SNS COLLEGE OF TECHNOLOGY

(An Autonomous Institution)

DEPARTMENT OF AEROSPACE
ENGINEERING

GATE QUESTION & ANSWER KEY

AE: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

(2007 to 2024)

NEHRU K, M. Tech., (Ph.D).

Assistant Professor
GATE: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING QUESTION BANK Aerospace Engineering
 AE Aerospace Engineering

Important Note for Candidates: In each of the following subjects, the topics have been divided into
two categories – Core Topics and Special Topics. The corresponding sections of the question paper
will contain 90% of the questions on Core Topics and the remaining 10% on Special Topics.

Section 1: Engineering Mathematics

Core Topics:

Linear Algebra: Vector algebra, Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, rank of a matrix,
eigen values and eigen vectors.

Calculus: Functions of single variable, limits, continuity and differentiability, mean value theorem,
chain rule, partial derivatives, maxima and minima, gradient, divergence and curl, directional
derivatives. Integration, Line, surface and volume integrals. Theorems of Stokes, Gauss and Green.

Differential Equations: First order linear and nonlinear differential equations, higher order linear
ODEs with constant coefficients. Partial differential equations and separation of variables
methods.

Special Topics: Fourier Series, Laplace Transforms, Numerical methods for linear and nonlinear
algebraic equations, Numerical integration and differentiation. Complex analysis. Probability and
statistics.

Section 2: Flight Mechanics

Core Topics:

Basics

Atmosphere: Properties, standard atmosphere. Classification of aircraft. Airplane (fixed wing

aircraft) configuration and various parts. Pressure altitude; equivalent, calibrated, indicated air
speeds; Primary flight instruments: Altimeter, ASI, VSI, Turn-bank indicator. Angle of attack,
sideslip; Roll, pitch & yaw controls. Aerodynamic forces and moments.

Airplane performance: Drag polar; take-off and landing; steady climb and descent; absolute and
service ceiling; range and endurance, load factor, turning flight, V-n diagram. Winds: head, tail
and cross winds.

Static stability: Stability and control derivatives; longitudinal stick fixed and free stability;
horizontal tail position and size; directional stability, vertical tail position and size; lateral stability.
Wing dihedral, sweep & position; hinge moments, stick forces.
Special Topics: Dynamic stability: Euler angles; Equations of motion; Decoupling of longitudinal
and lateral-directional dynamics; longitudinal modes; lateral-directional modes.

Section 3: Space Dynamics

Core Topics:

Central force motion, determination of trajectory and orbital period in simple cases. Kepler’s laws;
escape velocity.

Special Topics: None

Section 4: Aerodynamics

Core Topics:

Basic Fluid Mechanics: Conservation laws: Mass, momentum and energy (Integral and differential
form); Dimensional analysis and dynamic similarity;

Potential flow theory: sources, sinks, doublets, line vortex and their superposition. Elementary
ideas of viscous flows including boundary layers.

Airfoils and wings: Airfoil nomenclature; Aerodynamic coefficients: lift, drag and moment; Kutta-
Joukoswki theorem; Thin airfoil theory, Kutta condition, starting vortex; Finite wing theory:
Induced drag, Prandtl lifting line theory; Critical and drag divergence Mach number.

Compressible Flows: Basic concepts of compressibility, One-dimensional compressible flows,

Isentropic flows, Fanno flow, Rayleigh flow; Normal and oblique shocks, Prandtl-Meyer flow;
Flow through nozzles and diffusers.

Special Topics: Wind Tunnel Testing: Measurement and visualization techniques. Shock -
boundary layer interaction.

Section 5: Structures

Core Topics:

Strength of Materials: Stress and strain: Three-dimensional transformations, Mohr’s circle,

principal stresses, Three-dimensional Hooke's law, Plane stress and strain. Failure theories:
Maximum stress, Tresca von Mises. Strain energy. Castigliano’s principles. Statically determinate
and indeterminate trusses and beams. Elastic flexural buckling of columns.

Flight vehicle structures: Characteristics of aircraft structures and materials. Torsion, bending and
shear of thin-walled sections. Loads on aircraft.
Structural Dynamics: Free and forced vibrations of undamped and damped SDOF systems. Free
vibrations of undamped 2-DOF systems.

Special Topics: Vibration of beams. Theory of elasticity: Equilibrium and compatibility

equations, Airy’s stress function.

Section 6: Propulsion

Core Topics:

Basics: Thermodynamics, boundary layers, heat transfer, combustion and thermo chemistry.

Aerothermodynamics of aircraft engines: Thrust, efficiency, range. Brayton cycle.

Engine performance: Ramjet, turbojet, turbofan, turboprop and turboshaft engines. After burners.

Turbomachinery: Axial compressors: Angular momentum, work and compression, characteristic

performance of a single axial compressor stage, efficiency of the compressor and degree of
reaction, multi-staging.

Centrifugal compressor: Stage dynamics, inducer, impeller and diffuser.

Axial turbines: Stage performance.

Rockets: Thrust equation and specific impulse, rocket performance. Multi-staging. Chemical
rockets. Performance of solid and liquid propellant rockets.

Special Topics: Aerothermodynamics of non-rotating propulsion components such as intakes,

combustor and nozzle. Turbine blade cooling. Compressor-turbine matching, Surge and stall.
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words

[dry → arid → parched] is analogous to [diet → fast → ________ ].

Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

(A) starve

(B) reject

(C) feast

(D) deny

Q.2 If two distinct non-zero real variables 𝑥 and 𝑦 are such that (𝑥 + 𝑦) is proportional
𝑥
to (𝑥 − 𝑦) then the value of
𝑦

(A) depends on 𝑥𝑦

(B) depends only on 𝑥 and not on 𝑦

(C) depends only on 𝑦 and not on 𝑥

(D) is a constant

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Q.3 Consider the following sample of numbers:

9, 18, 11, 14, 15, 17, 10, 69, 11, 13

The median of the sample is

(A) 13.5

(B) 14

(C) 11

(D) 18.7

Q.4 The number of coins of ₹1, ₹5, and ₹10 denominations that a person has are in the
ratio 5:3:13. Of the total amount, the percentage of money in ₹5 coins is

(A) 21%

(B) 2
14 7%

(C) 10%

(D) 30%

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Q.5 For positive non-zero real variables 𝑝 and 𝑞, if

log (𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 ) = log 𝑝 + log 𝑞 + 2 log 3 ,

𝑝4 +𝑞4
then, the value of is
𝑝2 𝑞 2

(A) 79

(B) 81

(C) 9

(D) 83

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Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the
blanks.

(i) (ii)
Steve was advised to keep his head before heading to bat;
(iii)
for, while he had a head batting, he could only do so with a cool head
(iv)
s his shoulders.

(A) (i) down (ii) down (iii) on (iv) for

(B) (i) on (ii) down (iii) for (iv) on

(C) (i) down (ii) out (iii) for (iv) on

(D) (i) on (ii) out (iii) on (iv) for

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Q.7 A rectangular paper sheet of dimensions 54 cm × 4 cm is taken. The two longer

edges of the sheet are joined together to create a cylindrical tube. A cube whose
surface area is equal to the area of the sheet is also taken.

Then, the ratio of the volume of the cylindrical tube to the volume of the cube is

(A) 1/π

(B) 2/π

(C) 3/π

(D) 4/π

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Q.8 The pie chart presents the percentage contribution of different macronutrients to a
typical 2,000 kcal diet of a person.

Macronutrient energy contribution

Trans
fat
5%
Saturated fat
20% Carbohydrates
35%

Unsaturated fat
20%
Proteins
20%

The typical energy density (kcal/g) of these macronutrients is given in the table.

Macronutrient Energy density (kcal/g)

Carbohydrates 4
Proteins 4
Unsaturated fat 9
Saturated fat 9
Trans fat 9

The total fat (all three types), in grams, this person consumes is

(A) 44.4

(B) 77.8

(C) 100

(D) 3,600

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Q.9 A rectangular paper of 20 cm × 8 cm is folded 3 times. Each fold is made along the
line of symmetry, which is perpendicular to its long edge. The perimeter of the final
folded sheet (in cm) is

(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 20

(D) 21

Q.10 The least number of squares to be added in the figure to make AB a line of
symmetry is

(A) 6

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 7

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Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The following system of linear equations

7𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 𝑧 = 0
3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 0
𝑥−𝑦−𝑧 =0

has:

(A) infinitely many solutions

(B) a unique solution

(C) no solution

(D) three solutions

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Q.12 The acceleration of a body travelling in a straight line is given by 𝑎 = −𝐶1 − 𝐶2 𝑣 2

where 𝑣 is the velocity, and 𝐶1 , 𝐶2 are positive constants. Starting with an initial
positive velocity 𝑣𝑜 , the distance travelled by the body before coming to rest for the
first time is:

(A) 1 𝐶2
ln (1 + 𝑣𝑜2 )
2𝐶2 𝐶1

(B) 1 𝐶2
ln (1 − 𝑣𝑜2 )
2𝐶2 𝐶1

(C) 1
ln(𝐶1 + 𝐶2 𝑣𝑜2 )
2𝐶2

(D) 1
ln(1 + 𝐶2 𝑣𝑜2 )
2𝐶2

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Q.13 The three-dimensional stress-strain relationship for an isotropic material is given as

𝜎𝑥𝑥 𝑃 𝑄 𝑄 0 0 0 𝜀𝑥𝑥
𝜎𝑦𝑦 𝑄 𝑃 𝑄 0 0 0 𝜀𝑦𝑦
𝜎𝑧𝑧 𝑄 𝑄 𝑃 0 0 0 𝜀𝑧𝑧
𝜏𝑦𝑧 = 0 0 0 𝑅 0 0 𝛾𝑦𝑧
𝜏𝑥𝑧 0 0 0 0 𝑅 0 𝛾𝑥𝑧
𝜏
{ 𝑥𝑦 } [ 0 0 0 0 0 𝑅 ] {𝛾𝑥𝑦 }
where, P, Q and R are the three elastic constants, 𝜎 and 𝜏 represent normal and shear
stresses and 𝜀 and 𝛾 represent normal and engineering shear strains. Which one of
the following options is correct?

(A) 𝑃−𝑄
𝑅=
2

(B) 𝑄−𝑃
𝑅=
2

(C) 𝑃−𝑅
𝑄=
2

(D) 𝑅−𝑃
𝑄=
2

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Q.14 Consider the free vibration responses P, Q, R and S (shown in the figure) of a single
degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system with the same initial conditions. For
the different damping cases listed below, which one of the following options is
correct?

1. Overdamped
2. Underdamped
3. Critically damped
4. Undamped

(A) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 3

(B) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3

(C) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1

(D) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1

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Q.15 For a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system subjected to harmonic

forcing, the part of the motion (response) that decays due to damping is known as:

(A) transient response

(B) steady-state response

(C) harmonic response

(D) non-transient response

Q.16 For an ideal gas, the specific heat at constant pressure is 1147 J/kg K and the ratio
of specific heats is equal to 1.33. What is the value of the gas constant for this gas
in J/kg K?

(A) 284.6

(B) 1005

(C) 862.4

(D) 8314

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Q.17 A surrogate liquid hydrocarbon fuel, approximated as C10H12, is being burned in a

land-based gas turbine combustor with dry air (79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume).
How many moles of dry air are required for the stoichiometric combustion of the
surrogate fuel with dry air at atmospheric temperature and pressure?

(A) 61.9

(B) 30.95

(C) 13

(D) 10

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Q.18 In the figure shown below, various thermodynamics processes for an ideal gas are
represented. Match each curve with the process that it best represents.

(A) aa’ – Isentropic; bb’ – Isothermal; cc’ – Isobaric; dd’ – Isochoric

(B) aa’ – Isothermal; bb’ – Isentropic; cc’ – Isochoric; dd’ – Isobaric

(C) aa’ – Isothermal; bb’ – Isentropic; cc’ – Isobaric; dd’ – Isochoric

(D) aa’ – Isothermal; bb’ – Isobaric; cc’ – Isentropic; dd’ – Isochoric

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Q.19 In an airbreathing gas turbine engine, the combustor inlet temperature is 600 K. The
heating value of the fuel is 43.4 × 106 J/kg. Assume Cp to be 1100 J/kg K for air and
burned gases, and fuel-air ratio f << 1.0. Neglect kinetic energy at the inlet and exit
of the combustor and assume 100% burner efficiency. What is the fuel-air ratio
required to achieve 1300 K temperature at the combustor exit?

(A) 0.0177

(B) 0.0215

(C) 0.0127

(D) 0.0277

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Q.20 Which one of the following figures represents the drag polar of a general aviation
aircraft?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.21 In the context of steady, inviscid, incompressible flows, consider the superposition
of a uniform flow with speed U along the positive x-axis (from left to right), and a
source of strength Λ located at the origin. Which one of the following statements is
NOT true regarding the location of the stagnation point of the resulting flow?

(A) It is located to the left of the origin

(B) It moves closer to the origin for increasing Λ, while U is held constant

(C) It moves closer to the origin for increasing U, while Λ is held constant

(D) It is located along the x-axis

Q.22 On Day 1, an aircraft flies with a speed of 𝑉1 m/s at an altitude where the
temperature is T1 K. On Day 2, the same aircraft flies with a speed of √1.2 𝑉1 m/s
at an altitude where the temperature is 1.2 T1 K. How does the Mach number M2 on
Day 2 compare with the Mach number M1 on Day 1?

Assume ideal gas behavior for air. Also assume the ratio of specific heats and
molecular weight of air to be the same on both the days.

(A) M2 = 0.6 M1

(B) M2 = M1

(C) 1
M2 = M1
√1.2

(D) M2 = √1.2 M1

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Q.23 Consider a steady, isentropic, supersonic flow (Mach number M > 1) entering a
Convergent-Divergent (CD) duct as shown in the figure. Which one of the
following options correctly describes the flow at the throat?

(A) Can only be supersonic

(B) Can only be sonic

(C) Can either be sonic or supersonic

(D) Can only be subsonic

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Q.24 Consider steady, incompressible, inviscid flow past two airfoils shown in the figure.
The coefficient of pressure at the trailing edge of the airfoil with finite angle, shown
in figure (I), is 𝐶𝑃𝐼 while that at the trailing edge of the airfoil with cusp, shown in
figure (II), is 𝐶𝑃𝐼𝐼 . Which one of the following options is TRUE?

(A) 𝐶𝑃𝐼 < 1, 𝐶𝑃𝐼𝐼 < 1

(B) 𝐶𝑃𝐼 = 1, 𝐶𝑃𝐼𝐼 = 1

(C) 𝐶𝑃𝐼 = 1, 𝐶𝑃𝐼𝐼 < 1

(D) 𝐶𝑃𝐼 < 1, 𝐶𝑃𝐼𝐼 = 1

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Q.25 Which of the following options is/are correct?

(A)

The stress-strain graph for a nonlinear elastic material is

as shown in the figure

(B) Material properties are independent of position in a homogeneous material

(C) An isotropic material has infinitely many planes of material symmetry

(D)

The stress-strain graph for a linear elastic material is

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Q.26 Which of the following statements is/are correct about a satellite moving in a
geostationary orbit?

(A) The orbit lies in the equatorial plane

(B) The orbit is circular about the center of the Earth

(C) The time period of motion is 90 minutes

(D) The satellite is visible from all parts of the Earth

Q.27 In a conventional configuration airplane, the rudder can be used:

(A) to overcome adverse yaw during a turning maneuver

(B) to overcome yawing moment due to failure of one engine in a multi engine airplane

(C) for landing the airplane in crosswind conditions

(D) for enhancing longitudinal stability

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Q.28 Which of the following statements about a general aviation aircraft, while operating
at point Q in the V-n diagram, is/are true?

(A) The aircraft has the highest turn rate

(B) The aircraft has the smallest turn radius

(C) The aircraft is flying with minimum drag

(D) The aircraft is operating at 𝐶𝐿,𝑚𝑎𝑥

Q.29 Two fair dice with numbered faces are rolled together. The faces are numbered from
1 to 6. The probability of getting odd numbers on both the dice is
________________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Q.30 A particle acted upon by a constant force 4𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ − 3𝑘̂ N is displaced from point A
with position vector 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ m to point B with position vector 5𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ m.
The work done by this force is _______ J (answer in integer).

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Q.31 Using Trapezoidal rule with one interval, the approximate value of the definite
integral:
2
𝑑𝑥
∫ = ______
1 1 + 𝑥2
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Q.32 A material has Poisson’s ratio 𝜈 = 0.5 and Young’s modulus E=2500 MPa. The
percentage change in its volume when subjected to a hydrostatic stress of magnitude
10 MPa is ______ (answer in integer).

Q.33 An airplane experiences a net vertical ground reaction of 15000 N during landing.
The weight of the airplane is 10000 N. The landing vertical load factor, defined as
the ratio of inertial load to the weight of the aircraft, is __________ (rounded off to
1 decimal place).

Q.34 An aircraft with a turbojet engine is flying with 250 m/s speed at an altitude,
where the density of air is 1 kg/m3. The inlet area of the engine is 1 m2. The
average velocity of the exhaust gases at the exit of the nozzle, with respect to
aircraft, is 550 m/s. Assume the engine exit pressure is equal to the ambient
pressure and the fuel-air ratio is negligible. The uninstalled thrust produced
by the engine at these conditions is _________ N
(rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.35 Using thin airfoil theory, the lift coefficient of a NACA 0012 airfoil placed at 5o
angle of attack in a uniform flow is _____________ (rounded off to 2 decimal
places).

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Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 Given 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑝𝑥 sin 𝑞𝑥 , where 𝑝 and 𝑞 are non-zero real numbers, the value of
the differential expression

𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦
2
− 2𝑝 + (𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 )𝑦
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 𝑝2 + 𝑞 2

(D) 𝑝𝑞

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Q.37 The volume of the solid formed by a complete rotation of the shaded portion of the
circle of radius R about the y-axis is 𝑘𝜋R3 . The value of 𝑘 is:

(A) 5
12

(B) 5
24

(C) 7
12

(D) 7
24

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Q.38 As per the International Standard Atmosphere model, which one of the following
options about density variation with increase in altitude in the isothermal layer is
correct?

(A) remains constant

(B) increases linearly

(C) decreases linearly

(D) decreases exponentially

Q.39 At a point in the trajectory of an unpowered space vehicle moving about the Earth,
the altitude above the mean sea level is 600 km, and the speed with reference to a
coordinate system fixed to the center of mass of the Earth is 9 km/s. Assume that
the Earth is a sphere with a radius 6400 km and 𝐺𝑀𝐸𝑎𝑟𝑡ℎ = 3.98 × 1014 m3/s2,
where, G is the universal gravitational constant and 𝑀𝐸𝑎𝑟𝑡ℎ is mass of the Earth.
The trajectory is:

(A) Circular

(B) Elliptic

(C) Parabolic

(D) Hyperbolic

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Q.40 A multistage axial compressor, with overall isentropic efficiency of 0.83, is used to
compress air at a stagnation temperature of 300 K through a pressure ratio of 10:1.
Each stage of the compressor is similar, and the stagnation temperature rise across
each compressor stage is 20 K. Assume Cp = 1005 J/kg K and  = 1.4 for air. How
many stages are there in the compressor?

(A) 17

(B) 13

(C) 19

(D) 11

Q.41 An aircraft with a turbojet engine is flying at 250 m/s. The uninstalled thrust
produced by the engine is 60000 N. The heating value of the fuel is 44 × 106 J/kg.
The engine has a thermal efficiency of 35% while burning the fuel at a rate of
3 kg/s. Assume the engine exit pressure to be equal to the ambient pressure. What
is the propulsion efficiency of the engine under these conditions (in percentage)?

(A) 32.5

(B) 35.0

(C) 11.4

(D) 92.4

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Q.42 Consider a flat plate, with a sharp leading edge, placed in a uniform flow of speed
U. The direction of the free-stream flow is aligned with the plate. Assume that the
flow is steady, incompressible and laminar. The thickness of the boundary layer at
a fixed stream-wise location L from the leading edge of the plate is δ. Which one of
the following correctly describes the variation of δ with U?

(A) δ∝U

(B) δ ∝ U 3/2

(C) δ ∝ U 1/2

(D) δ ∝ U −1/2

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Q.43 Shock structures for flow at three different Mach numbers over a given wedge are
shown in the figure below. Assuming that only the weak shock solutions are
possible for the attached oblique shocks, which one of the following options is
TRUE?

(A) M1 < M2 < M3

(B) M1 > M2 > M3

(C) M1 < M3< M2

(D) M3 < M1 < M2

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Q.44 Air flowing at Mach number M = 2 from left to right accelerates to M = 3 across an
expansion corner as shown in the figure. What is the value of 𝛿 (the angle between
the Forward and Rearward Mach lines) in degrees?

The values of the Prandtl-Meyer functions are 𝜈(3) = 49.76o and 𝜈(2) = 26.38o .

(A) 23.38

(B) 19.47

(C) 53.38

(D) 33.91

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Q.45 Consider the function

2
𝑓(𝑥) = {𝑥 for 𝑥<0
𝑥 for 𝑥≥0
where x is real. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) The function is continuous for all x

(B) The derivative of the function is discontinuous at x = 0

(C) The derivative of the function is continuous at x = 1

(D) The function is discontinuous at x = 0

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Q.46 The figure shows plots of two yield loci for an isotropic material, where 𝜎𝐼 and 𝜎𝐼𝐼
are the principal stresses, and 𝜎𝑌 is the yield stress in uniaxial tension. Which of the
following statements is/are correct?

(A) Criterion P represents the von Mises criterion

(B) Criterion Q represents the Tresca criterion

(C) Criterion P represents the Tresca criterion

(D) Criterion Q represents the von Mises criterion

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Q.47 Which of the following statements about absolute ceiling and service ceiling for a
piston-propeller aircraft is/are correct?

(A) The altitude corresponding to absolute ceiling is higher than that for service ceiling

(B) At the absolute ceiling, the power required for cruise equals the maximum power
available

(C) The altitude corresponding to absolute ceiling is lower than that for service ceiling

(D) At the service ceiling, the maximum rate of climb is 50 ft/min

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Q.48 For an airplane having directional / weathercock static stability, which of the
following options is/are correct?

(A) The airplane when disturbed in yaw, from an equilibrium state, will experience a
restoring moment

(B) The variation of yawing moment coefficient (𝐶𝑛 ) with

sideslip angle (β) for the airplane will look like

(C) The airplane will always tend to point into the relative wind

(D) The airplane when disturbed in yaw will return to equilibrium state in a finite
amount of time after removing the disturbance

Q.49 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for an axial turbine?

(A) For a fixed rotational speed, the mass flow rate increases with increase in the flow
coefficient

(B) The absolute stagnation enthalpy of the flow decreases across the nozzle row

(C) The relative stagnation enthalpy remains unchanged through the rotor

(D) For a fixed rotational speed, the mass flow rate remains unchanged with a change
in the flow coefficient

Page 34 of 40
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.50 Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for a single stage axial compressor?

(A) Starting from design condition and keeping the mass flow rate constant, if the blade
RPM is increased, the compressor rotor may experience positive incidence flow
separation (actual relative flow angle greater than the design blade angle)

(B) Starting from design condition at the same blade RPM, if the mass flow rate is
increased, the compressor rotor may experience positive incidence flow separation
(actual relative flow angle greater than the design blade angle)

(C) Keeping the mass flow rate constant, if the blade RPM is increased, the compressor
may experience surge

(D) At the same blade RPM, if the mass flow rate is increased, the compressor may
experience surge

Q.51 5 −4
Consider the matrix 𝐴 = [ ], where k is a constant. If the determinant of A is
𝑘 −1
3, then the ratio of the largest eigenvalue of A to the constant k is ___________
(rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Page 35 of 40
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.52 The state of stress at a point is caused by two separate loading cases. One of them
produces a pure uniaxial tension along the 𝑥 ′ direction, and other one produces a
pure uniaxial compression along the 𝑦 ′ direction, as shown in the figure. The sum
of maximum and minimum principal stresses for the resultant state of stress caused
by both loads acting simultaneously is ___________ N/mm2 (rounded off to 1
decimal place).

Q.53 In the figure shown below, the magnitude of internal force in member BC
is ___________ N (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Page 36 of 40
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.54 The cross section of a thin-walled beam with uniform wall thickness t, shown in the
figure, is subjected to a bending moment Mx = 10 Nm. If h = 1 m and
t = 0.001 m, the magnitude of maximum normal stress in the cross section
is _________N/m2 (answer in integer).

Q.55 The equations of motion for a two degrees of freedom undamped spring-mass
system are:

𝑚𝑥̈ 1 + 2𝑘𝑥1 − 𝑘𝑥2 = 0

𝑚𝑥̈ 2 − 𝑘𝑥1 + 2𝑘𝑥2 = 0

where m and k represent mass and stiffness respectively, in corresponding SI units,

and 𝑥1 and 𝑥2 are the degrees of freedom. The larger of the two natural frequencies
𝑘
is given by: 𝜔 = 𝛼√𝑚 rad/s. The value of 𝛼 is ________ (rounded off to 2 decimal
places).

Q.56 Consider the plane strain field given by

𝜀𝑥𝑥 = 10 𝑥𝑦 2 , 𝜀𝑦𝑦 = −5 𝑥 2 𝑦 and 𝛾𝑥𝑦 = 𝐴 𝑥𝑦 (2𝑥 − 𝑦)

where, A is a constant and 𝛾𝑥𝑦 is the engineering shear strain. The value of the
constant A for the strain field to be compatible is _____________ (rounded off to 1
decimal place).

Page 37 of 40
Organizing Institute: IISc Bengaluru
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.57 A chemical rocket with an ideally expanded flow through the nozzle produces
5 × 106 N thrust at sea level. The specific impulse of the rocket is 200 s and
acceleration due to gravity at the sea level is 9.8 m/s2. The propellent mass flow
rate out of the rocket nozzle is _________ kg/s (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.58 A centrifugal compressor is designed to operate with air. At the leading edge of the
tip of the inducer (eye of the impeller), the blade angle is 45o, and the relative Mach
number is 1.0. The stagnation temperature of the incoming air is 300 K. Consider
 = 1.4. Neglect pre-whirl and slip. The inducer tip speed is ________ m/s (rounded
off to the nearest integer).

Q.59 Consider the following Fanno flow problem: Flow enters a constant area duct at a
temperature of 273 K and a Mach number 0.2 and eventually reaches sonic
condition (Mach number =1) due to friction. Assume 𝛾 = 1.4. The static
temperature at the location where sonic condition is reached is_____________ K
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Q.60 Consider an artificial satellite moving around the Moon in an elliptic orbit. The
altitude of the satellite from the Moon’s surface at the perigee is 25 km and that at
the apogee is 134 km. Assume the Moon to be spherical with a radius of 1737 km.
The trajectory is considered with reference to a coordinate system fixed to the center
of mass of the Moon. The ratio of the speed of the satellite at the perigee to that at
the apogee is ___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Q.61 For an aircraft moving at 4 km altitude above mean sea level at a Mach number of
0.2, the ratio of equivalent air speed to true air speed is _______ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).

The density of air at mean sea level is 1.225 kg/m3 and at 4 km altitude is
0.819 kg/m3 .

Page 38 of 40
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.62 For a general aviation airplane, one of the complex conjugate pair of eigenvalues
for longitudinal dynamics is given by −0.039 ± 0.0567 𝑖 (in SI units). If the
system is disturbed to excite only this mode, the time taken for the amplitude of
response to become half in magnitude is _______ s (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Q.63 The figure (not to scale) shows a control volume to estimate the forces on the airfoil
with elliptic cross-section. Surfaces 2 and 3 are streamlines. Velocity profiles are
measured at the upstream end (surface 1) and at the downstream end (surface 4) of
𝐷
the control volume. The drag coefficient for the airfoil is defined as Cd = 1 2 ,
𝜌 𝑈∞ 𝑐
2
where D is the drag force on the airfoil per unit span and  is the density of the air.
The static pressure, p , is constant over the entire surface of the control volume.
Assuming the flow to be incompressible, two-dimensional and steady, the Cd for
the airfoil is _________ (rounded off to 3 decimal places).

Q.64 An airplane of mass 1000 kg is in a steady level flight with a speed of 50 m/s. The
wing has an elliptic planform with a span of 20 m and planform area 31.4 m2.
Assuming the density of air at that altitude to be 1 kg/m3 and acceleration due to
gravity to be 10 m/s2, the induced drag on the wing is _________ N (rounded off to
1 decimal place).

Page 39 of 40
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.65 It is desired to estimate the aerodynamic drag, D, on a car traveling at a speed of

30 m/s. A one-third scale model of the car is tested in a wind-tunnel following the
principles of dynamic similarity. The drag on the scaled model is measured to be
Dm. The ratio D/Dm is _________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Page 40 of 40
Organizing Institute: IISc Bengaluru
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Final Answer Key
Question
Q. No. Session Section Key/Range Mark
Type
1 5 MCQ GA A 1
2 5 MCQ GA D 1
3 5 MCQ GA A 1
4 5 MCQ GA C 1
5 5 MCQ GA A 1
6 5 MCQ GA C 2
7 5 MCQ GA A 2
8 5 MCQ GA C 2
9 5 MCQ GA A 2
10 5 MCQ GA A 2
11 5 MCQ AE A 1
12 5 MCQ AE A 1
13 5 MCQ AE A 1
14 5 MCQ AE C 1
15 5 MCQ AE A 1
16 5 MCQ AE A 1
17 5 MCQ AE A 1
18 5 MCQ AE C 1
19 5 MCQ AE A 1
20 5 MCQ AE D 1
21 5 MCQ AE B 1
22 5 MCQ AE B 1
23 5 MCQ AE C 1
24 5 MCQ AE C 1
25 5 MSQ AE B;C;D 1
26 5 MSQ AE A;B 1
27 5 MSQ AE A;B;C 1
28 5 MSQ AE A;B;D 1

Page 1 of 2
29 5 NAT AE 0.24 to 0.26 1
30 5 NAT AE 24 to 24 1
31 5 NAT AE 0.35 to 0.35 1
32 5 NAT AE 0 to 0 1
33 5 NAT AE 1.5 to 1.5 1
34 5 NAT AE 75000 to 75000 1
35 5 NAT AE 0.54 to 0.56 1
36 5 MCQ AE A 2
37 5 MCQ AE B 2
38 5 MCQ AE D 2
39 5 MCQ AE B 2
40 5 MCQ AE A 2
41 5 MCQ AE A 2
42 5 MCQ AE D 2
43 5 MCQ AE D 2
44 5 MCQ AE D 2
45 5 MSQ AE A;B;C 2
46 5 MSQ AE A;B 2
47 5 MSQ AE A;B 2
48 5 MSQ AE A;B;C 2
49 5 MSQ AE A;C 2
50 5 MSQ AE A;C 2
51 5 NAT AE 1.4 to 1.6 2
52 5 NAT AE 0 to 0 2
53 5 NAT AE 141.0 to 141.5 2
54 5 NAT AE 14900 to 15100 2
55 5 NAT AE 1.72 to 1.74 2
56 5 NAT AE 4.9 to 5.1 2
57 5 NAT AE 2500 to 2600 2
58 5 NAT AE 230 to 240 2
59 5 NAT AE 227.0 to 231.0 2
60 5 NAT AE 1.05 to 1.07 2
61 5 NAT AE 0.80 to 0.84 2
62 5 NAT AE 17.7 to 17.9 2
63 5 NAT AE 0.018 to 0.022 2
64 5 NAT AE 62.0 to 66.0 2
65 5 NAT AE 1.0 to 1.0 2

Page 2 of 2
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.1 “You are delaying the completion of the task. Send _______ contributions at the
earliest.”

(A) you are

(B) your

(C) you’re

(D) yore

Q.2 References : ______ : : Guidelines : Implement

(By word meaning)

(A) Sight

(B) Site

(C) Cite

(D) Plagiarise

Page 1 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.3 In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram with PS = 7 cm, PT = 4 cm and

PV = 5 cm. What is the length of RS in cm? (The diagram is representative.)

7
P S

5 90°
4
90° V
Q T R

(A) 20
7

(B) 28
5

(C) 9
2

(D) 35
4

Page 2 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.4 In 2022, June Huh was awarded the Fields medal, which is the highest prize in
Mathematics.

When he was younger, he was also a poet. He did not win any medals in the
International Mathematics Olympiads. He dropped out of college.

Based only on the above information, which one of the following statements can be
logically inferred with certainty?

(A) Every Fields medalist has won a medal in an International Mathematics Olympiad.

(B) Everyone who has dropped out of college has won the Fields medal.

(C) All Fields medalists are part-time poets.

(D) Some Fields medalists have dropped out of college.

Page 3 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.5 A line of symmetry is defined as a line that divides a figure into two parts in a way
such that each part is a mirror image of the other part about that line.

The given figure consists of 16 unit squares arranged as shown. In addition to the
three black squares, what is the minimum number of squares that must be coloured
black, such that both PQ and MN form lines of symmetry? (The figure is
representative)

P N

M
Q

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Page 4 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.6 Human beings are one among many creatures that inhabit an imagined world. In
this imagined world, some creatures are cruel. If in this imagined world, it is given
that the statement “Some human beings are not cruel creatures” is FALSE, then
which of the following set of statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) All human beings are cruel creatures.

(ii) Some human beings are cruel creatures.
(iii) Some creatures that are cruel are human beings.
(iv) No human beings are cruel creatures.

(A) only (i)

(B) only (iii) and (iv)

(C) only (i) and (ii)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Q.7 To construct a wall, sand and cement are mixed in the ratio of 3:1. The cost of sand
and that of cement are in the ratio of 1:2.

If the total cost of sand and cement to construct the wall is 1000 rupees, then what
is the cost (in rupees) of cement used?

(A) 400

(B) 600

(C) 800

(D) 200

Page 5 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

The World Bank has declared that it does not plan to offer new financing to Sri
Q.8 Lanka, which is battling its worst economic crisis in decades, until the country has
an adequate macroeconomic policy framework in place. In a statement, the World
Bank said Sri Lanka needed to adopt structural reforms that focus on economic
stabilisation and tackle the root causes of its crisis. The latter has starved it of
foreign exchange and led to shortages of food, fuel, and medicines. The bank is
repurposing resources under existing loans to help alleviate shortages of essential
items such as medicine, cooking gas, fertiliser, meals for children, and cash for
vulnerable households.

Based only on the above passage, which one of the following statements can be
inferred with certainty?

(A) According to the World Bank, the root cause of Sri Lanka’s economic crisis is that
it does not have enough foreign exchange.

(B) The World Bank has stated that it will advise the Sri Lankan government about how
to tackle the root causes of its economic crisis.

(C) According to the World Bank, Sri Lanka does not yet have an adequate
macroeconomic policy framework.

(D) The World Bank has stated that it will provide Sri Lanka with additional funds for
essentials such as food, fuel, and medicines.

Q.9 The coefficient of 𝑥 4 in the polynomial (𝑥 − 1)3 (𝑥 − 2)3 is equal to _______.

(A) 33

(B) ̶ 3

(C) 30

(D) 21

Page 6 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.10 Which one of the following shapes can be used to tile (completely cover by
repeating) a flat plane, extending to infinity in all directions, without leaving any
empty spaces in between them? The copies of the shape used to tile are identical
and are not allowed to overlap.

