Duration : 03:00 Hours 1

Date : 04/11/24
Chemistry Classes
NTS -04 T-26 (6.0) LOCUS ACADEMY

LOCUS ACADEMY
Chemistry for IIT-JEE, NEET, & Foundation Courses

NTS : T-2026 (6.0)

Total Mark’s Physics

Syllabus & Details
Chemistry Biology
05
❖ Work, Energy and (1) GOC (Acidic & Basic Strength) - 20Q ❖ Test No 1, 2, 3, 4
Power (2) GOC (Isomerism - 20Q) ❖ Test No 1, 2, 3, 4
720 (3) GOC (IUPAC, Electronic Effects, Stability of
Carbocations Carbanions, Electrophiles and
Nucleophiles) 10Q

Student Name : (in Capitals) Enrollment Number :

Physics “Sec” A (QN. 1-35)

[You can attempt all 35 questions in this section. You get +4 for
each correct answer & -1 for each incorrect answer.] 05. The force constant of a spring is K and that of another is
01. If momentum of body increased by 50%, then percentage 3K. Now spring with force constant K is stretch by x and
increase in kinetic energy is spring with force constant 3K is stretch by 3x. If work
(A) 125 % done on spring is W1 & W2 respectively then

(B) 39 % (A) W1 = W2

(C) 69 % (B) W1 = 3W2

(D) 150 % (C) W2 = 3W1

02. Statement A: Work done by non conservative force is (D) W2 = 27 W1

path independent. 06. A force of (3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂) N acts on a body for 2 seconds
Statement B: Energy is scalar quantity but power is a and produces a displacement of (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂) m.
vector quantity. Calculate the average power
(A) A and B are correct (A) 7 W
(B) A and B are incorrect (B) 14 W
(C) A is correct and B is incorrect (C) 9 W
(D) A is incorrect and B is correct (D) 12 W
03. Potential energy of a particle (in J) at position X is given 07. The displacement x of a body of mass 1 kg on horizontal
by U = 9x3 – 5x. Force on particle at x = 0 is (x is in m 9𝑡 2
smooth surface as a function of time t is given by x = .
and F is in N) 2

(A) 10 N The work done in the first second is

(B) 0 N (A) Zero
(C) 5 N (B) 40.5 J
(D) 7 N (C) 81 J
04. A particle of mass m moves with velocity v = 𝑎 √𝑥, where (D) 24 J
a is constant. Find the work done by all the forces during 08. A force F = (3x2 + 9x2) N act on a particle in positive
the displacement from x = 0 to x = d. x – direction. Increase in KE of block when it moves from
1 x = 0 to x = 2m is (x measured in meter)
(A) 𝑚𝑎𝑑 2
2
(A) 32 J
1
(B) 𝑚𝑎2d (B) 16 J
2
1
(C) 𝑚𝑎𝑑 (C) 20 J
2
1 (D) 3 J
(D) 𝑚𝑎 2d
3

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09. A particle moving with constant speed in a circular path 16. A ball is dropped from a high of 100 m. Due to collision
experience a force of 5 N which is constant in magnitude with floor it loses 40% kinetic energy. After collision ball
and is always acting towards origin. The work done by rise to height ?
the force on the particle during its displacement from (A) 80 m
(-3, -4, 0) to (3, 4, 0).
(B) 20 m
(A) Zero
(C) 40 m
(B) 25 J
(D) 60 m
(C) 30 J
17. A particle is moving with constant power. The
(D) 5√2 J acceleration a of particle varies with velocity v is –
10. When a conservative force does positive work on a body a a
then the
(A) Potential energy of the body increases
(A) (B)
(B) Potential energy of the body decreases
v v
(C) Total mechanical energy of body decreases
(D) Total mechanical energy of body increases a a
11. A particle of mass 2 kg can move along x-axis
(C) (D)
representing force given as F = (5x2 – 6x) N. The point on
x-axis where particle in stable equilibrium are ?
4 v v
(A) x = m
3
18. A ball is projected vertically upward with a certain initial
(B) x = 0
speed. Another ball of same mass is projected at an angle
6
(C) x = m of 60o with the vertical with the same initial speed. At
5
highest point of the journey the ratio of their potential
(D) Both (B) and (C) correct energies will be –
12. A variable force F acts on a body. It the displacement of (A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
body proportional to t5/2, them power delivered by F
proportional to (t is time) (C) 3 : 2 (D) 4 : 1
(A) t0 (B) t2 19. A force of 10N acts on a 20 kg body parallel to horizontal
surface and body initially at rest. The work done by the
(C) t3 (D) t2/3 force during the first second of motion is –
13. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct (A) 5 J (B) 5/6 J
alternative.
(C) 2.5 J (D) 6/7 J
Assertion : At equilibrium, potential energy of a body
may be maximum. 20. Two bodies A and B have masses 20 kg and 5 kg
respectively. Each one is acted upon by same forces of
Reason : At stable equilibrium, potential energy is 4 kg wt. If they acquired the same KE in time t A and tB,
maximum. 𝑡
then the ratio 𝐴 is –
𝑡𝐵
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
1
the correct explanation of the assertion (A) (B) 2
2
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is 2 5
(C) (D)
not the correct explanation of the assertion 5 6

(C) Assertion is true statement but reason is false 21. The potential energy of a conservative system is given by
U = (9x2 – 3x) J. Then equilibrium position is at –
(D) Both assertion and reason are false statements
(A) x = 1.5 m
14. A force 𝐹 ⃗⃗⃗ = (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂) N is acting on an object of
(B) x = 1.6 m
mass 2 kg which is moving from point A (0, 1m, 2m) to
the point B (3m, 0, 3m), then work done by the force on (C) x = 0.7 m
the particle will be (D) x = 2.5 m
(A) 4 J (B) 6 J 22. In head-on elastic collision, which of the following
(C) 2 J (D) Zero statement is true ?
15. Two ideal helical springs have spring constants k1 = 20 (A) Only kinetic energy of system is conserved
N/m and k2 = 40 N/m respectively. If they have been (B) Only momentum is conserved
pulled by same force and potential energy stored in first
spring is 60 J, then potential energy stored in second (C) Both kinetic energy and momentum of system is
spring will be conserved

