CHEMISTRY

Answers Worksheet - 1
Chapter - 1 (Chemical Reactions and Equations)

Ans. 1. (a) Silver metal and chlorine gas are formed.

Ans. 2. (a) Copper
Ans. 3. (a) AgCl + HNO3
Ans. 4. (d) All of these
Ans. 5. (a) A chemical reaction is defined as the reaction in which two or more substances react
to form a new substance.
(b) The law of chemical combination is followed by all chemical reactions.
(c) Combination reactions, displacement reactions, double displacement reactions and
decomposition reactions are the four types of chemical reactions.
(d) The reaction between silver nitrate and sodium chloride that forms precipitate of
silver chloride and sodium nitrate is an example of precipitation reactions.
Ans. 6. To obtain a metal from its oxide, reduction reaction is used.
Ans. 7. Silver articles get blackened after some time because silver reacts with sulphur present in
air to form a layer of silver sulphide.
Ans. 8. Decomposition reactions are called opposite of combination reactions because in a
decomposition reaction, a compound breaks to form two or more substances but on
the contrary in a combination reaction, two or more substances combine to form a new
substance. In a decomposition reaction, energy is absorbed whereas in a combination
reaction, energy is released.
2H2O(l) ¾® 2H2(g) + O2(g) (Decomposition reaction)
2H2(g) + O2(g) ¾® 2H2O(l) + Energy (Combination reaction)
Ans. 9. (a) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O
(b) 2Al + 2CuCl2 ¾® 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
Ans. 10. (a) Nitrogen gas is filled by potato chip manufacturers in the packet of chips to prevent
rancidity.
(b) When iron articles are left open for some time, iron reacts with air and moisture to
form a layer of oxide. This layer is called rust. It is responsible for the reddish brown
coating on iron articles.
Ans. 11. (a) The colour of ferrous sulphate solution is green.
(b) When ferrous sulphate solution is heated strongly, it decomposes into ferric oxide,
sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
(c) It is a type of decomposition reaction.
Ans. 12. Difference between a physical and chemical change :
S. No. Physical Change Chemical Change
1. It is a temporary change. It is a permanent change.
2. It does not form a new product. It forms a new product.
3. This change involves the change in the This change involves the change in the
physical states of the substance. chemical composition of the substance.
Ans. 13. Redox reactions are the reactions in which oxidation and reduction reactions takes place
simultaneously.

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 (a) In this reaction, PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidised.
(b) In this, MnO2 is getting reduced and HCl is getting oxidised.
Ans. 14. Test all the three test tubes with red litmus paper.
1. The test tube in which the paper changes to blue is basic, as a base changes red litmus
blue. Now put this blue litmus paper in rest two test tubes.
2. The solution in which the blue litmus paper becomes red, is acidic as an acid turns
blue litmus red.
3. The last solution is neutral i.e., distilled water.
Ans. 15. (a) 3H2 + N2 → 2NH3
(b) 2H2S + 3O2 → 2H2O + 2SO2
(c) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4
Ans. 16. Colour changes due to the reaction between iron and copper sulphate solution. Copper is
less reactive than iron and thus, it displaces copper from its solution. It is an example of the
displacement reaction.
Ans. 17. (a) The chemical equations should be balanced because as per the law of conservation of
mass—"mass can neither be created nor be destroyed". Therefore, number of atoms
on both the sides of the equations should be equal. Thus, both assertion and reason
are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Silver bromide is kept in coloured bottles because it decomposes in presence of light,
so as to prevent this decomposition; it is kept in coloured bottles. Thus, both assertion
and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Here cuprous oxide (1) is getting reduced (to give copper metal) as it is losing oxygen
and hydrogen (2) is getting oxidised as it is combining with oxygen to give water.
CuO + H2 Heat
 → Cu + H2O
Cuprous oxide Hydrogen

(b) Here manganese dioxide (1) is getting reduced (to MnCl2) as it is losing oxygen and
hydrochloric acid (2) is getting oxidised to water.
MnO2 + 4HCl ¾® MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Manganese dioxide Hydrochloric acid
Generally, these type of reactions are known as Redox reaction.
Ans. 20. (a) The reaction involved in formation of silver from silver bromide is as follows :
hv
2AgBr → 2Ag + Br2
(b) The formation of ammonium chloride from ammonia and chlorine is an example of
combination reaction.
(c) The formation of silver from silver bromide is an example of decomposition reaction.
(d) The formation of hydrogen from water is an example of electrolysis reaction.
Ans. 21. (i) (c) Law of conservation of mass
(ii) (b) 2C4H10 + 12O2 → 8CO2 + 10H2O
(iii) (b) 1, 6, 3, 2
(iv) (a) If a particular reaction is practically feasible or not
(v) (d) Both (a) and (b)

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 Answers Worksheet - 2
Chapter - 1 (Chemical Reactions and Equations)

Ans. 1. (a) Two

Ans. 2. (c) Aluminium
Ans. 3. (d) Exothermic
Ans. 4. (b) Decomposition reaction
Ans. 5. Chemical equation is the presentation of a chemical reaction using symbols and formulae
of the reactants and the products involved in the reaction.
Ans. 6. False.
Ans. 7. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) ¾® AgCl(s)↓ + NaNO3
This is double displacement reaction and AgCl formed is precipitated form.
Ans. 8. (a) Change in colour :
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) ¾® Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag
Solution turns blue in colour and shiny silver metal is deposited.
(b) Change in temperature :
NaOH + HCl ¾® NaCl + H2O + Heat
Temperature increases as heat is liberated.
(c) Formation of precipitate :
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) ¾® PbI2(s) + 2KNO3
(aq Yellow ppt.)
Yellow precipitate of PbI2 is obtained.
Ans. 9. Exothermic reactions are the reactions in which energy is released in the form of heat,
light or sound. For example, when sodium oxide is dissolved in water to form sodium
hydroxide a large amount of energy is released.
Na2O + H2O ¾® 2NaOH + Energy.
Endothermic reactions are the reactions in which energy is absorbed to perform the
reaction. For example, when nitrogen and oxygen combine to form nitric oxide, heat energy
is required to perform this reaction.
N2 + O2 + Heat ¾® 2NO.
Ans. 10. (a) Some of the characteristics of chemical reactions are :
1. Liberation of gas 2. Formation of precipitate
3. Change in colour 4. Change in temperature
5. Change in state.
(b) (i) Carbon dioxide gas is released.
(ii) Colour changes from purple to colourless.
(iii) White precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
(iv) Change in temperature.
(v) Change in state from solid to liquid and gas.
Ans. 11. The characteristic tests for the following gases are discussed as follows :
(a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) : When CO2 is passed through lime water; it turns lime water
milky because of the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O
Limewater Carbon dioxide Calcium carbonate

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 (b)
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) : When SO2 is passed through acidic potassium permanganate
solution, it changes the purple colour of the solution to colourless as this gas is a
strong reducing agent.
2KMnO4 + 2H2O + 5SO2 ¾® K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 2H2SO4
Manganese sulphate

(c) Oxygen : When a burning candle is brought near to the oxygen gas evolving from a
reaction, the intensity of the flame increases as oxygen supports burning.

(d) Hydrogen (H2) : When a burning candle is brought near to the hydrogen gas evolving
from a reaction, it burns with a pop sound.
2Cu(NO3)2(s) ¾® 2CuO(s) + O2(g) + 4NO2(g)
(Colourless) (Colourless)

Ans. 12. The metal is corroded when it is exposed to moist air. Basic copper carbonate is
deposited as the green coloured compound. The chemical formula of copper carbonate is
[(CuCO3.Cu(OH)2] and the metal is copper. Corrosion can be prevented by painting, oiling
and electroplating.
Ans. 13. Metal A is formed from its compound on heating the ore. For example :
HgS + O2 ¾® Hg + SO2
Metal B is formed from its compound on heating the ore in the presence of a reducing agent
like coke. For example :
ZnO + C ¾® Zn + CO
Metal C is formed from its compound by electrolysis of molten compounds. For example :
2NaCl (molten) ¾® 2Na + Cl2
Ans. 14. (a) Substance A would be lead nitrate.
(b) Yellow substance that separates out is lead iodide.
(c) Formation of a precipitate.
(d) Reaction : Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) ¾® PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)
Ans. 15. (a) Copper powder turns black.
(b) The black substance is formed because copper oxide is formed in the reaction.
Copper is oxidised as oxygen is added to it and oxygen is reduced. So, oxidation and
reduction both are occurring in the same reaction.
2Cu + O2  → 2CuO
Heat

Ans. 16. (a) An insoluble white precipitate is obtained in the test tube.
(b) White precipitate of BaSO4 is formed when SO42– and Ba2+ reacts. Another product
formed in this reaction is sodium chloride that remains in the solution. This is an
example of double displacement reaction.
Ans. 17. (d) Hydrogen is included in activity series of metals because like metals, hydrogen can
also lose electrons to form positive ions. Thus, assertion is false, but reason is true.
Ans. 18. (c) The colour of copper sulphate solution changes when iron nail is kept immersed in
it due to the displacement reaction taking place between iron and copper leading to
formation of iron sulphate. Thus, assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (a) Cooking oil (here, used in preparation of chips) gets oxidised when it comes in contact
with air and gives a bad smell or turns "rancid". The oxygen present in chips packet is
replaced by flushing nitrogen in the packet, this in turn puffs up the packet.
(b) Rusting of iron is a redox reaction. When iron is exposed to the environmental
condition it terribly reacts with water and air and ends up with iron rusting. Iron
articles are therefore painted off so that iron can not react with water and air. Thus in
this way galvanisation protects the rusting of iron.
Ans. 20. (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (ii).
Ans. 21. (i) (b) Protein
(ii) (a) Only I
(iii) (c) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(iv) (b) 4NO2
(v) (b) Electrolytic decomposition
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 Answers Worksheet - 3
Chapter - 1 (Chemical Reactions and Equations)

Ans. 1.(b) Light green

Ans. 2.(b) Copper
Ans. 3.(a) Decomposition reaction
Ans. 4.(c) Calcium hydroxide
Ans. 5.Electrolysis.
Ans. 6.Reduction reaction.
Ans. 7.Photo-decomposition of silver chloride is used in photography.
Ans. 8.Precipitation reaction is the reaction where an insoluble solid which is called precipitate, is
formed. For example :
Na2CO3(s) + CaCl2(s) ¾® CaCO3(s) ↓ + 2NaCl(aq)
Sodium carbonate Calcium chloride Calcium carbonate Sodium chloride

In the above reaction, calcium carbonate is formed as a precipitate. Hence, it is a precipitation
reaction.
Ans. 9. ‘X’ is copper (Cu) and the black-coloured compound formed is copper oxide (CuO). On
heating copper, the following reaction takes place :
2Cu + O2 Heat  → 2CuO
(Shiny brown in colour) (Black in colour)

Ans. 10. (a) Balanced chemical equation :

2Cu(NO3)2(s) Heat  → 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Copper nitrate (II) (Black) (Brown)
(b) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is liberated as brown gas X.
(c) Decomposition reaction.
(d) When nitrogen dioxide is dissolved in water it forms an acidic solution as it is a non-
metal oxide and thus, the pH of this solution is less than 7.
Ans. 11. (a) Balanced chemical equation is a chemical equation wherein there are equal number
of atoms of different elements in the reactants and products. As per the law of
conservation of mass, matter can neither be created nor be destroyed in a chemical
reaction.
So, the number of reactants and products formed after the reaction should be equal.
(b) (i) P4(s) + 10Cl2(g) ¾® 4PCl5(s)
(ii) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ¾® CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) + Heat energy
(iii) C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2(g) + 6H2O ¾® 6CO2(aq) + 12H2O(l) + Energy
Ans. 12. (a) Q is most reactive.
(b) R is least reactive.
(c) Displacement reaction.
Ans. 13. (a) Heating the oxides of these metals with carbon.
(b) Heating these metals with a reducing agent like carbon or highly reactive metals like
Na, Ca, Al.
(c) Electrolytic reduction.
Ans. 14. (a) A is calcium oxide and its chemical formula is CaO.
(b) B is calcium hydroxide and its chemical formula is Ca(OH)2.
(c) Lime water.

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 (d) CaO + H2O ¾® Ca(OH)2
(e) Change in temperature.
Ans 15. Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame and turns into white powder, which
is magnesium oxide. Magnesium oxide is formed when magnesium and oxygen reacts in
the presence of air.
Ans. 16. Potassium nitrate and a yellow precipitate of lead iodide are obtained when the reaction is
completed.
Ans. 17. (b) Copper vessel is covered with a green coating in the rainy season due to attack
of oxygen, carbon dioxide and water vapours of the air on copper forming green
coloured basic copper carbonate. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Gold and silver lie very low in the activity series of metals. Thus, they have low
reactivity and hence do not corrode in moist air. Thus, both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide react to give lead iodide and potassium nitrate.
Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI Double
 displacement
→ 2KNO3 + PbI2
Lead nitrate Potassium iodide Potassium nitrate Lead iodide
(b) Above reaction is a double displacement reaction and the product remains the same
in case of reverse addition.
Ans. 20. Copper does not react with dilute sulphuric acid because it is less reactive than hydrogen
and therefore, cannot displace hydrogen from acids.
Ans. 21. (i) (a) Calcium oxide
(ii) (c) Lime water turns milky
(iii) (c) I and III
(iv) (b) Calcium hydroxide calcium carbonate
(v) (b) Combination of nitrogen and oxygen to form nitrogen monoxide

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 Answers Worksheet - 4
Chapter - 2 [Acids, Bases and Salts]

Ans. 1. (c) Absorb moisture from the gas

Ans. 2. (b) (i) and (iii)
Ans. 3. (c) Vanilla essence
Ans. 4. (d) Lime
Ans. 5. (a) Litmus
(b) Phenolphthalein Base.
Ans. 6. Those substances whose smell (or odour) changes in acidic or basic solutions are called
olfactory indicators. Onion and vanilla extracts are olfactory indicators. When a basic
solution like sodium hydroxide solution is added to a cloth strip treated with onions (or
onion extract), then the onion smell cannot be detected.
Ans. 7 (a) Two types of acids are mineral acids and organic acids.
(b) Hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid are two examples of mineral acids.
(c) Acids may release one or more than one H+ ion in aqueous solution. Therefore, the
given statement is false.
(d) Citric acid and lactic acid are two examples of organic acids.
Ans. 8. Pale green is the colour of FeSO4. 7H2O crystals. It becomes dirty white on heating.
Ans. 9. Solution A (pH = 3.0) will turn litmus from solution blue to red and solution B (pH = 9.5)
will turn phenolphthalein from colourless to pink.
Ans. 10. Bleaching powder is formed.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 313 K
 → CaOCl2 + H2O
1. It is used as bleaching agent in paper and textile industries.
2. It is used as disinfectant in purification of drinking water.
Ans. 11. 1. Reaction with Metals : Acids react with metals to release hydrogen gas.
Acid + Metal ¾® Salt + Hydrogen
H2SO4 + Fe ¾® FeSO4 + H2
2. Reaction with metal oxides : Acids react with Metal oxides to form salt and water.
These are basic in nature.
Metal oxide + Acid ¾® Salt + water
CuO + 2HCl ¾® CuCl2 + H2O
3. Neutralisation Reaction : The reaction of an acid and base to form salt and water is
called neutralisation reaction.
NaOH + HCl ¾® NaCl + H2O
Ans. 12. (a) Copper reacts with carbon dioxide and water in air to form a green coating of copper
carbonate on its surface, lemon is used to restore the shine as it contains citric acid.
Copper carbonate is basic in nature. Thus, when basic copper carbonate is treated
with acid present in lemon, it is neutralised by acid and gets dissolved in it.
(b) A metal sulphide is converted into its oxide to extract the metal from the sulphide ore
because a metal is extracted from its oxide easier than sulphide.
(c) Copper wires are used in electrical appliances because it is the good conductor of
electricity.
Ans. 13. (a) The new compound formed is copper (II) chloride, CuCl2.
(b) CuO(s) + 2HCl(aq) ¾® CuCl2(aq) + H2O(l)
(c) Copper oxide is basic in nature.