(A) circle

(B) regular octagon

(C) regular pentagon

(D) rhombus

Page 7 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The direction in which a scalar field  ( x, y, z) has the largest rate of change at
any point with position vector r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ is the same as that of the vector

(A) 

(B)  ( r )

(C) r

(D) (𝛻𝜙 • 𝑑𝑟⃗)𝑟⃗

Q.12 If a monotonic and continuous function y = f ( x) has only one root in the
interval x1  x  x2 , then

(A) f ( x1 ) f ( x2 )  0

(B) f ( x1 ) f ( x2 ) = 0

(C) f ( x1 ) f ( x2 )  0

(D) f ( x1 ) − f ( x2 ) = 0

Page 8 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.13 u u −  x   , t  0 .
Consider the one-dimensional wave equation + = 0 for
t x
For an initial condition u( x,0) = e− x , the solution at t = 1 is
2

(A)
u( x,1) = e−( x−1)
2

u ( x,1) = e−1
(B)

(C)
u( x,1) = e− x
2

(D) − ( x +1)2
u( x,1) = e

Q.14 A two-dimensional potential flow solution for flow past an airfoil has a streamline
pattern as shown in the figure. Which of the following conditions is additionally
required to satisfy the Kutta condition?

(A) Addition of a source of strength Q  0

(B) Addition of a source of strength Q  0

(C) Addition of a circulation of strength   0 (counter-clockwise)

(D) Addition of a circulation of strength   0 (clockwise)

Page 9 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.15 Consider the Blasius solution for the incompressible laminar flat plate boundary
layer. Among the following options, select the correct relation for the
development of the momentum thickness  with distance x from the leading
edge along the length of the plate.

(A)
  x2 3

(B)
  x1 2

(C)
  x1 7

(D)
  x−2 3

Q.16 In a two-dimensional potential flow, the doublet is a limit of the superposition of

(A) a uniform stream and a source

(B) a source and a sink of equal strength

(C) a uniform stream and a sink

(D) a source and a vortex

Page 10 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.17 An ideal glider has drag characteristics given by CD = CD + CD , where

0 i

C D = KC L2 is the induced drag coefficient, C L is the lift coefficient, and K is a

i
constant. For maximum range of the glider, the ratio CD CD is
0 i

(A) 1

(B) 1
3

(C) 3

(D) 3
2

Page 11 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.18 The figures shown in the options are schematics of airfoil shapes (not to scale).
For a civilian transport aircraft designed for a cruise Mach number of 0.8, which
among them is aerodynamically best suited as a wing section?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 12 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.19 For a longitudinally statically stable aircraft, which one of the following
represents the relationship between the coefficient of pitching moment about the
center of gravity Cmcg and absolute angle of attack  a ?
(Note: nose-up moment is positive.)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 13 of 35
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Q.20 In a single-spool aviation turbojet engine, which of the following is the correct
relationship between the total work output WT of a 2-stage axial turbine and the
total work required WC by a 6-stage axial compressor, neglecting losses?

(A) WT = 2 WC

(B) WT = 6 WC

(C) WT = WC

(D) WT = 3 WC

Q.21 For a stage of a 50% reaction ideal axial flow compressor (symmetrical blading),
select the correct statement from the options given.

(A) The stagnation enthalpy rise across the rotor is 50% of the rise across the stage.

(B) The static enthalpy rise across the rotor is 50% of the rise across the stage.

(C) Axial velocity component of the flow at the rotor exit is 50% of that at the rotor
entry.

(D) The static pressure rise across the rotor is 50% of the rise across the stator.

Page 14 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.22 An aircraft is cruising with a forward speed Va and the jet exhaust speed relative
to the engine at the exit is V j . If V j Va = 2, what is the propulsive efficiency?

(A) 0.50

(B) 1.00

(C) 0.33

(D) 0.67

Q.23 Consider the four basic symmetrical flight loading conditions corresponding to the
corners of a typical V-n diagram. For one of these flight loading conditions, it is
observed that (i) the compressive bending stresses have a maximum value in the
bottom aft region (see figure) of the wing cross-section; and (ii) the tensile
bending stresses are maximum in the upper forward region (see figure) of the
wing cross-section. For the preceding observations, select the corresponding flight
loading condition from the options given.

(A) Positive high angle of attack

(B) Positive low angle of attack

(C) Negative high angle of attack

(D) Negative low angle of attack

Page 15 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.24 Which one of the following figures represents the qualitative variation of absolute
dV
deceleration with altitude h (measured from the mean sea level) for a space
dt
vehicle undergoing a ballistic entry into the Earth’s atmosphere?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 16 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.25 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about harmonically excited forced
vibration of a single degree-of-freedom linear spring-mass-damper system?

(A) The total response of the mass is a combination of free vibration transient and
steady-state response.

(B) The free vibration transient dies out with time for each of the three possible
conditions of damping (under-damped, critically damped, and over-damped).

(C) The steady-state periodic response is dependent on the initial conditions at the
time of application of external forcing.

(D) The rate of decay of free vibration transient response depends on the mass, spring
stiffness and damping constant.

Q.26 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the state of stress in a plane?

(A) Maximum or major principal stress is algebraically the largest direct stress at a
point.

(B) The magnitude of minor principal stress cannot be greater than the magnitude of
major principal stress.

(C) The planes of maximum shear stress are inclined at 90 degrees to the principal
axes.

(D) The normal stresses along the planes of maximum shear stress are equal.

Page 17 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.27 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the ribs of an airplane wing
with semi-monocoque construction?

(A) For a rectangular planform wing, the dimensions of the ribs DO NOT depend on
their spanwise position in the wing.

(B) Ribs increase the column buckling stress of longitudinal stiffeners connected to
them.

(C) Ribs increase plate buckling stress of the skin panels.

(D) Ribs help in maintaining aerodynamic shape of the wing.

Q.28 From the options given, select all that are true for turbofan engines with
afterburners.

(A) Turning afterburner ON increases specific fuel consumption.

(B) Turbofan engines with afterburners have variable area nozzles.

(C) Turning afterburner ON decreases specific fuel consumption.

(D) Turning afterburner ON increases stagnation pressure across the engine.

Page 18 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.29 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to eigenvalues and
eigenvectors of a matrix?

(A) The sum of the eigenvalues of a matrix equals the sum of the elements of the
principal diagonal.

(B) 1
If  is an eigenvalue of a matrix A, then is always an eigenvalue of its

transpose (AT).

(C) If  is an eigenvalue of an orthogonal matrix A, then

1
is also an eigenvalue of

A.

(D) If a matrix has n distinct eigenvalues, it also has n independent eigenvectors.

Q.30 For studying wing vibrations, a wing of mass M and finite dimensions has been
idealized by assuming it to be supported using a linear spring of equivalent
stiffness k and a torsional spring of equivalent stiffness k as shown in the figure.
The centre of gravity (CG) of the wing idealized as an airfoil is marked
in the figure. The number of degree(s) of freedom for this idealized wing vibration
model is _________. (Answer in integer)

Page 19 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.31 The system of equations

x − 2y + z = 0
2x + y − 4z = 0
x− y+z =0

has a non-trivial solution for  = ______. (Answer in integer)

Q.32 An airplane weighing 40 kN is landing on a horizontal runway during which it is

retarded by an arresting cable mechanism. The tension in the arresting cable at a
given instant, as shown in the figure, is 100 kN. Assuming that the thrust from the
engine continues to balance airplane drag, the magnitude of horizontal load factor
is ________. (round off to one decimal place)

Q.33 The ratio of the speed of sound in H2 (molecular weight 2 kg/kmol) to that
in N2 (molecular weight 28 kg/kmol) at temperature 300 K and pressure 2 bar
is ____. (round off to two decimal places)

Q.34 Airplane A and Airplane B are cruising at altitudes of 2 km and 4 km,

respectively. The free stream density and static pressure at altitude 2 km are
1.01 kg/m3 and 79.50 kPa, respectively, and at altitude 4 km, they are 0.82 kg/m3
and 61.70 kPa, respectively. The differential pressure reading from the pitot-static
tubes is 3 kPa for both the airplanes. Assuming incompressible flow, the ratio of
cruise speeds of Airplane A to Airplane B is ______.
(round off to two decimal places)

Page 20 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.35 A supersonic vehicle powered by a ramjet engine is cruising at a speed of

1000 m/s. The ramjet engine burns hydrogen in a subsonic combustor to produce
thrust. The heat of combustion for hydrogen is 120 MJ/kg. The overall efficiency
of the engine o , defined as the ratio of propulsive power to the total heat release
in the combustor, is 40%. Taking acceleration due to gravity g0 = 10 m/s2, the
specific impulse of the engine is _____________ seconds.
(round off to the nearest integer).

Page 21 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 Given the function y( x) = ( x + 3)( x − 2) , for −4  x  4 . What is the value of x at

which the function has a minimum?

(A) 3
−
2

(B) 1
−
2

(C) 1
2

(D) 3
2

Page 22 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.37 A supersonic aircraft has an air intake ramp that can be rotated about the leading
edge O such that the shock from the leading edge meets the cowl lip as shown in
the figure. Select all the correct statement(s) as per oblique shock theory when the
flight Mach number M is increased.

(A) It is always possible to find a ramp setting  RAMP such that the shock still meets
the cowl lip (  SHOCK remains the same).

(B) If  RAMP is held fixed, the shock angle  SHOCK will increase.

(C) If M exceeds a critical value, it would NOT be possible to find a ramp setting
 RAMP such that the shock still meets the cowl lip (  SHOCK remains the same).

(D)  1 
Shock angle  SHOCK  sin 
−1

M 

Page 23 of 35
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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.38 Two missiles A and B powered by solid rocket motors have identical specific
impulse, liftoff mass of 5600 kg each, and burn durations of t A = 30 s
and t B = 70 s, respectively. The propellant mass flow rates, mA and mB , for
missiles A and B, respectively, are given by

mA = 120 kg/s, 0  t  30
mB = 70 kg/s, 0  t  70

Neglecting gravity and aerodynamic forces, the relationship between the final
velocities V A and VB of missiles A and B, respectively, is given by

(A) VA = 4.1VB

(B) VA = VB

(C) VA = 0.5 VB

(D) VA = 0.7 VB

Page 24 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.39 A perfect gas stored in a large reservoir exhausts into the atmosphere through a
convergent duct. The reservoir pressure is P0 and temperature is T0. The jet emerges
from the nozzle at choked conditions with average velocity u, Mach number M,
pressure p, temperature T, and density  . If the reservoir pressure is increased,
then

(A) u, M, p, T, and  increase

(B) u, p, T, and  increase, but M remains the same

(C) u, M, and T remain the same, but p and  increase

(D) u, M, T and  remain the same, but p increases

Q.40 Consider a general aviation airplane with weight 10 kN and a wing planform area
of 15 m2. The drag coefficient of the airplane is given as CD = CD + KCL2 with
0

CD = 0.025 and K = 0.05 . For level flight at an altitude where the density is
0
0.60 kg/m3 and thrust 1 kN, the maximum cruise speed is

(rounded off to the nearest integer)

(A) 87 m/s

(B) 30 m/s

(C) 36 m/s

(D) 101 m/s

Page 25 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.41 A scramjet engine features an intake, isolator, combustor, and a nozzle, as shown
in the schematic. Station 3 indicates the combustor entry point. Assume stagnation
enthalpy to be constant between Stations 1 and 3, and air to be a calorically perfect
gas with specific heat ratio γ. Select the correct expression for Mach number M3 at
the inlet to the combustor from the options given.

(A)
 2   T 
M3 = M    − 1
  − 1   T3 

(B)
 2   T    − 1  2  
M3 =   1 +  2  M   − 1
  − 1   T3     

(C) T
M3 = M
T3

(D)
  + 1   T  2
M3 =   − 1 M  − 1
 2   T3 

Page 26 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.42 dy
Consider the equation + ay = sin  x , where a and ω are constants. Given
dx
y = 1 at x = 0 , select all correct statement(s) from the following as x → .

(A) y → 0 if a  0

(B) y → 1 if a = 0

(C) y → A exp ( a x ) if a  0 ; A is a constant

(D) y → B sin ( x + C ) if a  0 ; B and C are constants

Q.43 Given the vectors

A = 9iˆ − 5 ˆj + 2kˆ
B = 11iˆ + 4 ˆj + kˆ
C = −7iˆ + 14 ˆj − 3kˆ

which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

(A) Vectors A , B and C are coplanar

(B) The scalar triple product of the vectors A , B and C is zero

(C) A and B are perpendicular

(D) C is parallel to A  B

Page 27 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.44 Consider a one-dimensional inviscid supersonic flow in a diverging duct with heat
addition (Qin) as shown. Which of the following statement(s) is/are always TRUE?

(A) Mach number, M 2  M1

(B) Stagnation pressure, P1  P2

o o

(C) Static pressure, P2  P1

(D) Stagnation temperature, T1  T2

o o

Page 28 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.45 Consider the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) with h being the
dT
geopotential altitude (in km) and being the temperature gradient (in K/m).
dh
 dT 
Which of the following combination(s) of  h,  is/are as per ISA?
 dh 

(A) ( 7, − 6.5 10−3 )

(B) (9, 4 10−3 )

(C) (15, 0)

(D) (35, 310−3 )

Q.46 For an airfoil, which of the relations given about the critical Mach number M cr
and drag divergence Mach number M dd is/are correct?

(A) M cr  M dd

(B) M cr  1.0

(C) M dd  1.0

(D) M cr  1.0

Page 29 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.47 Which of the following statement(s) about the elastic flexural buckling load of
columns is/are correct?

(A) The buckling load increases with increase in flexural rigidity of the column.

(B) The buckling load increases with increase in the length of the column.

(C) The boundary conditions of the column affect the buckling load.

(D) The buckling load is NOT directly dependent on the density of the material used
for the column.

Q.48 The thickness of a uniform hollow circular shaft is equal to the difference between
the outer radius and the inner radius. The ratio of the inner diameter to outer
diameter of the shaft is 0.5. For the shaft reacting to an applied torque, the ratio of
the maximum shear stress  to the maximum shear stress  thin − wall obtained using
the thin-wall approximation is . (round off to one decimal place)

Page 30 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.49 A rigid bar AB is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 100 N/m as shown in
the figure. The bar is supported by rod CD, with A, C, and D as pin joints. The rod
CD has axial stiffness of 40 N/mm. The vertical deflection at point D
is __________ mm. (round off to nearest integer)

Q.50 A cantilever beam of length 2a is loaded at the tip with force F as shown in the
figure. The beam is supported in the middle by a roller with a pin. The magnitude
of moment reaction at the built-in end of the beam is  Fa, where  is ______ .
(round off to one decimal place)

Q.51 A single degree-of-freedom spring-mass-damper system has viscous damping ratio

of 0.1. The mass is given an initial displacement of 10 cm without imparting any
velocity. After exactly two complete cycles of oscillation (i.e., after time 2 Td , where
Td is the period of the damped vibration), the amplitude of the displacement is
______ cm. (round off to two decimal place)

Page 31 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.52 The shear flow distribution in a single cell, thin-walled beam under the action of
an arbitrary shear load s y applied at the shear centre S is shown in the figure. The
cell has horizontal symmetry with booms marked by 1 to 4 that carry direct
stresses. The shear modulus G is the same for all the walls, and the area of the cell
is 135000 mm2. With respect to the point O marked in the figure, the distance to
the shear centre S is ______ mm. (round off to the nearest integer)

Q.53 Consider a thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel made of an alloy with yield
strength of 300 MPa. The vessel has end caps to contain the pressure. The ratio
of radius of the vessel to its wall thickness is 100. As per the von Mises yield
criterion, the internal pressure that would cause the failure of the vessel
is _____ MPa. (round off to two decimal places)

Q.54 Consider the differential equation

d2y dy
x2
2
+ 4 x + 2 y = 0 for x  1
dx dx

dy
with initial conditions y = 0 , = 1 at x = 1 . The value of y at x = 2 is ____ .
dx
(round off to two decimal places)

Page 32 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.55 The operating characteristics of a pump were measured to be CP = a  , where

2

P
power coefficient C P = ,  is the flow coefficient, a is a constant, D is a
 3 D 5
length scale,  is the rotation rate,  is fluid density, and P is the power
required. The flow coefficient is a dimensionless volume flow rate scaled with 
and D . Assuming that the flow rate remains the same, if the rotation rate is
increased to 1.25  , the power changes to  P . The value of  is ________ .
(round off to two decimal places)

Q.56 A thin cambered airfoil has lift coefficient cl = 0 at an angle of attack  = −1.1o .
Assuming that stall occurs at much larger  , the cl at  = 4o is _______.
(round off to two decimal places)

Q.57 In a potential flow, a uniform stream of strength U directed along the x-axis and
 −  −
four line sources (2-dimensional) of strengths , , , are placed along
2 3 4 5
the x-axis at x = 0, 1, 2 and 3, respectively. The strength of an additional line
source to be placed at x = 4 such that a closed streamline encircles all five sources
is _____. (round off to two decimal places).

Q.58 Enstrophy is defined as the square of the magnitude of vorticity.

For the three-dimensional velocity field

V = (4 x − 1.5 y + 2.5z )iˆ + (1.5x − 1.5 y) ˆj + ( 0.7 xy ) kˆ ,

the enstrophy at location (1, 1, 1) is ________ .

(round off to two decimal places)

Page 33 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.59 An airplane with wing planform area of 20 m2 and weight 8 kN is flying straight
and level with a speed of 100 m/s. The total drag coefficient is 0.026 and the air
density is 0.7 kg/m3. The total thrust required to introduce a steady climb angle of
0.1 radians is ____ N. (round off to the nearest integer)

Q.60 The maximum permissible load factor and the maximum lift force coefficient for
an airplane is 7 and 2, respectively. For a wing loading of 6500 N/m2 and air
density 1.23 kg/m3, the speed yielding the highest possible turn rate in the vertical
plane is ___________ m/s. (round off to the nearest integer)

Q.61 A gas turbine combustor is burning methane and air at an equivalence ratio
F A
 = 0.5 , where  = and [ F A]stoich is the ratio of mass flow rate of fuel
 F A stoich
to the mass flow rate of air at stoichiometry. If the air flow rate is mair = 20 kg/s
then the mass flow rate of methane is ______ kg/s.
(round off to two decimal places)

Q.62 The universal gravitational constant is 6.67 10−11 Nm2/kg2. For a planet of mass
6.4169 1023 kg and radius 3390 km, the escape velocity is _____ km/s.
(round off to one decimal place).

Q. 63 A satellite is in a circular orbit around Earth with a time period of 90 minutes. The
radius of Earth is 6370 km, mass of Earth is 5.98 1024 kg and the universal
gravitational constant is 6.67 10−11 Nm2/kg2. The altitude of the satellite above
mean sea level is ____ km. (round off to the nearest integer)

Page 34 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.64 A centrifugal air compressor has inlet root diameter of 0.25 m and the outlet
diameter of the impeller is 0.6 m. The pressure ratio is 5.0. The air at the inlet of
the rotor is at 1 atm and 25oC. The polytropic efficiency is 0.8 and slip factor is
0.92. Use C p = 1.004 kJ/kg-K and  = 1.4 . The impeller speed in revolutions per
minute (RPM) is _________. (round off to the nearest integer)

Q.65 Consider a cryogenic liquid rocket engine using an expander cycle with liquid
hydrogen and liquid oxygen as the two propellants. The mass flow rate of
hydrogen mH into the combustion chamber is 32 kg/s , and the mass flow rate of
2

oxygen mO into the chamber is such that mO mH = 8 . The combustion of

2 2 2
hydrogen and oxygen is at stoichiometry. Assuming that the rate of the forward
reaction is much larger than that of the reverse reaction, the rate of formation of
H2O is ________ kmol/s. (round off to the nearest integer)

END OF QUESTION PAPER

Page 35 of 35
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
 GATE 2023 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Question Type (QT)

Q. No. Session Subject Name (SN) Key/Range (KY) Mark (MK)
MCQ/MSQ/NAT
1 6 MCQ GA B 1
2 6 MCQ GA C 1
3 6 MCQ GA B 1
4 6 MCQ GA D 1
5 6 MCQ GA C 1
6 6 MCQ GA D 2
7 6 MCQ GA A 2
8 6 MCQ GA C 2
9 6 MCQ GA A 2
10 6 MCQ GA D 2
11 6 MCQ AE A 1
12 6 MCQ AE C 1
13 6 MCQ AE A 1
14 6 MCQ AE D 1
15 6 MCQ AE B 1
16 6 MCQ AE B 1
17 6 MCQ AE A 1
18 6 MCQ AE D 1
19 6 MCQ AE D 1
20 6 MCQ AE C 1
21 6 MCQ AE B 1
22 6 MCQ AE D 1
23 6 MCQ AE D 1
24 6 MCQ AE D 1
25 6 MSQ AE A, B, D 1
26 6 MSQ AE A, D 1
27 6 MSQ AE B, C, D 1
28 6 MSQ AE A, B 1
29 6 MSQ AE A, C, D 1
30 6 NAT AE 2 to 2 1
31 6 NAT AE 3 to 3 1
32 6 NAT AE 2.4 to 2.6 1
33 6 NAT AE 3.5 to 4.0 1
34 6 NAT AE 0.89 to 0.91 1
35 6 NAT AE 4800 to 4900 1
36 6 MCQ AE B 2
37 6 MCQ AE A 2
38 6 MCQ AE C 2
39 6 MCQ AE C 2
40 6 MCQ AE A 2
41 6 MCQ AE B 2
42 6 MSQ AE C, D 2
43 6 MSQ AE A, B 2
44 6 MSQ AE B, D 2
45 6 MSQ AE A, C, D 2
46 6 MSQ AE A, B, C 2
47 6 MSQ AE A, C, D 2
48 6 NAT AE 1.1 to 1.3 2
49 6 NAT AE 10 to 10 2
50 6 NAT AE 0.5 to 0.5 2
51 6 NAT AE 2.80 to 2.86 2
52 6 NAT AE 196 to 198 2
53 6 NAT AE 3.40 to 3.50 2
54 6 NAT AE 0.24 to 0.26 2
55 6 NAT AE 1.24 to 1.26 2
56 6 NAT AE 0.55 to 0.57 2
57 6 NAT AE -0.69 to -0.67 2
58 6 NAT AE 12.61 to 12.81 2
59 6 NAT AE 2615 to 2625 2
60 6 NAT AE 190 to 195 2
61 6 NAT AE 0.57 to 0.60 2
62 6 NAT AE 4.9 to 5.1 2
63 6 NAT AE 260 to 300 2
64 6 NAT AE 15948 to 16048 2
65 6 NAT AE 16 to 16 2
Q. No. Session Question Subject Key/Range Mark
Type Name
1 8 MCQ GA B 1
2 8 MCQ GA C 1
3 8 MCQ GA C 1
4 8 MCQ GA A 1
5 8 MCQ GA B OR C 1
6 8 MCQ GA C 2
7 8 MCQ GA C 2
8 8 MCQ GA A 2
9 8 MCQ GA A 2
10 8 MCQ GA B 2
11 8 MCQ AE C 1
12 8 MCQ AE D 1
13 8 MCQ AE B 1
14 8 MCQ AE C 1
15 8 MCQ AE C 1
16 8 MCQ AE B 1
17 8 MCQ AE B 1
18 8 MCQ AE D 1
19 8 MCQ AE A 1
20 8 MCQ AE B 1
21 8 MCQ AE B 1
22 8 MCQ AE A 1
23 8 MCQ AE B 1
24 8 MSQ AE B, C 1
25 8 MSQ AE B, D 1
26 8 MSQ AE B, C 1
27 8 MSQ AE A, D 1
28 8 MSQ AE B, C 1
29 8 MSQ AE A, C, D 1
30 8 MSQ AE B, C, D 1
31 8 NAT AE 8.6 to 9.1 1
32 8 NAT AE 5.55 to 5.80 1
33 8 NAT AE 109 to 111 1
34 8 NAT AE 5.7 to 6.0 1
35 8 NAT AE 51.5 to 52.6 1
36 8 MCQ AE C 2
37 8 MCQ AE C 2
38 8 MCQ AE C 2
39 8 MCQ AE B 2
40 8 MCQ AE B 2
41 8 MCQ AE C 2
42 8 MCQ AE B 2
43 8 MSQ AE A, B 2
44 8 MSQ AE A, C 2
45 8 MSQ AE A 2
46 8 MSQ AE B, C, D 2
47 8 MSQ AE B, D 2
48 8 NAT AE 7.4 to 7.7 2
49 8 NAT AE 2 to 2 2
50 8 NAT AE 88 to 91 2
51 8 NAT AE 9500 to 9800 2
52 8 NAT AE 1.24 to 1.28 2
53 8 NAT AE 0.14 to 0.15 2
54 8 NAT AE -0.057 to -0.053 2
55 8 NAT AE 49 to 51 OR -51 to -49 2
56 8 NAT AE 44 to 46 2
57 8 NAT AE 2.6 to 2.7 2
58 8 NAT AE 43 to 48 2
59 8 NAT AE 1 to 1 2
60 8 NAT AE 0.95 to 1.05 2
61 8 NAT AE 2700 to 2960 2
62 8 NAT AE 19 to 21 2
63 8 NAT AE 1.7 to 1.8 2
64 8 NAT AE 545 to 555 2
65 8 NAT AE 6 or greater than 6 2
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)
GATE 2022 General Aptitude
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.1 Writing too many things on the ________ while teaching could make the
students get _________.

(A) bored / board

(B) board / bored

(C) board / board

(D) bored / bored

Page 1 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.2 Which one of the following is a representation (not to scale and in bold) of all

values of 𝑥 satisfying the inequality 2 − 5𝑥 ≤ − on the real number

line?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 2 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.3 If 𝑓(𝑥) = 2 ln √𝑒 , what is the area bounded by 𝑓(𝑥) for the interval [0, 2]
on the 𝑥-axis?

(A) 1
2

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 4

Page 3 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.4 A person was born on the fifth Monday of February in a particular year.

Which one of the following statements is correct based on the above

information?

(A) The 2nd February of that year is a Tuesday

(B) There will be five Sundays in the month of February in that year

(C) The 1st February of that year is a Sunday

(D) All Mondays of February in that year have even dates

Page 4 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.5

Which one of the groups given below can be assembled to get the shape that is
shown above using each piece only once without overlapping with each other?
(rotation and translation operations may be used).

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 5 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.6 Fish belonging to species S in the deep sea have skins that are extremely black
(ultra-black skin). This helps them not only to avoid predators but also sneakily
attack their prey. However, having this extra layer of black pigment results in
lower collagen on their skin, making their skin more fragile.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?

(A) Having ultra-black skin is only advantageous to species S

(B) Species S with lower collagen in their skin are at an advantage because it helps
them avoid predators

(C) Having ultra-black skin has both advantages and disadvantages to species S

(D) Having ultra-black skin is only disadvantageous to species S but advantageous

only to their predators

Page 6 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.7 For the past 𝑚 days, the average daily production at a company was 100 units
per day.

If today’s production of 180 units changes the average to 110 units per day,
what is the value of 𝑚?

(A) 18

(B) 10

(C) 7

(D) 5

Page 7 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.8 Consider the following functions for non-zero positive integers, 𝑝 and 𝑞.

𝑓(𝑝, 𝑞) = 𝑝 × 𝑝 × 𝑝 × … … … × 𝑝 = 𝑝 ; 𝑓(𝑝, 1) = 𝑝
terms

⫶( )
⫶⫶
𝑔(𝑝, 𝑞 ) = 𝑝 ; 𝑔(𝑝, 1) = 𝑝

Which one of the following options is correct based on the above?

(A) 𝑓(2,2) = 𝑔(2,2)

(B) 𝑓(𝑔(2,2), 2) < 𝑓 2, 𝑔(2,2)

(C) 𝑔(2,1) ≠ 𝑓(2,1)

(D) 𝑓(3,2) > 𝑔(3,2)

Page 8 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.9 Four cities P, Q, R and S are connected through one-way routes as shown in the
figure. The travel time between any two connected cities is one hour. The boxes
beside each city name describe the starting time of first train of the day and their
frequency of operation. For example, from city P, the first trains of the day start
at 8 AM with a frequency of 90 minutes to each of R and S. A person does not
spend additional time at any city other than the waiting time for the next
connecting train.

If the person starts from R at 7 AM and is required to visit S and return to R,

what is the minimum time required?

(A) 6 hours 30 minutes

(B) 3 hours 45 minutes

(C) 4 hours 30 minutes

(D) 5 hours 15 minutes

Page 9 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.10 Equal sized circular regions are shaded in a square sheet of paper of 1 cm side
length. Two cases, case M and case N, are considered as shown in the figures
below. In the case M, four circles are shaded in the square sheet and in the case
N, nine circles are shaded in the square sheet as shown.

What is the ratio of the areas of unshaded regions of case M to that of case N?

case M case N

(A) 2 : 3

(B) 1 : 1

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 2 : 1

Page 10 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The equation of the straight line representing the tangent to the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥 at
the point (1,1) is

(A) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 2

(B) 𝑥 = 2𝑦 − 1

(C) 𝑦 − 1 = 2(𝑥 − 1)

(D) 𝑥 − 1 = 2(𝑦 − 1)

Q.12 Let 𝚤̂, 𝚥̂, and 𝑘 be the unit vectors in the x, y and z directions, respectively. If the
vector 𝚤̂ + 𝚥̂ is rotated about positive 𝑘 by 135o, one gets

(A) −𝚤̂

(B) −𝚥̂

(C) 1
− 𝚥̂
√2

(D) −√2𝚤̂

Page 11 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.13 Let 𝑥 be a real number and 𝑖 = √−1. Then the real part of cos(𝑖𝑥) is

(A) sinh 𝑥

(B) cosh 𝑥

(C) cos 𝑥

(D) sin 𝑥

Q.14 The point of maximum entropy on a Fanno-curve in a Temperature-Entropy (T-s)

diagram represents the

(A) maximum flow Mach number

(B) minimum flow Mach number

(C) sonic Mach number

(D) normal shock in the flow

Page 12 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.15 Consider a two-dimensional potential flow over a cylinder. If the freestream speed
is 𝑈 , the maximum speed on the cylinder surface is

(A) 𝑈
2

(B) 3𝑈
2

(C) 2𝑈

(D) 4𝑈
3

Page 13 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.16 Consider steady, two-dimensional, incompressible flow over a non-porous flat

plate as shown in the figure. For the control volume PQRS, the speed, 𝑢 , at
section PQ is uniform and the speed at section RS is given by 𝑢(𝑦) = 𝐴 ,
where 𝑛 is a positive integer. The value of 𝐴 for which the flow through section
PS will vanish is:

n
h  y
u u ( y )  A0  
h

(A) 𝑢
𝑛+1

(B) 𝑢 (𝑛 + 1)

(C) 𝑢
𝑛−1

(D) 𝑢 (𝑛 − 1)

Page 14 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.17 Consider the velocity distribution, 𝑢(𝑦) shown in the figure. For two adjacent fluid
layers L1 and L2, the viscous force exerted by L1 on L2 is

(A) to the right

(B) to the left

(C) vertically upwards

(D) vertically downwards

Page 15 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.18 The service ceiling of an airplane is the altitude

(A) at which maximum rate of climb is 100 m/min

(B) beyond which theoretically the airplane cannot sustain level flight

(C) at which maximum power is required for flight

(D) at which maximum rate of climb is 100 ft/min

Q.19 Regarding the horizontal tail of a conventional airplane, which one of the
following statements is true?

(A) It contributes to 𝐶 <0

(B) It makes 𝐶 =0

(C) It makes 𝐶 >0

(D) It makes 𝐶 > 0 and 𝐶 >0

Page 16 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.20 A beam with a symmetrical T-shaped cross-section, as shown in the figure, is

subjected to pure bending. The maximum magnitude of the normal stress is realised:

(A) only at the top fibres of the cross-section

(B) only at the bottom fibres of the cross-section

(C) both at the top and bottom fibres of the cross-section

(D) only at the centroidal fibres of the cross-section

Page 17 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.21 A three-member truss is simply supported at Q and R, and loaded at P by a

horizontal force 𝐹 as shown. The force in QR is

(A) 0

(B) 𝐹 (tensile)

(C)
(compressive)
√

(D) √2𝐹 (tensile)

Page 18 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.22 The closed thin-walled rectangular channel shown in figure (i) is opened by
introducing a sharp cut at the center of the bottom edge, as shown in figure (ii).
Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Centroids of (i) and (ii) coincide while shear centers do not

(B) Shear centers of (i) and (ii) coincide while centroids do not

(C) Both centroids and shear centers of (i) and (ii) coincide

(D) Neither centroids nor shear centers of (i) and (ii) coincide

Q.23 The region of highest static temperature in a rocket engine and the region of
highest heat flux are ____________, respectively.

(A) nozzle throat and nozzle entry

(B) combustion chamber and nozzle throat

(C) nozzle exit and nozzle throat

(D) nozzle throat and combustion chamber

Page 19 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.24 If 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐̂ are three mutually perpendicular unit vectors, then 𝑎 ⋅ 𝑏 × 𝑐̂ can take
the value(s)

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) -1

(D) ∞

Q.25 Across an oblique shock wave in a calorifically perfect gas,

(A) the stagnation enthalpy changes

(B) the stagnation entropy changes

(C) the stagnation temperature changes

(D) the speed of sound changes

Page 20 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.26 NACA 2412 airfoil has

(A) 4% maximum camber with respect to chord

(B) maximum camber at 40% chord

(C) 12% maximum thickness to chord ratio

(D) maximum camber at 20% chord

Q.27 For International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) up to 11 km, which of the following
statement(s) is/are true?

(A) The hydrostatic/ aerostatic equation is used

(B) The temperature lapse rate is taken as −10 𝐾/𝑚

(C) The sea level conditions are taken as: pressure, 𝑝 = 1.01325 × 10 𝑃𝑎;
temperature, 𝑇 = 300 𝐾; density, 𝜌 = 1.225 𝑘𝑔/𝑚

(D) Air is treated as a perfect gas

Page 21 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.28 Let 𝜎 and 𝜏 represent the normal stress and shear stress on a plane, respectively.
The Mohr circle(s) that may possibly represent the state of stress at points in a beam
of rectangular cross-section under pure bending is/are:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Page 22 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.29 An isotropic linear elastic material point under plane strain condition in the x-y
plane always obeys:

(A) out-of-plane normal strain, 𝜖 =0

(B) out-of-plane normal stress, 𝜎 =0

(C) out-of-plane shear stress, 𝜏 =0

(D) out-of-plane shear strain,𝛾 =0

Q.30 A high-pressure-ratio multistage axial compressor encounters an extreme loading

mismatch during starting. Which of the following technique(s) can be used to
alleviate this problem?

(A) Blade cooling

(B) Variable angle stator vanes

(C) Blow-off valves

(D) Multi-spool shaft

Page 23 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.31 The arc length of the parametric curve: 𝑥 = cos 𝜃 , 𝑦 = sin 𝜃 , 𝑧 = 𝜃 from 𝜃 = 0
to 𝜃 = 2𝜋 is equal to ________ (round off to one decimal place).

Q.32 An unpowered glider is flying at a glide angle of 10 degrees. Its lift-to-drag ratio
is (round off to two decimal places).

Q.33 The two-dimensional plane-stress state at a point is:

𝜎 = 110 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎 = 30 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜏 = 40 𝑀𝑃𝑎.

The normal stress, 𝜎 , on a plane inclined 45o as shown in the figure is ____ MPa
(round off to the nearest integer).

Page 24 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.34 In a static test, a turbofan engine with bypass ratio of 9 has core hot exhaust speed
1.5 times that of fan exhaust speed. The engine is operated at a fuel to air ratio of
𝑓 = 0.03. Both the fan and the core streams have no pressure thrust. The ratio of
fan thrust to thrust from the core engine is _____ (round off to one decimal place).

Q.35 In a single stage turbine, the hot gases come out of stator/ nozzle at a speed of 500
m/s and at an angle of 70 degrees with the turbine axis as shown. The design
speed of the rotor blade is 250 m/s at the mean blade radius. The rotor blade angle,
𝛽, at the leading edge is ________ degrees (round off to one decimal place).

