Question Bank for Hardware & Networking

1. An IDE controller can support up to _________ number of devices in a bus.

2

2. The first 64KB of extended system memory is known as _________.

High memory Area

3. The most commonly used interface material for cooling is _________.

Thermal Grease

4. Software provided by the manufacturer for the proper working of hardware is

----------.
Driver

5. TX stands for ________ in a serial port.

Transmit

6. Usually printer is connected to ________ port.

Parallel

7. ---------- is the process of dividing the physical drive spaces into pieces.
Partitioning

8. ---------- function in CMOS setup allows the IDE drives transfer several sectors
at a time.

Primary PIO

9. ---------- is the cooling technique employed in most computer monitors.

Static Convection

10. The maximum power that an AGP slot can provide is ________ W.
42

11. ---------- should be provided inside a cabinet to decrease overall temperature.

Chassis fan

12. MMX was developed by ----------.

Intel

13. Damaged MBR can be rebuilding using----------.

FDISK

14. ---------- file system supports security features.

NTFS

15. ---------- Jumper allows to set floppy drive to 0,1,2,3 in a Motherboard. DS

16. ---------- Program is always located in a special reserved memory area, the
upper 64K of the first megabyte of system memory. BIOS

17. The logic circuit that controls the video card is referred to as ----------
VIDEO CHIPSET
18. 1X read speed in DVD ROM drive transfers----------kb/sec. 1500

19. ATX connector has----------_ pins. 20

20. ----------Utility in windows XP helps to restore system to a previous state.

System Restore

21. Ordinary motherboards support up to ----------_ IDE drivers. 4

22. IDE stands for----------____ Integrated Drive Electronics

23. SCSI stands for----------_ Small components system interface

24. ----------_ utility under Windows 98 can be used to trace hard drive errors.
SCANDISK

25. CD player, Zip Drive, Floppy or tape Drive ect.Fit on shelves in your computer
in specific areas called----------___.
External Bays

26. IDE stands for----------_.

Integrated Disk Electronics

27. The IDE cable has two----------_ pin connectors.

40

28. The original IBM PC was configured by means of----------___switches buried on

the motherboard.
DIP

29. ISA has a maximum data transfer rate is about _________per second on an AT.
8megabits

30. When the PC-AT was introduced, it included a battery powered----------

memory which contained configuration information.
CMOS

31. The next generation of memory, after EDO was called----------__.

SDRAM

32. MCA stands for----------_.

Micro Channel Architecture

33. The default PCI bus speed is----------_Mhz.

33

34. ----------____ is a type of memory connection that uses 168 pins.

DIMM

35. ----------_ is defined as the total number of pixels in width by the total number
of pixels in height.
Resolution
36. ----------_ is a passive power protection device which works when a surge is
present.
Surge Suppressor

37. EMI stands for ----------.

Electromagnetic Interference

38. ---------- is an active low signal that is received from motherboard which turns
on all the main power outputs.
PS-ON

39. The data transfer rate of Ultra3 Wide SCSI is ----------_.

160MB/s

40. Burn Proof technology was introduced by ----------.

Sanyo Corporation

41. The data encoding format of a 1.44MB floppy disk is ________.

MFM

42. The sensor used to measure the speed of the motor of a floppy drive is
_________.
Index Sensor

43. IDE devices use a ---------- to connect to each other.

Ribbon cable
44. A font that has been downloaded by a printer is often referred to as a
_________.
Soft font

45._________ is a thin sheet of perforated metal placed in the colour CRT just
behind the phosphor coating.
Shadow Mask

46. All UPS systems are rated in terms of _______.

Volt Amperes

47. Number of pins in an AT style connector is ----------.

12

48. ----------_ power management system allows the system to wake and perform
predefined tasks based upon real world events.
ACPI

49. Data-transfer rates of Zip drives are _________ KB/s.

300

50. Number of pins on an IDE cable is _________.

40

51. LINUX Client uses---------- Protocol.

TCP/IP

52. Clock speed are measured in----------____ MHz

53. ----------___ type of IC package has two Rows of pins on each side of the
package. DIP

54. ----------__ Processor was the first to access more than 1MB of RAM.
80286

55. The _________ is used to store frequently access data in the CPU. Cache
memory

56. ----------___ is memory error code. 201

57. A ----------link two or more computer together to communicate and share

resources. Network

58. ---------- IRQ is used by keyboard. IRQ 1

59. The data transfer speed of SCSI is----------_ 160 mbit/second

60. DTE stands for ---------- Data Terminal Equipment

61. 2X read speed can transfer data at a rate of ----------_ KB/s.

