CHINMAYA ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET
PAPER – I
(Current Affairs Test)
TEST -01
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll
Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or
discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent
to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question
for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one - third of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, ie., no answer is given by the candidate, there will
be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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 CHINMAYA ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES
1. Consider the following statements about How many of the statements given above are
Dark Earth (Terra Preta): correct?
1. It is a type of fertile soil rich in organic matter (a) Only One
found in the gangetic valley. (b) Only Two
2. Its formation is attributed to the burning (c) All the Three
practices of indigenous people in the region. (d) None of the above
3. Dark Earth enhances soil fertility and water
retention capacity. 5. Identify the correct statement with
How many of the statements TEST given
-01 above are respect to Wildlife Protection (Amendment)
correct? Act, 2022 (WPA 2022)
(a) Only One 1. It defines invasive alien species as non-native
(b) Only Two species in India that could harm wildlife or its
(c) All the Three habitat through their introduction or spread.
(d) None of the above 2. Hunting of wild animals is a prohibit action
under any condition.
2. Identify the correct statement with 3. It allows people with valid certificates of
respect to Initiatives to Recover Ozone ownership to transfer or transport captive
Layer. elephants for religious or other purposes.
1. Vienna Convention was established for global How many of the statements given above are
monitoring and reporting on ozone depletion. correct?
2. Montreal Protocol under the Vienna (a) Only One
Convention was agreed in 1987,and India is a (b) Only Two
signatory of it. (c) All the Three
3. The Vienna Convention and its Montreal (d) None of the above
Protocol are the first and only global
environmental treaties to achieve universal 6. Melanosis and keratosis –the disease
ratification, with 197 parties. primarily caused by
How many of the statements given above are (a) Lead
correct? (b) Cadmium
(a) Only One (c) Chromium
(b) Only Two (d) Arsenic
(c) All the Three
(d) None of the above 7. Identify the correct statement with
respect to Isoprene
3. “Micrixalus, Nyctibatrachidae”-the 1. It is the most abundant non-methane VOC
species recently seen in the news related to emitted into the atmosphere.
(a) Butterflies 2. Its primary source is the combustion of fossil
(b) Fungus fuels, production of petroleum products and
(c) Frog synthetic rubber.
(d) Spiders 3. Increased isoprene emissions raise
tropospheric ozone and methane levels, which
4. Identify the correct statement with are significant greenhouse gases.
respect to Microplastics How many of the statements given above are
1. Microplastics are defined as plastics less correct?
than 50mm in diameter. (a) Only One
2. The problem with microplastics, like all (b) Only Two
plastics, is that they do not break down easily (c) All the Three
into more harmless particles. (d) None of the above
3. Chemical Bisphenol A (BPA), which is used
to harden plastic, posses significant threat to
the human life.

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 CHINMAYA ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES
8. Identify the correct statement with 12. Identify the correct statement with
respect to Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) respect to Payments Infrastructure
1. Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework Development Fund (PIDF) scheme
will apply to all scheduled Banks and NBFCs. 1. The PIDF is a fund set up by RBI.
2. The RBI PCA considers banks risky if they fall 2. Its aim is to facilitate the development of
below certain thresholds on five parameters: payment acceptance infrastructure in rural
3. RBI Governor Raghu ram rajan introduced areas.
PCA for Scheduled Commercial Banks, 3. PIDF shall be governed by an ex-officio
excluding Regional Rural Banks-01
TEST (RRBs). Advisory Council (AC) under the chairmanship
How many of the statements given above are of the RBI deputy governor.
correct? How many of the statements given above are
(a) Only One correct?
(b) Only Two (a) Only One
(c) All the Three (b) Only Two
(d) None of the above (c) All the Three
(d) None of the above
9. Cape Town Convention-related to
(a) Civil Aviation. 13. “Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR)-T Cell
(b) Water conservation. Therapy”-a indigenous developed therapy
(c) Peatland. related to which of the following disease.
(d) Diamonds (a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cancer
10. Identify the correct statement with (c) AIDS
respect to Labor Force Participation Rate (d) Hepatitis
(LFPR)
1. The LFPR is defined as the percentage of 14. Identify the correct statement with
individuals within the population working or respect to Karman line
actively seeking employment. 1. The Karman line that demarcates the Earth’s
2. LFPR of women in urban areas is higher than atmosphere from space.
rural areas. 2. It is an imaginary line located 100 km above
3. LFPR is compiled and released by Labour sea level and, it falls in the mesosphere.
bureau. 3. Anyone individual who crosses the Karman
How many of the statements given above are line qualifies as an astronaut.
correct? 4. It also acts as a legal reference separating
(a) Only One airspace that a country can claim to own from
(b) Only Two space itself governed like international waters.
(c) All the Three How many of the statements given above are
(d) None of the above correct?
(a) Only One
11. Identify the correct statement with (b) Only Two
respect to Market Concentration (c) Only Three
1. Market concentration is the degree to which (d) All the above
a few firms control a large share of an industry.
2. It reduced Competition in the market. 15. Kati Bihu- a festival celebrated in the
3. Dominant firms can manipulate prices and state of
act anti-competitively. (a) Assam
How many of the statements given above are (b) Manipur
correct? (c) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) Only One (d) Nagaland
(b) Only Two
(c) All the Three
(d) None of the above

