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• Test ID : 911 • FST : 11

DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 08-Sept-2024 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : FULL SYLLABUS
Chemistry : FULL SYLLABUS
Biology : FULL SYLLABUS

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2024 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2024 Examination for admission in the Session 2024-25 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
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TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

-A SECTION-A

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

1. f=T;k dh o`Rrkdkj /kkjkokgh dq.Myh ds dsUnz vkSj 1. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of a
mlds v{k ij dsU nz ls f=T;k ds cjkcj nwj h ij current carrying coil of the radius a & at a distance
mRiUUk pqEcdh; {ks=ksa dk vuqikr gS & 'a' from centre of the coil & perpendicular to the
axis of coil is:
1
(1) 1
2
(1)
2
(2) 2
(2) 2
1
(3) 1
2 2 (3)
2 2
(4) 2 2 (4) 2 2

2. fdlh inkFkZ ds fy, vkisf{kd ikjxE;rk r rFkk 2. The reletive permeability is represented by r &
pq E cdh; iz o ` fRr x gks rks vuq p q E cdh; inkFkZ ds the susceptibility is denoted by x for a magnetic
fy,A substance. Then for a paramagnetic substance.

(1) r  1, x  0 (1) r  1, x  0

(2) r  1, x  0 (2) r  1, x  0

(3) r  1, x  0 (3) r  1, x  0

(4) r  1, x  0 (4) r  1, x  0

3. ok;q ls vkrh izdk'k dh ,d lekukarj fdj.k&iqat 3. A parallel beam of light is incident from air at an
,d ledks .k f=Hkq t h; fiz T e] ftldk viorZ ukad angle  on the side PQ of a right angled triangular
n  2 gS ds PQ ry ij  dk U;qure eku 45 gS
0
prism of refractive index n  2 . Light undergoes
rks fizT e dh PR lrg ij iw.kZ vkarfjd ijkorZ u total internal reflection in the prism at the face PR
gksrk gSA fiz Te dk dks.k  D;k gksxkA when  has a minimum value of 450. The angle 
of the prism is:

(1) 150
(1) 150
(2) 22.50
(2) 22.50
(3) 300
(3) 300
0
(4) 45
(4) 450
NLI / 3
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4. fuEufyf[kr rkfdZ d ifjiFk iznf'kZ r djrk gS A 4. The following logic circuit represents:

(1) fuxZr O  XY ds fy, NAND xsV (1) NAND gate with output O  X  Y

(2) fuxZr O XY ds fy, OR xsV (2) OR gate with output O  X  Y

(3) fuxZr O  XY ds fy, NAND xsV (3) NAND gate with output O  XY
(4) fuxZr O  X Y ds fy, NOR xsV (4) NOR gate with output O  X  Y
5. ,d vkn'kZ xS l dks] fp= esa n'kkZ ; s x;s vuq l kj 5. A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic
pØh; izØe abca ls xqtkjk tkrk gSA ca iFk ds process abca as shwon in the figure. The change
vuqfn'k xSl dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu 180 J in the internal energy of the gas along the path ca
gSA iFk ds vuqfn'k] xSl Å"ek vo'kksf"kr djrh gS is 180 J . The gas absorbs 250 J of heat along the
rFkk ab iFk ds vuqfn'k] xSl 250 J Å"ek vo'kksf"kr path ab and 60 J along the path bc. The work done
djrh gS rks] iFk abc ds vuq fn'k xSl }kjk fd;k by the gas along the path abc is:
x;k dk;Z gSA

(1) 100 J
(1) 100 J
(2) 120 J
(2) 120 J
(3) 140 J (3) 140 J
(4) 130 J (4) 130 J
6. js[kh; /kzqoh; izdk'k dh fLFkfr esa] fo|qr {ks= lfn'k 6. In case of linearly polarized light, the magnitude
dk ifjek.k% of the electric field vector:
(1) le; ds lkFk ifjofrZr ugha gksrk (1) Does not change with time
(2) le; ds lkFk vkorhZ :i ls cnyrk gSA (2) Varies periodically with time
(3) le; ds lkFk jSf[kd :i ls c<+rk ;k ?kVrk gSA (3) Increases and decreases linearly with time

(4) lapj.k dh fn'kk ds lekUrj gksrk gSA (4) is parallel to the direction of propagation

7. inkFkZ dk viorZ ukad /kz qo .k dks.k dh Li'kZ T;k ds 7. Refractive index of material is equal to tangent of
rqY; gksrk gS ;k dFku gSA polarising angle. It is called:

(1) czLw Vj dk fu;e (1) Brewster's law

(2) ySEcVZ dk fu;e (2) Lamberit's law

(3) eSyl dk fu;e (3) Malus's law

(4) czSx dk fu;e (4) Bragg's law

NLI / 4
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8. ,d VªkaLkQkWeZj dh izkFkfed dq.Myh esa 100 Qsjs gSa 8. A transformer has 100 turns in the primary coil
rFkk 8 A /kkjk cg jgh gSA ;fn 1 fdyksokWV 'kfDr cand carries 8 A current. If input power is one
fufo"V dh tk;s rks bldh f}rh;d dq.Myh esa 500V kilowatt, the number of turns required in the
mRiUu djus ds fy, vko';d Qsjksa dh la[;k gksxhA secondary coil to have 500V output will be:
(1) 100 (1) 100
(2) 200 (2) 200
(3) 400 (3) 400
(4) 300 (4) 300

9. L yEckbZ dh ,d jLlh dks fu;r cy F }kjk [khapk 9. A rope of length L is pulled by a constant force F.
tk jgk gSA cy yxkus okys fcanq x ls nwjh ij jLlh What is the tension in the rope at a distance x
ruko dk eku gksx kA from the end where the force is applied:

Fl Fl
(1) (1)
x x

F Lx F Lx
(2) (2)
L L

FL FL
(3) (3)
Lx Lx

Fx Fx
(4) (4)
Lx Lx

10. 1 feyhehVj2 vuqizLFk dkV okys rkj dh yEckbZ esa 10. The work per unit volume to stretch the length by
1 izfr'kr dh o`f) djus ds fy, bdkbZ vk;ru ij 1% of a wire with cross sectional area of 1 mm2

fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxkA  Y  9  1011N / m2  will be.  Y  9  1011N / m2 

(1) 9  1011J (1) 9  1011J

(2) 4.5  107 J (2) 4.5  107 J

(3) 9  107 J (3) 9  107 J

(4) 4.5  1011 J (4) 4.5  1011 J

11. ofuZ ;j dSyhilZ eas] eq[;k Ldsy dk 1 [kkuk x cm gS 11. In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x
rFkk ofuZ ;j Ldsy ds n [kkus] eq[; Ldsy ds (n-1)
[kkuks a ls lEikrh gks rs gS aA ofuZ ; j dS y hilZ dk cm and n division of the vernier scale coincide
vYirekad lseh esa gSA
with (n-1) divisions of the main scale. The least
 n  1
(1)  x count (in cm) of the callipers is:
 n 
 n  1
nx (1)  x
(2)  n 
n 1
nx
(2) n  1
x
(3)
n x
(3)
n
x x
(4) n 1 (4) n 1
NLI / 5
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12. ;ax ds f}&fLyV iz;ksx esa dsanzh; nhIr fQzU t dh 12. In Young's double slit experiment, the central
igpku dh tk ldrh gSA bright fringe can be identified:
(1) ,d&o.khZ; izdk'k ds LFkku ij 'osr izdk'k dk mi;ksx
(1) By using white light instead of monochromatic light
djds
(2) D;ksafd ;g vU; nhfIr fQzUtksa ls vf/kd ladh.kZ gksrh (2) As it is narrower than other bright fringes
gSA (3) As it is wider than other bright fringes
(3) D;ksafd ;g vU; nhfIr fQzUtksa ls vf/kd pkSM+h gksrh gSA
(4) As it has a greater intensity than the other bright
(4) D;ksafd bldh rhozrk vU; nhfIr fQzUtksa ls vf/kd gksrh
fringes
gSA
13. la /kkfj=ksa ls cus ,d ifjiFk dks fp= esa fn[kk;k 13. A combination of capacitors is set up as shown in
x;k gS A ,d fcUnq vkos'k Q ftldk eku 4F rFkk the figure. The magnitude of the electric field, due
9F oksy la/kkfj=ksa ds dqy vkos'kksa ds cjkcj gS a] to a point charge Q (having a charge equal to the

ds }kjk 30 eh- nwjh ij oS|q r {ks= dk ifjek.k gksxkA sum of the charges on the 4F and 9F capacitors),
at a point distance 30 m from it, would equal:

(1) 360 N/C

(1) 360 N/C
(2) 420 N/C
(2) 420 N/C
(3) 480 N/C
(3) 480 N/C
(4) 240 N/C
(4) 240 N/C
14. vkbZU lVhu dh iz dk'k&fo|qr lehdj.k ds vuq lkj 14. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the
mrlftZr QksVksa bysDVªkWu dh xfrt ÅtkZ ,oa vkifrr graph between the kinetic energy of photolectrons
fofdj.k dh vko`fRr ds chp dk xzkQ gksxkA ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is:

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NLI / 6
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15. ;fn ,d NksVk NM+ pqEcd ,d dq .Myh esa v{k ds 15. The variation of induced emf (E) with time (t) in a
vuqfn'k le:i osx ls xfr'khy gks rks izsfjr fo- ok- coil if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis
cy (E) dk le; (t) ds lkFk ifjorZu lgh rjhds ls with a constant velocity is best represented as:
fdl xz kQ eas O;Dr gksrk gSA

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

16. ;gka xzkQ ¼vkys[k½ esa ,d v/kZ&pkyd ;qfDr dk V 16. The given graph represents V - I characteristic for
- I vfHky{k.k n'kkZ;k x;k gS A a semiconductor device:

blds fy, fuEuf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gSA Which of the following statement is correct:
(1) ;g QksVks Mk;ksM ds fy, gS rFkk A vkSj B [kqys ifjiFk
(1) It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent
eas Øe'k% oksYVrk rFkk fo|qr /kkjk dks fu:fir djrs gSaA
open circuit voltage and current, respectively.
(2) ;g LED ds fy;s gS vkSj A rFkk B [kqys ifjiFk eas
Øe'k% oksYVrk rFkk y?kq&ifjiFk eas fo|qr /kkjk dks fu:fir (2) it is for a LED and points A and B represents open
circuit voltage and short circuit current respectively
djrs gSA
(3) ;g lkSj lsy dk V - I vfHky{k.k gS] tgka A [kqys ifjiFk (3) It is V - I characteristic for solar cell where point A
represents open circuit voltage and point B short circuit
eas oksYVrk rFkk B y?kq&ifjiFku fo|qr /kkjk dks fu:fir current
djrk gSA
(4) It is for a solar cell and points A and B represent
(4) ;g lkSl lsy ds fy;s gS rFkk A vkSj B [kqys ifjiFk open circuit voltage and current, respectively
eas Øe'k% oksYVrk rFkk fo|qr /kkjk dks fu:fir djrs gSaA
17. ,d p-n taD'ku ij cuh vo{k; ijr eas gksrs gSaA 17. Depletion layer at a p-n junction contains:
(1) dsoy xfreku /kukRed vkos'k (1) Mobile positive charges only
(2) dsoy xfreku _.kkRed vkos'k (2) Mobile negative charges only
(3) dsoy fLFkj _.kkRed vkos'k (3) Immobile negative charges only
(4) nksuksa /kukRed RkFkk _.kkRed fLFkj vkos'k (4) Both positive and negative immobile charges

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18. vfHkdFku % ,d fcUnq vkos'k ,oa ,d NksVs fOk|q r 18. Assertion : On going away from a point charge or
f}/kzqo ls nwj tkus ij fo|q r {ks= nksuksa gh fLFkfr;ska a small electric dipole, electric field decreases at
esa leku nj ls ?kVrk gSA the same rate in both the cases.
Reason : Electric field is inversely proportional to
dkj.k % fcUnq vkos' k vkS j fo|qr f}/kq z o ds dkj.k square of distance from the charge or an electric
mRiUu fo|q r {ks= nwjh ds oxZ ds O;qRØekuqikrh gksrk dipole.
gS A
In above question a statement of assertion is
(1) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh followed by statement of reason mark the correct
choice.
lgh O;k[;k gSA
(1) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(2) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k lgh gS; dkj.k] vfHkdFku dh correct explanation of assertion.
lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA (2) It both assertion and reason are true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion is not
(3) vfHkdFku lgh gS] dkj.k xyr gSA
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) vfHkdFku xyr gS] dkj.k xyr gSA (4) Both assertion and reason false.
19. nks vkn'kZ Mk;ksMksa dks ifjiFk eas n'kkZ;s x;s vuqlkj 19. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as
,d cSVjh ls tksM+k x;k gS rks] cSVjh }kjk lIykbZ dh shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the
xbZ nh xbZ fo|q r /kkjk gksxhA battery is:

(1) 0.75 A (1) 0.75 A

(2) 'kwU; (2) Zero

(3) 0.25 A (3) 0.25 A

(4) 0.5 A (4) 0.5 A

20. {kSfrt fn'kk ls  dks.k ij cUnwd ls ,d xksyh 20. A shell is fired from a cannon with velocity v m/
v eh@lsd.M ds osx ls nkxh tkrh gSA tc xksyh sec at an angle  with the horizontal direction. At
viuh vf/kdre ÅapkbZ ij gksrh gS] rc foLQksV gksus the highest point in its path it explodes into two

ls nkscjkcj Hkkxksa esa caV tkrh gSA muesa ls ,d Hkkx pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces
its path to the cannon and the speed in m/sec of
okil foijhr fn'kk esa cUnq d ds ikl igqap rk gSA
the other piece immediately after the explosion
nwljs Hkkx dk foLQksV ds rqjUr i'pkr osx gksx k
is:
¼eh@lsd.M esa½
(1) 3v cos  (1) 3v cos 