300

II State whether TRUE or FALSE:

1. FAT 16 uses smaller clusters than FAT 32.

False

2. An integrated cache is also called a buffer.

True

3. 32 bit processor can support a maximum of 8 GB RAM.

False

4. AWARD is a BIOS manufacturer.

True

5. Thermal Calibration is done to ensure proper performances of CD recording.

True
6. BIOS can be updated b flashing BIOS chip.
True

7. Setting g Password Clear Jumper can clear CMOS password.

` True

8. The drives bays open to the front of the case are called external drive bays.
True

9. CMOS password can be cleared by setting password clear jumper. True

10. A laser printer can be connected to an UPS. False

11. BIOS stand for Basic Input Output Services. True

12. A SCSI bus can accommodate only 4 devices. False

13. BIOS play a major role in booting up the system. True

14. Striping takes two disks and treats them as a single disk drive.
True

15. DIMMs are the successor to SIMMs.

True

16. RAID 0 is first and it is also known as a Striped Array.

True

17. The major advantage of RAID 1 is redundancy.

True

18. CMOS battery voltage is 2.5V False

19. ATX directly connected to motherboard True

20. The larger cache memory the faster processor can RUN. True

21. IC chips are tiny electronic circuits, which are crammed with transistors.
True

22. RAID 5 is a new RAID format that combines mirroring and striping with just
two drives.
False

23. Sharing wires to do more than one thing is the idea behind the buses in all
computers today.
True

24. All traditional graphics cards have a RAMDAC chip converting the signals
from digital to analog form

True.
25. Star topology is the easiest way to modify. Star

26. SCSI is a high-speed hard disk. True

27. The IDE interface support up to 2 drive Tue

28. SCSI means small computer system interface True

29. Does pure water conduct electricity? False

30. SDRAM is faster than DRAM True

31. CGA support Colour True

32. 164 is memory size error True

33. 207 is RAM error False

34. EDO RAM means extended data output RAM True

35. DRAM is a volatile memory True

36. DIMM stands for dynamic inline memory module False

37. PCI bus has Plug and Play configuration. True

38. Keyboard use IRQ 5 False

39. The laser printers should not be connected to UPS.

True
40. Network is a concept of sharing resources and services. True

41. 3XX represent keyboard problem. True

42. CRT monitors are much more expensive than TFT monitors.
False
43. 1781 represents Drive c problem False

44. Zip disks can hold more than a floppy disk.

True
45. The transition from pits to lands and vice versa corresponds binary levels in
a CD.
True

46. IRQ 0 is system timer True

47. CD’s cannot be made bootable.

False

48. IX stands for 300KB/s data rate on a CD-ROM drive.

False

49. It is possible to store multiple layers of data on a DVD.

True

50. The procedure of approaching a stable operating speed by the motor of a

drive is called spin up.
True

51. USB is not supporting Windows 95. True

52. Socket 8 has 287 pins False

53. Windows 98 not supporting multiprocessor True

54. Protected mode support virtual memory True

55. Microprocessor clock frequency is 5-10 MHz True

56. IRQ 8 is serial port False

57. IRQ 3 is serial port 2 True

58. Refilling inkjet cartridges will reduce its life.

True

59. NTFS supports long file names.

True

60. FDD uses two rings.

True

III. SHORT QUESTIONS:

1. Explain about USB

2. What is Defragmentation? Why is it necessary? Explain red book and yellow

book specification of CD ROMs.

4. Explain the working of a CRT monitor.

5. Explain the preventive maintenance scheme for laser, dot matrix and inkjet
printers.

6. Differentiate between AT and ATX power supplies and also quote their
advantages.

7. What are the steps involved in the installation of a CD-ROM drive?

8. What is the various power-conditioning equipment? Explain.

9. Explain the functioning of keyboard controller. What is meant by keyboard

command set?

