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NAVIGATOR
R
PRELIMS TEST SERIES
2024
ENGLISH MEDIUM
TEST – 101
Question with Explanation O
ORN OFFICE CONTACT NO. 9811293743, 9667779058, 7303276090
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www.ksgindia.com
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DELHI VN: 9717380832 & DELHI ORN: 9811293743 | JAIPUR: 8290800441 | PATNA: 7463950774| BHOPAL: 7509975361| INDORE: 7314977441
BENGALURU: 7619166663 | HYDERABAD: 79960 66663 | KOLKATA: 9007709895 | IMPHAL: 9650245599 | SRINAGAR: 98712 35599| MUMBAI: 98712 65599
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PRELIMS NAVIGATOR
(NAVP101) TEST
1. Consider the following statements: 3. The President can appoint a
person as Prime Minister in the
1. The Government of India Act, event of a hung assembly.
1935 introduced the
parliamentary system in India. How many of the statements given
above are correct?
2. Unlike the presidential system,
the parliamentary system is more (a) Only one (b) Only two
prone to personality cults. (c) All three (d) None
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
4. Which one of the following is incorrect
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only about the Prime Minister of India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Prime Minister allocates ranks
and portfolios to the ministers.
2. With reference to the Panchayati Raj (b) The Council of Ministers is headed
Institutions, consider the following by the Prime Minister.
statements: (c) A person can be prime minister
1. The intermediary level body need even without being a member of
not be constituted in smaller parliament.
states having lower population. (d) Prime Minister cannot be from the
2. The creation of the Gram Sabha at Rajya Sabha.
the village level has been made a
mandatory provision under 73rd
Constitutional Amendment. 5. With reference to parliamentary
committees, which of the following
3. Gram Sabha comprises all the adult statements are correct?
members registered as voters in
the Panchayat area. 1. They can investigate the cases of
corruption.
How many of the above statements are
incorrect? 2. They are responsible for in-depth
analysis of the issue under
(a) Only one (b) Only two consideration.
(c) All three (d) None 3. These committees play a vital role
in the day-to-day business of the
House.
3. With reference to the discretionary
O
powers of the President of India, Select the correct answer using the
.C
consider the following statements : code given below:
1. The President can ask the Council (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
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of Ministers to reconsider their (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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decision.
2. The President may write to the
Prime Minister and seek 6. Which one of the following best
describes the private member bill?
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information regarding the matters

concerning the country. (a) A bill recommended by non-
FN

government organisations.

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(b) A bill by a non-ministerial member (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-
of the legislature. II are correct and Statement-II is
(c) A bill presented by a non-minister the correct explanation for
from the ruling party only. Statement-I

(d) A bill presented by the minister of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-
the state. II are correct and Statement-II is
not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
7. With reference to the Supreme Court (c) Statement-I is correct but
of India, consider the following Statement-II is incorrect
statements:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
1. It is the protector of the Statement-II is correct
fundamental rights of the citizens.
2. Through the judicial review
process, it serves as the 10. With reference to the Constituent
Constitution's interpreter. Assembly, consider the following
statements:
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect? 1. All members of the Assembly
agreed with the Congress.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Members of the Assembly believed
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 in different ideologies.
3. Constituent Assembly debates
8. Which one of the following is not can be used to interpret the
correct regarding Public Interest meaning of the Constitution.
Litigation (PIL) in India? How many of the statements given
(a) It promotes judicial activism in above are correct?
India. (a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) It follows the doctrine of locus (c) All three (d) None
standi.
(c) Hussainara Khatoon vs Bihar case
took up the issue of ‘under trials’ 11. Which one of the following is
owing to a PIL. considered as the soul of the Indian
Constitution?
(d) It can entertain grievances from
the prisoner even on the scribbled (a) The Preamble
piece of paper. (b) Article 21
(c) The Directive Principle of State
9. Consider the following statements : Policy O
Statement-I: (d) The Fundamental Rights
.C
A judge of the Supreme Court or High
Court can be removed only on the 12. In the context of Indian polity, which
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ground of proved misbehaviour or one of the following best describes the

incapacity. definition of ‘Sovereign’?
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Statement-II: (a) People have the supreme right to

Constitution of India envisages an make decisions on internal as well
as external matters
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independent judiciary.
Which one of the following is correct in (b) Independent states subsumed
FN

respect of the above statements? into transnational states

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(c) No limitation on State while 1. The judges of the Supreme Court
making laws and the High Courts are appointed
(d) A State not accountable to by the Prime Minister.
anybody 2. So far the impeachment of judges
has happened only two times.

13. With reference to election in India, 3. The Parliament can change the
consider the following statements: basic structure of the
Constitution.
1. Right to Vote is a fundamental
right. How many of the statements given
above are correct?
2. Election Photo Identity Card is not
compulsory for voting. (a) Only one (b) Only two

3. The State can deny a person the (c) All three (d) None
right to vote.
How many of the statements given 16. Which one of the following best
above are correct? describes the term ‘Ethnicity’?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) A community of persons
(c) All three (d) None permanently occupying a definite
territory independent of external
control
14. Consider the following statements: (b) A social division based on
Statement-I: common descent with necessarily
having the same religion and
In India, there is no educational nationality
qualification required for candidates to
contest Lok Sabha election. (c) A sense of identity in a group that
shares a common language,
Statement-II: cultural traits, and a sense of a
Putting an educational qualification common history
for election candidates would go (d) A large body of people in a
against the spirit of democracy. particular territory that is
Which one of the following is correct in conscious about its unity
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement- 17. Consider the following statements:
II are correct and Statement-II is
the correct explanation for 1. All constitutional rights are
Statement-I fundamental rights.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement- 2. All fundamental rights are
constitutional rights.
II are correct and Statement-II is
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not the correct explanation for 3. All human rights are fundamental
.C
Statement-I rights.
(c) Statement-I is correct but How many of the above statements are
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Statement-II is incorrect correct?

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
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(a) Only one (b) Only two

Statement-II is correct
(c) All three (d) None
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15. With reference to the Judiciary,

consider the following statements: 18. With reference to secularism in India,
FN

consider the following statements:

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1. In India there is a clear distinction policies can be formulated by the
between state and religion. governments.
2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Which one of the following is correct in
Act inserted the word ‘Secular’ in respect of the above statements?
the Preamble. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-
3. Article 26 of the Constitution of II are correct and Statement-II is
India prohibits using taxes for the correct explanation for
promotion of any religion. Statement-I
How many of the above statements are (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-
correct? II are correct and Statement-II is
(a) Only one (b) Only two not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(c) All three (d) None
(c) Statement-I is correct but
Statement-II is incorrect
19. Consider the following statements: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
1. Election Symbols (Reservation Statement-II is correct
and Allotment) Order, 1968
empowers Election Commission to
recognise political parties. 22. Which one of the following best
describes the ‘Multi-Party System’?
2. Unlike the State Parties, the
National Parties are eligible for an (a) Where two main parties have a
electoral bond. chance of winning the majority of
seats to form a government
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (b) Where several parties compete for
power, and more than two parties
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only have a reasonable chance of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 coming to power
(c) Where several parties join hands
for the purpose of contesting
20. Sarkaria Commission (1983) was elections and winning power
constituted to examine the issues
relating to (d) Where two or more parties post-
election come together to form a
(a) Foreign Relations coalition government
(b) Centre-State Relations
(c) Right to Privacy 23. Which one of the following best
(d) Criminal Justice System reforms describes the term ‘Freedom’?
(a) Absence of external constraints on O
the individual.
21. Consider the following statements:
(b) Condition of being able to express
.C
Statement-I:
themselves freely in order to
A political party reduces a vast realise his/ her potential.
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multitude of opinions into a few basic

