidity index
c) (Liquid limit - natural water content)/ consistency index
d) (Liquid limit - natural water content)/plasticity index*

28. The property of a soil due to which water percolates through it is known as
a) Porosity
b) Permeability*
c) Moisture content
d) Capillarity

29. Permeability of soil varies

a) Inversely as square of grain size
b) Inversely as grain size
c) Directly as grain size
d) Square of grain size*

30. Quicksand is
a) Moist sand containing a small percentage of clay
b) Is a condition which generally occurs in coarse sands
c) Is a condition in which cohesive properties of soil increase rapidly
d) Is a condition in which a cohesion less soil loses its strength because of upward flow of
water*

31. Piping in a soil mass is

a) Erosion of subsoil by the high velocities of flow of water through it when such velocities
exceed a certain limit*
b) Caused due to very low exit gradient
c) Due to continuous passage of water through a series of well connected pores
d) Due to loss of the strength of cohesion less soil because of upward flow of of water

32. The maximum dry density to which a soil may be compacted to depends upon
a) Soil water content *
b) The process of compaction
c) The voids ratio
d) Is independent of the type of soil

33. A saturated clay is to be tested for shearing strength. Which test should be recommended?
a) Direct shear test
b) Triaxial shear test
c) Vane shear test
d) Unconfined compression*

34. A temporary enclosure in a river or Lake built around a working area for the purpose of
excluding water during construction is known
a) Caisson
b) Augur
c) Cofferdam *
d) Sheet pile wall

35. The maximum pressure which the soil can carry safely without the risk of shear failure is
called
a) Safe bearing capacity
b) Ultimate bearing capacity*
c) Allowable bearing capacity
d) Shear bearing capacity

36. Black cotton soils are

a) Heavy clay soils varying from clay to Loam, with clay content of 40 to 50% formed by
decomposition of rocks by long continued weathering*
b) Compacted and laminated clays
c) Soils containing carbon of coal underneath
d) Dark brown earthy materials formed due to partial or complete decomposition of vegetable
matter

37. The high density of soil placed in a fill is desired in order to

a) Increase its shear resistance*
b) Reduce its shear resistance
c) Promote future settlements
d) Decrease percolation through the fill.

38. Plasticity index represents the range of water content between

a) Liquid and plastic limit *
b) Plastic limit and semi solid limit
c) Semisolid Limit and liquid limit
d) Liquid limit and solid limit.

39. For yard drainage Pucca drains should be designed for the velocity of
a) 0 05 to 1 meter per second
b) 1 to 1.5 meter per second
c) 1.5 to 2 meter per second
d) 2 to 2.5 meter per second
40. Formation prepared by depositing Soil over the existing ground level is known as
a) Formation in cutting
b) Formation in embankment
c) Zero fills formation
d) Natural formation

Building materials

1. Stone generally preferred for railway ballast is

a) Sandstone
b) Dolomite
c) Marble
d) Basalt or trap granite*

2. An artificial stone made from pieces of white marble, white cement and other coloring agents,
generally used for floor and facing walls is known as
a) Topaz
b) Marble
c) Terrazzo*
d) Gneiss

3. Which one of the following impurity is not desirable in the soil used for brick formation
a) Alkali
b) Kankar
c) Iron oxide
d) Alkali & Kankar*

4. The Rocks formed from molten lava are called

a) Sedimentary rocks
b) Igneous rocks*
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Plutonic rock

5. Granite is obtained from

a) Igneous rocks*
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Plutonic rock

6. Marble is obtained from

a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
 c) Metamorphic rocks*
d) Plutonic rock

7. Limestone is obtained from

a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks*
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Plutonic rock
8. The bulking of sand with 2% moisture content is about
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%*
d) 20%

9. A good building stone should not absorb water more than

a) 5%*
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

10. The standard size of modular bricks is------------- centimeters

a) 18x 8 x8
b) 19x 9x 9
c) 20x 10 x10
d) 21x 11 x11

11. The Frog of a brick is normally made on its

a) Top face*
b) Bottom face
c) Longer face
d) Shorter side

12. The minimum compressive strength of first class brick should be

a) 75 kg per centimeter square
b) 90 kg per centimeter square
c) 100 kg per centimeter square*
d) 120 kg per centimeter square

13. If first class Brick is immersed in water for 24 hours it should not absorb water by weight
more than
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20% *
d) 25%
14. A pug mill is used for
a) Softening brick earth
b) Moulding brick earth
c) Tempering brick earth*
d) Compacting brick earth

15. Minimum crushing strength of the bricks is

a) 35 kg/cm2
b) 55 kg/m2
c) 70 kg/m2
d) 105 kg/m2

16. Normal size of brick used in India is

a) 22 x 11.2 x 7 cm*
b) 25 x 16 x 8 cm
c) 19 x 12 x 9 cm
d) 20 x 10 x 5 cm

17. The depth of frog in a brick is

a) 15 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 6. 25 mm*
d) 3 mm

18. The base material for distemper is

a) Chalk*
b) Lime
c) Lime putty
d) Cement wash

19. Timber having maximum resistance against white ants is obtained from
a) Chir
b) Sheesham
c) Sal
d) Teak*

20. Linseed oil is used in Paints as a

a) Vehicle
b) Base
c) Drier*
d) Thinner

21. The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and slacks with water, is known as
a) Fat lime
b) Quicklime*
c) Hydraulic lime
d) Poor line
22. The property by virtue of which lime sets under water is known as
a) Slacking
b) Setting
c) Hydraulicity
d) Calcining

23. Which of the following lime can set under water also
a) Fat Lime
b) Lean lime*
c) Hydraulic line
d) Quick lime

24. Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because

a) It cannot be polished
b) It is not fireproof
c) It is costly*
d) It has less crushing strength

25. Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of
Railway Bridge
a) Granite*
b) Sandstone
c) Limestone
d) Quartzite

26. Which of the following trees yields hardwood

a) Deodar
b) Sheesham*/
c) Chir
d) Pine

27. In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum

a) Parallel to grains*
b) 45 degree to grains
c) Perpendicular to grains
d) same in all directions

28. Which of the following ingredients of Brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape a)
Alumina
b) Silica*
c) Iron
d) Magnesia

