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Critical and Creative Thinking Mock Exam

The document is a mock exam focused on critical and creative thinking, featuring multiple-choice questions that assess understanding of cognitive processes, logical reasoning, and problem-solving techniques. Topics include the distinction between System 1 and System 2 thinking, deductive and inductive reasoning, biases in judgment, and methodologies in scientific research. Additionally, it covers creative problem-solving methods and the importance of questioning assumptions.

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Minh ANh Phạm
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
16 views9 pages

Critical and Creative Thinking Mock Exam

The document is a mock exam focused on critical and creative thinking, featuring multiple-choice questions that assess understanding of cognitive processes, logical reasoning, and problem-solving techniques. Topics include the distinction between System 1 and System 2 thinking, deductive and inductive reasoning, biases in judgment, and methodologies in scientific research. Additionally, it covers creative problem-solving methods and the importance of questioning assumptions.

Uploaded by

Minh ANh Phạm
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CRITICAL AND CREATIVE THINKING MOCK EXAM

1. Which situation most clearly requires the use of System 2 instead of relying on System 1?

A. Choosing which dessert looks tastier at a restaurant.

B. Checking whether a strong emotional reaction to a news story matches the facts presented.

C. Recognizing a friend’s face in a crowded room without thinking about it.

D. Guessing the winner of a sports game based on the team colors you like more.

2. Which example best highlights a scenario where relying on System 1 might lead to an error in
judgment?

A. Choosing a job offer because it “feels right,” only to later discover you overlooked critical details about
the role.

B. Completing a familiar route while driving without consciously thinking about directions.

C. Making an instant decision during a card game based on past patterns of success.

D. Solving a difficult physics problem by using formulas you’ve memorized from practice.

3. Given the following argument map. Which of the following premises needs to be filled to
complete the argument map and lead to the conclusion?

A. Philosophers agree that discussing "existence" is


possible.

B. Philosophers often debate topics that have no


concrete meaning.

C. Existence is an abstract concept.

D. Philosophers believe abstract concepts are essential


for understanding the world.

4. Which of the following premises best illustrates wishful thinking as a source of belief?

A. A person only notices evidence for something they already believe.

B. A person believes they will get a promotion because they want to succeed, despite not meeting the
job’s requirements.
C. People tend to trust information that comes from authorities they respect, even when it is unverified.

D. A person rejects a conspiracy theory after researching reliable evidence that disproves it.

5. Which of the following arguments is not deductively valid based on the criteria for deductive
validity?

A. All cats are mammals. All mammals have lungs. Therefore, all cats have lungs.

B. If it rains, the ground will be wet. The ground is wet. Therefore, it is raining.

C. All dogs are animals. All animals can fly. Therefore, all dogs can fly.

D. If a number is even, it is divisible by 2. The number 4 is even. Therefore, the number 4 is divisible by 2.

6. Which of the following entails that an argument is not deductively valid?

A. The argument is truth-preserving.

B. There is no evidence for the premises.

C. The truth of the premises would guarantee the truth of the conclusion.

D. It is possible for all the premises to be true while the conclusion is false.

7. Which of the following claims about deductive arguments is false?

A. A deductive argument can still be valid if all its premises are true, even if they address unrelated topics.

B. A deductive argument can be sound but not valid.

C. A deductive argument can be valid but not sound.

D. A deductive argument can be valid and warrant-transmitting but not sound.

8. The following argument commits which type of fallacy?

“Laws are designed to promote justice. Gravity is a law. Therefore, gravity is designed to promote
justice.”

A. Equivocation

B. Ad hominem
C. Circular Reasoning

D. Hasty Generalization

9. Which of the following best demonstrates a strong inductive generalization?

A. A researcher surveyed 1,000 people in a single city about their favorite cuisines and concluded that
Italian food is the most popular worldwide.

B. After observing that 90% of the 3,000 randomly sampled squirrels in various regions of the state store
nuts for winter, scientists concluded that most squirrels in the state engage in this behavior.