(A) 60 J (B) 30 J (D) Neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved

(C) 15 J (D) 10 J

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23. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 33. A particle is in conservative field whose potential energy
5 cm is u. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential (U) varies with the position as shown. The net force on
energy will be ? the particle is zero during
(A) 4 u (B) 8 u U
(C) 16 u (D) u/16 X Y
24. How much oil a pump of 5 kW can raise to a tower 50 m
high every hour. (g = 10 m/s2) X
O Z
(A) 7200 kg (B) 18000 kg (A) O to X
(C) 36000 kg (D) 72000 kg (B) X to Y
25. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line (C) Y to Z
under the action of force of 5 N. If the work done is 25
joule. The angle which the force makes with the direction (D) All of these
of motion of the body is – 34. The force exerted on an object is described by relation F =
𝑥
(A) 0 o
(B) 30 o f0( − 1)(where f0 and a are constants). The work done in
𝑎
o
(C) 60 (D) 90o moving the object from x = 0 to x = 3a is
3 1
26. A body of mass m kg lifted by a man to height of one (A) f0a (B) f0a
2 2
meter in 90 sec. Another man lift the same mass to same
height in 120 sec. The work done by them are in the ratio (C) f0a (D) Zero
of – 35. A ball rebounds from the floor as shown in figure. The
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 coefficient of restitution for the collision between the ball
and ground is
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 3 : 1
27. A body of mass 5 kg at rest on smooth surface is acted
upon simultaneously by two forces 3 N and 4 N at right
angle to each other. The kinetic energy of body at the end
of 6 s is –
(A) 60 J (B) 80 J
(C) 85 J (D) 90 J
28. An object of mass m is projected from ground with a 1 1
momentum P at an angle such that its maximum height is (A) (B)
4 2
1/4th of its horizontal range. Its minimum kinetic energy (C) 1 (D)
1
in its path will be – 8

𝑃2 𝑃2 Physics Sec “B” (QN. 36-50)

(A) (B)
8𝑚 4𝑚 [You can attempt ANY 10 out of 15 questions in this section. You
3𝑃2 𝑃2 get +4 for each correct answer & -1 for each incorrect answer.]
(C) (D)
4𝑚 𝑚
36. The correct representation of power is
29. If 600 J of work is done in sliding a 5 kg block up an 𝑃 = 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
inclined plane of height 10 m, work done against friction
(𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝐹 = 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 )
is –
𝑉 = 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
(A) 50 J (B) 100 J ⃗⃗⃗ |
|𝐹
(A) P = 2
⃗⃗⃗ × 𝑉
(B) P = |𝐹 ⃗⃗⃗ |
(C) 200 J (D) 400 J ⃗⃗⃗ |
|𝑉
30. A body of mass 20 kg is dropped to the ground from a ⃗⃗⃗ |
|𝐹
(C) P = ⃗⃗ .V
(D) P = F ⃗⃗⃗
height 50 m. The work done by gravitational force is – ⃗⃗⃗ |
|𝑉

(A) – 490 J (B) +490 J 37. A block of mass m is moving with speed v towards a
(C) –980 J (D) +980 J spring block system of mass (m) and spring constant (K)
as shown in figure. If the collision is perfectly elastic then
31. A particle released from a height S. At certain height its maximum compression in the spring will be (Assume all
kinetic energy is 3 times of it potential energy. The height the surfaces to be smooth)
of particle at that instant is
(A) S/4 (B) S/2
(C) 2S/3 (D) S/3
32. The linear momentum of the system is conserved in
m 2m
(A) Elastic collision only (A) v√ (B) v√
K K
(B) Inelastic collision only
v m
(C) Both elastic and inelastic collision (C) v√ (D) v√
2K 2K
(D) Neither elastic nor inelastic collision
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38. A woman pushes a trunk on a railway platform which has 43. Consider the following statements.
a rough surface. She applies a force of 100 N over a A: Spring force is deformation dependent.
distance of 10 m. Thereafter, she gets progressively tired
and her applied force reduces linearly with distance to B: Work done by spring force depends on initial and final
60 N. The total distance through which the trunk has been deformation.
moved is 40 m. Calculate the work done by the women ? (A) Both statements are true
(A) 3400 J (B) Both statements are false
(B) 2400 J (C) Only first statement is true
(C) 1750 J (D) Only second statement is true
(D) 3600 J 44. The power applied to a particle varies with time as
39. An elevator can carry a maximum load of 2000 kg P = (6t2 – 1) w, where t is in second. The change in
(elevator + passengers) is moving up with a constant kinetic energy between time t = 1s and t = 2s is –
speed of 2 m s–1. The frictional force opposing the motion (A) 6 J (B) 12 J
is 8000 N. Determine the minimum power delivered by (C) 7 J (D) 14 J
the motor to the elevator
45. A sphere of mass m moving horizontally with velocity v0
(A) 56000 hp collides against a pendulum bob of mass m. If the two
(B) 75 hp masses stick together after the collision, then the
(C) 59 hp maximum height attained is –
𝑣02
(D) 22000 hp (A)
2𝑔
40. The graph between potential energy (U) of a spring versus 𝑣02
its position (x) is best shown by graph (equilibrium x = 0) (B)
4𝑔
𝑣02
(C)
6𝑔
𝑣02
(A) (B) (D)
8𝑔

46. A particle is released from a height of 15 m above ground.

At certain height its kinetic energy is 3 times of its
potential energy. The speed at particle at that instant is
(take g = 10ms–2)
(C) (D)
(A) 5 m s–1 (B) 10 m s–1
(C) 15 m s–1 (D) 25 m s–1
47. A body is displacement from y = 2 m to y = 4 m along the
41. A bob of mass m is suspended by light string of length l. y-axis. For the forces mentioned in column I, match the
At lowest position it is imparted a horizontal velocity corresponding work done in column II.
√5𝑔𝑙 such that it just completes circular trajectory in Column I Column II
vertical circle. What is ratio of its KE at B and C?
(a) ⃗⃗⃗ = 4𝑖̂
𝐹 (i) 8 units
(b) ⃗⃗⃗
𝐹 = (4𝑖̂ – 4𝑗̂) (ii) –8 units
(c) ⃗⃗⃗ = –4𝑗̂
𝐹 (iii) Zero
⃗⃗⃗ = (–4𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂)
(d) 𝐹 (iv) 7 units
(A) 2 : 1 (A) a-(i); b-(iii); c-(ii); d-(iv)
(B) 3 : 1 (B) a-(ii); b-(iii); c-(iv); d-(i)
(C) 5 : 3 (C) a-(iii); b-(ii); c-(ii); d-(i)
(D) 3 : 2 (D) a-(iii); b-(ii); c-(iv); d-(i)
42. What is the angle between force ⃗⃗⃗ 𝐹 = 3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ – 5𝑘̂ unit and 48. The ratio of energy stored in two springs A and B having
displacement 𝑆⃗⃗⃗ = 4𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ unit ? spring constants K and 4 K when stretched by same force
1 will be
(A) cos–1 ( )
5√2 (A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
1
(B) cos–1 ( ) (C) 8 : 1 (D) 1 : 1
25√2
–1 1 49. A particle of mass m has linear momentum P. Its Kinetic
(C) cos ( ) energy will be –
5
1
(D) cos–1 ( ) (A) P2 m (B) MP
25
P2 P2
(C) (D)
2m m