10. What is modem? What is its function?

11. What does low level formatting mean? Explain.

12. Compare NTFS and FAT32 file system.

13. Compare AT and ATX power supplies.

14. What are various steps involved in installing Operating System?

15. Explain the working of a keyboard.

16. What is the function of CMOS setup?

17. What are the steps involved in installing the Memory devices.

18. What is a mouse? What is the difference between Track Ball and Mouse?
19. Compare and contrast CD-ROM and DVD ROM.

20. Compare AT and ATX power supplies.

21. What is an instruction set?

22. Explain RISC and CISC.

23. Explain how we can get an Internet connection to our computer.

24. What is WWW? How can we create a web page?

25. Explain the different protocols used in Internet.

26. What are the differences between PCI and VESA local bus.

27. What are various steps involved in installing CD-ROM

28. Explain the working of a CRT monitor.

29. Explain in detail about troubleshooting of a Motherboard.

30. Distinguish between TCP and UDP.

31. What is a chipset? Explain the working of each component of a chipset.

32. Compare Zip drive and a Hard drive.

33. Explain UDP.

34. Explain in detail about troubleshooting of a Hard Drive

35. What does disassembling of a PC mean?

36. Explain ISA

37. Explain the major components in a Motherboard.

38. Difference between DRAM and SRAM.

39. What is meant by intermitted faults?

40. Explain IDE Hard Drive.

41. Explain Modem.

42. What are various steps involved in installing CD-ROM

43. Explain Memory.

44. Write a note to CPU mode.

45. Explain about VRAM.

46. Explain IDE and ATA.

47. What are the functions of an Operating System?

48. Explain Video Card.

49. What are various steps involved in installing Operating System?

50. What are the differences between PCI and VESA local bus.

51. Explain the major components in a Motherboard.

52. Explain Sound Card.

53. Explain the most important display adapter with their characteristics.

54. Explain PIC.

55. Explain in detail about troubleshooting of a Hard Drive

56. What are the steps involved in installing the Hard Drive devices:

57. What is Defragmentation? Why is it necessary?

58. Explain in detail installation procedure for KEYBOARD.

59. Explain UDP.

60. What is a firewall?

61. Distinguish between TCP and UDP.

62. Explain MDA Video adapters.

63. Explain the working of a keyboard.

64. Explain in detail installation procedure for MODEM,

65. Compare and contrast CD-ROM and DVD ROM.

66. What are the different types of pointing devices?

Describe in brief:

1. What is the function of CMOS setup?

2. What are the steps involved in installing the Memory devices.

3. What is a mouse? What is the difference between Track Ball and Mouse?

4. Explain TCP.
5. Explain in detail about troubleshooting of a Motherboard.

6. What is NIC? What is the difference between a switch and Hub?

7. Explain in detail about troubleshooting of a Sound card

8. Explain the features of Intel 815 chipsets.

9. Explain what are the different generations of processors?

10.What are the steps involved in installing the Motherboard.

11.What are the different types of printers? Explain in detail the working of
any three types.

12.What is the use of power supply unit? Explain the various form factors of
power supply. Also explain various powers conditioning equipment’s.

13.What are the different components found in the Motherboard of a

computer?

14.What is a printer? What are the different types of printers?

15.What is a Cache Memory? Explain L1 and L2 Cache.

16.Explain different types of multiplexing techniques.

17.Explain various display technologies available in market.

18.How data are organized in a hard disk? Explain?

19.What are different types of power supplies used in a computer?

20.What is the difference between Active and Passive Hub?

21.Draw the diagram of an Intel 815 Motherboard.

22.Explain IDE and SCSI drives.

23.What does Upgrading mean? Differentiate between capacity upgrade and

feature upgrade.

24.What are various steps involved in installing CD-ROM

 25.Explain the working of a CRT monitor.

26.Explain in detail about troubleshooting of a Motherboard.

27.Distinguish between TCP and UDP.

28.What is a chipset? Explain the working of each component of a chipset.

29. Explain ISA, UDP.

30. Explain the major components in a Motherboard.

31. What is meant by intermitted faults?

32. Define USB.What are its features?

33. What is DMA? How is it implemented?

34. What is an UPS? Explain the working of online UPS.

INPUT DEVICE/OUTPUT DEVICE MCQ

Answer the questions by putting the chosen letter in the box on the answer sheet or

Where would you find the letters QUERTY?

A. Mouse
B. Keyboard
C. Numeric Keypad

What are you most likely to use when playing a computer game?
A. Touch screen A.
B. Light pen
C. Joystick C.

Which of the following is a pointing device used for computer input?

A. Touch screen
B. Hard disk
C. CD-ROM drive

What does a light pen contain?

A. Refillable ink
B. Pencil lead
C. Light sensitive elements

What would be the best way to move around a 3-D environment?