(c) Possession of supreme power by
positions which it supports.
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the people.
Statement-II:
(d) Condition of being able to do what
In a democracy, a large number of one likes.
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similar opinions have to be grouped

together to provide a direction in which
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24. The famous book - Long Walk to 28. With reference to the Affirmative
Freedom is an autobiography of action, consider the following
(a) Nelson Mandela statements:

(b) Martin Luther King Jr 1. It is used to eliminate entrenched

forms of social inequalities.
(c) Aung San Suu Kyi
2. The Maternity Benefit Act (1961) is
(d) Mahatma Gandhi one of the examples of affirmative
action.
25. Which of the following reasonable Which of the statements given above
restrictions on freedom of speech and is/are correct?
expression are mentioned in the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Indian Constitution?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Public order
2. Friendly relations with foreign
countries 29. With reference to the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights, consider
3. Decency and morality the following statements:
4. Contempt of court 1. This was proclaimed by the United
Select the correct answer using the Nations Human Rights Council.
code given below: 2. This declaration was adopted
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only before India got its freedom from
British rule.
(b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. With reference to Socialism, which one
of the following statements is
incorrect? 30. 'Right to livelihood' comes under which
one of the following Articles of Indian
(a) It emerged as a response to the Constitution?
inequalities prevalent in industrial
capitalist economies (a) Article 14
(b) It is concerned with the just (b) Article 15
distribution of resources (c) Article 19
(c) The advocates of socialism are (d) Article 21
entirely opposed to the market
(d) None of these
31. With reference to citizenship in India,
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consider the following statements:
27. The term “Social Leprosy” is used by 1. The provisions about citizenship
Martin Luther King Jr, in the context can be found in Part-II of the
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of Indian Constitution.
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(a) Racial discrimination 2. Citizenship can be acquired by

(b) Political equality birth, descent, registration and
naturalisation.
O

(c) Decolonisation
3. Affirmative action taken by the
(d) Inhumane practice of slavery
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state in favour of marginalised

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groups is considered as (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
discrimination between citizens. Statement-II is correct
How many of the above given
statements are incorrect? 34. With reference to Indian Secularism,
(a) Only one (b) Only two consider the following statements:
(c) All three (d) None 1. The idea of religious equality is
adopted in the Indian
constitution.
32. Consider the following pairs:
2. Tolerance is the key feature of
Separatist Associated Indian secularism.
group country 3. Indian secularism facilitates the
idea of state-supported religious
1. Basques Canada reform.
2. Quebecois Northern Spain How many of the above statements are
correct?
3. Kurds Turkey
(a) Only one (b) Only two
How many of the above given pairs are (c) All three (d) None
correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
35. With respect to Constituent Assembly
(c) All three (d) None of India, consider the following
statements:
33. Consider the following statements: 1. It held its first sitting on 9
December1946.
Statement - I:
2. Its members were elected directly
The Indian constitution has an by the people.
elaborate set of provisions for the
protection of religious, linguistic and 3. It was composed along the lines
cultural minorities. proposed by the Cripps Mission.
Statement - II: How many of the above statements are
correct?
To abandon the idea of one-culture-
one state, it becomes necessary to (a) Only one (b) Only two
accommodate different communities to (c) All three (d) None
build an inclusive society.
Which one of the following is correct in
36. With respect to the Objective
respect of the above statements?
Resolution, consider the following
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-
II are correct and Statement-II is
Statements:
O
1. It was moved by Dr B.R.
.C
the correct explanation for
Ambedkar in the Constituent
Statement-I
Assembly.
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(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-

2. This resolution encapsulated the
II are correct and Statement-II is
aspirations and values behind the
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not the correct explanation for

Constitution.
Statement-I.
3. Based on Objective Resolution,
(c) Statement-I is correct but
O

the Constitution gave institutional

Statement-II is incorrect
expression to equality and liberty.
FN

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How many of the above given 2. Normally, it can be extended only
statements are correct? for three months.
(a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the above given Statements
(c) All three (d) None is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

37. Consider the following pairs: (b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2

Provision of the Borrowed

Constitution from 41. Consider the following statements:
1. No one is guilty unless the court
1. Directive Irish has found that person guilty of an
Principles of Constitution offence.
State Policy
2. No person would be punished for
2. The idea of Canadian the same offence more than once.
Residual Powers constitution. 3. No person shall be asked to give
evidence against himself or
3. Institution of the British herself.
Speaker constitution
How many of the above statements are
How many pairs given above are correct?
correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
(c) All three (d) None

42. With reference to Right to freedom of

38. Which one of the following committees religion mentioned in Indian
demanded the Bill of Rights in 1928? constitution, consider the following
statements:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Committee
1. Educational institutions wholly
(b) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
maintained out of State funds are
Committee
not allowed to provide religious
(c) Motilal Nehru Committee instructions.
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Committee 2. Right to freedom of religion allows
people to convert from one religion
to another voluntarily.
39. ‘Abolition of untouchability’ mentioned
in the Indian Constitution is a part of Which of the above given statements
which one of the following rights? is/ are correct?
(a) Right against exploitation (a) 1 only (b) 2 only O
(b) Right to equality (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(c) Right to freedom
(d) Right to freedom of religion 43. Consider the following pairs:
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Writ About
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40. With reference to Preventive Detention,

1. Mandamus When court orders
consider the following Statements:
that the arrested
O

1. A person can be arrested even person should be

without committing an offence. presented before
FN

it.