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50. A bird starts flying with constant velocity at an angle 60° 56. How many of the following carbanions are less stable
with horizontal from ground and reaches a point 30 m than CH3-CH2 –
above the ground level. Mass of the bird is 1 kg. If the CH3
average resistance offered by the air is half of the weight
of body and acting in the direction opposite to the velocity CH3 , CH3 C , CH2-NO2 , CH2=CH-CH2
of bird then total work done by bird in this process will be
CH3
(A) 395 J
(B) 300 J (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) 387 J 57. Non-benzenoid molecule is –
(D) 473 J
Chemistry Section – A (Question Number 51-85) (A) CH3

[You can attempt all 35 questions in this section. You get +4 for
each correct answer & -1 for each incorrect answer.]
(B)
51. Correct code for the given statements is –
(i) NH3 & H2O both are nucleophiles.
(ii) :CCl2 is an electrophile. (C)
(iii) All carbocations are electrophiles.
(iv) All carbanions are nucleophiles. (D) O
(A) TTTT (B) TFTF
(C) TTFF (D) FTTT 58. Geometrical isomerism is shown by –
52. Correct statement is – (A) 2-methyl-but-2-ene (B) hex-1-ene
(A) Kb : (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 (C) 1, 2-dichloroethene (D) 3, 4-diethyl-hex-3-ene
(B) Ka : CF3COOH > CH3COOH > C6H5COOH 59. Statement-I : t-butyl carbocation is more stable than
isopropyl carbocation
(C) pKb : pyrrole > pyridine > aniline
Statement-II: t-butyl carbocation contains more
(D) pKa : phenol > p-nitrophenol > picric acid hyperconjugation than isopropyl cation
53. Consider the given carbocation, Its stability order is – (A) Both statement I and statement II are true
(i) CH3 C CH3 (ii) CH3 O C CH3 (B) Both statement I and statement II are false

CH3
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
CH3
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(iii) CH3 C CH CH2 (iv) CH3 NO 2 60. What is the decreasing order of stability of the following
CH3 carbocations ?
+
(A) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) + +
(B) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) +
+

(C) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
(D) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(A) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 > 5
54. Correct order of pKa is –
(B) 3 > 2 > 5 > 4 > 1
(i) OH (ii) C C H (C) 1 = 4 > 2 = 5 > 3
(D) 3 > 1 = 4 > 2 = 5
61. Match the Column (I) with Column (II).
(iii) COOH (iv) SO3H
Column-I Column-II
Groups Effect with benzene
(A) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv)
(B) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) (a) –NO2 (p) –R effect
–
(C) (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii) (b) –O (q) +R effect
(D) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (c) –OCH3 (r) +I effect
55. Conjugate acid of dimethyl amine [(CH3)2NH] is – (d) –CN (s) –I effect
(A) (CH3)2N⊝ Incorrect option is.
(A) a – p, s
(B) (CH3)2NH2 ⊕ (B) b – q, r
(C) CH3NH3 ⊕ (C) c – q, s
(D) d – p, r
(D) (CH3)3N
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62. Correct order of Ka (ionization constant) values is – 67. Match list I with List II
(A) m-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol List I (molecule/reaction) List II (effect)
(B) o-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol 1 P –E &
NH2 Hyperconjugation
(C) p-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol
effect
(D) m-nitrophenol > p-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol
2 Q –R & –I effect
63. Statement–I : The order of pKb in aqueous solution – + H+
C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N
3 R +E &
Statement–II : The order of pKb in aqueous solution – + CN Hyperconjugation
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N effect
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true 4 S +R & –I effect
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false NO2
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false (A) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true (B) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
64. Match List I with List II (C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q
List I List II (D) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P, 4-S
a Propan-1-ol and i Metamerism
68. Match list I with List II
Propan-2-ol
b CH3-O-C3H7 and ii Chain Isomerism List I List II
C2H5-O-C2H5 a Ethyl benzene & i Metamers
c CH3-CO-CH3 and iii Position Isomerism 1,2-dimethyl benzene
CH3CH2CHO b Pentan-2-one and ii chain isomers
d Neopentane and iv Functional Isomerism Pentan-3-one
Isopantane
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii c CH3COC2H5 and iii Functional isomers
CH3-C(OH)=CH-CH3
(B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
d C3H7NH2 and iv Tautomers
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii CH3-NH-C2H5
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
65. The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical isomers (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
of 2-butene is:
(C) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(A) melting point and boiling point of trans-2-butene is
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
more than cis-2-butene
69. Consider the given two molecules & select correct option –
(B) cis-2-butene has more dipole moment than trans-2-
butene (I) CH3-C≡C-CH3 & (II) CH3-CH=CH-CH3
(C) Trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene (A) I and II both can show Geometrical isomerism
(D) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers (B) I and II are functional isomers
66. Consider the given statements- (C) in (I) hybridisation of Carbon is sp3 & sp2
(D) in I all the carbon atoms are present in one line
is more stable than while in II maximum two carbon atoms are present
S1 :
in one line
70. Statement–I : The stereoisomers related to each other
S2 : is more stable than as non-superimposable mirror images
are called enantiomers.
S3 : is more stable than Statement–II : Plane of plane polarised light produced
by passing ordinary light through Nicol
prism is rotated when it is passed
S4 : CH2⊝ –C2H5 is more stable than CH2⊝ –CO–CH3 through the solutions of certain
Correct code is compounds. Such compounds are called
optically active compounds.
(A) F T T T
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true
(B) T F F T
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) T F F F
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) F F T T
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true