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Ans. 14. (a) Turmeric.
(b) The yellow stain of curry turns reddish-brown when soap is scrubbed on it because
of the fact that soap solution is basic in nature which changes the colour of turmeric
in the curry stain to red-brown. This stain turns yellow again when the cloth is rinsed
with water because then the basic soap gets removed with water.
(c) Basic.
Ans. 15. The gas liberated is carbon dioxide. When the gas produced is passed through lime water,
and it turns lime water milky. This confirms the identity of the gas carbon dioxide.
Ans. 16. (a) Phenolphthalein : No change or colourless.
(b) Distilled water : No change
(c) Universal indicator : Turns orange.
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate powder : Evolution of colourless, odourless gas with
brisk effervescence.
Ans. 17. (b) Acids dissociate in aqueous solutions to form ions. These ions are responsible for
conduction of electricity. Thus, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (c) Ammonia dissolves in water and forms H+ ion therefore, it is basic in nature. Thus
assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (a) As the soil solution turned universal indicator paper yellow, it indicates that the soil
solution is acidic and contains a higher H+ ion concentration.
(b) The farmer should add some basic additives to soil such as slaked lime (calcium
hydroxide) or quick lime (calcium oxide) to enhance the productivity of the soil.
Ans. 20. (a) Column I represents acids.
(b) Column II represents bases.
(c) Oranges are good source of citric acid.
(d) Formic acid is released by ant’s sting.
Ans. 21. (i) (a) NaHCO3
(ii) (b) Na2CO3
(iii) (b) Alkaline
(iv) (b) H2CO3
(v) (d) Weak acid and strong base
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 Answers Worksheet - 5
Chapter - 2 [Acids, Bases and Salts]

Ans. 1. (d) Aqua regia

Ans. 2. (b) Citric acid
Ans. 3. (d) C2H5OH
Ans. 4. (b) All metal oxides react with water to give salt and acid.
Ans. 5. The concentration of hydronium ion decreases.
Ans. 6. Hydrogen gas is released when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active metal. To test the
gas released, bring a burning matchstick near the gas. It burns with ‘pop’ sound showing
that it is hydrogen.
Ans. 7. (a) Red, (b) Red.
Ans. 8. Carbondioxide (CO2) gas is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active metal.
When this gas is passed through lime water, it turns milky because of the CO2 gas is passed
through it.
Ans. 9. (a) Organic acids are acids present in plant materials and animals. These are naturally
occurring acids. A mineral acid (or inorganic acid) is an acid derived from one or
more minerals of the earth.
(b) Organic acids : Citric acid, Lactic acid.
Mineral acids : Hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid.
(c) Uses of mineral acids in industry :
1. Sulphuric acid is used in the manufacture of fertilizers, paints, dyes, detergents
etc.
2. Nitric acid is used for making fertilizers, explosives, dyes and plastics.
Ans. 10. (a) Salt and water.
(b) Dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper because it has no
hydrogen ions (H+ ions) in it which can impart acidic properties to it.
(c) Pink.
Ans. 11. (a) Baking powder contains sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid.
(b) Cake or bread swells on adding baking powder due to production of carbon dioxide
gas.
2NaHCO3(s) Heat  → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Ans. 12. Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is Calcium sulphate hemihydrate. Its chemical formula
1
is CaSO4. H2O. The equation for its preparation is
2
1 3
CaSO4.2H2O ¾® CaSO4. H2O + HO
2 2 2

Plaster of Paris is stored in a dry place because in the presence of water or moisture, it
changes to a hard solid mass called gypsum.

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Ans. 13. Substance X is sodium hydrogen carbonate; gas Y is carbon dioxide.
NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) ¾® CO2(g) + NaCl(ag) + H2O(l)
Ans. 14. (a) Bee injects acid into the skin. Vinegar is acetic acid so it can not be used to treat bee
sting.
(b) Since baking soda is basic in nature so it can not be used to treat wasp sting because
wasp injects alkaline liquid into the skin.
Ans. 15. These salts are :
1. Calcium salts : Calcium chloride and Calcium sulphate.
2. Magnesium salts : Magnesium chloride and magnesium sulphate.
Ans. 16. It is basic in nature as it turns red litmus blue.
Ans. 17. (c) Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. Hydrogen produced during the reaction is
oxidised to water and nitric acid itself gets reduced to nitrogen oxide. Thus assertion
is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 18. (a) Plaster of Paris is stored in a dry place because in the presence of water or moisture, it
changes to a hard solid mass called gypsum. Thus, both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Compound X is sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO3.
(b) 2NaHCO3  →
Heat
Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Sodium hydrogen carbonate Sodium carbonate
(c) NaHCO3 is a mild non-corrosive base and can be used to neutralise acid. Indigestion
caused by increased acidity in stomach can be reduced by consuming medicine
containing NaHCO3.
Ans. 20. (a) Acids release hydronium ions in the solution and bases give hydroxide ions in
aqueous solution.
(b) The colour of litmus paper for test tube I is green.
(c) Solution of vinegar in water is a example of solution that could be present in test tube
II.
(d) The colour of litmus paper for test tube III is blue.
Ans. 21. (i) (b) 10-8
(ii) (d) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(iii) (a) C2H5OH
(iv) (c) A and B will turn red litmus solution into blue
(v) (a) An increase in pH value from 7 to 14 indicates an increase in hydrogen ions
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 Answers Worksheet - 6
Chapter - 2 [Acids, Bases and Salts]

Ans. 1. (a) water to concentrated acid

Ans. 2. (b) Calcium hydroxide
Ans. 3. (a) HCl
Ans. 4. (b) 8
Ans. 5. Formic acid is present in ant sting.
Ans. 6. The red litmus paper will turn blue.
Ans. 7. Green
Ans. 8. Salt of strong acid and strong base is neutral. Sodium sulphate is a salt of strong acid
(H2SO4) and strong base (NaOH). Therefore, it is neutral whereas sodium carbonate is a
salt of weak acid(carbonic acid) and strong base (sodium hydroxide). Therefore, it is basic
in nature.
Ans. 9. The chemical formula of washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O. It contains 10 molecules of water.
1 1
The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO4. H2O. It contains molecules of water.
2 2
These water molecules are known as water of crystallisation.
Ans. 10. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Uses :
1. It is used as an antacid.
2. It is used in fire extinguishers.
Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate whereas washing soda is sodium carbonate
decahydrate.
Ans. 11. (a) The indicators which gives different smell in both acidic and basic medium are called
olfactory indicators. Examples are onion and vanilla.
(b) H2SO4 and HNO3 are strong acids.
Ans. 12. (a) Universal indicator is a mixture of many different indicators which gives different
colours at different pH values of the entire pH scale. It is used to test whether a
solution is an acid or a base. It changes its colour according to pH of acidic or basic
medium.
(b) A is a base and B is an acid. A will have higher pH value because pH of base is more
than acids.
(c) Ammonium chloride (pH less than 7) and Ammonium hydroxide (pH more than 7)
Ans. 13. (a) Solution A turns universal indicator blue to purple so, it is basic in nature and will
turn litmus blue.
(b) Solution B turns universal indicator orange to red so, it is acidic in nature and will
turn litmus red.
(c) Milk of magnesia and sodium hydroxide solution are bases like solution A.
(d) Lemon juice and hydrochloric acid are acids like solution B.
(e) Neutralisation reaction.
Ans. 14. The pH of solution 'B' is less than 7 because 'B' is an alkali as it liberates NH3 gas.
Ans. 15. By adding a few drops of alkali to pure water, the pH of the water increases and by adding
a few drops of an acid the pH of the water decreases.

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Ans. 16. Blue litmus turns red in NaHSO4 solution due to the release of H+ ions along with Na+ ions.
Thus, NaHSO4 is an acid salt.
Ans. 17. (a) Tap water conduct electricity as it contain ions whereas distilled water do not contain
ions. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
Ans. 18. (b) Copper vessel is covered with a green coating in rainy season due to attack of oxygen,
carbon dioxide and water vapours of the air on copper forming green coloured basic
copper carbonate. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19.
Na2CO3 NaHCO3 Na Mg
HCl CO2 CO2 H2 H2
Ans. 20. Salt A is Baking powder (NaHCO3), which is commonly used in bakery products. On
heating it forms sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), i.e., salt B and CO2 gas, C is evolved. When
CO2 gas is passed through lime water it forms calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is slightly
soluble in water making it milky. Therefore, A is NaHCO3, B is Na2CO3 and C is CO2 gas.
Ans. 21. (i) (c) NaCl shows hygroscopic properties only due to impurities
(ii) (d) Neutral
(iii) (a) Na2CO3
(iv) (c) No change in pH of the water
(v) (d) II, III and IV only
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 Check Point - 1

Ans. 1. (d) Ascorbic acid

Ans. 2. (b) Mg(OH)2
Ans. 3. (d) Brownish black
Ans. 4. (c) The reactants interchange their ions to form two new compounds.
Ans. 5. (a) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O
(b) 2Al + 3CuCl2 ¾® 2AlCl3 + 3Cu
Ans. 6. (a) 2NaOH + H2SO4 ¾® Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(b) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O
Ans. 7. In human beings , energy is obtained from the food we eat. During digestion of food,
large molecules of food like carbohydrates, proteins etc., are broken down into simpler
substances such as glucose, amino acids etc. Glucose combines with oxygen in the cells and
provides energy. The special name of this combustion reaction is respiration. Since, energy
is released in the whole process, it is an exothermic process
Ans. 8. Decomposition reactions are those in which a compound breaks down to form two or more
substances. These reactions require a source of energy to proceed.
2H2O(l) Electrolysis
→ 2H2(g) + O2(g)
In case of combination reactions, two or more substances combine to give a new substance
with the release of energy. Thus, both the reactions are opposite.
Ans. 9. FeS(s) + dil. H2SO4 ¾® FeSO4(aq) + H2S(g)
Ans. 10. Electrolysis.
Ans. 11. Acids dissociate in aqueous solutions to form ions. These ions are responsible for conduction
of electricity.
Ans. 12. Colour of the litmus paper is changed by the hydrogen ions. Dry HCl gas does not contain
H+ ions. Acids give hydrogen ions only in the presence of ions. In case of dry litmus paper
and dry HCl, water is not present. Therefore, the colour of the litmus paper does not change.
Ans. 13. The pH of milk is 6. As it changes to curd, the pH will reduce because curd is acidic in
nature. The acids present in it decrease the pH.
Ans. 14. (a) The milkman shifts the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline because in
alkaline condition, milk does not sour whereas in acidic medium, the milk become
sour.
(b) Since, this milk is slightly basic than usual milk, acids produced to set the curd are
neutralised by the base. Therefore, it takes a longer time for the curd to set.
Ans. 15. (a) Ca(OH)2.
(b) The reaction is named as combination reaction.
(c) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2
(d) When white washing, slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) slowly reacts with carbon
dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on walls that gives a shiny
appearance on walls.
Ans. 16. They all produce hydroxide ions when dissolved in water.
Ans. 17. (a) Solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character
because like acids such as HCl which dissociates into H+ and Cl– ion these solutions
do not dissociate into ions. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.

A-15
Ans. 18. (c) Colour of the litmus paper is changed by the hydrogen ions. Dry HCl gas does not
contain H+ ions. Acids give hydrogen ions only in the presence of ions. In case of dry
litmus paper and dry HCl water is not present. Therefore the colour of the litmus
paper does not change. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19.
Compound name pH value Category
A 5 Acidic
B 12 Basic
C 13.5 Highly basic
D 1.5 Highly acidic
E 6.8 Neutral
Ans. 20. (a) Plaster of Paris is used for making statues, models and other decorative materials.
(b) The chemical formula of baking soda is NaHCO3.
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) is known as baking soda whereas Sodium
carbonate (Na2CO3) is known as washing soda.
(d) The chemical formula of slaked lime is Ca(OH)2.
Ans. 21. (i) (c) AgNO3
(ii) (b) Colourless, odourless and burns with a pop sound
(iii) (c) Copper
(iv) (c) Mg + Cu SO4 → Mg SO4 + Cu
(v) (c) The colourless and odourless gas evolves with a pop sound
Ans. 22. (i) (d) 3/2
(ii) (c) Combining with water
(iii) (c) Dead burnt plaster is CaSO4.2H2O
(iv) (d) The chemical formula of gypsum is CaSO4.1/2H2O
(v) (d) Heating gypsum to 100°C

••

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 Answers Worksheet - 7
Chapter - 3 [Metals and Non-metals]

Ans. 1. (c) Dullness

Ans. 2. (a) Ductility
Ans. 3. (d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. 4. (d) Fe
Ans. 5. Hydrogen gas is formed when a burning matchstick is brought near to it, hydrogen gas
will burn explosively with ‘pop’ sound.
Ans. 6. Magnesium
Ans. 7. (a) Metals are malleable.
(b) Non-metals are non-malleable.
Ans. 8. Brittleness is the property of being brittle i.e., breaking easily. Non-metals show brittleness.
Ans. 9. It is a carbonate ore. The steps required to obtain metal from its ore are :
1. Calcination : Carbonate ore is heated in limited supply of air and oxide is obtained.
For example,
ZnCO3(s)  → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
Heat

2. Reduction with carbon : ZnO is then reduced with carbon and zinc metal is obtained.
ZnO(s) + C(s) ¾® Zn(s) + CO(g)
Ans. 10. (a) 1. Ionic compounds are soluble in water because they dissociate into ions.
2. Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points because ionic compounds
are made up of oppositely charged ions which are held together by strong
electrostatic force of attraction. Therefore, large amount of energy is required to
overcome these forces.
(b) Gold and platinum are found in free state in the earth’s crust.
(c) Metals towards the top of the activity series are highly reactive. Their oxides are
stable and cannot be reduced by carbon.
Ans. 11. (a) Silver and copper lose their shine luster when they are exposed to air due to corrosion.
Silver forms black Ag2S (silver sulphide) and copper form greenish layer of basic
copper carbonate [CuCO3.Cu(OH)2].
(b) Tamarind juice contains acid which reacts with basic copper carbonate and product
gets dissolved and removed from copper vessel.
(c) When aluminium is exposed to air, it forms oxide layer on its surface which does not
further react with air.
Ans. 12. Ferrous sulphate solution cannot be placed in zinc containers because zinc is more reactive
than iron, it will displace iron.
Zn + FeSO4 ¾® ZnSO4 + Fe
Ans. 13. Zinc and aluminium being more reactive will replace iron from iron sulphate.
Ans. 14. The coating is soft and dull.
Ans. 15. The colour of solution will turn to blue. Copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution.
Silver gets deposition of silver on copper coin.
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) ¾® Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
Ans. 16. Gold has the following properties which makes it suitable for preparation of ornaments :
1. Gold is lustrous in nature, it has shine.
2. Gold is malleable which allows it to be converted into different shapes and designs.