(2) 2v cos  (2) 2v cos 

3 3
(3) v cos  (3) v cos 
2 2

3 3
(4) v cos  (4) v cos 
2 2
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21. 'm' nzO;eku dh ,d dkyh oLrq '  ' rjaxnS/;Z ds 'n' 21. 'n' photons of wavelength '  ' are absorbed by a
QksV kW u vo'kksf "kr djrh gS A oLrq fdruk la o s x black body of mass 'm'. The momentum gained by
vftZ r djsx hA the body is:

h mnh h mnh
(1) (2) (1) (2)
m  m 

nh nh nh nh
(3) (4) (3) (4)
m  m 
22. ,d oLrq dk Hkkj i` Foh dh lrg ij gSA i`Foh lrg 22. A body weight 500 N on the surface of the earth.
ls vk/kh xgjkbZ ij bldk Hkkj orZ eku dk fdruk How much would it weigh half way below the
jg tk;s xkA surface of the earth:

(1) 125 N (1) 125 N

(2) 250 N (2) 250 N

(3) 500 N (3) 500 N

(4) 1000 N (4) 1000 N

23. ,d cy 2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ }kjk fdlh oLrq esa 4 lsd.M eas 23. A force of 2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ N acts on a body for 4 second,

mRiUu foLFkkiu 3iˆ  4ˆj  5kˆ m gS A iz ;q Dr 'kfDr produces a displacement of 3iˆ  4ˆj  5kˆ m. The

gS A power used is:

(1) 9.5 W (1) 9.5 W
(2) 7.5 W (2) 7.5 W
(3) 6.5 W (3) 6.5 W
(4) 4.5 W (4) 4.5 W

24. ,d U-vkdkj ds rkj ,oa ,d gYds niZ.k ds chp 24. A thin liquid film formed between a U-shaped wire
cuh ,d iryh nzo dh fQYe 1.5  102 N ds Hkkj dks and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5  10 2 N
vk/kkfjr djrh gSA fp= ns[ ksa niZ.k dh yEckbZ 30 (see figure). The length of the is 30 cm and its
weight negligible. The surface tension of the liquid
lseh- gS vkSj bldk Hkkj ux.; gSA nzo dh fQYe dk film is:
i` "B ruko gSA

(1) 0.0125Nm 1 (2) 0.1Nm 1 (1) 0.0125Nm1 (2) 0.1Nm 1

(3) 0.05Nm 1 (4) 0.025Nm1 (3) 0.05 Nm1 (4) 0.025Nm 1

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25. vkosf'kr d.k pqE cdh; {ks = esa xfreku gSA fuEu 25. In magnetic field, for a charged particle (in motion)
lkfj.k;ksa dk feyku djsaA match the following table:

lkfj.kh & A lkfj.kh & AA Table - I Table - II

A. Rokj.k P. 'kwU; gks ldrh gSA A. Acceleration P. May be zero

B. os x Q. 'kwU ; gSA B. Velocity Q. is zero

C. pky R. fu;r gks ldrh gSA C. Speed R. May be constant

D. xfrt ÅtkZ S. fu;r gSA D. Kinetic energy S. is constant

(1) A- QR, B- R, C- S, D- P (1) A- QR, B- R, C- S, D- P
(2) A- P,R B- R, C- S, D- S (2) A- P,R B- R, C- S, D- S
(3) A- P,S B- R, C- S, D- R (3) A- P,S B- R, C- S, D- R
(4) A- P,R B- S, C- R, D- S (4) A- P,R B- S, C- R, D- S

26. ,d oLrq ftldk nzO;eku m gSA ,d leku o`Rrh; 26. A particle of mass m describes uniform circular
xfr ls ,d {kSfrt ry esa xfreku gS rc lajf{kr motion in a horizontal plane. The quantity that is
jkf'k gks x hA conserved is:

(1) js[kh; osx (1) Linear velocity

(2) js[kh; laosx (2) Linear momentum

(3) dks.kh; laosx (3) Angular momentum

(4) Linear acceleration
(4) js[kh; Roj.k
27. The current in the given circuit is:
27. fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa /kkjk dk eku gSA

(1) 0.1 A (1) 0.1 A

(2) 0.2 A (2) 0.2 A

(3) 0.3 A (3) 0.3 A
(4) 0.4 A (4) 0.4 A
28. fdlh ijek.kq dk ,d bysDVªkWu ls esa laØe.k djrk 28. An electron of an atom transits from n1 to n2. In
gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls mRlftZr QksVkWu dh vf/kdre which of the following maximum frequency of
vko` f Rr gks x hA photon will be emitted:
(1) n1 = 1 to n2 = 2
(1) n1 = 1 to n2 = 2
(2) n1 = 2 to n2 = 1
(2) n1 = 2 to n2 = 1
(3) n1 = 2 to n2 = 6
(3) n1 = 2 to n2 = 6
(4) n1 = 6 to n2 = 2
(4) n1 = 6 to n2 = 2
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29. leku nzO;eku M ,oa leku yackbZ l dh pkj iryh 29. Four thin rods of same mass M and same length l,
NM+sa fp=kuqlkj ,d oxZ cukrh gS aA bl fudk; dk form a square as shown in figure. Moment of inertia
dsanz O ls xq tjus okyh ,oa blds ry ds yEcor v{k of this system about an axis through centre O and
ds ifjr% tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gS A perpendicular to its plane is:

4 2 Ml2 4 2 Ml2
(1) Ml (2) (1) Ml (2)
3 3 3 3

Ml2 2 2 Ml2 2 2
(3) (4) Ml (3) (4) Ml
6 3 6 3

30. ,d vk;rkdkj 'khV dh yackbZ ,oa pkSM +kbZ Øe'k% 30. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are
16.2 cm vkSj 10.1cm gSA mi;qDr lkFkZ d vadksa esa 16.2 cm and 10.1cm, respectively. The area of the
vkS j mi;q D r =q f V ds mYys[ k ds lkFk 'khV dk sheet in appropriate significant figures and error
{ks = Qy gks x kA is :

(1) 164  3 cm 2 (1) 164  3 cm 2

(2) 163.62  2.6 c m2 (2) 163.62  2.6 c m2

(3) 163.6  2.6 c m2 (3) 163.6  2.6 c m 2

(4) 163.62  3 c m2 (4) 163.62  3 c m 2

31. HkkSfrd jkf'k;ksa ds fuEufyf[kr A tksM+ksa esa ls fdl 31. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities
tksMs dk foeh; lw= leku ugha gSA does not have same dimensional formula?

(1) dk;Z vkSj cy vk?kw.kZ (1) Work and torque.

(2) dks.kh; laosx vkSj Iykad fu;rkad (2) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant.

(3) ruko vkSj i`"B ruko (3) Tension and surface tension.

(4) vkos'k vkSj js[kh; laosx (4) Impulse and linear momentum.

32. ljy vkorZ djus okys ,d d.k dk vkorZ dky 16 32. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with
lsd.M gSA t = 2s ij d.k eè; fLFkr ikj djrk gS a time period of 16s. At time t = 2s, the particle
,oa t = 4s ij bldk osx gS rc vk;ke ehVj ea s crosses the mean position while at t = 4s, its
gks x kA velocity is 4ms-1. The amplitude of motion in metre
is:
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 16 2
(2) 16 2
(3) 24 2 (3) 24 2

(4) 32 2 /  (4) 32 2 / 
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33. ,d cM+k ik= 'h' ÅapkbZ rd ty ls Hkjk gSA mlds 33. A large tank filled with water to a height 'h' is to
h be emptied through a small hole at the bottom.
isans eas Nsn djds [kkyh djus ij] ty Lrj h ls The ratio of time taken for the level of water to fall
2
h h h
o ls 0 gksus esa yxs le;ksa dk vuqikr gksxkA from h to
2
and from
2
to zero is:
2

1 1
(1) 2 (2) (1) 2 (2)
2 2

1 1
(3) 2 1 (4) (3) 2 1 (4)
2 1 2 1
34. ,d lery&mRry vkS j ,d lery&vory ysal] 34. On plano-convex and one plano-concave lens of
ftldh oØrk 'R' gSA oks vyx inkFkksZ a ds cus gSaA same radius of curvature 'R' but of different
bu nksuksa dks fp=kuq lkj fpidk fn;k tkrk gSA ;fn materials are joined side by side as shown in the
ysl
a &1 ds inkFkZ dk viorZukad 1 rFkk inkFkZ dk figure. If the refractive index of the material of 1 is
viorZukad 2 gS rks bl la;kstu dh Qksdl nwjh 1 and that of 2 is 2 , then the focal length of the
gks x hA combination is.

2 2
1 1

1 1
2 2

R 2R R 2R
(1) 2     (2) 1   2 (1) 2     (2)
1 2 1 2 1   2

R R R R
(3) 2    (4)    (3) 2    (4)   
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2

35. ,d oLrq dks l yackbZ dh Mksjh ls cka/kdj U;wure 35. An object is tied to a string of length l and is
osx ls ÅèokZ/kj o`Rr esa ?kqek;k tkrk gSA tc oLrq revolved in a vertical circle at the minimum
mPpre fcanq ij igqaprh gS rks Mksjh VwV tkrh gS ,oa velocity. When the object reaches the uppermost
fp= es a n'kkZ , vuq l kj xq : Roh; cy ds v/hu point, the string breaks and it describes a parabolic
ijoyf;d iFk ij xfr djrh gSA A ds ry esa {kSfrt path as shown in the figure under the gravitational
ijkl AC gSA force. The horizontal range AC in the plane of A
would be:

(1)  (2) 2 (1)  (2) 2

(3) 2 (4) 2 2 (3) 2 (4) 2 2
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-B SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15 choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
10 considered for marking.

36. ,d dkj lh/kh {kSfrt lM+d ij v0 osx ls py jgh 36. A car is moving along a straight horizontal road
with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction between
gSA ;fn Vk;j o lM+d ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad  gks]
the tyres and the road is  , the shortest distance
rks dkj dks jksdus gsrq U;wure nwjh gksxhA
in which the car can be stopped is:
2
v 0
(1) 2g v 20
(1)
2g
v0
(2) g v0
(2) g

2
 v0   v0 
2
(3)   (3)  
 g   g 

v0 v0
(4) (4)
 

37. fn, x, fp= eas fudk; lkE;koLFkk eas gS] W dk vf/ 37. In the figure given, the system is in equilibrium.
kdre eku D;k gksxk ;fn 40 N ds xqVds ij 12.0 N What is the maximum value that W can have if
ls vf/kd ?k"kZ.k cy u yxsA the friction force on the 40 N block cannot exceed
12.0 N:

30 0
30 0

40 N
40 N

W
W
(1) 3.45 N
(1) 3.45 N
(2) 6.92 N
(2) 6.92 N
(3) 10.35 N (3) 10.35 N
(4) 12.32 N (4) 12.32 N

38. tc fdlh fLizax dks 2 lseh- rd [khapk tkrk gS] rks 38. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 100 J
blesa 100 twy ÅtkZ lafpr gks tkrh gSA ;fn bls 2 of energy. If it is stretched further by 2 cm, the
lseh- vkSj [khapk tk;s rks lafpr ÅtkZ esa o` f) gSA stored energy will be increased by:
(1) 100 J (1) 100 J
(2) 200 J (2) 200 J
(3) 300 J (3) 300 J
(4) 400 J (4) 400 J
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39. fojke esa fLFkr ,d 20 fdxzk dh oLrq nks VqdM+ksa esa 39. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into two
VwV tkrh gSA ;fn muds nzO;ekuksa dk vuqikr 2 % 3 fragments whose masses are in the ratio 2 : 3. The
gks vkSj NksVk VqdM+k 6 eh@ls- ds osx ls xfr djs rks smaller fragement moves with a velocity of 6 ms-1.
cM+s Vq dM+s dh xfrt ÅtkZ gksxhA The kinetic energy of the larger fragment is:

(1) 96 J (1) 96 J
(2) 216 J (2) 216 J
(3) 144 J (3) 144 J
(4) 360 J (4) 360 J

40. ,d csyukdkj NM+ ds fljksa ds rki T1 o T2 gSaA Å"ek 40. A cylindrical rod having temperature T 1 and T2 at
izokg dh nj Q1 cal/s. gSA ;fn NM+ dh lHkh js[kh; its ends. The rate of flow of heat is Q1 cal/s. If all
foek;sa nksxquh dj nh tk;s ,oa rki dks fu;r j[kk the linear dimension are doubled keeping
tk;s] rc Å"ek izokg dh nj Q2 gksxhA temperature constant then then rate of flow of heat
Q2 will be:
(1) 4Q1
(1) 4Q1
(2) 2Q1
(2) 2Q1
Q1
(3) Q1
4 (3)
4
Q1 Q1
(4) (4)
2 2
41. ;fn fdlh d.k dk osx v  180  16x
1/ 2
eh-@ls- 41. If the velocity of a particle is given by
1/ 2
gks rks bldk Roj.k gksxkA v  180  16x m/s, then its acceleration will be:

(1) 'kwU; (1) zero

(2) 8 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2
(3) -8 m/s2 (3) -8 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2

42. ,d dkj fojkekoLFkk ls xfr izkjaHk djrh gS rFkk 42. A car starts from rest and moves with uniform
le; t = 0 ls t = T. rd ,d leku Roj.k a ls acceleration a on a straight road from time
xfreku jgrh gSA bld i'pkr ,d leku eanu ds t = 0 to t = T. After that, a constant deceleration
dkj.k fojkekoLFkk eas vk tkrh gSA dkj dh vkSlr brings it to rest. In this process the average speed
pky gksx hA of the car is:

aT 3aT aT 3aT
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 2 4 2

aT aT
(3) (4) aT (3) (4) aT
2 2

43. LCR ifjiFk eas vuqukn dh fLFkfr ij& 43. In an LCR circuit, at resonance

(1) izfrck/k vf/kdre gksrh gSA (1) The impedance is maximum

 
(2) /kjk esa oksYVst dh o`f) gksrh gSA (2) The current leads the voltage by
2 2

(3) /kjk vkSj izfrjks/k ,d gh dyk esa gksrh gSA (3) The current and voltage are in phase
(4) /kjk U;wure gksrh gSA (4) The current is minimum

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44. ,d leryh; fo|q r pqacdh; rjax z-v{k ds lkis{k 44. A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating
lapfjr gS aA ;fn rjax ds fo|qr {ks= ds ?kVd fn'kk along the z direction. If the electric field component
ˆi  ˆj esa gks] rks fuEu eas ls pqca dh; {ks= ds ?kVd dh of this wave is in the direction ˆi  ˆj , then which
fn'kk D;k gks xhA of the following is the direction of the magnetic
field component:
(1) ˆi  ˆj
(1) ˆi  ˆj

(2) ˆi  ˆj
(2) ˆi  ˆj

(3) ˆi  ˆj
(3) ˆi  ˆj

(4) ˆi  kˆ ˆi  kˆ
(4)

45. buesa ls dkSu lk xzkiQ vkn'kZ xSl ds O;ogkj dks 45. Which one the following graphs represents the
O;Dr djrk gSA behaviour of an ideal gas:

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

46. ,d f}ijek.kq d xSl dks fLFkj nkc ij xeZ fd;k 46. A diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure.
tkrk gSA Å"ek dk dkSu lk va'k mldh vkUrfjd What fraction of the heat energy is used to increase
ÅtkZ esa o`f) djus esa iz;q Dr gksxkA the internal energy.