Page 25 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)
Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.36 The height of a right circular cone of maximum volume that can be enclosed
within a hollow sphere of radius 𝑅 is

(A) 𝑅

(B) 5
𝑅
4

(C) 4
𝑅
3

(D) 3
𝑅
2

Q.37 Consider the differential equation

d2 d
− 2 d + 𝑦 = 0.
d

The boundary conditions are 𝑦 = 0 and = 1 at 𝑥 = 0.

Then the value of 𝑦 at 𝑥 = 1/2 is

(A) 0

(B) √𝑒

(C) √𝑒
2

(D) 𝑒
2

Page 26 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.38 Consider the partial differential equation + = 0 where 𝑥, 𝑦 are real.

If 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑎(𝑥)𝑏(𝑦), where 𝑎(𝑥) and 𝑏(𝑦) are real functions, which one of the
following statements can be true?

(A) 𝑎(𝑥) is a periodic function and 𝑏(𝑦) is a linear function

(B) both 𝑎(𝑥) and 𝑏(𝑦) are exponential functions

(C) 𝑎(𝑥) is a periodic function and 𝑏(𝑦) is an exponential function

(D) both 𝑎(𝑥) and 𝑏(𝑦) are periodic functions

Q.39 A cylindrical object of diameter 900 mm is designed to move axially in air at

60 m/s. Its drag is estimated on a geometrically half-scaled model in water,
assuming flow similarity.

Coefficients of dynamic viscosity and densities for air and water are
1.86 × 10 Pa-s, 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.01 × 10 Pa-s, 1000 kg/m3 respectively.

Drag measured for the model is 2280 N. Drag experienced by the full-scale object
is ____ N (rounded off to the nearest integer).

(A) 322

(B) 644

(C) 1288

(D) 2576

Page 27 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.40 Consider a conventional subsonic fixed-wing airplane. 𝑒 is the Oswald efficiency

factor and 𝐴𝑅 is the aspect ratio. Corresponding to the minimum ⁄ , which of
the following relations is true?

(A) 𝐶 1
=
𝐶 𝜋𝑒𝐴𝑅

(B) 𝐶 4
=
𝐶 3𝜋𝑒𝐴𝑅

(C) 𝐶 1
=
𝐶 𝜋𝑒𝐴𝑅

(D) 𝐶 1
=
𝐶 √𝜋𝑒𝐴𝑅

Page 28 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.41 A horizontal load 𝐹 is applied at point R on a two-member truss, as shown in the

figure. Both the members are prismatic with cross-sectional area, 𝐴 , and made of
the same material with Young’s modulus 𝐸.

The horizontal displacement of point R is:

(A) 0

(B) 𝐹𝑙
𝐸𝐴

(C) 𝐹𝑙
√2
𝐸𝐴

(D) 𝐹𝑙
2
𝐸𝐴

Page 29 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.42 Which of the following is NOT always true for a combustion process taking place
in a closed system?

(A) Total number of atoms is conserved

(B) Total number of molecules is conserved

(C) Total number of atoms of each element is conserved

(D) Total mass is conserved

Q.43 The real function 𝑦 = sin (|𝑥|) is

(A) continuous for all 𝑥

(B) differentiable for all 𝑥

(C) not continuous at 𝑥 = 0

(D) not differentiable at 𝑥 = 0

Page 30 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.44 A convergent nozzle fed from a constant pressure, constant temperature reservoir,
is discharging air to atmosphere at 1 bar (absolute) with choked flow at the exit
(marked as 𝑄).

Flow through the nozzle can be assumed to be isentropic.

If the exit area of the nozzle is increased while all the reservoir parameters and
ambient conditions remain the same, then at steady state

(A) the nozzle will remain choked

(B) the nozzle will be un-choked

(C) the Mach number at section P will increase

(D) the Mach number at section P will decrease

Page 31 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.45 For a conventional airplane in straight, level, constant velocity flight condition,
which of the following condition(s) is/are possible on Euler angles (𝜙, 𝜃, 𝜓), angle
of attack (𝛼) and the sideslip angle (𝛽)?

(A) 𝜙 = 0 ,𝜃 = 2 ,𝜓 = 0 ,𝛼 = 2 ,𝛽 = 0

(B) 𝜙 = 5 ,𝜃 = 0 ,𝜓 = 0 ,𝛼 = 2 ,𝛽 = 0

(C) 𝜙 = 0 ,𝜃 = 3 ,𝜓 = 0 ,𝛼 = 3 ,𝛽 = 5

(D) 𝜙 = 0 ,𝜃 = 5 ,𝜓 = 0 ,𝛼 = 2 ,𝛽 = 5

Q.46 Consider a high Earth-orbiting satellite of angular momentum per unit mass ℎ⃗ and
eccentricity 𝑒.

The mass of the Earth is 𝑀 and 𝐺 is the universal gravitational constant.

The distance between the satellite’s center of mass and the Earth’s center of mass
is 𝑟, the true anomaly is 𝜃, and the phase angle is zero.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

⃗
(A) The trajectory equation is 𝑟 = 𝑟(𝜃) = ( )

(B) ⃗
The trajectory equation is 𝑟 = 𝑟(𝜃) = ( )

(C) ℎ⃗ is conserved

(D) The sum of potential energy and kinetic energy of the satellite is conserved

Page 32 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.47 A rocket operates at an absolute chamber pressure of 20 bar to produce thrust, 𝐹 .

The hot exhaust is optimally expanded to 1 bar (absolute pressure) using a

convergent-divergent nozzle with exit to throat area ratio of 3.5 and thrust
coefficient, 𝐶 , =1.42.

The same rocket when operated at an absolute chamber pressure of 50 bar

produces thrust 𝐹 and the thrust coefficient is 𝐶 , .

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 𝐹
= 2.5
𝐹

(B) 𝐹
> 2.5
𝐹

(C) 𝐶 ,
=1
𝐶 ,

(D) 𝐶 ,
>1
𝐶 ,

Q.48 𝑣⃗ = 𝑥 𝚤̂ + 𝑦 𝚥̂ + 𝑧 𝑘 is a vector field where 𝚤̂, 𝚥̂, 𝑘 are the base vectors of a
cartesian coordinate system.

Using the Gauss divergence theorem, the value of the outward flux of the vector
field over the surface of a sphere of unit radius centered at the origin is________
(rounded off to one decimal place).

Page 33 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.49 The largest eigenvalue of the given matrix is _____.

0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0


Q.50 A rotational velocity field in an air flow is given as V  ayiˆ  bxjˆ , with 𝑎 = 10 s-1,
𝑏 = 20 s-1.

The air density is 1.0 kg/m3 and the pressure at (𝑥, 𝑦) = (0 m, 0 m) is 100 kPa.

Neglecting gravity, the pressure at (𝑥, 𝑦) = (6 m, 8 m) is _____ kPa (rounded off

to nearest integer).

Q.51 Consider a circulation distribution over a finite wing given by the equation below.

2𝑦 𝑏
Γ 1− 𝑖𝑓 0≤𝑦≤
Γ(𝑦) = 𝑏 2
2𝑦 𝑏
Γ 1+ 𝑖𝑓 − ≤𝑦≤0
𝑏 2
The wingspan 𝑏 is 10 m, the maximum circulation Γ is 20 m2/s, density of air is
1.2 kg/m3 and the free stream speed is 80 m/s.

The lift over the wing is ______N (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Page 34 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.52 Consider a solid cylinder housed inside another cylinder as shown in the figure.
Radius of the inner cylinder is 1 m and its height is 2 m. The gap between the
cylinders is 5 mm and is filled with a fluid of viscosity 10-4 Pa-s.

The inner cylinder is rotating at a constant angular speed of 5 rad/s while the outer
cylinder is stationary. Friction at the bottom surfaces can be ignored. Velocity
profile in the vertical gap between the cylinders can be assumed to be linear.

The driving moment required for the rotating motion of the inner cylinder is
____________ Nm (rounded off to two decimal places).

Page 35 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.53 In a converging duct, area and velocity at section P are 1 m2 and 15 m/s,
respectively. The temperature of the fluid is 300 K.

Air flow through the nozzle can be assumed to be inviscid and isothermal.
Characteristic gas constant is 287 J/(kg-K) and ratio of specific heats is for air.

To ensure that the air flow remains incompressible (Mach number, 𝑀 ≤ 0.3) in the
duct, the minimum area required at section Q is _____ m2 (rounded off to two
decimal places).

Q.54 Consider a thin symmetric airfoil at 2 degree angle of attack in a uniform flow at
50 m/s. The pitching moment coefficient about its leading edge is _____ (rounded
off to three decimal places).

Page 36 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.55 A convergent-divergent nozzle with adiabatic walls is designed for an exit Mach
number of 2.3. It is discharging air to atmosphere under the conditions indicated in
the figure.

Flow through the nozzle is inviscid, the characteristic gas constant for air is 287
J/(kg-K), and 𝛾 =1.4.

When the reservoir pressure is 25 bar (absolute), and temperature is 300 K, Prandtl-
Meyer expansion waves appear at the nozzle exit as shown.

The minimum percentage change in the reservoir pressure required to eliminate the
wave system at the nozzle exit under steady state is _______%.

Q.56 A conventional airplane of mass 5000 kg is doing a level turn of radius 1000 m at a
constant speed of 100 m/s at sea level.

Taking the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the bank angle of the airplane is
degrees.

Page 37 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.57 Given: The tip deflection and tip slope for a tip loaded cantilever of length 𝐿 are:
and , respectively, where N is the tip force and EI is the flexural rigidity.

A cantilever 𝑃𝑄 of rectangular cross-section is subjected to transverse load, 𝐹, at

its mid-point. Two cases are considered as shown in the figure. In Case I, the end
𝑄 is free and in Case II, 𝑄 is simply supported.

The ratio of the magnitude of the maximum bending stress at 𝑃 in Case I to that in
Case II is ________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.58 A simply supported Aluminium column of length 1 m and rectangular cross-

section 𝑤 × 𝑡 with 𝑡 ≤ 𝑤, is subjected to axial compressive loading.

Young’s modulus is 70 GPa. Yield stress under uniaxial compression is 120 MPa.

The value of 𝑡 at which the failure load for yielding and buckling coincide is
_______mm.

Page 38 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.59 A 0.5 m long thin-walled circular shaft of radius 2 cm is to be designed for an

axial load of 7.4 kN and a torque of 148 Nm applied at its tip, as shown in the
figure.

The allowable stress under uniaxial tension is 100 MPa.

Using maximum principal stress criterion, the minimum thickness, 𝑡, of the shaft
so that it does not fail is _____ mm (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Q.60 A 10 kN axial load is applied eccentrically on a rod of square cross-section (1 cm

× 1 cm) as shown in the figure.

The strains measured by the two strain gages attached to the top and bottom
surfaces at a distance of 0.5 m from the tip are 𝜖 = 0.0016 and 𝜖 = 0.0004,
respectively.

The eccentricity in loading, 𝑒 is _________mm.

Page 39 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.61 For a thin-walled I section, the width of the two flanges as well as the web height
are the same, i.e., 2𝑏 = 20 mm. Thickness is 0.6 mm.

The second moment of area about a horizontal axis passing through the centroid is
______ mm4.

Q.62 A damper with damping coefficient, 𝑐, is attached to a mass of 5 kg and spring of

stiffness 5 kN/m as shown in figure. The system undergoes under-damped
oscillations.

If the ratio of the 3rd amplitude to the 4th amplitude of oscillations is 1.5, the value
of 𝑐 is ____ Ns/m (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Page 40 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.63 A uniform rigid prismatic bar of total mass 𝑚 is suspended from a ceiling by two
identical springs as shown in figure.

Let 𝜔 and 𝜔 be the natural frequencies of mode I and mode II respectively

(𝜔 < 𝜔 ).

The value of 𝜔 /𝜔 is _________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Q.64 An ideal ramjet is to operate with exhaust gases optimally expanded to ambient
pressure at an altitude where temperature is 220 K. The exhaust speed at the nozzle
exit is 1200 m/s at a temperature of 1100 K.

Given: 𝛾 = 1.4 at 220 K; 𝑅 = 287 J/(kg-K) for air

𝛾 = 1.33 at 1100 K; 𝑅 = 287 J/(kg-K) for exhaust gases.

The cruise speed of this ramjet is ________ m/s (rounded off to nearest integer).

Page 41 of 42
GATE 2022 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.65 A multistage axial compressor takes in air at 1 atm, 300 K and compresses it to a
minimum of 5 atm.
∆
The mean blade speed is 245 m/s and work coefficient, is 0.55 for each stage.
For air, use 𝐶 =1005 J/(kg-K), 𝑅 = 287 J/(kg-K) and γ = 1.4.

If the compression is isentropic, the number of stages required is ___________

(rounded off to the next higher integer).

Page 42 of 42
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GATE 2020 IIT Delhi

Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
Home Information Brochure GATE International Pre Examination Important Dates FAQs Contact Us

AE: Aerospace Engineering

GA - General Aptitude
Q1 - Q5 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)
(B)

(C)
(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 4

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

gate.iitd.ac.in/gate2020/AEPaper.php 1/15
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Q6 - Q10 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 6

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

gate.iitd.ac.in/gate2020/AEPaper.php 2/15
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Q.No. 10

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

AE: Aerospace Engineering

Q1 - Q25 carry one mark each.

Q.No. 1

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 2

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 3

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

gate.iitd.ac.in/gate2020/AEPaper.php 3/15
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Q.No. 4

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.No. 5

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 6

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 7

(A)

(B)

(C)

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(D)

Q.No. 8

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 9

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.No. 10

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.No. 11

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 12

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 13

(A)

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(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.No. 14

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 15

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 16

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 17

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q.No. 18

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.No. 19

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

Q.No. 20

Q.No. 21

Q.No. 22

Q.No. 23

Q.No. 24

Q.No. 25

Q26 - Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 26

(A)

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(B)

(C)
(D)

Q.No. 27

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 28

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.No. 29

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 30

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.No. 31

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 32

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 33

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 34

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(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.No. 35

Q.No. 36

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Q.No. 37

Q.No. 38

Q.No. 39

Q.No. 40

Q.No. 41

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Q.No. 42

Q.No. 43

Q.No. 44

Q.No. 45

Q.No. 46

Q.No. 47

Q.No. 48

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Q.No. 49

Q.No. 50

Q.No. 51

Q.No. 52

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Q.No. 53

Q.No. 54

Q.No. 55

Copyright : GATE 2020, IIT Delhi

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Organising Institute
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2020
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Answer Key - AE: Aerospace Engineering

Q.No. Session Que.Type Sec. Name Key Marks

1 4 MCQ GA A 1

2 4 MCQ GA B 1

3 4 MCQ GA B 1

4 4 MCQ GA C 1

5 4 MCQ GA A 1

6 4 MCQ GA A 2

7 4 MCQ GA B 2

8 4 MCQ GA C 2

9 4 MCQ GA C 2

10 4 MCQ GA B 2

1 4 MCQ AE C 1

2 4 MCQ AE D 1

3 4 MCQ AE A 1

4 4 MCQ AE C 1

5 4 MCQ AE D 1

6 4 MCQ AE C 1

7 4 MCQ AE B 1

8 4 MCQ AE C 1

9 4 MCQ AE B 1

10 4 MCQ AE D 1

11 4 MCQ AE A 1

12 4 MCQ AE A 1

13 4 MCQ AE C 1

14 4 MCQ AE B 1

15 4 MCQ AE C 1

16 4 MCQ AE D 1

17 4 MCQ AE C 1

18 4 MCQ AE A 1

19 4 MCQ AE B 1

20 4 NAT AE 13.42 to 13.47 1

21 4 NAT AE -5.62 to -5.57 1

22 4 NAT AE 1.9 to 2.1 1

23 4 NAT AE 29.8 to 30.0 1

24 4 NAT AE 0.009 to 0.011 1

25 4 NAT AE 3.50 to 3.60 1

26 4 MCQ AE C 2

27 4 MCQ AE D 2

28 4 MCQ AE D 2

29 4 MCQ AE C 2

30 4 MCQ AE D 2

31 4 MCQ AE C 2

32 4 MCQ AE A 2

33 4 MCQ AE B 2

gate.iitd.ac.in/gate2020/AEKey.php 1/2
7/29/24, 5:34 PM GATE Official Website, IIT Delhi
34 4 MCQ AE B 2

35 4 NAT AE 0.9 to 1.1 2

36 4 NAT AE 0.010 to 0.012 2

37 4 NAT AE 0.92 to 0.94 2

38 4 NAT AE 0.009 to 0.011 2

39 4 NAT AE 1.9 to 2.1 2

40 4 NAT AE 4.00 to 4.20 2

41 4 NAT AE 1.29 to 1.38 2

42 4 NAT AE 3.55 to 3.58 2

43 4 NAT AE 0.016 to 0.018 2

44 4 NAT AE 55.20 to 55.33 2

45 4 NAT AE 25.60 to 25.70 2

46 4 NAT AE 149.0 to 151.0 2

47 4 NAT AE 1712.0 to 1719.0 2

48 4 NAT AE 91 to 93 2

49 4 NAT AE 87 to 89 2

50 4 NAT AE 27.0 to 27.2 2

51 4 NAT AE 1.43 to 1.45 2

52 4 NAT AE 0.61 to 0.63 2

53 4 NAT AE 3.74 to 3.76 2

54 4 NAT AE 62.95 to 63.08 2

55 4 NAT AE 57.10 to 60.00 2

Copyright : GATE 2020, IIT Delhi

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE mark each (for each wrong
answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 (i) Arun and Aparna are here.

(ii) Arun and Aparna is here.
(iii) Arun’s families is here.
(iv) Arun’s family is here.
Which of the above sentences are grammatically CORRECT?

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iv)

(C) (ii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.2

The mirror image of the above text about the x-axis is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.3
Two identical cube shaped dice each with faces numbered 1 to 6 are rolled
simultaneously. The probability that an even number is rolled out on each
dice is:

(A) 1
36
(B) 1
12
(C) 1
8
(D) 1
4

Q.4  and ⊙ are two operators on numbers p and q such that

𝒑 ⊙ 𝒒 = 𝒑 − 𝒒, and p  q = p  q
Then, (𝟗 ⊙ (𝟔 ⊕ 𝟕)) ⊙ (𝟕 ⊕ (𝟔 ⊙ 𝟓))=

(A) 40

(B) -26

(C) -33

(D) -40

Q.5 Four persons P, Q, R and S are to be seated in a row. R should not be seated
at the second position from the left end of the row. The number of distinct
seating arrangements possible is:

(A) 6

(B) 9

(C) 18

(D) 24

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong
answer: – 2/3).

Q.6 On a planar field, you travelled 3 units East from a point O. Next you
travelled 4 units South to arrive at point P. Then you travelled from P in the
North-East direction such that you arrive at a point that is 6 units East of
point O. Next, you travelled in the North-West direction, so that you arrive
at point Q that is 8 units North of point P.
The distance of point Q to point O, in the same units, should be _____

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

Q.7 The author said, “Musicians rehearse before their concerts. Actors rehearse
their roles before the opening of a new play. On the other hand, I find it
strange that many public speakers think they can just walk on to the stage
and start speaking. In my opinion, it is no less important for public speakers
to rehearse their talks.”
Based on the above passage, which one of the following is TRUE?

(A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is important for musicians, actors
and public speakers.

(B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is less important for public speakers
than for musicians and actors.

(C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsing is more important only for
musicians than public speakers.

(D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than
musicians.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.8 1. Some football players play cricket.

2. All cricket players play hockey.
Among the options given below, the statement that logically follows from
the two statements 1 and 2 above, is:

(A) No football player plays hockey.

(B) Some football players play hockey.

(C) All football players play hockey.

(D) All hockey players play football.

Q.9

In the figure shown above, PQRS is a square. The shaded portion is formed
by the intersection of sectors of circles with radius equal to the side of the
square and centers at S and Q.
The probability that any point picked randomly within the square falls in the
shaded area is ______

(A) 𝜋
4−
2
(B) 1
2
(C) 𝜋
− 1
2
(D) 𝜋
4

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.10 In an equilateral triangle PQR, side PQ is divided into four equal parts, side
QR is divided into six equal parts and side PR is divided into eight equal parts.
The length of each subdivided part in cm is an integer.
The minimum area of the triangle PQR possible, in cm2, is

(A) 18

(B) 24

(C) 48√3

(D) 144√3

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q. 1 – Q. 13 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry ONE marks each (for each wrong
answer: – 1/3).

Q.1 d2y dy
Consider the differential equation 2
+ 8 + 16 y = 0 and the boundary
dx dx
dy
conditions y(0) = 1 and (0) = 0 . The solution to this equation is:
dx

(A) y = (1 + 2 x)e−4 x

(B) y = (1 − 4 x)e−4 x

(C) y = (1 + 8 x)e−4 x

(D) y = (1 + 4 x)e−4 x

Q.2  2u  2u  2u
u( x, y) is governed by the following equation −4 + 6 2 = x + 2y .
x 2 xy y
The nature of this equation is:

(A) linear

(B) elliptic

(C) hyperbolic

(D) parabolic

Q.3 Consider the velocity field V = (2 x + 3 y )iˆ + (3 x + 2 y ) ˆj . The field V is

(A) divergence-free and curl-free

(B) curl-free but not divergence-free

(C) divergence-free but not curl-free

(D) neither divergence-free nor curl-free

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.4 The figure shows schematics of wave patterns at the exit of nozzles A and B
operating at different pressure ratios.

Nozzles A and B, respectively, are said to be operating in:

(A) over-expanded mode and under-expanded mode

(B) under-expanded mode and perfectly expanded mode

(C) perfectly expanded mode and under-expanded mode

(D) under-expanded mode and over-expanded mode

Q.5 The combustion process in a turbo-shaft engine during ideal operation is:

(A) isentropic

(B) isobaric

(C) isochoric

(D) isothermal

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.6 How does the specific thrust of a turbojet engine change for a given flight
speed with increase in flight altitude?

(A) Increases monotonically

(B) Decreases monotonically

(C) Remains constant

(D) First increases and then decreases

Q.7 How does the propulsion efficiency of a turbofan engine, operating at a

given Mach number and a given altitude, change with increase in
compressor pressure ratio?

(A) Remains constant

(B) Increases monotonically

(C) Decreases monotonically

(D) First decreases and then increases

Q.8 A solid propellant rocket producing 25 MN thrust is fired for 150 seconds.
The specific impulse of the rocket is 2980 Ns/kg. How much propellant is
burned during the rocket operation?

(A) 8390 kg

(B) 82300 kg

(C) 1.26 x 106 kg

(D) 11.2 x 106 kg

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.9 The shape of a supersonic diffuser that slows down a supersonic flow to
subsonic flow is

(A) converging

(B) diverging

(C) diverging–converging

(D) converging–diverging

Q.10 Uniaxial tension test (see the figure) is conducted on two different samples
prepared with homogeneous, isotropic materials. One of the materials is
brittle, whereas the other is ductile.

Assuming that there is no stress concentration at loading points, the failure

would initiate:

(A) along x-x in both materials

(B) along x-x in brittle material and along y-y in ductile material

(C) along y-y in brittle material and along x-x in ductile material

(D) along y-y in both materials

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Q.11 For the state of stress as shown in the figure, what is the orientation of the
plane with maximum shear stress with respect to the x-axis?

(A) 45o

(B) -45o

(C) 22.5o

(D) -22.5o

Q.12 Let VTAS be the true airspeed of an aircraft flying at a certain altitude
where the density of air is  and VEAS be the equivalent airspeed. If 0 is
V
the density of air at sea-level, what is the ratio TAS equal to?
VEAS

(A) 
0

(B) 0


(C) 0


(D) 
0

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.13 𝑪𝒎 − 𝜶 variation for a certain aircraft is shown in the figure. Which one of
the following statements is true for this aircraft?

(A) The aircraft can trim at a positive 𝛼 and it is stable.

(B) The aircraft can trim at a positive 𝛼, but it is unstable.

(C) The aircraft can trim at a negative 𝛼 and it is stable.

(D) The aircraft can trim at a negative 𝛼, but it is unstable.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.14 – Q.16 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry ONE mark each (no negative
marks).

Q.14 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true across an oblique shock (in
adiabatic conditions) over a wedge shown below?

(A) Total pressure decreases

(B) Mach number based on velocity tangential to the shock decreases

(C) Total temperature remains constant

(D) Mach number based on velocity tangential to the shock remains the same and
that based on velocity normal to the shock decreases

Q.15 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regards to Kutta
condition for flow past airfoils?

(A) It is utilized to determine the circulation on an airfoil.

(B) It is applicable only to airfoils with sharp trailing edge.

(C) The trailing edge of an airfoil is a stagnation point.

(D) The flow leaves the trailing edge smoothly.

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Q.16 According to the thin airfoil theory, which of the following statement(s)
is/are true for a cambered airfoil?

(A) The lift coefficient for an airfoil is directly proportional to the absolute angle of
attack.

(B) The aerodynamic center lies at quarter chord point.

(C) The center of pressure lies at quarter chord point.

(D) Drag coefficient is proportional to the square of lift coefficient.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.17 – Q.25 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry ONE mark each (no negative
marks).

Q.17  1 1
lim  −  = ___________ (round off to nearest integer).

x →0 sin x x

Q.18 Given that  is the unit circle in the counter-clockwise direction with its
𝑧3
center at origin, the integral ∮ς 4𝑧−𝑖 𝑑𝑧= _______ (round off to three decimal
place).

Q.19 A single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system is designed to

ensure that the system returns to its original undisturbed position in
minimum possible time without overshooting. If the mass of the system is
10 kg, spring stiffness is 17400 N/m and the natural frequency is 13.2
rad/s, the coefficient of damping of the system in Ns/m is _________ (round
off to nearest integer).

Q.20 Two cantilever beams (Beam 1 and Beam 2) are made of same
homogenous material and have identical cross sections. Beam 1 has length
l and Beam 2 has length 2l. Ratio of the first natural frequency of Beam 1
to that of Beam 2 is ______ (round off to nearest integer).

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.21 A free vortex filament (oriented along Z-axis) of strength K = 5 m2/s is

placed at the origin as shown in the figure. The circulation around the
closed loop ABCDEFA for this flow is ________ .

Q.22 A thin-walled cylindrical tank with closed ends, made of homogeneous and
isotropic material, is pressurized internally. If the hoop (circumferential)
strain developed in the material is thrice the value of the axial strain then
the Poisson’s ratio of the material is __________ (correct up to one decimal
place).

Q.23 A jet aircraft has the following specifications: wing loading = 1800 N/m2,
wing area = 30 m2, drag polar 𝑪𝑫 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐 + 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝑪𝟐𝑳 , and 𝑪𝑳,𝒎𝒂𝒙 = 𝟏. 𝟔.
Take density of air at sea level as 1.225 kg/m3.
The speed at which the aircraft achieves maximum endurance in a steady
and level flight at sea level is _______ m/s (round off to two decimal places).

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.24 An aircraft with twin jet engines has the following specifications:
Thrust produced (per engine) = 8000 N
Spanwise distance between the two engines = 10 m
Wing area = 50 m2, Wing span = 10 m
Rudder effectiveness, 𝑪𝒏𝜹𝒓 = −𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟐 /deg
Density of air at sea level = 1.225 kg/m3
The rudder deflection, in degrees, required to maintain zero sideslip at 100
m/s in steady and level flight at sea level with a non-functional right engine
is ________ (round off to two decimal places).

Q.25 The velocity required to launch a space shuttle from the surface of the
earth to achieve a circular orbit of 250 km altitude is _______ (round off to
two decimal places).
For earth, 𝑮𝒎𝒆 = 𝟑𝟗𝟖, 𝟔𝟎𝟎. 𝟒 km3/s2 and surface radius 𝑹𝟎 = 𝟔𝟑𝟕𝟖. 𝟏𝟒
km.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.26 – Q.30 Multiple Choice Question (MCQ), carry TWO marks each (for each wrong
answer: – 2/3).

Q.26 A rigid massless rod pinned at one end has a mass m attached to its other
end. The rod is supported by a linear spring of stiffness k as shown in the
figure.

The natural frequency of this system is:

(A) 1 kL2
2 4m( L2 + H 2 )

(B) 1 kL2
2 m( L2 + H 2 )

(C) 1 4kL2
2 m( L2 + H 2 )

(D) 1 k ( L2 + H 2 )
2 4mL2

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.27 The figure shows three glasses P, Q and R with water and floating ice cube.
Glass P has a solid ice cube, glass Q has an ice cube with a small solid steel
ball embedded in it and glass R has an ice cube with an air bubble. After
the ice cube melts, the level of water in glasses P, Q and R, respectively:

(A) remains same, increases, and decreases

(B) increases, decreases, and increases

(C) remains same, decreases, and decreases

(D) remains same, decreases, and increases

Q.28 To estimate aerodynamic loads on an aircraft flying at 100 km/h at

standard sea-level conditions, a one-fifth scale model is tested in a variable-
density wind tunnel ensuring similarity of inertial and viscous forces. The
pressure used in the wind tunnel is 10 times the atmospheric pressure.
Assuming ideal gas law to hold and the same temperature conditions in
model and prototype, the velocity needed in the wind tunnel test-section is
______________.

(A) 25 km/h

(B) 50 km/h

(C) 100 km/h

(D) 20 km/h

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.29 The figure shows schematic of a set-up for visualization of non-uniform

density field in the test section of a supersonic wind tunnel. This technique
of visualization of high speed flows is known as:

(A) schlieren

(B) interferometry

(C) shadowgraph

(D) holography

Q.30 For a conventional fixed-wing aircraft in a 𝟑𝟔𝟎° inverted vertical loop

maneuver, what is the load factor (n) at the topmost point of the loop?
Assume the flight to be steady at the topmost point.

(A) n =1

(B) n 1

(C) n = −1

(D) n  −1

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.31 – Q.36 Multiple Select Question (MSQ), carry TWO mark each (no negative
marks).

Q.31 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the function defined
as f ( x) = e− x | cos x | for x  0 ?

(A) 
Differentiable at x =
2

(B) Differentiable at x = 

(C) 3
Differentiable at x =
2

(D) Continuous at x = 2

Q.32 A two degree of freedom spring-mass system undergoing free vibration

with generalized coordinates x1 and x2 has natural frequencies 1 =233.9
rad/s and 2 =324.5 rad/s, respectively. The corresponding mode shapes
 1   1 
are 1 =   and 2 =   . If the system is disturbed with certain
 −3.16  3.16 
deflections and zero initial velocities, then which of the following
statement(s) is/are true?

(A) An initial deflection of x1 (0) = 6.32 cm and x2 (0) = −3.16 cm would make the
system oscillate with only the second natural frequency.

(B) An initial deflection of x1 (0) = 2 cm and x2 (0) = −6.32 cm would make the
system oscillate with only the first natural frequency.

(C) An initial deflection of x1 (0) = 2 cm and x2 (0) = −2 cm would make the system
oscillate with a linear combination of first and second natural frequencies.

(D) An initial deflection of x1 (0) = 1 cm and x2 (0) = −6.32 cm would make the
system oscillate with only the first natural frequency.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.33 A shock moving into a stationary gas can be transformed to a stationary

shock by a change in reference frame, as shown in the figure. Which of the
following is/are true relating the flow properties in the two reference
frames?

(A) 𝑇1′ > 𝑇1, 𝑇01

′ ′
> 𝑇01, 𝑝01 > 𝑝01 , 𝜌2′ > 𝜌1′

(B) 𝑇1′ = 𝑇1, 𝑇2′ < 𝑇01 , 𝑝01

′
> 𝑝01 , 𝜌2′ = 𝜌2

(C) 𝑇1′ < 𝑇1, 𝑝1′ > 𝑝1, 𝑝01

′
> 𝑝01 , 𝜌2′ > 𝜌1

(D) 𝑇1′ = 𝑇1, 𝑝2 > 𝑝01 , 𝑇01

′ ′
> 𝑇01 , 𝑝01 > 𝑝01

Q.34 For a conventional fixed-wing aircraft, which of the following statements

are true?

(A) Making 𝐶𝑚𝛼 more negative leads to an increase in the frequency of its short-
period mode.

(B) Making 𝐶𝑚𝑞 more negative leads to a decreased damping of the short-period
mode.

(C) The primary contribution towards 𝐶𝑙𝑝 is from the aircraft wing.

(D) Increasing the size of the vertical fin leads to a higher yaw damping.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) Service ceiling is higher than absolute ceiling for a piston-propeller aircraft.

(B) For a given aircraft, the stall speed increases with increase in altitude.

(C) Everything else remaining the same, a tailwind increases the range of an
aircraft.

(D) For a jet aircraft constrained to fly at constant altitude, there exists an altitude
where its range is maximum.

Q.36 A conventional fixed-wing aircraft, with a horizontal tail and vertical fin,
in steady and level flight is subjected to small perturbations. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) Vertical fin has a stabilizing effect on the lateral stability of the aircraft.

(B) Vertical fin has a destabilizing effect on the directional stability of the aircraft.

(C) Presence of wing anhedral increases the lateral stability of the aircraft.

(D) Horizontal tail has a stabilizing effect on the longitudinal static stability of the
aircraft.

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.37 – Q.55 Numerical Answer Type (NAT), carry TWO mark each (no negative
marks).

Q.37 The ratio of the product of eigenvalues to the sum of the eigenvalues of the
given matrix
3 1 2 
 2 −3 −1 is ______ (round off to nearest integer).
 
1 2 1 

5
Q.38
 x dx
2
The definite integral is evaluated using four equal intervals by two
1
methods – first by the trapezoidal rule and then by the Simpson’s one-
third rule. The absolute value of the difference between the two
calculations is _______ (round off to two decimal places).

Q.39 The deflection y of a certain beam of length l and uniform weight per

unit length w , is given as y =

w
48EI
( )
2 x 4 − 3lx3 + l 3 x , where x is the distance
from the point of support and EI is a constant. The non-dimensional
x
location , where the deflection of the beam is maximum, is _____ (round
l
off to two decimal places).

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.40 A large water tank is fixed on a cart with wheels and a vane (see figure).
The wheels of the cart provide negligible resistance for rolling on the fixed
support. The cart is tied to the fixed support with a thin horizontal rope.
There is a hole of diameter 5 cm on the side of the tank through which a
jet of constant velocity of 10 m/s emerges. The jet of water is deflected by
the attached vane by 60o (see figure). Assume that the jet velocity remains
constant at 10 m/s after emerging from the vane. Take density of water to
be 1000 kg/m3. The tension in the connecting rope is _____ N (round off to
one decimal place).

Q.41 A finite wing of elliptic planform with aspect ratio 10, whose section is a
symmetric airfoil, is placed in a uniform flow at 5 degrees angle of attack.
The induced drag coefficient for the wing is ______ (round off to three
decimal places).

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.42 Consider a model of a boundary layer with the following velocity profile:
 y 2
u   y 
=   
U 
 1 y 
The shape factor, defined as the ratio of the displacement thickness to
momentum thickness, for this profile is _____ (round off to 2 decimal
places).

Q.43 An aircraft with a turbojet engine is flying at 270 m/s. The enthalpy of the
incoming air at the intake is 260 kJ/kg and the enthalpy of the exhaust
gases at the nozzle exit is 912 kJ/kg. The ratio of mass flow rates of fuel
and air is equal to 0.019. The chemical energy (heating value) of fuel is
44.5 MJ/kg and the combustion process is ideal. The total loss of heat from
the engine to the ambient is 25 kJ per kg of air. The velocity of the exhaust
jet is __________m/s (round off to two decimal places).