A-17
 3. Gold is ductile, due to which it can be drawn into wires.
4. Gold is very reactive chemically, hence can be used as ornaments for daily wearing
purposes.
Ans. 17. (b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal but it is resistant to corrosion. The reason for this
is that aluminium reacts with oxygen present in air to form a thin layer of aluminium
oxide. This oxide layer is very stable and prevents further reaction of aluminium with
oxygen. It is light in weight and a good conductor of heat. Therefore, used to make
utensils for cooking. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (d) Paint is applied on iron articles to prevent rusting. Thus, assertion is false, but reason
is true.
Ans. 19. (a) Anode : Impure silver , Cathode : Pure silver
(b) Silver salt, such as AgNO3.
(c) We get pure silver at cathode.
Ans. 20. (a) Sodium is metal and chlorine is a non-metal.
(b) Ductility is the property of metals in which they are converted into wires.
(c) Malleability is the property of metals in which they are converted into thin sheets.
(d) The shiny appearance of metal is known as luster.
Ans. 21. (i) (d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
(ii) (b) Low melting point
(iii) (d) 2, 8
(iv) (a) 2, 8, 8, 1
(v) (a) An ionic bond represents sharing of electrons

••

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 Answers Worksheet - 8
Chapter - 3 [Metals and Non-metals]

Ans. 1. (c) Fe3O4

Ans. 2. (d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans. 3. (c) HNO3
Ans. 4. (c) Conc. HCl : Conc. HNO3
3 : 1
Ans. 5. It is due to the formation of basic copper carbonate.
Ans. 6. Gallium
Ans. 7. (a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
Ans. 8. Aqua-regia is a freshly prepared mixture of one part of concentrated nitric acid and 3 parts
of concentrated hydrochloric acid. Gold and platinum dissolve in aqua-regia.
Ans. 9. Cinnabar is HgS. It contains metal mercury. Mercury is obtained by roasting cinnabar. HgO
formed is thermally unstable and gives mercury.
2HgS(s) + O2(g) ¾® HgO(s) + SO2(g)
2HgO(s)  → Hg(l) + O2(g)
Heat

HgS + O2 ¾® Hg + SO2
Mercury can be purified by distillation.
Ans. 10. (a) Mineral : It is a naturally occurring substance from which metal may or may not be
extracted profitably or economically.
(b) Ore : A naturally occurring solid material from which a metal or valuable mineral can
be extracted profitably. Example, zinc blende is an ore of zinc from which zinc can be
extracted profitably.
(c) Gangue : It is a rocky material which is present along with the mineral in the ore,
example. FeO is gangue in extraction of copper.
Ans. 11. (a) Electron dot structure Cl Ca ××
2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8, 2
Ca Ca2+ + 2e
2Cl + 2e 2Cl

Ca ×× Cl (Ca2+) (×× Cl )2 CaCl2

Cl
(b) It is an ionic compound.
Ans. 12. Copper displaces silver as it is more reactive. A blue coloured solution will be formed and
grey coloured solution will be deposited at the bottom of container.
Ans. 13. Aluminium will displace Cu from copper sulphate solution. As a result, the solution will
be colourless.
Ans. 14. Physical properties of ionic compounds are :
1. It is hard and soluble in water.
2. It has high melting and boiling point.

A-19
 3. It is good conductor of electricity in molten state.
Ans. 15. (a) The given reaction is a displacement reaction.
(b) Here, aluminium being more reactive than manganese is used as reducing agent, as
Al is capable of replacing Mn from MnO2.
Ans. 16. Metals low in activity series can be reduced to pure metals just by heating their oxides in
presence of air, for example mercury (Hg) :
2HgO(s) Heat
 → 2Hg(l) + O2(g)
Mercurous oxide Mercury
Ans. 17. (a) Tungsten is used for filament of electric bulb because it has high melting point and
high resistance. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (b) Ionic compounds are made up of positive and negative ions. There is a strong
electrostatic force of attraction between them. A lot of heat energy is required to break
this force of attraction and to melt or boil the ionic compound. As a result, ionic
compounds have high melting points. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but
reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Metal II is more reactive than iron as only this displaces iron from iron sulphate
solution.
(b) Metal I and II are more reactive than copper as both of them displace copper from
copper sulphate solution.
(c) Metal IV does not displace any metal from iron sulphate and copper sulphate
solutions. Therefore, the correct option is (i).
(d) Metal III and IV are least reactive as both of them cannot displace copper or iron from
their respective solutions.
Ans. 20. Generally the ores mined from earth are usually contaminated with large amount of
impurities such as soil, sand etc. The name given to such impurities is ‘gangue’. The process
of removing these impurities are based on the difference between the physical or chemical
properties of gangue or ore.
Ans. 21. (i) (c) Potassium
(ii) (b) Water
(iii) (d) II and III only
(iv) (b) Iodine
(v) (b) Sharing of electrons is involved in ionic bonds
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 9
Chapter - 3 [Metals and Non-metals]

Ans. 1.(b) Has low melting point

Ans. 2.(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal.
Ans. 3.(c) Al
Ans. 4.(b) Graphite
Ans. 5.The extraction of metals from their ores and then refining them for use is known as
metallurgy.
Ans. 6. Cesium.
Ans. 7. (a) Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide.
(b) Sodium oxide and magnesium oxide.
Ans. 8. (a) Due to their high thermal conductivity.
(b) Due to their high electrical conductivity.
Ans. 9. (a) ‘A’ can be obtained by chemical reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide as
reducing agent.
(b) ‘B’ can be obtained by electrolytic reduction.
(c) ‘C’ can be reduced by reducing agent like ‘Al’.
×
Na
Ans. 10. (a) O (Na+)2 (×× O )2
×
Na
(b) Ionic compounds are usually hard because of strong force of attraction between
oppositely charged ions.
Ans. 11. The series of metals in which metals are arranged in decreasing order of their reactivity is
called activity series of metals. The order will be :
Au < Cu < Fe < Mg
Ans. 12. (a) Metals are the elements that conduct heat and electricity, and are malleable and
ductile. Example : Iron, aluminium, copper, gold and silver.
(b) Sodium (c) Silvers
(d) When a metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, it forms metal chloride and
hydrogen gas. Example: Magnesium reacts rapidly with dilute hydrochloric acid to
form magnesium chloride and hydrogen.
Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) ¾® MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Ans. 13. (a) Non-metals are the elements that do not conduct heat and electricity and are neither
malleable nor ductile. Example : Carbon, sulphur, phosphorus, silicon and oxygen.
(b) Carbon (c) Iodine (d) Carbon (Diamond)
(e) Non-metals react with oxygen to form acidic oxides or neutral oxides. Carbon burns
in air to form carbon dioxide. The nature of the product formed is acidic. When
carbon dioxide dissolves in water, it forms carbonic acid. It turns blue litmus to red
which shows it is acidic in nature.
Ans. 14. When a piece of granulated Zn was dropped into copper sulphate solution, blue colour
solution become colourless, reddish brown Cu gets deposited.
Ans. 15. The solution becomes colourless because aluminium displaces Cu from copper sulphate
solution.

A-21
Ans. 16. (a)
The blue solution will become colourless and reddish brown copper metal will be
deposited.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ¾® ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Blue Colourless
(reddish brown)
(b) When some silver pieces are put into green coloured ferrous sulphate solution, there
will be no reaction because Ag is less reactive than iron.
Ag(s) + FeSO4(aq) ¾® No reaction
Ans. 17. (a) Metal sulphides and carbonates are converted to metal oxides in the process of
extraction of metal from them because it is easier to obtain metal from its oxide, as
compared to its sulphides and carbonates. Thus, both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Copper does not react with cold water, hot water or steam. However, iron reacts with
steam. If the hot water tanks are made of steel (an alloy of iron), then iron would react
vigorously with the steam formed from hot water. Thus, both assertion and reason
are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. She can take an aluminium frame for spectacles which would behave as cathode where Au
metal would get deposited and a small bar made of gold can be used as anode. Both the
electrodes are dipped in a suitable electrolyte. Both the electrodes can be joined through
wires and the wires would have an outer electricity supply.
EMF
Gold Anode

Au Au3+
Cathode :
Al glasses
frame to be
plated

Ans. 20. (a) In both the cases, the gas evolved is H2. When calcium reacts with water the heat
evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire. On the other hand, potassium
reacts with water violently and lot of heat is evolved which is sufficient for hydrogen
to catch fire.
(b) (i) Zinc
(ii) Copper
(iii) Aluminium
Ans. 21. (i) (b) Sodium, Potassium
(ii) (b) Silver nitrate solution and copper metal
(iii) (d) P→ Cu, Q → Zn, S → K, T → Pb
(iv) (a) Copper
(v) (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 10
Chapter - 4 [Carbon and its Compounds]

Ans. 1. (d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans. 2. (a) only single bonds
Ans. 3. (c) carbon
Ans. 4. (b) oxidising agent
Ans. 5. Second member of alkyne series is propyne (C3H4)
Third member of alkyne series is butyne (C4H6)
Ans. 6. CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - OH (Butanol).
Ans. 7. The two features of carbon that give rise to a large number of compounds are as follows :
1. Catenation : The ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon to form a long
chain.
2. Tetravalency : With the valency of four, carbon is capable of bonding with four other
atoms.
Ans. 8. Carbon and its compounds are used as fuels for most applications because most of the
carbon compounds give a lot of heat and light when burnt in air. Saturated hydrocarbons
burn with a clean flame and no smoke is produced. The carbon compounds, used as a fuel,
have high calorific values.
Ans. 9. Sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent.

CH3CH2OH  → CH2 = CH2 + H2O

Hot conc. H 2 SO 4
443 K

Ans. 10. (a) Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) (b) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
Ans. 11. The possible isomers are :

Ans. 12. (a) Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst to give
saturated hydrocarbons.

A-23

(b) Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid in the presence of alkaline KMnO4 on heating.

CH3CH2OH  → CH3COOH

Alk. KMnO 4
Heat

(c) In the presence of sunlight, chlorine is added to hydrocarbons.
hv
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl
(d) Saponification : CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH ¾® CH3COONa + C2H5OH
Ester
(e) Most carbon compounds release a large amount of heat and light on burning.
CH4 + 2O2 ¾® CO2 + 2H2O + Heat and light
Ans. 13. 1. Litmus test : Take 2 strips of litmus paper. Place a drop of each of alcohol and
carboxylic acid on these strips separately. The blue litmus paper turns red in case of
carboxylic acid and remains unaffected in case of alcohol.
2. Sodium hydrogen carbonate test : A pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added
to both alcohol and carboxylic acid separately. If brisk effervescence is observed with
the evolution of a colourless gas, it indicates the presence of carboxylic acid. If no
effervescence are observed, alcohol is present.
Ans. 14. Soaps : Soaps are water – soluble sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids.
Detergents : Detergents are usually alkyl benzene sulphonate.
Soaps are biodegradable while detergents are non- biodegradable.
Cleansing action of soap : Soap molecule has two ends, one polar head (sodium or
potassium ion) and a non-polar tail (Chain of fatty acids). The non- polar end is hydrophobic
while the polar end is hydrophilic in nature.
When soap is dissolved in water, its hydrophobic end attaches itself to dirt while the
hydrophilic end tends to move towards the surface of water. The molecules of soap arrange
themselves in a micelle formation and trap the dirt at the centre. The overall force on the
dirt particle pulls it out from the cloth and takes it toward the surface.
COO Na+
long hydrocarbon chain Polar end
(hydrophobic and (hydrophilic)
water-repellent) (water-loving)

Free positive Na+ ions

Soap
solution
Highly negatively
charged micelles
Grease
Hydrocarbon part

C17H35COO Na+

Ans. 15. Hydrogenation is the chemical process in which hydrogen molecule is added to an
unsaturated hydrocarbon to make a saturated one. Example : Hydrogenation of ethene.
CH2 = CH2 + H2 ¾® CH3 – CH3
Ethene Ethane
Conditions required :
This reaction takes place in the presence of catalyst like Ni or Pt.
Change in physical properties :
1. Physical State : Liquid to Solid
2. Density : Increases
3. Melting point : Increases

A-24
Ans. 16. The substance which helps in oxidation but itself gets reduced is known as oxidising agent.
When an oxidising agent is added to propanol, it gets converted to propanoic acid.
alk.KMnO 4
CH3–CH2–CH2–OH  → CH3–CH2–COOH
Ans. 17. (a) Graphite and diamond are the allotropes of carbon because they have network
like structure. Thus, both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (c) Detergents are better cleansing agents than soaps because they can work both in hard
and soft water. They do not form insoluble precipitates with calcium and magnesium
ions in hard water. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19.
Substance Conditions of burning Type of flame
Oil Presence of air Clear flame
Oil Absence of air Sooty flame
Naphthalene Presence of air Sooty flame
Ethyl alcohol Presence of air Clear flame
Ans. 20. A homologous series is a series of carbon compounds that have different numbers of carbon
atoms but contain the same functional group. There is a difference of –CH2 unit between
each successive member and mass differ by 14 u.
For example, methane, ethane, propane, butane, etc., are all part of the alkane homologous
series. The general formula of this series is CnH2n + 2.
Ans. 21. (i) (c) II and IV
(ii) (a) Carbon atoms are held together by single covalent bonds
(iii) (a) I-Graphite II-Diamond III-Fullerene
(iv) (b) Only III
(v) (b) 4
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 11
Chapter - 4 [Carbon and its Compounds]