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 CHINMAYA ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES
16. Identify the correct statement with How many of the statements given above are
respect to Kanwar Lake correct?
1. It is the Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake. (a) Only One
2. It is the only Ramsar site in Bihar. (b) Only Two
3. It is formed due to the meandering of the (c) Only Three
Gandak River, a tributary of the Ganga. (d) All the above
How many of the statements given above are
correct? 20. Official agency for publishing seismic
(a) Only One TEST -01 hazard maps and codes is
(b) Only Two (a) Bureau of Indian Standards
(c) All the Three (b) ISRO
(d) None of the above (c) Ministry of Earth science
(d) Council of Scientific research.
17. “Kerem Shalom Crossing, Erez Crossing”
–connected which of the following countries. 21. Identify the correct statement with
(a) Armenia-Azerbhaijan respect to Aftershock earthquake.
(b) Iran-Pakistan 1. It is smaller in magnitude than the main
(c) Israel-Palestine shock earthquake.
(d) Lebanon-Syria 2. It can be occurs in a different fault zone than
the main shock earthquake.
18. Identify the correct statement with 3. Aftershocks can occur in a few minutes to
respect to Universal Immunisation years after the main shock.
Programme (UIP). How many of the statements given above are
1. Under UIP, immunisation is provided free of correct?
cost against 12 vaccine preventable diseases at (a) Only One
national level. (b) Only Two
2. A child is said to be fully immunised if the (c) All the Three
child receives all due vaccines within 1st year of (d) None of the above
the child.
3. Mission Indradhanush is a special catch-up 22. Consider the given statement with
campaign under the Universal Immunisation respect to Battle of Colachel
Programme. 1. The Battle of Colachel occurred in
4. Under UIP,we have successfully eliminated 1741between the Travancore kingdom and the
polio in 2014 and maternal & neonatal tetanus Portuguese East India Company.
in 2015. 2. Travancore forces led by King Marthanda
How many of the statements given above are Varma defeated the portugese.
correct? 3. After its defeat, Admiral Eustachius De
(a) Only One Lannoy trained the Travancore army in modern
(b) Only Two warfare and arms.
(c) Only Three How many of the statements given above are
(d) All the above correct?
(a) Only One
19. Identify the correct statement with (b) Only Two
respect to Malaria (c) All the Three
1. There are Five Plasmodium species, that can (d) None of the above
cause malaria in humans.
2. The parasites multiply in the liver and
destroy Red blood cells (RBCs).
3. It is preventable as well as curable.
4. R21/MatrixM is the New Malaria Vaccine is
approved to be used in India.

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 CHINMAYA ACADEMY FOR CIVIL SERVICES
23. Consider the given statement with
respect to Mizoram
1. As per Article 371G, the Mizoram State
Legislative Assembly must have at least 40
members.
2. The Act of Parliament related to the certain
matters doesn't apply to Mizoram unless the
Governor decides so.
Which of the statementsTESTgiven
-01 above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the given statement with

respect to Ethics Committee
1. Only a Member of Parliament can be
examined for misconduct by the Ethics
Committee.
2. Lok Sabha's Ethics Committee was formed in
2000 and comprises up to fifteen members
nominated by the Speaker.
3. Only a member of parliament can make
complaint to this committee.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) All the Three
(d) None of the above

25. Consider the given statement with

respect to Montreux Convention
1. The Montreux Convention is an agreement
that governs Turkey's Bosporus and
Dardanelles Straits,
2. The convention guarantees "complete
freedom" of passage for all civilian vessels
during peace.
3. The United States is not a signatory to the
Montreux Convention.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only One
(b) Only Two
(c) All the Three
(d) None of the above