A. Use a space mouse
B. Use a tracker ball
C. Use a keyboard
What input device can be used for marking a multiple choice test?
A. Mouse
B. Bar code reader
C. Optical mark reader

What input device could tell you the price of a bar of chocolate?
A. Mouse
B. Bar code reader
C. Optical mark reader

Where would you find a magnetic strip?

A. Credit card
B. Speakers
C. Smart card

Hard copy is a term used to describe...?

A. Writing on a hard board
B. Printed output
C. Storing information on the hard disk

What are the individual dots which make up a picture on the monitor screen called?
A. Coloured spots
B. Pixels
C. Pixies

A daisy wheel is a type of...?

A. Printer
B. Storage device
C. Pointing device

An impact printer creates characters by using... head?

A. Electrically charged ink
B... An ink pen
C. An inked ribbon and print

What do you need for an ink jet printer?

A cartridge
B. A drum
C. A ribbon
 NETWORKING MCQ SET-1

In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of

a. session layer

b. network layer

c. transport layer

d. data link layer

e. none of above

Question 2:

In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by

a. network layer

b. data link layer

c. transport layer

d. session layer

e. none of above

Question 3:

Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation?

a. fiber optics

b. satellite

c. coaxial cable

d. modem

e. none of the above

Question 4:
The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving
computer is referred to as:

a. modulation

b. demodulation

c. synchronizing

d. digitising

Question 5:

How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Seven

d. Six

e. None of above

Question 6:

Layer one of the OSI model is

a. physical layer

b. link layer

c. transport layer

d. network layer

e. none of above

Question 7:

The x.25 standard specifies a

a. technique for start-stop data

b. technique for dial access

c. DTE/DCE interface

d. data bit rate

e. none of above

Question 8:

Which of the following communication modes support two-way traffic but in only one direction at a
time?

a. simplex

b. half duplex

c. three-quarters duplex

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Question 9:

Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communications needs?

a. front end processor

b. multiplexer

c. controller

d. concentrator

e. all of the above

Question 10:

What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the X.25
standard?

a. 4

b. 2
c. 6

d. 3

Correct Answers:

1. a

2. a

3. d

4. d

5. b

6. a

7. c

8. b

9. e

10. d

SET -2

Question 1:

The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to

a. simplex lines

b. half-duplex lines

c. full duplex lines

d. biflex-lines

Question 2:

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. The difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission is the clocking derived from
the data in synchronous transmission.

b. Half duplex line is a communication line in which data can move in two directions, but not at the
same time.

c. Teleprocessing combines telecommunications and DP techniques in online activities

d. Batch processing is the prefered processing mode for telecommunication operation.

Question 3:

Which of the following is considered a broad band communication channel?

a. coaxial cable

b. fiber optics cable

c. microwave circuits

d. all of above

Question 4:

Which of the following is not a transmission medium?

a. telephone lines

b. coaxial cables

c. modem

d. microwave systems

Question 5:

Which of the following does not allow multiple uses or devices to share one communication line?

a. doubleplexer

b. multiplexer

c. concentrator

d. controller
Question 6:

Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal?

a. VDR

b. RTS

c. CTS

d. DSR

Question 7:

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. Multiplexers are designed to accept data from several I/O devices and transmit a unified stream of
data on one communication line

b. HDLC is a standard synchronous communication protocol.

c. RTS/CTS is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit data and the way the DCW
indicates that it is ready to accept data

d. RTS/CTS is the way the terminal indicates ringing

Question 8:

Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?

a. resistance to data theft

b. fast data transmission rate

c. low noise level

d. all of above

Question 9:

Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?

a. communications software
b. protocol

c. communication hardware

d. all of above including access to transmission medium

Question 10:

The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called

a. Bipolar

b. NRZ

c. Manchester

d. Binary

ANSWERS 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. a

SET-3

Question 1:

Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link?

a. simplex

b. half-duplex

c. full-duplex

d. b and c

e. None of above

Question 2:

What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6
e. none of above

Question 3:

Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?

a. wide band channel

b. voice band challen

c. narrow band channel

Question 4:

Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:

a. simplex lines

b. wideband channel

c. narrowband channel

d. dialled service

Question 5:

A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a

a. concentrator

b. modifier

c. multiplexer

d. full-duplex line

Question 6:

How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?

a. 100 microwatts

b. 440 microwatts
c. 100 Pico watts

d. 10 miliwatts

Question 7:

The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because

a. they produce large volume of data

b. they contain clock recovery circuits

c. they transmit the data with stop and start bits

d. they operate with a larger bandwidth

e. none of above

Question 8:

Which of the following statement is correct?

a. terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

b. receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

c. transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

d. control section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

e. none of the above

Question 9:

In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the

a. equalizer

b. modulator

c. demodulator

d. terminal

e. none of above
Question 10:

Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

a. narrow band channel

b. simplex lines

c. full duplex lines

d. mixed band channels

1. c

2. b

3. c

4. c

5. c

6. a

7. b

8. c

9. a

10. c

SET-4

Question:1

A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would require

a. telegraph line

b. simplex lines

c. mixed bad channel

d. all of above

Question 2:

A band is always equivalent to

a. a byte

b. a bit

c. 100 bits

d. none of above

Question 3:

The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called

a. attenuation

b. prorogation

c. scattering

d. interruption

Question 4:

Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect bits of transmitted data by receiving

a. 100 photons

b. 200 photons

c. 2000 photons

d. 300 photons

Question 5:

Communication circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are operating in

a. a simplex mode
b. a half-duplex mode

c. a full duplex mode

d. an asynchronous mode

Question 6:

An example of a medium speed, switched communications service is

a. series 1000

b. data phone 50

c. DDD

d. All of the above

Question 7:

In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as

a. detector

b. modulator

c. stations

d. transponders

Question 8:

While transmitting odd-parity coded symbols, the number of zeros in each symbol is

a. odd

b. even

c. a and b both

d. unknown

Question 9:
Data communications monitors available on the software marked include

a. ENVIRON/1

b. TOTAL

c. BPL

d. Telnet

Question 10:

An example of an analog communication method is

a. laser beam

b. microwave

c. voice grade telephone line

d. all of the above

1. b

2. d

3. a

4. b

5. b

6. c

7. d

8. d

9. a

10. d

SET-5

Question:1
Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is
a. 7
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

Question 2:
What is the main difference between DDCMP and SDLC?
a. DDCMP does not need special hardware to final the beginning of a message
b. DDCMP has a message header
c. SDLC has a IP address
d. SDLC does not use CRC

Question 3:
An example of digital, rather than analog, communication is
a. DDD
b. DDS
c. WATS
d. DDT

Question 4:
Terminals are required for
a. real-time, batch processing & time-sharing
b. real time, time-sharing & distributed message processing
c. real time, distributed processing & manager inquiry
d. real-time, time sharing & message switching

Question 5:
The receive equalizer reduces delay distortions using a
a. tapped delay lines
b. gearshift
c. descrambler
d. difference engine

Question 6:
Ina synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known as
a. adaptive equalizer
b. impairment equalizer
c. statistical equalizer
d. compromise equalizer

Question 7:
The channel in the data communication model can be
a. postal mail services
b. telephone lines
c. radio lines
d. any of the above

Question 8:
A data terminal serves as an
a. Effector
b. sensor
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

Question 9:
Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate to in individual device?
a. computer bus
b. telephone lines
c. voice and mode
d. lease lines

Question 10:
A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place
a. between peers
b. between an interface
c. between modems
d. across an interface

1. b
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. a
6. a
7. d
8. c
9. a
10. a
 COMPUTER MEMORY mcq

1. Which of the following memories must be refreshed many times per second?
a. Static RAM b. Dynamic RAM c. EPROM
d. ROM e. None of these
2. RAM stands for
a. Random origin money b. Random only memory
c. Read only memory d. Random access memory
e. None of these
3. Which of the following is a temporary primary memory?
A PROM B.RAM C.EPROM
D.ROM E.None of these
4. Which of the following is used as a primary storage device?
a. Magnetic drum b. PROM c. Floppy disk
d. All of these e.None of these
5. Which of the following memories not needs refresh?
a. SRAM b. DRAM c. ROM
d. All of above e. None of these
6. Which statement is valid?
a. 1KB = 1024 bytes b. 1 MB=2048 bytes
c. 1 MB = 10000 kilobytes d. 1 KB = 100 bytes
e. None of these
7. A name or number used to identify a storage location devices?
a. A byte b. A record c. An address
d. All of above e. None of these
8. Which of the following is a primary storage device?
a. Magnetic tape b. Magnetic disk c. Optical disk
d. None of above e. None of these
9. The two kinds of main memory are:
A) Primary and secondary B) Random and sequential
C) ROM and RAM D) All of above
E.None of these
10. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data
A) 1.40 MB B) 1.44 GB C) 1.40 GB
D) 1.44 MB E) None of these
11. Magnetic disks are the most popular medium for
A) Direct access B) Sequential access
C) Both of above D) None of above
E.) None of these
12. CD-ROM stands for
a. Compactable Read Only Memory
b. Compact Data Read Only Memory
c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory
d. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
e. None of these
13. A gigabyte is equal to
 a 1024 bytes b million megabytes
c thousand kilobytes d 1024 megabytes
e. None of these
14. Select the smallest memory size.