(1) 3/5 (1) 3/5

(2) 3/7 (2) 3/7

(3) 5/7 (3) 5/7

(4) 5/9 (4) 5/9

47. i` Foh lrg ls nzO;eku ds ,d fi.M dks ÅapkbZ rd 47. The change in the gravitational potential energy
foLFkkfir djus esa xq:Roh; fLFkfrt ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu when a body mass m is raised to a height nR above
gksxk ;gka i`Foh dh f=T;k R gS A the surface of the earth is (here R is the radius of
the earth).
 n 
(1)   mgR  n 
 n  1 (1)   mgR
 n  1
 n 
(2)   mgR  n 
 n  1 (2)   mgR
 n  1
(3) mngR (3) mngR
mgR mgR
(4) (4)
n n
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48. ,d Mksjh nks fLFkj fcUnqvksa ds chp f[kaph xbZ gSA bu 48. A string is stretched between fixed points
fcUnqvksa ds chp dh nwjh 75.0 cm gSA bl Mksjh dh nks separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have
vuqukn vko`fRr;ka 420 Hz rFkk 315 Hz gSA bu nksuksa resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There
ds chp esa dksbZ vU; vuqukn ugha gSA rks bl Mksjh ds are no other resonant frequencies between two.
fy, U;wure vuq ukn vko` fRr gS A The lowest resonant frequency for this string is:
(1) 205 Hz (1) 205 Hz
(2) 10.5 Hz (2) 10.5 Hz
(3) 105 hz (3) 105 hz
(4) 155 Hz (4) 155 Hz
49. 2 m yEch ,d Mksjh nksuksa fljksa ij dlh gq;h gS ;fn 49. A string of length 2 m is fixed at both ends. If this
Mksjh 500 hz vko` fRr ls pkSFkh fo|k esa dEiu djrh string vibrates in its fourth normal mode with a
gS rks rjax pky gksxhA frequency of 500 hz then the waves would travel
on its with a velocity of:
(1) 125 m/s
(1) 125 m/s
(2) 250 m/s
(2) 250 m/s
(3) 500 m/s (3) 500 m/s
(4) 1000 m/s (4) 1000 m/s

50. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gS % 50. Given below are two statements :

dFku I: Statement I:

fdlh fiaM ds nz O;eku dsanz ogka Hkh gks ldrk gS The centre of mass of a body may lie where there
tgka dksbZ nzO;eku u gksA is no mass.

dFku II : Statement II :

nzO;eku ds dsanz dk nzO;eku ls dksbZ ysuk&nsuk ugha The centre of mass has nothing to do with the mass.
gS A In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa most appropriate answer from the options given
lokZf/kd mi;q Dr mRrj dk p;u dhft, % below :

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

[k.M -A SECTION-A
lHkh 35 iz 'u vfuok;Z gSA Attempt All 35 Questions

51. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk ;kS fxd vUrjkvkf.od 51. Which one of the following compounds shows the
gkbMªkstu cU/k dh mifLFkfr dks iznf'kZr djrk gS % presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond :

(1) o-ukbVªksfQukWy (1) o-nitrophenol

(2) p-ukbVªksfQukWy (2) p-nitrophenol

(3) o-gkbMªkWDlh csUtfYMgkbM (3) o-hydroxy benzaldehyde

(4) nksuks (1) vkSj (3) (4) Both (1) and (3)
52. vkn'kZ xSl :)ks"e izØe ds vUrxZr eqDr izlkj dk 52. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal
lgh Øe gS % gas under adiabatic condition is:
(1) q = 0, T = 0 vkSj w > 0 (1) q  0, T  0 and w  0
(2) q = 0, T = 0 vkSj w < 0 (2) q  0, T  0 and w  0
(3) q = 0, T = 0 vkSj w = 0 (3) q  0, T  0 and w  0
(4) vkSj w > 0 (4) q  0, T  0 and w  0
53. M gm inkFkZ okf"ir gksdj STP ij 11.2 yh- vk;ru 53. M gm of a substance when vapourised occupy a
?ksjrk gS rks inkFkZ dk ok"i ?kuRo gksxk % volume of 11.2 lit at S.T.P. The vapour density of
the substance will be :
(1) 2 M
(1) 2 M
(2) M (2) M
(3) 4 M (3) 4 M
(4) M/2 (4) M/2
54. ca/k dks.k dk lgh Øe gS % 54. The correct order of bond angle order is:
(1) NH2  NH3  NH4 (2) NH4  NH3  NH2 (1) NH2  NH3  NH4 (2) NH4  NH3  NH2
(3) NH3  NH2  NH4 (4) NH3  NH4  NH2 (3) NH3  NH2  NH4 (4) NH3  NH4  NH2
55. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 55. Given below are two statements :

dFku I: Statement I:
Non metallic character increase as we move from
v/kkfRod xq.k] vkoZ r esa ck;sa ls nk;sa tkus ij c<+rk
left to right across a period.
gS A
Statement II :
dFku II :
Metallic character increase as we go down the
/kkfRod xq.k lewg esa uhps dh vksj tkus ls c<+rk gSA group.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls In the light of the above statements, choose the
lokZf/kd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, % most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

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56. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k dk mRikn gksx k % 56. The product of the following reaction is :

mRikn Product

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

57. fuEu esa dkSu lk v.kq /kzqfor izdk'k dk ?kqf.kZr dj 57. Which of the following molecules is expected to
ns x k% rotate the plane polarized light :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

58. fuEufyf[kr lelajpukRed ;kS fxdksa eas ls ftldh 58. Among the following isostructural compounds, the
tkyd ÅtkZ lcls vf/kd gS ] og gS % one that has the highest lattice energy is:

(1) LiCl (1) LiCl

(2) MgO (2) MgO

(3) NaCl (3) NaCl

(4) LiF (4) LiF

59. ,d jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k 300 K vkSj 270 K ij gksrh 59. A chemical reaction was carried out at 300 K and
gSaA nj fLFkjkad K1 vkSj K2 ik;s x;s gSa Øe'k% rc : 270 K. The rate constants were found to be K1 and
K2 respectively. Then :

(1) K 2
(1) K2

(2) K 2
(2) K2
(3) K2 = 8 K1
(3) K2 = 8 K1
(4) K2 = 9 K1
(4) K2 = 9 K1

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60. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 60. Given below are two statements :

dFku I: Statement I:

SN2 vfHkfØ;kdh fØ;k'khyrk dk Øe gS izkFkfed gSykbM In SN2 reaction the order of reactivity is Primary halide
> f}rh;d gSykbM > r`rh;d gSykbM > Secondary halide > Tertiary halide

dFku II : Statement II :
Dipole moment of CH3F is greater than CH3–Cl
CH3F dk f}/kzqo vk?kw.kZ CH3–Cl ls T;knk gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls
most appropriate answer from the options given
lokZf/kd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, %
below :
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
61. BF 3 vkS j NF 3 nks u ks a lgla ; ks t d ;kS f xd gS BF 3 61. Both BF3 and NF3 are Co-valent compound. BF3 is
v/kz qoh; ;kSfxd rFkk NF3 /kzqoh; gS bldk dkj.k gS% a non polar compound but NF3 is polar. The reason
is that
(1) eqDr voLFkk esa cksjku Bksl vkSj ukbVªkstu xSl gksrh gS
(1) boron is a solid and Nitrogen is a gas in free state.
(2) BF3 leryh; ijUrq NF3 fijkfeMh; vkdkj dk gksrk gS (2) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal in shape.
(3) cksjku mi/kkrq gS tcfd ukbVªkstu v/kkrq gksrk gS (3) boron is a metalloid while nitrogen is a non-metal.

(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of these

62. vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ,UFksY ih ifjorZu gS 62. The enthalpy change for the reaction,

H2(g) + C2H4 (g) C2H6 (g) cU/k ÅtkZ H–H = 103; H2(g) + C2H4 (g) C2H6 (g). The bond energies are;
H– H = 103; C – H = 99; C – C = 80 and C= C 145 kcal
C – H = 99; C – C = 80 vkSj C= C 145 kcal mol–1 gS :
mol–1:
–1
(1) – 10 kcal mol
(1) – 10 kcal mol–1
(2) + 10 kcal mol–1
(2) + 10 kcal mol–1
(3) – 30 kcal mol–1 (3) – 30 kcal mol–1
(4) + 30 kcal mol–1 (4) + 30 kcal mol–1

63. 63.

eq[; mRikn gSa : Major product is :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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64. C6H6 + COCl2 X Y, vfHkfØ;k esa Y 64. C6H6 + COCl2 X Y, Y and X in this

vkSj X gS % reaction are :

(1) C6H5 COOH vkSj C6H5 COCl (1) C6H5 COOH and C6H5 COCl

(2) C6H5 COCl vkSj C6H5 COOH (2) C6H5 COCl and C6H5 COOH

(3) C6H5 OH vkSj C6H5 COCl (3) C6H5 OH and C6H5 COCl

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of the above

65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ladj vk;u ds ikl lcls 65. Which of the following complex ions is expected
vf/kd vuq pqEcdh; xq .k gS : to have maximum paramagnetic properties :

(1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+

(2) [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+ (2) [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+

(3) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+ (3) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+

(4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+

66. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 66. Given below are two statements :

dFku I: Statement I:

dSfutkjksa vfHkfØ;k esa ,fYMgkbM dk ,d v.kq vkWDlhd`r In cannizaro reaction, one molecule of the aldehyde is
gks dj ,Ydksgy nsrk gSA tcfd nwljk vipf;r gksdj oxidised to alcohol while other is reduced to carboxylic
dkcksZDlfyd vEy dk yo.k nsrk gSA acid salt.

Statement II :
dFku II :
In carbylamine reaction aliphatic and aromatic primary,
dkfcZy ,ehu vfHkfØ;k esa ,fyQSfVd vkSj ,jkseSfVd izkFkfed]
secondary and tertiary amines on heating with
f}rh;d vkSj r`rh;d ,ehu DyksjksQkeZ vkSj ,Fksuksfyd
chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide from
iksVfS 'k;e gkbMªkDW lkbM ds lkFk xeZ djus ij vkblkslk;ukbM
isocyanide.
cukrk gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
most appropriate answer from the options given
ls lokZf/kd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, % below :
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

67. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d ySUFksukbM vk;u ds 67. Which of the follow ing lanthanoid ions is
fy, iz frpq Ecdh; gS % diamagnetic :

(1) Eu+2 (1) Eu+2

(2) Yb+2 (2) Yb+2

(3) Ce+2 (3) Ce+2

(4) Sm+2 (4) Sm+2

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68. dkSu ls fodYi esa lgh IUPAC uke fn;k gSA 68. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name:
(1) 3-,sfFky-4,4-MkbZesfFkygsIVsu (1) 3-Ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane
(2) 4,4-MkbZesfFky-3-,sfFkygsIVsu (2) 4,4-dimethyl-3-ethylheptane
(3) 5-,sfFky-4,4-MkbZesfFkygsIVsu (3) 5-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane
(4) 4,4-fcl(esfFky)-3-,sfFkygsIVsu (4) 4,4-Bis(methyl)-3-ethylheptane
69. eku yhft, rRo X vkSj Y feydj nks ;kSfxd XY2 69. Suppose the elements. X and Y combine to form
vkSj X3Y2 cukrs gS A ;fn XY2 ds 0.1 eksy dk Hkkj 10g two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. If 0.1 mole of XY2
gS vkS j X3Y2 ds 0.05 eksy dk Hkkj 9g gS rks Øe'k% X weighs 10g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9g, then
vkSj Y dk ijek.kq Hkkj gksxk % atomic weight of X and Y respectively:
(1) 40, 30 (1) 40, 30
(2) 60,40 (2) 60,40
(3) 20,30 (3) 20,30
(4) 30,20 (4) 30,20
70. fuEufyf[kr eas ls jkmYV fu;e ds vuq lkj /kukRed 70. Which of the following shows positive deviation
fopyu iznf'kZr djsxk % from Raoult’s law :
(1) C2H5OH vkSj CH3OH (1) C2H5OH and CH3OH
(2) HNO3 vkSj ty (2) HNO3 and water
(3) CHCl3 vkSj C2H5OH (3) CHCl3 and C2H5OH
(4) CHCl3 vkSj C6H5CH3 (4) CHCl3 and C6H5CH3
71. NO2– vkSj NO3– ds Hkwjs oy; ijh{k.k esa ladj vk;u 71. The brown ring test for NO2– and NO3– is due to
curk gS mldk lw= gS % the formation of complex ion with formula :
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(2) [Fe(NO)(CN)5]2- (2) [Fe(NO)(CN)5]2-
(3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
(4) [Fe(H2O)(NO)5]2+ (4) [Fe(H2O)(NO)5]2+
72. ,d vfHkfØ;k 50% nks ?k.Vs esa vkSj 75% pkj ?k.Vs eas 72. A reaction is 50% completed in 2 hours and 75%
iw.kZ gksrh gS rks vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV gS % complete in 4 hours. The order of reaction is :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 0 (4) 0
73. rhu /kkrq,a vkSj Z ds fy, ekud bysDVªkM
X, Y s {kerk 73. Standard electrode potential of three metal X, Y
–1.2 V, +0.5 V vkSj –3.0 V Øe'k% ik;s x;s gSA /kkrq and Z are –1.2 V, +0.5 V and –3.0 V respctively. The
dh vkDlhdkjd {kerk gksxh % oxidising power of these metal will be :
(1) Y > Z > X (1) Y > Z > X
(2) Y > X > Z (2) Y > X > Z
(3) Z > X > Y (3) Z > X > Y

(4) X > Y > Z (4) X > Y > Z

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74. Zr (Z=40) vkS j Hf (Z=72) leku ijek.kfod vkS j 74. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and
vk;fud f=T;k j[krk gS D;ks fd% ionic radii because of :

(1) leku jklk;fud xq.k ikbZ tkrh gSA (1) having similar chemical properties.