Ans. 1. (b) Oxygen

Ans. 2. (c) Zn
Ans. 3. (a) Al
Ans. 4. (d) Zinc amalgam
Ans. 5. Ethyne (C2H2).
Ans. 6. Propene (C3H6).
Ans. 7. Being unsaturated hydrocarbons, C3H6 and C2H2 undergo addition reactions.
Ans. 8. Butter contains saturated fats. Therefore, it cannot be hydrogenated. On the other hand, oil
has unsaturated fats. That is why it can be hydrogenated to saturated fats (solids).
Ans. 9. Detergents are better cleansing agents than soaps because they can work both in hard and
soft water. They do not form insoluble precipitates with calcium and magnesium ions in
hard water.
Ans. 10. (a) Ketone (b) Carboxylic acid (c) Aldehyde (d) Alcohol
Ans. 11. C — Ethanoic acid
R — Sodium salt of ethanoic acid (sodium acetate) and gas evolved is hydrogen.
A — Methanol
S — Ester (Methyl acetate)
1. 2CH3COOH + 2Na ¾® 2CH3COONa + H2
(C) (R)
Conc. H SO
2. CH3COOH + CH3OH  2 4
→ CH3COOCH3 + H2O
(C) (A) (S)
3. CH3COOH + NaOH ¾® CH3COONa + H2O
(R)
4. CH3COOCH3 + NaOH ¾® CH3COONa + CH3OH
(R) (A)
Ans. 12. (a) It will turn milky.
(b) (Test tube A) 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 ¾® 2CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
(Test tube B) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O
With excess CO2, milkiness disappears.
CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 ¾® Ca(HCO3)2
(c) As C2H5OH and Na2CO3 do not react, a similar change is not expected.
C2H5OH + Na2CO3 ¾® No change
(d) The lime water is prepared by dissolving calcium oxide in water and decanting the
supernatant liquid.
Ans . 13. Molecular formula : C3H6O
Aldehyde : CH3 – CH2 – CHO
Ketone : CH3COCH3
Aldehyde and ketones are known as isomers. Isomers are compounds having same
molecular formula but different structural formula. They do not have same physical
properties since their functional group is different.

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Ans. 14. The compounds which are formed by sharing of electrons between two or more same atoms
or between two or more non-metals are called covalent compounds. They are different
from ionic compounds as :
1. Covalent compounds are bad conductors of electricity whereas ionic compounds are
good conductors of electricity in molten state.
2. Covalent compounds are directional and ionic compounds are non-directional.
Ans. 15. (a) Catenation.
(b) It is due to tetravalency of carbon atom.
(c) Cyclohexane :
H H
H H
C
H C C H

H C C H
C
H H
H H
Ans. 16. (a)
A functional group is an atom or a group of atoms that characterises the chemical
properties of an organic compound.
Ethanol : Functional group : Alcohol (OH).

(b) Ethanoic acid : Functional group : carboxylic acid (–COOH).

Ans. 17. (d) Catenation is shown by carbon because it has valency of 4 and thus, it can form large
number of compounds with other compounds. Thus, assertion is false but reason is
true.
Ans. 18. (b) Alkanes are saturated compounds because they are stable. Thus, both assertion and
reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Covalent bond is formed by equal sharing of valence electrons between two atoms,
hence there is no charge separation along the bonds formed and they have weak
intermolecular forces. Due to this, covalently bonded molecules have low melting
and boiling points.
(b) Unsaturated carbon compounds have double or triple bonds between carbon atoms,
which are less stable than the sigma bonds and hence are more reactive than saturated
compounds which have single bond.
Ans. 20. (a) Acetone contains ketonic functional group.
(b) The general formula of alcohols is ROH.
(c) Ethane is a hydrocarbon. It does not contain any other atom or group other than
carbon and hydrogen.
(d) Propanoic acid is an example of carboxylic acid.
Ans. 21. (i) (d) All
(ii) (b) 4
(iii) (d) Butane and 2-methyl propane
(iv) (b) 2-methylpentane
(v) (b) 3
••
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 Answers Worksheet - 12
Chapter - 4 [Carbon and its Compounds]

Ans. 1. (b) C2H5OH

Ans. 2. (c) Ethyne
Ans. 3. (d) Potassium salts
Ans. 4. (b) Graphite
Ans. 5. (a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal.
Ans. 6. Carbon exhibit the property of catenation to maximum extent. It is due to strong tetra-
valency of carbon.
Ans. 7. The compound is ethanol and its molecular formula is C2H5OH, it forms ethene when
heated with excess of conc. H2SO4.
Conc. H SO
CH3CH2OH heat →
2 4
CH2 = CH2 + H2O
Ethanol Ethene
Ans. 8. Two differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons are :
S.No. Saturated Hydrocarbon Unsaturated Hydrocarbon
1. In these compounds, there is a single In these compounds, there is a double
bond between carbon atoms. or triple bond between carbon atoms.
2. They give a clean flame on heating. They give yellow flame with a lot of
black smoke on burning.
Ans. 9. The substances which are capable of adding oxygen to other substances. These are the
substances which helps in oxidation and itself get reduced. Potassium permanganate,
acidified potassium dichromate etc., are used as oxidising agents.
Ans. 10. No, detergents cannot be used to check hardness of water because they give a good amount
of lather irrespective of whether the water is hard or soft. This means that detergents can be
used in both soft and hard water.
Ans. 11. Carbon has the maximum capacity of catenation. The reason for this is the smaller size of
of carbon which makes the C–C bonds strong . The size of sulphur is greater than carbon.
This makes Si–Si bonds comparatively weaker than C–C bond.
Ans. 12. The two can be distinguished by subjecting them to the flame. Saturated hydrocarbons
generally give a clear flame while unsaturated hydrocarbons give a yellow flame with lots
of black smoke.
Ans. 13. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 ¾® CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
X is sodium ethanoate. Gas evolved is carbon dioxide.
Ans. 14. (a) Compounds of carbon and hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. Example : methane,
ethane etc.
(b) Saturated hydrocarbons contain carbon—carbon single bonds. Unsaturated
hydrocarbons contain at least one carbon—carbon double or triple bond.

Ethene Ethene

A-28
 (c) Functional group – An atom or group of atoms joined in a specific manner which
is responsible for the characteristic chemical properties of the organic compounds.
Examples are alcohols (– OH), aldehyde group (– CHO), carboxylic group (– COOH),
ketone (– CO) etc.
Ans. 15. (a) The compound belong to functional group ester.
CH3COOH + CH3—CH2—OH ¾® CH3COOCH2—CH3 + H2O
Ethyl acetate
(b) Conc. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent.
Ans. 16. Substances that can be converted into thin sheets by beating are called malleable most of
the metals are malleable Gold and Silver are most malleable metals.
Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are called ductile. Most of the metals are
ductile Gold is the most ductile metal.
Ans. 17. (c) When ethyne is burnt in air, due to incomplete combustion it gives a sooty flame. But
when ethyne is burnt with oxygen, it gives a clean flame with temperature of 3000°C.
Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 18. (c) Detergents are better cleansing agents than soaps because they can work both in hard
and soft water. They do not form insoluble precipitates with calcium and magnesium
ions in hard water. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. Ethanoic acid is a two-carbon containing compound with a carboxylic acid functional group.
Addition of sodium hydrogen carbonate solution to the ethanoic acid leads to evolution of
bubbles from the reaction mixture. The gas evolved is carbon dioxide. Whereas, addition
of sodium hydrogen carbonate solution to ethanol does not give any bubbles.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 ¾® CH3COONa + H2O + CO2.
Ans. 20. (a) Methane (b) Ethanal
(c) Ethyne (d) C2H2

(e)
(f)

(g)

Ans. 21. (i) (d) Both carbon and hydrogen

(ii) (c) Z
(iii) (b) CnH2n
(iv) (b) CnH2n+2
(v) (b) X and Y differ by -CH2 unit
••

A-29
 Check Point - 2

Ans. 1. (d) Copper

Ans. 2. (d) N
Ans. 3. (d) : N :: N :
Ans. 4. (a) H — C = C — H
Ans. 5. (a) Metal that exists in liquid state at room temperature ® Mercury
(b) Metal that can be easily cut with a knife ® Sodium, Potassium
(c) Metal that is the best conductor of heat ® Silver, Gold
(d) Metals that are poor conductors of heat ® Mercury and lead
Ans. 6. (a) Rusting of iron, tarnishing of silver jewellery, and green layers appearing on copper
articles are examples of corrosion.
(b) The chemical formula of rust is 2Fe2O3. H2O.
(c) Green colour on copper is due to formation of copper hydroxide and copper carbonate.
(d) The corrosion products are basic in nature.
Ans. 7. Ionic compounds are made up of ions which are held together by strong electrostatic force
of attraction. A considerable amount of energy is required to break this strong interionic
attraction. Therefore, ionic compounds have high melting and boiling point.
Ans. 8. (a) Mineral : The elements or compounds, which occur naturally in the earth’s crust, are
known as minerals.
(b) Ore : The mineral from which metal can be profitably extracted is called an ore.
(c) Gangue : Ores mined from the earth are usually contaminated with large amounts of
impurities such as soil, sand, etc., called gangue.
Ans. 9. Metals which are above hydrogen in the reactivity series are more reactive and can displace
it from dilute acids. For example : sodium and potassium. Whereas metals which are below
hydrogen in the reactivity series are less reactive than hydrogen and they do not displace
it from dilute acids . For example : copper and silver.
Ans. 10. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M :
Anode ® Impure metal M
Cathode ® Thin strip of pure metal M
Ans. 11. A soap molecule has two parts namely hydrophobic and hydrophilic. With the help of
these, it attaches to the grease or dirt particle and forms a cluster called micelle. These
micelles remain suspended as a colloid. To remove these micelles (entrapping the dirt), it
is necessary to agitate clothes.
Ans. 12. Hard water often contains salts of calcium and magnesium. Soap molecules react with the
salts of calcium and magnesium to form a precipitate. This precipitate begins floating as an
off-white layer over water. This layer is called scum. Soaps lose their cleansing property in
hard water because of formation of scum.
Ans. 13. It will turn red litmus blue as soap is basic is nature.
Ans. 14. (a) K, L, M 2, 8, 7
(b) Cl Cl

A-30
Ans. 15.

Ans. 16. (a) CCl4

Cl
×
Cl × C × Cl
×
Cl

(b) Saponification is the process of converting esters into salts of carboxylic acids and
ethanol by treating them with a base.
NaOH
CH3COOC2H5 443  K → CH3COONa + C2H5OH
Ans. 17. (a) Carbon and its compounds are used as fuels for most applications because most
of the carbon compounds give a lot of heat and light when burnt in air. Saturated
hydrocarbons burn with a clean flame and no smoke is produced. The carbon
compounds, used as a fuel, have high calorific values. Thus, both assertion and reason
are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because they are very lustrous.
Also, they are very less reactive and do not corrode easily. Thus, both assertion and
reason and true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Ethanol is a very efficient solvent hence, it is used as a base for many medicines which
are prepared in suspension or solution form.
(b) (i) The shiny soft metal is sodium.
(ii) Hydrogen gas is evolved as a result of the reaction between sodium metal and
ethyl alcohol. The presence of hydrogen gas can be tested by bringing a burning
candle near a gas filled bubble, hydrogen gas burns with a pop sound.
(iii) The reaction equation can be given as :
2Na(s) + 2C2H5OH(l) ¾® 2C2H5ONa + H2(g)
Ans. 20. (a) 1. Diamond
2. Graphite
3. Buckminsterfullerene.
(b) Catenation property
(c) Graphite.
(d) Diamond is the hardest substance while graphite is smooth and slippery and also
graphite is good conductor of electricity.
Ans. 21. (i) (d) E
(ii) (b) C
(iii) (b) The arrangement of elements in decreasing order of reactivity
(iv) (c) Silver
(v) (c) E > B > D > A > C
Ans. 22. (i) (c) C8H18
(ii) (c) CnH2n+2
(iii) (a) C12H26
(iv) (a) All have the same chemical properties
(v) (a) Alkanes
••
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 Answers Worksheet - 13
Chapter - 5 (Periodic Classification of Elements)

Ans. 1. (b) Calcium

Ans. 2. (c) increasing atomic masses
Ans. 3. (a) Germanium
Ans. 4. (b) B, C, D
Ans. 5. Scandium and Germanium.
Ans. 6. Mendeleev’s Periodic Table was based on atomic masses and similarity in formula of
hydrides and oxides of elements. According to him, the properties of elements are a periodic
function of their atomic masses.
Ans. 7. Modern Periodic Table is based on atomic number. In the Modern Periodic Table, atoms
with similar electronic configurations are placed in the same column. In a group, the
number of valence electrons remains the same. Elements across a period show an increase
in the number of valence electrons. If we know the electronic configuration, we can find the
position of element in the Periodic Table and vice-versa.
Ans. 8.
S.No. Mendeleev’s Periodic Table Modern Periodic Table
1. Elements are arranged in the increasing Elements are arranged in the increasing
order of their atomic masses. order of their atomic numbers.
2. There are a total of 7 groups and 6 There are a total of 18 groups and 7
periods. periods.
3. Elements having similar properties Elements having the same valence shell
were placed directly under one another. are present in the same period while
elements having the same number of
valence electrons are present in the
same group.
4. Position of isotopes is not clear. Position of isotopes is clear.
5. Electronic configuration cannot be Electronic configuration can be
predicted from the position of element. predicted from the position of element.
Ans. 9. Number of valence electrons in X and Z will be 7 because the number of electrons in the
outermost shell of the elements in same group is same.
Ans. 10. Nitrogen is more electronegative in nature because phosphorus belong to 3rd period and
down the group electronegativity decrease.
Nitrogen = 2, 5
Phosphorous = 2, 8, 5
Ans. 11. Second period has 8 elements, Fifth period has 18 elements.
Ans. 12. Mendeleev said that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic
masses.
Ans. 13. The main aim of classification is to make study of elements systematic and easy. The
fundamental property of elements that is used in the development of modern periodic table