(a) Terabyte (b) Gigabyte (c) Kilobyte

(d) Megabyte e.None of these
15. The memory which is utmost accessible to the processor :
(a) Cache memory (b) RAM (c) Hard disk
(d) Flash memory (e) None of these
16. Which computer memory is used for storing programs and data currently being processed by the
CPU?
a. Mass memory b. Internal memory
c. Non-volatile memory d. PROM
e. None of these
17. The program which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as..
a. Hardware b.Software c.Firmware
d. All of the aboveq e. none of these
18. Before a disk drive can access any sector record, a computer program has to provide the record’s disk
address. What information does this address specify?
a. Track number b. Sector number c. Surface number
d. All of above e. None of these.
19. A storage area used to store data to a compensate for the difference in speed at which the different
units can handle data is
a. Memory b. Buffer c. Accumulator
d. Address e. None of these.
20. Instructions and memory address are represented by
a. Character code b. Binary codes c. Binary word

d. Parity bit e. None of these

Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) on Computer

1. Virtual memory is –
(1) an extremely large main memory
(2) an extremely large secondary memory
(3) an illusion of an extremely large memory
(4) a type of memory used in super computers
(5) None of these
2. Fragmentation is -
(1) dividing the secondary memory into equal sized f fragments
(2) dividing the main memory into equal size fragments
(3) fragments of memory words used in a page
(4) fragments of memory words unused in a page
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following are real time systems?
(A) an on-line real reservation system
(B) a process control system
(C) Aircraft control system
(D) Payroll processing system
(1) A and B (2) C and D
(3) B and C (4) A, B, C and D
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following is a service not supported by the operating system?
(1) Protection (2) Accounting
(3) Compilation (4) I/O Operation
(5) None of these
5. Which of the following are Single-use operating system?
(A) MS DOS (B) UNIX
(C) XENIX (D)D OS2
(1)A and B (2) B and D
(3) A and C (4) All A, B, C and D
(5) None of these
6. Bootstrap loader is always stored in-
(1) Cache (2) ROM
(3) RAM (4) Disk
(5) None of these
7. Which memory unit has lowest access time?
(1) Cache (2) Registers
(3) Magnetic Disk (4) Main Memory
(5) Pen drive
8. Copying computer program / software without permission of its author is called-
(1) High way robbery (2) Larceny
(3) Software piracy (4) Embezzlement
(5) None of these
9. Cache memory-
(1) has greater capacity than RAM
(2) is faster to access than CPU Registers
(3) is permanent storage
(4) f aster to access than RAM
(5) None of these
10. When more than one processes are running concurrently on a system-
(1) batched system
(2) real-time system
(3) multi programming system
(4) multiprocessing system
(5) None of these
Answers:
13 62
22 72
33 83
43 94
53 10 3

HARDWARE MCQ
Set - 1
Question 1:
Processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe must have
a. ALU
b. Primary Storage
c. Control unit
d. All of above

Question 2:
What is the control unit's function in the CPU?
a. To transfer data to primary storage
b. to store program instruction
c. to perform logic operations
d. to decode program instruction

Question 3:
What is meant by a dedicated computer?
a. which is used by one person only
b. which is assigned to one and only one task
c. which does one kind of software
d. which is meant for application software only

Question 4:
The most common addressing techiniques employed by a CPU is
a. immediate
b. direct
c. indirect
d. register
e. all of the above

Question 5:
Pipeline implement
a. fetch instruction
b. decode instruction
c. fetch operand
d. calculate operand
e. execute instruction
f. all of abve

Question 6:
Which of the following code is used in present day computing was developed by IBM corporation?
a. ASCII
b. Hollerith Code
c. Baudot code
d. EBCDIC code