(2) leku lewg esa ik;s tkrs gSA (2) belonging to same group.

(3) fod.kZ lEcU/k (3) diagonal relationship.

(4) ySUFksukbM ladqpu (4) lanthanoid contraction

75. 2py d{kd ds bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ gksxh % 75. The energy of an electron of 2py orbital is :
(1) 2px d{kd ls vf/kd (1) greater than 2px orbital

(2) 2pz d{kd ls de (2) less than 2pz orbital

(3) 2px vkSj 2pz d{kd ds leku (3) same as that of 2px and 2pz orbital
(4) 2s d{kd ds cjkcj (4) equal to 2s orbital
76. ijek.kq Øekad 111 dk vf/kdkfjd IUPAC uke gS % 76. The official IUPAC name of atomic number 111 is :
(1) ¶ysjksfo;e (1) Flerovium
(2) jksUVtsfu;e (2) Rontgenium
(3) fyojeksfj;e (3) Livermorium

(4) vksxsuslu (4) Oganessom

77. y g vok"i'khy dkcZ fud inkFkZ ftldk v.kqHkkj M 77. y g of a non-volatile organic substance of molecular

gS 250 gm csU thu esa foys; gS csU thu dk eksyy mass M is dissolved in 250 g benzene. Molal
elevation constant of benzene is Kb. Elevation in
mUu;u fLFkjkad Kb gS rks DoFkukad esa mUu;u gksxk
its boiling point is given by :
%
M M
(1)
(1)
Kby Kb y

4K b y 4K by
(2) (2)
M M

K by K by
(3) (3)
4M 4M

2Kb y 2K b y
(4) (4)
M M
78. ladj ;kS fxd [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl dk laHkkfor leko;o 78. Number of the possible isomers for the complex
gksxsa % [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be :

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 4 (3) 4

(4) 2 (4) 2

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79. fuEu Øekxr vfHkfØ;k esa mRikn ‘C’ gksxk % 79. Predict the product ‘C’ in the sequence of reaction
30% H2SO4 dil . NaOH 30% H2SO4 dil . NaOH
HC CH HgSO4
A B C HC CH HgSO4
A B C

(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH (1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH

(2) CH3–CH=CH–CHO (2) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
(3) CH3CHO (3) CH3CHO

(4) (4)

80. [CuCl2(CH3NH2)2] ;kS fxd dk IUPAC uke gSA 80. The IUPAC name of the compound
[CuCl2(CH3NH2)2] is :
(1) MkbZDyksjks fcl ¼MkbZesfFky ,ehu½ dkWij (II)
(1) Dichloro bis (dimethyl amine) copper (II)
(2) MkbZDyksjks fcl ¼esfFky ,ehu½ dkWij (II)
(2) Dichloro bis (methyl amine) copper (II)
(3) MkbZesfFky ,ehu dkWij (II) DyksjkbM (3) Dimethyl amine copper (II) chloride
(4) fcl ¼MkbZesfFky ,ehu½ dkWij (II) DyksjkbM (4) Bis (dimethyl amine) copper (II) chloride
81. vfHkfØ;k ds fy,] 2NO2(g)  2NO(g) + O2(g) 81. For the reaction :

Kc = 1.8 x 10–6 ij 1840C 2NO2(g)  2NO(g) + O2(g)

Kc = 1.8 x 10–6 at 1840C
R = 0.0831 kJ K–1 mol-1
R = 0.0831 kJ K–1 mol-1
184 C ij Kp vkSj Kc esa
0
rqyuk djus ij ik;k tkrk gS fd %
when Kp and Kc are compared at 1840C it is found
(1) Kp dk eku Kc ls vf/kd gksxk that :

(2) Kp dk eku Kc ls de gksxk (1) Kp is greater than Kc

(2) Kp is less than Kc
(3) Kp = Kc
(3) Kp = Kc
(4) Kp dk eku Kc ls vf/kd] de vFkok cjkcj gksxk ;g
(4) whether Kp is greater than, less than or equal to Kc
xSl ds dqy nkc ij fuHkZj djsxk depends upon the total gas pressure
82. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk yo.k ty esa fuEure pH 82. Which of the following salt will give lowest pH in
nsxk : water :
(1) KCl (1) KCl
(2) NaCl
(2) NaCl
(3) Na2CO3
(3) Na2CO3
(4) CuSO4
(4) CuSO4
83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lcls de LFkkbZ dkcsZ uk;u gS: 83. Which of the following is least stable carbanion :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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84. 0.1 M H3BO3 ds 20 mL ds foy;u dks iw.kZ mnklhu 84. 20 mL of 0.1 M H 3 BO 3 solution on complete
djus ds fy, 40 ml x M NaOH foy;u dh vko';drk neutralisation requires 40 mL of x M NaOH
gksxhA 'x' dk eku gksxk % solution. The value of 'x' will be :
(1) 0.2 M (1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.01 M (2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.5 M (3) 0.5 M
(4) 0.05 M (4) 0.05 M
85. vfHkfØ;k A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g) dk lkE; fLFkjkad 85. The factor which changes equilibrium constant
fdl dkj.k ifjofrZ r gksxk % of the reaction A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g) is :
(1) dqy nkc (1) total pressure
(2) A2 vkSj B2 dh ek=k ij (2) Amounts of A2 and B2
(3) rki (3) Temperature
(4) mRizsjd (4) Catalyst
[k.M -B SECTION-B
bl [k.M esa 15 iz'u gSA ijh{kkFkhZ bu 15 iz'uksa esa This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
ls dksbZ Hkh 10 iz'u dj ldrk gSA ;fn ijh{kkFkhZ can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
10 ls vf/kd iz'u dk mÙkj nsrk gS rks gy fd;s gq,
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
izFke 10 iz 'u gh ekU; gksxsaA questions will be considered for marking.
86. bys DVªkWuLusgh iz frLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k dh ?kVrh gq bZ 86. Arrange the following compounds in the
vfHkfØ;k'khyrk esa ;kS fxdks dks O;ofLFkr djks % decreasing order of reactivity tow ards
electrophilic substitution reaction :
1. 2.
1. 2.

3. 4.
3. 4.
(1) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
(1) 2 > 4 > 1 > 3
(2) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
(2) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
(3) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (3) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(4) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (4) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d vEyh; lkeF;Z ds 87. Which of the following order of acid strength is
fy, lgh Øe gksxk % correct :
(1) R-COOH > R-OH > HOH > HC CH (1) R-COOH > R-OH > HOH > HC CH
(2) R-COOH > HOH > R-OH > HC CH (2) R-COOH > HOH > R-OH > HC CH
(3) R-COOH > HOH > HC CH > R-OH (3) R-COOH > HOH > HC CH > R-OH
(4) R-OH > HOH > HC CH > R-COOH (4) R-OH > HOH > HC CH > R-COOH
88. 1.00 eksyj tyh; foy;u esa foys; ds eksy va'k dh 88. Calculate the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00
x.kuk djsa% m aqueous soln.
(1) 0.177 (1) 0.177
(2) 0.771 (2) 0.771
(3) 0.0534 (3) 0.0534
(4) 0.0177 (4) 0.0177
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89. bysDVªksM {kerk ds fy, 89. The electrode potential for

Cu2+(aq)+ e– Cu+(aq) and Cu+(aq)+ e– Cu(s) are +0.15
Cu2+(aq)+ e– Cu+(aq) vkSj Cu+(aq)+ e– Cu(s) , +0.15 V
o
Eo V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of E
vkSj +0.50 V Øe'k% gSA dk eku gksxk %
will be :
(1) 0.50 V
(1) 0.50 V
(2) 0.325 V (2) 0.325 V
(3) 0.650 V (3) 0.650 V
(4) 0.150 V (4) 0.150 V
90. ;kS f xd dk og ;q Xe tks ,d lkFk fo|eku jg 90. The pair of compounds that can exist together:
ldrk gS %
(1) FeCl3, SnCl2
(1) FeCl3, SnCl2
(2) HgCl2, SnCl2
(2) HgCl2, SnCl2
(3) FeCl2, SnCl2
(3) FeCl2, SnCl2

(4) FeCl3, KI (4) FeCl3, KI

91. ,d valr`Ir gkbMªkd s kcZu vkstksuhdj.k fdz;k ij ,d 91. An unsaturated hydrocarbon on ozonolysis gives
ek s y Q ke s Z f YM gkbM ] ,flVfYM gkb M vk S j one mole each of formaldehyde, acetaldehyde and
esfFkyXykbvkWDty nsrk gS gkbMªksdkcZu dh lajpuk methylglyoxal. The structure of the hydrocarbon
gS : is :
(1) CH2  CH  CH  CHCH3 (1) CH2  CH  CH  CHCH3
(2) CH3 CH  CH  CH  CHCH3 (2) CH3 CH  CH  CH  CHCH3
(3) CH2  C(CH3 )  CH  CHCH3 (3) CH2  C(CH3 )  CH  CHCH3
(4) dksbZ ugh (4) None of these
92. ,d QykLd esa jaxghu N2O4(g) Hkwjs jax ds NO2(g) ds 92. In a flask, colourless N2O4(g) is in equilibrium with
lkFk lkE; esa gSA lkE; esa tc QykLd dks 100oC brown coloured NO2(g). At equilibrium when the
rd xeZ fd;k tkrk gS rks Hkwjk jax xgjk gks tkrk flask is heated to 100oC, the brown colour depends
gS vkSj BaMk gksus ij ;g de jax dk gks tkrk gSA on cooling it becomes less coloured. Which
bl voyksdu ds ckjs esa dkS u lk dFku xyr gS % statement is incorrect about this observation?

(1) vfHkfØ;k N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) ds fy, H +ve gSA. (1) The H for the reaction N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) is +ve.

(2) xeZ djus ij vuqpqEcdRo c<+rk gSA (2) Paramagnetism increases on heating.

(3) 100oC ij xeZ djus ij H – U 200 dSyksjh ds cjkcj gSA (3) The H – U at 100oC is equal to 200 cal.

(4) xeZ djus ij MkbZejkbts'ku de gks tkrk gSA (4) Dimerisation is reduced on heating.

93. mRd` " V xS l ksa dh vf/kdre ,oa U;w ure /kukRed 93. The maximum and minimum positive election gain
bysDVªkWu yfC/k ,UFkS Yih Øe'k% gS % enthalpy of noble gases are respectively of:

(1) He, Rn (1) He, Rn

(2) He, Ne (2) He, Ne

(3) Ne, Rn (3) Ne, Rn

(4) Ne, He (4) Ne, He

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94. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 94. Given below are two statements :

dFku I: Statement I:

xsfcz ;y FkSysekbM vfHkfØ;k dk mi;ksx 'kq) voLFkk Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for preparation of
es 1°, 2°, 3° ,ehUl rS;kj djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk 1°, 2°, 3° amines in pure state.
gS A
Statement II :
dFku II :
Phthalimide anion is a strong nucleophile stabilised by
FkS fyekbM vk;u iz c y ukfHkdLus gh vuq u kn }kjk resonance.
LFkk;h gksrk gS A
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls most appropriate answer from the options given
lokZf/kd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, % below :

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

95. tc f}rh;d ,Ydksgy ds ok"i dks 573 K ij xeZ 95. When vapours of secondary alcohol is passed over
rkac s ds Åij iz okfgr fd;k tkrk gS] rks mRikn heated copper at 573 K, the product formed is :
curk gS og gS %
(1) a carboxylic acid
(1) ,d dkcksZfDlfyd vEy
(2) an aldehyde
(2) ,d ,fYMgkbM
(3) ,d dhVksu (3) a ketone

(4) ,d ,Ydhu (4) an alkene

96. fyxsU M~ l dh LisDVªksjklk;fud Js.kh esa dkSu lk Øe 96. Which order is correct in spectrochemical series
lgh gS % of ligands?