Q.44 Hot gases are generated at a temperature of 2100 K and a pressure of 14

MPa in a rocket chamber. The hot gases are expanded ideally to the
ambient pressure of 0.1 MPa in a convergent-divergent nozzle having a
throat area of 0.1 m2. The molecular mass of the gas is 22 kg/kmol. The
ratio of specific heats () of the gas is 1.32. The value of the universal gas
constant (R0) is 8314 J/kmol-K. The acceleration due to gravity, g, is 9.8
m/s2. The specific impulse of the rocket is _______ seconds (round off to
two decimal places).

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.45 A twin-spool turbofan engine is operated at sea level (Pa = 1 bar, Ta = 288
K). The engine has separate cold and hot nozzles. During static thrust test
at sea level, the overall mass flow rate of air through the engine and the
cold exhaust temperature are measured to be 100 kg/s and 288 K,
respectively. The parameters for the engine are:
Fan pressure ratio = 1.6
Overall pressure ratio = 20
Bypass ratio = 3.0
Turbine entry temperature = 1800 K.
The specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) is 1.005 kJ/kg-K and the ratio of
specific heats ( ) is 1.4 for air.
Assuming ideal fan and ideal expansion in the nozzle, the sea-level static
thrust from the cold nozzle is _____________ kN (round off to two decimal
places).

Q.46 At the design conditions, the velocity triangle at the mean radius of a single
stage axial compressor is such that the blade angle at the rotor exit is equal
to 𝟑𝟎°. The absolute velocities at the rotor inlet and exit are equal to 140
m/s and 240 m/s, respectively. The flow velocities relative to the rotor at
inlet and exit of the rotor are equal to 240 m/s and 140 m/s, respectively.

The blade speed (U) at the mean radius of the rotor is __________ m/s
(round off to two decimal places).

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 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.47 A single stage axial turbine has a mean blade speed of 340 m/s at design
condition with blade angles at inlet and exit of the rotor being 𝟐𝟏° and 𝟓𝟓°,
respectively. The degree of reaction at the mean radius of the rotor is
equal to 0.4. The annulus area at the rotor inlet is 0.08 m2 and the density
of gas at the rotor inlet is 0.9 kg/m3. The flow rate through the turbine at
these conditions is __________ kg/s (round off to two decimal places).

Q.48 The air flow rate through the gas generator of a turboprop engine is 100
kg/s. The stagnation temperatures at inlet and exit of the combustor are
600 K and 1200 K, respectively. The burner efficiency is 90% and the
heating value of the fuel is 40 MJ/kg. The specific heats at constant
pressure (Cp) for air and burned gases are 1000 J/kg-K and 1200 J/kg-K,
respectively. The flow rate of the fuel being used is _____________ kg/s
(round off to two decimal places).
(Note: Do not neglect the fuel flow rate with respect to the air flow rate)

AE - Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 28 of 32

 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.49 A rigid horizontal bar ABC, with roller support at A, is pinned to the
columns BD and CE at points B and C, respectively as shown in figure.
The other end of the column BD is fixed at D, whereas the column CE is
pinned at E. A vertical load P is applied on the bar at a distance ‘a’ from
point B.
The two columns are made of steel with elastic modulus 200 GPa and have
a cross section of 1.5 cm x 1.5 cm. The value of ‘a’ for which both columns
buckle simultaneously, is ____________ cm (round off to one decimal
place).

AE - Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 29 of 32

 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.50 A two-cell wing box is shown in the figure. The cell walls are 1.5 mm thick
and the shear modulus G = 27 GPa. If the structure is subjected to a
torque of 12 kNm, then the wall AD will experience a shear stress of
magnitude _________ MPa (round off to one decimal place).

Q.51 Two cantilever beams AB and DC are in contact with each other at their
free ends through a roller as shown in the figure. Both beams have a
square cross section of 50 mm x 50 mm, and the elastic modulus E = 70
GPa. If beam AB is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m,
then the compressive force experienced by the roller is ___________ kN
(round off to one decimal place).

AE - Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 30 of 32

 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.52 A 3 m x 1 m signboard is supported by a vertical hollow pole that is fixed

to the ground. The pole has a square cross section with outer dimension
250 mm. The yield strength of the pole material is 240 MPa. To sustain a
wind pressure of 7.5 kPa, the dimension d of the pole is _________ mm
(round off to nearest integer).
(Neglect the effect of transverse shear and load due to wind pressure
acting on the pole)

Q.53 An airplane weighing 5500 kg is in a steady level flight with a speed of 225
m/s. The pilot initiates a steady pull-up maneuver with a radius of
curvature of 775 m. The location of center of gravity (CG), center of
pressure on wing (CP) and point of action (T) of tail force are marked in
the figure. Use g = 9.81 m/s2. Neglect drag on the tail and assume that tail
force is vertical. Assuming the engine thrust and drag to be equal, opposite
and collinear, the tail force is_____________ kN (round off to one decimal
place).

AE - Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 31 of 32

 Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Q.54 A jet aircraft weighing 10,000 kg has an elliptic wing with a span of 10 m
and area 30 m2. The 𝑪𝑫𝟎 for the aircraft is 0.025. The maximum speed of
the aircraft in steady and level flight at sea level is 100 m/s. The density of
air at sea level is 1.225 kg/m3, and take g = 10 m/s2. The maximum thrust
developed by the engine at sea level is ______ N (round off to two decimal
places).

Q.55 Consider a jet transport airplane with the following specifications:

𝝏𝑪𝑳𝒘𝒃
Lift curve slope for wing-body = 𝟎. 𝟏 /deg
𝝏𝜶𝒘𝒃
𝝏𝑪𝑳𝒕
Lift curve slope for tail = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟔𝟖 /deg
𝝏𝜶𝒕
Tail area 𝑺𝒕 = 𝟖𝟎 m2
Wing area 𝑺 = 𝟑𝟓𝟎 m2
Distance between mean aerodynamic centers of tail and wing-body
𝒍̅𝒕 = 𝟐𝟖 m
Mean aerodynamic chord 𝒄̅ = 𝟗 m
Downwash 𝝐 = 𝟎. 𝟒𝜶
Axial location of the wing-body mean aerodynamic center 𝒙𝒂𝒄 /𝒄̅ = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓
Axial location of the center of gravity 𝒙𝒄𝒈 /𝒄̅ = 𝟎. 𝟑
All axial locations are with respect to the leading edge of the root chord
and along the body x-axis. Ignore propulsive effects.
The pitching-moment-coefficient curve slope (𝑪𝒎𝜶 ) is ________ /deg
(round off to three decimal places).

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE - Copyright © GATE 2021 Page 32 of 32

 GATE 2021 Answer Keys for Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE 2021)

Answer Keys and Marks for Subject/Paper: Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Question Type Section Answer Negative

Q. No. Session Marks
MCQ/MSQ/NAT Name Key/Range Marks

1 2 MCQ GA B 1 1/3

2 2 MCQ GA B 1 1/3

3 2 MCQ GA D 1 1/3

4 2 MCQ GA D 1 1/3

5 2 MCQ GA C 1 1/3

6 2 MCQ GA C 2 2/3

7 2 MCQ GA A 2 2/3

8 2 MCQ GA B 2 2/3

9 2 MCQ GA C 2 2/3

10 2 MCQ GA D 2 2/3

1 2 MCQ AE D 1 1/3

2 2 MCQ AE B 1 1/3

3 2 MCQ AE B 1 1/3

4 2 MCQ AE A 1 1/3

5 2 MCQ AE B 1 1/3

6 2 MCQ AE A 1 1/3

7 2 MCQ AE D 1 1/3

8 2 MCQ AE C 1 1/3

9 2 MCQ AE D 1 1/3

10 2 MCQ AE B 1 1/3
 GATE 2021 Answer Keys for Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Question Type Section Answer Negative

Q. No. Session Marks
MCQ/MSQ/NAT Name Key/Range Marks

11 2 MCQ AE D 1 1/3

12 2 MCQ AE C 1 1/3

13 2 MCQ AE B 1 1/3

14 2 MSQ AE A; B; C 1 0

15 2 MSQ AE A; B; D 1 0

16 2 MSQ AE A; B 1 0

17 2 NAT AE 0 to 0 1 0

18 2 NAT AE 0.02 to 0.03 1 0

264 to 264 OR
19 2 NAT AE 1 0
833 to 835
20 2 NAT AE 4 to 4 1 0

21 2 NAT AE 0 to 0 1 0

22 2 NAT AE 0.2 to 0.2 1 0

23 2 NAT AE 64.30 to 64.60 1 0

24 2 NAT AE 6.50 to 6.60 1 0

7.75 to 7.77 OR
25 2 NAT AE 7750.00 to 1 0
7770.00

26 2 MCQ AE A 2 2/3

27 2 MCQ AE C 2 2/3

28 2 MCQ AE B 2 2/3

29 2 MCQ AE C 2 2/3

30 2 MCQ AE D 2 2/3

31 2 MSQ AE B; D 2 0

32 2 MSQ AE B; C 2 0
 GATE 2021 Answer Keys for Aerospace Engineering (AE)

Question Type Section Answer Negative

Q. No. Session Marks
MCQ/MSQ/NAT Name Key/Range Marks

33 2 MSQ AE D 2 0

34 2 MSQ AE A; C; D 2 0

35 2 MSQ AE B; C; D 2 0

36 2 MSQ AE A; D 2 0

37 2 NAT AE 8 to 8 2 0

38 2 NAT AE 0.66 to 0.68 2 0

39 2 NAT AE 0.41 to 0.43 2 0

40 2 NAT AE 98.0 to 98.5 2 0

41 2 NAT AE 0.005 to 0.009 2 0

42 2 NAT AE 4.8 to 5.2 2 0

43 2 NAT AE 605 to 607 2 0

44 2 NAT AE 216 to 220 2 0

45 2 NAT AE 20 to 22 2 0

46 2 NAT AE 274 to 282 2 0

47 2 NAT AE 18.0 to 19.5 2 0

48 2 NAT AE 2.35 to 2.50 2 0

49 2 NAT AE 14.0 to 16.0 2 0

50 2 NAT AE 2.1 to 2.5 2 0

51 2 NAT AE 2.2 to 2.6 2 0

52 2 NAT AE 232 to 238 2 0

53 2 NAT AE 14.8 to 15.2 2 0

54 2 NAT AE 9735 to 9797 2 0

55 2 NAT AE -0.025 to -0.023 2 0

GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The fishermen, _______ the flood victims owed their lives, were rewarded by the
government.

(A) whom (B) to which (C) to whom (D) that

Q.2 Some students were not involved in the strike.

If the above statement is true, which of the following conclusions is/are logically
necessary?

1. Some who were involved in the strike were students.

2. No student was involved in the strike.
3. At least one student was involved in the strike.
4. Some who were not involved in the strike were students.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2 and 3

Q.3 The radius as well as the height of a circular cone increases by 10%. The percentage
increase in its volume is ______.

(A) 17.1 (B) 21.0 (C) 33.1 (D) 72.8

Q.4 Five numbers 10, 7, 5, 4 and 2 are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right following
the directions given below:
1. No two odd or even numbers are next to each other.
2. The second number from the left is exactly half of the left-most number.
3. The middle number is exactly twice the right-most number.

Which is the second number from the right?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 10

Q.5 Until Iran came along, India had never been ________________ in kabaddi.

(A) defeated (B) defeating (C) defeat (D) defeatist

GA 1/3
GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Since the last one year, after a 125 basis point reduction in repo rate by the Reserve Bank
of India, banking institutions have been making a demand to reduce interest rates on small
saving schemes. Finally, the government announced yesterday a reduction in interest rates
on small saving schemes to bring them on par with fixed deposit interest rates.

Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage?

(A) Whenever the Reserve Bank of India reduces the repo rate, the interest rates on small
saving schemes are also reduced
(B) Interest rates on small saving schemes are always maintained on par with fixed deposit
interest rates
(C) The government sometimes takes into consideration the demands of banking
institutions before reducing the interest rates on small saving schemes
(D) A reduction in interest rates on small saving schemes follow only after a reduction in
repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India

Q.7 In a country of 1400 million population, 70% own mobile phones. Among the mobile
phone owners, only 294 million access the Internet. Among these Internet users, only half
buy goods from e-commerce portals. What is the percentage of these buyers in the country?

(A) 10.50 (B) 14.70 (C) 15.00 (D) 50.00

Q.8 The nomenclature of Hindustani music has changed over the centuries. Since the medieval
period dhrupad styles were identified as baanis. Terms like gayaki and baaj were used to
refer to vocal and instrumental styles, respectively. With the institutionalization of music
education the term gharana became acceptable. Gharana originally referred to hereditary
musicians from a particular lineage, including disciples and grand disciples.

Which one of the following pairings is NOT correct?

(A) dhrupad, baani

(B) gayaki, vocal
(C) baaj, institution
(D) gharana, lineage

Q.9 Two trains started at 7AM from the same point. The first train travelled north at a speed of
80km/h and the second train travelled south at a speed of 100 km/h. The time at which they
were 540 km apart is ______ AM.

(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 11.30

GA 2/3
GATE 2019 General Aptitude (GA) Set-8

Q.10 “I read somewhere that in ancient times the prestige of a kingdom depended upon the
number of taxes that it was able to levy on its people. It was very much like the prestige of
a head-hunter in his own community.”

Based on the paragraph above, the prestige of a head-hunter depended upon ___________

(A) the prestige of the kingdom

(B) the prestige of the heads
(C) the number of taxes he could levy
(D) the number of heads he could gather

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 3/3
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The maximum value of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥𝑒 −𝑥 (where x is real) is
(A) 1/𝑒 (B) 2/𝑒 2 (C) (𝑒 −1/2 )/2 (D) ∞

Q.2 Vector 𝑏⃗ is obtained by rotating 𝑎 = 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ by 900 about 𝑘̂, where 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂ and 𝑘̂ are unit vectors
along the x, y and z axes, respectively. 𝑏⃗ is given by
(A) 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ (B) −𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ (C) 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ (D) −𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂

Q.3 A scalar function is given by 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2. Take 𝑖̂ and 𝑗̂ as unit vectors along the x
and y axes, respectively. At (𝑥, 𝑦) = (3, 4), the direction along which 𝑓 increases the
fastest is
1 1 1 1
(A) 5 (4𝑖̂ − 3𝑗̂) (B) 5 (3𝑖̂ − 4𝑗̂) (C) 5 (3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂) (D) 5 (4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂)

Q.4 The dimensions of kinematic viscosity of a fluid (where L is length, T is time) are
(A) LT 1 (B) L2T 1 (C) LT 2 (D) L2T

Q.5 𝜙(𝑥, 𝑦) represents the velocity potential of a two-dimensional flow with velocity field
⃗ = 𝑢(𝑥, 𝑦) 𝑖̂ + 𝑣(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑗̂, where 𝑖̂ and 𝑗̂ are unit vectors along the x and y axes,
𝑉
respectively. Which of the following is necessarily true?
(A) ∇2 𝜙 = 0 ⃗ =0
(B) ∇ × 𝑉
⃗ =0
(C) ∇ ⋅ 𝑉 (D) 𝑢 = −𝜕𝜙/𝜕𝑦, 𝑣 = 𝜕𝜙/𝜕𝑥

Q.6 For a quasi-one-dimensional isentropic supersonic flow through a diverging duct, which of
the following is true in the direction of the flow?
(A) Both the Mach number and the static temperature increase.
(B) The Mach number increases and the static temperature decreases.
(C) The Mach number decreases and the static temperature increases.
(D) Both the Mach number and the static temperature decrease.

Q.7 For a NACA2415 airfoil of chord length c, which of the following is true?
(A) Maximum camber is located at 0.2c from the leading edge.
(B) Maximum thickness is located at 0.15c from the leading edge.
(C) Maximum camber is 0.02c.
(D) Maximum thickness is 0.05c.

AE 1/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.8 When a propeller airplane in ground-roll during take-off experiences headwind, which of
the following statements is FALSE?
(A) The drag on the airplane increases. (B) The thrust from the propellers decreases.
(C) The wing lift increases. (D) The ground-roll distance increases.

Q.9 Which of the following graphs represents the response of a dynamically unstable airplane?

(A) (B)

(D)
(C)

Q.10 The propulsive efficiency of a ramjet engine is lower than that of a low bypass turbofan
engine operating under the same conditions and producing the same thrust, primarily
because the ramjet engine
(A) has larger kinetic energy lost in the exhaust jet.
(B) has lower thrust power.
(C) is not self-starting.
(D) has higher thrust to weight ratio.

Q.11 While flying at Mach 2.0, 11 km altitude and producing the same thrust, what is the correct
order from the lowest thrust specific fuel consumption (tsfc) to the highest tsfc?
(A) Turbofan, Ramjet, Turbojet (B) Turbofan, Turbojet, Ramjet
(C) Ramjet, Turbojet, Turbofan (D) Turbojet, Turbofan, Ramjet

AE 2/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.12 For a single stage subsonic compressor, which of the following statements about the
highest possible compressor pressure ratio (CPR) is correct?
(A) CPR of an axial compressor > CPR of centrifugal compressor.
(B) CPR of an axial compressor < CPR of centrifugal compressor.
(C) CPR of an axial compressor = CPR of centrifugal compressor.
(D) CPR of any value can be attained with either an axial or a centrifugal compressor.

Q.13 For a beam subjected to a transverse shear load through its shear center,
(A) the twist per unit length is zero.
(B) the shear stress is uniform throughout the cross-section.
(C) the bending stresses in the cross section are zero.
(D) the shear strain is zero at the shear center.

Q.14 A function 𝑓(𝑥) is defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 1 (𝑥 + |𝑥|). The value of

2
1

∫ 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
−1
is _______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Q.15 The value of the following limit is ________ (round off to 2 decimal places).

𝜃 − sin 𝜃
lim
𝜃→0 𝜃3

Q.16 To simulate the aerodynamic forces on a cylinder of 1 m diameter due to a uniform air flow
of 1 m/s at standard temperature and pressure (STP), low-speed wind tunnel experiments at
STP are conducted on a 0.1 m diameter cylinder. The free stream air speed in the wind
tunnel experiments should be _______ m/s (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.17 The power-off glide range for an airplane with a maximum Lift to Drag ratio of 18, when
the glide starts at an altitude of 4 km, is ______ km (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.18 For an airplane flying in a vertical plane, the angle of attack is 3o, the horizontal and
vertical components of velocity in wind axis are 300 km/h and 15.72 km/h, respectively.
The pitch attitude of the airplane is _______ degrees (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.19 An airplane is in steady level flight with a true air speed of 50 m/s. The ambient air density
and ambient pressure at the flight altitude are 0.91 kg/m3 and 7×104 N/m2, respectively. At
sea level, air density is 1.225 kg/m3 and ambient pressure is 1.01×105 N/m2. The equivalent
or indicated air speed of the airplane is ________ m/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

AE 3/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.20 For the complete combustion of 1 mole of ethanol (C2H5OH), the required number of
moles of oxygen is ________.

Q.21 One kg of diatomic gas is heated and its temperature increases from 100 K to 600 K. The
energy added at constant pressure during this process is 500 kJ. The specific heat at
constant volume for the gas is ____________ kJ/kgK. (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.22 The number of independent elastic constants for a homogeneous isotropic linear elastic
material is ________.

Q.23 A thin plate with Young’s modulus 210 GPa and Poisson’s ratio 0.3 is loaded as shown in
the figure. The change in length along the y-direction is __________ mm (round off to 1
decimal place).

Q.24 For the state of stress shown in the figure, the normal stress, 𝜎𝑛 , on a plane inclined at 45
degrees to the x-axis is _________ MPa (round off to the nearest integer).

AE 4/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.25 In the spring-mass system, shown in the figure, mass m = 3 kg and the spring stiffness k =
20 kN/m. The natural frequency of the system is _______ Hz (round off to the nearest
integer).

AE 5/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 The following system of equations

2𝑥 − 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 0,
−𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = 0,
−𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 0
(A) has no solution. (B) has a unique solution.
(C) has three solutions. (D) has an infinite number of solutions.

Q.27 A supersonic flow in a constant area duct at Mach number M1 encounters a ramp of angle
θ1 (see Figure 1). The resulting oblique shock with shock angle β1 is then reflected from the
top wall. For the reflected shock, the turn angle is θ2 and the shock angle is β2.

Figure 1 Figure 2

Use the weak shock solution from the θ-β-M plot shown in Figure 2 to choose the correct
option from the following.
(A) β1 > β2 (B) β1 < β2 (C) θ1 > θ2 (D) θ1 < θ2

Q.28 Which of the following statements about adverse yaw of an airplane is/are correct?
P. It is caused by flow separation resulting from large rudder deflection.
Q. It is caused by dissimilar drag forces acting on the two halves of the wing resulting
from aileron deflections of same magnitude.
R. It can be eliminated by ensuring that the upward deflection of one aileron is greater
than the downward deflection of the opposite aileron.
(A) P only (B) Q only (C) P and R (D) Q and R

Q.29 In a turbojet engine, the compressor outlet temperature increases with decreasing efficiency
of the compressor. If the turbine inlet temperature remains constant, with decreasing
efficiency of the compressor, the thrust specific fuel consumption of the engine
(A) decreases, as the heat input is lower.
(B) remains unchanged.
(C) increases, as the compressor needs more work input from the turbine.
(D) decreases, as the thrust produced is higher.

AE 6/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.30 For a 1 m long simply supported beam with a concentrated vertical load of 200 N and a
concentrated bending moment of 100 Nm at the center as shown in the figure, the correct
bending moment diagram is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.31 For real x, the number of points of intersection between the curves 𝑦 = 𝑥 and 𝑦 = cos 𝑥 is
_________.

Q.32 One of the eigenvalues of the following matrix is 1.

𝑥 2
( )
−1 3
The other eigenvalue is _______.

Q.33 The curve 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥) is such that its slope is equal to 𝑦 2 for all real x. If the curve passes
through (1, -1), the value of y at 𝑥 = −2 is _______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

AE 7/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.34 The inviscid, incompressible flow field resulting from a uniform flow past a circular
cylinder of radius R centered at the origin is given by:
 R2   R2 
ur  U  1  2  cos  u  U  1  2  sin 
 r   r 

where 𝑢𝑟 and 𝑢𝜃 are the radial and azimuthal velocity components in polar coordinates, (r,
), as shown in the figure. U is the free stream speed. Ignore the effects of gravity. The
azimuthal location (in the first quadrant) on the cylinder at which the pressure coefficient is
zero is _______ degrees (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.35 A cylindrical container of radius R = 50 cm is filled with water up to a height ho. Upon
rotating the cylinder about its central axis at a constant angular speed, the free surface takes
a parabolic shape (see figure), and is displaced upwards by h1 = 10 cm at r = R. The
magnitude of the downward displacement h2 of the free surface at r = 0 is ________ cm
(round off to the nearest integer).

Q.36 A two-dimensional, incompressible fluid flow is described by the stream function Ψ = 𝑥𝑦 3

m2/s on the Cartesian x-y plane. If the density and dynamic viscosity of the fluid are 1 kg/m3
and 0.1 kg/m-s, respectively, the magnitude of the pressure gradient in the x direction at
x=1 m and y=1 m is _______ N/m3 (round off to 1 decimal place).

AE 8/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.37 The static pressure ratio across a stationary normal shock is given by
𝑝2 2𝛾
= 1+ (𝑀2 − 1),
𝑝1 𝛾+1 1
where M1 is the upstream Mach number. For a stationary normal shock in air (𝛾 = 1.4, 𝑅 =
287 J/kg-K) with upstream flow conditions given by: speed 800 m/s, static temperature
300 K and static pressure 1 atm., the static pressure downstream of the shock is
__________ atm. (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.38 For a symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack of 10o, assuming thin airfoil theory, the
magnitude of the pitching moment coefficient about the leading edge is__________
(round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.39 The span-wise distribution of circulation over a finite wing of span b = 10 m is

2𝑦 2
Γ(𝑦) = Γ0 √1 − ( )
𝑏
2
If Γ0 = 20 𝑚 /𝑠 and the free stream density and speed are 1.2 kg/m3 and 100 m/s,
respectively, the total lift is __________ kN (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.40 The airplane shown in figure starts executing a symmetric pull-up maneuver from steady
level attitude with a constant nose-up pitch acceleration of 20 deg/s2. The vertical load
factor measured at this instant at the centre of gravity (CG) is 2. Given that the acceleration
due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, the vertical load factor measured at point P on the nose of the
airplane, which is 2 m ahead of the CG, is _____ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.41 Consider an airplane with a weight of 8000 N, wing area of 16 m2, wing zero-lift drag
coefficient of 0.02, Oswald’s efficiency factor of 0.8, and wing aspect ratio of 6, in steady
level flight with wing lift coefficient of 0.375. Considering the same flight speed and
ambient density, the ratio of the induced drag coefficient during steady level flight to that
during a 30o climb is _______ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.42 The product of earth’s mass (M) and the universal gravitational constant (G) is GM =
3.986×1014 m3/s2. The radius of earth is 6371 km. The minimum increment in the velocity
to be imparted to a spacecraft flying in a circular orbit around the earth at an altitude of
4000 km to make it exit earth’s gravitational field is _______ km/s (round off to 2 decimal
places).

AE 9/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.43 A propeller driven airplane has a gross take-off weight of 4905 N with a wing area of 6.84
m2. Assume that the wings are operating at the maximum CL3/ 2 / CD of 13, the propeller
efficiency is 0.9 and the specific fuel consumption of the engine is 0.76 kg/kW-hr. Given
that the density of air at sea level is 1.225 kg/m3 and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81
m/s2, the weight of the fuel required for an endurance of 18 hours at sea level is _______N
(round off to the nearest integer).

Q.44 The design of an airplane is modified to increase the vertical tail area by 20% and decrease
the moment arm from the aerodynamic centre of the vertical tail to the airplane centre of
gravity by 20%. Assuming all other factors remain unchanged, the ratio of the modified to
the original directional static stability ( CN  due to tail fin) is _______ (round off to 2
decimal places).

Q.45 For a rocket engine, the velocity ratio r is Va/Ve, where Va is the vehicle velocity and Ve is
the exit velocity of the exhaust gases. Assume the flow to be optimally expanded through
the nozzle. For r = 2, if F is the thrust produced and 𝑚̇ is the mass flow rate of exhaust
gases, then, 𝐹/(𝑚̇𝑉𝑒 ) is ______.

Q.46 The specific impulse of a rocket engine is 3000 Ns/kg. The mass of the rocket at burnout is
1000 kg. The propellant consumed in the process is 720 kg. Assume all factors contributing
to velocity loss to be negligible. The change in vehicle velocity Δu is _____ km/s (round
off to 2 decimal places).

Q.47 The combustion products of a gas turbine engine can be assumed to be a calorically perfect
gas with γ = 1.2. The pressure ratio across the turbine stage is 0.14. The measured turbine
inlet and exit stagnation temperatures are 1200 K and 900 K, respectively. The total-to-
total turbine efficiency is ________ % (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.48 The figure shows the velocity triangles for an axial compressor stage. The specific work
input to the compressor stage is ____________ kJ/kg (round off to 2 decimal places).

AE 10/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.49 As shown in the figure, a rigid slab CD of weight W (distributed uniformly along its length)
is hung from a ceiling using three cables of identical length and cross-sectional area. The
central cable is made of steel (Young’s modulus = 3E) and the other two cables are made
of aluminium (Young’s modulus = E). The percentage of the total weight taken by the
central cable is ______ % (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.50 All the bars in the given truss are elastic with Young’s modulus 200 GPa, and have
identical cross-sections with moment of inertia 0.1 cm4. The lowest value of the load P at
which the truss fails due to buckling is _______ kN (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.51 A solid circular shaft is designed to transmit a torque T with a factor of safety of 2. It is
proposed to replace the solid shaft by a hollow shaft of the same material and identical
outer radius. If the inner radius is half the outer radius, the factor of safety for the hollow
shaft is _____ (round off to 1 decimal place).

AE 11/12
GATE 2019 Aerospace Engineering

Q.52 In the structure shown in the figure, bars AB and BC are made of identical material and
have circular cross-sections of 10 mm radii. The yield stress of the material under uniaxial
tension is 280 MPa. Using the von Mises yield criterion, the maximum load along the z-
direction (perpendicular to the plane of paper) that can be applied at C, such that AB does
not yield is _____ N (round off to the nearest integer).

Q.53 A thin-walled tube, with the cross-section shown in the figure, is subjected to a torque of
T = 1 kN-m. The walls have uniform thickness t = 1 mm and shear modulus G = 26 GPa.
Assume that the curved portion is semi-circular. The shear stress in the wall is _____ MPa
(round off to 1 decimal place).

Q.54 For a damped spring-mass system, mass m = 10 kg, stiffness k = 103 N/m, and damping
coefficient c = 20 kg/s. The ratio of the amplitude of oscillation of the first cycle to that of
the fifth cycle is ______ (round off to 1 decimal place).

Q.55 For the system of springs and masses shown below, k = 1250 N/m and m = 10 kg. The
highest natural frequency,  of the system is _______ radians/s (round off to the nearest
integer).

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE 12/12
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1

2 MCQ GA C 1

3 MCQ GA C 1

4 MCQ GA C 1

5 MCQ GA A 1

6 MCQ GA C 2

7 MCQ GA A 2

8 MCQ GA C 2

9 MCQ GA B 2

10 MCQ GA D 2

1 MCQ AE A 1

2 MCQ AE B 1

3 MCQ AE C 1

4 MCQ AE B 1

5 MCQ AE B 1

6 MCQ AE B 1

7 MCQ AE C 1

8 MCQ AE D 1

9 MCQ AE A 1

10 MCQ AE A 1

11 MCQ AE B 1

12 MCQ AE B 1

13 MCQ AE A 1

1/3
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
14 NAT AE 0.5 to 0.5 1

15 NAT AE 0.16 to 0.17 1

16 NAT AE 10 to 10 1

17 NAT AE 72 to 72 1

18 NAT AE 5.98 to 6.00 1

19 NAT AE 43.05 to 43.15 1

20 NAT AE 3 to 3 1

21 NAT AE 0.70 to 0.72 1

22 NAT AE 2 to 2 1

23 NAT AE 0.2 to 0.2 1

24 NAT AE 247 to 255 1

25 NAT AE 16 to 16 1

26 MCQ AE D 2

27 MCQ AE B 2

28 MCQ AE D 2

29 MCQ AE C 2

30 MCQ AE A 2

31 NAT AE 1 to 1 2

32 NAT AE 2 to 2 2

33 NAT AE 0.5 to 0.5 2

34 NAT AE 30 to 30 2

35 NAT AE 10 to 10 2

36 NAT AE 3.5 to 3.7 OR 2.3 to 2.5 2

2/3
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
37 NAT AE 5.95 to 6.10 2

38 NAT AE 0.24 to 0.30 2

39 NAT AE 18.00 to 19.20 2

40 NAT AE 2.06 to 2.08 2

41 NAT AE 1.32 to 1.35 2

42 NAT AE 2.54 to 2.62 2

43 NAT AE 1440 to 1490 2

44 NAT AE 0.96 to 0.96 2

45 NAT AE 1 to 1 2

46 NAT AE 1.60 to 1.65 2

47 NAT AE 88 to 90 2

48 NAT AE 2.50 to 2.60 2

49 NAT AE 60 to 60 2

50 NAT AE 550 to 570 2

51 NAT AE 1.8 to 1.9 2

52 NAT AE 310 to 320 2

53 NAT AE 17.0 to 17.5 2

54 NAT AE 12.3 to 12.6 2

55 NAT AE 25 to 25 2

3/3
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-2

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 “The dress _________ her so well that they all immediately _________ her on her
appearance.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) complemented, complemented (B) complimented, complemented

(C) complimented, complimented (D) complemented, complimented

Q.2 “The judge’s standing in the legal community, though shaken by false allegations of
wrongdoing, remained _________.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) undiminished (B) damaged (C) illegal (D) uncertain

Q.3 Find the missing group of letters in the following series:

BC, FGH, LMNO, _____

(A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX (C) STUVW (D) RSTUV

Q.4 The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of the
following statements is true?

(A) The circle has the largest area.

(B) The square has the largest area.
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest area.
(D) All the three shapes have the same area.

Q.5 1 1 1
The value of the expression + + is _________.
1+log 1+log 1+log

(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Forty students watched films A, B and C over a week. Each student watched either only
one film or all three. Thirteen students watched film A, sixteen students watched film B
and nineteen students watched film C. How many students watched all three films?

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

GA 1/3

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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-2
Q.7 A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if it is bent into a square. The wire is cut into
two pieces. The longer piece is thrice as long as the shorter piece. The long and the short
pieces are bent into a square and a circle, respectively. Which of the following choices is
closest to the sum of the areas enclosed by the two pieces in square meters?

(A) 1096 (B) 1111 (C) 1243 (D) 2486

Q.8 A contract is to be completed in 52 days and 125 identical robots were employed, each
operational for 7 hours a day. After 39 days, five-seventh of the work was completed. How
many additional robots would be required to complete the work on time, if each robot is
now operational for 8 hours a day?

(A) 50 (B) 89 (C) 146 (D) 175

Q.9 A house has a number which needs to be identified. The following three statements are
given that can help in identifying the house number.
i. If the house number is a multiple of 3, then it is a number from 50 to 59.
ii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 4, then it is a number from 60 to 69.
iii. If the house number is NOT a multiple of 6, then it is a number from 70 to 79.

What is the house number?

(A) 54 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 76

GA 2/3

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GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-2

Q.10 An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row and four different such trials are conducted.
One trial implies six tosses of the coin. If H stands for head and T stands for tail, the
following are the observations from the four trials:
(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT__ __.

Which statement describing the last two coin tosses of the fourth trial has the highest
probability of being correct?

(A) Two T will occur.

(B) One H and one T will occur.
(C) Two H will occur.
(D) One H will be followed by one T.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 3/3

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Let ⃗, ⃗⃗ be two distinct vectors that are not parallel. The vector ⃗ = ⃗ × ⃗⃗ is
(A) zero. (B) orthogonal to ⃗ alone.
(C) orthogonal to ⃗ + ⃗⃗. (D) orthogonal to ⃗⃗ alone.

Q.2 Consider the function , = + − . All the roots of this function

(A) form a finite set of points.

(B) lie on an elliptical curve.
(C) lie on the surface of a sphere.
(D) lie on a hyperbolic curve.

Q.3 Consider a vector field given by ̂+ ̂ + �̂. This vector field is

(A) divergence-free and curl-free.
(B) curl-free but not divergence-free.
(C) divergence-free but not curl-free.
(D) neither divergence-free nor curl-free.

Q.4 A jet aircraft is initially flying steady and level at its maximum endurance condition. For the
aircraft to fly steady and level, but faster at the same altitude, the pilot should
(A) increase thrust alone.
(B) increase thrust and increase angle of attack.
(C) increase thrust and reduce angle of attack.
(D) reduce angle of attack alone.

Q.5 The pilot of a conventional airplane that is flying steady and level at some altitude, deflects
the port side aileron up and the starboard aileron down. The aircraft will then
(A) pitch, nose up.
(B) roll with the starboard wing up.
(C) pitch, nose down.
(D) roll with the port wing up.

Q.6 A NACA 0012 airfoil has a trailing edge flap. The airfoil is operating at an angle of attack
of 5 degrees with un-deflected flap. If the flap is now deflected by 5 degrees downwards, the
� versus � curve
(A) shifts right and slope increases.
(B) shifts left and slope increases.
(C) shifts left and slope stays the same.
(D) shifts right and slope stays the same.

AE 1/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.7 An airplane requires a longer ground roll to lift-off on hot summer days because
(A) the thrust is directly proportional to free-stream density.
(B) the thrust is directly proportional to weight of the aircraft.
(C) the lift-off distance is directly proportional to free-stream density.
(D) the runway friction is high on hot summer days.

Q.8 The velocity profile in an incompressible, laminar boundary layer is shown in the figure
below. U is the free-stream velocity, u(y) is the stream-wise velocity component. The area
of the black shaded region in the figure below represents the

u(y)/U
y

(A) boundary layer thickness.