Question 7:
When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored
in/on the
a. stack pointer
b. accumulator
c. program counter
d. stack

Question 8:
A microprogram written as string of 0's and 1's is a
a. symbolic microinstruction
b. binary microinstruction
c. symbolic microprogram
d. binary microprogram

Question 9:
Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are
a. internal
b. external
c. hardware
d. software

Question 10:
Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions
a. CALL and RET
b. PUSH and POP
c. STA and LDA
d. MOV and JMP

Answers:

1. d 2. d 3. b 4. e 5. f 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. c

SET - 2

Question 1:
A collection of 8 bits is called
a. byte
b. word
c. record

Question 2:
The ascending order or a data Hierarchy is
a. bit - bytes - fields - record - file - database
b. bit - bytes - record - field - file - database
c. bytes - bit- field - record - file - database
d. bytes -bit - record - field - file - database

Question 3:
How many address lines are needed to address each memory locations in a 2048 x 4 memory chip?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 8
d. 12

Question 4:
A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
a. interpreter
b. simulator
c. compiler
d. commander

Question 5:
In immediate addressing the operand is placed
a. in the CPU register
b. after OP code in the instruction
c. in memory
d. in stack

Question 6:
Microprocessor 8085 can address location upto
a. 32K
b. 128K
c. 64K
d. 1M

Question 7:
The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputers are combined and manufacture on a single
silicon chip. What is it called?
a. monochip
b. microprocessor
c. ALU
d. control unit

Question 8:
When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is executed,
a. the information where the stack is iniatialized is transferred to the stack pointer
b. the memory address of the RET instruction is transferred to the program counter
c. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the program counter
d. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the stack pointer

Question 9:
A microporgram is sequencer perform the operation
 a. read
b. write
c. execute
d. read and write
e. read and execute

Question 10:
Interrupts which are initiated by an I/O drive are
a. internal
b. external
c. software
d. all of above

Answers:

1. a 2. a 3. b 4. c 5.b 6.c 7.b 8.c 9.e 10.b

OPERATING SYSTEM ---- <>

1. All of the following are tasks performed by the operating system EXCEPT:
A. managing hardware on the computer.
B. controlling the way application programs works with the CPU.
C. performing housekeeping tasks like file compression and disk defragmentation.
D. providing an interface for users to interact with the computer.
Answer: C
2. All of the following are operating system categories EXCEPT:
A. real-time.
B. single-user, single-task.
C. single-user, multitask.
D. virtual.
Answer: D
3. The ____________ is like a traffic cop that coordinates the flow of data and information
through the computer system and provides a way for the user to interact with the computer.
A. CPU
B. operating system
C. utility program
D. RAM
Answer: B

4. Digital storage oscilloscopes, Mars Exploration Rovers and the Mars Reconnaissance
Orbiter require a ____________ operating system.
A. real-time
B. single-user, single-task
C. single-user, multitask
D. multiuser
Answer: A
5. A real-time operating system, as defined in the text, is most likely to be used for:
A. desktop and laptop PCs.
B. cell phones and PDAs.
C. supercomputers.
D. fuel-injection systems in car engines.
Answer: D
6. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Single-user operating systems are commonly used in robotics.
B. Windows and Macintosh operating systems are the most commonly used single-user multitask
operating systems.
C. Supercomputers use single-user multitask operating systems.
D. Single-user multitask operating systems are also known as network operating systems.
Answer: B
7. The MS-DOS operating system is a:
A. graphical user interface, single-task operating system.
B. “user-friendly” multitask operating system.
C. command-driven interface, single-task operating system.
D. graphical user interface that executes in real-time.
Answer: C

8. All of the following are examples of multiuser operating systems EXCEPT:

A. Novell Netware.
B. Symbian.
C. Windows Server 2003.
D. UNIX.
Answer: B
9. Linux is a(n) ____________ operating system.
A. Windows
B. Microsoft
C. open-source
D. Mac
Answer: C
10. The ____________ operating system does NOT have a graphical user interface.
A. Windows XP
B. MS-DOS
C. Windows CE
D. Mac OS
Answer: B
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A. provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B. manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C. manage memory and storage.
D. enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Answer: D

12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A. CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Answer: B
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A. GUIs
B. Icons
C. Menus
D. Windows
Answer: C
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple
programs at the same time.
A. Multitasking
B. Streamlining
C. Multiuser
D. Simulcasting
Answer: A
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of
immediate attention is called an:
A. action.
B. event.
C. interrupt.
D. activity.
Answer: C