A-32
 is atomic number. According to Modern Periodic Law, “ Physical and Chemical Properties
of the elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers”. In a periodic table, metals
are on the left and non-metals are on the right. Metalloids at the border of metals and
beginning of non-metals.
Ans. 14. (a) Mercury (b) Bromine (c) Helium or Neon or Argon.
Ans. 15. (a) The ionisation energy increases in a period from left to right. Therefore, ionisation
energy of Mg is more than sodium.
(b) Electronegativity decreases in a group from top to bottom. Thus, chlorine is less
electronegative than fluorine.
(c) Metallic character of elements decreases in a period from left to right. Hence, sodium
which is at left is metal and sulphur is a non-metal.
Ans. 16. (a) Atomic radius : In a period, atomic radius generally decreases from left to right. In a
period there is a gradual increase in the nuclear charge. Since, valence electrons are
added in the same shell, they are more and more strongly attracted towards nucleus.
This gradually decreases atomic radii.
Atomic radii increase in a group from top to bottom. As we go down a group the
number of shells increases and valence electrons are present in higher shell and
the distance of valence electrons from nucleus increases. Both the factors decrease
the force of attraction between nucleus and valence electron. Therefore, atomic size
increases on moving down a group.
(b) Ionisation enthalpy : Ionisation energy decreases in a group from top to bottom. This
is due to the fact that the force of attraction between valence electrons and nucleus
decreases in a group from top to bottom. Thus, less energy is required to remove
electron from atom.
On the either hand, the force of attraction between valence electron and nucleus
increases in a period from left to right. As a consequence of this, the ionisation energy
increases in a period from left to right.
(c) Electronegativity : Electronegativity is relative tendency of a bonded atom to attract
the bond-electrons towards itself. Electronegativity decreases in group from top to
bottom. In a period, electronegativity increases from left to right because atomic size
decreases.
Ans. 17. (a) Metallic character of elements decreases in a period from left to right. Hence, sodium
which is at left is metal and sulphur is a non-metal. Thus, both assertion and reason
are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (b) Mendeleev's periodic table was not widely accepted because all the properties were
not explained and also the anomalous behaviour of hydrogen was not explained.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Going down the group, chemical activity of group 1 increases from element 1 to
4. Elements in group 1 are metals and have 1 electron in their outer orbital, which
becomes more available going down the group due to decreasing effective nuclear
charge on outer electron.
(b) Going down the group, chemical activity of group 17 decreases. Elements in group
17 are non-metals and react by excepting one electron in their outermost orbital.
Going down the group, the effective nuclear charge decreases and it becomes
difficult to hold an extra incoming electron in outer orbital, hence the reactivity
decreases.

A-33
 (c) Going down the group melting point decreases in group of metals hence, element 8
would have lowest melting point.
(d) In the third period element 15 would have the highest ionisation energy as ionisation
energy increases going from left to right in a period due to increasing number of
electrons in outer orbital and hence effective nuclear charge increases.
Ans. 20. (i) On moving from left to right in a period, the tendency of atoms to lose electrons
decreases.
(ii) On moving from left to right in a period, the atomic size decreases.
Ans. 21. (i) (d) 81.25 (iv) (a) Beryllium
(ii) (c) Li, Na, K (v) (a) Atomic mass
(iii) (b) 6
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 14
Chapter - 5 (Periodic Classification of Elements)

Ans. 1. (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans. 2. (c) It has 18 vertical columns known as Groups.
Ans. 3. (b) L shell
Ans. 4. (d) F, O, N
Ans. 5. These are 18 vertical columns in the Modern Periodic Table. These are known as groups.
Ans. 6. 2n2, where n is the number of shell.
Ans. 7. It is because they resemble with each other but do not resemble with other group elements.
Ans. 8. They have same number of valence electrons and show similar chemical properties.
Ans. 9. Among the first ten elements H, He, Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F, Ne; Lithium (Li) and Beryllium
(Be) are metals.
Ans. 10. Metallic character decreases left to right in a period and increases down the group.
Therefore, Be is the most metallic element among the given elements.
Ans. 11. Limitations of Newlands’ law of octaves are :
1. This law is applicable to classification of elements up to calcium only.
2. In order to fit the elements into his table, he even put two elements together in one
slot and that too in column of unlike elements having very different properties.
3. Some elements which resemble each other are placed at different positions. For
example, element iron which resembles cobalt and nickel in their properties was
placed far away from them.
Ans. 12. K belongs to group 1. Therefore, the oxide will be K2O.
C belongs to group 4. Therefore, the oxide will be CO2.
Al belongs to group 3. Therefore, the oxide will be Al2O3.
Si belongs to group 4. Therefore, the oxide will be SiO2.
Ba belongs to group 2. Therefore, the oxide will be BaO.
Ans. 13. This is done so that the elements with similar properties could be grouped together.
Therefore, to arrange elements with similar properties together, cobalt is placed before
nickel neglecting its atomic mass.
Ans. 14. Hydrogen has a unique position in periodic table because it resembles both alkali metals as
well as halogens. The electronic configuration of hydrogen is same as that of alkali metals.
Like halogens, hydrogen exists as diatomic molecule and forms covalent compound.
Ans. 15. Y has less electrons than X. This means that Y is cation of X. Therefore, radii of Y is less
than X.
Ans. 16. (a) F < N < Be < Li (b) Cl < Br < I < At
Ans. 17. (b) Repetition of properties after regular intervals is the main cause of periodicity of
elements. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (b) Electronegativity decreases in a group from top to bottom. Thus, chlorine is less
electronegative than fluorine. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) The electronic configuration can be written as 2, 8, 4 here. So, the atomic number
would be 14 and the element is silicon (Si).
(b) First shell has 2 electrons; hence second shell would have 4 electrons. So, the electronic
configuration becomes 2, 4 and hence the atomic number is 6 and the element is
carbon.

A-35
Ans. 20. (a) Period : 3
Group : 16
(b) The electronic configuration is 2,8.
(c) The atomic number of an atom is equal to its number of electrons and protons.
Therefore, the number of protons present in helium is equal to its atomic number
that is 2.
(d) The chemical formula is such that :
Carbon: 2,4
Oxygen: 2,6
Then, formula is: CO2
Ans. 21. (i) (d) F
(ii) (c) D2O3
(iii) (a) D
(iv) (b) ECl4
(v) (a) E
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 15
Chapter - 5 (Periodic Classification of Elements)

Ans. 1. (c) K
Ans. 2. (c) K
Ans. 3. (b) F
Ans. 4. (b) Mg
Ans. 5. The total number of periods in Modern Periodic Table is seven.
Ans. 6. These are seven horizontal rows in the Modern Periodic Table. These rows are called
periods.
Ans. 7. Yes, Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ octaves.

For example, the triad formed by the elements Li, Na and K of Dobereiner’s triads also
occurred in the columns of Newlands’ octaves.
Ans. 8. The limitation of Dobereiner’s classification is that the elements known at that time could
not be classified into groups of triads on the basis of their properties.
Ans. 9. (a) Na or K (b) Ca (c) Hg
Increasing order of reactivity is : Hg < Ca < Na < K
Ans. 10. (a) Sodium (Na) Group 1 and Period 3 or Potassium (K) Group 1 and Period 4.

(b) Phosphorus (P) Group 15 and Period 3.

(c) Carbon (C) Group 14 and Period 2.

(d) Helium (He) Group 18 and Period 1.

(e) Aluminium (Al) Group 13 and Period 3.
Ans. 11. (a) Nitrogen (atomic no. 7). Its' electronic configuration is 2, 5; it has 5 valence electrons.
(b) N N Triple covalent bonds

(c) H N H 3 single covalent bonds

H

Ans. 12. Noble gases could be placed in Mendeleev's Periodic Table without disturbing the original
order. According to Mendeleev’s classification, the properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic masses and there is a periodic recurrence of elements with similar
physical and chemical properties. Noble gas being inert, could be placed in a separate
group without disturbing the original order.
Ans. 13. Atomic number of X = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12
Atomic number of Y = 2 + 8 + 6 = 16
Ans. 14. A and C will show similar properties due to same number of valence electrons i.e., 2.
Ans. 15. The metallic character goes on decreasing along a period from left to right because atomic
size goes on decreasing therefore, tendency to lose electrons decreases.

A-37
Ans. 16. (a) Valency remains the same in a group.
(b) Valency first goes on increasing from left to right in a period till middle of period,
then decreases.
Ans. 17. (b) Elements such as chlorine, bromine and iodine are called halogens because they react
with metals to form salts. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Atomic radius decreases across a period because electron is added in the same shell.
So attraction between nucleus and valence shell increases due to which outermost
shell is pulled closer to the nucleus. Nuclear charge is also increasing. Thus, effective
nuclear charge increases and atomic size decreases. Thus, both assertion and reason
are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. The contrast points can be written as :
(a) In Modern Periodic Table the elements are arranged according to atomic number.
(b) Modern Periodic Table has 18 groups and 7 periods.
35.5 + 126.9
Ans. 20. Atomic mass of Bromine =
2
162.4
=
2

= 81.2
Ans. 21. (i) (b) Increases
(ii) (c) Li
(iii) (a) Al
(iv) (b) Decreases from left to right and increases down the group
(v) (b) Number of valence electrons
••

A-38
 Check Point - 3

Ans. 1. (c) 2-butanol

Ans. 2. (d) Hydrochloric acid
Ans. 3. (b) Yellow
Ans. 4. (d) H2SO3
Ans. 5. Fire flies have a protein which in the presence of an enzyme undergoes aerial oxidation,
this is a chemical reaction which involves emission of visible light. Therefore, fire flies glow
at night.
Ans. 6. Zinc is above hydrogen whereas copper is below hydrogen in the activity series of metals.
That is why zinc displaces hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid, while copper does not.
Zn + HCl ¾® ZnCl2 + H2
Cu + HCl ¾® No reaction
Ans. 7. pH 6.5 indicates that soup is weakly acidic. Therefore, the taste will be slightly sour.
Ans. 8. (a) Thermite process.
(b) Heat is evolved. So, it is exothermic reaction.
(c) Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
(d) (iii) Displacement.
Ans. 9. We apply paint on iron articles to prevent rusting.
Ans. 10. Carbon is not used for reducing aluminium from aluminium oxide because aluminium
reacts more rapidly with oxygen than carbon.
Ans. 11. Ethanol on heating with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K results in the
dehydration of ethanol to give ethene.
Hot conc. H SO
CH3CH2OH 
443 K
2 4
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O

Ans. 12. In the liver, methanol is oxidised to methanal. It reacts rapidly with the components of
cells. Also, it causes the protoplasm to coagulate. It also affects the optic nerve, causing
blindness.
Ans. 13. Gas evolved is hydrogen.
2CH3CH2OH + 2Na ¾® 2CH3CH2O–Na+ + H2
Ans. 14. (a) Ni acts as a catalyst.
(b) Concentrated H2SO4 acts as a catalyst.
(c) Alkaline KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent.
Ans. 15. Noble gases are placed in a separate group because these are inert elements. They have
properties which are different from all other elements.
Ans. 16. Modern Periodic Table removes various anomalies of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table on the
following points :
1. Position of isotopes : As Modern Periodic Table is based on atomic number, isotopes
can be placed at one place in same group in Modern Periodic Table.
2. Anomalous position of some pair of elements : In Mendeleev periodic table, some of
the elements having higher atomic mass are placed before the elements having lower
atomic mass. This defect of Mendeleev periodic table was overcomed in Modern
Periodic Table since it is based on atomic numbers.

A-39
 3. Prediction of new elements : In long form of periodic table, the position and properties
of new elements can be predicted easily on the basis of their atomic numbers or
electronic configuration.
Ans. 17. (b) Metalloids have some properties of metals and some properties of non-metals. Thus,
both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Hydrogen gas is released when calcium reacts with water. Calcium starts floating
because the bubbles of hydrogen gas which are formed during the reaction stick to
the surface of the metal. As a result, calcium starts floating on water. Thus, both
assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) The given information fits with structure of ethanol, C2H5OH :

(b) The two homologes of C2H5OH would be C3H7OH and C4H9OH (Butanol).
Ans. 20. (a) Element A is non- metal because it has 7 valence electrons in its outermost shell.
(b) ‘C’ has more number of shells than ‘A’. So, it is larger in size.
(c) ‘B’ has one valence electron. It can lose one electron to become stable. So, its valency
is equal to 1.
(d) A - Fluorine
B - Hydrogen
C - Sulphur.
Ans. 21. (i) (c) Aldehydes
(ii) (a) CnH2n+1OH
(iii) (c) C5H11OH
(iv) (a) C3H7OH
(v) (d) Ethanol
Ans. 22. (i) (c) Mg
(ii) (c) Boron
(iii) (d) effective nuclear charge increases
(iv) (b) Chlorine
(v) (a) F, O, C, Cl, Br

••

A-40
 Check Point - 4

Ans. 1. (a) Lime juice

Ans. 2. (c) (ii) only
Ans. 3. (d)
top right corner
Ans. 4. (b) group number
Ans. 5. (a) Metals such as silver when attacked by substances around it such as moisture, acids,
gases etc., are said to corrode and this phenomenon is called corrosion.
(b) The black substance is formed because silver (Ag) reacts with H2S present in air. It
forms thin black coating of silver sulphide (Ag2S).
Ans. 6. Grapes when attached to the plants are living and therefore their own immune system
prevents fermentation. The microbes can grow in the plucked grapes and under anaerobic
conditions these can be fermented. This is a chemical change.
Ans. 7. Vanilla loses its smell.
Ans. 8. Citric acid.
Ans. 9. When a strip of copper metal is immersed in silver nitrate solution, the solution gradually
becomes blue and a shining greyish-white deposit of silver metal is formed on copper strip.
Ans. 10. When iron nails are put into copper sulphate solution, the blue colour of copper sulphate
solution fades gradually and red-brown copper metal is formed.
Ans. 11. (a) By the dehydration of ethanol in the presence of concentrated H2SO4.

CH3CH2OH conc. Hot

H 2SO 4
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O

(b) By the oxidation of propanol using oxidising agent such as alkaline KMnO4.

CH3CH2CH2OH Alk. KMnO 4

Heat
→ CH3CH2COOH
Ans. 12. (a) 20 hexagons (b) 12 pentagons
Ans. 13. Graphite is used as a lubricant in the form of graphite powder or mixed with petroleum
jelly or with any lubricant oil to form graphite grease.
Ans. 14. Calcium (Ca) and strontium (Sr) are expected to show chemical reactions similar to
magnesium (Mg). This is because the number of valence electrons (2) is same in all these
three elements and they belong to same group.
Ans. 15. (a) Lithium (Li), sodium (Na), and potassium (K) have a single electron in their outer-
most shells.
(b) Magnesium (Mg) and calcium (Ca) have two electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) Neon (Ne), argon (Ar), and xenon (Xe) have filled outermost shells.
Ans. 16. Solution of pH = 2 is more acidic.
Ans. 17. (c) Silver's reactivity according to the reactivity series is lesser than that of copper
(Cu). So, we cannot stir the solution as the solution would be displaced by copper.
We should instead use a glass rod for this. Thus, assertion is true, but reason is
false.