29. Number of bricks required for 1 cubic meter of brick masonry is

a)400
b) 450
c) 500*
d) 550

30. Quicklime is
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Calcium oxide*
d) Calcium hydroxide

31. The main ingredients of Portland cement are

a) Lime and silica*
b) Lime and Alumina
c) Alumina magnesia
d) Silica and Alumina

32. After storage, strength of cement

a) Decreases*
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Depends upon the type of cement

33. The Most common admixture used to accelerate the initial setting of concrete is
a) Gypsum
b) Calcium chloride*
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Calcium bicarbonate

34. Which type of following cement is used for mass concrete work
a) High Alumina cement
b) Quick setting cement
c) Rapid hardening cement
d) Low heat cement*

35. Le Chatelier apparatus is used to determine which of the following properties for cement
A) Soundness*
b) Initial setting time
c) Compressive strength
d) Tensile strength
36. Which of the following constituents impart plasticity to brick earth
a) Alumina*
b) Silica
c) Lime
d) Magnesia

37. Hydraulic lime is not used in plastering because it may result in

a) Blistering*
b) Efflorescence
c) Flaking
d) Fluorescence

38. Seasoning of timber essentially involve

a) Strengthening of cells in Timber
b) Replacing the moisture content to a level below its fibre saturation point
b) Facilitating equal shrinkage in all directions so as to prevent warping
c) Preventing cracking due to defects and shakes

39. The commonly used lime in white washing is

a) Hydraulic lime
b) Slaked lime
c) Plain lime
d) White lime*

40. Distemper is used to coat

a) External concrete services
b) Internal surfaces not exposed to weather*
c) Woodwork
d) Compound walls

41. Putty is made up of

a) White lead and turpentine
b) Powdered chalk and raw linseed oil*
c) Red lead and linseed oil
d) Zinc oxide and boiled linseed oil

42. The approximate ratio between the strength of cement concrete at seven days and 28 days is
a) 3/ 4
b) 2/3*
c) 1/2
d) 1/3
43. Soundness test of cement is done to determine its
a) Durability in seawater
b) Free lime content*
c) Iron oxide content
d) Alumina content

44. The volume of a bag of cement in cubic meters is about

a) 0.035*
b) 0.35
c) 0.53
d) .053

45. Terracotta is used in buildings for

a) Storage
b) Insulation
c) Ornamental work*
d) Sewer pipe

46. Sand is mixed with lime to

a) Reduced cost
b) Reduced setting time
c) Prevent shrinkage and cracking*
d) Improve visual appearance

47. The setting and hardening of cement after addition of water is due to
a) Binding action of water
b) Evaporation of water
c) Hydration and hydrolysis of some constituent compounds of cement*
d) Additional hardening compounds added to cement

48. The constituent of cement which act as Binders are

a) Sand and silica
b) Silica and carbon
c) tricalcium silicate dicalcium silicate and carbon
d) tricalcium aluminate,dicalcium silicate and tricalcium silicate *

50. A slow setting cement will have higher percentage of

a) tricalcium aluminate
b) tricalcium silicate
c) Gypsum
d) Dicalcium silicate*

51. Dicalcium silicate

a) Hydrates rapidly
b) Generate less heat of hydration*
c) Hardens rapidly
d) Reacts with water only

Question on AT Welding

1- In new Rail as well as second hand rails how much end bends of the rails in vertical are
permitted when checked with one meter straight edge before welding?
(i) +0.5mm, -0 mm in vertical *
(ii) +0.2mm, -.3 mm in vertical
(iii) +0.3mm, -2 mm in vertical
(iv) 0 mm, +.5 mm in vertical
2- In new Rail as well as second hand rails how much end bends of the rails in lateral
direction are permitted when checked with one metre straight edge before welding?
(i) ± 0.2 mm in lateral direction
(ii) ± 0.3 mm in lateral direction
(iii) ± 0.5 mm in lateral direction*
(iv) All are above right
3- What is the life of portion?
(i) 2 years
(ii) No specific life.*
(ii) 6 months
(iv) 1 year
4- Life of Portion mainly depend upon?
(i) Quality of packing
(ii) Storage condition
(iii) Quality of packing and storage condition.*
(iv) Ingredients of portions
5- How rejected portion are to be disposed-off?
(i) By Igniting 5 Portions at a time in pit away from store?*
(ii) By throwing them away
(iii) By dispose off in a pit
 (iv) By using it in Branch/Yard lines for welding
6- Where Portion sample tests(test piece) should be conducted?
(i) At desire by RDSO
(ii) At Zonal CMT’s organisation or the Flash Butt Welding plant. *
(iii) In RDSO campus
(iv) As decided by in charge of the plant
7- The composition of thermit welding team?
(i) 7 Nos.
(ii) 8 Nos.*
(iii) 6 Nos.
(iv) 9 Nos
8- What is the duration for Initial course for welders (TW-1)?
(i) Two weeks*
(ii) One week
(iii) As decided by TPP/LKO
(iv) 3 working days
9- What is the duration for Refresher course for welders (TW-2)?
(i) One week*
(ii) Two weeks
(iii) As decided by TPP/LKO
(iv) 3 working days
10- What is the duration for supervisors course (TW-3)?
(i) One week *
(ii) Two weeks
(iii) As decided by TPP/LKO
(iv) 3 working days
11-Type of competency certificate issued after TW-1 course?
(i) Competency for two years
(ii) Provisional competency.*
(iii) Competency for six months
(iv) Competency to do welding independently
12- What is the validity of Provisional competency certificate?
(i) Valid for executing 50 joints or six months whichever is earlier.
 (ii) Valid for executing 100 joints or six months whichever is earlier.*
(iii) Valid for executing 50 joints.
(iv) Valid for six months
13- What is the validity after Refresher course for welders (TW-2)?
(i) Six monyhs
(ii) One year
(iii) Two years.*
(iv) All are wrong
14- What is the validity after supervisors course (TW-3)?
(i) Normally, supervisors shall not be required to undergo the course again.
However, they may be sent for course on performance basis.*
(ii) 2 years
(iii) 5 Years
(iv) 10 Years
15- How much rail ends are cleaned with Kerosene Oil and steel wire brush?
(i) Minimum 100 mm both side
(ii) Minimum 50 mm both side.*
(iii) No need
(iv) As decided by site supervisor
16- What is the heating time in OXY & LPG in SPW?
(i) 2.0 - 3.5 minutes.
(ii) 2.0 - 3.0 minutes.
(iii) 2.0 - 2.5 minutes.*
(iv) 3.0 - 4.5 minutes.
17- What is the minimum distance between AT Weld and other joint exist in track?
(i) 2 Mt.
(ii) 3 Mt.
(iii) 4 Mt.*
(iv) 4.5 Mt.
18- During AT welding reaction is ?
(i) Exothermic .*
(ii) Endothermic
(iii) No Reaction
 (iv) Heating
19- What is Pre Heating Temperature of rail ends in AT Welding?
(i) 300 ± 20oC
(ii) 400 ± 20oC
(iii) 500 ± 20oC
(iv) 600 ± 20oC *
20- What action to be taken if slag is not separated within 20 ± 3 seconds?
(i) Tap inside.
(ii) Tap outside *
(iii) Good reaction
(iv) Tap well in time
21- Internal diameter of thimble in conventional type of crucible is?
(i) 14-16 mm
(i) 16-18 mm
(iii) 18-20 mm*
(iv) 20-22 mm
22- Name the material which is separated from molten steel during chemical reaction of A.T
welding?
(i) Aluminium oxide (slag). *
(ii) Ferrous Oxide
(iii) Aluminium
(iv) Ferrous
23- Finishing tolerances are measured by?
(i) On 30 cm scale
(ii) 1 MT straightedge or 10 CM straightedge.*
(iii) On 15 cm straight edge
(iv) On 30 cm straight edge
24- To take care of differential cooling rail ends of 90 UTS rails are lifted by?
(i) 1 mm
(ii) 2 mm
(iii) 2 to 2.2 mm.*
(iv) 1 to 2 mm
.25- Which gauge is used to measure finishing tolerances .
 (i) Tilted gauge
(ii) Filter gauge
(iii) Meter gauge
(iv) Filler gauge.*
26- Early tapping will cause defect of?
(i) No defect
(ii) Inclusion of slag*
(iii) Inclusion of aluminium
(iv) Inclusion of ferrou
27- Risers are broken at?
(i) cold. *
(ii) Hot
(iii) After 5 mints
(iv) After 3 mints
28- Pressure of compressed air is kept during preheating by CAPS?
(i) 1 to 2 kg/cm2
(ii) .1 to .2 kg/cm2