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2. Prohibition When the court (c) All three (d) None

finds that a
person is holding 46. With reference to Election Commission
office but is not of India, consider the following
entitled to hold statements:
that office.
1. It is an extra-constitutional body.
3. Certiorari When the court 2. It is responsible for the conduct of
finds that a elections of President and Vice
particular office President.
holder is not doing
legal duty and 3. Being an integrated body, it is
thereby is responsible for the conduct of
infringing on the local body elections as well.
right of an 4. The Chief Election Commissioner
individual. and the two Election
Commissioners have equal powers
How many of the above given pairs are to take all decisions relating to
correctly matched? elections as a collective body.
(a) Only one (b) Only two How many of the above statements are
(c) All three (d) None correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
44. Which one of the following is not the (c) Only three (d) All four
Directive Principles of State Policy,
mentioned in the Constitution of
India? 47. Consider the following:
(a) Promotion of village panchayats 1. Public order
(b) Uniform civil code 2. Morality
(c) Prohibition of consumption of 3. Health
alcoholic liquor How many of the above are grounds for
(d) Universalising higher education imposition of restrictions on the
practice of freedom of religion?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
45. With respect to Rajya Sabha, consider
the following statements: (c) All three (d) None
1. The members of Rajya Sabha are
elected by the respective State 48. With reference to the Delimitation
legislative assemblies and State Commission, consider the following O
legislative councils. statements:
2. Proportional representation by
.C
1. It is appointed by the President of
single transferable vote system is India.
applied in the elections to the
2. It is appointed for the purpose of
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Rajya Sabha.
drawing up the boundaries of
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3. Every state has a Quota of specific constituencies all over the

seats in the Rajya Sabha. country.
How many of the above statements are 3. It works in collaboration with the
O

correct? Election Commission of India.

(a) Only one (b) Only two
FN

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Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

49. Consider the following:

1. Maharashtra
2. West Bengal
3. Rajasthan
4. Uttar Pradesh
Which of the above Indian states have
bicameral legislature?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four

50. Consider the following:

1. Introduction of Money Bill
2. Constitutional Amendments
3. Impeachment of President
4. No-confidence motion
How many of the above are the
exclusive powers of Lok Sabha?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four

O
S .C
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O
FN

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)

PRELIMS NAVIGATOR
(NAVP101) SOLUTION

1. Answer : (d) 3. Answer : (c)

Explanation: Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India acquired ● Statement 1 is correct: The President
the experience of running the can ask the Council of Ministers to
parliamentary system under the Acts of reconsider the decision. The reconsidered
1919 and 1935. The makers of the Indian recommendation is binding on the
Constitution wanted to ensure that the President.
government would be sensitive to public ● Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 78
expectations and would be responsible the President may write to the Prime
and accountable. Minister and seek information regarding
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Presidential the matters concerning the country.
executive puts much emphasis on the ● Statement 3 is correct: The President
president as the chief executive and as can appoint the Prime Minister in case of
the source of all executive power. There is a hung assembly. Normally, in the
always the danger of a personality cult in parliamentary system, a leader who has
the Presidential system. the support of the majority in the Lok
Source:Class-XI: Indian Constitution at Sabha would be appointed as Prime
Work, Chapter-4, Page no 83. Minister, and the question of discretion
would not arise. However, in case of the
Hung Assembly, the President has to
2. Answer : (d) decide whom to appoint as the Prime
Explanation: Minister. In such a situation, the
President has to use his own discretion
Three Tier Structure: At the base is the in judging who really may have the
‘Gram Panchayat’. A Gram Panchayat support of the majority or who can
covers a village or group of villages. The actually form and run the government.
intermediary level is the Mandal (also
referred to as Block or Taluka). These bodies Source:Class-XI: Indian Constitution at
are called Mandal or Taluka Panchayats. At Work, Chapter-4, page no 85.
the apex is the Zilla Panchayat covering the
entire rural area of the district.
4. Answer : (d)
Statement 1 is correct: But the
intermediary level body need not be Explanation: The Prime Minister decides
constituted in smaller States. who will be the ministers in the Council of
Ministers. He allocates ranks and portfolios
Statement 2 is correct: The amendment
also made a provision for the mandatory
to the ministers. Depending upon the
O
seniority and political importance, the
.1 C
creation of the Gram Sabha under 73rd ministers are given the ranks of a cabinet
constitutional Amendment. minister, minister of State or deputy
Statement 3 is correct: The Gram Sabha minister. In the same manner, Chief
S

Ministers of the States choose ministers

Page

would comprise all the adult members

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registered as voters in the Panchayat area. from their own party or coalition.
Its role and functions are decided by State The Prime Minister and all the ministers
legislation. have to be members of the Parliament. If
O

SOURCE: someone becomes a minister or Prime

Minister without being an MP, such a
FN

BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK person has to get elected to the

(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-8, Page 183. Parliament within six months.
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
The PM can be from any House of 7. Answer : (d)
Parliament. For Example: Smt. Gandhi Explanation:
became a Member of Rajya Sabha in August
1964 and served till February1967. Statement 1 & 2 are correct: Various
provisions of the Constitution establish the
Source:https://www.pmindia.gov.in/en/f Supreme Court as the protector of
ormer_pm/smt-indira-gandhi/ fundamental rights of the citizen on the
NCERT class- XI, Chapter-4 one hand and interpreter of the
Constitution on the other. The second of
the two ways mentioned above involves
5. Answer : (d) judicial review
Explanation: ● Perhaps the most important power of the
● Statement 2 and 3 are correct: A Supreme Court is the power of judicial
significant feature of the legislative review. Judicial Review means the power
process is the appointment of committees of the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to
for various legislative purposes. These examine the constitutionality of any law if
committees play a vital role not merely the Court arrives at the conclusion that
in law making, but also in the day-to- the law is inconsistent with the provisions
day business of the House. Since the of the Constitution, such a law is declared
Parliament meets only during sessions, it as unconstitutional and inapplicable.
has very limited time at its disposal. The ● The term judicial review is nowhere
making of law for instance requires in- mentioned in the Constitution.
depth study of the issue under However, the fact that India has a written
consideration. constitution and the Supreme Court can
● Statement 1 is correct: Parliamentary strike down a law that goes against
Committees study the demands for fundamental rights, implicitly gives the
grants made by various ministries, Supreme Court the power of judicial
looking into expenditure incurred by review.
various departments, investigating Source: NCERT class- XI, Chapter-6, Page
cases of corruption etc. Parliamentary no 131.
committees perform such functions.
Since 1983, India has developed a system
of parliamentary standing committees. 8. Answer : (b)
There are over twenty such Explanation:
departmentally related committees.
Standing Committees supervise the work ● PIL has become the most important
of various departments, their budget, vehicle of judicial activism. Judiciary,
their expenditure and bills that come up which is an institution that is
in the house relating to the department. traditionally confined to responding to
cases brought before it, began
Source: NCERT class- XI, Chapter-5, Page considering many cases merely on the O
no 118. basis of newspaper reports and postal
complaints received by the court.
.2 C
6. Answer : (b) Therefore, the term judicial activism
became the more popular description of
Explanation:
S

the role of the judiciary.