A-41
Ans. 18. (a) Curd and other sour substances should not be kept in brass and copper vessels as they
contain acids. When these substances are kept in brass and copper vessels, the metal
reacts with the acid to liberate hydrogen gas and harmful products are obtained due
to which the food gets spoiled. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Quick lime is chemically known as calcium oxide.
(b) Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime (calcium
hydroxide), releasing a large amount of heat.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) ¾® Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
Quick lime Slaked lime
(c) The slaked lime after application to wall reacts slowly with carbon dioxide present
in atmosphere, to give a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls after 2–3 days
giving the walls a shiny bright white colour.
(d) Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) ¾® CaCO3 + H2O(l)
Slaked lime Calcium carbonate
Ans. 20. (a) ‘F’ has electronic configuration 2, 8, 2.
(b) ‘F’ has two valence electrons.
(c) H > G > F> E is decreasing order of size of atoms.
(d) ‘B’ is having biggest atomic size among B, E and F.
Ans. 21. (i) (b) S, P, N
(ii) (c) Group 14
(iii) (b) Antimony
(iv) (c) It shows properties of both metals and non-metals
(v) (a) Li
Ans. 22. (i) (c) Bluish-green
(ii) (a) The pH of A increases while that of B decreases till neutralisation
(iii) (a) Formic acid
(iv) (a) Kala only
(v) (c) It contains sodium hydroxide which neutralizes the effect of formic acid
••

A-42
 Check Point - 5

Ans. 1. (c) (i) and (ii)

Ans. 2. (b) Butanol
Ans. 3. (d) potassium is larger in size than sodium.
Ans. 4. (a) 4
Ans. 5. AgNO3 is silver nitrate. Silver's reactivity according to the reactivity series is lesser than
that of copper (Cu). So, we cannot stir the solution as the solution would be displaced by
copper. We should instead use a glass rod for this.
Ans. 6. Gold and silver lie very low in the activity series of metals. Thus, they have low reactivity
and hence do not corrode in moist air.
Ans. 7. Sorenson
Ans. 8. Drink Q has a pH value of 9
Ans. 9. Amphoteric oxides
Ans. 10. Aluminium and zinc
Ans. 11. (a) Carbon

(b) Graphite
Ans. 12. (a) Bleach is basic in nature.

(b) Lemon juice turns blue litmus red.

(c) The pH value for neutral solutions is 7.

(d) Detergent and bleach would turn red litmus blue.
Ans. 13. Diamond
Ans. 14. (a) 2CH3COOH + 2Na ¾® 2CH3COONa + H2

(b) CH3COOH + NaOH ¾® CH3COONa + H2O

(c) CH3COOH + CH3—CH2—OH ¾® CH3COOCH2—CH3 + H2O
Ans. 15. (a) Reaction of acidified potassium dichromate solution with ethanol on heating gives
ethanoic acid.
CH3-CH2 — OH + 2[O] ¾® CH3—COOH + H2O

(b) Ethanol when react with sodium gives Sodium ethoxide and Hydrogen gas is evolved.
2CH3-CH2 — OH + 2Na ¾® 2C2H5—ONa + H2

(c) When ethanol is treated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, ethene is formed.
CH3—CH2—OH ¾® CH3 = CH2 + H2O
Ans. 16. A - Group no. 13, Valency — 3

B - Group no. 14, Valency — 4

C - Group no. 12, Valency — 2

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Ans. 17. (d) The elements of the same group have similar chemical properties because of the
presence of same number of valence electrons. Thus, assertion is false but reason is
true.
Ans. 18. (a) Sodium is a very reactive metal. It reacts so vigorously that it catches fire if kept in
the open. Therefore, to prevent the accidental fires, it is kept immersed in kerosene
oil. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acid.
The ionic end (hydrophilic) of soap interacts with water and the hydrocarbon chain
end (hydrophobic) interacts with oil, dirt or grease to form a spherical structure
known as micelle. But when the medium is oil or fat the structure of micelle formed
is reversed and the hydrocarbon chain face outward to give reverse micelle, as shown
in structure given below :
Hydrophilic head

Hydrophobic tail

Hydrophobic medium (organic solvent)

(b) Any solvent which interacts with both the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts of soap
would not be able to form micelle. Example – Ethanol.
Ans. 20. (a) C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) ¾® 6CO2(g) + 6H2O
(b) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) ¾® Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Ans. 21. (i) (d) both a and b
(ii) (a) Oxidation
(iii) (a) I only
(iv) (d) A, B, and C
(v) (a) Hydrated ferric oxide
Ans. 22. (i) (a) Iron
(ii) (b) Copper
(iii) (d) Sodium
(iv) (c) Na > Mg > Al > Cu
(v) (c) Mg, Mn
••

A-44
BIOLOGY
 Answers Worksheet - 1
Chapter - 1 (Life Processes)

Ans. 1. (a)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (d)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. Trachea is surrounded by C-shaped cartilaginous rings which prevents the trachea from
collapsing when there is less air in it.

Ans. 6. The two upper chambers of human heart are called atria or auricles. The function of
these auricles is recieving blood from different parts of the body. The left auricle recieves
oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary vein whereas the right part
recieves deoxygenated blood from the other parts of the body through superior and
inferior vena cava.
Ans. 7. (a) Saliva is a secretion from salivary glands present in the mouth. Saliva gets mixed
with food uniformly with the help of tongue and helps in swallowing of food.
Saliva contains enzyme salivary amylase which break down starch into sugar. It also
contains enzyme ptyalin which acts upon starch and convert it into maltose.
(b) Glucose is a common nutrient that is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed
by the kidney tubules.
Ans. 8. Breathing process consists of two phases : inhalation and exhalation.
Inhalation is the process by which oxygen is taken in
through nostrils. During inhalation process, the ribs
move upwards and outwards due to contraction of
intercostal muscles. The diaphragm is lowered so that
the volume of thoracic cavity increases. As a result air is
moved inside the lungs through nostrils.
Ans. 9. The site of complete digestion of carbohydrates,
proteins and fats in human beings is small intestine of
alimentary canal. On complete digestion, carbohydrates
are converted into glucose, proteins into amino acids
and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
Ans. 10. The following raw materials are required for photosynthesis :
(a) Carbon dioxide : Plants take carbon dioxide from air through the stomata present in
leaves. Aquatic plants get carbon dioxide found in water as a dissolved gas.
(b) Water : Plants take in water from the soil through roots.
 (c) Chlorophyll : It is present in chloroplasts which are found in green portions of the
plants like leaves.
(d) Sunlight energy : It is trapped by chlorophyll present in chloroplasts of leaves.
Ans. 11.

Ans. 12. (a) (i) Right atrium of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from all parts of the body.
(ii) Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood
from the lungs towards the heart.
(iii) Superior vena cava carries deoxygenated
blood from upper part of the body to
right atrium of the heart.
(iv) Semilunar valve prevents back flow of
blood from aorta to left ventricle.
(b) Arteries carry blood away from heart and
blood flows with high pressure and with jerks
so to withstand this high pressure arteries
have thick walls. Veins carry blood towards heart and blood flows continuously with
very little pressure. So, veins have thin walls as compared to arteries.
Ans. 13. Amoeba follows holozoic nutrition. It involves the following steps :
(i) I ngestion : Amoeba engulfs the food by using its temporary finger like projections
called pseudopodia. This process is called ingestion. When a food particle comes into
contact with an Amoeba, it forms pseudopodia around it.
(ii) By phagocytosis process it engulfs its food.
(iii) Digestion : The food which is taken inside the amoeba forms a food vacuole. Many
enzymes are secreted into the food vacuole and the complex food molecule is
converted into simple and diffusible form.
(iv) Absorption and assimilation : The digested food is absorbed by the cell by diffusion
process.
(v) Egestion : The undigested residue which remains in vacuole is expelled out.
Pseudopodia Food engulfed Digested food Assimilation Undigested
forming within diffuses of food
Pseudopodia food vacuole food vacuole into cytoplasm digested food thrown out

Food
particle

(a) Ingestion (b) Forming food (c) Digestion (d) Absorption (e) Assimilation (f) Egestion
Vacuole
Different stages in the nutrition of Amoeba

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Ans. 14. There are two kidneys in humans. Each kidney is bean shaped with outer dark cortex and
inner light medulla. Medulla is composed of finely striped structures called pyramids.
There are numerous microscopic units called nephrons which are present internally in
kidneys. Each kidney is about 12 cm long, 6 cm wide and 3 cm thick and It weighs about
150 g. Nephrons are structural and functional unit of kidneys. A tube called ureter arises
from hilum of each kidney and connects with urinary bladder. The front end of ureter
is expanded into kidney called pelvis. Renal artery supplies oxygenated blood to kidney
and renal vein carries away deoxygenated blood from kidney.

Ans. 15. (a) Two enzymes are maltase and invertase.

(b) Zymase converts glucose and fructose into ethanol and carbon dioxide.
(c) Fermentation occurs in absence of oxygen that is in anaerobic conditions.
(d) In fermentation, glucose and fructose formed by molasses is further converted into
ethanol and carbon dioxide. Hence, the incorrect option is (iii).
Ans. 16. (a) The peel should be taken from the lower surface of the leaf as numerous stomata
are present on lower surface of the leaf.

(b) Safranin is used to stain a leaf peel.
Ans. 17. Green plants are sources of energy for all organisms so, if they disappear then all
herbivores will die and eventually all carnivores. So, food chain will be disturbed and life
would come to an end.
Ans. 18. (b) Presence of HCl in stomach is necessary for digestion because acidic medium
activates the action of gastric juice. HCl maintains a strong acidic pH, of about 1-2 in the
stomach. HCl helps to activate pepsinogen to pepsin which digests proteins to peptones
and proteases. HCl inhibits the growth and also kills the germs that may have entered
the stomach along with the food. So, it can be said that HCl kills bacteria but does not
help in digestion. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (c) Pancreatic amylase is a starch splitting enzyme like salivary amylase, so it cannot
digest proteins. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 20. (a) The pressure with which blood moves due to contraction of ventricles is termed as
the systolic pressure (upper value) and the pressure of the blood when ventricles
relax is known as diastolic pressure (lower value).
(b) The blood vessel that has the lowest blood pressure is vein.

A-49
 (c) The sphygmomanometer is a device that is composed of an inflatable cuff, a
measuring unit, and a valve. It is a device that is used for measuring blood pressure.
(d) The blood exerts a certain amount of pressure on the blood vessels. This exerted
pressure on the wall of arteries is termed as blood pressure. The normal blood
pressure of a person is 120/80 mm Hg.
Ans. 21. (i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (a)
(v) (c)

••

A-50
 Answers Worksheet - 2
Chapter - 1 (Life Processes)

Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (d)
Ans. 3. (d)
Ans. 4. (c)
Ans. 5. Liver secretes bile and it is stored in gall bladder.
Ans. 6. Selective reabsorption is the second step involved in urine formation in human beings
and it is named so as in this step certain selective substances like glucose, water and some
essential nutrients get reabsorbed through different parts of nephron.
Ans. 7. Yes, nutrition is a necessity for an organism due to the following reasons :
(a) Food provides us energy to carry out various metabolic activities and thus helps in the
survival of an organism.
(b) Food is required for growth, repair and reproduction of cells.
(c) It provides immunity against various pathogens.
(d) It helps in replacement of worn out cells.
(e) It provides energy to carry out various daily activities.
Ans. 8.
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
This process occurs in the presence of This process occurs in the absence of
oxygen. oxygen.
During this process glucose is completelyDuring this process glucose is incompletely
oxidised to release carbon dioxide and oxidised. In yeast the products are ethanol
water. and carbon dioxide. In human beings the
products are lactic acid and carbon dioxide.
More amount of energy is released during Less amount of energy is released during
this process. this process.
It takes place in mitochondria. It takes place in cytoplasm.
Ans. 9. Yes, I agree with this statement. Respiration process occurs all the time in plants i.e.,
both in day and night. But photosynthesis occurs only during day time i.e., in presence
of sunlight. Carbon dioxide which is produced by plants during respiration is used by
photosynthesis process during day time and oxygen is released. But in night time as
there is no photosynthesis, so carbon dioxide evolved by respiration cannot be utilised by
plants and is released out.
Ans. 10. (a) Fig. A represents open stomata and fig. B represents closed stomata.
(b) 1- stomata; 2- guard cells.
(c) Guard cells are kidney shaped cells which contain thick inner walls and thin outer
walls. During day time they perform photosynthesis due to the presence of chloroplasts
in them. Due to increase in solute concentration inside the guard cells, water from

A-51
 subsidiary cells rushes inside by osmosis. As a result guard cells swell up. The thin outer
wall bulges out and thick inner wall is pulled inside thus stomata opens. During night
time reverse happens, water rushes out from the guard cells and they become flaccid
closing the stomatal pore. Thus, turgor pressure of guard cells helps in closing and
opening of stomata.
Ans. 11. (a) The components of transport system in highly organized plants are xylem and
phloem. The functions of these components are as follows :
(i) Xylem conducts water and mineral salts from roots upwards to different parts of
the plant.
(ii) Phloem translocates manufactured food from leaves to different parts of the
plant.
(b) Importance of transpiration process in plants are :
(i) It provides cooling effect to plants.
(ii) It helps in ascent of sap from roots to upwards reaching to different parts of the
plant.
Ans. 12. Breathing involves inhalation and exhalation process where oxygen is taken in and
carbon dioxide is given out by the lungs or we can say there is exchange of gases between
cells of lungs and our environment.
Rate of breathing increases during vigorous exercise as the demand or need of oxygen
by our body increases. During vigorous exercise our body needs more energy, which
demands more intake of oxygen gas as this gas is used to oxidise glucose to release
energy. Hence, the exchange of gases needs to be faster thus increasing the breathing rate.
Ans. 13. (i) In human beings, the blood passes twice through our heart so this type of circulation
is called double circulation. It consists of :
(a) Pulmonary circulation : Here deoxygenated blood from whole parts of body
through superior and inferior vena cava
comes to right atrium. Then it passes to
right ventricle. Pulmonary artery carries
this blood to lungs for oxygenation. Then
pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood
back to left atrium of heart from lungs.
This is called pulmonary circulation.
(b) Systemic circulation : Here oxygenated
blood from left atrium moves to left
ventricle and finally by aorta gets
distributed to all parts of the body. This is
called systemic circulation.
Double circulation is necessary because it
keeps both oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood separated from each other. This makes
Capillaries of body
the circulatory system more efficient which apart from each other
provides more energy required to maintain
constant body temperature.
(ii) Blood is called a liquid connective tissue as it circulates through all the body parts
carrying nutrients, respiratory gases, hormones, excretory substances etc. It supplies
nutrients, oxygen, hormones to various parts and removes excretory products, carbon
dioxide from them. It consists of a liquid medium called plasma and it connects each
parts of the body.