(B) momentum thickness.
(C) displacement thickness.
(D) shape factor.

Q.9 The tangential velocity component ‘V’ of a spacecraft, which is in a circular orbit of radius
‘R’ around a spherical Earth (µ = GM  gravitational parameter of Earth) is given by the
following expression.
µ µ � �
(A) � = √ (B) � = √ (C) � = � (D) � = �
� � √µ √µ

Q.10 Equation of the trajectory of a typical space object around any planet, in polar coordinates
(r, ) (i.e. a general conic section geometry), is given as follows. (h is angular momentum,
µ is gravitational parameter, e is eccentricity, r is radial distance from the planet center, ,
is angle between vectors ⃗ and ⃗.
ℎ ⁄ ℎ ⁄
µ µ
�  − � 
(A) = −
(B) =

ℎ ⁄ ℎ ⁄
µ µ
�  + � 
(C) = +
(D) =

Q.11 In an elliptic orbit around any planet, the location at which a spacecraft has the maximum
angular velocity is
(A) apoapsis. (B) periapsis.
(C) a point at +45o from periapsis. (D) a point at 90o from apoapsis.

AE 2/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.12 The pitching moment of a positively cambered NACA airfoil about its leading edge at zero-
lift angle of attack is
(A) negative.
(B) positive.
(C) indeterminate.
(D) zero.

Q.13 In a low-speed wind tunnel, the angular location(s) from the front stagnation point on a
circular cylinder where the static pressure equals the free-stream static pressure, is
(A) ± 380 (B) ± 300 (C) ± 600 (D) 00

Q.14 A thermocouple, mounted flush in an insulated flat surface in a supersonic laminar flow of
air measures the
(A) static temperature.
(B) temperature greater than static but less than total temperature.
(C) total temperature.
(D) temperature greater than total temperature.

Q.15 A shock wave is moving into still air in a shock tube. Which one of the following happens
to the air?
(A) static temperature increases, total temperature remains constant.
(B) static temperature increases, total temperature increases.
(C) static temperature increases, total temperature decreases.
(D) static pressure increases, total temperature remains constant.

Q.16 The highest limit load factor experienced by a civil transport aircraft is in the range
(A) 0.0 – 2.0 (B) 2.0 – 5.0 (C) 5.0 – 8.0 (D) 8.0 – 10.0

Q.17 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements, [a] and [r]:

[a] A closed-section box beam configuration is used in aircraft wings.

[r] Closed-section box beam configuration is capable of resisting torsional loads.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false.
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false.

AE 3/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.18 The first law of thermodynamics is also known as conservation of

(A) mass.
(B) momentum.
(C) energy.
(D) species.

Q.19 In an ideal gas turbine cycle, the expansion in a turbine is represented by

(A) an isenthalpic process. (B) an isentropic process.
(C) an isobaric process. (D) an isochoric process.

Q.20 −
The determinant of the matrix [ ] is ______ (accurate to one decimal place).

Q.21 The theoretical maximum velocity (in m/s) of air expanding from a reservoir at 700 K is
__________ (accurate to two decimal places). Specific heat of air at constant pressure is
1005 J/(kg-K).

Q.22 For a damped single degree of freedom system with damping ratio of 0.1, ratio of two
successive peak amplitudes of free vibration is ___________ (accurate to two decimal
places).

Q.23 The natural frequency (in rad/s) of the spring-mass system shown in the figure below is
_____ (accurate to one decimal place).

Q.24 The stagnation pressures at the inlet and exit of a subsonic intake are 100 kPa and 98 kPa,
respectively. The pressure recovery of this intake will be ______ (accurate to two decimal
places).

Q.25 A combustor is operating with a fuel-air ratio of 0.03. If the stoichiometric fuel-air ratio of
the fuel used is 0.06, the equivalence ratio of the combustor will be _______ (accurate to
two decimal places).

AE 4/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26
The solution of the differential equation + = , given that = and = at
= is
− − �
(A) − (B) − −
(C) + −
(D)

Q.27 The relation between pressure (p) and velocity (V) for a steady, isentropic flow at two points
along a streamline is, (c is a constant)
� � � �
(A) � − � )= −
� �
� �
(B) � �−
− � �−
)= −
�− �−
� �
(C) � �
− � �
)= −
�− �− � �
(D) � − � )= −

Q.28 A thin airfoil is mounted in a low-speed, subsonic wind tunnel, in which the Mach number
is 0.1. At a point on the airfoil, the pressure coefficient is measured to be 1.2. If the flow
velocity is increased such that the free-stream Mach number is 0.6, the pressure coefficient
at the same point on the airfoil will approximately be:
(A) 3.5 (B) 2.9 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.75

Q.29 A solid circular shaft of diameter d is under pure torsion of magnitude T. The maximum
tensile stress experienced at any point on the shaft is
� 6� � 6�
(A) (B) (C) (D)
� � � �

Q.30 A clamped-clamped beam, subjected to a point load P at the midspan, is shown in the figure
below. The magnitude of the moment reaction at the two fixed ends of the beam is

(A) PL/2 (B) PL/4 (C) PL/8 (D) PL/16

AE 5/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.31 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the state of a body in plane strain
condition?
P: All the points in the body undergo displacements in one plane only, for example the x-y
plane, leading to � = � = � = .
Q: All the components of stress perpendicular to the plane of deformation, for example the
x-y plane, of the body are equal to zero, i.e. � = � = � = .
R: Except the normal component, all the other components of stress perpendicular to the
plane of deformation of the body, for example the x-y plane, are equal to zero, i.e. � ≠ ,
� = � = .

(A) P only (B) Q only (C) P and Q (D) P and R

Q.32 An aircraft with a turbojet engine flies at a velocity of 100 m/s. If the jet exhaust velocity is
300 m/s, the propulsive efficiency of the engine, assuming a negligible fuel-air ratio, is
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.67 (D) 0.80

Q.33 An aircraft with a turboprop engine produces a thrust of 500 N and flies at 100 m/s. If the
propeller efficiency is 0.5, the shaft power produced by the engine is
(A) 50 kW (B) 100 kW
(C) 125 kW (D) 500 kW

Q.34 An axial compressor that generates a stagnation pressure ratio of 4.0, operates with inlet and
exit stagnation temperatures of 300 K and 480 K, respectively. If the ratio of specific heats
(� is 1.4, the isentropic efficiency of the compressor is
(A) 0.94 (B) 0.81
(C) 0.72 (D) 0.63

Q.35 A rocket has an initial mass of 150 kg. After operating for a duration of 10 s, its final mass
is 50 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2 and the thrust produced by the rocket
is 19.62 kN, the specific impulse of the rocket is
(A) 400 s (B) 300 s
(C) 200 s (D) 100 s

Q.36 Consider the vector field �⃗ = − ̂+ ̂ ; where = √ + . The contour integral

∮ �⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗, where ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ is tangent to the contour that encloses the origin, is __________ (accurate
to two decimal places).

Q.37 The magnitude of the x-component of a unit vector at the point (1, 1) that is normal to equi-
potential lines of the potential function � = , where = √ + , is _______
+
(accurate to two decimal places).

AE 6/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.38 Assuming ISA standard sea level conditions (288.16 K, density of 1.225 kg/m3,
g = 9.81 m/s2, R = 287 J/(kg-K)), the density (in kg/m3) of air at Leh, which is at an altitude
of 3500 m above mean sea level is ________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.39 Consider a cubical tank of side 2 m with its top open. It is filled with water up to a height of
1 m. Assuming the density of water to be 1000 kg/m3, g as 9.81 m/s2 and the atmospheric
pressure to be 100 kPa, the net hydrostatic force (in kN) on the side face of the tank due to
the air and water is ______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.40 An aircraft with mass of 400,000 kg cruises at 240 m/s at an altitude of 10 km. Its lift to drag
ratio at cruise is 15. Assuming g as 9.81 m/s2, the power (in MW) needed for it to cruise is
_______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.41 A statically-stable aircraft has a � � = 5 (where the angle of attack, α, is measured in radians).
The coefficient of moment of the aircraft about the center of gravity is given as
� , .� = . − �. The mean aerodynamic chord of the aircraft wing is 1 m. The location
(positive towards the nose) of the neutral point of the aircraft from the center of gravity is
______ (in m, accurate to two decimal places).

Q.42 An aircraft with a gross weight of 2000 kg, has a speed of 130 m/s at sea level, where the
conditions are: 1 atmosphere (pressure), 288 K (temperature), and 1.23 kg/m3 (density). The
speed (in m/s) required by the aircraft at an altitude of 9000 m, where the conditions are:
0.31 atmosphere, 230 K, and 0.47 kg/m3, to maintain a steady, level flight is ________
(accurate to two decimal places).

Q.43 A pitot probe on an aircraft in a steady, level flight records a pressure of 55,000 N/m2. The
static pressure and density are 45,280 N/m2 and 0.6 kg/m3, respectively. The wing area and
the lift coefficient are 16 m2 and 2, respectively. The wing loading (in N/m2) on this aircraft
is _________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Q.44 A spacecraft forms a circular orbit at an altitude of 150 km above the surface of a spherical
Earth. Assuming the gravitational parameter, µ = 3.986 × 1014 m3/s2 and radius of earth,
RE = 6,400 km, the velocity required for the injection of the spacecraft, parallel to the local
horizon, is _______________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.45 Air at 50 kPa pressure and 400 K temperature flows in a duct at Mach 3.0. A part of the flow
leaks through an opening on the duct wall into the ambient, where the pressure is 30 kPa.
The maximum Mach number achieved in the discharge is _______ (accurate to two decimal
places). (Ratio of specific heats of air is � = . ).

AE 7/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.46 Consider a 200 half-angle wedge in a supersonic flow at Mach 3.0 at standard sea-level
conditions. If the shock-wave angle on the wedge is 360, the Mach number of the tangential
component of the flow post-shock is _______ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.47 The boundary layer thickness at the location of a sensor on a flat plate in an incompressible,
laminar flow of air is required to be restricted to 1 mm for an effective measurement. If the
flow velocity is 20 m/s with 1 bar pressure, 300 K temperature, and 1.789×10˗5 kg/(m-s)
viscosity, the maximum distance (in mm) of the sensor location from the leading edge is
________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Q.48 Gross weight of an airplane is 7000 N, wing area is 16 m2, and the maximum lift coefficient
is 2.0. Assuming density at the altitude as 1.23 kg/m3, the stall speed (in m/s) of the aircraft
is _________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.49 A thin-walled tube with external radius of 100 mm and wall thickness of 2 mm, is fixed at
one end. It is subjected to a compressive force of 1 N acting at a point on the circumference
parallel to its length. The maximum normal stress (in kPa) experienced by the structure is
_____________ (accurate to two decimal places).

Q.50 A 1 m long massless cantilever beam oscillates at 2Hz, while a 60 kg mass is attached at the
tip of it. The flexural rigidity of the beam (in kN-m2) is _________________ (accurate to
two decimal places).

Q.51 A cantilever beam having a rectangular cross-section of width 60 mm and depth 100 mm, is
made of aluminum alloy. The material mechanical properties are: Young’s modulus,
E = 73 GPa and ultimate stress, �� = 8 MPa. Assuming a factor of safety of 4, the
maximum bending moment (in kN-m) that can be applied on the beam is _____ (accurate to
one decimal place).

Q.52 The components of stress in a body under plane stress condition, in the absence of body
forces, is given by:
� =� ; � = − and � = .
The coefficient, A, such that the body is under equilibrium is _____ (accurate to one decimal
place).

Q.53 An axial compressor rotor with 50 % degree of reaction, operates with an axial velocity of
200 m/s. The absolute flow angle at the inlet of the rotor is 22o with reference to the axial
direction. If the axial velocity is assumed to remain constant through the rotor, the magnitude
of the relative velocity (in m/s) at the rotor exit is __________ (accurate to one decimal
place).

AE 8/9

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GATE 2018 Aerospace Engineering

Q.54 The relative velocity of air leaving a straight radial impeller of a centrifugal compressor is
100 m/s. If the impeller tip speed is 200 m/s, for a slip free operation, the absolute velocity
(in m/s) at the impeller exit is _________ (accurate to one decimal place).

Q.55 An aircraft wind tunnel model, having a pitch axis mass moment of inertia (Iyy) of
0.014 kg-m2, is mounted in such a manner that it has pure pitching motion about its centre
of gravity, where it is supported through a frictionless hinge. If the pitching moment (M)
derivative with respect to angle of attack (α), denoted by ‘Mα’, is -0.504 N-m/rad and the
pitching moment (M) derivative with respect to pitch rate (q), denoted by ‘Mq’, is
-0.0336 N-m/(rad/s), the damping ratio of the resulting motion due to an initial disturbance
in pitch angle is approximately _________ (accurate to three decimal places).

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE 9/9

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

1 MCQ GA D 1

2 MCQ GA A 1

3 MCQ GA B 1

4 MCQ GA A 1

5 MCQ GA C 1

6 MCQ GA C 2

7 MCQ GA C 2

8 MCQ GA A 2

9 MCQ GA D 2

10 MCQ GA B 2

1 MCQ AE C 1

2 MCQ AE B 1

3 MCQ AE B 1

4 MCQ AE C 1

5 MCQ AE B 1

6 MCQ AE C 1

7 MCQ AE A 1

8 MCQ AE C 1

9 MCQ AE B 1

10 MCQ AE C 1

11 MCQ AE B 1

12 MCQ AE A 1

13 MCQ AE B 1

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

14 MCQ AE B 1

15 MCQ AE B 1

16 MCQ AE B 1

17 MCQ AE A 1

18 MCQ AE C 1

19 MCQ AE B 1

20 NAT AE 0.0 to 0.0 1

21 NAT AE 1185.00 to 1186.50 1

22 NAT AE 1.75 to 1.95 1

23 NAT AE 2.0 to 2.0 1

24 NAT AE 0.98 to 0.98 1

25 NAT AE 0.50 to 0.50 1

26 MCQ AE B 2

27 MCQ AE C 2

28 MCQ AE C 2

29 MCQ AE D 2

30 MCQ AE C 2

31 MCQ AE D 2

32 MCQ AE B 2

33 MCQ AE B 2

34 MCQ AE B 2

35 MCQ AE C 2

36 NAT AE 6.25 to 6.35 2

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Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks

37 NAT AE 0.68 to 0.73 2

38 NAT AE 0.85 to 0.88 2

39 NAT AE 9.80 to 9.81 2

40 NAT AE 62.00 to 63.50 2

41 NAT AE -0.81 to -0.79 2

42 NAT AE 209.00 to 211.00 2

43 NAT AE 19440.0 to 19440.0 2

44 NAT AE 7800.00 to 7802.00 2

45 NAT AE 3.30 to 3.40 2

46 NAT AE 2.40 to 2.50 2

47 NAT AE 47.0 to 53.0 2

48 NAT AE 18.80 to 18.90 2

49 NAT AE -2.50 to -2.20 2

50 NAT AE 3.10 to 3.20 2

51 NAT AE 12.0 to 12.0 2

52 NAT AE -6.0 to -6.0 2

53 NAT AE 215.0 to 216.5 2

54 NAT AE 222.0 to 225.0 2

55 NAT AE 0.195 to 0.205 2

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 Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017

Question Paper Name: Aerospace Engineering 5th Feb 2017

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100

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Question Number
1 :1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

Question Number : 2 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0

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Question Number : 4 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 60 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33

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Question Number : 65 Correct : 2 Wrong : -0.66

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Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ AE D 1
2 NAT AE 11.9 to 12.1 1
3 NAT AE 0 to 0 1
4 MCQ AE C 1
5 MCQ AE A or B 1
6 MCQ AE B 1
7 MCQ AE C 1
8 NAT AE 0.540 to 0.560 1
9 MCQ AE B 1
10 MCQ AE B 1
11 MCQ AE C 1
12 MCQ AE B 1
13 MCQ AE C 1
14 NAT AE 686.5 to 687.5 1
15 MCQ AE D 1
16 MCQ AE D 1
17 MCQ AE C 1
18 MCQ AE D 1
19 MCQ AE B 1
20 MCQ AE B 1
21 MCQ AE B 1
22 NAT AE 1.360 to 1.370 1
23 MCQ AE C 1
24 NAT AE 0.970 to 0.990 1
25 MCQ AE C 1
26 MCQ AE B 2
27 MCQ AE D 2
28 MCQ AE B 2
29 NAT AE 0.008 to 0.012 2
30 MCQ AE C 2
31 NAT AE 0.540 to 0.550 2
32 NAT AE 0.165 to 0.168 2
33 NAT AE 20 to 20 2
34 NAT AE 48.00 to 49.00 2
35 NAT AE 1341 to 1343 2
36 NAT AE 90 to 92 2

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37 NAT AE 4 to 4 2
38 NAT AE -0.060 to -0.050 2
39 MCQ AE B 2
40 NAT AE 10.000 to 10.500 2
41 NAT AE 157.000 to 158.000 2
42 MCQ AE D 2
43 NAT AE 0.270 to 0.280 2
44 NAT AE 0.00 to 0.00 2
45 MCQ AE A 2
46 NAT AE 1.20 to 1.30 2
47 NAT AE 215.0 to 217.0 2
48 NAT AE 1130.0 to 1145.0 2
49 NAT AE 9100.0 to 9200.0 2
50 NAT AE 0.40 to 0.50 2
51 NAT AE 0.910 to 0.920 2
52 NAT AE 104 to 106 2
53 NAT AE 6.900 to 7.400 2
54 NAT AE 0.640 to 0.650 2
55 NAT AE 0.95 to 1.05 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA A 1
58 MCQ GA B 1
59 MCQ GA A 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA A 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA C 2
65 MCQ GA B 2

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Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ AE D 1
2 NAT AE 11.9 to 12.1 1
3 NAT AE 0 to 0 1
4 MCQ AE C 1
5 MCQ AE B 1
6 MCQ AE B 1
7 MCQ AE C 1
8 NAT AE 0.540 to 0.560 1
9 MCQ AE B 1
10 MCQ AE B 1
11 MCQ AE C 1
12 MCQ AE B 1
13 MCQ AE C 1
14 NAT AE 686.5 to 687.5 1
15 MCQ AE D 1
16 MCQ AE D 1
17 MCQ AE C 1
18 MCQ AE D 1
19 MCQ AE B 1
20 MCQ AE B 1
21 MCQ AE B 1
22 NAT AE 1.360 to 1.370 1
23 MCQ AE C 1
24 NAT AE 0.970 to 0.990 1
25 MCQ AE C 1
26 MCQ AE B 2
27 MCQ AE D 2
28 MCQ AE B 2
29 NAT AE 0.008 to 0.012 2
30 MCQ AE C 2
31 NAT AE 0.540 to 0.550 2
32 NAT AE 0.165 to 0.168 2
33 NAT AE 20 to 20 2
34 NAT AE 48.00 to 49.00 2
35 NAT AE 1341 to 1343 2
36 NAT AE 90 to 92 2
37 NAT AE 4 to 4 2
38 NAT AE -0.060 to -0.050 2
39 MCQ AE B 2
40 NAT AE 10.000 to 10.500 2
41 NAT AE 157.000 to 158.000 2
42 MCQ AE D 2
43 NAT AE 0.270 to 0.280 2
44 NAT AE 0.00 to 0.00 2
45 MCQ AE A 2
46 NAT AE 1.20 to 1.30 2
47 NAT AE 215.0 to 217.0 2
48 NAT AE 1130.0 to 1145.0 2
49 NAT AE 9100.0 to 9200.0 2
50 NAT AE 0.40 to 0.50 2
51 NAT AE 0.910 to 0.920 2
52 NAT AE 104 to 106 2
53 NAT AE 6.900 to 7.400 2
54 NAT AE 0.640 to 0.650 2
55 NAT AE 0.95 to 1.05 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA A 1
58 MCQ GA B 1
59 MCQ GA A 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA A 2
62 MCQ GA D 2
63 MCQ GA C 2
64 MCQ GA C 2
65 MCQ GA B 2
 GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him.

(A) bare with (B) bore with (C) bear with (D) bare

Q.2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:

(A) Managable (B) Manageable (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible

Q.3 Pick the odd one out in the following:

13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53

Q.4 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes.

(B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes.

(C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes.

(D) Only R2D2 is a robot.

Q.5 If |9y−6| =3, then y2 −4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) −1/3 (D) undefined

1/3

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 GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the
actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a
plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed
capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a
small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is
____.

Q.7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed
that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with
masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were
successful in their professions.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(A) Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines.

(B) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be
mechanical engineers.

(C) Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees
in mechanical engineering.

(D) The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small.

2/3

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 GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q.8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line
with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a
developing country.

Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence?

Based on the proposal,

(i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT.
(ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT.
(iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country.

(A) (iii) and (iv) only. (B) (i) and (iv) only.

(C) (ii) and (iv) only. (D) (ii) and (iii) only.

Q.9 Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free
throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully
make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts?

(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000

Q.10 The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 × 3424 is _____.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

3/3

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 With increase in airfoil thickness, the critical Mach number for an airfoil is likely to
(A) decrease. (B) increase. (C) remain unchanged. (D) be undefined.

Q.2 Due to a body in potential flow, the velocity at a point A in the flow field is 20 m/s while the free
stream velocity is only 10 m/s. The value of coefficient of pressure (Cp ) at the point A is
_________.

Q.3 Which of the following airfoil will have location of the maximum camber at half chord length from
the leading edge?
(A) NACA 5212 (B) NACA 1225 (C) NACA 2215 (D) NACA 2512

friction drag coefficient C f  with Reynolds number based on the chord length Re c  can be
Q.4 For a laminar incompressible flow past a flat plate at zero angle of attack, the variation of skin

expressed as

(A) C f  Re c
(B) C f  Rec
(C) C f  1
Re c
(D) C f  1
Re c

Q.5 Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE across an oblique shock wave?
(A) Static temperature increases, total temperature remains constant.
(B) Static pressure increases, static temperature increases.
(C) Static temperature increases, total pressure decreases.
(D) Static pressure increases, total temperature decreases.

Q.6 For a completely subsonic isentropic flow through a convergent nozzle, which of the following
statement is TRUE?
(A) Pressure at the nozzle exit > back pressure.
(B) Pressure at the nozzle exit < back pressure.
(C) Pressure at the nozzle exit = back pressure.
(D) Pressure at the nozzle exit = total pressure.

Q.7 Which of the following aircraft engines has the highest propulsive efficiency at a cruising Mach
number of less than 0.5?
(A) Turbofan engine (B) Turbojet engine
(C) Turboprop engine (D) Ramjet engine

Q.8 Air, with a Prandtl number of 0.7, flows over a flat plate at a high Reynolds number. Which of the
following statement is TRUE?
(A) Thermal boundary layer is thicker than the velocity boundary layer.
(B) Thermal boundary layer is thinner than the velocity boundary layer.
(C) Thermal boundary layer is as thick as the velocity boundary layer.
(D) There is no relationship between the thicknesses of thermal and velocity boundary layers.

AE 1/9

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.9 Consider an eigenvalue problem given by Ax=  i x. If  i represent the eigenvalues of the non-
singular square matrix A, then what will be the eigenvalues of matrix A2?

(A)  i (B)  i (C)  i (D)  i

4 2 1/ 2 1/ 4

Q.10 If A and B are both non-singular n  n matrices, then which of the following statement is NOT
TRUE. Note: det represents the determinant of a matrix.
(A) det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
(B) det(A+B) = det(A) + det(B)
(C) det(AA-1) = 1
(D) det(AT) = det(A)

Q.11 The total number of material constants that are necessary and sufficient to describe the three
dimensional Hooke’s law for an isotropic material is ____.

Q.12 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements, [a] and [r]:

[a]: In a plane stress problem, the shear strains along the thickness direction of a body are zero but
the normal strain along the thickness is not zero.

[r]: In a plane stress problem, Poisson effect induces the normal strain along the thickness direction
of the body.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a].
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a].
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false.
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false.

Q.13 Consider four thin-walled beams of different open cross-sections, as shown in the cases (i-iv). A
shear force of magnitude ‘F’ acts vertically downward at the location ‘P’ in all the beams. In which
of the following case, does the shear force induce bending and twisting?
Case (i) Case (ii) Case (iii) Case (iv)

(A) (i) (B) (ii)

(C) (iii) (D) (iv)

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.14 The effective stiffness of the spring-mass system as shown in the figure below is ____ N/mm.

Q.15 A structural member supports loads, which produce at a particular point, a state of pure shear stress
of 50 N/mm2. At what angles are the principal planes oriented with respect to the plane of pure
shear?
(A) π/6 and 2π/3 (B) π/4 and 3π/4 (C) π/4 and π/2 (D) π/2 and π

Q.16 Let x be a positive real number. The function f x   x 2  1 has its minima at x=______.
x2

The vector u is defined as u  yê x  xê y , where ê x and ê y are the unit vectors along x and y
  
Q.17  

directions, respectively. If the vector  is defined as     u , then    u  ______.

    

u  2u
  2 , where α is a positive constant, is
Q.18
t x
The partial differential equation

(A) circular. (B) elliptic. (C) hyperbolic. (D) parabolic.

Q.19 Combustion in gas turbine engines is ideally represented as the following process:
(A) Adiabatic (B) Isentropic (C) Isobaric (D) Isochoric

Q.20 For a given chamber pressure, the thrust of a rocket engine is highest when
(A) the rocket is operating at its design altitude.
(B) the rocket is operating in vacuum.
(C) the rocket is operating at sea-level.
(D) there is a normal shock in the rocket nozzle.

Q.21 The damping ratio in phugoid motion for gliders is usually less compared to powered aircraft
because
(A) gliders are unpowered.
(B) gliders are light.
(C) lift to drag ratio is higher for gliders.
(D) gliders fly at low speed.

Q.22 During an aircraft cruising flight, the altitude above the ground is usually measured using
(A) dynamic pressure. (B) static pressure.
(C) radar. (D) laser range finder.

AE 3/9

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.23 Indicated airspeed is used by a pilot during

(A) take-off. (B) navigation.
(C) setting the engine RPM. (D) setting the elevator angle.

Q.24 The pitch angle and the angle of attack for a fixed wing aircraft are equal during
(A) wings level constant altitude flight.
(B) unaccelerated climb.
(C) unaccelerated descent.
(D) landing.

Q.25 The load factor of an aircraft turning at a constant altitude is 2. The coefficient of lift required for
turning flight as compared to level flight at the same speed will be
(A) same (B) half
(C) double (D) four times

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 An un-mixed turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 6.0, flies with a velocity of 200 m/s. The core
and the bypass nozzles of the engine, that are both convergent nozzles, operate under choked
condition and have exhaust static temperatures of 580 K and 295 K, respectively. The specific gas
constant and the ratio of specific heats for both the streams are 287 J/kgK and 1.4, respectively. If
the fuel-air ratio is negligible, the thrust per unit mass flow rate generated by the engine is
_______Ns/kg.

Q.27 A single-stage gas turbine operates with an axial absolute flow at the entry and exit from the stage.
The absolute flow angle at the nozzle exit is 70o. The turbine stage generates a specific work of
228 kJ/kg when operating with a mean blade speed of 440 m/s. The absolute velocity at the rotor
entry is
(A) 275.7 m/s (B) 551.5 m/s (C) 1103.0 m/s (D) 1654.5 m/s

Q.28 An axial compressor operates such that it has an inlet and an exit total temperature of 300 K and
430 K, respectively. The isentropic efficiency of the compressor is 85 %. If the ratio of specific
heats is 1.4, then the total pressure ratio across the compressor is ____________.

Q.29 The maximum value of coefficient of lift ( C l ) for a 2D circular cylinder, provided at least one
stagnation point lies on the cylinder surface, is predicted by the potential flow theory to be
(A) π/2 (B) π (C) 2π (D) 4π

AE 4/9

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.30 The nozzle AB, as shown below, leading to the test section of a low speed subsonic wind tunnel,
has a contraction ratio of 10:1. The pressure difference across the nozzle is maintained at 1000
N/m2 and the density of air is 1.23 kg/m3. Assuming one-dimensional, steady, inviscid flow, the
velocity in the test section as measured at point B is ___________ m/s.

Q.31 dC m
d
The rate of change of moment coefficient with respect to the angle of attack, , at half chord

point of a thin airfoil, as per approximations from the thin airfoil theory is
(A) π/4 radian-1 (B) π/2 radian-1 (C) π radian-1 (D) 2π radian-1

Q.32 An untwisted wing of elliptic planform and aspect ratio 6 consists of thin symmetric airfoil
sections. The coefficient of lift (CL) at 10 o angle of attack assuming inviscid incompressible flow
is
(A) π2/16 (B) π2/12 (C) π2/8 (D) π/2

Q.33 A gaseous mixture of air and fuel enters a constant area combustion chamber at a velocity of 100
m/s and at a static temperature of 300 K. The heat release due to combustion is 1000 kJ/kg. The
specific heat at constant pressure of the calorically perfect gas is 1000 J/kgK. The total temperature
of air-fuel mixture after combustion is ______ K.

Q.34 Consider 1-D, steady, inviscid, compressible flow through a convergent nozzle. The total
temperature and total pressure are To , Po respectively. The flow through the nozzle is choked with
 o . If the total temperature is increased to 4To , with total pressure remaining
a mass flow rate of m
unchanged, then the mass flow rate through the nozzle
(A) remains unchanged.
o.
(B) becomes half of m
 o.
(C) becomes twice of m
o.
(D) becomes four times of m

4  4 y  0 , with the
Q.35 d2y dy
Consider a second order linear ordinary differential equation 2
dx dx
boundary conditions y( 0)  1;  1 . The value of y at x =1 is
dy
dx x 0

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) e (D) e2

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.36 Consider the following system of linear equations:

2x – y + z = 1
3x – 3y + 4z = 6
x – 2y + 3z = 4
This system of linear equations has
(A) no solution.
(B) one solution.
(C) two solutions.
(D) three solutions.

Q.37 A bar made of linear elastic isotropic material is fixed at one end and subjected to an axial force of

Young’s Modulus is 1  105 N/mm2. The strain energy stored in the bar is ____ Nmm.
1 kN at the other end. The cross-sectional area of the bar is 100 mm2, length is 100 mm and the

Young’s modulus 1  105 N/mm2 and geometry such that its moment of inertia is 100 mm4 and
Q.38 A cantilever beam-spring system is shown in the figure. The beam is made with a material of

length l = 100 mm. It is supported by a spring of stiffness K = 30 N/mm and subjected to a load of
P = 100 N at the point ‘B’. The deflection at the point ‘B’ due to the load P is ____mm.

Q.39 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following statements, [a] and [r],

[a]: Ribs, used in airplane wings, increase the column buckling strength of the longitudinal
stiffeners.

[r]: Ribs distribute concentrated loads into the structure and redistribute stresses around
discontinuities.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

AE 6/9

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

torque of 62.5  103 Nmm. The maximum possible thickness of the channel section, such that the
Q.40 A channel section shown in the figure has uniform thickness. It is subjected to an anticlockwise

shear stress induced in it does not exceed 100 N/mm2, is ____ mm.

Q.41 The governing differential equation of motion of a damped system is given by

c  kx  0 . If m = 1 kg, c = 2 Ns/m and k = 2 N/m then the frequency of the damped

d2x dx
m 2
dt dt
oscillation of this system is ____ rad/s.

Q.42 The two dimensional state of stress in a body is described by the Airy’s stress function:

5  3 7 E
x4 x3y x 2y2 xy 3 y4
. The Airy’s stress function will satisfy the equilibrium
12 6 2 6 12
and the compatibility requirements if and only if the value of the coefficient E is ____.

 x sin x dx
Q.43 

The value of definite integral is _______.

0

Q.44 Use Newton-Raphson method to solve the equation: x e  1 . Begin with the initial guess
x

x 0  0.5 . The solution after one step is x  _________.

Q.45 A wall of thickness 5 mm is heated by a hot gas flowing along the wall. The gas is at a temperature
of 3000 K, and the convective heat transfer coefficient is 160 W/m2K. The wall thermal
conductivity is 40 W/mK. If the colder side of the wall is held at 500 K, the temperature of the side
exposed to the hot gas is _______ K.

Q.46 A launch vehicle has a main rocket engine with two identical strap-on motors, all of which fire
simultaneously during the operation. The main engine delivers a thrust of 6300 kN with a specific
impulse of 428 s. Each strap-on motor delivers a thrust of 12000 kN with specific impulse of 292 s.
The acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The effective (combined) specific impulse of the
vehicle is _______ s.

A substance experiences an entropy change of s  0 in a quasi-steady process. The rise in

temperature (corresponding to the entropy change s ) is highest for the following process:
Q.47

(A) isenthalpic (B) isobaric (C) isochoric (D) isothermal

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.48 In a particular rocket engine, helium propellant is heated to 6000 K and 95% of its total enthalpy is
recovered as kinetic energy of the nozzle exhaust. Consider helium to be a calorically perfect gas
with specific heat at constant pressure of 5200 J/kgK. The exhaust velocity for such a rocket for an
optimum expansion is _____ m/s.

Q.49 An aircraft is flying level in the North direction at a velocity of 55 m/s under cross wind from East
to West of 5 m/s. For the given aircraft Cnβ = 0.012/deg and Cnδr = -0.0072/deg, where δr is the
rudder deflection and β is the side slip angle. The rudder deflection exerted by pilot is __________
degrees.

Q.50 An aircraft weighing 10000 N is flying level at 100 m/s and it is powered by a jet engine. The thrust
required for level flight is 1000 N. The maximum possible thrust produced by the jet engine is 5000
N. The minimum time required to climb 1000 m, when flight speed is 100 m/s, is ________s.

Q.51 The aircraft velocity (m/s) components in body axes are given as [u, v, w] = [100, 10, 10]. The air
velocity (m/s), angle of attack (deg) and sideslip angle (deg) in that order are
(A) [120, 0.1, 0.1] (B) [100, 0.1, 0.1] (C) [100.995, 0.1, 5.73] (D) [100.995, 5.71, 5.68]

Q.52 The Dutch roll motion of the aircraft is described by following relationship

   0.26  1  

   
 r   4.49  0.76  r 

The undamped natural frequency (rad/s) and damping ratio for the Dutch roll motion in that order
are:
(A) 4.68, 1.02 (B) 4.49, 1.02 (C) 2.165, 0.235 (D) 2.165, 1.02

Q.53 A glider weighing 3300 N is flying at 1000 m above sea level. The wing area is 14.1 m2 and the air
density is 1.23 kg/m3. Under zero wind conditions, the velocity for maximum range is __________
m/s.