C. From testing 50 local lakes, researchers found that all contained microplastics and concluded that no
lakes in the country are free from microplastics.

D. A scientist observed that 60% of 500 students in a particular university preferred online courses and
concluded that most students globally share this preference.

10. Which of the following conclusions relies on a biased sample?

A. After surveying 10,000 randomly selected residents across various states, researchers found that 70%
of Americans own a car.

B. From interviewing attendees at a gaming convention, a pollster concluded that most people prefer
role-playing video games over other genres.

C. Based on reviewing thousands of hospital records from around the country, researchers determined
that flu cases increase during winter months.

D. A study conducted on 2,000 randomly chosen households in urban and rural areas concluded that
most families own at least one pet.

11. In causal inference, the ___________ method involves varying the amount of the independent
variable and observing how the dependent variable changes to establish causation.

A. Method of Agreement

B. Method of Difference

C. Method of Concomitant Variation

D. Controlled Experiment
12. In a population of 1,000,000 people, 0.2% have a particular disease X. A test for the disease X
has:

- A 95% true positive rate.

- A 5% false positive rate.

If a person tests positive, what is the probability they actually have the disease X?

A. 3.7% B.10%

D. 95% D. 50%

13. A gambler observes a roulette wheel land on red five times in a row and decides to bet on
black, reasoning that black is now more likely because it is typical to have a mixture of red and
black results in any sequence of results. What type of reasoning error is the gambler making?

A. Conjunction fallacy

B. Representativeness heuristic

C. Base rate neglect

D. Overconfidence bias

14. A factory produces two types of widgets: 60% are Type A and 40% are Type B. The defect rate
is:

- 5% for Type A widgets.

- 10% for Type B widgets.

If a randomly selected widget is defective, which is closest to the probability it is Type A?

A. 40%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 70%

15. Which of the following violates the axioms of probability?

A. Assigning a probability of 1 to a logically necessary truth.

B. Adding the probabilities of two incompatible events to exceed 1.


C. Subtracting the probability of an event from 1 to find its complement.

D. Calculating conditional probability as Prob(p | q) = Prob(p and q)/Prob(q)

16. A patient is tested for a condition that affects 0.1% of the population. The test has a 99% true
positive rate and a 1% false positive rate. If the patient tests positive, which statement is most
accurate?

A. It is almost certain they have the condition due to the high true positive rate.

B. The patient is more likely to not have the condition because of the low base rate.

C. The probability they have the condition is equal to the false positive rate.

D. The test result is irrelevant due to the rarity of the condition.

17. What is an enthymeme?

A. An argument that relies on analogies to support its conclusion.

B. An argument in which one or more of the premises are unstated.

C. An argument that uses emotional appeals rather than logical reasoning.

D. An argument that relies solely on deductive reasoning to reach its conclusion

18. Which of the following most accurately describes a condition where a speaker's
trustworthiness is compromised?

A. A speaker makes speculative claims within their area of expertise.

B. A speaker uses emotional appeals to enhance credibility.

C. A speaker has epistemic vices like arrogance or gullibility.

D. A speaker presents consistent but controversial views.

19. Imagine two purported experts in quantum mechanics give conflicting accounts about a
specific theory. Which of the following indicators is the least reliable in determining which expert
to trust?
A. The extent of peer recognition the purported expert has received.