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71. Meso molecule is – Cl

78. Statement–I : 2,3-dichloro-butane has three optical
Cl H isomers in which only one isomer is
optically active
(A) (B) Cl
Statement–II : IUPAC name of given molecule is
H Cl
3-methyl-cyclohex-5-en-1-one
Cl H O

(C) (D) Both A and B

H Cl
72. Correct statement about (P) and (Q) is – (A) Both statement I and statement II are true
Cl Cl
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(P) (Q) (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Cl Cl (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(A) P & Q both contains two chiral carbon 79. Meso-tartaric acid is optically inactive due to presence of –
(B) P & Q both contains zero chiral carbon (A) Internal compensation (B) Molecular asymmetry
(C) ‘P’ has ‘2’ and ‘Q’ has zero chiral carbon (C) External compensation (D) None of these
(D) ‘P’ contains ‘2’ and ‘Q’ one chiral carbon 80. Lowest pKb is for –
73. Chiral molecule is – NH
H H F H C2H5-NH2 Aniline
(A) C C C (B) C C N
F F H Cl (A) (B) (C) (D)
Br Cl F 81. Statement–I : CH3CH=CH-NH2 > CH3NH2 (Kb)
H
(C) C C C C (D) C C C Statement–II : CH3-NH-CH3 > NH3 > Aniline (Kb)
Cl F Br F
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true
74. Which of the following compounds have chiral carbon (B) Both statement I and statement II are false
atom(s) ?
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(I) (II) (III) (D) Statement I is false but statement II is true
82. Correct order of Kb in gaseous phase is :
(A) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2
(B) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
(C) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(IV) (V)
(D) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
83. Match the following with their Ka values ―
(A) I & II (B) I, III, IV, & V
Carboxylic acids Ka
(C) II, VI & V (D) II, III & IV
(P) Benzoic acid (I) 4.2×10−5
75. If optical rotation produced by the compound (i) is +52 o
then that produced by that the compound (ii) is : (Q) p-nitrobenzoic (II) 3.3×10−5
(R) p-chlorobenzoic (III) 6.4×10−5
P Q R
(i) (ii)
(A) I II III
(B) III II I
(A) -52o (B) +52o
(C) III I II
(C) 0o (D) unpredictable
(D) II III I
76. Which of the following is an optically active compound ?
84. Correct among the followings is/are ―
(A) butan-1-ol (B) propan-1-ol
(I) Acetylene (C2H2) is stronger acid than ammonia
(C) 3-chloropentane (D) butan-2-ol
(II) Acetylene (C2H2) is weaker acid than alcohol
77. Correct option is – (III) Ammonia is weaker acid than alcohol
(A) Geometrical isomers are Diastereomers. (A) I and II
(B) One chiral carbon containing molecule may be (B) II and III
optically inactive
(C) I and III
(C) Without chiral carbon molecule may be Meso
(D) I, II and III
(D) None of these
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85. Racemic mixture is – 91. Meso molecule among the molecule is –

COOH NH2 Cl Me
(A) A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal
proportions H OH H COOH H OH H Me
(B) A mixture containing two enantiomers in 1:2 HO H H COOH H OH H Me
proportions
COOH NH2 Me
(C) A mixture containing two diastereomers in equal Br
proportions (A) (B) (C) (D)
(D) A optically active mixture containing two
92. The given compound
enantiomers in equal proportions
CH CH CH CH2 CH3
Chemistry “Section” B (From Question Number 86-100)
[You can attempt ANY 10 out of 15 questions in this section. You X
get +4 for each correct answer & -1 for each incorrect answer.]
86. Which is hetero alicyclic ?
OH

(a) (b) (c) is an example of ––––––––––––.

(A) Aryl halide
O N
NH2
(B) Allylic halide

(d) (e) (f) (C) Vinylic halide

N (D) Benzylic halide
O
Correct choice is : 93. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is –

(A) a, b, d and e (B) c and e

(C) d and e (D) only f
87. Number of carbocation from the following that are NOT
stabilized by hyper conjugation is ___________ (A) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
(B) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
, , CH , N CH2 (C) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
3
(D) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
94. Correct option is –

,
O
, CH2 OCH 3 , 1 2
NC C
3
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2 CH2 CH3
88. The total Number of contributing structures showing
hyperconjugation (involving C-H bonds) for the following (A) C-2 and C-3 both are sp3 hybridised
carbocation is –
CH3 (B) C-1 and C-2 both are sp2 hybridised
CH3 CH3
+
CH3 (C) C-1 and C-2 are sp and sp3 hybridised respectively
(D) C-2 and C-3 are sp2 and sp3 hybridised respectively
CH3
95. Correct option for (C–Br) bond length is –
O
CH3
(A) CH3– CH2−Br > CH2=CH−Br > CH3 C Br
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 2 O
89. Correct IUPAC name of compound is :
(B) CH3−CH2−Br > CH3 C Br > CH2=CH−Br
O
O
CH3 CH C O C 2H5
Br
(C) CH3 C Br > CH2=CH−Br > CH3 CH2Br
O
(A) 2–Bromo–1–ethyl–propanoate
(B) 1–Ethyl–2–bromopropanoate (D) CH3 C Br > CH3−CH2−Br > CH2=CH−Br

(C) Ethyl–3–bromo propanoate 96. Statement–I : Propane can show Chain isomerism

(D) Ethyl–2–bromopropanoate Statement–II : C4H10 can show Chain isomerism

90. Most stable free radical is – (A) Both statement I and statement II are true

(A) Methyl free radical (B) tertiary butyl free radical (B) Both statement I and statement II are false