α (deg) CL CD CL/CD
11 1.46 0.0865 16.9
9 1.36 0.0675 20.1
7 1.23 0.0535 22.9
5 1.08 0.0440 24.5
3 0.90 0.0350 25.7
1 0.70 0.0275 25.4
-1 0.49 0.0220 22.2
-3 0.25 0.0180 13.8

Q.54 A rocket, with a total lift-off mass of 10000 kg, moves vertically upward from rest under a constant
gravitational acceleration of 9.81 m/s2. The propellant mass of 8400 kg burns at a constant rate of
1200 kg/s. If the specific impulse of the rocket engine is 240 s, neglecting drag, the burnout
velocity in m/s is
(A) 3933.7 (B) 4314.6 (C) 4245.9 (D) 4383.3

AE 8/9

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GATE 2016 Aerospace Engineering

Q.55 A satellite is injected at an altitude of 350 km above the Earth’s surface, with a velocity of 8.0 km/s
parallel to the local horizon. (Earth radius=6378 km, µ E (GM=Gravitational constant × Earth mass)
= 3.986×1014 m3s-2). The satellite
(A) forms a circular orbit. (B) forms an elliptic orbit.
(C) escapes from Earth’s gravitational field. (D) falls back to earth.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE 9/9

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Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA B 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 NAT GA 120.0 : 120.0 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 NAT GA 7.0 : 7.0 2
1 MCQ AE A 1
2 NAT AE -3.0 : -3.0 1
3 MCQ AE D 1
4 MCQ AE C 1
5 MCQ AE D 1
6 MCQ AE C 1
7 MCQ AE C 1
8 MCQ AE A 1
9 MCQ AE B 1
10 MCQ AE B 1
11 NAT AE 2.0 : 2.0 1
12 MCQ AE A 1
13 MCQ AE B 1
14 NAT AE 5.0 : 5.0 1
15 MCQ AE B 1
16 NAT AE 1.0 : 1.0 1
17 NAT AE 0.0 : 0.0 1
18 MCQ AE D 1
19 MCQ AE C 1
20 MCQ AE B 1
21 MCQ AE C 1
22 MCQ AE B 1
23 MCQ AE A 1
24 MCQ AE A 1
25 MCQ AE C 1
26 NAT AE 162 : 166 ; 1147.0 : 1150.0 2
27 MCQ AE B 2
28 NAT AE 2.9 : 3.1 2
29 MCQ AE D 2
30 NAT AE 40.0 : 41.0 2
31 MCQ AE B 2
32 MCQ AE B 2
33 NAT AE 1305 : 1305 2
34 MCQ AE B 2
35 MCQ AE A 2
36 MCQ AE A 2
37 NAT AE 5.0 : 5.0 2
38 NAT AE 1.5 : 1.7 2
39 MCQ AE B 2

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40 NAT AE 2.4 : 2.6 2
41 NAT AE 0.99 : 1.01 2
42 NAT AE -11.0 : -11.0 2
43 NAT AE 3.13 : 3.15 2
44 NAT AE 0.56 : 0.58 2
45 NAT AE 548 : 550 2
46 NAT AE 310 : 315 2
47 MCQ AE C 2
48 NAT AE 7690 : 7710 2
49 NAT AE 8.6 : 8.7 2
50 NAT AE 25.0 : 25.0 2
51 MCQ AE D 2
52 MCQ AE C 2
53 NAT AE 20.0 : 21.0 2
54 MCQ AE C 2
55 MCQ AE B 2

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Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA B 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 NAT GA 120.0 : 120.0 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 NAT GA 7.0 : 7.0 2
1 MCQ AE A 1
2 NAT AE -3.0 : -3.0 1
3 MCQ AE D 1
4 MCQ AE C 1
5 MCQ AE D 1
6 MCQ AE C 1
7 MCQ AE C 1
8 MCQ AE A 1
9 MCQ AE B 1
10 MCQ AE B 1
11 NAT AE 2.0 : 2.0 1
12 MCQ AE A 1
13 MCQ AE B 1
14 NAT AE 5.0 : 5.0 1
15 MCQ AE B 1
16 NAT AE 1.0 : 1.0 1
17 NAT AE 0.0 : 0.0 1
18 MCQ AE D 1
19 MCQ AE C 1
20 MCQ AE B 1
21 MCQ AE C 1
22 MCQ AE B 1
23 MCQ AE A 1
24 MCQ AE A 1
25 MCQ AE C 1
26 NAT AE 162 : 166 ; 1147.0 : 1150.0 2
27 MCQ AE B 2
28 NAT AE 2.9 : 3.1 2
29 MCQ AE D 2
30 NAT AE 40.0 : 41.0 2
31 MCQ AE B 2
32 MCQ AE B 2
33 NAT AE 1305 : 1305 2
34 MCQ AE B 2
35 MCQ AE A 2
36 MCQ AE A 2
37 NAT AE 5.0 : 5.0 2
38 NAT AE 1.5 : 1.7 2
39 MCQ AE B 2
40 NAT AE 2.4 : 2.6 2
41 NAT AE 1.0 : 1.0 2
42 NAT AE -11.0 : -11.0 2
43 NAT AE 3.13 : 3.15 2
44 NAT AE 0.56 : 0.58 2
45 NAT AE 548 : 550 2
46 NAT AE 310 : 315 2
47 MCQ AE C 2
48 NAT AE 7690 : 7710 2
49 NAT AE 8.6 : 8.7 2
50 NAT AE 25.0 : 25.0 2
51 MCQ AE D 2
52 MCQ AE C 2
53 NAT AE 20.0 : 21.0 2
54 MCQ AE C 2
55 MCQ AE B 2
GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

 u2 
∂ 
Q.1
∂u
+  =
2
∂t ∂x
The partial differential equation 0 is

(A) linear and first order (B) linear and second order
(C) non-linear and first order (D) non-linear and second order

a x+b y =e
Q.2 The system of equations for the variables x and y

c x+d y= f
has a unique solution only if
(A) a d − b c ≠ 0 (B) a c − b d ≠ 0 (C) a + c ≠ b + d (D) a − c ≠ b − d

Q.3 A linear mass-spring-dashpot system is over-damped. In free vibration, this system undergoes
(A) non-oscillatory motion (B) random motion
(C) oscillatory and periodic motion (D) oscillatory and non-periodic motion

Q.4 A cantilever with thin-walled channel cross section is subjected to a lateral force at its shear center.
The cantilever undergoes
(A) bending without twisting (B) bending and twisting
(C) neither bending nor twisting (D) twisting without bending

Q.5 The two non-zero principal stresses at a point in a thin plate are �1 = 25 ��� and
�2 = −25 ���. The maximum shear stress (in ���) at this point is _____.

Q.6 Consider the density and altitude at the base of an isothermal layer in the standard atmosphere to be
�1 and ℎ1 , respectively. The density variation with altitude (� versus h) in that layer is governed by
(�: specific gas constant, �: temperature, �� : acceleration due to gravity at sea level)
�� ��
� �
= � −��� �(ℎ−ℎ 1 = � −��� �(ℎ 1 −ℎ
) )
(A) (B)
�1 �1
�� ��
� −� �(ℎ−ℎ 1 ) � −� �(ℎ 1 −ℎ )
(C) =� �� (D) =� ��
�1 �1

Q.7 For constant free stream velocity and density, a change in lift for a large aspect ratio straight wing,
with thin cambered airfoil section at small angles of attack, leads to
(A) a shift of the aerodynamic center and no shift of the center of pressure
(B) a shift of the center of pressure and no shift of the aerodynamic center
(C) shift of both the aerodynamic center and the center of pressure
(D) no shift either of the aerodynamic center or of the center of pressure

Q.8 Which one of the following modes of a stable aircraft has non-oscillatory response characteristics?
(A) Short period (B) Phugoid
(C) Dutch roll (D) Spiral

Q.9 As a candidate for a vertical tail, which one of the following airfoil sections is appropriate?

(A) NACA 0012 (B) NACA 2312 (C) NACA 23012 (D) Clarke Y profile

AE 1/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.10 The primary purpose of a trailing edge flap is to

(A) avoid flow separation (B) increase Cl , max
(C) reduce wave drag (D) reduce induced drag

Q.11 Which one of the following aero engines has the highest propulsive efficiency?

(A) Turbojet engine without afterburner (B) Turbojet engine with afterburner
(C) Turbofan engine (D) Ramjet engine

Q.12 The stoichiometric fuel-to-air ratio in an aircraft engine combustor varies with the compressor
pressure ratio as follows:
(A) increases linearly (B) decreases linearly
(C) is independent (D) increases nonlinearly

Q.13 A rocket engine produces a total impulse of 112 ��. � in a burn time period of 3.5 minutes with a
propellant mass flow rate of 0.25 ��/�. The effective exhaust velocity (in �/�) of gas ejecting
from the engine is _____.

Q.14 The function y = x 3 − x has

(A) no inflection point (B) one inflection point
(C) two inflection points (D) three inflection points

Q.15 A 0.5 �� mass is suspended vertically from a point fixed on the Earth by a spring having a stiffness
of 5 �/��. The static displacement (in ��) of the mass is _____.

Q.16 A slender structure is subjected to four different loading cases (I, II, III and IV) as shown below
(Figures not to scale). Which pair of cases results in identical stress distribution at section S – S
located far away from both ends?
[I] [II]

[III] [IV]

(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) IV and I

AE 2/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.17 An aircraft in level and unaccelerated flight with a velocity of �∞ = 300 �/� requires a power of
�
9 × 106 �. If the aircraft weighs 1.5 × 105 �, the lift-to-drag ratio is _____.
�

Q.18 The percentage change in the lift-off distance for a 20 % increase in aircraft weight is _____.

Q.19 Consider a monoplane wing and a biplane wing with identical airfoil sections, wingspans and
incidence angles in identical conditions in a wind tunnel. As compared to the monoplane, the
biplane experiences
(A) a higher lift and a higher drag (B) a higher lift and a lower drag
(C) a lower lift and a lower drag (D) a lower lift and a higher drag

Q.20 A statically stable trimmed aircraft experiences a gust and the angle of attack reduces momentarily.
As a result, the center of pressure of the aircraft
(A) shifts forward (B) shifts rearward
(C) does not shift (D) coincides with the neutral point

Q.21 Consider a wing of elliptic planform, with its aspect ratio AR → ∞ . Its lift-curve slope,

= _____.
dα
dC L

Q.22 An ideal gas in a reservoir has a specific stagnation enthalpy of h0 . The gas is isentropically
h0
expanded to a new specific stagnation enthalpy of and velocity u. The flow is one-dimensional
2
u2
and steady. Then = _____.
h0

Q.23 U∞L
ν
The Reynolds number, Re is defined as where L is the length scale for a flow, U ∞ is its

reference velocity and ν is the coefficient of kinematic viscosity. In the laminar boundary layer
∂u
∂x
approximation, comparison of the dimensions of the convection term u and the viscous term

∂ 2u
ν leads to the following relation between the boundary layer thickness δ and Re :
∂x 2

(A) δ ∝ Re (B) δ ∝ 1 Re (C) δ ∝ Re (D) δ ∝ 1 Re

following components - intake, compressor, turbine and nozzle - are denoted by η i , η c , η t and η n ,
Q.24 Isentropic efficiencies of an aircraft engine operating at typical subsonic cruise conditions with the

respectively. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) η i < ηc < ηt < η n ηt < ηi < η c < η n

ηc < ηt < ηi < η n ηc < ηi < ηt < η n
(B)

(C) (D)

AE 3/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.25 A rocket nozzle is designed to produce maximum thrust at an altitude, � = 8 �� from the sea
level. The nozzle operates in
(A) under-expanded condition for � > 8 ��
(B) under-expanded condition for � < 8 ��
(C) sonic exit condition for � > 8 ��
(D) unchoked condition for � < 8 ��

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

− 2 + y = 0 , if the values of the integration constants are identical and

Q.26 d2y dy
In the solution of

one of the initial conditions is specified as y (0) = 1 , the other initial condition y ′(0) = _____.
2
dx dx

= 1− 2 y asymptotically
Q.27 dy
For � > 0, the general solution of the differential equation
dx
approaches _______.

Q.28 For a parabola defined by y = ax 2 + bx + c, a ≠ 0, the coordinates ( x, y ) of the extremum are

 −b b 2 − 4ac   − b − b 2 + 4ac 
(A)  + (B)  
 2a   2a 
 
,0 ,
2a 2a

 − b − b 2 + 4ac 
(C)   (D) (0, c )
 2a 
,
4a

Q.29 60 50
The 2-D stress state at a point P in the x-y coordinate system is � � ���. The magnitude
50 −40
of the tangential stress (in ���) on a surface normal to the x-axis at P is _____.

Q.30 A cube made of a linear elastic isotropic material is subjected to a uniform hydrostatic pressure of
100 �/mm2. Under this load, the volume of the cube shrinks by 0.05%. The Young's modulus of
the material, � = 300 ���. The Poisson's ratio of the material is _____.

Q.31 A massless cantilever beam PQ has a solid square cross section (10 �� × 10 ��). This beam is
subjected to a load � through a rigid massless link at the point Q, as shown below (figure not to
scale). If the Young's modulus of the material � = 200 ���, the deflection (in ��) at point Q
is _____.

AE 4/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.32 � �
An aircraft, with a wing loading �
= 500 �/� 2 , is gliding at � � = 10 and �� = 0.69.
� ���
Considering the free stream density �∞ = 0.9 ��/� , the equilibrium glide speed (in �/�)
3

is _____.

Q.33 For a thin flat plate at 2 degrees angle of attack, the pitching moment coefficient about the trailing
edge is _____.

Q.34 A satellite is to be transferred from its geostationary orbit to a circular polar orbit of the same radius
through a single impulse out-of-plane maneuver. The magnitude of the change in velocity required
is __________ times the magnitude of the escape velocity.

Q.35 A planetary probe is launched at a speed of 200 ��/� and at a distance of 71,400 �� from the
mass center of its nearest planet of mass 1.9 × 1028 ��. The universal gravitational constant,
�3
� = 6.67 × 10−11 . The ensuing path of the probe would be
�� � 2

(A) elliptic (B) hyperbolic (C) parabolic (D) circular

u( y ) 3 y 1  y 
Q.36 The velocity profile of an incompressible laminar boundary layer over a flat plate developing under

= −   . The freestream velocity U ∞ = 10 m / s and

3

U ∞ 2δ 2  δ 
constant pressure is given by

the dynamic viscosity of the fluid µ = 1.8 × 10− 5

kg
. At a streamwise station where the boundary
ms
layer thickness δ = 5 mm , the wall shear stress is _________ ×10 −3 Pa .

Q.37 The Pitot tube of an aircraft registers a pressure p0 = 54051 N / m 2 . The static pressure, density
and the ratio of specific heats of the freestream are p∞ = 45565 N / m 2 , ρ∞ = 0.6417 kg / m3 and
� = 1.4, respectively. The indicated airspeed (in m / s ) is

(A) 157.6 (B) 162.6 (C) 172.0 (D) 182.3

Q.38 Consider a NACA 0012 aerofoil of chord c in a freestream with velocity V∞ at a non-zero positive
angle of attack α . The average time-of-flight for a particle to move from the leading edge to the
trailing edge on the suction and pressure sides are t1 and t 2 , respectively. Thin aerofoil theory
(1 + cos θ )α
sin θ
yields the velocity perturbation to the freestream as V∞ on the suction side and as

(1 + cos θ )α
−V∞ on the pressure side, where θ corresponds to the chordwise position,
sin θ
x = (1 − cosθ ) . Then t2 − t1 is
c
2
8πα c 4παc 8παc
(A) −
V∞ ( 4 − π 2α 2 ) (
V∞ 4 − π 2α 2 ) (
V∞ 4 − π 2α 2 )
(B) 0 (C) (D)

AE 5/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.39 Air enters an aircraft engine at a velocity of 180 �/� with a flow rate of 94 ��/�. The engine
combustor requires 9.2 ��/� of air to burn 1 ��/� of fuel. The velocity of gas exiting from the
engine is 640 �/�. The momentum thrust (in �) developed by the engine is
(A) 43241 (B) 45594 (C) 47940 (D) 49779

Q.40 A solid rocket motor is designed with a cylindrical end-burning propellant grain of length 1 � and
diameter 32 ��. The density of the propellant grain is 1750 ��/� 3 . The specific impulse of the
motor is 190 � and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 �/� 2 . If the propellant burns for a period
of 150 �, then the thrust (in �) produced by the rocket motor is ________.

Q.41 A liquid propellant rocket has the following component masses:

= 180 kg
= 470 kg
Mass of payload

= 1170 kg
Mass of fuel

= 150 kg
Mass of oxidizer

= 20 kg
Mass of structures
Mass of guidance systems

The effective exhaust velocity is 3136 �/�. The velocity increment (in ��/�) of the rocket at
burnout, while operating in outer space, is ________.

Q.42 If all the eigenvalues of a matrix are real and equal, then
(A) the matrix is diagonalizable
(B) its eigenvectors are not necessarily linearly independent
(C) its eigenvectors are linearly independent
(D) its determinant is necessarily zero

∫ (4 x )
+ 3 x 2 + 2 x + 1 dx evaluated numerically using Simpson's rule with
Q.43 2
3
The value of the integral
1
one step is
(A) 26.5 (B) 26 (C) 25.5 (D) 25.3

Q.44 The following data is for a single degree of freedom system with viscous damping:
mass, � = 10 ��; spring stiffness, � = 2.25 �/��;
damping coefficient, � = 0.0125 � �/��.
The ratio of any two successive amplitudes is _____.

AE 6/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.45 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following assertion [a] and reason [r]:

Assertion [a]: Aircraft directional static stability can be improved by moving the vertical tail
rearward.

Reason [r]: Moving the vertical tail rearward increases the moment arm from the tail aerodynamic
center to the aircraft center of gravity.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true and [r] is false

Q.46 Consider a 2-D blunt body in an incompressible fluid stream. The flow is irrotational and can be
modeled as a linear combination of a uniform flow and a line source (Rankine half body) as shown
below. Let s be the distance of the line source from the front stagnation point. Let d be the

the oncoming stream reaches 90% of its undisturbed velocity. Then d / s = _____.
upstream distance from the stagnation point to the streamwise location (labeled below as P) where

Rankine half body

P
uniform flow line source
d s

Q.47 Following are the operational parameters of an axial compressor stage:

Air mass flow rate = 24 ��/�

Static temperature of air at the rotor inlet = 278 �
Velocity of air at the rotor inlet (zero whirl velocity) = 140 �/�
Work done on the compressor rotor = 734 ��
Isentropic efficiency of the compressor stage = 0.86
Ratio of specific heats = 1.4
Specific heat at constant pressure = 1.005 ��/���

The stagnation pressure ratio across the axial compressor stage is ________.

Q.48 The thin rectangular tube shown below is made of a material with shear modulus, � = 80 ���.
The shear flow is calculated based on the mid-thickness dimensions. If the free end is allowed to
twist no more than 0.0727 ���, then the maximum torque (in ��) which the tube can be subjected
to at its free end is _______.

AE 7/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE – AE

Q.49 A 200 �� long simply-supported column has a 5 �� × 10 �� rectangular cross section. The
Young's modulus of the material, � = 200 ���. Assuming a factor of safety of 2.5 corresponding
to the buckling load, the maximum load (in �) the column can support in compression is _______.

Q.50 For a level flight at cruise altitude, �� = 0.018 with drag coefficient at zero lift, ��,0 = 0.015.
For a 30° climb at the same altitude and speed, �� = _____ × 10−3 .

Q.51 �
An aircraft is flying with inertial ground and wind speeds of v � = (100, 5, 5) �/� and
�
v � = (0, −5, −10) �/�, respectively, as expressed in the body frame. The corresponding sideslip
angle (in degrees) is

(A) 0 (B) 5.65 (C) 8.49 (D) 9.54

Q.52 The elliptical area swept by a satellite is 5.6 × 109 ��2 in one full orbit. Its angular speed is
observed to be 0.00125 ���/� when it is at a distance of 7,200 �� from the center of mass of its
primary. Its orbital period (in Earth days) is _______.

(γ − 1)M 12 + 2 .
Q.53 For a normal shock, the relation between the upstream Mach number ( M 1 ) and the downstream

Mach number ( M 2 ) is given by M 2 = For an ideal gas with γ = 1.4 , the

2γ M 1 + 1 − γ
2
2

asymptotic value of the downstream Mach number is _______.

Q.54 A centrifugal air compressor is operating at the following conditions:

= 288 K
= 1.15 bar
Inlet stagnation temperature

= 454 K
Inlet stagnation pressure

= 4.8 bar
Exit stagnation temperature
Exit stagnation pressure

heats, γ = 1.4 and specific heat at constant pressure, C p = 1.005 kJ / kgK ) is ______ kJ / kg.
The energy loss due to non-isentropic compression per unit mass of flowing air (ratio of specific

Q.55 Hot gas (ratio of specific heats, γ = 1.33 ) at a temperature of 1450 K enters into an axial turbine
and expands isentropically. Assume that the kinetic energy of the gas across the turbine is
negligible. If the ratio of inlet to outlet pressures of the turbine is 9.5 , then the temperature (in �)
of gas exiting the turbine is _______.

AE 8/8

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 Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: AE:AEROSPACE ENGINEERING 1st Feb shift2

Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
280
Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 11 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 13 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 15 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
24.99 to 25.01

Question Number : 16 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 17 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 18 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 19 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 20 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 22 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 23 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
2131.1 to 2139.1

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.97 to 1.01

Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 27 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4.9 to 5.1

Question Number : 28 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
43.9 to 44.1
Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 30 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 31 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
6.27 to 6.29

Question Number : 32 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.99 to 1.01

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 34 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 36 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.9 to 2.1

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.49 to 0.51

Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
49.99 to 50.01

Question Number : 40 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.24 to 0.26

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
5.45 to 5.60

Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
39.5 to 40.5

Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.15 to 0.18

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
0.99 to 1.01

Question Number : 45 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 46 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
53.9 to 54.1

Question Number : 47 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 49 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 50 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1742 to 1752

Question Number : 51 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
5.42 to 5.48

Question Number : 52 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 53 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 54 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.27 to 1.32

Question Number : 55 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 56 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
8.9 to 9.1

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.33 to 1.40

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
990 to 1020

Question Number : 59 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
2046 to 2075

Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
17.2 to 17.3

Question Number : 61 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 62 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.9 to 2.1

Question Number : 63 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.37 to 0.39

Question Number : 64 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
20.5 to 21.3

Question Number : 65 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
824.0 to 832.1
 GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :

13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
 only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :

18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.

19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
 GATE 2014 Examination
AE: Aerospace Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

14
Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.

Q.4
20
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of −1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
E
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
AT

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
G

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal

(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5

GA 1/2
GATE 2014 SET- 1 General Aptitude -GA
Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)

14
20
E
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
AT

(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
G

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 2/2
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 For a real symmetric matrix [A], which of the following statements is true:
(A) The matrix is always diagonalizable and invertible.
(B) The matrix is always invertible but not necessarily diagonalizable.
(C) The matrix is always diagonalizable but not necessarily invertible.
(D) The matrix is always neither diagonalizable nor invertible.

Q.2 ∞
m2
∑ 3m (x − 2) converges for all x with x − 2 ≤ R given by
m
The series s =
m =1

(A) R = 0 (B) R = 3 (C) R = ∞ (D) R = 1 / 3

)
Q.3 sin(1 / x ), x ≠ 0
The function given by f(x) = 0,

14
{ x=0 is
(A) Unbounded everywhere (B) Bounded and continuous everywhere
(C) Bounded but not continuous at x = 0 (D) Continuous and differentiable everywhere

20
Q.4 d  dy 
Given the boundary-value problem  x  + ky = 0, 0 < x < 1 , with y (0) = y (1) = 0 . Then the
dx  dx 
solutions of the boundary-value problem for k = 1 (given by y1 ) and k = 5 (given by y5 ) satisfy:
1 dy1 dy5
∫
E
y1 y5 dx = 0
1
(A)
0
(B) ∫
0dx dx
dx = 0
1 dy dy
∫ y1 y5 dx ≠ 0
1
(C) (D) ∫ ( y1 y5 + 1 5 )dx = 0
AT

0 0 dx dx

Q.5 1
The value of I = ∫ 1000 x
4
dx , obtained by using Simpson’s rule with 2 equally spaced intervals is,
0

(A) 200 (B) 400 (C) 180 (D) 208

(G

Q.6 For a NACA 5-digit airfoil of chord c, the designed lift coefficient and location of maximum
camber along the chord from the leading edge are denoted by CL and Xm respectively. For
NACA12018 airfoil, which combination of CL and Xm given below are correct?
(A)CL =0.15 and Xm = 0.1c (B)CL =0.12 and Xm = 0.2c
AE

(C)CL=0.12 and Xm = 0.18c (D)CL =0.15 and Xm = 0.2c

Q.7 For inviscid, supersonic flow over a diamond shaped airfoil, shown in the figure, which statement is
correct among the following?

(A) The airfoil will experience zero lift and positive drag force
(B) The airfoil will experience positive lift and zero drag force
(C) The airfoil will experience negative lift and zero drag force
(D) The airfoil will experience positive lift and positive drag force

AE 1/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.8 Consider supersonic flow near a corner (at an angle θfrom the horizontal) with an attached oblique
shock (at an angle β with horizontal) as shown in figure. If Mach number M decreases gradually
from a high supersonic value, which of the following statements is correct?

(A)β will decrease if the shock is a weak shock

(B)β will decrease if the shock is a strong shock
(C)β will increase for both weak and strong shocks
(D)β remains unchanged for both weak and strong shocks

)
14
Q.9 The streamlines of a potential line vortex is concentric circles with respect to the vortex center as
shown in figure. Velocity along these streamlines, outside the core of the vortex can be written as,
Γ Γ
𝑣𝑣𝜃𝜃 = , where strength of the vortex is and r is radial direction. The value of circulation
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋
along the curve shown in the figure is:

20
E
AT

(A) Γ (B) −2Γ (C) 2Γ (D) 0

Q.10 To observe unsteady separated flow in a diverging channel, bubbles are injected at each 10ms
interval at point A as shown in figure. These bubblesact as tracer particles and follow the flow
(G

faithfully. The curved line AB shown at any instant represents:

AE

(A) Streamline, streakline and pathline (B) Streamline and pathline

(C) Only a pathline (D) Only a streakline

Q.11 It is desired to measure the Young’s modulus and the Poisson’s ratio of a given homogeneous,
isotropic material. A bar of length 20cm and square cross-section (10mm× 10mm) of this material is
subjected to a tensile load of 40kN. Under this load, length increases to 20.1cm while the cross-
section reduces to 9.98mm× 9.98mm. Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio of the material are:
(A) 80GPa& 0.4 respectively (B) 40GPa& -0.4 respectively
(C) 80GPa& -0.2 respectively (D) 40GPa& 0.2 respectively

AE 2/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.12 In general, for any given solid subjected to arbitrary loading, which of the following statements is
always true:
(A) Volume does not vary with loading (B) Mass does not vary with loading
(C) Density does not vary with loading (D) Volume, mass and density vary with loading

Q.13 Which one of the following objects with inclined face at 45𝑜𝑜 , subjected to the given stresses, are in
static equilibrium:

)
14
(A) (B)

20
a

(C) (D)

Q.14 A damped single degree of freedom system whose undamped natural frequency,𝝎𝝎𝒏𝒏=10Hz, is
E
subjected to sinusoidal external force. Power is half of the maximumfor the two frequencies of
60.9469 rad/s and 64.7168 rad/s. The damping factor associated with the vibrating system (in %) is
_______.
AT

Q.15 The boundary conditions for a rod with circular cross-section, under torsional vibration,are changed
from fixed-free to fixed-fixed. The fundamental natural frequency of the fixed-fixed rod is k times
that of fixed-free rod. The value of k is
(G

(A) 1.5 (B) π (C) 2.0 (D) 0.5

Q.16 Match the appropriate engine (in right column) with the corresponding aircraft (in left column) for
most efficient performance of the engine.
a. Low speed transport aircraft i. Ramjet
AE

b. High subsonic civilian aircraft ii. Turboprop

c. Supersonic fighter aircraft iii. Turbojet
d. Hypersonic aircraft iv. Turbofan

(A) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii (B) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv

(C) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii (D) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i

Q.17 For a given fuel flow rate and thermal efficiency, the take-off thrust for a gas turbine engine
burning aviation turbine fuel (considering fuel-air ratiof<<1) is
(A) Directly proportional to exhaust velocity
(B) Inversely proportional to exhaust velocity
(C) Independent of exhaust velocity
(D) Directly proportional to the square of the exhaust velocity

AE 3/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.18 For a fifty percent reaction axial compressor stage, following statements are given:
I. Velocity triangles at the entry and exit of the rotor are symmetrical
II. The whirl or swirl component of absolute velocity at the entry of rotor and entry of stator are
same.
Which of the following options are correct?
(A) Both I and II are correct statements (B) I is correct but II is incorrect
(C) I is incorrect but II is correct (D) Both I and II are incorrect

Q.19 A small rocket having a specific impulse of 200s produces a total thrust of 98kN, out of which 10kN
is the pressure thrust. Considering the acceleration due to gravity to be 9.8m/s2, the propellant mass
flow rate in kg/s is
(A) 55.1 (B) 44.9 (C) 50 (D) 60.2

)
Q.20 The thrust produced by a turbojet engine

14
(A) Increases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(B) Decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(C) Remains constant with increasing compressor pressure ratio
(D) First increases and then decreases with increasing compressor pressure ratio

20
Q.21 The moment coefficient measured about the centre of gravity and about aerodynamic centre of a
given wing-body combination are 0.0065 and -0.0235 respectively. The aerodynamic centre lies
0.06 chord lengths ahead of the centre of gravity. The lift coefficient for this wing-body is _____.

Q.22 The vertical ground load factor on a stationary aircraft parked in its hangar is:
E
(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) Not defined (D) 1

Q.23 Under what conditionshould a glider be operated to ensure minimum sink rate?
AT

(A) Maximum CL/CD (B) Minimum CL/CD

(C) Maximum CD/CL3/2 (D) Minimum CD/CL3/2

Q.24 In most airplanes, the Dutch roll mode can be excited by applying
(G

(A) a step input to the elevators (B) a step input to the rudder
(C) a sinusoidal input to the aileron (D) an impulse input to the elevators

Q.25 Considering R as the radius of the moon, the ratio of the velocities of two spacecraft orbiting moon
in circular orbit at altitudes R and 2R above the surface of the moon is ________.
AE

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

3 −3
 . Then det (− [ A] + 7[ A] − 3[ I ]) is
Q.26
If [A] =  2

 − 3 4 
(A) 0 (B) -324 (C) 324 (D) 6

AE 4/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.27 −2, −π < x<0

={
For the periodic function given by f ( x ) 2, 0< x<π with f ( x + 2π ) = f ( x) , using
1 1 1
Fourier series, the sum s = 1 − + − +  converges to
3 5 7
π π π
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
3 4 5

Q.28 Let Γ be the boundary of the closed circular region A given by x 2 + y 2 ≤ 1 . Then
( )
I = ∫ 3 x 3 − 9 xy 2 ds (where ds means integration along the bounding curve) is
Γ

(A) π (B) − π (C) 1 (D) 0

)
14
Q.29 Solution to the boundary-value problem
d 2u du
− 9 2 + u = 5 x, 0 < x < 3 with u (0) = 0, = 0 is
dx dx x =3

(
15e − x / 3
) (
15e − x / 3
)

20
(A) u ( x) = e − e x / 3 + 5x (B) u ( x) = e + e x / 3 + 5x
1 + e2 1 + e2
15 sin( x / 3) 15 sin( x / 3) 5 3
(C) u ( x) = − + 5x (D) u ( x) = − − x
cos(1) cos(1) 54

Q.30 d 2u
E
du
The Laplace transform L(u(t))=U(s), for the solution u(t) of the problem 2
+ 2 + u = 1, t > 0
dt dt
.
AT

du (0)
with initial conditions u (0) = 0, = 5 is given by:
dt
6 5s + 1 1 − 5s 5s 2 + 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
( s + 1) 2 s ( s + 1) 2 s ( s + 1) 2 s ( s + 1) 2
(G

Q.31 For a steady, incompressible two-dimensional flow, represented in Cartesian co-ordinates (𝑥𝑥, 𝑦𝑦), a
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
student correctly writes the equation of pathline of any arbitrary particle as, = 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 and = 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏,
-1
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
wherea and bare constants having unit of (second) . If value of a is 5, the value of b is _____.
AE

AE 5/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.32 Figures (a) - (d) below show four objects. Dimensions and surface conditions of the objects are
shown in the respective figures. All four objects are placed independently in a steady, uniform flow
of same velocity and the direction of flow is from left to right as shown in (a). The flow field can be
considered as 2-D, viscous and incompressible. Following statements are made regarding the drag
that these objects experience.

(i) Drag of object (a) is more than the drag of object (d)

)
(ii) Drag of object (a) is less than the drag of object (d)
(iii) Drag of object (b) is more than the drag of object (c)

14
(iv) Drag of object (c) is more than the drag of object (b)
(v) Drag of object (a) is more than the drag of object (b)

Choose the correct combination of statements from the options given above:

20
(A) (i), (iii), (v) (B) (ii), (iv), (v) (C) (i), (iv), (v) (D) (i), (iii)

Q.33 A student needs to find velocity across a stationary normal shock. He measures density and
pressure across the shock as shown in the figure below. 1bar = 105 Pa. (No shock table is needed
for the calculations). The value of u1 in m/s is ____.
E
AT

Q.34 For inviscid, compressible flow past a thin airfoil, shown in the figure, free-stream Mach number
(G

and pressure are denoted by 𝑴𝑴∞ and 𝒑𝒑∞ respectively. Ratio of pressure at point A and 𝒑𝒑∞ is 0.8
and specific heat ratio is 1.4. If the Mach number at point A is 1.0 and rest of the flow field is
subsonic, the value of 𝑴𝑴∞ is
AE

(A) 2.95 (B) 0.79 (C) 1.18 (D) 0.64

AE 6/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.35 A student can measure free-stream velocity of a low-speed wind tunnel using a
i. Pitot tube alone aligned with the flow direction.
ii. Pitot tube aligned with the flow direction with static pressure measurement at an
appropriate position on the tunnel wall.
iii. Pitot tube aligned with the flow direction along with barometer pressure reading of the
outside ambient.
iv. Pitot static tube alone aligned with the flow direction.

Considering the above statements, which of the following options is correct?

(A) (i) only (B) (i) & (ii) (C) (ii) & (iv) (D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

Q.36 Induced velocity w at a point 𝑧𝑧 = 𝑧𝑧1 along the lifting line can be calculated using the formula
1 𝑠𝑠 𝑑𝑑Γ 1
𝑤𝑤(𝑧𝑧1 ) = − 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑.
4𝜋𝜋 ∫−𝑠𝑠 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑧𝑧−𝑧𝑧1

)
Γ2 𝑧𝑧 2

14
Given + = 1, where𝑧𝑧, Γ𝑜𝑜 and sare given in figure below.
Γ 2𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠 2
For theabove semi-elliptic distribution of circulation, Γ, the downwash velocity at any point 𝑧𝑧1, for
Γ𝑜𝑜 𝑠𝑠 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
symmetric flight can be obtained as, 𝑤𝑤(𝑧𝑧1 ) = [𝜋𝜋 + 𝑧𝑧1 𝐼𝐼], where 𝐼𝐼 = 𝑧𝑧1 ∫−𝑠𝑠 2 .
4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 �𝑠𝑠 −𝑧𝑧2 �𝑧𝑧−𝑧𝑧 �
1

20
𝑠𝑠 𝑧𝑧 2 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
Which of the following options is correct if the induced drag is 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖 (given ∫
−𝑠𝑠
�1 − 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = )
𝑠𝑠 2 2
E
AT

8𝜌𝜌Γ2 8𝜌𝜌Γ2
(A)I=0 and 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖 = 𝜋𝜋 𝑜𝑜 (B)I= 1 and 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖 = 𝜋𝜋 𝑜𝑜
𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋Γ2𝑜𝑜 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋Γ2𝑜𝑜
(C)I=0 and 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖 = (D)I= 1 and 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖 =
(G

8 8

Q.37 Two overflowing water reservoirs are connected with a100m long pipe of circular cross-section (of
radius, R = 0.02m), such that height difference h remains constant as shown in the figure below.
The centerline velocity in the pipe is 10m/s. The velocity profile inside the pipe over the entire
2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑅𝑅 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑟𝑟2
length is 𝑢𝑢 = − �1 − 2 �, where, is a constant pressure gradient along the pipe length,
AE

4𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑅𝑅 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

x is measured from theleft end of the pipe along its central axis and r is radial location inside the
pipe with respect to its axis.(Given data: Density and kinematic viscosity of water are 1000kg/m3
and 1x10-6m2/srespectively; acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s2).
If all other losses except the frictional losses at the pipe wall are neglected, the value of h in meter
is ____.