Page

A bill is a draft of the proposed law. There ● Judiciary has also shown readiness to
TE

can be different types of bills. When a non- take into consideration rights of those
minister proposes a bill, it is called a private sections that cannot easily approach the
member’s Bill. A bill proposed by a minister courts. For this purpose, the judiciary
O

is described as a Government Bill. allowed public spirited citizens, social

organisations and lawyers to file
FN

Source: NCERT class- XI, Chapter-5, Page

no 112. petitions on behalf of the needy and
the deprived.
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
● According to the doctrine of locus standi, language groups, castes, classes, religions,
a person who is stranger to a disputed and occupations who believed in different
matter cannot be allowed to interfere in ideologies.
the judicial proceedings.Thus it does not Statement 3 is correct Every document
follow the doctrine of Locus standi. presented and every word spoken in the
● Hussainara Khatoon vs. Bihar case took Constituent Assembly has been recorded
up the issue of ‘under trials’ is one of the and preserved. These are called ‘Constituent
cases of early PIL’s in India. Assembly Debates’. When printed, these
Source: NCERT class- XI, Chapter-6, debates are 12 bulky volumes which are
page no 135. used to interpret the meaning of the
Constitution.
Source: Democratic Politics- IX,
9. Answer : (a)
Chapter-2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A judge of the
Supreme Court or High Court can be 11. Answer: (a)
removed only on the ground of proven Explanation: The Preamble of the
misbehaviour or incapacity. Constitution contains the philosophy on
Statement 2 is correct: Judiciary which the entire Constitution has been built.
safeguards the rights of the individual, It provides a standard to examine and
settles disputes in accordance with the law, evaluate any law and action of the
and ensures that democracy does not give government, to find out whether it is good or
way to individual or group dictatorship. In bad. It is the soul of the Indian Constitution.
order to be able to do all this, it is necessary Note: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 of
that the judiciary is independent of any the Indian Constitution the Heart and Soul
political pressures. of the Indian Constitution.
Statement II is the correct explanation Source: Democratic Politics- IX,
for Statement I: removal of a judge is a very Chapter-2
difficult procedure and unless there is a
general consensus among Members of the
Parliament, a judge cannot be removed. It 12. Answer: (a)
should also be noted that while making
appointments, the executive plays a crucial Explanation:
role; the legislature has the powers of Option A is correct: Sovereign means
removal. This has ensured both balance of people have the supreme right to make
power and independence of the judiciary. decisions on internal as well as external
So far, only one case of removal of a judge of matters. No external power can dictate the
the Supreme Court came up for government of India.
consideration before Parliament.
Option B is incorrect: A previously O
Source: NCERT class- XI, Chapter-6, Page independent state, representing those
no 141. nations that were independent but were
.3 C
subsumed into transnational states like the
United Kingdom or Germany. This is the
10. Answer: (b)
S

definition of a non-sovereign state.

Page

Explanation: Option C is incorrect: The term Sovereign

TE

Statement 1 is incorrect The Assembly had was originally understood to mean the
many members who did not agree with the equivalent of supreme power. However, its
application in practice often has departed
O

Congress. The Congress itself included a

variety of political groups and opinions. from this traditional meaning. In Indian
FN

polity, the State is limited by the constitution

Statement 2 is correct The Assembly and international laws, etc.
represented members from different
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
Option D is incorrect: The electorate elects degree like B.A., B.Com or B.Sc was made
Members of Parliament and Members of the compulsory for candidates, and certain
Legislative Assembly, ensuring a regular and percent of the citizens became ineligible to
accountable system of governance. These contest elections.
periodic elections reinforce the government's Source:Democratic Politics- IX
responsibility to the people.
Chapter- 3
Source: Democratic Politics-IX,
Chapter-2
15. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
13. Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The judges of the
Explanation: Supreme Court and the High Courts are
Statement 1 is incorrect: The right to vote appointed by the President on the advice of
is a constitutional right, not a fundamental the Prime Minister and in consultation with
right. Fundamental rights are basic rights the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
that are guaranteed to every citizen. Statement 2 is incorrect: A judge can be
However, the right to vote is for only those removed only by an impeachment motion
citizens who have attained the age of 18. passed separately by two-thirds members of
Hence the right to vote is a constitutional the two Houses of the Parliament. It has
right, not a fundamental right. never happened in the history of Indian
Statement 2 is correct: In the last few democracy.
years, a new system of Election Photo Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme
Identity Card has been introduced. But the Court of India has ruled in Kesavananda
card is not yet compulsory for voting. The Bharati Case that the core or basic
voters can show many other proofs of principles of the Constitution cannot be
identity like the ration card or the driving changed by the Parliament.
license.
Source: Democratic Politics- IX,
Statement 3 is correct: Under the principle
of universal adult franchise all the citizens Chapter- 4
aged 18 years and above can vote in an
election. No one should be denied the right
to vote without a good reason. For instance, 16. Answer: (c)
some criminals and persons with unsound Explanation:
minds can be denied the right to vote, but
Option (a) is incorrect: It is the definition of
only in rare situations.
a state. A state is a community of persons
Source: Democratic Politics- IX, Chapter- permanently occupying a definite territory
3 independent of external control and
possessing an organized government.
Option (c) is correct: Ethnicity is a social
14. Answer: (a)
division based on shared culture. It is a
O
Explanation:
.4 C
sense of identity and membership in a group
Statement 1 is correct: In our country, that shares a common language, cultural
there is no education qualification required traits (values, beliefs, religion, food habits,
S

for candidates to contest elections for customs, etc.), and a sense of a common
Page
TE

Parliament. history.
Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Option (b) is incorrect: People belonging to
statement 1: Putting an educational the same ethnic group believe in their
O

qualification would go against the spirit of common descent because of similarities of

democracy. It would mean depriving a physical type culture or both. They need not
FN

majority of the country’s citizens of the right always have the same religion or nationality.
to contest elections. For example, a graduate
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
Option (d) is incorrect: It is defining a Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 27 of the
nation. A large body of people, associated Constitution prohibits using taxpayer's
with a particular territory, that is sufficiently money for the promotion of any religion.
conscious of its unity to seek or to possess a Source: Democratic politics -II/ CLASS X
government peculiarly its own. NCERT/ Chapter 3
Source: Democratic politics -II/ CLASS X https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/ar
NCERT/ Chapter 1 ticle-8742-concept-of-secularism.html

17. Answer: (a) 19. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: All rights that Statement 1 is correct: The Election
have been conferred to the citizens and Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order,
enshrined in the Constitution of India but 1968 empowers the EC to recognise political
are not under the domain of Part III of the parties and allot symbols. Under Paragraph
Constitution are said to be Constitutional 15 of the Order, it can decide disputes
Rights. Example - Right to Vote guaranteed among rival groups or sections of a
by Article 326 of the Indian constitution. recognised political party staking claim to its
Statement 2 is correct: Fundamental name and symbol.
Rights are under Part III of the Indian Statement 2 is incorrect: Any party that
constitution. Hence all fundamental rights is registered under section 29A of the
are constitutional rights. Representation of the Peoples Act 1951 , and
Statement 3 is incorrect: Human rights has secured at least one percent of the votes
refer to the rights enjoyed by all human polled in the most recent General elections
beings irrespective of race, sex, nationality, or Assembly elections is eligible to receive
ethnicity, language, religion, or any other electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a
status, while fundamental rights refer to verified account by the Election Commission
essential rights enjoyed by every citizen of a of India (ECI) and the electoral bond
country irrespective of caste, creed, place of transactions can be made only through this
birth, religion, or gender. Human rights are account.
universal, fundamental rights are country- Source: Democratic politics -II/ CLASS X
specific. The constitution protects the NCERT/ Chapter 4
fundamental rights of the citizens of a
country, whereas human rights are https://www.business-
protected internationally. standard.com/india-news/explained-
criteria-for-becoming-national-party-roles-
Source: Democratic politics -II/ CLASS X advantages-and-more-
NCERT/ Chapter 3 123041100310_1.html
https://eci.gov.in/mcc/
18. Answer: (a)
O
Explanation 20. Answer: (b)
.5 C
Statement 1 is incorrect: In Western Explanation:
secularism the distinction between state and
S

religion is clearly defined, while in India The Sarkaria Commission was appointed
Page

there is no clear distinction between state by the central government (1983; it

TE

and religion. submitted its report in 1988) to examine the

issues relating to centre-State relations.
Statement 2 is correct: The word 'secular'
SOURCE:
O

was inserted in the Preamble of the

Constitution by the 42nd (Amendment) Act, BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK
FN