(iii) 2 to 3 kg/cm2
(iv) 0.2 to 0.3 kg/cm2*

29- Crucible is repaired by?

(i) Magnasite Powder
(ii) Magnasite Powder & Sodium Silicate.*
(iii) Sodium Silicate
(iv) Aluminium powder
30- Function of Calcium fluoride/flour spar in portion is?
(i) To separate slag*
(ii) To separate aluminum
(iii) To separate ferrous
(iv) No separation
Q.No.31- Finished tolerance on 1 Mt. st. edge at the centre on gauge side shall be?
(i) ± 0.2 mm
(ii) ± 0.3 mm
 (iii) ± 0.5 mm*
(iv) ± 1.0 mm
32- Finished tolerance on 1 Mt. long st. edge on surface of head shall be?
(i) 0 to .1 mm
(ii) 1 to 1.5 mm
(iii) 0 mm
(iv) 0 to 1 mm*
33- Finished tolerance on 10 cm long st. edge at the centre on gauge side shall be?
(i) ± 0.4 mm
(ii) ± 0.1 mm
(iii) ± 0.2 mm
(iv) ± 0.3 mm*
34- Finished tolerance on 10 cm. long st. edge on surface of head shall be?
(i) 0 to 0.1 mm
(ii) 0 to 0.2 mm
(iii) 0 to 0.4 mm*
(iv) 0 to 0.3 mm
35- Minm. deflection during transverse breaking load test is?
(i) 5 mm
(ii) 10 mm
(iii) 15 mm*
(iv) 20 mm
36- Min. breaking load of 52kg weld during transverse breaking load test is?
(i) 90MT*
(ii) 100 MT
(iii) 110 MT
(iv) 120 MT
37- Min. breaking load of 60kg weld during transverse breaking load test is?
(i) 110 MT
(ii) 115 MT*
(iii) 90 MT
(iv) 120 MT
38- To take care of differential cooling rail ends of 72 UTS rails are lifted by?
 (i) 1 to 1.5 mm
(ii) 1 to 2 mm
(iii) 2 to 2.5 mm
(iv) 3 to 4 mm *
39- The colour of bag containing Portion for 72 UTS ?
(i) Pink
(ii) Green
(iii) Red *
(iv) Black
40- The colour of bag containing Portion for 90 UTS ?
(i) Red
(ii) Green *
(iii) Pink
(iv) Black
41- The colour of bag containing Portion for 110 UTS ?
(i) Red
(ii) Green
(iii) Pink
(iv) Black*
42- Pressure of LPG during pre-heating shall be?
(i) 2.0 - 2.5 kg/ sq cm
(ii) 2.0 - 2.5 kg/ sq cm
(iii) 2.0 - 2.5 kg/ sq cm*
(iv) 2.0 - 2.5 kg/ sq cm
43- Pressure of Oxygen during pre-heating shall be?
(i) 4.0 – 5.0 kg/ sq cm
(ii) 5.0 – 6.0 kg/ sq cm
(iii) 6.0 – 7.0 kg/ sq cm
(iv) 7.0 – 8.0 kg/ sq cm *
44- Defect of Blow holes is due to?
(i) Slag
(ii) Moisture*
 (iii) Lack of heating
(iv) Extra heating
45- Heating time with compressed air and petrol in SPW is ?
(i) 4.0 to 4.5 minutes.*
(ii) 4.0 to 5 minutes
(iii) 5.0 to 5.5 minutes
(iv) 5.5 to 6 minutes
46 – What is the Shelf life of mould ?
(i) 6 months minimum.
(ii) 8 months minimum
(iii) 9 months minimum*
(iv) 12 months minimum
47 – What is the Life of luting sand ?
(i) No defined *
(ii) 6 months
(iii) 9 months
(iv) 12 months
48 –Minimum traffic block required for execution of AT Weld ?
(i) 70 minutes
(ii) 70-75 minute.*
(iii) 60 mints
(iv) 1 hrs and 30 mints
49-What are the recognized systems for pre heating of rails ends for AT Welding?
(i) Oxygen –LPG & Compressed air petrol both*
(ii) Only Oxygen –LPG
(iii) Only Compressed air petrol both
(iv) both are correct
51-Weather protection of track is required during block for execution of AT Welding?
(i) Yes.*
(ii) No
(iii) As decided by site supervisor
(iv) As per site condition
52-Weather traffic block is required for execution of AT Welding?
 (i) Yes.*
(ii) No
(iii) As decided by site supervisor
(iv) As per site condition
53- After AT Welding First train is to be passed after ?
(i) 20 Minutes from pouring of weld metal.
(ii) 35 Minutes from pouring of weld metal.
(iii) 30 Minutes from pouring of weld metal.*
(iv) 25 Minutes from pouring of weld metal.
54- What is the speed restriction to be observed for train passing?
(i) Necessary speed restriction shall be observed until the grinding operation is
over.*
(ii) 30KMPH
(iii) 45 KMPH
(iv) Not required
.55- Normal Reaction time in SPW technique?
(i) 17 ± 3 seconds.
(ii) 15 ± 3 seconds
(iii) 23 ± 3 seconds
(iv) 20 ± 3 seconds*
56- Colour of rail ends becomes after preheating ?
(i) Golden *
(ii) Pink Red
(iii) Red
(iv) Yellow
57- How many nos. of sleepers should be loosened either side of the proposed weld?
(i) 3 sleepers
(ii) 5 sleepers.*
(iii) 2 sleepers
(iv) 4 sleepers
58- No of Ingredient of Portion are?
(i) Five.
(ii) Six
 (iii) Seven*
(iv) Eight
59- Height of crucible is kept from top surface of mould?
(i) 30 mm
(ii) 40 mm
(iii) 50 mm*
(iv) 60 mm
60- Torch is kept at height from top surface of rail head?
(i) 30 to 55 mm
(ii) 35 to 40 mm
(iii) 40 to 45 mm*
(iv) 45 to 50 mm
61- Which gauge is used to measure the height of rail at the time of aligning of rails for AT
welding?
(i) Height gauge.*
(ii) Vertical gauge
(iii) Horizontal gauge
(iv) As decided by site supervisor
62- Full form of SPW?
(i) Special pre heated weld
(ii) Short preheated weld.*
(iii) Short post heated weld
(iv) None of above
63- Grade of 90 UTS rail is?
(i) 880*
(ii) 1080
(iii) 710
(iv) None of above
64 – Grade of 110 UTS rail is?
(i) 880
(ii) 1080*
(iii) 710
(iv) None of above
Q.N. 65- Grade of 72 UTS rail is?
(i) 880
(ii) 1080
(iii) 710*
(iv) None of above
66- Defect of cracks in weld is mainly due to?
(i) Early opening of mould.*
(ii) Early trimming of weld
(iii) Early grinding of weld
(iv) None of above
67- Defect of short of metal is mainly due to?
(i) Less gap
(ii) Excessive gap*
(iii) Less weight of position
(iv) None of above
68- Defect of low joint is due to?
(i) Excess height
(ii) Early trimming of weld
(iii) Early grinding of weld
(iv) Nil/Less provision of height during alignment.*
69- Defect of High joint is due to ?
(i) Early trimming of weld
(ii) Excess provision of height during alignment.*
(iii) Early grinding of weld
(iv) None of above
70 -Defect of lack of fusion is mainly due to?
(i) Improper heating.*
(ii) Improper Gap
(iii) Improper grinding
(iv) None of above
71- Late tapping will cause defect of?
(i) Lack of fusion (Heat losses)*
(ii) Piping defect
 (iii) Half moon defect
(iv) None of above
72- Thickness of Lining/Charge is kept?
(i) 20 mm.