(C) Isopropyl free radical (D) Isobutyl free radical (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true
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97. Consider the given Assertion – Reason – 103. Match List I with List II –
Assertion : In acetic acid, both (C−O) bond lengths are List I List II
different. (a) Three kingdom system (1) Cope land
Reason : Resonating structures of acetic acid are not
(b) Four kingdom system (2) Carl wose
equal in stability.
(c) Six kingdom system (3) Haeckel
Appropriate answer is –
(d) Five kingdom system (4) R.H.W Hittaker
(A) Both are correct but reason is incorrect explanation
of assertion (A) (a) –1, (b) –2, (c) –3, (d) –4
(B) Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of (B) (a) –3, (b) –1, (c) –2, (d) –4
assertion (C) (a) –2, (b) –1, (c) –3, (d) –4
(C) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect (D) (a) –1, (b) –3, (c) –2, (d) –4
(D) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct 104. Which one of the following is not correct ?
98. Statement–I : CH3COOH & HCOOCH3 are functional (A) Bacteria is the sole member of kingdom monera
isomers
(B) Most abundant micro organism is virus
Statement–II : CH3-O-CH3 can show metamerism
(C) Bacteria are grouped under four categories
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true
(D) Heterotrophic Bacteria are most abundant in
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false nature
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false 105. The primitive Prokaryotes responsible for the production
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true of biogas from the dung –
99. In which case marked group shows (–I) effect (A) Thermoacidophiles
CH3 C(CH3)3 (B) Methanogens
(A) (B) (C) Eubacteria
(D) Halophiles
(C) CD3-CH=CH2 (D) CH2 CH C C H 106. Which one of the following is incorrect statement about
Protista ?
100. Correct order of basicity is- (A) All single cell eukaryotes placed under this kingdom
(1) H – C ≡ C ⊝
(2) HO ⊝ (B) This kingdom forms a link with the others dealing
with plants, animals and fungi
(3) CH3CH2⊝ (4) NH2⊝
(C) Protists reproduce asexually by involving cell fusion
(A) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1
(D) Protists reproduce asexually by spore formation
(B) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2
107. Which one of the following is Incorrect, about the
(C) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 flagella of dianoflagellates ?
(D) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 (A) Number of flagella is three
(B) Flagella of dinoflagellates lies longitudinally
Zoology Section – A (Question Number 101-135) (C) Flagella of dinoflagellates lies transversly
[You can attempt all 35 questions in this section. You get +4 for (D) Both (B) and (C)
each correct answer & -1 for each incorrect answer.]
108. Red tides of warm coastal water develop due to the
101. Aristotle divided animals into two groups based on – presence of –
(A) Those which had red blood and those which had (A) dinoflagellates
not
(B) euglenoids
(B) Those which are mobile those which are not
(C) slime moulds
(C) Those which possess heterotrophic made of nutrition
and those which do not (D) protozoa
(D) Those which had nucleus and those which had 109. Which of the following protists releases toxins that may
not even kill fishes and other Marine animals ?
102. Select the Incorrect one about the criteria of five kingdom (A) Euglena
system of classification ? (B) Ganyaulax
(A) Body organization (C) Paramecium
(B) Reproduction (D) Plasmodium
(C) Cell membrane
(D) Mode of nutrition

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110. How many of the following statement regarding fungi are 117. How many of the following is/are correct ?
true ? (i) The protein coat of virus is known as Capsid
(i) Asexual reproduction is common by the (ii) Infectious agent that is smaller than virus is
formation of spore known viroid
(ii) Their bodies consist of hyphae that may be (iii) Common cold is viral disease
interconnect to form mycelium
(iv) Viruses did not find a place in classification because
(iii) They secrete digestive enzymes into organic they are not truly living
matter and then absorb the products of the digestion
(A) Two (B) Three
(iv) Fungi can break down almost any carbon
containing product (C) Four (D) One
(v) Fungi do not enter symbiotic relationships 118. Match List I with List II –
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1 List I List II
111. A dikaryon is formed when – (a) Organ system level of (1) Ctenophora
organisation
(A) Meiosis is arrested
(b) Organ level of (2) Sponges
(B) The two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
organisation
(C) Cytoplasm doesn’t fuse
(d) Tissue level of (3) Platyhelminthes
(D) None of the above organisation
112. The sexual life cycle of fungi involves which of the three (d) Cellular level of (4) Molluscs
sequential steps – organisation
(A) Meiosis in zygote → Karyogamy → Plasmogamy (A) (a) –4, (b) –3, (c) –1, (d) –2
(B) Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Meiosis in zygote (B) (a)–4, (b)–3, (c)–2, (d)–1
(C) Plasmogamy → Meiosis in zygote → Karyogamy (C) (a)–3, (b)–4, (c)–1, (d)–2
(D) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis in zygote (D) (a)–3, (b)–2, (c)–1, (d)–4
113. Which of the following describes the coenocytic 119. Which one of the following statements is/are correct ?
condition of fungi ?
(i) Body cavity in coelom lined by mesoderm
(A) Uninucleate hypha without septum
(ii) In case of Pseudocoelome scattered pouches present
(B) Multinucleate hypha without septum between ectoderm and mesoderm
(C) Multinuclear hypha (iii) Body cavity is absent in acoelomates eg – Tusk shell
(D) Multicellular hypha (iv) Platyhelminthes is the first triploblastic animal
114. Statement I : Simple epithelium consists of single (A) Only I (B) I, III
layer of cell
(C) I, III, IV (D) I, IV
Statement II : Human skin is composed of columnar
epithelium 120. Select the Incorrect statement about the segmentation.

(A) Both statements are correct (A) Body is divided both externally and internally

(B) Both statements are incorrect (B) Body divides into segments with a serial repetation
at least some organ
(C) Only statement I is correct
(C) Pheretima shows metamerism
(D) Only statement II is correct
(D) None of the above
115. Statement I : Areolar tissue is a type of loose
connective tissue 121. Choose the Incorrect statement –

Statement II: Areolar tissue conatins fibroblast, (A) The body can be divided into identical left and right
macrophage, mast cell. halves in only one plane, exhibit bilateral symmetry