1976, which came into effect on January (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-7 Page 166.
3rd, 1977.
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
21. Answer: (a) https://keydifferences.com/difference-
Explanation: between-alliance-and-coalition.html

Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

and Statement II is the correct 23. Answer : (b)
explanation for Statement-I: Political Explanation:
parties put forward different policies and
programs and the voters choose from them. Freedom is said to exist when external
Each of us may have different opinions and constraints on the individual are absent. In
views on what policies are suitable for terms of this definition an individual could
society. But no government can handle such be considered free if he/she is not subject to
a large variety of views. In a democracy, a external controls or coercion and is able to
large number of similar opinions have to be make independent decisions and act in an
grouped together to provide a direction in autonomous way. However, absence of
which policies can be formulated by the constraints is only one dimension of
governments. This is what the parties do. A freedom. Freedom is also about expanding
party reduces a vast multitude of opinions the ability of people to freely express
into a few basic positions which it supports. themselves and develop their potential.
Source: Democratic politics -II/ CLASS X Freedom in this sense is the condition in
NCERT/ Chapter 4 which people can develop their creativity
and capabilities.
Source : Class 11 NCERT Political Theory,
22. Answer: (b) Chapter 2, Page no 18
Option A is incorrect: In a two-party
system, two main parties have a chance of
winning the majority of seats to form a 24. Answer : (a)
government. The United States of America Explanation:
and the United Kingdom are examples of a
two-party system. Long Walk to Freedom- autobiography of
one of the greatest persons of the
Option B is correct: If several parties twentieth century, Nelson Mandela, this
compete for power, and more than two book discusses about his personal struggle
parties have a reasonable chance of coming against the apartheid regime in South Africa,
to power either on their own strength or in about the resistance of his people to the
alliance with others, it is called a multiparty segregationist policies of the white regime,
system. In India, we have a multiparty about the humiliations, hardships and
system. police brutalities suffered by the black
Option C is incorrect: When several parties people of South Africa.
in a multi-party system join hands for the Source: Class 11 NCERT Political Theory,
purpose of contesting elections and winning Chapter 2, Page no 18
power, it is called an alliance or a front. For O
example, in India, there were three such
major alliances in the 2004 parliamentary 25. Answer : (d)
.6 C
elections– the National Democratic Alliance,
Explanation: There are certain grounds,
the United Progressive Alliance, and the Left
State can impose reasonable restrictions on
Front.
S

the exercise of the freedom of speech and

Page

Option D is incorrect: Coalition refers to expression:

TE

the collaboration of two or more political

● Sovereignty and integrity of India
parties or groups, to constitute the
government if no political party wins ● Security of the state
O

majority votes in the elections. ● Friendly relations with foreign states

Source: Democratic politics -II/ CLASS X
FN

● Public order
NCERT/ Chapter 4
● Decency or morality
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
● Contempt of court Martin Luther King Jr. was a black leader of
● Defamation the movement against these laws. King gave
many arguments against the prevailing laws
● Incitement to an offence of segregation. First, in terms of self-worth
Source: Class 11 NCERT Political Theory, and dignity every human person in the world
Chapter 5. is equal regardless of one’s race or colour.
Second, King argued that segregation is
like ‘social leprosy’ on the body politic
26. Answer : (c) because it inflicts deep psychological
wounds on the people who suffer as a result
Explanation:
of such laws. King argued that the practice
Socialism refers to a set of political ideas of segregation diminishes the quality of life.
that emerged as a response to the
Source:
inequalities present in, and reproduced
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?keps1=6
by, the industrial capitalist economy. The
-10
main concern of Socialism is how to
minimise existing inequality and
distribute resources justly. Although 28. Answer: (c)
advocates of socialism are not entirely
opposed to the market, they favour some Explanation:
kind of government regulation, planning and Statement 1 is correct: Affirmative action
control over certain key areas such as is based on the idea that it is not sufficient
education and health care. In India the to establish formal equality by law. When we
eminent socialist thinker Rammanohar wish to eliminate inequalities that are deeply
Lohia, identified five kinds of inequalities rooted, it is necessary to take some more
that need to be fought against positive measures to minimise and eliminate
simultaneously: inequality between man entrenched forms of social inequalities. Most
and woman, inequality based on skin colour, policies of affirmative action are thus
caste-based inequality, colonial rule of some designed to correct the cumulative effect of
countries over others, and, of course, past inequalities.
economic inequality. This might appear a
self-evident idea today. Statement 2 is correct: The Maternity
Benefit Act (1961) has been made to
Source: protect the interests of women workers. It is
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?keps1 one of the examples of Affirmative actions.
=3-10
Source : Class 11 NCERT Political Theory,
Chapter 4.
27. Answer: (a)
Explanation: 29. Answer : (d)
The 1950s witnessed the emergence of Civil Explanation:
Rights Movements against inequalities O
that existed between black and white Statement 1 is incorrect:
populations in many of the southern states The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
.7 C
of the USA. Such inequalities were (UDHR) is a document that acts like a global
maintained in these states by a set of laws road map for freedom and equality –
S

called Segregation Laws through which the protecting the rights of every individual,
Page

black people were denied many civil and everywhere. It was the first-time countries
TE

political rights. These laws created agreed on the freedoms and rights that
separate areas for coloured and white people deserve universal protection in order for
in various civic amenities like railways, every individual to live their lives freely,
O

buses, theatres, housing, hotels, equ--ally and in dignity.