(ii) 25 mm*
(iii) 30 mm
(iv) As decided by the site supervisor
73- Head of closing pin is covered with
(i) Asbestos powder
(ii) Slag Powder
(iii) Asbestos powder than slag*
(iv) None of above
74- How many grams asbestos powder is used to cover head of closing pin ?
(i) 2 grams
(ii) 3 grams
(iii) 4 grams
(iv) 5 grams*
75- What will happen if slag is not used above the layer of asbestos powder?
(i) Auto tapping*
(ii) High welding
(iii) Low welding
(iv) Nothing will happen
76- What is mould waiting time?
(i) 3 to 5 minutes.
(ii) 4 to 6 minutes*
(iii) 3.5 to 5.5 minutes
(iv) 4.5 to 6.5 minutes
77- Late tapping will cause defect of?
(i) Lack of fusion (Heat losses)*
(ii) Piping defect
(iii) kidney defect
(iv) All above are correct
78- What is the function of Zircon wash?
 (i) To maintain good quality of weld
(ii)To achieve good finish of the weld surface.*
(ii) Both above are correct
(iv) Both are incorrect
Q.N.79 Main advantage of 3-piece P F Mould is?
(i) To overcome fin defect.*
(ii) To prevent the flaw of molten metal
(iii) To make proper weld size
(iv) None to the above
80 What is the time of removal the tensor from the newly executed A T Weld?
(i) 15 minutes after pouring.
(ii) 20 minutes after pouring*
(iii) 25 minutes after pouring.
(iv) 30 minutes after pouring.
81 Last flag man is deputed at which distance from last detonator during protection of
welding site .
(i) 30 mts
(ii) 50 mts
(iii) 45 mts*.
(iv) 60 mts
82 When was the collar painting done ?
(i) After the welding *
(ii) after one week of welding
(iii) After 15 days of welding
(iv) None of the above
83 Second coat of paint is done after minim. of
(i) 2 Hrs after first coat
(ii) 4 Hrs after first coat
(i) 6 Hrs after first coat
(iv) 8 Hrs. after first coat .*
84 Painting of weld is done up to
(i) 10 CM minimum both side of weld & on welded surface .*
(ii) 15 CM minimum both side of weld & on welded surface
 (iii) 20 CM minimum both side of weld & on welded surface
(iv) None of the above
85 Name the paint used in A.T. Welding painting?
(i) Black Paint
(ii) Bituminous black IS:9862-1981.*
(iii) Any type of black paint
(iv) None of the above
86 Rails used for A T Welding shall not normally be welded?
(i) 20 years old .
(ii) 30 years old
(iii) 40 years old
(iv) 50 years old*
87. Marking on weld should be done which side?
(i) Non gauge face side of A.T. weld *
(ii) Gauge face side of A.T. weld
(iii) On web of non gauge face side of A.T. weld
(iv) On web of gauge face side of A.T. weld
88. Marking on weld should be done
(i) On centre of the rail head
(ii) 10 mm below the top surface of rail head.*
(iii) 10 mm above the bottom surface of rail head.
(iv) None of the above
89. Weather date of welding is marked on weld?
(i) Yes
(ii) As decided by the site supervisor
(iii) No*
(iv) None of the above
90. Banner flag is planted at a distance of
(i) At the site of work
(ii) At 1200 mtrs from welding site
(iii) At 30 mtrs from welding site
(iv) 600 Mt. from welding site .*
91. Ist detonator is planted at a distance of
 (i) 1200 Mt. from welding site .*
(ii) 600 mtrs from welding site
(iii) 30 mtrs from welding site
(iv) None of the above
92. Distance between the two detonators should be
(i) 15 Mt.
(ii) 10 Mt.*
(iii) 20 Mt
(iv) None of the above
93. How many detonators are planted during protection of track for welding site ?
(i) One
(ii) Two
(iii) Three*
(iv) None of the above
94. New AT weld should be entered in TMS by ?
(i) Sectional JE/SSE*
(ii) Incharge SSE
(iii) Welder
(iv) None of the above
94. In how many time rough riding should be done of new AT weld ?
(i) Just after the welding*
(ii) After 8 hrs of welding
(iii) After 24 hrs
(iv) None of the above
95 In how many time final grinding should be done of new AT weld ?
(i) Just after the welding
(ii) After 8 hrs of welding
(iii) With in 24 hrs*
(iv) None of the above
96. Till USFD testing of new AT weld what is criteria for joggling ?
(i) Joggling with two far end bold
(ii) Joggling with two tight clamps*
(iii) Leave without joggling till its testing
 (iv) None of the above
97. What is the testing frequency of new AT weld ?
(i) Just after the welding
(ii) After 7 days of welding
(iii) With in the one month of welding*
(iv) None of the above
97. After declare good in USFD testing what is the joggling criteria ?
(i) Joggle will be open from the AT weld*
(ii) Joggling with two far end bolting
(iii) joggling with four tight bold
(iv) None of the above
98. USFD testing of new AT weld will be done by ?
(i) JE/SSE sectional
(ii) Incharge SSE
(iii) USFD machine operator*
(iv) None of the above
99. Testing of AT weld shall be done from ?
(i) SRT
(ii) DRT
(iii) Digital weld tester
(iv) None of the above
100. After how much time lining of crucible should be changed ?
(i) After every weld
(ii) After 7 welds
(iii) After every 10 welds*
(iv) None of the above
101. Trimming of AT weld should be done by ?
(i) Chisel
(ii) Trimmer*
(iii) Both
(iv) None of the above
102. What is the app. Weight of 52 kg portion?
(i) 10 kg
 (ii) 11 kg*
(iii) 12 kg
(iv) None of the above
103. What is the app weight of 60 kg portion ?
(i) 11 kg
(ii) 12 kg
(iii) 13 kg*
(iv) None of the above
104. What is the dia of thimble ?
(i) 14-16 mm
(ii) 16-18 mm*
(iii) 18-20 mm
(iv) None of the above
105 . Ignition rod can be ignited from ?
(i) Match box
(ii) Ignition match*
(iii) From fire
(iv) None of the above
106 . In AT welding process what is the role of closing pin ?
(i) To hold the portion before melt
(ii) To hold the asbestos powder & slag
(iii) Both above are correct*
(iv) None of the above
107. In AT welding process what is the role of asbestos powder & slag ?
(i) To separate closing pin from portion*
(ii) To hold the portion
(iii) Both above are correct
(iv) None of the above