AE 7/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.38 A 1.8m long steel beam of rectangular cross section (10mm× 6mm) is simply supported with a
length of 1.2m between the supports and an overhang of 0.3m on either side. Young’s modulus for
the material of the beam is 200GPa. For a 50N load applied at the center of the beam, magnitude of
the slopeof the beam at tip S is _______.

)
Q.39 There are 2 designs proposed for a shaft of length l, with a torque carrying capacity of T.Design I is

14
a solid circular cross-section shaft of diameter30mm. Design II is a thin-walled circular shaft of
average diameter 40mm. Thickness of the wall in Design II has to be determined such that
maximum shear stress is the same in both the designs for the given torque T(so that same material
can be used for manufacturing both the shafts). Ratio of mass of shaft using Design Ito the mass of
shaft using Design II is

20
E
AT

(A) 2.68 (B) 5.36 (C) 1.79 (D) 3.58

(G

Q.40 A structural member of rectangular cross-section 10mm× 6mm and length 1m is made of steel
(Young’s modulus is 200GPa and coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 × 10−6 / 𝑜𝑜 𝐶𝐶 ). It is rigidly
fixed at both the ends and then subjected to a gradual increase in temperature. Ignoring the three
dimensional effects, the structural member will buckle if the temperature is increased by ∆𝑇𝑇 𝑜𝑜 𝐶𝐶
which is
AE

(A) 19.74 (B) 9.87 (C) 78.96 (D) 39.48

Q.41 A gas cylinder (closed thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel) of diameter 30cm and wall thickness
1mm is subjected to a design maximum internal pressure of 5bar (0.5MPa). The material used for
manufacturing this cylinder has a failure stress of 260MPa. Assuming von Mises failure criterion,
the factor of safety (with respect to maximum allowable stress) for this cylinder is
(A) 2.8 (B) 2.0 (C) 6.9 (D) 4.0

AE 8/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.42 A cantilevered beam is subjected to a parabolic distribution of shear traction at the right edge while
the top and bottom surfaces are traction free. To solve this problem, following Airy’s stress
function is proposed: 𝜙𝜙 = 𝐶𝐶1 𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 𝐶𝐶2 𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦 3 + 𝐶𝐶3 𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2 + 𝐶𝐶4 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑦𝑦. This is an admissible Airy’s
function that would satisfy the bi-harmonic equation as well as the boundary conditions if and only
if

𝜆𝜆 𝜆𝜆
(A)𝐶𝐶1 = 0,𝐶𝐶2 = 𝜆𝜆, 𝐶𝐶3 = 0, 𝐶𝐶4 = 2 (B)𝐶𝐶1 = 𝜆𝜆,𝐶𝐶2 = 2, 𝐶𝐶3 = 0, 𝐶𝐶4 = 0
3𝑑𝑑 3𝑑𝑑
𝜆𝜆 𝜆𝜆
(C)𝐶𝐶1 = 0,𝐶𝐶2 = 0, 𝐶𝐶3 = 𝜆𝜆,𝐶𝐶4 = − 2 (D)𝐶𝐶1 = 𝜆𝜆,𝐶𝐶2 = − 2, 𝐶𝐶3 = 0,𝐶𝐶4 = 0
3𝑑𝑑 3𝑑𝑑

)
Q.43 1kg mass is hanging from a spring of stiffness 500N/m attached to a massless,symmetric beam of
length 0.6m, moment of inertia about the bending axis𝐼𝐼 = 8.33 × 10−10 𝑚𝑚4 and Young’s modulus

14
E=210GPa as shown in the figure. The fundamental natural frequency (in rad/s) of the system is

(A) 3.24 (B) 20.36

20
(C) 22.36 (D) 3.56
E
Q.44 A single degree of freedom system is vibrating with initial (first cycle) amplitude of 5cm. The
viscous damping factor associated with the vibrating system is 2%. Vibration amplitude of the fifth
AT

cycle (in cm) is

(A) 1.65 (B) 4.41 (C) 2.67 (D) 3.02

Q.45 A cruise missile with an ideal ramjet engine is flying at Mach 4.0 at an altitude where the ambient
temperature is 100K. Considerratio of specific heatsγ = 1.4 and specific gas constant R = 287J/kgK.
(G

If the stagnation temperature in the combustion chamber is equal to 2310K, the speed of the exhaust
gases (in m/s) is _____________.

Q.46 A gas turbine engine is operating under the following conditions:

AE

Stagnation temperature at turbine inlet 1350 K

Stagnation pressure at the turbine inlet 10 bar
Static temperature at turbine exit 800 K
Velocity at turbine exit 200 m/s
Total-to-total efficiency of turbine 0.96
γ (ratio of specific heats) 1.33
CP(specific heat at constant pressure) 1.147 kJ/kgK

The stagnation pressure (in bar) in the nozzle (considering isentropic nozzle) is equal to _______.

AE 9/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.47 Air at a stagnation temperature of 300K (ratio of specific heats, γ = 1.4 and specific gas constant R
= 287 J/kgK) enters the impeller of a centrifugal compressor in axial direction. The stagnation
pressure ratio between the diffuser outlet and impeller inlet is 4.0. The impeller blade radius is 0.3
m and it is rotating at 15000 rev/min. If the slip factor σs (Ratio of tangential component of air
velocity at the blade tip to the blade tip speed) is 0.88, the overall efficiency (total-to-total) of the
compressor (in %) is ___________.

Q.48 A stationary two stage rocket with initial mass of 16000kg, carrying a payload of 1000kg, is fired in
a vertical trajectory from the surface of the earth. Both the stages of the rocket have same specific
impulse, Isp, of 300s and same structural coefficient of 0.14. The acceleration due to gravity is
9.8m/s2. Neglecting drag and gravity effects and considering both the stages with same payload
ratio, the terminal velocity attained by the payload in m/s is __________________.

)
Q.49 An aircraft is flying at Mach 3.0 at an altitude where the ambient pressure and temperature are 50

14
kPa and 200 K respectively. If the converging-diverging diffuser of the engine (considered
isentropic with ratio of specific heats, γ = 1.4 and specific gas constant R = 287 J/kgK) has a throat
area of 0.05 m2, the mass flow rate through the engine in kg/s is
(A) 197 (B) 232 (C) 790 (D) 157

20
Q.50 A cryogenic rocket has a specific impulse of 455s and characteristic velocity of 2386 m/s. The
value of thrust coefficient for this rocket is
(A) 1.78 (B) 1.73 (C) 1.87 (D) 1.95

Q.51 For a given airplane with a given wing loading executing a turn in the vertical plane, under what
E
conditions will the turn radius be minimum and the turn rate be maximum?
(A) Highest possible CLand lowest possible load factor
AT

(B) Lowest possible CLand lowest possible load factor

(C) Lowest possible CLand highest possible load factor
(D) Highest possible CLand highest possible load factor

Q.52 Lift-off distance for a given aircraft of weight W is SLO. If the take-off weight is reduced by 10%,
then the magnitude of percentage change in the lift-off distance (assume all other parameters to
(G

remain constant) is _______.

Q.53 Which of the following design parameters influence the maximum rate-of-climb for a jet-propelled
airplane?

P. Wing loading
AE

Q. Maximum thrust-to-weight ratio

R. Zero-lift drag coefficient
S. Maximum lift-to-drag ratio
(A) P and Q alone (B) P, Q, R and S (C) P, Q and S alone (D) Q, R, and S alone

AE 10/11
GATE 2014 AEROSPACE– AE

Q.54 Consider the following four statements regarding aircraft longitudinal stability:

P. CM,cg at zero lift must be positive

Q. ∂CM,cg/∂αa must be negative (αa is absolute angle of attack)
R. CM,cg at zero lift must be negative
S. Slope of CL versus αa must be negative

Which of the following combination is the necessary criterion for stick fixed longitudinal balance
and static stability?
(A) Q and R only (B) Q, R, and S only (C) P and Q only (D) Q and S only

Q.55 Data for a light, single-engine, propeller driven aircraft in steady level flight at sea-level is as
follows: velocity V∞ = 40m/s, weight W = 13000N, lift coefficient CL = 0.65, drag coefficient CD =

)
0.025 + 0.04CL2 and power available Pav = 100,000J/s. The rate of climb possible for this aircraft

14
under the given conditions (in m/s) is
(A) 7.20 (B) 5.11 (C) 6.32 (D) 4.23

20
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
E
AT
(G
AE

AE 11/11
 GATE 2014
Answer Keys for AE ‐ Aerospace Engineering
Section Q. No. Key / Range Marks Section Q. No. Key / Range Marks
GA 1 A 1 AE 26 A 2
GA 2 B 1 AE 27 C 2
GA 3 D 1 AE 28 D 2
GA 4 C 1 AE 29 A 2
GA 5 1300 to 1300 1 AE 30 B 2
GA 6 D 2 AE 31 ‐5.01 to ‐4.99 2
GA 7 B 2 AE 32 C 2
GA 8 180 to 180 2 AE 33 1705 to 1720 2
GA 9 D 2 AE 34 B 2
GA 10 B 2 AE 35 C 2
AE 1 C 1 AE 36 C 2
AE 2 B 1 AE 37 0.99 to 1.01 2
AE 3 C 1 AE 38 0.12 to 0.13 2
AE 4 A 1 AE 39 A 2
AE 5 D 1 AE 40 B 2
AE 6 A 1 AE 41 D 2
AE 7 D 1 AE 42 D 2
AE 8 B 1 AE 43 B 2
AE 9 D 1 AE 44 D 2
AE 10 D 1 AE 45 1880 to 1881 2
AE 11 A 1 AE 46 1.10 to 1.25 2
AE 12 B 1 AE 47 74 to 76 2
AE 13 B 1 AE 48 6050 to 6250 2
AE 14 2.95 to 3.05 1 AE 49 D 2
AE 15 C 1 AE 50 C 2
AE 16 D 1 AE 51 D 2
AE 17 B 1 AE 52 18 to 20 2
AE 18 B 1 AE 53 B 2
AE 19 C 1 AE 54 C 2
AE 20 D 1 AE 55 B 2
AE 21 0.45 to 0.55 1
AE 22 D 1
AE 23 D 1
AE 24 B 1
AE 25 1.2 to 1.25 1
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

AE:AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100

Please read the following instructions carefully:

General Instructions:

1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes (3 hours).

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display
the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your examination.

3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the
question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question
will be considered in the evaluation.

Navigating to a Question

4. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question. Use the virtual numeric keypad to enter
a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save and Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next
question.
d. Click on Mark for Review and Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it
for review, and then go to the next question.
e. Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you
navigate to another question directly by clicking on its question number.

5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for
multiple choice type questions will not be shown.

AE 1/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Answering a Question

6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:

a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the
Clear Response button
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.

7. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad
b. A fraction (eg.,-0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without ‘0’ before the decimal
point
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save and Nextbutton
e. To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review and Nextbutton. If an
answer is entered for a question that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered
in the evaluation.

8. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for
answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

9. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be
considered for evaluation.

AE 2/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or
numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with
only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices
will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
3. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

AE 3/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 x 2  xy 2 
The directional derivative of the function f ( x, y )  in the direction a  2iˆ  4 ˆj at
5
( x, y )  (1,1) is

1 2 (C) 0 1
(A)  (B)  (D) 
5 5 5

Q.2 5
x2
The value of x
4
2
 4 x  21
dx is

(A) ln 24 11 (B) ln 12 11 (C) ln 2 (D) ln 12 11

Q.3 At x  0 , the function y  x is

(A) continuous but not differentiable

(B) continuous and differentiable
(C) not continuous but differentiable
(D) not continuous and not differentiable

Q.4 One of the eigenvectors of the matrix

 1 1 0  1
  is
A   0 1 1  v  1 .
 1 0 1  1
 

The corresponding eigenvalue is ____________

Q.5 Which one of the following is the most stable configuration of an airplane in roll?
(A) Sweep back, anhedral and low wing
(B) Sweep forward, dihedral and low wing
(C) Sweep forward, anhedral and high wing
(D) Sweep back, dihedral and high wing

AE 4/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.6 Which one of the following flight instruments is used on an aircraft to determine its attitude in
flight?

(A) Vertical speed indicator

(B) Altimeter
(C) Artificial Horizon
(D) Turn-bank indicator

Q.7 A supersonic airplane is expected to fly at both subsonic and supersonic speeds during its whole
flight course. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Airplane will experience less stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
(B) Airplane will feel no change in pitch stability
(C) Airplane will experience more stability in pitch at supersonic speeds than at subsonic speeds
(D) Pitch stability cannot be inferred from the information given

Q.8 Which one of the following is favorable for an airplane operation?

(A) Tail wind in cruise and head wind in landing
(B) Tail wind both in cruise and landing
(C) Head wind both in cruise and landing
(D) Head wind in cruise and tail wind in landing

Q.9 Which one of the following is TRUE with respect to Phugoid mode of an aircraft?
(A) Frequency is directly proportional to flight speed
(B) Frequency is inversely proportional to flight speed
(C) Frequency is directly proportional to the square root of flight speed
(D) Frequency is inversely proportional to the square root of flight speed

Q.10 The x and y velocity components of a two dimensional flow field are,
cy cx
u ,v  2 , where c is a constant. The streamlines are a family of
x y
2 2
x  y2

(A) hyperbolas (B) parabolas (C) ellipses (D) circles

AE 5/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.11 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a supersonic flow?

(A) Over a gradual expansion, entropy remains constant

(B) Over a sharp expansion corner, entropy can increase
(C) Over a gradual compression, entropy can remain constant
(D) Over a sharp compression corner, entropy increases

Q.12 Consider a compressible flow where an elemental volume of the fluid is  , moving with velocity

V . Which one of the following expressions is TRUE?

 1 D
(A)   V 
 Dt
 1 D
(B)   (  V ) 
 Dt

DV 1 D
(C)   
Dt  Dt
  1 D
(D) V  (  V ) 
 Dt

Q.13 Consider a thin flat plate airfoil at a small angle  to an oncoming supersonic stream of air.
Cd
Assuming the flow to be inviscid, is
C l2
(A) zero
(B) independent of 
(C) proportional to 
(D) proportional to  2

Q.14 The critical Mach number for a flat plate of zero thickness, at zero angle of attack, is _________

Q.15 A damped single degree-of-freedom system is vibrating under a harmonic excitation with an
amplitude ratio of 2.5 at resonance. The damping ratio of the system is ______________

AE 6/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.16 The cross-section of a long thin-walled member is as shown in the figure. When subjected to pure
twist, point A

(A) does not move horizontally or axially, but moves vertically

(B) does not move axially, but moves both vertically and horizontally
(C) does not move horizontally, vertically or axially
(D) does not move vertically or axially, but moves horizontally

Q.17 The channel section of uniform thickness 2mm shown in the figure is subjected to a torque of
10 Nm. If it is made of a material with shear modulus of 25 GPa, the twist per unit length in
radians/m is _________

300mm

600mm

300mm

AE 7/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.18 The stiffened cross-section of a long slender uniform structural member is idealized as shown in the
figure below. The lumped areas at A, B, C and D have equal cross-sectional area of 3 cm . The
webs AB, BC, CD and DA are each 5 mm thick. The structural member is subjected to a twisting
moment of 10 kNm. The magnitudes of the shear flow in the webs, qAB, qBC, qCD, and qDA in kN/m
are, respectively

A D

200mm

B C

500mm

(A) 20, 20, 20, 20

(B) 0, 0, 50, 50
(C) 40, 40, 0, 0
(D) 50, 50, 50, 50

Q.19 Consider two engines P and Q. In P, the high pressure turbine blades are cooled with a bleed of 5%
from the compressor after the compression process and in Q the turbine blades are not cooled.
Comparing engine P with engine Q, which one of the following is NOT TRUE?

(A) Turbine inlet temperature is higher for engine P

(B) Specific thrust is higher for engine P
(C) Compressor work is the same for both P and Q
(D) Fuel flow rate is lower for engine P

Q.20 The mass flow rate of air through an aircraft engine is 10 kg/s. The compressor outlet temperature
is 400 K and the turbine inlet temperature is 1800 K. The heating value of the fuel is 42 MJ/kg and
the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. The mass flow rate of the fuel in kg/s is
approximately ___________

Q.21 For a given inlet condition, if the turbine inlet temperature is fixed, what value of compressor
efficiency given below leads to the lowest amount of fuel added in the combustor of a gas turbine
engine?

(A) 1 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.85 (D) 0.8

AE 8/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.22 A gas turbine engine is mounted on an aircraft which can attain a maximum altitude of 11 km from
sea level. The combustor volume of this engine is decided based on conditions at

(A) sea level (B) 8 km altitude (C) 5.5 km altitude (D) 11 km altitude

Q.23 Consider the low earth orbit (LEO) and the geo synchronous orbit (GSO). Then
(A) V requirement for launch to LEO is greater than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
lower than that of GSO
(B) V requirement for launch to LEO is lower than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
lower than that of GSO
(C) V requirement for launch to LEO is greater than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
greater than that of GSO
(D) V requirement for launch to LEO is lower than that for GSO, and altitude of LEO is
greater than that of GSO

Q.24 Which one of the following shows the CORRECT variation of stagnation temperature along the
axis of an ideal ram jet engine?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.25 A rocket motor has a chamber pressure of 100 bar and chamber temperature of 3000 K. The
ambient pressure is 1 bar. Assume that the specific heat at constant pressure is 1 kJ/kg-K. Also
assume that the flow in the nozzle is isentropic and optimally expanded. The exit static temperature
in K is

(A) 805 (B) 845 (C) 905 (D) 945

AE 9/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Let I   ( y ziˆ z
2 2
xjˆ  x 2 ykˆ) ( xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ)dS , where S denotes the surface of the sphere of unit
S

radius centered at the origin. Here iˆ, ˆj and kˆ denote three orthogonal unit vectors. The value of I is
____________

Q.27 1
Given that the Laplace transform, (e at ) 
sa
then  3e5t sinh 5t  =
3s 15 3s 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s  10 s
2
s  10 s
2
s  10 s
2
s  10 s
2

Q.28 Values of a, b and c, which render the matrix

 1 1 
 a
 3 2 
 1 
Q 0 b
 3 
 1 1 
  c
 3 2 

orthonormal are, respectively

1 1
(A) , , 0
2 2
1 2 1
(B) ,- ,
6 6 6
1 1 1
(C)  ,  ,
3 3 3
1 2 1
(D)  , ,-
6 6 6

Q.29 d2y dy
A function satisfies the differential equation 2
 2  y  0 and is subject to the initial
dt dt
dy
conditions y (t  0)  0 and (t  0)  1. The value of y (t  1) is
dt

(A) e (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) -1

AE 10/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.30 A glider is launched from a 500m high hilltop. Following data is available for the glider: Zero lift
drag coefficient CD 0  0.02 , aspect ratio AR  10 and Oswald efficiency factor e = 0.95. The
maximum range of the glider in km is _________

Q.31 Which one of the following criteria leads to maximum turn rate and minimum radius in a level turn
flight?
(A) Highest possible load factor and highest possible velocity
(B) Lowest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(C) Highest possible load factor and lowest possible velocity
(D) Lowest possible load factor and highest possible velocity

Q.32 Consider an airplane with rectangular straight wing at dihedral angle   100 . Lift curve slope of
wing airfoil section (constant over the whole span of the wing) is cl  5.4 / rad . The roll stability
derivative, Cl  in per radian is __________

Q.33 Consider one-dimensional isentropic flow at a Mach number of 0.5. If the area of cross-section of a
streamtube increases by 3% somewhere along the flow, the corresponding percentage change in
density is ________

Q.34 The potential flow model for a storm is represented by the superposition of a sink and a vortex. The
 
stream function can be written in the ( r ,  ) system as      ln r , where
2 2
    100 m 2 /s . Assume a constant air density of 1.2 kg/m3. The gauge pressure at a distance of
100 m from the storm eye is

(A)  1.2 1.2 1.2

(B)  (C)  (D) 
 2
2 2 4 2

Q.35 Three identical eagles of wing span s are flying side by side in a straight line with no gap between
their wing tips. Assume a single horse shoe vortex model (of equal strength Γ) for each bird. The
net downwash experienced by the middle bird is
   4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s 2 s 3 s 3 s

AE 11/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.36 Streamline pattern of flow past a cylinder is shown in the figure below. The oncoming flow is
steady, irrotational and incompressible. The flow is from left to right. Bernoulli’s equation
CANNOT be applied between the points

4
1
2
3

5
6

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 5 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 5 and 6

Q.37 Consider a supersonic stream at a Mach number M=2, undergoing a gradual expansion. The stream
is turned by an angle of 3 degrees due to the expansion. The following data is given.

M  (Prandtl-Meyer function)
1.8 20.73
1.9 23.59
2.0 26.38
2.1 29.10
2.2 31.73
2.3 34.28
2.4 36.75

The Mach number downstream of the expansion is

(A) 1.88 (B) 2.00 (C) 2.11 (D) 2.33

AE 12/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.38 The idealized cross-section of a beam is comprised of four identical booms connected by shear
webs. The beam is subjected to a bending moment as shown in the figure. The inclination of the
neutral axis to the x-axis in degrees is

2a M

a a

(A) 45 CW (B) 45 CCW (C) 26.6 CW (D) 63.4 CCW

Q.39 A composite circular shaft is comprised of a steel core surrounded by an aluminum annulus,
perfectly bonded to each other as shown in the figure. If it subjected to a pure torque, which one of
the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Only shear stress is continuous across the steel–aluminum interface

(B) Only shear strain is continuous across the steel–aluminum interface
(C) Both shear stress and shear strain are continuous across the steel–aluminum interface
(D) Both shear stress and shear strain are discontinuous across the steel–aluminum interface

Q.40 A horizontal rectangular plate ABCD is hinged at points A, B and C. AC and BD are diagonals of
the plate. Downward force P is applied at D. The upward reactions RA, RB, and RC at points A, B
and C, respectively, are
(A) indeterminate
(B) P, -P, P
(C) 0, P, 0
(D) P/3, P/3, P/3

AE 13/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.41 In the steel structure (Young’s modulus = 200 GPa) shown in the figure, all members have a
circular cross-section of radius 10 mm. Column BD is pinned at B and D. The support at A is
hinged. The minimum value of load at which the column BD may buckle in Newtons is
approximately ____________

A 1m B 1m C

2m P

Q.42 The thin rectangular plate has dimensions L×b×t. It develops a stress field corresponding to an
applied bending moment M as shown in the figure. A valid Airy’s stress function is

M
M
b x

2M 3 2M 3 2M 3 2M 4
3 
(A) x (B) y (C) x  y3  (D) y
tb3 tb3 tb tb3

Q.43 A cantilever beam of negligible mass is 0.6 m long. It has a rectangular cross-section of width
8 mm and thickness 6 mm and carries a tip mass of 1.4 kg. If the natural frequency of this system
is 10 rad/s, Young’s modulus of the material of the beam in GPa is ________

AE 14/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.44 A simply supported beam with overhang is loaded by uniformly distributed load of intensity q as
shown in the figure. The bending moment at the mid-point of AB is

A q B

L L/2

qL2 qL2 3qL2 3qL2

(A) sagging (B) hogging (C) hogging (D) sagging
16 16 16 16

Q.45 Thrust of liquid oxygen - liquid hydrogen rocket engine is 300 kN. The O/F ratio used is 5. If the
fuel mass flow rate is 12.5 kg/s, the specific impulse of the rocket motor in Ns/kg is
(A) 3800 (B) 4000 (C) 4200 (D) 4400

Q.46 In a 50 % reaction axial compressor stage, the local blade velocity is 300 m/s and the axial
component of velocity is 100 m/s. If the absolute inlet flow angle α1 = 45o, the work per unit mass
done on the fluid by the stage in kJ/kg is
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60

Q.47 Consider two rockets P and Q fired vertically up with identical specific impulse and a payload of
2 kg. Rocket P has 2 identical stages, and each stage has 200 kg of propellant and 20 kg of
structural weight. Rocket Q has a single stage with 400 kg of propellant and 40 kg of structural
weight. Neglecting drag and gravity effects, the ratio of the change in velocity of P to that attained
by Q is
(A) 1.13 (B) 1.23 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.43
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: Data for an airplane are given as follows: weight W  30kN ,
thrust available at sea-level T0  4000 N , wing planform area S  30m 2 , maximum lift coefficient
CL max  1.4 , and drag coefficient C D  0.015  0.024C L2 . Assume air density at sea-level    1.22kg / m 3 .

Q.48 Stall speed of the airplane in m/s is

(A) 17.36 (B) 34.22 (C) 45.52 (D) 119.46

Q.49 Minimum and maximum speeds of the airplane in level flight condition at sea-level in m/s are
respectively

(A) 17.36 and 180 (B) 17.36 and 34.22

(C) 34.22 and 119.46 (D) 17.36 and 119.46

AE 15/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: An aircraft is flying at Mach number M = 1.5, where the
ambient temperature is 250 K. The stagnation temperature of gases at the entry to the nozzle is 800 K. The
nozzle is choked and always under expanded. Assume the molecular weight of the exhaust gases to be 29,
the ratio of specific heats to be 1.4 and the universal gas constant is 8314 J/kmol-K.

Q.50 For which one of the nozzle exit Mach numbers given below is the propulsive efficiency highest?

(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5

Q.51 For which one of the nozzle exit Mach numbers given below is the thrust highest?
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: Circulation theory of lift is assumed for a thin
symmetric airfoil at an angle of attack α. Free stream velocity is U.

Q.52 If the circulation at the quarter chord (c/4) of the airfoil is 1 , the normal velocity is zero at

(A) c/4 (B) c/2 (C) 3c/4 (D) all points on the chord

Q.53 A second identical airfoil is placed behind the first one at a distance of c/2 from the trailing edge of
the first. The second airfoil has an unknown circulation  2 placed at its quarter chord. The normal
velocity becomes zero at the same chord-wise locations of the respective airfoils as in the previous
question. The values of 1 and  2 are respectively

4 2 2 2
(A)  cU  ,  cU  (B)  cU  ,  cU 
3 3 3 3
2 1 4 4
(C)  cU  ,  cU  (D)  cU  ,  cU 
3 3 3 3

AE 16/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: A wing-body alone configuration airplane with a
wing loading of W  1000 N / m 2 is flying in cruise condition at a speed V = 90m/s at sea-level (air density
S
at sea-level    1.22kg / m 3 ). The zero lift pitching moment coefficient of the airplane is
wb
Cmac  Cm 0  0.06 and the location of airplane aerodynamic center from the wing leading edge is
X ac  0.25c. Here c is the chord length.

Q.54 The airplane trim lift coefficient CL trim is

(A) 0.502 (B) 0.402 (C) 0.302 (D) 0.202

Q.55 Distance of center of gravity of the aircraft ( X CG ) from the wing leading edge is

(A) 0.447c (B) 0.547c (C) 0.547c (D) 0.25c

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 If 3 5 and 8 11 then which of the following options is TRUE?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Q.57 The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you.

Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?

(A) is wanting

(B) wants

(C) want

(D) was wanting

Q.58 Mahatama Gandhi was known for his humility as

(A) he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India.

(B) he worked for humanitarian causes.

(C) he displayed modesty in his interactions.

(D) he was a fine human being.

AE 17/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.59 All engineering students should learn mechanics, mathematics and how to do computation.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
water: pipe::
(A) cart: road (B) electricity: wire
(C) sea: beach (D) music: instrument

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by 80 32 , where (time)
is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec?
(A) (1, 3/2) (B) (1/2, 1)

(C) (1/2, 3/2) (D) (1, 3)

Q.62 In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents
respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a
randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability
that it was manufactured by M2?

(A) 0.35 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4

Q.63 Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011.

Country Number of
Tourists
USA 2000
England 3500
Germany 1200
Italy 1100
Japan 2400
Australia 2300
France 1000

Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in
2011?
(A) USA and Japan

(B) USA and Australia

(C) England and France

(D) Japan and Australia

AE 18/19
2013 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.64 If | 2 9| 3 then the possible value of | | would be:

(A) 30 (B) -30 (C) -42 (D) 42

Q.65 All professors are researchers

Some scientists are professors

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments:
(A) All scientists are researchers

(B) All professors are scientists

(C) Some researchers are scientists

(D) No conclusion follows

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE 19/19
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2013 – ANSWERS

Official GATE key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D A A zero D C C A B A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Marks 0.12- 0.3-

B A B 1 0.2 D D
to All 0.13 0.35

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D D B B A zero B D A 9-10

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

-0.23 to
C 1 D C C C A B B
-0.24

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

1900-
B 70 A B A B B C A
2000

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Marks Marks
D to All to All D C B C C D B

61 62 63 64 65

C C C B C
 GATE 2012 Online Examination
AE : AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs a specialized software that permits only
one answer to be selected for multiple choice questions using a mouse. Your answers shall be updated
and saved on a server periodically and at the end of the examination.
2. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided in the envelope. Go through the
symbols used in the test and understand the meaning before you start the examination. You can view
all questions by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen after the start of the
examination.
3. To answer a question, select the question using the selection panel on the screen and choose the
correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. To change the answer, just click on
another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, click on the button
next to the selected option.

4. The examination will automatically stop at the end of 3 hours.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Except questions Q.26 – Q.30, all the other
questions are of multiple choice type with only one correct answer. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 require a
numerical answer, and a number should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.
6. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For all 1
mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark
will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair,
there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for
wrong answer to the second question.
9. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Do the
rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.
10. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.
________________________________________________________________________________________

DECLARATION: I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.
Registration Number AE
Name

Signature

Verified that the above entries are correct.

Invigilator’s signature:
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The constraint A2 = A on any square matrix A is satisfied for
(A) the identity matrix only. (B) the null matrix only.
(C) both the identity matrix and the null matrix. (D) no square matrix A.

Q.2 d 2 y dy
The general solution of the differential equation + − 2 y = 0 is
dt 2 dt
(A) Ae − t + Be 2t (B) Ae −2t + Be − t (C) Ae −2t + Bet (D) Aet + Be 2t

Q.3 An aircraft in trimmed condition has zero pitching moment at

(A) its aerodynamic centre. (B) its centre of gravity.
(C) 25% of its mean aerodynamic chord. (D) 50% of its wing root chord.

Q.4 In an aircraft, constant roll rate can be produced using ailerons by applying
(A) a step input. (B) a ramp input.
(C) a sinusoidal input. (D) an impulse input.

Q.5 For a symmetric airfoil, the lift coefficient for zero degree angle of attack is
(A) – 1.0 (B) 0.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0

Q.6 The critical Mach number of an airfoil is attained when

(A) the freestream Mach number is sonic.
(B) the freestream Mach number is supersonic.
(C) the Mach number somewhere on the airfoil is unity.
(D) the Mach number everywhere on the airfoil is supersonic.

Q.7 The shadowgraph flow visualization technique depends on

(A) the variation of the value of density in the flow.
(B) the first derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(C) the second derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.
(D) the third derivative of density with respect to spatial coordinate.

Q.8 The Hohmann ellipse used as earth-Mars transfer orbit has

(A) apogee at earth and perigee at Mars. (B) both apogee and perigee at earth.
(C) apogee at Mars and perigee at earth. (D) both apogee and perigee at Mars.

Q.9 The governing equation for the static transverse deflection of a beam under an uniformly distributed
load, according to Euler-Bernoulli (engineering) beam theory, is a
(A) 2nd order linear homogenous partial differential equation.
(B) 4th order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(C) 2nd order linear non-homogenous ordinary differential equation.
(D) 4th order nonlinear homogenous ordinary differential equation.

Q.10 The Poisson’s ratio,ν of most aircraft grade metallic alloys has values in the range:
(A) −1 ≤ ν ≤ 0 (B) 0 ≤ ν ≤ 0.2 (C) 0.2 ≤ ν ≤ 0.4 (D) 0.4 ≤ ν ≤ 0.5

AE 2/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.11 The value of k for which the system of equations x + 2 y + kz = 1; 2 x + ky + 8 z = 3 has no

solution is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.12 d 2x
If u (t ) is a unit step function, the solution of the differential equation m 2 + kx = u (t ) in
dt
Laplace domain is
1 1 s 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s (ms 2 + k ) ms + k
2
ms + k
2
s (ms 2 + k )
2

Q.13 dy
The general solution of the differential equation − 2 y = 0 is
dx

(A) y − x + C = 0 (B) y − x + C = 0 (C) y − x +C = 0 (D) y − x+C = 0

Q.14 During the ground roll manoeuvre of an aircraft, the force(s) acting on it parallel to the direction of
motion
(A) is thrust alone. (B) is drag alone.
(C) are both thrust and drag. (D) are thrust, drag and a part of both weight and lift.

Q.15 An aircraft in a steady climb suddenly experiences a 10% drop in thrust. After a new equilibrium is
reached at the same speed, the new rate of climb is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.16 In an aircraft, the dive manoeuvre can be initiated by

(A) reducing the engine thrust alone. (B) reducing the angle of attack alone.
(C) generating a nose down pitch rate. (D) increasing the engine thrust alone.

Q.17 In an aircraft, elevator control effectiveness determines

(A) turn radius.
(B) rate of climb.
(C) forward-most location of the centre of gravity.
(D) aft-most location of the centre of gravity.

Q.18 The Mach angle for a flow at Mach 2.0 is

(A) 30o (B) 45o (C) 60o (D) 90o

Q.19 For a wing of aspect ratio AR, having an elliptical lift distribution, the induced drag coefficient is
(where CL is the lift coefficient)
CL CL2 CL CL2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
π AR π AR 2π AR π AR 2

Q.20 Bernoulli’s equation is valid under steady state

(A) only along a streamline in inviscid flow, and between any two points in potential flow.
(B) between any two points in both inviscid flow and potential flow.
(C) between any two points in inviscid flow, and only along a streamline in potential flow.
(D) only along a streamline in both inviscid flow and potential flow.

AE 3/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.21 The ratio of flight speed to the exhaust velocity for maximum propulsion efficiency is
(A) 0.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

Q.22 The ideal static pressure coefficient of a diffuser with an area ratio of 2.0 is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0

Q.23 A rocket is to be launched from the bottom of a very deep crater on Mars for earth return. The
specific impulse of the rocket, measured in seconds, is to be normalized by the acceleration due to
gravity at
(A) the bottom of the crater on Mars. (B) Mars standard “sea level”.
(C) earth’s standard sea level. (D) the same depth of the crater on earth.

Q.24 In a semi-monocoque construction of an aircraft wing, the skin and spar webs are the primary
carriers of
(A) shear stresses due to an aerodynamic moment component alone.
(B) normal (bending) stresses due to aerodynamic forces.
(C) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces alone.
(D) shear stresses due to aerodynamic forces and a moment component.

Q.25 The logarithmic decrement measured for a viscously damped single degree of freedom system is
0.125. The value of the damping factor in % is closest to
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Questions Q.26 to Q.30 are numerical answer type. The answer to each of these questions is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.
1

∫ x dx computed using trapezoidal rule with n = 4 intervals is ____.

3
Q.26 The integration
0

Q.27 An aircraft has a steady rate of climb of 300 m/s at sea level and 150 m/s at 2500 m altitude. The
time taken (in sec) for this aircraft to climb from 500 m altitude to 3000 m altitude is ____.

Q.28 An airfoil generates a lift of 80 N when operating in a freestream flow of 60 m/s. If the ambient
pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 290 K respectively (specific gas constant is 287 J/kg-K),
the circulation on the airfoil in m2/s is ____.

Q.29 A rocket motor has combustion chamber temperature of 2600 K and the products have molecular
weight of 25 g/mol and ratio of specific heats 1.2. The universal gas constant is 8314 J/kg-mole-K.
The value of theoretical c* (in m/s) is ____.