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk ;kS fxd TohVj vk;u 97. Which of the following compounds can form a
cukrk gS % zwitter ion :

(1) ,uhyhu (1) Aniline

(2) ,lhVkfuykbM (2) Acetanilide

(3) csUtksbd vEy (3) Benzoic acid

(4) Xykblhu (4) Glycine

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98. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa] vf/kdre mRikn cusxk % 98. In the following reaction, the major product
formed is :

(1) P
(1) P
(2) Q
(2) Q
(3) R
(3) R
(4) S
(4) S
99. buesa ls dkS u lh vfHkfØ;k vip;ksip; vfHkfØ;k
99. Which reaction is not a redox reaction :
ugh gS %
(1) Zn + CuSO4  ZnSO4 + Cu
(1) Zn + CuSO4  ZnSO4 + Cu
(2) 2KClO3 + I2  2KIO3 + Cl2
(2) 2KClO3 + I2  2KIO3 + Cl2

(3) H2 + Cl2  2HCl

(3) H2 + Cl2  2HCl

(4) BaCl2 + Na2SO4  BaSO4 + 2NaCl (4) BaCl2 + Na2SO4  BaSO4 + 2NaCl

100. n=3, l=1, m=0, s = +1/2 ds fy, vf/kdre fdrus 100. The maximum number of electrons possible for
bys D Vª k W u la H ko gaS % n=3, l=1, m=0, s = +1/2

(1) 1 (1) 1

(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 10 (4) 10

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TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

Hkkx&1 ¼[k.M-A½ PART-1 (SECTION-A)

Attempt All 35 Questions
lHkh 35 iz'u vfuok;Z gS
101. Given below are two statements :
101. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa %
Statement I:
dFku I: Muscle fibre is a syncitium as the sarcoplasm contains
is'kh js'kk ,d ladksf'kdk gS D;ksafd is'khnzO; esa dsoy ,d only one nuclei.
dsUnzd gksrs gSA Statement II :
dFku II : Each myofibrils has alternate dark and light bands on
izR;sd is'kh rUrqd esa Øeokj xgjs ,oa gYds cSUM gksrs gSA it.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
most appropriate answer from the options given
ls lokZfèkd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, % below :
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
102. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 102. Given below are two statements

dFku - I : Statement I:
A population growing in a habitat with limited resources
fdlh vkokl esa lhfer lalk/kuksa ds lkFk o`f) dj jgh
show initially a lag phase, followed by phases of
lef"V vkjEHk esa i'prk izkoLFkk n'kkZrh gS] mlds ckn acceleration and deceleration and finally an asymptote,
Roj.k vkSj eanu vkSj vUrr% vuarLi'khZ izkoLFkk;sa vkrh gS] when the population density reaches the carrying
tc lef"V ?kuRo iks"k.k {kerk rd igq¡p tkrh gSA capacity.
dFku - II : Statement II :
vlhfer lalk/ku ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa pj?kkrkadh :i ls o`f) Any species growing exponentially under unlimited
djus okyh dksbZ Hkh tkfr FkksM+s le; esa gh fo'kky lef"V resource conditions can reach enormous population
?kuRoksa rd igq¡p ldrh gSA densities in short time.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
103. fn;s x;s fp= ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa 103. Select the correct option for the given diagram

(1) eè;koLFkk I (1) Metaphase I

(2) i'pkoLFkk I (2) Anaphase I
(3) iwokZoLFkk I (3) Prophase I
(4) i'pkoLFkk II (4) Anaphase II

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104. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 104. Select the correct match

A. eknk 'kadq I. vySafxd dyh A. Female cones I. Asexual buds

B. uj 'kadq II. xq:chtk.kq i.kZ B. Male cones II. Megasporophylls

C. izksFkSyl III. y?kqchtk.kq i.kZ C. Prothallus III. Microsporophylls

D. tseh IV. FkSykW;M xSehVksQkbV D. Gemmae IV. Thalloid gametophyte

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
105. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 105. Select the correct match
A. izxqgh; I. QSlh;ksyk A. Coelom I. Fasciola
B. vxqgh; II. xkjxksuh;k B. Acoelom II. Gorgonia
C. dqVxqgh; III. cUnj C. Pseudocoelom III. Monkey
D. f}dksfjd IV. oqpjs sfj;k D. Diploblastic IV. Wuchereria
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
106. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 106. Select the incorrect match

(1) – dksjksyk (1) – Corolla

(2) – iqeax (2) – Androecium

(3) – O;korhZr foU;kl (3) – Twisted aestivation

(4) – dksjLi'khZ foU;kl (4) – Valvate aestivation

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107. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 107. Select the incorrect match

(1) – LrEHkh; chtk.MU;kl (1) – Axile placentation

(2) – eqDr LrEHkh; (2) – Free central

chtk.MU;kl placentation

(3) – lhekUr chtk.MU;kl (3) – Marginal placentation

(4) – vk/kkjh; chtk.MU;kl (4) – Basal placentation

108. foyfxr vkSj 'kq )hr DNA vo{ksihr fd;k tk ldrk gS 108. Isolated and purified DNA can be precipitated by
fdldksa Mkydj adding
(1) fpYM NaCl (1) Chilled NaCl
(2) fpYM C3H4O3 (2) Chilled C3H4O3
(3) fpYM C2H5OH (3) Chilled C2H5OH
(4) fpYM C6H12O6 (4) Chilled C6H12O6
109. vestu o"kkZ ou esa mHk;pj vkSj Lru/kkjh tkWfr;ksa dh 109. In amazonian rain forest what is the number of
D;k la[;k gS : species of amphibia and mammals :
(1) 1300, 427 (1) 1300, 427
(2) 427, 427 (2) 427, 427
(3) 427 , 378 (3) 427 , 378
(4) 427 , 3000 (4) 427 , 3000
110. ukby ipZ dks iwohZ vÝhdk dh foDVksfj;k >hy esa 110. The Nile perch introduced into lake victoria in east
Mkyk x;k rc >hy esa jgus okyh ikfjfLFkfrd :i ls Africa led eventually to the extinction of an
cstksM+ flpfyM eNfy;ksa dh 200 ls vf/kd tkfr;k¡ ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200
foyq Ir gks xbZ species of cichlid fish in the lake.
Åij fn;k x;k okD; C;k[;ku dj jgk gSA The above given sentence explains :
(1) lgfoyqIrrk (1) Co-extinctions
(2) fons'kh tkWfr;ksa dk vkØe.k (2) Alien species invasions
(3) vfr nksgu (3) Over exploitations
(4) ladh.kZ :i ls mi;ksxh tSofofo/krk (4) Narrowly utilitarian biodiversity
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111. ltkoVh vkSj fo'ks"k :i ls iq"ih; ikn~ iksa dh [ksrh 111. The cultivation and management of ornamental
vkSj izcU/ku dks dgk tkrk gS and especially flowering plants are called as
(1) fiLlhdYpj (1) Pisciculture
(2) vksysjhdYpj (2) Olericulture
(3) lsjhdYpj (3) Sericulture
(4) ¶yksjhdYpj (4) Floriculture

112. fdl iz ;ksx esa thok.kq dk mi;ksx gqvk Fkk 112. In which experiment bacteria was used

(1) fxzfQFk dk iz;ksx (1) Griffith experiment

(2) g"ksZ vkSj psl dk iz;ksx (2) Hershey and chase experiment

(3) eslsYlu vkSj LVkWy dk iz;ksx (3) Meselson and stahl experiment

(4) lHkh (4) All

113. lgh vuq :irk dk p;u djsa 113. Select the correct match

A. ihlst I. jksgw A. Pisces I. Rohu

B. VsVªkiksMk II. daxk: B. Tetrapoda II. Kangaroo

C. ,XusFkk III. gsx fQ'k C. Agnatha III. Hag fish

D. izksVksdkMsZV IV. lkYik D. Protochordata IV. Salpa

(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
114. lgh vuq :irk dk p;u djsa 114. Select the correct match
A. ,Uty fQ'k I. nks tksM+h ikn A. Angel fish I. Two pair limb
B. nhokj dh fNidyh II. QhUl B. Wall lizard II. Fins
C. vkscsfy;k III. izxqgk C. Obelia III. Coelom
D. MsUVsyh;e IV. f}dksfjd
D. Dentalium IV. Diploblastic
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
115. lgh vuq :irk dk p;u djsa
115. Select the correct match
A. ruk I. ioZ vkSj lfU/k
A. Stem I. Nodes and internodes
B. >dM+k ewy rU= II. xsg¡w B. Fibrous root system II. Wheat
C. ewlyk tM+ rU= III. ljlksa C. Tap root system III. Mustard
D. dhVHk{kh ikS/kk IV. ohul ¶ykbZ VªSi D. Insectivorous plant IV. Venus fly trap
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

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116. QScslh ds fy, xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 116. Select the incorrect match for fabaceae

(1) iqeax – 10 (1) Androecium – 10

(2) Edible oil – Groundnut
(2) [kk| rsy – e¡wxQyh
(3) Pulses – Gram
(3) nky – puk
(4) Flower – Bisexual,
(4) iq"i – f}fyaxh] ,DVhuksEkkWQhZd Actinomorphic

117. dkWdjksp ds fy, xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 117. Select the incorrect match for cockroach
(1) N% vR;f/kd dkbVhu – nk¡r (1) Six highly chitinous – Teeth
dh cuh IysV
plate
(2) lEiw.kZ vxzka= – D;wfVdy ds }kjk
(2) Entire foregut – Lined by cuticle
vkLrfjr
(3) Midgut – Mesentron
(3) eè;kU= – felsUVªkWu
(4) i'pkU= – dsoy dksyu vkSj (4) Hind gut – Differentiated into only
eyk'k; esa foHksfnr colon and rectum
118. Nn~ ekoj.k D;k gS 118. What is camouflage
(1) xzh"e funzk (1) Summer sleep
(2) 'khr funzk (2) Winter sleep
(3) vius 'k=qvksa ls fNius ds fy, jax ifjorZu dh {kerk (3) The ability to change the colour to hide them from
gksuk their enemies
(4) vlerkih (4) Poikilotherms
119. uj dkWdjksp ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa 119. Select the correct option for male cockroach
(1) 'kqØ xzkfgdk (1) Spermatheca
(2) 'ys"kd xzfUFk (2) Collaterial gland
(3) QSyksfe;j (3) Phallomere
(4) v.Mdop dk fuekZ.k (4) Formation of ootheca
120. dksyStu rUrq vuqifLFkr gksrk gS 120. Collagen fiber absent in
(1) RBC (1) RBC
(2) WBC (2) WBC
(3) IysVysV~l (3) Platelets
(4) lHkh (4) All
121. fdl izdkj dk Ård folj.k lhek dk dk;Z djrh 121. Which type of tissue is involved in functions like
gS A forming a diffusion boundary
(1) ?kukdkj midyk (1) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) 'kYdh midyk (2) Squamous epithelium
(3) LrEHkkdkj midyk (3) Columnar epithelium
(4) RBC (4) RBC

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122. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 122. Select the incorrect match

(1) VªSdhM~l – yEck (1) Tracheid – Elongated

(2) WBC – yEck (2) WBC – Elongated

(3) i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdk;sa – xksy vkSj v.Mkdkj (3) Mesophyll cell – Round and oval

(4) LrEHkkdkj midyk – yEck vkSj ladjk (4) Columnar epithelium – Long and narrow

dksf'kdk;sa cells

123. ikS/kks esa cgq r ls vk;u o nwljs inkFkZ lkUnzrk izo.krk 123. In plants ________facilitates the transport of a
ds foijhr ________ls gksdj jl/kkuh esa vfHkxfer number of ions and other materials against
gksrs gS ] bl dkj.k ls budh lkUnz rk jlèkkuh es a concentration gradients into the vacuole, hence
their concentration is significantly higher in the
dksf'kdknz O; dh vis{kk dkQh vf/kd gksrh gSA
vacuole than in the cytoplasm
fn;s okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjs Fill in the blank in given sentence
(1) ,ekbyksIykLV (1) Amyloplast
(2) VksuksIykLV (2) Tonoplast
(3) ,Y;qjksIykLV (3) Aleuroplast
(4) bykb;ksIykLV (4) Elaioplast
124. Fkkbel xzfUFk ds fy, xyr dFku dk p;u djsa 124. Select the incorrect statements for thymus gland
(1) ;g izfrj{kk rU= ds fodkl esa egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrk (1) It plays a major role in the development of the
gSA immune system
(2) ;g xzfUFk Fkkbekslhu uked LVsjk;M gkeksZu lzkfor (2) This gland secretes the steroid hormone called
djrh gS thymosins
(3) c<+rh mez ds lkFk Fkkbel dk vi?kVu gksus yxrk gS (3) Thymus is degenerated in old individuals
(4) ;g egk/keuh ds mnj i{k ij mjksfLFk ds ihNs QsQM+ksa (4) It is a lobular structures located between lungs
ds chp fLFkr ,d ikyh;qDr lajpuk gSA behind sternum on the ventral side of aorta
125. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 125. Select the incorrect match
(1) Fkk;jkDlhu – Fkk;jkbM xzfUFk (1) Thyroxine – Thyroid gland
(2) PTH – fiV~;qVjh xzfUFk (2) PTH – Pituitary gland
(3) MSH, ACTH – fiV~;qVjh xzfUFk (3) MSH, ACTH – Pituitary gland
(4) xSfLVªu – GIT (4) Gastrin – GIT
126. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu euq "; esa T;knk la[;k esa gS 126. Which of the following is more in number in
human:
(1) dikyh; ul
(1) Cranial nerves
(2) Likbuy ul
(2) Spinal nerves
(3) vkWfIVd yksc (3) Optic lobe
(4) izefLr"d v/kZxksyk)Z (4) Cerebral hemisphere
127. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 127. Select the incorrect match
(1) ,dy ifjlapj.k – eNyh (1) Single circulation – Fishes
(2) Incomplete double – Only amphibians
(2) viw.kZ nksgjk ifjlapj.k – dsoy mHkp;j circulation
(3) Complete double – Birds
(3) iw.kZ nksgjk ifjlapj.k – i{kh circualtion
(4) Complete double – Mammals
(4) iw.kZ nksgjk ifjlapj.k – Lru/kkjh circulation
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128. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 128. Select the Incorrect match