Question Bank (USFD)

1. What is the meaning of HAZ ?

 (i) Heat around Zone.
(ii) Heat alongwith Zone
(iii) Heat affected Zone*
(iv) Heat added zero.
2. If code of a fracture is OFW-422 then it means.
(i) AT welding with transverse crack.
(ii) Flash butt welding with transverse crack.
(iii) At welding with horizontal crack.*
(iv) None of the above.
0
3 45 probe is used for detecting defect in;
(i) FB weld
(ii) AT weld
(iii) FB weld, AT weld & SEJ
(iv) All above*
0
4 By 0 probe in AT weld testing with normal gain setting.
(i) Area below N.axis can be tested.
(ii) Area below N.axis can not be tested.*
(iii) Only web below N.axis can be tested.
(iv) All above are correct.
5 Tandem rig test with 450 probe for AT weld detects.
(i) Horizontal longitudinal defect in weld.
(ii) Vertical oriented defect in AT weld.*
(iii) Transverse defect in AT weld.
(iv) Defect in flange of AT welds.
6 Total no. of probes fitted on digital double rail tester for rail testing are
(i) 12
(ii) 8
(iii) 14*
(iv) 16.
7 If digital DRT is calibrated for 300 mm longitudinal wave using 00 double crystal
probe then 60kg rail ---------peak will appear at
(i) 5.2
(ii) 5.7*
(iii) 7.8
(iv) 8.6
8 Addition gain of 10 db is used for testing.
(i) ‘D’ marked rails on single lines.
(ii) ‘D’ marked rails on double lines.
(iii) Testing on single line and ‘D’ marked rails on double/multiple lines section.*
(iv) None of above.
9. The increased gain of 10 dbs for single line & ‘D’ marks rails on double/multiple lines
shall be employed for classification of defects.
(i) defect in weld
(ii) defects in rail. *
(iii) for both defects on weld & rail.
(iv) None of above.
10. On Rajdhani routes testing frequency of rail testing for rail section of 60kg with annual
GMT 80, will be.
(i) 4 months
(ii) 1 ½ months
(iii) 1 months*
(iv) None of above.
10 Sensitivity calibration against temp. variation shall be carried out.
(i) At least once in month*
(ii) quarterly.
(iii) at least once in six months
(iv) Any of above.
12 The gap between probing face and probing shoe should be.
(i) 0.4 mm
(ii) 0.2mm *
 (iii) 3mm
(iv) 1mm.