restaurants, etc.
FN
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
The Universal Declaration of Human R)%20is%20a%20document,rights%20of%2
Rights was proclaimed by the United 0every%20individual%2C%20everywhere.
Nations General Assembly (UNGA).
Statement 2 is incorrect: 30. Answer: (d)
Work on the UDHR began in 1946, with a Explanation:
drafting committee composed of
representatives of a wide variety of The Supreme Court “of India” gave an
countries, including the USA, Lebanon important decision regarding the rights of
and China. slum-dwellers in Bombay in response to a
Public Interest Litigation filed by a social
The drafting committee was later enlarged to activist, Olga Tellis against Bombay
include representatives of Australia, Chile, Municipal Corporation in 1985. The
France, the Soviet Union and the United petition claimed the right to live on
Kingdom, allowing the document to benefit pavements or in slums because there was no
from contributions of states from all regions, alternative accommodation available close to
and their diverse religious, political and their place of work. If they were forced to
cultural contexts. Finally, UNGA adopted move, they would lose their livelihood as
and proclaimed the Universal Declaration of well. The Supreme Court held that,
Human Rights on 10th December 1948, “Article 21 of the Constitution which
which is after 15th August 1947. guaranteed the right to life included the
The Declaration outlines 30 rights and right to livelihood.
freedoms that belong to all of us and that Therefore, if pavement dwellers were to be
nobody can take away from us. The rights evicted, they should first be provided
that were included continue to form the alternative accommodation under the right
basis for international human rights law. to shelter.”
United Nations Human Rights Council: Evolved rights under Article 21 Right to
As per the preamble of UDHR, it is privacy:
essential to promote the development of ● Right to go abroad
friendly relations among the nations.
● Right to shelter
The Human Rights Council is an
intergovernmental body within the United ● Right against solitary confinement
Nations system responsible for ● Right to social justice and economic
strengthening the promotion and protection empowerment
of human rights around the globe and for
addressing situations of human rights ● Right against handcuffing
violations and making recommendations on ● Right against custodial death
them. It has the ability to discuss all
● Right against delayed execution
thematic human rights issues and
situations that require its attention ● Doctors’ assistance
throughout the year. It meets at the United ● Right against public hanging
O
Nations Office at Geneva (UNOG).
● Protection of cultural heritage
.8 C
The Human Rights Council was created by
the General Assembly on 15 March 2006 by ● Right to pollution-free water and air
its resolution 60/251, replacing the ● Right of every child to a full development
S

Commission on Human Rights.

Page

● Right to health and medical aid

TE

Political Theory, NCERT, Class 11, Chapter

● Right to education
5, Page no 77.
● Protection of under-trials
https://www.amnesty.org/en/what-we-
O

do/universal-declaration-of-human- Source: Political Theory, NCERT, Class 11,

rights/#:~:text=The%20Universal%20Declar Chapter 6, Page 88
FN

ation%20of%20Human%20Rights%20(UDH
D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
31. Answer: (a) nationalist struggles that threaten to divide
Explanation: existing states.

Statement 1 is correct: Separatist movements have developed

among the Quebecois in Canada, the
The provisions about citizenship in the Basques in northern Spain, the Kurds in
Constitution can be found in Part Two. Turkey and Iraq, and the Tamils in Sri
Part Two of the Indian Constitution Lanka, among others.
comprises Article 5 to Article 11.
Source:
As per Article 11- Nothing in the foregoing
provisions of this Part 2 shall derogate from Political Theory, NCERT, Class 11, Chapter
the power of Parliament to make any 7, Page 99
provision with respect to the acquisition
and termination of citizenship and all 33. Answer: (a)
other matters relating to citizenship.
Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct:
To abandon the idea of one-culture-one
The Constitution adopted an essentially state, it becomes necessary to consider
democratic and inclusive notion of ways by which different cultures and
citizenship. In India, citizenship can be communities can survive and flourish
acquired by birth, descent, registration, within a country. It is in pursuit of this goal
naturalisation, or inclusion of territory. that many democratic societies today
Statement 3 is incorrect: have introduced measures for recognising
There is also a provision that the state and protecting the identity of cultural
should not discriminate against citizens on minority communities living within their
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, territory. Thus, bringing such aspects in
place of birth, or any of them. The rights the Constitution of India is necessary to
of religious and linguistic minorities are also protect its diversity.
protected. So, discrimination on these The six fundamental rights including the
grounds would be a violation of the Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right
Constitution itself. However Affirmative against exploitation, Right to freedom of
action and special provision to protect and Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights
promote the welfare of marginalised sections and Right to constitutional Remedies are the
of society is not considered as discrimination safeguards provided in the constitution of
against citizens. India itself.
Source: Apart from it, various provisions like
Political Theory, NCERT, Class 11, Chapter Universal adult suffrage, NCSC (National
6, Page 92 Commission for Scheduled Castes), NCST
(National Commission for Scheduled
https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part Tribes), NCBC (National Commission for
2.pdf Backward Classes), free and fair election, O
etc are also there in order to provide
safeguards to people of India.
.9 C
32. Answer: (a)
Source:
Explanation:
Constitution of India and Political Theory,
S

The process of redrawing state boundaries

Page

NCERT, Class 11, Chapter 7, Page 107.

continues to take place. Since 1960, even
TE

apparently stable nation-states have been

confronted by nationalist demands put 34. Answer: (c)
forward by groups or regions and these may
O

include demands for separate statehood. Explanation:

FN

Today, in many parts of the world we witness Statement 1 is correct:

D

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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
Indian secularism is fundamentally reassembled as Constituent Assembly for
different from Western secularism. Indian divided India on 14 August 1947.
secularism does not focus only on church- Statement 2 is incorrect: Its members were
state separation. The advent of western chosen by indirect election by the
modernity brought to the fore hitherto members of the Provincial Legislative
neglected and marginalised notions of Assemblies that had been established under
equality in Indian thought. It sharpened the Government of India Act, 1935.
these ideas and helped us to focus on
equality within the community. It resulted Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constituent
in equal focus on intra- religious and Assembly was composed roughly along the
inter-religious equality. lines suggested by the plan proposed by the
committee of the British cabinet, known as
Statement 2 is correct: the Cabinet Mission.
What makes Indian secularism distinctive is, The seats in each Province were distributed
it arose in the context of deep religious among the three main communities,
diversity that predated the advent of Western Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to
modern ideas and nationalism. Various their respective populations.
sects and religions have been living in
India since ages. There was already a Members of each community in the
culture of inter-religious ‘tolerance’ in Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their
India. Tolerance is compatible with own representatives by the method of
religious domination. Thus, tolerance is a proportional representation with single
key feature of Indian secularism. transferable vote. The method of selection in
the case of representatives of Princely States
Statement 3 is correct: was to be determined by consultation.
Indian secularism equally opposed the Source: Indian constitution at work (ncert
oppression of dalits and women within class 11), chapter-1, Page 14 and 15
Hinduism, the discrimination against
women within Indian Islam or
Christianity, and the possible threats that 36. Answer: (b)
a majority community might pose to the
rights of the minority religious communities. Explanation:
Indian secularism has made room for and Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement
is compatible with the idea of state- 2 is correct;
supported religious reform.
The best summary of the principles that the
The secular character of the Indian state is nationalist movement brought to the
established by virtue of the fact that it is Constituent Assembly is the Objectives
neither theocratic nor has it established any Resolution (the resolution that defined the
one or multiple religions. Beyond that it has aims of the Assembly) moved by Jawhar Lal
adopted a very sophisticated policy in Nehru in 1946. This resolution
pursuit of religious equality. encapsulated the aspirations and values
behind the Constitution.
Source:
O
Political Theory, NCERT, Class 11, Chapter Statement 3 is correct: The most
.10C
8, Page 118 and 119. substantive provisions of the constitution
are inspired by and summed up by the
values incorporated in the Objectives
S
Page

35. Answer: (a) Resolution. Based on this resolution, our

TE

Constitution gave institutional

Explanation: expression to these fundamental
Statement 1 is correct: commitments: equality, liberty,
O

Formally, the Constitution was made by the democracy, sovereignty and a

Constituent Assembly which had been cosmopolitan identity.
FN

elected for undivided India. It held its first One of the main points of this resolution is,
sitting on 9 December1946 and India shall be a Union of erstwhile British
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
Indian territories, Indian States, and other A bill of rights prohibits the government from
parts outside British India and Indian States acting against the rights of the individuals
as are willing to be a part of the Union. and ensures a remedy in case there is
SOURCE: violation of these rights.

BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK SOURCE:

(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-1, Page 19 BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK
and 20 (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 28

37. Answer: (c) 39. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Explanation:
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Irish The practice of untouchability is one of
Constitution: Directive Principles of the crudest manifestations of inequality.
State Policy This has been abolished under the right to
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Canadian equality. The same right also provides that
constitution: The idea of Residual Power the state shall confer no title on a person
is taken from the A quasi-federal form of except those who excel themselves in the
government (a federal system with a strong military or academic field. Thus, the right to
central government) equality strives to make India a true
democracy by ensuring a sense of equality of
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Provisions dignity and status among all its citizens.
taken from British Constitution are: -
Rights under Right to Equality:
· First Past the Post
● Equality before law (equal protection of
· Parliamentary Form of Government laws)
· The idea of the rule of law ● Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
· Institution of the Speaker and her/his of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
role birth
· Law-making procedure ● Equality of opportunity in public
employment
United States Constitution: Charter of
Fundamental Rights, Power of Judicial ● Abolition of Untouchability
Review and independence of the judiciary. ● Abolition of titles.
SOURCE: BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION Right to Freedom
AT WORK (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-1,
Page 22 √ Protection of Right to
– freedom of speech and expression;

38. Answer: (c) – assemble peacefully;

Explanation: – form associations/unions; O

A bill of rights prohibits the government from – move freely throughout the territory
.11C
acting against the rights of the individuals of India;
and ensures a remedy in case there is – reside and settle in any part of
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violation of these rights. India;

Page
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During our freedom struggle, the leaders of – practise any profession, or to carry
the freedom movement had realised the on any occupation, trade or
importance of rights and demanded that the business.
British rulers should respect the rights of the
O

√ Protection in respect of conviction for

people. The Motilal Nehru committee had offences √
FN

demanded a bill of rights as far back as in

1928. Right to life and personal liberty
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
√ Right to education This preventive detention can be
√ Protection against arrest and extended only for three months. After
detention in certain cases three months such a case is brought before
an advisory board for review.
Right against Exploitation
SOURCE:
√ Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
forced labour BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK
(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 35
√ Prohibition of employment of children in
hazardous jobs
Right to Freedom of Religion 41. Answer: (c)

√ Freedom of conscience and free Explanation:

profession, practice and propagation of Statement 1 is correct:
religion As per Article 22 of the Constitution of India,
√ Freedom to manage religious affairs √ persons accused of various offences would
Freedom to pay taxes for promotion of any also get sufficient protection. We often tend
particular religion √ Freedom to attend to believe that anyone who is charged with
religious instruction or worship in certain some offence is guilty. However, no one is
educational institutions guilty unless the court has found that
person guilty of an offence as it would be
an immense injustice to the accused if there
Cultural and Educational Rights is no free and fair trial.
√ Protection of language, culture of To ensure a fair trial in courts, the
minorities √ Right of minorities to Constitution has provided three rights:
establish educational institutions
Statement 2 is correct:
Right to Constitutional Remedies;
1. No person would be punished for the
√ Right to move the courts to issue same offence more than once.
directions/orders/writs for enforcement
of rights 2. No law shall declare any action as illegal
from a backdate.
SOURCE: BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION
AT WORK (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Statement 3 is correct:
Page 31 3. No person shall be asked to give evidence
against himself or herself.

40. Answer: (c) SOURCE:

Explanation: BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK

(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 36
Statement 1 is correct:
Ordinarily, a person would be arrested after
he or she has reportedly committed some 42. Answer: (c) O
offence. However, there are exceptions to Explanation:
.12C
this. Sometimes a person can be arrested Option (c) is correct
simply out of an apprehension that he or
she is likely to engage in unlawful activity Statement 1 is correct:
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and imprisoned for some time without

Page

Being a country, which is home to several

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following the procedure adopted on normal religions, it is necessary that the

arrest. This is known as preventive government must extend equal treatment
detention. It means that if the government to different religions. We don’t have to
O

feels that a person can be a threat to law and belong to any particular religion in order to
order or to the peace and security of the be a prime minister or president or judge or
FN

nation, it can detain or arrest that person. any other public official. Our country has
Statement 2 is correct:
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
no official religion and does not favour before it. It can also order to set free an
any particular religion or religious group. arrested person if the manner or grounds of
Under Article 28(1): No religious arrest are not lawful or satisfactory.
instruction shall be provided in any Quo Warranto: If the court finds that a
educational institution wholly person is holding office but is not entitled
maintained out of State funds. to hold that office, it issues the writ of Quo
Thus, the institutions run by the state Warranto and restricts that person from
will not preach any religion or give acting as an office holder.
religious education nor will they favour SOURCE:
persons of any religion. The objective of BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK
these provisions is to sustain and nurture (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 41
the principle of secularism.
Statement 2 is correct:
44. Answer: (d)
The Constitution has guaranteed the
right to propagate one’s religion. This Explanation:
includes persuading people to convert Some of the policies under DPSPs are
from one religion to another. The related to-
Constitution does not allow forcible
conversions. It only gives us the right to Welfare of the people, Social, economic and
spread information about our religion and political justice, Raising the standard of
thus attract others to it. living, equitable distribution of resources,
Promotion of international peace, Adequate
SOURCE: livelihood, Equal pay for equal work for men
BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK and women, Right against economic
(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 38 exploitation, Right to work, Early childhood
and 39: care and education to children below the
https://www.education.gov.in/fundamental age of six years, Uniform civil code,
_rights_article-28 Prohibition of consumption of alcoholic
liquor, Promotion of cottage industries,
Prevention of slaughter of useful cattle,
43. Answer: (d) Promotion of village panchayats, etc.
Explanation: BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 45

Mandamus: This writ is issued when the https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part

court finds that a particular office holder 4.pdf
is not doing legal duty and thereby is
infringing on the right of an individual. 45. Answer : (b)
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Explanation:
Prohibition: This writ is issued by a higher Statement 1 is incorrect:
O
court (High Court or Supreme Court) when
.13C
a lower court has considered a case going Article 80(4) of the constitution of India says,
beyond its jurisdiction. the members of Rajya Sabha are elected by
the respective State legislative
S