rRo Hkw&iiZ Vh euq"; 'kjhj dk % Element % weight % weight of human

of Earths body
dk % Hkkj Hkkj
crust
(1) dkcZu 0.03 3
(1) Carbon 0.03 3
(2) vkDlhtu 46.6 65
(2) Oxygen 46.6 65
(3) dSfY'k;e 3.6 1.5 (3) Calcium 3.6 1.5
(4) flyhdkWu 27.7 ux.; (4) Silicon 27.7 Negligible
129. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 129. Select the incorrect match
(1) Xykblhu & vehuks vEy & 2 dkcZu (1) Glycine – Amino acid – 2 Carbon
(2) jkbckst & dkcksZgkbMªsV & 5 dkcZu (2) Ribose – Carbohydrate – 5 Carbon
(3) ;qjfs ly & ukbVªkstu {kkj & 5 dkcZu (3) Uracil – Nitrogen base – 5 carbon
(4) dksysLVªkWy & fyfiM & 15 dkcZu ls T;knk (4) Cholesterol – Lipid – More than 15 carbon
130. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 130. Select the incorrect match
(1) MhgkbMªksthust – nks fØ;k/kkj ds chp
(1) Dehydrogenase – Catalyse oxidoreduction
vkWDlhvip;u dks between two substrate
mRizsfjr djrk gS
(2) Ligases – Enzymes catalysing
(2) ykbxstst – ,Utkbe bLVj] bZFkj]
hydrolysis of ester, ether,
isIVkbM] XykbdkslhMhd
cU/k dk ty vi?kVu djrk peptide, glycosidic bond

gSA (3) Isomerases – Includes all enzymes

(3) vkblksejstst – os lHkh ,Utkbe tks izdk'kh; catalysing interconversion

T;kehrh; o fLFkrh; of optical, geometric or
leko;oksa ds vUrj&:ikUrj.k
positional isomers
dks mRizsfjr djrs gS
(4) lgdkjd – fge (4) Cofactor – Haem

131. ftl lfEeJ dk fuekZ.k ,d tksM+h lw=;q fXer letkr 131. The complex formed by pair of synapsed
xq.klw=ksa }kjk gksrk gS] mls ______ dgrs gS A homologous chromosomes is called a ______

fn;s okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjs Fill in the blank in given sentence

(1) ;qxyh vFkok prq"d (1) Bivalent or tetrad

(2) dk,TesVk (2) Chaismata

(3) ladksf'kdk (3) Syncytium

(4) dksf'kdk iV~Vh (4) Cell plate

132. ;hLV esa dksf'kdk pØ dh le; vof/k gksrh gSA 132. The time duration of cell cycle in yeast

(1) 1.5 ?k.Vsa (1) 1.5 hours

(2) 2.5 ?k.Vsa (2) 2.5 hours

(3) 2 ?k.Vsa (3) 2 hours

(4) 3 ?k.Vsa (4) 3 hours

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133. PGA, PEP, OAA esa Øe'k% dkcZu ijek.kq dh la[;k 133. What is the carbon atom number in PGA, PEP, OAA
D;k gksrh gSA respectively

(1) 3, 4, 5 (1) 3, 4, 5

(2) 3, 3, 4 (2) 3, 3, 4

(3) 2, 3, 4 (3) 2, 3, 4

(4) 3, 3, 6 (4) 3, 3, 6

134. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d iz dkj dk ,Utkbe ugha 134. Which of the following is not a type of enzyme
gS A
(1) RuBisCO
(1) RuBisCO

(2) PEPdst (2) PEPcase

(3) PEP dkckZDlhyst (3) PEP carboxylase

(4) RuBP
(4) RuBP
135. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
135. Select the incorrect match
(1) jkbckst – 15 nm ls 20 nm
(1) Ribosome – 15 nm to 20 nm in
vkdkj esa size
(2) lw=df.kdk dh yEckbZ – 1–4.1 m
(2) Length of mitochondria – 1–4.1 m
(3) vo.khZyod – izdk'k la'ys"k.k (3) Leucoplast – Photosynthesis
(4)tyvi?kVdh; ,Utkbe – ykbist] izksVh,t (4) Hydrolytic enzymes – Lipases, proteases
Hkkx&1 ¼[k.M -B½ PART-1 (SECTION-B)
bl [k.M esa 15 iz 'u gSA ijh{kkFkhZ bu 15 iz'uksa esa ls This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
dksbZ Hkh 10 iz 'u dj ldrk gSA ;fn ijh{kkFkhZ 10 ls choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
vf/kd iz'u dk mÙkj nsrk gS rks gy fd;s gq, izFke 10 question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
iz 'u gh ekU; gksxsaA considered for marking.
136. okg~; ijthoh ds mnkgj.k gS %
136. Examples of ectoparasite is/are :
(1) vfj=ikn
(1) Copepods
(2) vejcsy
(2) Cuscuta
(3) twa (3) Lice
(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of these
137. fo|q r {ks= esa DNA pyrk gS% 137. Under an electric field DNA moves towards-
(1) ,uksM dh vksj (1) Anode
(2) dSFkksM dh vksj (2) Cathode
(3) ugha pysxk (3) Don't move
(4) Li"V ugha gS (4) Not clear
138. ,M~l fdlls gksrk gS% 138. AIDS is caused by
(1) gsIyk;M bE;wuks fMfQfl,alh fo"kk.kq (1) Haploid Immuno deficiency virus
(2) áweu bE;wuks fMfQfl,alh fo"kk.kq (2) Human Immuno deficiency virus
(3) gksLV bE;wuks fMfQfl,alh fo"kk.kq (3) Host Immuno deficiency virus

(4) dksbZ ugha (4) none of these

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139. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 139. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
dksf'kdk fHkRrh ,oa eè;iVfydk esa IykteksMSLesVk vkM+&s frjNs The cell wall and middle lamellae may be traversed by
:i esa fLFkr jgrs gS tks vkl&ikl dh dksf'kdk nzO; dks plasmodesmata which connect the cytoplasm of
neighbouring cells.
tksM+rs gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II :
Cell wall not only gives shape to the cell and protects
dksf'kdk fHkRrh dksf'kdk dks dsoy ;kfU=d gkfu;ksa vkSj the cell from mechanical damage and infection it also
laØe.k ls gh j{kk ugha djrk gS cfYd ;g dksf'kdkvksa ds helps in cell to cell interaction and provides barrier to
chp vkilh lEidZ cuk;s j[kus rFkk vokaNuh; o`gn v.kqvkssa undesirable macromolecules.
ds fy, vojks/k iznku djrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
140. vxj ,d vkuqoaf'kdhfon~ va/ks n` f"Vdks.k dk mi;ksx 140. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for
fdlh ,d tho ds iqjs thukse ds lhDosUlhax ds fy, sequencing the whole genome of an organism,
djrk gS ] mlds ckn fofHkUu [k.Mksa ds dk;Z ds fy, followed by assignment of function to different
dke djrk gS mlds }kjk viuk;h x;h dk;Z&iz.kkfy;k¡ segments, the methodology adopted by him is
dgh tkrh gS called as :
(1) thu eSaihx (1) Gene mapping
(2) O;Dr vuqØe ?kq.Mh (2) Expressed sequence tags
(3) tSolwpuk foKku (3) Bioinformatics
(4) vuqØe fVIi.k (4) Sequence annotation
141. ,d bZ0 dksykbZ LVªsu esa i thu mRifjofrZ r gks tk;s 141. In a E-coli strain i gene mutated and its product
vkSj budk mRikn mRizsjd v.kq ls u ca/k ldsA vxj can not bind the inducer molecule. If the growth
o` f) ekè;e esa ySDVkst fn;k tk;s blds D;k ifj.kke medium is provided with lactose, what will be the
iz kIr gksxsa outcome :
(1) z, y, a thUl vuqysf[kr gksxh (1) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
(2) z,y,a thUl VªkWUlys'khr ugha gksxh (2) z,y,a genes will not be translated
(3) RNA ikWyhejst izkseksVj {ks= ls tqM+ tk;sxk (3) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
(4) dsoy z thu vuqys[khr gksxk (4) Only z gene will get transcribed
142. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gSa] ,d vfHkdFku (A) 142. Given below are two statements , one is labelled
ls vkSj nwljk dkj.k (R) ls yscYM gS as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
vfHkdFku (A) :
Assertion (A) :
lHkh ekbØksCl gkfudkjd ugh gksrs gSA All microbes are not harmful.
dkj.k (R) : Reason (R) :
ekbØksCl tUrqvksa] ikniksa vkSj euq"; esa jksxksa dks mRiUu Microbes causes diseases in animals, plants and
djrs gS ysfdu cgqr lkjs ekbØksCl dbZ izdkj ls euq"; ds human beings but several microbes are useful to man
fy, ykHknk;d gSA in diverse ways.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
O;k[;ku ugh djrk gSA correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gS (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)
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143. ewy :i ls izR;sd /keuh vkSj f'kjk feydj cuh gksrh 143. Basically, each artery and vein consists of
gS : (1) Six layers
(1) N% ijr
(2) Five layers
(2) ik¡p ijr
(3) rhu ijr (3) Three layers
(4) dsoy ,d ijr (4) Only one layers
144. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 144. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
fNnz;qDr lsyksQsu f>Yyh ls viksguh nzo esa v.kqvksa dk The porous cellophane membranes of the tube allows
vkokxeu lkUnz izo.krk ds vuqlkj gksrk gSA the passage of molecule based on concentration
gradient.
dFku - II : Statement II :
gheksMk;fyfll ds izØe esa jksxh dh /keuh ls jDr fudkydj During the process of haemodialysis the blood drained
viksgudkjh bZdkbZ esa Hkstk tkrk gS ftls d`f=e o`Dd dgrs from a convenient artery is pumped into a dialysing unit
gSA called artificial kidney.
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa Choose the correct answer from the option given
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
145. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gSa] ,d vfHkdFku (A) 145. Given below are two statements , one is labelled
ls vkSj nwljk dkj.k (R) ls yscYM gS as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
vfHkdFku (A) : (R).
Assertion (A):
Ogsy dh ihB ij ckusZdy dk o`f) djuk deUlsfyTe dk
The barnacle growing on the back of whale are example
mnkgj.k gSA
of commensalism.
dkj.k (R) : Reason (R) :
ckusZdy Ogsy dks gkfu igq¡pkrs gS vkSj Ogsy dh mRrjthfork] The Barnacle harm the whale and also reduce the
o`f) dks Hkh de djrs gSA survival, growth of the whale.
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps In the light of the above statements, choose the
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pqusa most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh below :
O;k[;ku ugh djrk gSA (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gS correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
djrk gSA (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
146. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa%
146. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
o.kkZU/krk fodkj X-Øksekslkse ij fLFkr dqN thuksa esa mRifjorZu The colour blindness is due to mutation in certain genes
ds dkj.k vkrk gSA present in the X-chromosomes.
dFku - II : Statement II :
o.kkZU/krk yxHkx 0.4% iq:"kksa ,oa ek= 8% ukfj;ksa esa ;g The colour blindness occurs in about 0.4 percent of
fodkj ik;k tkrk gSA males and only about 8 percent of females.
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
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147. loZiz Fke dksf'kdh; iz dkj dk thou dk :i ________ 147. The first cellular form of life did not possibly
originate till about ________ years ago. These were
o"kksZ igys rd izdV ugha gq vk gksxkA dnkfpr~ ;s
probably single cells. All life forms were in water
,ddksf'kdh; jgs gksx asA lHkh :i ml le; dso y environment only :
tyh; okrkoj.k esa gh jgs gksxsa:
Fill in the blank in given sentence :
fn, x, okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjsa
(1) 2000 million
(1) 2000 feyh;u
(2) 3000 million
(2) 3000 feyh;u
(3) 4000 million
(3) 4000 feyh;u
(4) 1000 feyh;u (4) 1000 million

148. eè;efLr"d dk i` "Bh; Hkkx ___________mHkkjksa ¼yksCl½ 148. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly
of_______sw ellings (lobes) called corpora
dk cuk gksrk gS ftUgs dkiksZjk DokMªhtsehuk dgrs gS :
Quadrigemina. :
fn, x, okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjsa
Fill in the blank in given sentence
(1) pkj xksy
(1) Four Round
(2) ,d xksy (2) One Round
(3) nl xksy (3) Ten Round
(4) N% xksy (4) Six Round
149. ekfjl foyfdUl o ________ }kjk fn, x, X-fdj.k 149. It was only in ________ that James watson and
foorZu vkdM+s ds vk/kkj ij ___________ esa tsEl francis crick based on the X-ray diffraction data
okV~ lu o Ýz kWfUll fØd us DNA dh lajpuk dk produced by Maurice wilkins and ___________ :
f}dq.Myh uewuk izLrwr fd;k
Fill in the blank in given sentence respectively :
fn, x, okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Øe'k% Hkjsa
(1) 1956 , Erwin chargaff
(1) bfoZu pkjxkQ] 1956
(2) bfoZu pkjxkQ] 1953 (2) 1953, Erwin chargaff
(3) jkstkfyUM ÝSUdfyu] 1953 (3) 1953, Rosalind franklin
(4) jkstkfyUM ÝSUdfyu]1962 (4) 1962, Rosalind franklin