13 For rolling mark 60 kg/Sail/X/2010 the first testing in the field after initial testing of
rails in rail manufacturing plant, will be done.
(i) After test free period of 25%.
(ii) After passage of every 40 GMT traffic during test free period.*
(iii) After passage of 200 GMT.
(iv) On the basis of annual GMT of the section.
14 Side looking 700 2MHZ probe is tested for detecting.
(i) Flaw in head
(ii) Flaw in web
(iii) Half moon crack in flange.*
(iv) For all above.

16 Marking of DFWO weld is.

(i) Two red point circle on both faces of weld.*
(ii) Two red point cross on both faces of weld.
(iii) One red point circle on both faces of weld.
(iv) None of the above.
17 DFWR weld shall be replaced.
(i) Within 2 months of detection.
(ii) Within 1 year of detection.
(iii) Within 3 months of detection.*
(iv) after 3 days of detection.
18 On a branch line one new AT Weld with 00 probe shows a signal of 58 is.
(i) DFWO*
(ii) DFWR
(iii) IMRW
(iv) OBSW
19 During periodic testing of an AT weld with 700 probe, a bunch of moving signals of
 less than 40% but more than 10% is observed in the head of weld, the joint will be.
(i) Good joint.*
(ii) DFWR
(iii) DFWO
(iv) OBSW
20 The frequency of a wave travelling at a speed of 500 ms-1 is 25 Hz. Its time period will

be ______.
(i) 20 s
(ii) 0.05 s
(iii) 25 s
(iv) 0.04 s

21 The amplitude of a wave is ______.

(i) the distance the wave moves in one second

(ii). the distance the wave moves in one time period of the wave

the maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of the mean
(iii)
position*
(iv) the distance equal to one wave length
22 The physical quantity, which oscillates in most waves, is
(i) mass
(ii) energy
(iii) Amplitude*
(iv) wavelength

Sanitary Engineering

1. Sewerage system of a railway colony may be

(a) Combined system
(b) Separate system
(c) Partially combined system
(d) Any of them*
2.
3. Self cleaning velocity of a sewer line depends upon
(a) Diameter of sewer
(b) Gradient of ewer line
(c) Type of sewerage
(d) All of them*

4. For design of sewers for sullage, minimum velocity of ---- metres per second is taken.
(a) 1.0 m sec*
(b) 1.5 m/sec
(c) 2.0 m/sec
(d) 2.5 m/sec

5. For achieving self-cleaning velocity, a minimum velocity of ---- mps. Is desirable for
design peak flow
(a) 0.6 mps
(b) 0.8 mps*
(c) 1.0 mps
(d) 2.0 mps

6. Indicate which of the statement is incorrect

(a) The detritus tank is type of a grit chamber
(b) In detritus tank, velocity of flow is further reduced
(c) Grit chambers are provided in the sewage treatment process to remove the heavier
inorganic matter as grit, sand etc. from the sewage
(d) None of them*

7. In case of septic tank, the length (L) to width (B) ratio is generally
(a ) L = 3 B*
(b) L = 5 B
(c) L = 1.5 B
(d) L = B

8. Effective depth of septic tank of 10 users is about

(a) 1.0 m
(b) 1.2 m*
(c) 1.7 m
(d) 2.0 m

9. Free board given in septic tank is about

(a) 100 mm
 (b) 200 mm
(c) 300 mm*
(d) 500 mm

10. The internal size of bio latrine tank is

(a) 1200mm. x 1200mm. x 670mm.
(b) 1200mm. x 670mm. x 1200mm.*
(c) 1200mm. x 760mm. x 1200mm.
(d) None of these

11. Indian type W.C. pan shall have 10cm. S.C.I. trap P or S type with effective seal of
(a) 5 cm.*
(b) 10 cm.
(c) 7.5 cm
(d) None of these

12. The capacity of high level flushing cistern is generally

(a) 7.5 ltrs.
(b) 10 ltrs.*
(c) 12.5 ltrs.
(d) None of these

13. Maximum height of low level cistern from top of W.C. pan should be
(a) 65 cm.
(b) 30 cm.
(c) 8
(d) 120 cm.
(e) 80 cm.
14.
15. For high level flush the nominal dia of flush pipe shall be
(a) 32 mm*
(b) 40 mm
(c) 25 mm
(d) None of these

16. The urinal basin shall be connected with

(a) High level floating cistern*
(b) Low level floating cistern
(c) Automatic floating cistern
(d) Any one of the above
15 The capacity of automatic flushing cistern connected with one urinal shall be
(a) 05 litrs.
(b) 10 litrs.
(c) 12.5 litrs.
(d) None of these

16 The capacity of automatic flushing cistern connected with two urinal shall be
(a) 10 litrs.*
(b) 12.5 litrs.
(c) 05 litrs.
(d) None of these

17 The capacity of automatic flushing cistern connected with three urinal shall be
(a) 05 litrs.
(b) 10 litrs.
(c) 12.5 litrs.*
(d) None of these
18. The wash hand basin shall be fixed at a height of
(a) 75-80 cm*
(b) 75 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) Not specified

19. Before discharging the foul sewage into rivers, it is generally treated by
(a) screening
(b) sedimentation
(c) Oxidation
(d) sludge digestion and disinfection
(e) all the above*

20. If the pH value of sewage is

(a) it is acidic
(b) it is alkaline
(c) it is neutral*
(e) None of these

21. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage is the

(a) Oxygen required to oxidise
(b) Oxygen required to oxidise biologically inactive organic matter*
(c) a and b both
(d) none of these

Principles of Surveying

1. Distance between two points is measured by

(a) Pacing
(b) Pedometer
 (c) Passometer
(d) Chaining
(e) All the above*

2. The following instrument is used to set out a right angle

(a) Cross staff
(b) Optical staff
(c) Prism square
(d) None of the above
(e) All the above*

3. In order to do fly levelling the following type of methodology is adopted

(a) Rise & fall method
(b) Height of instrument method
(c) Both the above*
(d) None of the above

4 For locating an inaccessible point with the help of only a plane table, one should use
(a) traversing
(b) resection
(c) radiation
(e) Intersection*