A-52
Ans. 14. (a) Excretion is the process of removal of mainly nitrogenous wastes from the body.
(b) Nephron is the basic filtration unit present in kidney.
(c) Ultrafiltration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion are the three major steps
involved in urine formation in humans.
(d) (i) Nephrons present in kidneys form urine.
(ii) Ureter collects urine from kidneys.
(iii) Urinary bladder stores urine.
(iv) Renal artery supplies oxygenated blood to kidney.

Ans. 15. The steps for preparation of temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata include :
(a) A layer is peeled off from the lower surface of a leaf.
(b) It is stained with safranin and extra stain is rinsed off.
(c) The peel is now placed on the slide and a small portion from the peel is cut off.
(d) A drop of glycerine is placed on the slide and a cover slip is placed above it.
Ans. 16. (a) The artery is the blood vessel that has the highest blood pressure. The blood enters the
artery with immense pressure from ventricles. This is the reason that the arteries have
the highest blood pressure.
(b) The instrument that is helpful in measuring the blood pressure is a
sphygmomanometer. The sphygmomanometer can be used to measure both systolic
and diastolic pressure.
(c) The average systolic blood pressure is 120 mmHg and the average diastolic blood
pressure is 80 mmHg.
(d) The medical condition that is caused by an increase in blood pressure is hypertension.
Ans. 17. Plants have water and food transport system. Water transport system – roots absorb water
from the soil, Xylem is a tissue that conducts water from the roots to the upper part of plant.
Leaves prepare food for the plants → phloem is a tissues that conducts food from the
leaves to various parts of the plant.
Ans. 18. (c) Dark phase do not take place at night, it is independent of light, so light is
not a mandatory factor here. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (b) Sphygmomanometer is the instrument to measure blood pressure. Whatever be the
value it will be obtained after measuring with this instrument. This has no relation
with the normal adult blood pressure. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but
reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

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Ans. 20. (a) The formation of urine takes place in the urinary system.
(b) Nephrons are the functional units of kidneys that produce urine.
(c) The waste fluid produced during metabolic activities is known as urine.
(d) Urethra is the final part of the urinary system. The function of this part is to remove
urine out of the body.
Ans. 21. (i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (a)
(v) (b)
••

A-54
 Answers Worksheet - 3
Chapter - 1 [Life Processes]
Ans. 1. (b)
Ans. 2. (a)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. Alveoli is the respiratory unit and haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment of human
beings.
Ans. 6. Photolysis is the process of decomposition of water into hydrogen and hydroxyl ions.
This process uses photons of sunlight and takes place in grana during light phase of
photosynthesis reaction.
Ans. 7. Bile juice is secreted from liver. It helps in emulsification of fats i.e. it breaks large lipid
molecules into smaller globules so that lipase enzyme can easily convert these emulsified
fats into fatty acids and glycerol. It also makes the medium alkaline in small intestine so
that the enzymes of pancreatic juice and intestinal juice can activate and perform their
respective functions as the food that enters into small intestine from stomach is acidic in
nature.
Ans. 8. Alveoli are tiny sac like structures present in lungs which increases the surface area for
gaseous exchange. Lungs contain about 300 – 350 million alveoli. They have very thin
and moist walls making the diffusion of gases more convenient. They are surrounded by
numerous tiny blood capillaries which facilitates efficient gaseous exchange.
Ans. 9. During summer season we lose most of the water through perspiration so we pass
urine fewer times. During summer we drink a lot of water and kidneys reabsorb more
water from the urine making the urine thicker as compared to winter season in order to
maintain the water balance in our body.
Ans. 10. (a) Pancreatic juice
(b) Large intestine
(c) Gastric juice containing pepsin enzyme, mucus, HCl
(d) Diaphragm
(e) Bicuspid valve
(f) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule.
Ans. 11. (a) Two components of blood are : liquid part which is plasma and cellular component
which includes RBCs, WBCs, platelets.
(b) Oxygenated blood from lungs is carried by pulmonary veins ® left auricle ®left
ventricle ® Different body parts through aorta.

A-55

(c)
Arteries Veins
Arteries have thick walls to withstand high Veins have thin muscular walls as de-
pressure of the oxygenated blood flow oxygenated blood flows with low pressure.
through them.
Arteries have no valves. Veins have valves to prevent back flow of
the blood.
Ans. 12.
Digestive glands Secretions Substrates
Salivary glands Saliva [ptyalin] Ptyalin act upon starch and
convert into maltose.
Gastric glands Gastric juice [pepsin enzyme, HCl, Pepsin enzyme present in
mucus] gastric juice acts upon proteins.
Pancreas Pancreatic juice [trypsin, lipase, Trypsin acts upon peptones and
amylase] proteins, amylase on starch and
lipase on fats.
Ans. 13. The three types of blood vessels are :
(a) Arteries (b) Veins (c) Capillaries
(a) Arteries : They carry oxygenated blood from the heart and transport it to different
organs.
(b) Veins : They carry deoxygenated blood from organs and take this blood to the heart.
(c) Capillaries : Capillaries are thinnest and smallest blood vessels. Exchange of material
between the blood and surrounding cells takes place across them.
Ans. 14. Structure of nephron : Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidneys. It has the
following parts :
(a) Bowman’s capsule : It is a thin walled cup like structure which contains a knot like
mass of blood capillaries called glomerulus. Both Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus
are together called malpighian capsule.
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule : It is a convoluted region found near Bowman’s capsule.
(c) Loop of Henle : It is a U shaped structure which lies next to proximal convoluted
tubule.

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 (d) Distal convoluted tubule : It is the end part of the nephron which opens to collecting
duct.
Mechanism of Urine Formation : The formation of urine occurs in three steps :
(a) Ultrafiltration : Blood flows
under high pressure in
glomerulus and the liquid
portion of the blood filter out
from glomerulus and passes
to the cup shaped cavity of
Bowman’s capsule and this
process is called ultrafiltration.
(b) Selective reabsorption : It
is the process of selective
absorption of useful substances
like glucose, water, some
salts etc., from glomerular
filtrate which is obtained from
ultrafiltration by different parts
of nephron.
(c) Tubular secretion : Some harmful substances like chemicals, drugs like penicillin,
potassium ions etc., are released by renal tubule to the forming urine called tubular
secretion.
(d) The formed urine is then received by collecting ducts which pours into the pelvis of
kidney.
Ans. 15. (a) Various respiratory organs and their specialised functions are as follows :
(i) Nostrils and nasal cavity : It is lined with mucus membrane and fine hairs which
trap dust, dirt, harmful bacteria and other foreign substances and prevent their
entry into the respiratory tract.
(ii) Trachea : It is the wind pipe through which air enters and it is divided into
bronchi and bronchioles so that each and every part of lungs can be supplied
with air.
(iii) Alveoli : These are thin walled, small sacs like structures present inside lungs
which increase the respiratory surface thus providing efficient gaseous exchange.
Thus we can say that each and every respiratory organ is structurally specialised
in its function.
(b) Nostrils ® nasal passage ® pharynx ® larynx ® trachea ® bronchi ® bronchioles ®
alveolar sacs
Ans. 16. The temporary mount of a leaf peel when observed under microscope appears pinkish-
red in colour as it is stained with safranin dye which imparts this colour to the leaf peel.
Ans. 17. Precautions are :
(i) Germinating seeds should be moist.
(ii) Flask should be air tight.
(iii) Delivery tube must be immersed in water inside beaker.
(iv) KOH solution in a small vial must be kept inside conical flask.
Ans. 18. (a) In most animals, tissue oxidation are carried out by aerobic respiration. But
sometimes in aerobically respiring organisms, anaerobic metabolism take place in
certain tissues like skeletal muscles which do not get as much as oxygen required
and produce lactic acid. Thus both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.

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Ans. 19. (a) During the day transpiration becomes the main driving force for pulling up of
water. But at night since there is no sunlight transpiration do not take place, so
water is pulled up due to root pressure. Thus, both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. We know that pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure. So,
let us take diastole pressure as X.
Systole pressure – Diastole pressure = Pulse pressure
140 – X = 40
So, X = 140 – 40 = 100 mm of Hg.
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 4
Chapter - 2 [Control and Coordination]

Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (b)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. Neuron is the longest cell present in human body and medulla oblongata controls
involuntary actions like blood pressure, salivation etc.
Ans. 6. Auxin hormone plays a role in apical dominance in plants and abscisic acid promotes
yellowing and senescence of leaves in plants.
Ans. 7.

When we step our feet on a sharp object we immediately remove our feet from the object.
Sharp object like pin is the stimuli and receptor organ is our feet. An impulse is created
which is carried by sensory neuron to spinal cord. Motor neuron carries the impulse
generated by spinal cord to effector i.e., muscles of our feet which withdraw our feet from
the sharp object.
This act is known as reflex action.
Ans. 8. Brain and spinal cord are covered by a three layered membrane called meninges. The
outermost layer is called dura mater, middle thin delicate layer is arachnoid mater and
inner layer is pia mater. The space between the covering layers is filled with cerebrospinal
fluid which acts as a cushion to protect them from shocks and injuries.
Ans. 9. (a) Source gland is thyroid gland. Thyroxine regulates protein, carbohydrate and fat
metabolism in our body.
(b) Source gland is adrenal gland. It prepares the body to face the emergency situation by
increasing heart-beat, breathing rate etc.
Ans. 10. Synapse is a point of contact between the axon terminals of one neuron with the dendrite
of another neuron. The terminals of axon are swollen which contains a chemical called
acetylcholine which is a neurotransmitter, which induce impulses in the dendrites of next
neuron. Synapse acts as one way valve which prevents the back flow of impulses from
axon terminals. So, impulse moves from dendrites through cyton to axon. It allows the
nerve impulses in one direction.

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Ans. 11. (a) The brain is divided into three main subparts: the forebrain, the midbrain, and the
hindbrain. The structure in front of the brain is the forebrain. The narrow region that
links the hindbrain with the forebrain is the midbrain. The structure present towards
the lower back of the skull is the hindbrain.
(b) The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining body posture.
(c) The medulla oblongata is the part of the brain that has the reflex centers for sneezing
and vomiting. Along with these function it also regulates breathing, heart rate, blood
pressure, defecation, coughing, hiccupping and swallowing.
(d) The brain is the part of the central nervous system. The other part of the central
nervous system is the spinal cord.
Ans. 12. The function of nervous system is to control and coordinate all the voluntary and
involuntary actions in our body. Similarly hormonal system coordinate some functions of
our body by secreting chemicals called hormones by various endocrine glands. The
coordination between nervous and hormonal system is brought by hypothalamus which
secretes neurohormones. These neurohormones regulate the secretion of pituitary gland
which in turn regulates the activities of other endocrine glands. For example : In case of
emergency situation stimulus is perceived by receptors where impulse is carried to CNS
and message is conveyed. Effectors respond to the stimulus. Simultaneously, sympathetic
nervous system stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline which increases our heart
beat, breathing rate, etc. Thus from the above example we can say nervous and hormonal
systems together perform the functions of control and coordination in human beings.
Ans. 13. Neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional
unit of nervous system. The three parts of the neuron
are cyton/cell body, dendrites, axon.
(i) Dendrites are fine, branched cytoplasmic
projections of cyton which are the site of receiving
information and they conduct these impulses to
cyton.
(ii) Cyton receives impulses from dendrites and
passes through axon. Cyton contain nucleus,
nissl’s granules and other cell organelles.
(iii) Axon is a long process from cyton which is
surrounded by an insulating sheath called myelin
sheath. Axon conducts nerve impulses away from
cyton. The terminals of axon are swollen which
contains chemicals called neurotransmitters. This
chemical sets a new impulse in the dendrites of
adjacent neurons.
Ans. 14. (a) A—Pituitary gland; B—Thyroid gland,
C—Adrenal gland; D—Pancreas; E—Ovaries;
F—Testes
(b) Pancreas secrete insulin and glucagon. These two hormones regulate blood glucose
level in our body.
(c) Ovaries secrete oestrogen, progesterone hormone whereas testes secrete testosterone.
(d) Thyroid gland secretes thyroxine hormone. Under-secretion of this hormone causes
goitre, cretinism in children, myxoedema in adults. Over-secretion causes
exophthalmic goitre.