150. A – bUgksus vifjiDo Hkzw.k ds d`f=e lao/kZu ij dk;Z vkjEHk 150. A – He also emphasised the need for initiation of work
djus dh vko';drk ij Hkh cy fn;k on artificial culture of immature embryos.
B – VsLV V~;wc fu"kspu rFkk vUr% v.Mk'k;h ijkx.k ij B – His work on test tube fertilisation and Intra-ovarian
buds bl dk;Z ds dkj.k fo'oHkj esa budh t;t;dkj gqbZ pollination won worldwide acclaim.
Åij fn, x, A vkS j B okD; fdl oS K kfud ls The above given sentence A and B are related
lEcfUèkr gS with which scientist
(1) dsoy A – iUpkuu ekgs'ojh (1) Only A – Panchanan maheswari
(2) B – th0 ,u0 jkepUnzu (2) B – G.N. Ramachandaran
(3) A vkSj B – iUpkuu ekgs'ojh (3) A and B – Panchanan Maheswari
(4) B – jkenso feJk (4) B – Ramdeo mishra
Hkkx&2 ¼[k.M-A½ PART-2 (SECTION-A)
lHkh 35 iz'u vfuok;Z gS Attempt All 35 Questions
151. Hkz w.k vkSj xHkkZ'k; ds chp laoguh lEidZ cukus okyh 151. The structure which provides vascular connection
lajpuk dks _______ dgrs gSA between foetus and uterus is called _______ :
fn, x, okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjsa Fill in the blank in given sentence
(1) vijk (1) Placenta
(2) v.Mokfguh (2) Oviduct
(3) fQEczh (3) Fimbriae
(4) xzhok (4) Cervix
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152. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu fo"ke gS : 152. Which one of the following is odd :
(1) Pst I (1) Pst I
(2) Pvu II (2) Pvu II
(3) Cla I (3) Cla I
(4) DNAs (4) DNAs

153. 153.

fn;k x;k fp= i`Foh xz g dks fu:fir dj jgk gS A The given Diagram is represent Earth planet. At
fdl fcUnq ij tSofofo/krk lcls de gksxh. which point Biodiversity are minimum.
(1) C (1) C
(2) E (2) E
(3) D (3) D
(4) A (4) A
154. cyiwoZd fu%'olu ds i'pkr QsQM+ks esa lek;ksftr 154. The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs
ok;q dh dqy ek=k gS : at the end of a forced inspiration :
(1) FRC (1) FRC
(2) VC (2) VC
(3) TLC (3) TLC
(4) IC (4) IC
155. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vkWDlhMsfVo fMdkckZDlhys'ku 155. Which of the following is/are involved in oxidative
esa 'kkfey gSA decarboxylation :
(1) ,lhVkby CoA (1) Acetyl CoA
(2) NADH (2) NADH
ikb:osV fMgkbMªksthust
(3) (3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) lHkh (4) All
156. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls ;kSfxd dk ikb:fod vEy 156. Which one of the following compound may be
ls fd.ou ds }kjk fuekZ.k gks ldrk gSA: formed from pyruvic acid through fermentation:
(1) ySDVhd vEy (1) Lactic acid
(2) bFksukWy (2) Ethanol
(3) ,lhVkby CoA (3) Acetyl CoA
(4) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (4) Both 1 and 2
157. RuBiSCO dk iw.kZ :i D;k gS A: 157. What is the full form of RuBiSCO :
(1) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxidation (1) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxidation
(2) Ribulose biphosphate carbon oxygen (2) Ribulose biphosphate carbon oxygen
(3) Ribose biphosphate carbon oxygen (3) Ribose biphosphate carbon oxygen
(4) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxygenase (4) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
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158. ikWyhlhLVªkfud lajpukRed thu mifLFkr gksrk gS 158. Polycistronic structural gene present in :

(1) vf/kdrj thok.kq esa (1) Mostly in bacteria

(2) vf/kdrj izksfVLVk esa (2) Mostly in protista

(3) vf/kdrj dod esa (3) Mostly in fungi

(4) vf/kdrj ikS/ks esa (4) Mostly in plants

159. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d izdkj dk fo'ks"kd gS % 159. Which one of the following is/are a type of traits :

(1) xksy (1) Round

(2) gjk (2) Green

(3) ckSuk (3) Dwarf

(4) lHkh (4) All

160. v/kksorhZ v.Mk'k; fdl QSfeyh esa mifLFkr gS 160. Inferior ovary is/are present in which family :
(1) ekyoslh (1) Malvaceae
(2) ØqlhQsjh (2) Cruciferae
(3) dEiksftVh (3) Compositae
(4) lHkh (4) All
161. MsUxq cq[kkj ds fy, bUD;wc's ku dky D;k gS : 161. What is the Incubation period of dengue fever is :

(1) 1 fnu (1) 1 day

(2) 1 o"kZ (2) 1 year

(3) 5 ls 10 o"kZ (3) 5 to 10 year

(4) 3 ls 8 fnu (4) 3 to 8 days

162. dFku-I- gheksQhfy;k esa :f/kj ds FkDdk cuus ls lec) 162. Statement-I- In haemophilia a single protein that is a
,dy izksVhu izHkkfor gksrk gS ;g ,dy izksVhu ,d izksVhu part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of
J`a[kyk dk va'kek= gksrk gSA blood is affected.
dFku - II- FkSyslhfe;k jksx dk oxhZdj.k bl vk/kkj ij Statement - II- Thalassemia can be classified according
fd;k tkrk gS fd gheksXyksfcu v.kq dh dkSu lh J`a[kyk to which chain of the haemoglobin molecule is affected.
izHkkfor gqbZ gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa
163. What is the full from of 'YAC'
163. 'YAC' dk iw.kZ :i D;k gSA
(1) Yellow Artificial chromosomes (1) Yellow Artificial chromosomes

(2) Yeast applied chromosomes (2) Yeast applied chromosomes

(3) Yeast Artificial chromosome (3) Yeast Artificial chromosome

(4) Yeast Annotation chromosome (4) Yeast Annotation chromosome

164. vkuq oaf'kd dwV ds fy, xyr vuq :irk dk p;u djsa 164. Select the incorrect match for genetic code

(1) UUU – Y;wlhu (1) UUU – Leucine

(2) UUC – fQukby,ykuhu (2) UUC – Phenylalanine
(3) GGG – Xykblhu (3) GGG – Glycine
(4) AAA – ykblhu (4) AAA – Lysine
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165. fn, x;s fp= ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa 165. Select the correct option for the given diagram

(1) A–vijk jlkadqj

(1) A–Placental villi
(2) B–ihrd dks"k
(2) B–Yolk sac
(3) C–Hkz.w k (3) C–Embryo
(4) lHkh (4) All
166. dHkh & dHkh vyhy vko`fRr dk ;g ifjorZ u lef"V 166. Some times the change in allele frequency is so
ds u;s uewus esa bruk fHkUu gks tkrk gS rks og uwru different in the new sample of population that they
iz tkfr gh gks tkrh gS A ekS fyd viokfgr lef"V become a different species the original driffted
laLFkkid cu tkrh gS vkSj bl izHkko dks dgk tkrk population becomes founders and the effect is
gS A called
(1) lhfoax izHkko (1) Seiving effect
(2) laLFkkid izHkko (2) Founder effect
(3) MkÅu flUMªkse (3) Down syndrome
(4) lgyXurk (4) Linkage
167. ekuo 'kjhj esa fdl LFky ij pO2 104 mmHg gksrk 167. In human body on which site the pO2 are 104
gS mmHg
(1) iYeksujh /keuh (1) Pulmonary artery
(2) flLVsfed f'kjk (2) Systemic veins
(3) 'kjhj Ård (3) Body tissues
(4) ok;q dwfidk (4) Alveolus
168. Lt = L0 + rt lehdj.k esa r dk D;k eryc gksrk gSA 168. In equation Lt = L0 + rt what is the meaning of r
(1) o`f) nj (1) Growth rate
(2) nh?khZdj.k izfr bZdkbZ le; (2) Elongation per unit time
(3) LokHkkfod y?kqxf.kd dk vk/kkj (3) Base of natural logarithms
(4) nksuksa 1 vkSj 2 (4) Both 1 and 2
169. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 169. Given below are two statements :
dFku - I : Statement I:
,M~l vkSj ;d`r'kksFk&ch nksuks gh laØe.k] fpjdkfyd Both AIDS and hepatitis-B infections are chronic infection
and ultimately fatal.
laØe.k gS vkSj varr% ?kkrd gksrs gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II : Both AIDS and hepatitis-B can be transmitted through
,M~l vkSj ;d`r'kksFk & ch nksuks gh ;kSu laidZ vFkok sexual contact or infected blood.
laØfer :f/kj ls LFkkukarfjr gksrk gSA In the light of the above statements, choose the
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
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170. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa % 170. Given below are two statements :
dFku I: Statement I:
izR;sd F ,DVhu eksuksesfjd G ,fDVu dk ikWyhej gksrk gSA Each F actin is a polymer of monomeric G actins.
dFku II : Statement II :
,d tfVy esjksek;kslhu izkVs hu Vªkis ksek;kslhu ij fu;r A complex protein meromyosin is distributed at regular
intervals on the tropomyosin.
vUrjkyksa ij ikbZ tkrh gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksDr dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa
most appropriate answer from the options given
ls lokZfèkd mi;qDr mÙkj dk p;u dhft, % below :
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSaA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
171. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
171. Select the incorrect match
y{k.k eksu s j k dod Characters Monera Fungi
(1) dksf'kdk dk izdkj izksdSfj;ksfVd ;wdSfj;ksfVd (1) Cell type Prokaryotic Eukaryotic
(2) iks"k.k dh lnSo fo"keiks"kh fo"keiks" kh (2) Mode of Always heterotrophic
fof/k nutrition heterotrophic
(3) dsUnzd f>Yyh vuqifLFkr mifLFkr (3) Nuclear Absent Present

(4) dksf'kdk f>Yyh uku lsyqyksftd dkbVhu ds membrane

(4) Cell wall Non cellulosic Present
lkFk mifLFkr
with chitin
172. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
172. Select the correct match
A. ekbdksIykTek I. izksfVLVk
A. Mycoplasma I. Protista
B. iSjkfefl;e II. izksdSfj;ksV~l B. Paramoecium II. Prokaryotes
C. jkbtksil III. BSE C. Rhizopus III. BSE
D. fizvkWu IV. cgqdksf'kdh; fo"keiks"kh D. Prions IV. Multicellular
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV Heterotrophic
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
173. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
173. Select the correct match
A. ;wMksjhuk I. ;qXed vleku vkdkj
A. Eudorina I. Gametes dissimilar
esa gksrs gS in size
B. ;qyksfFkzDl II. d'kkHkh; ;qXed leku B. Ulothrix II. Flagellated gametes
vkdkj esa gksrs gS similar in size
C. Likbjksxk;jk III. vd'kkHkh; ;qXed leku C. Spirogyra III. Non flagellated
vkdkj esa gksrs gS gametes similar
D. Dyksjsyk IV. izksVhu ls izpqj in size
D. Chlorella IV. Unicellular algae rich
,ddks'kdh; 'kSoky
in proteins
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
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174. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 174. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by changes
'kjhj esa mifLFkr ijklj.k xzkfg;k¡ jDr vk;ru] 'kjhj rjy
in blood volume, Body fluid volume and ionic
vk;ru vkSj vk;uh lkUnz.k esa cnyko }kjk lfØ; gksrh gSA concentration.
dFku - II : Statement II :
'kjhj ls ew= }kjk ty dk vR;f/kd {kfr ijklj.k xzkfg;ksa An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate
dks lfØ; djrk gS ftlls gkbiksFkSysel ADH vkSj osmoreceptors which stimulates the hypothalamus to
U;wjksgkbiksQkbfll dks oSlksizsflu ds lzko gsrq vojks/k djrk suppress ADH or vasopressin from the
gSA neurohypophysis.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
175. All organisms including those in the plant and
175. ikS /ks a rFkk iz k .kh txr esa 'kkfey lHkh thoks a esa
animal kingdoms have______ as the lowest
_________lcls fupys laoxZ esa vkrh gSA
category
fn;s x;s okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjs Fill in the blank in given sentence
(1) oU'k (1) Genus
(2) tkfr (2) Species
(3) vkMZj (3) Order
(4) QSfeyh (4) Family
176. eVj ds ikS/ks esa] ihyk cht gjs ij iz Hkkoh gksrk gS A 176. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green.
vxj ,d gsVjkstkbxl ihys cht okys ikS/ksa dk ØkWl If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed
with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow
gjs cht okys ikS/ksa ls djk;k tk;s] F1 esa ihys vkSj gjs
and green seeded plants would you expect in F1
cht okys ikS/ksa dk D;k vuqikr izkIr gksxk%
generation:
(1) 50 : 50
(1) 50 : 50
(2) 9 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
177. tho ftuds thUl gLrdkS'ky }kjk ifjofrZr fd, tk 177. The organism whose genes have been altered by
pqds gS dgykrs gS : manipulation are called :
(1) dRrksZrdh (1) Explants
(2) dkf;d ladj (2) Somatic hybrids
(3) GMO (3) GMO
iw.kZ'kDrrk
(4) (4) Totipotency
178. Taq ikyhejst ds fy, xyr fodYi dk p;u djsa 178. Select the Incorrect option for Taq polymerase :
(1) ,d izdkj dk DNA ikWyhejst (1) A type of DNA polymerase
(2) PCR esa 'kkfey (2) Involved in PCR
(3) cgqdksf'kdh; tho ls foyxfr fd;k x;k gSA (3) Isolated from multicellular organism.
(4) ;g mPp rkieku }kjk izsfjr Mcy LVªUs MsM DNA ds (4) It remain active during the high temperature induced
fod`rhdj.k ds le; Hkh ;g ges'kk lfØ; cuk jgrk gS denaturation of double stranded DNA.
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179. Hind II, PvuI vkSj BamH I ds fy, xyr fodYi dk 179. Select the Incorrect option for Hind II, PvuI and
p;u djsa : BamH I :
(1) lHkh RE gSA (1) All are RE
(2) lHkh izksdSfj;ksV~l ls foyfxr fd;k x;k gS (2) All are isolated from prokaryotes
(3) lHkh ,d fof'k"V LFkku ij DNA dks dkVrs gSA (3) All are cuts DNA at specific location
(4) dqN izkds Sfj;ksV~l ls foyfxr vkSj dqN ;qdSfj;ksV~l ls (4) Some are isolated from prokaryotes and some from
foyfxr fd, x, gSA Eukaryotes.
180. es. My ds f}ladj.k ØkW l ds fy, lgh dFku dk 180. Select the correct statements for mendel dihybrid
p;u djsa cross:
a. pkj izdkj ds ;qX ed curs gS A a. Four types of gametes are formed.
b. QhuksVkbi dk vuq ikr 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 gksrk gSA
b. Phenotypic ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
c. cht dh vkd` fr vkSj cht dk jax mi;ksx fd;k
c. Seed shape and seed colour are used
x;k
d. ihyk xksy lokZf/kd la[;k esa gksrk gS d. Yellow round is maximum in number.