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to
each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A. CPU
B. slice of time
C. stack
D. event
Answer: B
 17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with
are known as:
A. application programming interfaces (APIs).
B. complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C. device drivers.
D. bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A. point-and-click
B. user-friendly
C. command-driven
D. Mac
Answer: C
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A. location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B. peripheral device.
C. utility program.
D. special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D

20. A spooler is a(n):

A. location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B. print job.
C. program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D. message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A. on a floppy disk.
B. in the CPU.
C. in a flash card.
D. on the hard drive.
Answer: D
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A. maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B. hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C. prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D. allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
23. The definition of thrashing is:
A. swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B. insufficient hard disk space.
C. too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D. inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
 24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A. Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B. Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C. Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D. Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A. configuration.
B. accessibility.
C. authentication.
D. logging in.
Answer: C
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
A. CPU.
B. platform.
C. BIOS.
D. CMOS.
Answer: B
27. The following message generally means:
A.
B.
A. a nonsystem floppy
has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B. the CD drive is not functioning.
C. the BIOS is corrupted.
D. there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up
process?
A. Load operating system  Activate BIOS  Perform POST  Check configuration settings
B. Activate BIOS  Perform POST  Load operating system  Check configuration settings
C. Perform POST  Load operating system  Activate BIOS  Check configuration settings
D. Activate BIOS  Check configuration settings  Perform POST  Load operating system
Answer: B
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A. load the operating system into RAM.
B. the power-on self-test.
C. activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D. load application programs.
Answer: D
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system
from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
A. BIOS
B. API
C. device driver
D. supervisor program
Answer: A
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A. RAM.
B. ROM.
C. the CPU.
D. the hard drive.
Answer: B

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
A. configuration
B. CMOS
C. POST
D. ROM
Answer: C
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A. registry.
B. API.
C. CMOS.
D. kernel.
Answer: D
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A. The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B. The video card and video memory are tested.
C. The BIOS identification process occurs.
D. Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A. any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B. the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually
changed.
C. this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D. virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical
structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. files.
B. folders.
C. drives.
D. systems.
Answer: D

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A. windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B. windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C. more than one window can be open at a time.
D. toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A. A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
B. Files can be generated from an application.
C. Files are stored in RAM.
D. Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A. an open folder.
B. the folder contains subfolders.
C. a text file.
D. a graphics file.
Answer: B

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the
best viewing option is the __________ view.
A. List
B. Thumbnails
C. Details
D. Icon
Answer: C
41. In Windows XP, an especially good way to display folders containing picture files is the
__________ view.
A. List
B. Thumbnails
C. Details
D. Icon
Answer: B
42. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
A. Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both.
B. The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.
C. Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.
D. File extension is another name for file type.
Answer: B
43. Which of the following characters CANNOT be used in a file name when using the Windows
XP operating system?
A. Hyphen (-)
B. Underscore (_)
C. Colon (:)
D. “At” symbol (@)
Answer: C
 44. If you select a file on your PC hard drive and press the Delete key, it will be:
A. permanently removed from the system.
B. removed from the system, but it can be recovered using special utility programs.
C. placed on a backup floppy disk or CD.
D. sent to the Recycle Bin folder.
Answer: D
45. What happens when a file is emptied from the Recycle Bin?
A. It is moved to RAM.
B. Its reference is removed, but the file remains until overwritten.
C. It is compressed.
D. It is copied to a storage device.
Answer: B
46. Add/Remove Programs and Display are found in:
A. System Restore.
B. Task Manager.
C. Control Panel.
D. Task Scheduler.
Answer: C
47. All of the following are included in the file path EXCEPT:
A. the drive.
B. all folders and subfolders.
C. the file name.
D. the file view.
Answer: D

48. The ____________ collects scattered pieces of files on the hard disk and rearranges them
sequentially on the hard drive.
A. ScanDisk utility
B. disk defragmenter
C. disk cleanup program
D. file compression utility
Answer: B
49. FAT and NTFS are:
A. file management utility programs.
B. part of the boot process.
C. programs for managing and scheduling tasks on the system.
D. file systems.
Answer: D
50. To restore your Windows XP computer to the state it was in on a previous date, you can use
the ____________ utility.
A. System Restore
B. Task Manager
C. Defragment
D. Backup
Answer: A