(A) Both statements are correct (B) The body divide into two equal halves when any
plane passing through the central axis is called radial
(B) Both statements are incorrect symmetry
(C) Only statement I is correct (C) When any plane passes through the centre doesn’t
(D) Only statement II is correct divide them into equal halves is called asymmetry
116. Which of the following are the examples of (D) Adult echinodermata exhibit bilateral Symmetry
insectivorous plant ? 122. Find the odd one with respect of sponges –
(A) Bladder wort (A) Ostia → water enters through it
(B) Venus fly trap (B) Osculum→ water goes out through it
(C) Nepenthes (C) Choanocytes → collar cell is absent
(D) All of these (D) Spongocoel → central cavity
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123. Out of the following which phylum called primitive 131. Select the odd one from the following matching ?
multicellular animal ? (A) Pteropus→ Flying Fox
(A) Cnidaria (B) Porifera (B) Macropus → Rat
(C) Ctenophora (D) Mollusca (C) Balaenoptera → Blue whale
124. Match List I with List II – (D) Ornithorhynchus→ Platypus
Column I Column II 132. A thin-walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to
(a) Ascaris (1) Filarial worm heart of frog is known as –
(b) Wuchereria (2) Hook worm (A) Truncus arteriosus (B) Sinus venosus
(d) Ancylostoma (3) Round worm (C) Atrium (D) Ventricle
(A) (a)–3, (b)–2, (c)–1 133. How many of the following statement is/are incorrect ?
(B) (a) –3, (b) –1, (c) –2 a. In frog, dissolve oxygen in water can be taken by skin
(C) (a)–1, (b)–3, (c)–2 b. Stomach in frog contain oxyntic and gastric gland
(D) (a)–2, (b)–1, (c)–3 c. Renal portal vein carries blood to kidney
125. Incorrect statement about the Annelida – d. In frog, de-oxygenated blood is received by sinus
venosus
(A) Nereis, an aquatic form is dioecious, but earthworm
and leeches are monoecious (A) Three (B) One (C) Two (D) None
(B) Neural system consists of paired ganglia 134. Select the incorrect statement about frog.
(C) Reproduction is sexual (A) Their skin is always maintain in a moist condition
(D) None of the above (B) The colour of ventral side of body is generally olive
green with dark irregular spots
126. The feeding organ in Phylum – Mollusca is –
(C) On the dorsal side the skin is uniformly pale yellow
(A) Ctenedia (B) Undulating membrane
(D) Both B and C
(C) Sucker (D) Radula
135. Which of the following statements is false ?
127. Which of the following organism bear electric organ ?
(A) The ovaries in frog are structurally and functionally
(A) Trygon (B) Torpedo connected with kideneys
(C) Sting ray (D) Dog fish (B) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000,
128. How many of the following is/are Incorrect about great unfertilised ova at a time
white shark ? (C) In male frog there are 10-12 vasa efferenria arise
(i) Their jaws are very powerful from tests and enter kidneys on their side and open
(ii) Their air bladder absent into Bidder's canal
(iii) Male pelvic fins bear clasper (D) The eggs of from are mesolecithal and telolecithal
(iv) Many of them viviparous Zoology (Section – B)
(v) They are poikilothermous [You can attempt ANY 10 out of 15 questions in this
section. You get +4 for each correct answer & -1 for
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) None each incorrect answer.]
129. Odd one with the respect of chordate – 136. Assertion : Frogs are beneficial for mankind .
(A) They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic Reason : They eat insects and protect the crops.
(B) They are coelomate (A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
(C) Organ level of body organization correct explanation of assertion
(D) Post anal tail present (B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
130. Match the following Column – the correct explanation of assertion
Column I Column II (C) Assertion is true but reason is false

(a) Betta (1) Magur (D) Assertion is false but reason is true
137. Read the following statement and find how many of the
(b) Pterophyllum (2) Flying Fish
following is/are correct about frog ?
(c) Clarias (3) Fighting fish
a. Body is divisible into head and trunk
(d) Exocoetus (4) Angel fish
b. Fore and hind limb help in walking, leaping and
(A) (a) –3, (b) –4, (c) –1, (d) –2 burrowing
(B) (a)–2, (b)–3, (c)–1, (d)–4 c. Frog exhibit sexual dimorphism
(C) (a)–4, (b)–3, (c)–1, (d)–2 d. Male frog is distinguish by the presence of vocal cord
(D) (a)–3, (b)–4, (c)–2, (d)–1 (A) Four (B) Three (C) Two (D) One