5 The method of plane tabling commonly used for establishing the instrument station is a
method of

(a) Radiation
(b) Intersection*
(c) Resection
(d) Traversing

6. A metallic tape is made of

(a) Steel
(b) Invar
(c) Linen
(d) Cloth & wires*

7. Dumpy level is most suitable when

(a) The instrument is to be shifted frequently
(b) Fly leveling is being done over long distance
(c) Many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument*
 (d) All of the above

8. Two contour lines, having the same elevation

(a) Cannot cross each other
(b) Can cross each other
(c) Cannot unite together
(d) Can unite together*

9. In setting up a plane table at any station

(a) Leveling is done first
(b) Centering is done first
(c) Both leveling and centering are done simultaneously *
(d) Orientation is done first

10. Contour interval on a map sheet denotes

(a) Vertical distance of contour lines above the datum plane
(b) Vertical distance between two successive contour lines
(c) Slope distance between two successive contour lines
(d) Horizontal distance between two successive contour lines

11. Theodolite is an instrument used for

(a) Tightening the capstan-headed nuts of level tube
(b) Measurement of horizontal angles only
(c) Measurement of vertical angles only
(d) Measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles*

12. A series of closely spaced contour lines represent a

(a) Steep slope*
(b) Gentle slope
(c) Uniform slope
(d) Plane surface

13. Three point problem can be solved by

(a) Tracing paper method
(b) Bessels method
(c) Lehman”s method
(d) All of the above*

14. The size of a plane table is

(a) 750mm x 900 mm
 (b) 600mm x 750 mm*
(c) 450mm x 600 mm
(d) 300mm x 450 mm

15. In a theodolite the line passing through the intersection of the horizontal and vertical
cross hairs and the optical centre of the object glass and its continuation, is known as
(a) Horizontal axis
(b) Vertical axis
(c) Line of collination
(d) Line of sight
(e) Either of c or d above*

16. In a theodolite a condition arising when the image formed by the objective is not in the
plane of cross hairs is known as
(a) Parallax*
(b) Out of sight
(c) Out of place
(d) Transiting
(e) Centring

17. Which of the following in theodolite work is imperfect adjustment of the instrument
(a) Error due to line of collimation being perpendicular to the horizontal axis
(b) Error due to axis not to perpendicular of the vertical axis
(c) Error due to imperfect graduation
(d) Error due to eccentricity of vernires
(e) All of the above*

Engineering Surveys and Project Reports

1. Which of the following survey are required to be done before the construction of new
railway line.
(a) Traffic survey
(b) Reconnaessarice survey
(c) Preliminary survey
(d) Final location survey
(e) All the above *
2. Which of the instruments is not used in Reconnaissance survey.
(a) Prismatic compass
(b) Dumpy level *
(c) Aneroid Barometer
(d) Pedometer

3. Which of the instruments is not used in Preliminary survey.

Theodelite
(a)
Tacheometer
(b)
Dumpy level
(c)
Plane table
(d)
None of them*
(e)

4. While doing final location survey, the centre line is fully marked with pegs at --- metre
distance
(a) 10m
(b) 20m*
(c) 30m
(d) 50m
5. The project report of final location survey gives tabulated statement of the following
(a) Curve abstract
(b) Gradient abstract
(c) Bridge abstract
(d) Important bridges
(e) Station machinery
(f) Stations and stations sites
(g) All the above*

6. The project report of the reconnaissance survey should be accompanied by a map of the
area at a scale of 1 cm= --- km.
(a) 2.5 km
(b) 5.0 km
(c) 10.0 km
(d) 15.0 km
(e) 20.0 km*

7. The project report of the reconnaissance survey should be accompanied by Index map
area at a scale of 1 cm = ---- km.
(a) 2.5 km*
(b) 5.0 km
(c) 10.0 km
(d) 15.0 km
(e) 20.0 km
8. The purpose of reconnaissance survey
(a) To determine technical fenibility of the line*
(b) To assess whether such a line is required or not
(c) To decide the final alignment of the railway line
(d) None of the above

9. Traffic survey is done to find out

(a) The most promising route for the railway in the area
(b) The possible traffic the railway line will carry
(c) Standard of railway line to be followed
(d) All the above*

10. The survey instrument used for reconnaissance survey

(a) Theodelite & Dumpty level
(b) Prismatic compass & Aneriod barometer*
(c) All the above
(d) None of them

11. A detailed project report of the proposed railway line is made after
(a) Preliminary survey
(b) Reconnaissance survey
(c) Final location survey*
(d) Traffic survey

12. Survey of the major projects is done by

(a) Chief Engineer
(b) Chief Administrative Officer (CAO) construction*
(c) Divisional Railway Manager
(d) Railway Board

13. The index map of preliminary report should be to a scale of

(a) 1 cm to 0.5 km
(b) 1 cm to 1.0 km
(c) 1 cm to 2.5 km*
(d) 1 cm to 10.0 km
 New Lines, Doublings & Gauge Conversion Projects

1. A new railway line is required to be constructed beaus’ of following reasons

(a) Strategic and political considerations
(b) Development of backward area
(c) To shorten existing rail link
(d) Any of them*

2. In case of emergency, land can be acquired urgently by operation of special section

(a) Section 4 & 6
(b) Section 9 & 17*
(c) Section 8 & 10
(d) None of them

3. Formation width for banks for B.G. single line section is

(a) 6.10 m
(b) 6.50 m
(c) 6.85 m*
(d) 7.0 m

4. Formation width for cuttings for B.G. single line section is

(a) 5.40 m
(b) 6.20 m
(c) 6.25 m*
(d) 6.50 m

5. Formation width for bank for B.G. double line section is

(a) 10.82 m
(b) 11.0 m
(c) 11.58 m
(d) 12.155 m*

6. Formation width for bank for M.G. double line section is

(a) 8.50 m
(b) 8.84 m
(c) 9.65 m
(d) 9.81 m*

7. The centre to centre spacing formation width for double line section is
 (a) 4725 mm
(b) 5025
(c) 5330*
(d) 5500

8. The number of standard rails (13 m) for one km. BG section single line section is
(a) 120
(b) 154*
(c) 168
(d) 196

9. Number of sleepers required having sleeper density of M+7 for one Km of BG single line
is
(a) 1360
(b) 1540*
(c) 1660
(d) None of the above