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: assemblies (not by both the State

Page

Certiorari: Under this writ, the court orders legislative councils and State legislative
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a lower court or another authority to assemblies). The voters are the MLAs in
transfer a matter pending before it to the that State and not the MLCs.
higher authority or court.
O

Statement 2 is correct:
Habeas corpus: A writ of habeas corpus A variant of PR, the Single Transferable
FN

means that the court orders that the Vote system (STV), is followed for Rajya
arrested person should be presented Sabha elections.
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
Every voter is required to rank candidates Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 324 of the
according to her or his preference. To be Indian Constitution provides for an
declared the winner, a candidate must independent Election Commission for the
secure a minimum quota of votes, which is ‘superintendence, direction and control of
determined by a formula: the electoral roll and the conduct of
(Total votes polled) divided by (total elections’ in India. Thus, the Election
number of candidates to be elected +1) commission of India is a constitutional
plus 1. body and not statutory body.

For example, if 4 Rajya Sabha members Statement 2 is correct:

have to be elected by the 200 MLAs As per the Article 324 of Indian
(Members of legislative assembly) of a constitution, the superintendence,
state, the winner would require direction and control of the preparation of
(200/4+1= 40+1) 41 votes. the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all
When the votes are counted it is done on elections to Parliament and to the
the basis of first preference votes secured Legislature of every State and of elections
by each candidate, of which the candidate to the offices of President and Vice
has secured the first preference votes. If President held under this Constitution
after the counting of all first preference shall be vested in a Commission.
votes, the required number of candidates Statement 3 is incorrect:
fail to fulfil the quota, the candidate who The Election Commission is not
secured the lowest votes of first responsible for the conduct of local body
preference is eliminated and his/her elections. The State Election Commission
votes are transferred to those who are is responsible for the conduct of election
mentioned as second preference on those of local bodies and works independently of
ballot papers. This process continues till the the Election Commission of India and each
required number of candidates are declared has its own sphere of operation.
elected.
Statement 4 is correct: The Chief Election
Statement 3 is correct: Every State has a Commissioner (CEC) presides over the
specific quota of seats in the Rajya Sabha. Election Commission, but does not have
Number of seats (specific Quota) of Rajya more powers than the other Election
Sabha in every state is allocated as per Commissioners. The CEC and the two
the Fourth Schedule of the Indian Election Commissioners have equal
constitution. powers to take all decisions relating to
SOURCE: elections as a collective body.
BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK SOURCE:
(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-3, Page 60 BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK
(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-3, Page 68,
46. Answer: (b) 69 and 70.

Explanation
O
The Election Commission of India can either 47. Answer: (c)
.14C
be a single member or a multi-member body. Explanation:
Until 1989, the Election Commission was a RIGHT TO FREEDOM OF RELIGION
S

single member. Just before the 1989 general

Page

elections, two Election Commissioners were According to our Constitution (Article 25

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appointed. Soon after the elections, the to 28), everyone and not only citizens
Commission reverted to its single member enjoy the right to follow the religion of his
status. In 1993, two Election Commissioners or her choice. In India, everyone is free to
O

were once again appointed and the choose a religion and practise that
commission has remained multi-member religion. Freedom of religion also includes
FN

since then. the freedom of conscience. This means that

a person may choose any religion or may
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
choose not to follow any religion. Freedom of be rotated each time the Delimitation
religion includes the freedom to profess, exercise is undertaken.
follow and propagate any religion. Freedom SOURCE: BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION
of religion is subject to certain AT WORK (NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-3,
limitations. Page 59
The government can interfere in religious
matters for rooting out certain social evils.
For example, in the past, the government 49. Answer: (b)
has taken steps banning practices like sati, Explanation:
bigamy or human sacrifice. Such
restrictions cannot be opposed in the name The Constitution has given the States the
of interference in the right to freedom of option of establishing either a unicameral or
religion. bicameral legislature.

Thus, the government can impose Currently, six states — Bihar, Uttar
restrictions on the practice of freedom of Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
religion in order to protect public order, Telangana and Karnataka — have a
morality and health. This means that the Legislative Council. The setting up of a
freedom of religion is not an unlimited second chamber is not exclusively in the
right. hands of the state government. The central
government also has to pilot a Bill in
SOURCE: Parliament. This issue could, therefore, lead
BOOK: INDIAN CONSTITUTION AT WORK to another potential flash point between the
(NCERT CLASS 11), CHAPTER-2, Page 38 state and the Centre.
Trinamool Congress government in West
Bengal approved the setting up of a
48. Answer: (d) Legislative Council in the state. It was a
Explanation: promise made by the party in its election
Statement 1 and 3 are correct: The manifesto. West Bengal’s Legislative Council
Delimitation Commission is appointed by was abolished 50 years ago by a coalition
the President of India and works in government of Left parties.
collaboration with the Election Source:
Commission of India. https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?keps2=5
Statement 2 is correct: It is appointed for -10
the purpose of drawing up the boundaries https://prsindia.org/articles-by-prs-
of constituencies all over the country. team/bengal-wants-upper-house-back-
A quota of constituencies to be reserved in how-states-have-councils
each State is fixed depending on the
proportion of SC or ST in that State. Those 50. Answer: (b)
constituencies that have the highest
proportion of Scheduled Tribe population are Explanation: O
reserved for ST. Rajya Sabha is an institutional mechanism
.15C
In the case of Scheduled Castes, the to provide representation to the States.
Delimitation Commission looks at two Its purpose is to protect the powers of the
things- States. Therefore, any matter that affects the
S

States must be referred to it for its consent

Page

a. It picks constituencies that have a higher

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and approval.
proportion of Scheduled Caste population.
Powers exercised only by the Lok Sabha:
b. But it also spreads these constituencies in Then, there are powers that only the Lok
O

different regions of the State. This is done Sabha exercises. The Rajya Sabha cannot
because the Scheduled Caste population is initiate, reject or amend money bills. The
FN

generally spread evenly throughout the Council of Ministers is responsible to the

country. These reserved constituencies can Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Therefore,
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)
Rajya Sabha can criticise the government
but cannot remove it through passing No
Confidence Motion (exclusive powers of
Lok Sabha)
The Rajya Sabha is elected by the MLAs and
not directly by the people. Therefore, the
Constitution stopped short of giving certain
powers to the Rajya Sabha. In a democratic
form as adopted by our Constitution, the
people are the final authority. By this logic,
the representatives, directly elected by the
people, should have the crucial powers of
removing a government and controlling the
finances. In all other spheres, including
passing of non-money bills, constitutional
amendments, and impeaching the
President and removing the Vice
President, the powers of Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha are co-equal.
Source:
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook.php?keps2=5
-10

O
S .16C Page
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NAVP101 (EXPLANATION)

O
S .C17 Page
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