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138. Find the false statement regarding frog. 146. Forewings and hindwings in cockroaches arises from –
(A) A nictitating membrane protects a frog’s eyes from (A) Mesothorax and metathorax
strong air currents while on land (B) Prothorax
(B) The hind limbs end is 5 digits (C) Metathorax
(C) Forelimbs are large and more muscular (D) Prothorax and metathorax
(D) Both A and C 147. How the forewings of cockroaches are distinguished from
139. Statement-I : The intestine of frog possesses villi and the hindwings ?
microvilli. (A) Forewings are leathery while hindwings are
Statement-II : The duodenum of frog receives pancreatic membranous
juices through common bile duct. (B) Forewings are much longer while hindwings are
(A) Both are correct (B) Both are incorrect vestigial
(C) Only I is correct (D) Only II is correct (C) Forewings are much reduced and hindwings are
140. In frog, heart is enclosed within two-layered sac called – highly evolved
(A) Mesorchium (B) Pericardium (D) Forewings are transparent while hindwings are
opaque
(C) Pleura (D) Conus arteriosus
148. Which of the following sterna form the brood pouch in
141. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are – female cockroach ?
(A) Nucleated and without haemoglobin (A) 8th, 9th (B) 7th, 8th, 9th
(B) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin (C) 9th, 7th, 8th (D) 8th, 9th, 10th
(C) Nucleated and with haemoglobin 149. Which of the following features is used to identify a male
(D) Very much smaller and fewer cockroach from a female cockroach ?
142. Which one of the following characteristics is common (A) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9 th
both in humans and adult frogs ? abdominal segment
(A) Ureotelic mode of excretion (B) Presence of caudal styles
(B) Four – chambered heart (C) Forewings with darker tegmina
(C) Internal fertilization (D) Presence of anal cerci
(D) Nucleated RBCs 150. Match the following columns.
143. Efficient gaseous exchange in the air sacs of the lungs Column I Column II
occur due to the presence of – (a) Spiracles (1) 6-8
(A) Numerous microvilli (B) Ciliated epithelium (b) Heart chambers (2) 100-150
(C) Flat cells (D) Columnar epithelium
(c) Hepatic ceca (3) 13
144. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles
(d) Malpighian (4) 10
or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are
tubule
mainly present in –
(A) (a) –2, (b) –4, (c) –3, (d) –1
(A) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
(B) (a) –3, (b) –2, (c) –4, (d) –1
(B) Eustachian tube and salivary duct
(C) (a) –1, (b) –4, (c) –2, (d) –3
(C) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(D) (a) –4, (b) –3, (c) –1, (d) –2
(D) Bile duct and bronchioles
145. Match the following. Botany “Section” – A (Question Number 151-185)
[You can attempt all 35 questions in this section. You get +4 for each
Column I Column II correct answer & -1 for each incorrect answer.]
(a) Proventriculus (1) Food storage 151. Read the following statement –
(b) Crop (2) Grinding food particles (a) Katherine Esau was born in England in 1898
(c) Hepatic Caeca (3) Secretion of digestive (b) Dr. Esau’s plant Anatomy published in 1964
juices (c) Esau received the National medal of science from
(d) Malpighian (4) Removal of excretory president George Bush in 1979
tubules products (d) Esau studied agriculture in Russia and Germany and
(A) (a) –4, (b) –3, (c) –2, (d) –1 received her doctorate in 1941 in united states
(B) (a) –2, (b) –1, (c) –3, (d) –4 (e) Dr. Esau died in the year 1997
(C) (a) –2, (b) –4, (c) –1, (d)–3 How many of the above statement is/are correct ?
(D) (a) –3, (b) –2, (c) –4, (d) –1 (A) Three (B) Four
(C) One (D) Two
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152. Statement I – In majority of monocot plant direct 159. How many of following stem modification does develop
elongation of the radicle leads to the from axillary buds
formation of primary root. Colocasia, Grapevines, Cucumber, Pumpkin, Opuntia,
Statement II – Primary root and its branches constitute Citrus, Watermelon, Bougainvillea
tap root system. (A) 7 (B) 6
(A) Both are correct (B) Both are incorrect (C) 5 (D) 4
(C) Only I is correct (D) Only II is correct 160. Which one of the following correct about pineapple ?
153. In some plants roots may become respiratory. Such roots (A) The lateral branches originate from basal and
are known as …(i)… and are found in …(ii)… underground portion of main stem, grow
Then ii and i will be– horizontally beneath the soil and then come out
(A) Prop roots, Rhizophora obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoot
(B) Stilt roots, Sugarcane (B) The lateral branch arises time arch downward to
touch the ground growing aerially for some time
(C) Pneumatophores, Rhizophora arch downward to touch the ground
(D) Rhizophora, Pneumatophores (C) A lateral branch with short internode and each node
154. Select the odd one from the following. bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
(A) Tap root system → Mustard (D) None of these
(B) Fibrous root system → Wheat 161. Which one of the following correct about Stipules ?
(C) Adventitious Root → Grass (A) Two lateral small leaf like structure
(D) None (B) Four lateral small leaf like structure
155. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ? (C) One lateral small leaf like structure
(A) The root is covered by a thimble like structure called (D) Many lateral small leaf like
root cap 162. The leaf base expanded into a sheath crossing the stem
(B) Root cap protect the tender apex of the root as it partially or wholly in –
makes its way through the soil (A) Monocot (B) Dicot
(C) A few centemeters above the root cap is the region (C) All angiosperms plant (D) Gymnosperms
of meristematic activity
163. Choose the correct statement about stem modification of mint –
(D) None of the above
(A) A slender lateral branch arises from base of main axis
156. Match the Column. and after growing underground for some time arch
Column I Column II upward to touch the ground
(a) Tap Root (1) Sugarcane (B) A slender lateral branch arises from base of main
axis and after growing aerially for some time arch
(b) Adventitious Root (2) Banyan
downwards to touch the ground
(c) Prop Root (3) Turnip
(C) Stem modification is same as in strawberries
(d) Stilt Root (4) Sweet Potato (D) Stem modification mint is known as sucker
(A) (a) –3, (b) –4, (c) –1, (d) –2 164. Choose correct statement –
(B) (a) –3, (b) –4, (c) –2, (d) –1 (A) In alternate type; a single leaf arises at each node
(C) (a) –4, (b) –2, (c) –3, (d) –1 (B) In opposite type; a pair leaves arises at each node
(D) (a) –4, (b) –1, (c) –2, (d) –3 (C) In whorled type; more than two leaves arises at each
157. How many of the following statement is/are correct about node
stem ? (D) All of these
(a) It is the ascending part of the axis bear braches, 165. Find out the incorrect one about the following floral
leaves and flowers. diagram.
(b) It develops from plumule.
(c) It bears buds, which may be axillary and terminally.
(d) It conducts water, minerals and photosynthesis.
(A) Four (B) Three
(C) Two (D) One
(A) Leaves of these family is stipulate.
158. The region of stem where leaves are born are –
(B) Arrangement of leaves in these family is whorled.
(A) Nodes
(C) Flower of these family is zygomorphic.
(B) Internode
(C) Both node & internode (D) All of the above
(D) Floral bud
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166. Read the following matching and select the correct one 172. In dicot stem which condition is present –
about solanaceae family. (A) Cambium present between xylem & phloem, known
(a) Stem → Herbaceous rarely woody. as closed type vascular bundle
(b) Fruits → Berry or capsule. (B) Cambium absent between xylem & phloem, known
(c) Calyx → Valvate aestivation. as closed type vascular bundle.
(d) Leaves → Rarely palmately compound. (C) Cambium present outside xylem & phloem, known
as closed type vascular bundle
(A) c and d (B) Only d
(D) Cambium present between xylem & phloem, known
(C) a, b and c (D) a, b, c and d as open type vascular bundle.
167. Read the given statements- 173. In sunflower stem vascular bundle is –
(i) Sclereids are found in leaves of tea (A) Conjoint, closed, exarch protoxylem
(ii) Fibers generally occur single in various plant parts (B) Radial, open, endarch protoxylem
(iii) Parenchyma cells have thick walls (C) Conjoint, open, exarch protoxylem
(iv) Collenchyma cells are thickened at corners (D) Conjoint, open, endarch protoxylem
How many of the above statement is/are correct ? 174. Pericycle of dicot stem is present in the form of –
(A) Two (B) Three (A) Semi – square patches of collenchymas
(C) Four (D) One (B) Semi – lunar patches of sclerenchyma
168. Pulp of pear has which type of sclerenchyma cells- (C) Semi – lunar patches of collenchymas
(A) Sclereids (D) Semi – lunar patches of parenchyma
(B) Fibres 175. Stele consists of –
(C) Tracheids (A) Endodermis, pericycle pith
(D) Trichomes (B) Endodermis, pericycle, vascular bundles
169. Which one of the following is correct about stems ? (C) Pericycle, vascular bundle, pith
(A) Protoxylem lies towards centre and metaxylem (D) Endodermis, vascular bundle, pith
towards periphery called endarch
176. Which one of the following is correct about monocot stem ?
(B) Protoxylem lies towards centre and metaxylem
towards periphery called exarch (A) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller
than central ones
(C) Metaxylem lies towards centre and Protoxylem
towards periphery called endarch (B) Central vascular bundles are generally smaller than
peripheral ones
(D) Metaxylem lies towards centre and Protoxylem
towards periphery called exarch (C) Both peripheral and central are almost same sized
170. Identify the figure i & ii (D) None of these
177. Statement-I :Size of vascular bundle in leaf depend upon
size veins
Statement-II :Vascular bundle in leaf are surrounded by
bundle sheath cells
(A) Both are correct (B) Both are incorrect
(C) Only I is correct (D) Only II is correct
(A) i – T.S of dicot root ; ii – T.S of monocot root 178. Match column I with column ii select the correct code –
(B) i – L.S of dicot root ; ii – L.S of monocot root Column I Column II
(C) i – T.S of monocot root ; ii – T.S of dicot root (a) Vessels (i) Cells are living, with thin or thick
(D) i – L.S of monocot root ; ii – L.S of dicot root cellulosic cell walls
171. Which of the given statement about dicot leaf is (b) Tracheids (ii) Cells possess highly thickened walls
incorrect? with obliterated central lumen
(A) The abaxial palisade parenchyma is made of (c) Xylem (iii) Elongated tubes formed by union of
enlongated cells fibres several short, wide, thickened cells
(B) Spongy parenchyma is oval or round (d) Xylem (iv) Elongated tube like cells with thick,
(C) The spongy parenchyma has large spaces between parenchyma lignified walls and tapering ends
cells (A) (a) – iv, (b) –iii , (c) –ii , (d) –i
(D) The parenchyma on adaxial side of leaf are arranged (B) (a) –iii, (b) –iv, (c) –ii, (d) –i
vertically & parallel to each other (C) (a) –ii, (b) –iv, (c) –iii, (d) –i
(D) (a) –iv, (b) –ii, (c) –iii, (d) –i
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179. Identify the simple tissue in the given figure. 185. Which of the following gymnosperms have coralloid
(A) Parenchyma roots associated with N2–fixing cyanobacteria ?
(B) Collenchyma (A) Pinus (B) Cycas
(C) Sclerenchyma (C) Cedrus (D) Ginko
(D) It is a complex tissue Botany “Sec”-B (QN. 186-200)
180. Which of the following statement is correct about [You can attempt ANY 10 out of 15 questions in this section.
Sclerenchyma ? You get +4 for each correct answer & -1 for each incorrect
answer.]
(A) Sclerenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with
thick and lignified cell walls having few or 186. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental
numerous pits conditions because of –
(B) The Sclereids are thick-walled, elongated and (A) Broad hardly leaves (B) Supenficial stomata
pointed cells occurring in groups in various plant (C) Thick cuticle (D) Presence of vessels
parts 187. How many of the following correct about
(C) The fibres are spherical, oval or cylindrical highly- Gymnosperm ?
thickened dead cells with very narrow cavities
(lumen). (i) The red wood tree, sequola is one of the tallest tree
species
(D) All of the above
(ii) Mycorrhizal root found in pinus
181. Which one of the following is/are correct ?
(iii) Their roots generally tap root
(A) In Bryophyte each cup shaped archegonium possess
single egg (iv) Their stems may be unbranched (Pinus) on branched
(cycas)
(B) In Bryophyte each archegonium possess two egg
(A) One (B) Three (C) Four (D) Two
(C) Bryophyte produce biflagellatedantherozoid
188. Which type of leaves present in cycas ?
(D) Archegonium of Bryophyte released into water
where they come in contact with antherozoids (A) Whorled (B) Palmate leaves
182. Odd one with the respect of following figure is – (C) Pinnate leaves (D) Alternate leaves
189. In pteridophyte, the sporophyles consist of leaf like
appendages called –
(A) Megaphylls (B) Sporophylls
(C) Thalli (D) Sporangia
190. Small and large leaves of pteridophyte are found
respectively in –
(A) Selaginella, Salvania
(B) Ferns, Selaginella
(C) Selaginella, Ferns
(A) The plant body is thalloid
(D) Equisetum, Ferns
(B) The thallus is dorsiventral
191. Cell is the fundamental structural and functional
(C) The leafy members have tiny leaf-like appendages in unit of all living organisms because –
one rows on the stem like structure
(A) Anything less than a complete structure of a cell
(D) Thallus is closely appressed to the substrate does not ensure independent living
183. Which of the following pteridophytes are heterosporous in (B) The metabolic reactions can only occur inside a
nature ? living cell
(A) Fern, Salvania (C) Nucleic acids present in the cells ensure living state
(B) Selaginella, Salvania (D) The membrane bound organelles cause
(C) Equisetum, Dryopteris differentiation for proper functioning
(D) Lycopodium, Psilotum 192. Which one is the Incorrect statement from the following?
184. Which one of the following is considered importantin the (A) Cell envelope of prokaryote consist of a loosely
development of seed habit ? bound three layered structure
(A) Heterospory (B) Each layer of the envelope performs distinct
(B) Haplontic life cycle function, they act together as a triple protective unit
(C) Free-living gametophyte (C) Plasma membrane is completely permeable in nature
and interacts with the outside world
(D) Dependent sporophyte
(D) All of these