{1 0.5}
Q.30 T
The mode shapes of an un-damped two degrees of freedom system are and

{1 − 0.675} . The corresponding natural frequencies are 0.45 Hz and 1.2471 Hz. The maximum
T

amplitude (in mm) of vibration of the first degree of freedom due to an initial displacement of
{2 1}
T
(in mm) and zero initial velocities is ____.

AE 4/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

1
Q.31 The nth derivative of the function y = is
x+3
(−1) n n ! (−1) n +1 n ! (−1) n (n + 1)! (−1) n n !
(A) (B) (C) (D)
( x + 3) n +1 ( x + 3) n +1 ( x + 3) n ( x + 3) n

Q.32 The volume of a solid generated by rotating the region between semi-circle y = 1 − 1 − x 2 and
straight line y = 1, about x axis, is
4 1 3 3 2
(A) π 2 − π (B) 4π 2 − π (C) π 2 − π (D) π −π
3 3 4 4

⎡ 2 7 10 ⎤
⎢ ⎥
One eigenvalue of the matrix A = 5 2 25 is – 9.33. One of the other eigenvalues is
Q.33 ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣1 6 5 ⎥⎦

(A) 18.33 (B) −18.33 (C) 18.33−9.33i (D) 18.33+9.33i

Q.34 If an aircraft takes off with 10% less fuel in comparison to its standard configuration, its range is
(A) lower by exactly 10%. (B) lower by more than 10%.
(C) lower by less than 10%. (D) an unpredictable quantity.

Q.35 An aircraft has an approach speed of 144 kmph with a descent angle of 6.6o. If the aircraft load
factor is 1.2 and constant deceleration at touch down is 0.25g (g = 9.81 m/s2), its total landing
distance approximately over a 15 m high obstacle is
(A) 1830 m. (B) 1380 m. (C) 830 m. (D) 380 m.

Q.36 An aircraft is trimmed straight and level at true air speed (TAS) of 100 m/s at standard sea level
(SSL). Further, pull of 5 N holds the speed at 90 m/s without re-trimming at SSL (air density = 1.22
kg/m3). To fly at 3000 m altitude (air density = 0.91 kg/m3) and 120 m/s TAS without re-trimming,
the aircraft needs
(A) 1.95 N upward force. (B) 1.95 N downward force.
(C) 1.85 N upward force. (D) 1.75 N downward force.

Q.37 An oblique shock wave with a wave angle β is generated from a wedge angle of θ. The ratio of the
Mach number downstream of the shock to its normal component is
(A) sin(β–θ) (B) cos(β–θ) (C) sin(θ–β) (D) cos(θ–β)

Q.38 In a closed-circuit supersonic wind tunnel, the convergent-divergent (C-D) nozzle and test section
are followed by a C-D diffuser to swallow the starting shock. Here, we should have the
(A) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser throat.
(B) diffuser throat larger than the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the diffuser
throat.
(C) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located just at the diffuser
throat.
(D) diffuser throat of the same size as the nozzle throat and the shock located downstream of the
diffuser throat.

AE 5/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.39 A vortex flowmeter works on the principle that the Strouhal number of 0.2 is a constant over a wide
range of flow rates. If the bluff-body diameter in the flowmeter is 20 mm and the piezo-electric
transducer registers the vortex shedding frequency to be 10 Hz, then the velocity of the flow would
be measured as
(A) 0.1 m/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 100 m/s

Q.40 The stagnation temperatures at the inlet and exit of a combustion chamber are 600 K and 1200 K,
respectively. If the heating value of the fuel is 44 MJ/kg and specific heat at constant pressure for
air and hot gases are 1.005 kJ/kg.K and 1.147 kJ/kg.K respectively, the fuel-to-air ratio is
(A) 0.0018 (B) 0.018 (C) 0.18 (D) 1.18

Q.41 A solid propellant of density 1800 kg/m3 has a burning rate law r = 6.65 x 10-3p0.45 mm/s, where p
is pressure in Pascals. It is used in a rocket motor with a tubular grain with an initial burning area
of 0.314 m2. The characteristic velocity is 1450 m/s. What should be the nozzle throat diameter to
achieve an equilibrium chamber pressure of 50 bar at the end of the ignition transient?
(A) 35 mm (B) 38 mm (C) 41 mm (D) 45 mm

Q.42 A bipropellant liquid rocket motor operates at a chamber pressure of 40 bar with a nozzle throat
diameter of 50 mm. The characteristic velocity is 1540 m/s. If the fuel-oxidizer ratio of the
propellant is 1.8, and the fuel density is 900 kg/m3, what should be the minimum fuel tank volume
for a burn time of 8 minutes
(A) 1.65 m3 (B) 1.75 m3 (C) 1.85 m3 (D) 1.95 m3

Q.43 The propellant in a single stage sounding rocket occupies 60% of its initial mass. If all of it is
expended instantaneously at an equivalent exhaust velocity of 3000 m/s, what would be the altitude
attained by the payload when launched vertically?
[Neglect drag and assume acceleration due to gravity to be constant at 9.81 m/s2.]
(A) 315 km (B) 335 km (C) 365 km (D) 385 km

Q.44 The Airy stress function, φ = α x 2 + β xy + γ y 2 for a thin square panel of size l × l automatically
satisfies compatibility. If the panel is subjected to uniform tensile stress, σ o on all four edges, the
traction boundary conditions are satisfied by
(A) α = σ o / 2; β = 0; γ = σ o / 2. (B) α = σ o ; β = 0; γ = σ o .
(C) α = 0; β = σ o / 4; γ = 0. (D) α = 0; β = σ o / 2; γ = 0.

Q.45 The boundary condition of a rod under longitudinal vibration is changed from fixed-fixed to fixed-
free. The fundamental natural frequency of the rod is now k times the original frequency, where k is

1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2 2

Q.46 A spring-mass system is viscously damped with a viscous damping constant c. The energy
dissipated per cycle when the system is undergoing a harmonic vibration X Cosωd t is given by

(A) π cωd X 2 (B) πωd X 2 (C) π cωd X (D) π cωd2 X

Q.47 Buckling of the fuselage skin can be delayed by

(A) increasing internal pressure.
(B) placing stiffeners farther apart.
(C) reducing skin thickness.
(D) placing stiffeners farther and decreasing internal pressure.

AE 6/12
2012 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A wing and tail are geometrically similar, while tail area is one-third of the wing area and distance between
two aerodynamic centres is equal to wing semi-span (b/2). In addition, following data is applicable:
∈α = 0.3, CL = 1.0, CLα = 0.08 / deg., c = 2.5m, b = 30m, CM ac = 0, ηt = 1. The symbols have their usual
aerodynamic interpretation.
Q.48 The maximum distance that the centre of gravity can be behind aerodynamic centre without
destabilizing the wing-tail combination is
(A) 0.4 m (B) 1.4 m (C) 2.4 m (D) 3.4 m

Q.49 The angle of incidence of tail to trim the wing-tail combination for a 5% static margin is
(A) −1.4o (B) −0.4o (C) 0.4o (D) 1.4o

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

A thin long circular pipe of 10 mm diameter has porous walls and spins at 60 rpm about its own axis. Fluid
is pumped out of the pipe such that it emerges radially relative to the pipe surface at a velocity of 1 m/s.
[Neglect the effect of gravity.]
Q.50 What is the radial component of the fluid’s velocity at a radial location 0.5 m from the pipe axis?
(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.1 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 10 m/s

Q.51 What is the tangential component of the fluid’s velocity at the same radial location as above?
(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.03 m/s (C) 0.10 m/s (D) 0.31 m/s
Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
Air at a stagnation temperature of 15oC and stagnation pressure 100 kPa enters an axial compressor with an
absolute velocity of 120 m/s. Inlet guide vanes direct this absolute velocity to the rotor inlet at an angle of
18o to the axial direction. The rotor turning angle is 27o and the mean blade speed is 200 m/s. The axial
velocity is assumed constant through the stage.
Q.52 The blade angle at the inlet of the rotor is

(A) 25.5o (B) 38.5o (C) 48.5o (D) 59.5o

Q.53 If the mass flow rate is 1 kg/s, the power required to drive the compressor is
(A) 50.5 kW (B) 40.5 kW (C) 30.5 kW (D) 20.5 kW

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

A thin-walled spherical vessel (1 m inner diameter and 10 mm wall thickness) is made of a material with
σ Y = 500 MPa in both tension and compression.
Q.54 The internal pressure pY at yield, based on the von Mises yield criterion, if the vessel is floating in
space, is approximately
(A) 500 MPa (B) 250 MPa (C) 100 MPa (D) 20 MPa

Q.55 If the vessel is evacuated (internal pressure = 0) and subjected to external pressure, yielding
according to the von Mises yield criterion (assuming elastic stability until yield)
(A) occurs at about half the pressure pY . (B) occurs at about double the pressure pY .
(C) occurs at about the same pressure pY . (D) never occurs.

AE 7/12
2012 GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_AN_Online

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

I ___ to have bought a diamond ring.

(A) have a liking (B) should have liked
(C) would like (D) may like

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

Food prices ___ again this month.

(A) have raised (B) have been raising
(C) have been rising (D) have arose

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

The administrators went on to implement yet another unreasonable measure, arguing that
the measures were already ___ and one more would hardly make a difference.
(A) reflective (B) utopian (C) luxuriant (D) unpopular

Q.59 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

To those of us who had always thought him timid, his ___ came as a surprise.

(A) intrepidity (B) inevitability (C) inability (D) inertness

Q.60 The arithmetic mean of five different natural numbers is 12. The largest possible value among the
numbers is
(A) 12 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 Two policemen, A and B, fire once each at the same time at an escaping convict. The probability
that A hits the convict is three times the probability that B hits the convict. If the probability of the
convict not getting injured is 0.5, the probability that B hits the convict is
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.40

GA_AN_Online 1/2
2012 GENERAL APTITUDE - GA_AN_Online

Q.62 The total runs scored by four cricketers P, Q, R, and S in years 2009 and 2010 are given in the
following table:
Player 2009 2010
P 802 1008
Q 765 912
R 429 619
S 501 701

The player with the lowest percentage increase in total runs is

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.63 If a prime number on division by 4 gives a remainder of 1, then that number can be expressed as
(A) sum of squares of two natural numbers
(B) sum of cubes of two natural numbers
(C) sum of square roots of two natural numbers
(D) sum of cube roots of two natural numbers

Q.64 Two points (4, p) and (0, q) lie on a straight line having a slope of 3/4. The value of (p – q) is
(A) -3 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.65 In the early nineteenth century, theories of social evolution were inspired less by Biology than
by the conviction of social scientists that there was a growing improvement in social
institutions. Progress was taken for granted and social scientists attempted to discover its
laws and phases.

Which one of the following inferences may be drawn with the greatest accuracy from the above
passage?

Social scientists
(A) did not question that progress was a fact.
(B) did not approve of Biology.
(C) framed the laws of progress.
(D) emphasized Biology over Social Sciences.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA_AN_Online 2/2
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2012 – ANSWERS

Official GATE key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C C B D B C C C B C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C A D D B C C A B A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Marks 0.26 - 1430 -

C to All C D D 0.27
13-14 1.1-1.2
1440
2

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Marks
A A A B to All B A B B B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B B D A A A A B A A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Marks Marks Marks

to All to All to All D C C C D A C

61 62 63 64 65

A B A C A

What gateing says is correct

26 27 28 29 34 35 51 52 53

0.2656 13.52 1.11 1433.8 C 502m 0.0314 55° D

2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

AE: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

ONLINE Examination
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Questions must be answered using computers provided by the GATE at the examination centers. Each
computer shall run specialized examination software that permits a maximum of one answer to be selected
for questions of multiple choice type.
2. Your answers shall be updated and saved on the server periodically and at the end of the examination. The
examination will automatically stop once the duration of the examination is over.
3. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All questions are of objective type.
4. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1-mark each, and questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2-marks each.
5. Questions Q.26 - Q.30 are of numerical answer type. For each of these questions, the correct answer is a
number. All other questions are of multiple choice type. Each of these questions carries four choices for
the answer labeled A, B, C and D. Only one of the four choices is the correct answer.
6. Questions Q.48 – Q.51 (2 pairs) are common data questions and question pairs (Q.52, Q.53) and (Q.54,
Q.55) are linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions
depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly
answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
7. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA). Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1-mark each, and
questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2-marks each.
8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical
answer type, i.e., for Q.26 – Q.30. For questions of multiple choice type, wrong answers will result in
NEGATIVE marks. For Q.1 – Q.25 and Q.56 – Q.60, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
For Q.31 – Q.51 and Q.61 – Q.65, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. The question pairs
(Q.52, Q.53), and (Q.54, Q.55) are questions with linked answers. There will be negative marks only for
wrong answer to the first question of the linked answer question pair, i.e. for Q.52 and Q.54, ⅔ mark will
be deducted for each wrong answer. There is no negative marking for Q.53 and Q.55.
9. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
10. Rough work can be done in the specified area only.
11. Candidates may use the back side of this page to record their answers for their own convenience.
12. To login, type your Registration Number and password as per instructions provided in the envelope.
13. In order to answer a question, you may select the question using the left side selection panel on the screen
and choose the correct answer by clicking on the radio button next to the answer. The answered questions
shall be indicated by a solid black ball on the selection panel. In order to change the answer, you may just
click on another option. If you wish to leave a previously answered question unanswered, you may click
on DESELECT ANSWER button.
14. You may also select questions using NEXT and PREVIOUS buttons.
15. You may also mark questions for reviewing later using MARK button. All marked questions are indicated
by a rectangle in the selection panel. Questions which are answered but are marked for the review are
indicated by a solid black rectangle and questions which are not answered but are marked for the review
are indicated by an outlined rectangle in the selection panel.
16. You must sign this sheet and leave it with the invigilators at the end of the examination.
DECLARATION
I hereby declare that I have read and followed all the instructions given in this sheet.

Paper Code: AE Registration No:__________________Name: ___________________________

Signature

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Consider x, y, z to be right-handed Cartesian coordinates. A vector function is defined in this

coordinate system as v  3 xi  3 xyj  yz 2k , where i, j and k are the unit vectors along x, y and
z axes, respectively. The curl of v is given by
(A) z 2i  3 yk (B) z 2 j  3 yk (C) z 2i  3 yj (D)  z 2 i  3 yk

Q.2 Which of the following functions is periodic?

(A) f ( x)  x 2 (B) f ( x)  log x (C) f ( x)  e x (D) f ( x)  const.

Q.3 The function f ( x1 , x2 , x3 )  x12  x22  x32  2 x1  4 x2  6 x3  14 has its minimum value at

(A) (1, 2, 3) (B) (0, 0, 0) (C) (3, 2, 1) (D) (1, 1, 3)

Q.4 x x
Consider the function f ( x1 , x2 )  x12  2 x22  e 1 2 . The vector pointing in the direction of
maximum increase of the function at the point (1, -1) is

 2   1    0.73   2 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
  5   5   6.73    4

Q.5 Two simultaneous equations given by y    x and y  x   have

(A) a unique solution (B) infinitely many solutions

(C) no solution (D) a finite number of multiple solutions

Q.6 In three-dimensional linear elastic solids, the number of non-trivial stress-strain relations, strain-
displacement equations and equations of equilibrium are, respectively,
(A) 3, 3 and 3 (B) 6, 3 and 3 (C) 6, 6 and 3 (D) 6, 3 and 6

Q.7 An Euler-Bernoulli beam in bending is assumed to satisfy

(A) both plane stress as well as plane strain conditions
(B) plane strain condition but not plane stress condition
(C) plane stress condition but not plane strain condition
(D) neither plane strain condition nor plane stress condition

Q.8 A statically indeterminate frame structure has

(A) same number of joint degrees of freedom as the number of equilibrium equations
(B) number of joint degrees of freedom greater than the number of equilibrium equations
(C) number of joint degrees of freedom less than the number of equilibrium equations
(D) unknown number of joint degrees of freedom, which cannot be solved using laws of mechanics

Q.9 Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass-damper system with mass, damping and stiffness
of m , c and k , respectively. The logarithmic decrement of this system can be calculated using
2c c 2c 2c
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4mk  c 2
4mk  c 2
mk  c 2
mk  4c 2

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.10 Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass system of spring stiffness k1 and mass m which
has a natural frequency of 10 rad/s. Consider another single degree of freedom spring-mass system
of spring stiffness k 2 and mass m which has a natural frequency of 20 rad/s. The spring stiffness
k 2 is equal to

(A) k1 (B) 2k1 k1 (D) 4k1

(C)
4

Q.11 Consider a simply supported two-dimensional beam

If the beam is converted into a fixed-fixed beam as

then the degree of static indeterminacy will

(A) increase by 3 (B) increase by 2 (C) decrease by 1 (D) decrease by 3

Q.12 An impulsive launch of a rocket minimizes the loss of burn-out velocity due to
(A) aerodynamic drag force only
(B) gravitational force only
(C) both aerodynamic drag and gravitational forces
(D) reaction jet control force

Q.13 Multi-staging in rockets improves the burn-out performance by increasing mainly stage-wise
(A) payload mass ratios (B) structural mass efficiencies
(C) propellant masses (D) control system masses

Q.14 In an un-powered glide of an aircraft having weight W, lift L and drag D, the equilibrium glide
angle is defined as

L D L W 

(A) tan 1  (B) tan 1  (C) tan 1   (D) tan 1  
D L W  L

Q.15 Lift on an aircraft climbing vertically up is

(A) equal to its weight (B) zero
(C) equal to the drag (D) equal to the thrust

Q.16 If an aircraft is performing a positive yawing manoeuvre, the side slip angle
(A) is always zero (B) is never zero (C) is always negative (D) could be any value

Q.17 For an airplane to be statically stable, its centre of gravity must always be
(A) ahead of wing aerodynamic centre (B) aft of the wing aerodynamic centre
(C) ahead of neutral point (D) aft of neutral point

Q.18 It is seen that the drag polar of a certain aerofoil is symmetric about the Cd axis. This drag polar
could refer to
(A) NACA 0012 (B) NACA 4415 (C) NACA 23012 (D) None of the above

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.19 The aerodynamic centre of a supersonic aerofoil, with chord c, is located at

(A) the leading edge (B) 0.25c (C) 0.5c (D) 0.75c

Q.20 Winglets are used on wings to minimize

(A) skin friction drag (B) profile drag (C) wave drag (D) induced drag

Q.21 Consider a potential flow with free stream velocity V∞, over a spinning circular cylinder of radius R
and circulation . The stream function, ψ, where ψ = 0 on the cylinder surface, in cylindrical
coordinates (r,) is given by

 R2   r  R2   r
(A) V r cos  1  
2 
ln (B) V r cos  1  
2 
ln
 r  2 R  r  2 R
 R2   r  R2   r
(C) V r sin  1  2   ln (D) V r sin  1  2   ln
 r  2 R  r  2 R

Q.22 A main objective of by-pass in a turbo-fan engine is to increase

(A) mass flow rate through engine inlet (B) turbine inlet temperature
(C) mass flow rate through exhaust nozzle (D) compressor pressure ratio

Q.23 The pressure ratio in any one stage of a jet engine compressor is limited by
(A) entry stagnation temperature in that stage
(B) entry Mach number in that stage
(C) pressure gradient induced separation in that stage
(D) mass flow rate in that stage

Q.24 Thermodynamic cycle on which the jet engine operates can be

(A) open Rankine cycle only (B) either open or closed Rankine cycle
(C) open Brayton cycle only (D) either open or closed Brayton cycle

Q.25 Propulsion efficiency of a jet engine is

(A) directly proportional to both the thrust power and the air mass flow rate
(B) inversely proportional to both the thrust power and the air mass flow rate
(C) directly proportional to the thrust power and inversely proportional to the air mass flow rate
(D) inversely proportional to the thrust power and directly proportional to the air mass flow rate

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Questions Q.26 to Q. 30 are numerica l answer type. The answ er to each of these questio ns is
either a positive whole number, or a positive real number with maximum of 2 decimal places.

Q.26 Consider a cantilever beam having length L=1 m, square cross-section (width = depth = 0.01 m)
and Young’s modulus 50 GPa. The beam is subjected to a transverse load P = 1 N at the mid-span
(L/2) at the center of the cross-section. Under the small deformation theory, the transverse
deflection of the beam (in mm) at its free-end is
P

L/2

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.27 Consider a beam in bending with a solid circular cross-section of 1 mm2, which is subjected to a
transverse shear force of 1 N. The shear stress at the center of the cross-section (in N/mm2) is

Q.28 A simply supported slender column of square cross section (width=depth=d) has to be designed
such that it buckles at the same instant as it yields. Length of the column is given to be 1.57m and
it is made of a material whose Young’s modulus is 200 GPa and yield stress is 240 MPa. The
width, d, of the column (in cm) should be

Q.29 A turbojet powered aircraft is flying at Mach number 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The inlet and exit
areas of the engine are 0.7 m2 and 0.4 m2 respectively. The exhaust gases have velocity of 500 m/s
and pressure of 60 kPa. The free stream pressure, density and speed of sound are 26.5 kPa, 0.413
kg/m3 and 299.5 m/s respectively. The thrust of the engine (in kN) is

Q.30 A low speed wind tunnel has a contraction ratio of 14:1 and the cross-sectional area of the test
section is 1 m2. The static pressure difference between the settling chamber and the test section is
40 cm of water column. Assume g  9.81 m/s 2 ,  air  1.2 kg/m 3 and  water  1000 kg/m 3 . The
speed of air in the test section (in m/s) is

Questions Q.31 to Q.55 are multiple choice type.

Q.31 Consider the function f ( x)  x  sin( x) . The Newton-Raphson iteration formula to find the root of
the function starting from an initial guess x ( 0 ) at iteration k is

sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k

(A) x ( k 1)  (B) x ( k 1) 
1  cos x ( k ) 1  cos x ( k )
sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k sin x ( k )  x ( k ) cos x k
(C) x ( k 1)  (D) x ( k 1) 
1  cos x ( k ) 1  cos x ( k )

Q.32 2 a 
Consider the matrix   where a and b are real numbers. The two eigenvalues of this matrix
 b 2 
1 and 2 are real and distinct 1  2  when
(A) a  0 and b  0 (B) a  0 and b  0 (C) a  0 and b  0 (D) a  0 and b  0

Q.33 dy
The solution of  y 3et t 2 with initial condition y (0)  1 is given by
dt
1 9
(A) et (t  3) 2 (B)
9
5  2e (t 2  2t  2)
t

4et 1
(C) (D)
(t  2) 2 5  2et (t 2  2t  2)

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.34 A jet engine is operating at a Mach number of 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The efficiency of the air
intake is 0.8 and that of the compressor is 0.87. The total temperatures (in K) at the exits of the air
intake and the compressor respectively are
(Ambient pressure = 26.5 kPa; Ambient temperature = 223.3 K; Gas constant,  = 1.4; prc  8 )

(A) 251.9 and 458.2 (B) 234.9 and 486.8 (C) 251.9 and 486.8 (D) 234.9 and 458.2

Q.35 A rocket engine is tested on a test bed under the ideal condition of fully expanded jet. The exhaust
velocity is 2 km/s through a nozzle of area 2.5 m2. The mass flow rate is 200 kg/s. The specific
impulse of the propellant and the thrust developed respectively are (assume g = 9.81 m/s2)
(A) 175.87 s and 200 kN (B) 203.87 s and 400 kN
(C) 231.87 s and 200 kN (D) 280.87 s and 400 kN

Q.36 A body undergoes deformation under plane strain conditions when subjected to the following
stresses (in MPa):  xx  450,  yy  450,  xy  75,  xz  0,  yz  0 . What are the remaining
components of stresses (in MPa) and strains? Assume the material to be isotropic and linear-elastic
with Young’s modulus E = 200 GPa and Poisson’s ratio = 1/3.
(A)  zz  0,  xx  0.00225,  yy  0.00225,  xy  0.002,  xz  0,  yz  0
(B)  zz  300,  xx  0.001,  yy  0.001,  xy  0.001,  xz  0,  yz  0
(C)  zz  300,  xx  0.00225,  yy  0.00225,  xy  0.001,  xz  0,  yz  0
(D)  zz  0,  xx  0.001,  yy  0.001,  xy  0.002,  xz  0,  yz  0

Q.37 Which of the following Airy’s stress functions could satisfy the given boundary conditions,
assuming constant values of xx = P, yy = Q and xy = R, along the boundary?

y
x

x2 y2 y2 x2
(A)   P  Q  Rxy (B)   P  Q  Rxy
2 2 2 2
2
y x2 x 2
y2
(C)   P  Q  Rxy (D)   P  Q  Rxy
2 2 2 2

Q.38 An aircraft is performing a coordinated turn manoeuvre at a bank angle of 30o and forward speed of
100 m/s. Assume g = 9.81 ms-2. The load factor and turn radius respectively are
(A) (2/3) and 1.76 km (B) 3 and 17.6 km
(C) 2 and 0.18 km (D) (2/3) and 17.6 km

Q.39 An aircraft in a steady level flight at forward speed of 50 m/s suddenly rolls by 180o and becomes
inverted. If no other changes are made to the configuration or controls of the aircraft, the nature of
the subsequent flight path taken by the aircraft and its characteristic parameter(s) (assume g = 9.81
ms-2) are
(A) straight line path with a speed of 50 m/s
(B) upward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m
(C) downward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m/s
(D) downward circular path with a speed of 25 m/s and radius of 254.8 m/s

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.40 An aircraft with a mass of 5000 kg takes off from sea level with a forward speed of 50 m/s and
starts to climb with a climb angle of 15o. The rate of climb and excess thrust available at the start of
the climb respectively (assume g = 9.81 ms-2) are
(A) 13.40 m/s and 13146.0 N (B) 12.94 m/s and 12694.1 N
(C) 13.40 m/s and 12694.1 N (D) 12.94 m/s and 13146.0 N

Q.41 A glider having a mass of 500 kg is taken to an altitude of 1000 m with a jeep moving on ground at
54 kmph. Upon reaching the required altitude in 50 s, the glider is released and starts its descent.
Under the assumption of equilibrium glide, the range and endurance of the glider for a constant lift-
to-drag ratio of 15 are
(A) 15.0 km and 1002.2 s respectively (B) 15.0 km and 601.3 s respectively
(C) 1.0 km and 601.3 s respectively (D) 1.0 km and 50 s respectively

Q.42 An elliptic orbit has its perigee at 400 km above the Earth’s surface and apogee at 3400 km above
the Earth’s surface. For this orbit, the eccentricity and semi-major axis respectively are (assume
radius of Earth = 6400 km)
(A) 0.18 and 8300 km (B) 0.18 and 1900 km
(C) 0.22 and 8300 km (D) 0.22 and 1900 km

Q.43 An aircraft in level flight encounters a vertical gust, which excites the phugoid mode. The phugoid
motion completes 10 cycles in 50 s and its amplitude reduces to half of its maximum value in 25 s.
The eigenvalues of the phugoid mode are
(A) −0.05  0.02i (B) −0.5  0.2i (C) −0.028  1.26i (D) 0.028  1.26i

Q.44 Consider the inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream conditions, M1 = 2, p1 = 1 atm and T1 =
288 K around a sharp expansion corner (θ = 20°) as shown below. The Prandtl-Meyer function, ν,
is given as a function of Mach number, M, as  (M)    1 tan 1   1 (M 2  1)  tan 1 M 2  1
 1  1
Assume air to be calorically perfect with  = 1.4. The Mach number, M2, downstream of the
expansion corner is approximately

M1, p1, T1
 M2

(A) 2.00 (B) 1.76 (C) 2.83 (D) 3.14

Q.45 Consider a steady two dimensional zero-pressure gradient laminar flow of air over a flat plate as
shown below. The free stream conditions are U∞ = 100 ms-1, ρ∞ = 1.2 kg m-3, p∞ = 1 atm and
  1.8  105 kg m-1s-1. The ratio of displacement thickness to momentum thickness of the
boundary layer at a distance of 2 m from the leading edge is
U∞ Boundary layer
∞
p∞
∞
2m
(A) 7.53 (B) 2.59 (C) 2.91 (D) 0.39

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.46 In the context of Prandtl’s lifting line theory for a finite wing, which of the following combinations
of statements is TRUE?
P: The bound vortex is responsible for the lift force
Q: The trailing vortices are responsible for the induced drag
R: The bound vortex is responsible for the induced drag
S: The trailing vortices are responsible for the lift force
(A) P,Q (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) P,S

Q.47 Consider flow over a thin aerofoil at Mach number, M∞ = 0.5 at an angle of attack, . Using the
Prandtl-Glauert rule for compressibility correction, the formula for lift coefficient, cl, can be written
as
(A) 5.44 (B) 6.28 (C) 7.26 (D) 14.52

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

The partial differential equation (PDE) governing free vibrations of a uniform Euler-Bernoulli beam is
4w 2w
given by EI  m  0 , where EI is the flexural stiffness, m is the mass per unit length,
x 4 t 2
w( x, t ) is the bending displacement, x is the coordinate along the beam length, t is time and L is the beam
length.

x0 x xL

Q.48 To solve the PDE, the number of boundary conditions (BC) and initial conditions (IC) needed are
(A) 4 BC, 3 IC (B) 2 BC, 2 IC (C) 2 BC, 4 IC (D) 4 BC, 2 IC

Q.49 For the cantilever beam shown in the figure, which of the following CANNOT be a possible
boundary condition?

2w 2w  3w
(A) w(0, t )  0 (B) ( L, t )  0 (C) (0, t )  0 (D) ( L, t )  0
x 2 x 2 x 3

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

Consider an inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream Mach Number, M∞ = 2, across a compression
corner (θ = 20°) as shown. The free stream total enthalpy is h0∞ = 810 kJ kg-1. Assume that air is calorically
perfect with γ = 1.4, R = 287 J kg-1 K-1.

M∞ P
 1m


Q.50 The shock angle β is

(A) = 20° (B) > 20° and< 30° (C) = 30°  (D) > 30°

Q.51 The total temperature at point P is

(A) 806.37 K (B) 1128.92 K (C) 1612.74 K (D) 2257.84 K

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

A thin-walled (thickness << radius), hollow shaft of length 1m and mean radius, R = 5 cm has to be
designed such that it can transmit a torque, T = 7 kN-m. A survey of different commercially available
materials was made and following data was obtained from the suppliers (E: Young’s modulus, y: yield
stress in shear, : density):
Material E (GPa) y (MPa)  (kg/m3)
X 200 550 7700
Y 70 225 2700
Z 110 375 4875
Q.52 Which of the above materials would you choose such that weight of the shaft is minimum?

(A) X only (B) Y only (C) Z only (D) X or Y

Q.53 If you assume a factor of safety of 2, what should be the approximate thickness of such a shaft?
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1 mm (C) 2 mm (D) 4 mm

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

Prandtl’s lifting line equation for a general wing is given by

b

  y0  1 2
 / y dy ,
  y0     L 0  y0    where U  is the free-stream velocity,  is the
U  c y0  4U  b y0  y

2

angle of attack, y0 is the spanwise location,  L  0  y0  gives the spanwise variation of zero-lift angle, c is
the chord, b is the span, and  y0  gives the spanwise variation of circulation.

Q.54 
The rate of change of circulation with angle of attack   is

(A) inversely proportional to  (B) independent of 
(C) a linear function of  (D) a quadratic function of 

Q.55 b
2
C L
Given that C L    y dy , the corresponding lift curve-slope
b 
is

2

(A) independent of  (B) a linear function of 

(C) a quadratic function of  (D) a cubic function of 

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given
word:
Deference
(A) aversion
(B) resignation
(C) suspicion
(D) contempt

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
We lost confidence in him because he never __________ the grandiose promises he had made.
(A) delivered
(B) delivered on
(C) forgot
(D) reneged on

Q.58 Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence below.
______________ in the frozen wastes of Arctic takes special equipment.
(A) To survive
(B) Surviving
(C) Survival
(D) That survival

Q.59 In how many ways 3 scholarships can be awarded to 4 applicants, when each applicant can receive
any number of scholarships?
(A) 4 (B) 12 (C) 64 (D) 81

Q.60 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
The _________ of eviden ce was on the side of the plaintiff since all but one witness testified
that his story was correct.
(A) paucity
(B) propensity
(C) preponderance
(D) accuracy

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 If (2y+1)/(y+2) < 1, then which of the following alternatives gives the CORRECT range of y?
(A) - 2 < y < 2 (B) - 2 < y < 1 (C) - 3 < y < 1 (D) - 4 < y < 1

Q.62 A student attempted to solve a quadratic equation in x twice. However, in the first attempt, he
incorrectly wrote the constant term and ended up with the roots as (4, 3). In the second attempt, he
incorrectly wrote down the coefficient of x and got the roots as (3, 2). Based on the above
information, the roots of the correct quadratic equation are
(A) (-3, 4) (B) (3, -4) (C) (6, 1) (D) (4, 2)

AE
2011 AEROSPACE ENGINEERING – AE

Q.63 L, M and N are waiting in a queue meant for children to enter the zoo. There are 5 children between
L and M, and 8 children between M and N. If there are 3 children ahead of N and 21 children
behind L, then what is the minimum number of children in the queue?
(A) 28 (B) 27 (C) 41 (D) 40

Q.64 Four archers P, Q, R and S try to hit a bull’s eye during a tournament consisting of seven rounds.
As illustrated in the figure below, a player receives 10 points for hitting the bulls’ eye, 5 points for
hitting within the inner circle and 1 point for hitting within the outer circle.

Outer circle
1 point

Inner circle
5 points

Bull’s eye
10 points

The final scores received by the players during the tournament are listed in the table below.

Round P Q R S
1 1 5 1 10
2 5 10 10 1
3 1 1 1 5
4 10 10 1 1
5 1 5 5 10
6 10 5 1 1
7 5 10 1 1

The most accurate and the most consistent players during the tournament are respectively
(A) P and S (B) Q and R (C) Q and Q (D) R and Q

Q.65 Nimbus clouds are dark and ragged, stratus clouds appear dull in colour a nd cover the entire
sky. Cirrus clouds are thin and delicate, whereas cumulus clouds look like cotton balls.

It can be inferred from the passage that

(A) A cumulus cloud on the ground is called fog
(B) It is easy to predict the weather by studying clouds
(C) Clouds are generally of very different shapes, sizes and mass
(D) There are four basic cloud types: stratus, nimbus, cumulus and cirrus

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

AE
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2011 – ANSWERS

Official GATE key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Marks
D D A B C C D to All A D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A B A B B D C A C D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

2.45- 5.95-
C A/C C C C 2.55
1.3-1.35
6.05
29-32 80-82

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A C D C B B C A C B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Marks
to All A C C B A C D C D

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A B D B A D B A C C

61 62 63 64 65

B C A B D
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2010 – ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C B C B D C C C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A B A D B B A D A B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

C D D D C D A D C B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A A C B C A C A C

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B D B B D A D C -- A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A B C B A D C D

61 62 63 64 65

C C D B B
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2009 - ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B A A C D D B D B C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C A C B D A B B D D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D D A B A D B A C D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C A A C A B D C B A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B B C C D B B A B

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A A C D B B C D A C
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2008 - ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D B C A D C C A B B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C B D B C A B C C B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D B C D B A B A D B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A D B D B A A B B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A C D D B D A A D A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A A A B D A C D D C

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

A B D A B C C C C B

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

A C B D C C D B C B

81 82 83 84 85

C B B A B
www.gateing.com

GATE AEROSPACE 2007 – ANSWERS

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B B B C D D A D A C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B C D A B B B D B B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D D A B A B C A D C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

D A C C A C C A C B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A A A B A A B C A C

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B B A B B B A A B A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

C D B A C B C C C A

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

B A D B C C 12.75 C C D

81 82 83 84 85

B A A C B