10. Number of Elastic clips used for one K to BG single line section having 13 length &
concrete sleepers of M+7 sleeper density are
(a) 5280
(b) 6160*
(c) 6250
(d) 6500

11. Gauge conversion means:

(a) Converting MG to BG
(b) Converting NG to MG
(c) Converting NG to BG
(d) Converting MG/NG to BG*

12. For new lines, width of formation in cutting for M.G. single line is
(a) 5.25 m*
(b) 5.85 m
(c) 6.25 m
(d) 6.85 m

13 For new lines, width of formation in bank for M.G. single line is

(a) 5.25 m
(b) 5.85 m*
 (c ) 6.25 m
(e) 6.85 m

14 For new lines, width of formation in cutting for N.G. single line is

(a) 3.35 m*
(b) 3.70 m
(c) 5.25 m
(d) 5.85 m

15 For new lines, width of formation in bank for N.G single line is

(a) 3.35 m
(b) 3.70 m*
(c ) 5.25 m
(e) 5.85 m

Railway Station and Passenger Amenities

1. A Railway Stations is provided for the following purpose

(a) To entrain or detrain the passengers
(b) To load or off load the goods or parcels
(c) To enable the faster trains to overtake the slower trains
(d) All the above*

2. For Category “A” stations, the annual passenger earning should be

(a) Rs. 10 crores of more
(b) Rs. 6 crores or more*
(c) Rs. 3 crores or more
(d) Less than Rs. 3 crores

3. Category “B” station are those, where annual passenger earnings are
(a) Rs. 6 to 10 crores
(b) Rs. 3 to 6 crores*
(c) Rs. 1 to 3 crores
(d) Less than Rs. 1 crore

4. The minimum essential facility at each type of stations A to F consist of

(a) Booking facility
 (b) Drinking Water
(c) Waiting hall/shed
(d) All the above*

5. Numbers of taps on each platform of ‘A’ category station as per norms of minimum
essential facility criteria are
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 15*

6. Numbers of taps on each platform of ‘B’ category station as per norms of minimum
essential facility criteria are
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12*
(d) 15

7. Numbers of taps on each platform of ‘C’ category station as per norms of minimum
essential facility criteria are
(a) 6*
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 15

8. Numbers of latrines on ‘A’ category of stations as per norms for essential amenities is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10*

9. Numbers of latrines on ‘B’ category of stations as per norms for essential amenities is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6 *
(d) 10

10. Numbers of latrines on ‘C’ category of stations as per norms for essential amenities is
(a) 2 *
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10

11. Numbers of latrines on ‘D’ category of stations as per norms for essential amenities is
(a) 2
 (b) 4*
(c) 6
(d) 10

12. A model stations on railways should have

(a) Minimum essential facilities
(b) Desirable facilities*
(c) Recommended facilities
(d) All the above

13. For ‘A’ category stations it is necessary to provide

(a) High level platform*
(b) Medium level platform
(c) Rail level platform
(d) All the above

14. For ‘B’ category stations as per minimum essential facility it is necessary to provide
(a) High level platform
(b) Medium level platform*
(c) Rail level platform
(d) All the above

15. Foot over bridge must be provided on the following type of stations as per minimum
essential facility criteria
(a) A, B, C, & D class station
(b) A,B & C class station*
(c) A, & B class station
(d) Only A class station

16. Latrines & urinals must be provided on these type of stations as per minimum essential
facility criteria
(a) A, B, C, D, E & F type station
(b) A,B,C,D & E type station*
(c) A,B,C & D type station
(d) A, B & C type station

17. Number of taps to be provided on ‘A’ category stations on each platform as per norms of
minimum essential facilities are
(a) 20 taps
(b) 15 taps
(c) 12 taps*
(d) One taps for each bogie

18. Number of urinals & latrines to be provided on ‘A’ category stations as per norms on
main essential facilities are
(a) 15
 (b) 10*
(c) 8
(d) 6

19. Urinals & Latrines for A & B stations as norms for recommended level of facilities for
railway station
(a) Ndb/500
(b) Ndb/300
(c) Ndb/200*
(d) None of the above

20. Number of taps on platform as per norms for recommended level of facilities
(a) One for every coach
(b) One for alternate coach*
(c) One every 200 metres distance
(d) At the discretion of DRM
21. Which of the facilities do not exist at halt station?
(a) Facilities for stopping the train
(b) Facilities for a small waiting
(c) Facilities for crossing of train*
(d) Facilities for book of passengers

22. Height of platform of a flag station in cutting above rail level is

(a) Same height as Rail level
(b) 305 mm above rail level
(c) 455 mm above rail level
(d) 840mm above rail level*

23. Size of cubicle of a booking office is kept as

(a) 1.20 x 1.50 m
(b) 1.50 x 1.20 m
(c) 1.50 x 1.80 m
(d) 1.80 x 1.50 m*

24. “B” class station is provided only on

(a) Single lines
(b) Double line
(c) On both single as well as double line*
(d) None of them

25. Height of high level platform for passengers for BG is --- high
(a) 0.455 m
(b) 0.560 m
(c) 0.650 m
(d) 0.760 m*
26. Height of Low level platform for passengers for BG is --- high
(a) 0.455 m*
(b) 0.560 m
(c) 0.650 m
(d) 0.760 m

27. Number of model stations identified for development on Indian Railways is about
(a) 55
(b) 110*
(c) 265
(d) 320

28. As per norms for desirable amenity as given to model station, the refreshment rooms
should be provided on stations classified as ---
(a) A & B*
(b) A,B & C
(c) A,B,C & D
(d) A, B,C, D & E
(e) A

29. As per norms for desirable amenity as given to model station, the book stalls should be
provided on stations classified as ---
(a) A & B
(b) A,B & C*
(c) A,B,C & D
(d) A, B,C, D & E
(e) A

30. As per norms for desirable amenity as given to model station, the public address system
should be provided on stations classified as ---
(a) A & B
(b) A,B & C*
(c) A,B,C & D
(d) A, B,C, D & E
(e) A

31. As per norms for desirable amenity as given to model station, the parking
facility/circulating area should be provided on stations classified as ---
(a) A & B
(b) A,B & C
(c) A,B,C & D*
(d) A, B,C, D & E