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193. Identify the correct statements regarding genetic Rough Work

material of bacteria.
(I) It is found free
(II) It is single and circular
(III) Large circular DNA is present outside the genomic
DNA
(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) I only (D) I, II and III
194. How many of the following statement is/are correct ?
(I) If bacteria motile, they have thick filamentous
extensions from their cell wall called flagella
(II) Bacterial flagellum is composed of three parts
filament, hook and basal body
(III) Filament extends from the cell surface to inside
(IV) Pili and fimbriae with flagella also plays an
important role in motility
(A) Three (B) Two
(C) One (D) None of the above
195. Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and form
a chain called –
(A) Polyribosome (B) Polysome
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Polycistronic mRNA
196. The fluid nature of the membrane is also important from
the point of view of functions like –
(A) Cell growth (B) Secretion
(C) Cell division (D) All of the above
197. Which one is the most important function of plasma
membrane ?
(A) Transport of molecules across it
(B) Cell division
(C) Cell growth
(D) Endocytosis
198. Select the incorrect matching in the following pairs –
(A) Rough .E.R → Oxidation of fatty acids
(B) Smooth .E.R → Synthesis of lipid
(C) Rough .E.R → Synthesis of protein
(D) Smooth .E.R → Synthesis of lipid-like steroidal
hormone
199. How many of the following are not the part of
Endomembrane system ?
Golgi complex, Lysosomes, Peroxisomes, Nucleus,
Vacuoles, Mitochondria, Chloroplast
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 3
200. Which of the following is true for lysosome ?
(A) Membrane bound vesicles
(B) Formed by golgi body
(C) Rich in hydrolytic enzymes
(D) All of the above

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