B. The alignment of the purported expert's claims with established consensus.

C. The purported expert's ability to clearly explain their position to non-experts.

D. The purported expert is a celebrity.

20. What distinguishes an epistemic bubble from an echo chamber?

A. An epistemic bubble excludes contrary voices, while an echo chamber actively discredits them.

B. An epistemic bubble is created by algorithms.

C. An epistemic bubble relies on misinformation, while an echo chamber promotes emotional reasoning.

D. An epistemic bubble occurs online, while an echo chamber is primarily offline.

21. Why is spurious corroboration a problem in online information?

A. It creates the illusion that a claim is widely supported, even if all sources rely on the same single origin.

B. It amplifies misinformation by focusing on emotional appeals rather than evidence.

C. It results in echo chambers that exclude relevant opposing viewpoints.

D. It undermines traditional gatekeeping by experts, leading to the spread of unverified claims.

22. Which of the following best describes the challenge caused by deepfakes to traditional
sources of evidence?

A. They make it difficult to distinguish genuine expert testimony from lay opinions.

B. They undermine the reliability of traditionally trustworthy media like photographs and videos.

C. They lead to spurious corroboration by repeating claims across multiple platforms.

D. They eliminate the role of sincerity in evaluating a speaker’s trustworthiness.

23. Scientific methodologies such as controlled experiments are crucial because they:

A. Ensure all variables are given equal importance during analysis.


B. Remove potential confounds to isolate the relationship between variables.

C. Guarantee the absolute truth of experimental results.

D. Eliminate the need for peer review in validating findings.

24. A researcher conducts an experiment with a p-value of 0.05. What does this p-value indicate?

A. The hypothesis has a 95% chance of being true.

B. The results have a 5% probability of being due to chance.

C. There is a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is false.

D. The hypothesis is statistically significant and requires no further testing.

25. Why is transparency in scientific research critical?

A. It ensures researchers avoid bias in their studies.

B. It allows others to replicate and verify results.

C. It guarantees all hypotheses are equally tested.

D. It eliminates the need for peer review.

26. Which of the following is an example of p-hacking?

A. Running multiple tests and only reporting the ones with statistically significant results.

B. Registering a study’s methodology before data collection.

C. Using a control group to reduce confounding variables.

D. Replicating a controversial experiment to confirm its findings.

27. According to Aristotle, which form of persuasion focuses on the emotional state of the
audience?

A. Logos

B. Pathos

C. Êthos
D. Ad populum

28. You’re trying to design a bridge that spans a canyon, but no current designs work due to high
wind speeds. Which approach best illustrates lateral thinking?

A. Using advanced materials that withstand strong winds.

B. Proposing an underground tunnel instead of a bridge.

C. Testing different designs with computational simulations.

D. Asking an experienced engineer for advice on bridge design.

29. Which of the following demonstrates divergent thinking most effectively?

A. A student develops 20 significant ways to use a discarded cardboard box.

B. An architect creates a blueprint for a sustainable skyscraper using bamboo.

C. A researcher proves that a long-standing theory about gravity is incorrect.

D. A filmmaker shoots a documentary following a traditional three-act structure.

30. Which step in the Creative Problem-Solving (CPS) process focuses on questioning
assumptions and defining success?

A. Preparation

B. Problem definition

C. Idea production

D. Idea development

31. Which of the following is not a step in the Creative Problem-Solving (CPS) process?

A. Problem definition

B. Preparation

C. Affirming the consequent

D. Idea development
32. Why is questioning assumptions a critical part of problem definition in the CPS process?

A. It ensures solutions are implemented efficiently.

B. It identifies potential biases and hidden constraints.

C. It guarantees that all ideas will be successful.

D. It simplifies the problem into smaller, more manageable steps.

33. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the SCAMPER method?

A. To generate completely new ideas by random association

B. To build upon and modify existing ideas to create new solutions

C. To critique and evaluate a list of potential solutions

D. To approach problems pragmatically.

34. In the Up2U method, you are the one who decides the method of idea generation. But can you
decide whatever method you like?

A. Yes, because the purpose of the idea generation stage is to get as many ideas as possible without
judging.

B. No, because the method must follow established rules for structured thinking.

C. Yes, but only if the method is based on proven frameworks like SCAMPER or brainstorming.

D. No, because methods must first be approved by a team leader or facilitator.

35. In the reversal method, why is it valuable to consider the opposite of a problem or goal?

A. It helps identify and avoid common mistakes in the final solution.

B. It stimulates you to reconsider assumptions and explore unexpected possibilities.

C. It simplifies the process by narrowing down the number of possible solutions.

D. It ensures the final solution directly opposes the original problem.

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