(1) dsoy a, b, c (1) Only a, b, c

(2) dsoy b, c, d (2) Only b, c, d
(3) lHkh (3) All
(4) dsoy a, c, d (4) Only a, c, d
181. lgh dFku dk p;u djsa: 181. Select the correct statements :
(1) P2+2pq+q2 ;g (p2+q2)2 dh f}inh vfHkO;fDr gSA (1) P2+2pq+q2 is binomial expansion of (p2+q2)2
(2) igys Lru/kkjh izk.kh eatks: FksA (2) The first mammals were like shrews
(3) gkseks bjsDVl dh dikyh; {kerk gkseks gSchyhl ls (3) The cranial capacity of Homo erectus is lesser than
de gksrh gSA Homo habilis.
(4) VkbjSukslksjl jsDl yxHkx 200 QqV Å¡pk FkkA (4) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 200 feet in height.
182. H.M.S. chxy D;k gS: 182. What is H.M.S. Beagle :
(1) oSKkfud uke (1) Scientist Name
(2) xzg dk uke (2) Planet Name
(3) fo'o&leqnzh tgkt (3) Sail ship
(4) izkxSfrgkfld ekuo (4) Prehistoric human
183. LFkk;h Ård ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa 183. Select the correct statements for permanent tissue:
(1) LFkk;h Ård ljy vkSj tfVy gks ldrs gSA (1) Permanent tissue may be simple and complex
(2) tkbye rhu vo;o ls feydj cuk gksrk gS tcfd (2) Xylem is composed of three components while
¶yks,e pkj vo;o ls feydj cuk gksrk gS phloem is composed of four components.
(3) dksysudkbek futhZo gksrk gSA (3) Collenchyma is non living
(4) lHkh (4) All
184. lao gu Ård rU= ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa : 184. Select the correct statements for vascular tissue
system :
(1) laogu rU= tfVy Ård] tkbye vkSj ¶yks,e ls
feydj cuk gksrk gSA (1) Vascular system consists of complex tissues,
xylem and the phloem
(2) f}chti=h rus esa laogu c.My [kqyk gksrk gSA
(2) In Dicot stem vascular bundle is open
(3) la;qDr laogu c.My ruk vkSj iRrh esa lkekU; :i ls
(3) Conjoint vascular bundles are commonly occur in
ik;k tkrk gSA stems and leaves.
(4) lHkh (4) All
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185. PGR ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa : 185. Select the correct statement for PGR :
(1) PGR izksRlkgd vkSj vojks/kd gks ldrk gSA (1) PGR may be promoter or inhibitor.
(2) izkd`frd vkWDlhu bUMksy O;qRiUu gksrk gSA (2) Natural auxins are indole derivative
(3) vkWDlhu tbZ ds vadqj ls foyfxr fd;k x;k FkkA (3) Auxin was isolated from oat seedlings.
(4) lHkh (4) All
Hkkx&2 ¼[k.M -B½ PART-2 (SECTION-B)
bl [k.M esa 15 iz 'u gSA ijh{kkFkhZ bu 15 iz'uksa esa ls This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
dksbZ Hkh 10 iz 'u dj ldrk gSA ;fn ijh{kkFkhZ 10 ls question. In case if candiate attempts more than
vf/kd iz'u dk mÙkj nsrk gS rks gy fd;s gq, izFke 10 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
iz 'u gh ekU; gksxsaA considered for marking.
186. xyr dFku dk p;u djsa: 186. Select the Incorrect statement :
(1) f'kjPNsnu O;kid :i ls pk; jksi.k esa fd;k tkrk gSA (1) Decapitation widely applied in tea plantations.
(2) vkWDlhu dksf'kdk foHkktu esa lgk;rk djrk gSA
(2) Auxin helps in cell division
(3) GA jU/kzks ds cUn gksus dks izksRlkfgr djrk gS rFkk ikSèkksa
dks fofHkUu izdkj ds rukoksa dks lgus gsrq {kerk iznku (3) GA stimulates the closure of stomata and increases
djrk gSA the tolerance of plants to various kind of stress
(4) GA tjkoLFkk dks Hkh jksdrs gSA (4) GA also delay senescence
187. lgh vuq :irk dk p;u djsa 187. Select the correct match :
(1) tsyh fQ'k – flysuVsªVk – dwVxqgk
(1) Jelly fish – Coelenterata – Pseudocoelom
(2) flYoj fQ'k – la;qDr mikax – izxqgk
(2) Silver fish – Jointed appandages – coelom
(3) dVy fQ'k – eksyLdk – [kqyk ifjlapj.k
(3) Cuttle fish – Mollusca – open circulatory
rU=
system
(4) dqRrk eNyh – oVhZczsVk – 2 vfyUn vkSj
(4) Dog fish – vertebrata – 2 Auricle and 1
1 fuy;
ventricle
188. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
188. Select the Incorrect match :
(1) pØh; AMP – f}rh;d lans'k okgd
(1) Cyclic AMP – Second messengers
(2) Xywdkst ls Xykbdkstu – Xykbdkstsuslhl
(2) Glucose to glycogen – Glycogenesis
(3) nh?kZ dkyhu – MkbchVht esyhVl (3) Prolonged – Diabetes mellitus
gkbijdSY'kheh;k hypercalcemia
(4) RBC dk fuekZ.k – bjhFkzksiks,lhl (4) Formation of RBC – Erythropoiesis
189. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djs: 189. Select the Incorrect match :
(1) QSyksih;u ufydk – V~;wcD s Vkseh (1) Fallopian tubes tied – Tubectomy
cka/kh vkSj dkVh gqbZ and cut
(2) Vas deferens tied – Vasectomy
(2) 'kqØokgd cka/kk vkSj – oSlsDVkseh
and cut
dVk gqvk
(3) Absence of breast – Lactational
(3) Lruiku dk vHkko – ySDVs'kuy ,esuksfj;k
Feeding Amenorrhea
(4) bu fooks fu"kspu – ;qXed dk lay;u eknk
(4) In-vivo fertilisation – Fusion of gametes
ds 'kjhj ds vUnj within the female
190. xyr vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 190. Select the Incorrect match
(1) ,ythZ – IgE (1) Allergy – IgE
(2) dksyksLVªe – IgA (2) Colostrum – IgA
(3) fgiSVkbfVl-B–Vhdk – ;hLV (3) Hepatitis-B vaccine – Yeast
(4) PMNL–U;wVªkQ s hYl – 'kkjhfjd jks/k (4) PMNL–Neutrophils – Physical barriers

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191. xyr vqu:irk dk p;u djsa: 191. Select the Incorrect match :
(1) lgfoyqIrrk – vfodYih lecU/k (1) Co-extinctions – Obligate relation
(2) fons'kh tk¡fr – vÝhdu dSV fQ'k (2) Alien species – African cat fish
vkØe.k invasions
(3) Ård lao/kZu – LoLFkkus laj{k.k (3) Tissue culture – In-situ conservation
(4) jktLFkku dh vjkoyh – LoLFkkus laj{k.k (4) Aravalli hills of – In-situ conservation
igkM+h rajasthan
192. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gSa % 192. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
fL=;ksa }kjk izkstsLVkstsu vdsys ;k fQj ,LVªkstu ds lkFk Progestogens alone or in combinations with
bldk la;kstu Hkh Vhds ;k Ropk ds uhps vUrjksZi ds :i estrogen can also be used by females as injections
or implants under the skin.
esa fd;k tk ldrk gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II :
Saheli is a 'once a week' pill with high side effects
lgsyh ^g¶rs esa ,d ckj yh tkus okyh xksyh* gS blds and low contraceptive value.
nq"izHkko cgqr T;knk rFkk ;g de fujks/kd {kerk okyh gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
193. iwokZoLFkk I esa dkSu lh ?kVuk ?kfVr ugha gksrh gSA 193. In prophase I which event is not takes place :
(1) fofue; (1) Crossing over
(2) dk,TesVk dk fuekZ.k (2) Formation of chaismata
(3) letkr xq.klw= dk vyx gksuk (3) Separation of homologous chromosome
(4) flusIVksuhey lfEeJ dk fuekZ.k (4) Formation of synaptonemal complex

194. vi?kVu esa dkSu 'kkfey gS: 194. Which is involved in decomposition :

(1) vFkZoeZ (1) Earthworm

(2) Bacteria
(2) thok.kq
(3) Fungi
(3) dod
(4) All
(4) lHkh
195. Which is not a type of animal :
195. dkSu ,d izdkj dk tUrq ugha gS :
(1) ekalkgkjh (1) Carnivores

(2) 'kkdkgkjh (2) Herbivores

(3) mRiknd (3) Producers
(4) mPp ekalkgkjh (4) Top carnivores
196. mijks D r mi;ks x ks ds lkFk&lkFk GM dk mi;ks x 196. In addition to these uses, GM has been used to
__________ds fuekZ.k esa lgk;d gS] ftuls oS dfYid create _______to supply alternative resources to
lalk/kuksa ds :i esa mi;ksxksa esa olk] bZ/ku o Hks"kth; industries in the form of starches, fuels and
inkFkksZ dh vkiwfrZ dh tkrh gS pharmaceuticals.
fn, x, okD; esa fjDr LFkku dks Hkjsa: Fill in the blank in given sentence :
(1) rn~uqdqy ikS/kksa (1) Talior-made plants
(2) dRrksZrdh (2) Explants
(3) lksekDyksUl (3) Somaclones
(4) cSlhyl Fkqjhuft,fUll (4) Bacillus thuringiensis
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197. dkSu ,d iz dkj dk ikjthoh tUrq gS: 197. Which is a type of transgenic animals :
(1) [kjxks'k (1) Rabbits
(2) lwvj (2) Pigs
(3) pwgk (3) Mice
(4) lHkh (4) All
198. ijkx.k ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa: 198. Select the correct statements for pollination :
a. ijkx.k dkjd ok;q ] ty vkSj tUrq gksrs gS a. Pollinating agents are air, water and animals.
b. vthoh; ijkx.k esa ty }kjk ijkx.k lokZfèkd b. Pollination by water is more common amongst
lkekU; ijkx.k gSA abiotic pollination.
c. lHkh tyh; ikni ijkx.k ds fy, ty dk mi;ksx c. All aquatic plants use water for pollination.
djrs gS
d. Among animals only insects are pollinating
d. tUrqvksa ds chp esa dsoy dhV ijkx.k dkjd gksrs
agent
gS A
(1) Only a, d
(1) dsoy a, d
(2) a, b, c (2) a, b, c

(3) dsoy a (3) Only a

(4) a,b,d (4) a,b,d
199. vkrZ o pØ ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa 199. Select the correct statements for menstrual cycle.
a. ;g cUnj vkSj dfi esa ik;k tkrk gS a. It occurs in monkey, and apes.
b. iz Fke jtks/keZ dh 'kq:vkr ;kSoukjEHk ij 'kq: b. the first menstruation begins at puberty and is
gksrh gS ftls jtksfuo`fRr dgk tkrk gS called menopause
c. LH v.MksRlxZ ds fy, vko';d gS A c. LH are required for ovulation.
d. lcls cM+h izkoLFkk esUlVqªvy izkoLFkk gksrh gS d. Longest phase in menstrual phase
(1) a, c, d (1) a, c, d
(2) dsoy a (2) Only a
(3) a, c (3) a, c
(4) a, b, c (4) a, b, c
200. vkuq oaf'kd fodkj ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djs 200. Select the correct statements for genetic disorder:
a. vkuq oaf'kd fodkj dks nks Jsf.k;ksa esa j[kk tk a. Genetic disorders may be grouped into two
ldrk gS & es.Msyh;u fodkj vkSj xq.klw= h; categories – mendelian disorder and
fodkj chromosomal disorder.

b. es.Msyh;u fodkj lnS o fyax yXu gksrk gS A b. Mendelian disorder always sex-linked.

c. ,U;q IykW,Mh esa xq.klw= dk iqjk leqPp; vf/kd c. In aneuploidy whole set of chromosome
increased
gks tkrk gSA
d. Trisomy and monosomy are example of
d. VWªkblkseh vkSj eksukslkseh ,U;q IykW,Mh ds mnkgj.k
Aneuploidy.
gS A
(1) a, d
(1) a, d
(2) Only a, b, d
(2) dsoy a, b, d
(3) a, c, d (3) a, c, d
(4) a, c (4) a, c

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