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Ans. 15. (a) Cerebrum is the seat of intelligence, consciousness, will
power, memory, reasoning and thinking. It
controls all voluntary actions.
(b) Cerebellum maintains posture and balance of the
body. It coordinates muscular activity.
(c) Medulla oblongata controls the activities of
internal organs like beating of heart, peristaltic
movement, etc.
(d) Hypothalamus regulates body temperature, control secretions of pituitary gland,
centre of hunger and thirst are located here.
Ans. 16.
Movement of leaves of sensitive plant. Movement of shoot towards light
It is an example of nastic movement. It is an example of tropic movement.
It does not involve growth and movement It involves growth and movement is slow.
is fast.
It occurs due to changes in turgor pressure Auxin hormone plays an important role
in the cells of the leaves. in phototropism movement. It occurs due
to differential growth due to unequal
distribution of auxins.
It occurs due to stimulus of touch. It occurs due to stimulus of light.
Ans. 17. Receptors are specialised cells in our body which respond to the changes that occurs
in our body i.e., stimulus. They pass the information in the form of sensory impulses
to central nervous system through sensory nerves. If receptors will not work properly
impulses will not be generated in response to the stimuli and our body cannot provide
an appropriate response to the changing environment. For example, if olfactory receptors
will not work properly we cannot detect any smell whether it is good or bad.
Ans. 18. (a) Plant hormones help them to sense changes in the environment even if they don‘t
have eyes, ears or nose. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (b) Synapse and neuron has no relation regarding function. Neuron is the functional unit
but that doesn‘t define synapse. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) Diabetes
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Development of male sex organs
(d) Top of kidneys
Ans. 21. (i) (a)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (a)
(v) (c)
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 Answers Worksheet - 5
Chapter - 2 [Control and Coordination]

Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. Testosterone hormone is responsible for the secondary sexual characters in male human
beings.
Ans. 6. Testes are present in males but not in females and as they secrete hormones they referred
to as endocrine glands too.
Ans. 7. (a) Growth dependent movements are called tropic movements.
(b) Non-growth dependent movements are nastic movements.
(c) The defferent phytohormones are :
1. Auxins, 2. Gibberellins, 3. Cytokinins, 4. Abscisic acid
(d) (iv)
Ans. 8. Animals have endocrine glands which secrete hormones, the chemical messengers. These
hormones are poured directly into blood stream which is carried by blood to target
organs and they regulate various physiological processes. Suppose glucose level is more
in blood then the beta cells of pancreas gets triggered and synthesize large amount of
insulin which converts excess glucose into glycogen and stores in liver.
Ans. 9. Over production of growth hormones causes gigantism in children and acromegaly in
adults. Similarly undersecretion of growth hormones causes dwarfism in children.
Ans. 10. (a) Auxins promote cell elongation and root formation.
Auxin is a growth stimulating hormone which promotes growth.
(b) Gibberellins stimulate seed germination and flowering.
Gibberellin is also a growth promoting hormone.
(c) Cytokinins promote cell division, breaks dormancy of seeds and buds.
(d) Abscisic acid causes dormancy of seeds.
It is a growth inhibitor which inhibits growth of plants.
Ans. 11. (a) The figure represents the phenomenon of phototropism i.e., response of plants to
light.
(b) The plant hormone auxin is invoved in the phenomenon of phototropism.
(c) Plants show their growth towards light and this movement is caused by the action
of auxin hormone. Auxin is synthesized by the meristematic tissue which is present
at the tip of shoots, roots etc. In the above figure the plant bends towards the light.
Auxin hormone is synthesized in the tip of the stem and moves towards the side of
the plant which is not receiving light. Due to more auxin hormone in the region of the
plant that does not receive light they grew faster than the part that receives light. So,
the stem bend towards the direction of light.
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Ans. 12. (a)
Cerebrum Cerebellum
It is a part of forebrain and constitutes a It is a part of hind brain and lies below
major portion of brain. cerebrum.
It is seat of intelligence, memory, reasoning, It coordinates muscular activity and
will power. It controls voluntary actions. maintains balance, posture of our body.
(b) Nerves that arise from spinal cord are called spinal nerves and that arise from brain are
called cranial nerves. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves in
the human body.
Ans. 13. Tropism is the directional movement of the part of the plant in response to external
stimulus. There are different types of tropism :
Phototropism : It is the directional movement of the plant part in response to light
stimulus. Example : Shoots of plants bends towards light, roots of plants bend away from
the light.
Geotropism : It is the orientation of the plant part in response to earth’s gravity.
Example : Roots of plants grow downwards in the soil in the direction of gravity.
Chemotropism : It is the directional movement or orientation of plant part in response
to chemical stimulus. Example : During fertilisation process, pollen tube grows towards
ovule in the ovary.
Hydrotropism : It is the directional movement or orientation of plant part in response to
water stimulus. Example : Bending of roots of the plant towards water.
Ans. 14. The immediate, involuntary and often unconscious responses against particular stimuli
are called as reflex actions.
Examples :
(i) Withdrawal of our hands on touching a hot plate.
(ii) Closing of our eyes when flashed with strong light.
Reflex arc is the pathway of nerve fibres along with which the reflex impulse travels i.e.,
from receptor to spinal cord to effector organs.
Suppose as in the given figure
our hand is touching a hot
object. Here stimuli is heat
and receptors are fingers of
our hand. Impulse which is
generated is carried away
by sensory neuron to spinal
cord. Response given by
spinal cord is carried by
motor neuron in form of
impulses to effector organ
i.e., muscles of our hand
which shows the response by
withdrawal of hand from the
hot object.
Ans. 15.
Hormonal response Neural response
It is usually slow. It is immediate.
It is transmitted chemically through blood. It is transmitted electrochemically through
neurons.

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 Its effects are generally long lasting. Its effect is short lived.
Information travels slowly. Information travels rapidly.
Timing and amount of hormones is regulated Feedback mechanism is absent.
by feedback mechanism.
It regulates metabolism. It cannot regulate metabolism.
It can affect growth. It does not affect growth.
It affects different organs. It affects particular muscles or glands.
Ans. 16. Brain and spinal cord are the two components of central nervous system in human beings.
Brain lies in the skull and spinal cord within the vertebral column. Peripheral nervous
system includes spinal nerves and cranial nerves which carry impulses to and from the
central nervous system. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Peripheral nervous system facilitates communication between central nervous system and
the other parts of the body. The two types of nerves are cranial nerves which arise from
brain and spreads throughout the head and spinal nerves which arises from spinal cord
and spreads throughout the body except head.
Brain and spinal cord are covered by a three layered membrane called meninges. The
outermost layer is called duramater, middle thin delicate layer is arachnoid mater and
inner layer is pia mater. The space between the covering layers is filled with a watery
fluid-cerebrospinal fluid which acts as a cushion to protect them from shocks and injury.
Ans. 17. Stimulus ¾® Receptor ¾® Sensory nerves ¾® Brain or spinal cord ¾® Motor neurons
¾® Effector ¾® Response.
Ans. 18. (a) Iodine is very necessary for the production of the hormone thyroxine, lack of
thyroxine causes goitre in the body. So, iodine is necessary to prevent goitre. Thus,
both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Medulla controls circulation, respiration, reflexes like swallowing, coughing,
peristaltic movement of gut. So, damage to the medulla will stop circulation and
respiration and eventually cause death. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) The plant hormone that regulates phototropism is auxin.
(b) The plant hormone that stimulates the shedding of leaves and fruits is ethylene.
(c) The plant hormone that helps stimulates the opening and closing of stomata is
abscisic acid.
(d) The plant hormone that participates in the process of thigmotropism is ethylene.
Ans. 21. (i) (a)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (d)
(v) (c)

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 Answers Worksheet - 6
Chapter - 2 [Control and Coordination]
Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (c)
Ans. 5. Diabetes
Ans. 6. Hypothalamus
Ans. 7. The movement of tendril around a support is caused by the action of auxin hormone.
Auxin which is synthesized at the tip diffuses from the tip to the region that is away from
the support. The region containing more auxin will grow faster than the part which is in
contact with the support causing the tendril to curl around the support.
Example : Movement shown by tendrils of climbing plants like cucumber around solid
objects.

Ans. 8.
Movement of leaves of sensitive plant Movement of shoot towards light
It is an example of nastic movement. It is an example of tropic movement.
It does not involve growth and movement It involves growth and movement is slow.
is fast.
It occurs due to changes in turgour Auxin hormone plays an important role
pressure in the cells of the leaves. in phototropism movement. It occurs due
to differential growth and due to unequal
distribution of auxins.
It occurs due to stimulus of touch. It occurs due to stimulus of light.
Ans. 9. X is abscisic acid. Abscisic acid is a plant hormone which causes stomatal closure. Auxin
and gibberellins are two hormones which reverse the effect of abscisic acid on plant
growth.
Abscisic acid is growth inhibitor which retards plant growth, promotes closing of
stomata. But auxins and gibberellins are growth promoters which stimulate plant growth.

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 They promote cell enlargement and cell differentiation, promote stem and fruit growth.
Similarly cytokinin promotes opening of stomata.
Ans. 10. Gland A is adrenal gland and X hormone produced is adrenaline.
During emergency situation like anger, fear, stress etc., adrenal gland produce adrenaline
hormone which enables us to face the situation or flight away from it.
Due to secretion of this hormone our heart beat increases, breathing rate increases.
Increase rate of heart beat supply more oxygen to muscles and breathing rate increases
which draw more oxygen into our body. Thus, it helps our body to face the danger
situation or flight away from it. So, this hormone is called emergency hormone and
adrenal gland is called emergency gland.
Ans. 11. Iodine is an essential component for synthesis of thyroxine hormone. Thyroxine hormone
is secreted by thyroid gland which regulates the basal metabolism of our body by
oxidation of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. It regulates the general growth of our body
and deficiency of this hormone leads to disorders like simple goitre, cretinism, myxedema
etc. So, it is advised to use iodised salt in our food.
Ans. 12. The orientation of plant part in response to water is called hydrotropism.
Activity to demonstrate hydrotropism : Two glass troughs A and B were taken. Both the
troughs were filled with soil upto two-third level. A tiny seedling was placed in both the
troughs. A small clay pot with soil was placed in trough B. In trough A water was added
uniformly to the soil but in trough B water was put only in small clay pot.
Observations : After few days it was noticed that in trough A roots of the seedlings had
grown straight as water is added uniformly to the soil. But in trough B roots of seedling
had grown in the direction towards the clay pot because water is contained in the clay
pot. This shows that roots of plant shows its growth in the direction of water.

Ans. 13. (a) Multicellular organisms are highly complex. Every activity need to be regulated so
that the activities can occur in proper time and correct sequence. Various organs
and parts of the body should work together in a coordinate manner to perform a
particular function. For proper control and coordination in higher organisms both
nervous and endocrine system plays a major role. For example : While riding a
bicycle there should be proper coordination between our hands and handle of our
cycle.
(b) The actions that are performed according to our will and are controlled by our
conscious thoughts are called voluntary actions. The actions that are performed
unconsciously and are not controlled by our will are called involuntary actions.
(i) Involuntary action (ii) Involuntary action
(iii) Voluntary action (iv) Involuntary action
Ans. 14. (a) (i) A is dendrite; B is axon.
(ii) End of dendrite acquires information in the neuron.
(iii) Information travels from dendrites to cyton and then along the axon towards
axon terminals.
(iv) Information travels in the form of impulse.

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 (v) At the end of axon terminals/nerve endings impulse is converted into chemical
signal for transmission.
(b) Thyroid gland secretes thyroxine hormone which regulates carbohydrate, fat, protein
metabolism in our body.
Ans. 15.
Organs Sympathetic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system
Lungs Dilates bronchi and bronchioles. Constricts bronchi and bronchiole.

Heart Increases heart rate. Decreases heart rate.

Salivary gland Inhibits saliva secretion which Stimulates saliva secretion.
causes dryness of the mouth.
Pupil of eye Dilation Constriction
Ans. 16. Chemotropism is shown by pollen grains. The orientation or movement of plant parts in
response to chemicals is called chemotropism. Ovary produces some sugary substances
which are chemicals and in response to these chemicals pollen grains germinate and
develop pollen tube that moves through style to reach ovule present in ovary.
Ans. 17. (a) Touch is the stimulus which is common for movement in both the cases.
(b) Drooping of leaves in touch-me-not plant is an example of growth independent
movement which occurs due to change in turgour pressure of the cells. But attaching
of pea plant to a support with the help of tendrils is a growth dependent movement.
The pea plants develop tendrils which are sensitive to touch. When they come in
contact with a support they encircle the support and clings to them. Auxin hormone
plays an important role. Auxin synthesized at the tip diffuses to parts away from the
support, so those parts away from support grow faster than those parts in contact. So,
the tendrils encircle the support.
(c) Drooping of leaves in touch-me-not plant is an example of seismonastic movement
whereas attaching of pea plant to a support with the help of tendrils is an example of
curvature movement.
Ans. 18. (c) Assertion is true, but thigmonasty is the movement of plant part in response to the
touch of an object. Thus, assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (d) Both are incorrect, it is the cerebellum which controls body posture and cerebrum is
not connected to internal ear. Thus, both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 20. Digestion of food will be hampered as exocrine part of pancreas produces digestive juices
that help in digestion in small intestine.

••

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 Check Point - 1

Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. Salivary amylase present in saliva secreted by salivary glands present in our mouth is the
first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract.
Ans. 6. (a) Tracheids and vessel elements are the two kinds of cells in xylem. Tracheids are long,
narrow cells that overlap at their tapered ends. Vessel elements are short, wide-barrel
shaped conducting cells.
(b) Phloem tissue contains two cells: sieve tube elements, and companion cells. These
two components of phloem help in the transportation of food. Sieve tube elements are
elongated living cells but they lack a nucleus and have little cytoplasm. The
companion cells are located very close with the sieve tube elements.
(c) The release of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is
called transpiration.
(d) Mosses are non vascular plants as they do have vascular conducting tissues.
They have internal conducting tissues, but xylem and phloem are absent. Thus,
mosses are plants that lack xylem and phloem.
Ans. 7.

Ans. 8. Figure (a) is more accurate as roots are positively geotropic so they move towards the
ground [ earth’s gravity ] and shoots are negatively geotropic so they move away from the
ground [ earth’s surface ].
Ans. 9. (a) Lack of iodine in diet as iodine is an important element required for the synthesis of
thyroxine hormone from thyroid gland. Deficiency of thyroxine causes simple goitre
which can be observed as a swollen neck in people.

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(b) Over secretion of growth hormone from pituitary gland in childhood causes
gigantism where the hands and legs of the person grow abnormally large.

(c) There is proper secretion of testosterone hormone which is responsible for
development of facial hairs, a secondary sexual character in males which is observed
during puberty.
Ans. 10. The major events during photosynthesis are :
(a) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll : The chlorophyll pigment present within
chloroplasts traps sunlight energy in the form of photons which is required to split
water molecules. This is the first and important step of photosynthesis.

(b) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy and photolysis of water : Photons
split water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. This is called photolysis of water
i.e., splitting of water molecules in the presence of sunlight energy. Oxygen is
released as by-product, an important gas evolved during photosynthesis.
The above two steps occurs in presence of light so they are called light phase
reactions.

(c) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates : This process does not require
sunlight, so this phase is also called dark phase. Carbon dioxide with the help of
certain enzymes gets converted into glucose—the major food of all living organisms.
Ans. 11. The orientation of plant part in response to water is called hydrotropism.
Experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism : Two glass troughs A and B were taken. Both
the troughs were filled with soil upto two-third level. A tiny seedling was placed in both
the troughs. A small clay pot with soil was placed in trough B. In trough A water was
added uniformly to the soil but in trough B water was put only in small clay pot.
Observations : After few days it was noticed that in trough A roots of the seedlings had
grown straight as water is added uniformly to the soil. But in trough B roots of seedling
had grown in the direction towards the clay pot because water is contained in the clay
pot. This shows that roots of plant shows its growth in the direction of water.

Ans. 12. Oxygen from air enters through nostrils, nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi,
bronchioles and finally to alveoli during inhalation. Alveoli are surrounded with blood
vessels where gaseous exchange occurs i.e., oxygen diffuses inside the blood vessels and
carbon dioxide diffuses out from the blood vessels into alveoli. Oxygen then combines
with haemoglobin present in blood to form oxy-haemoglobin and is carried to heart by
pulmonary veins and then it is transported to the rest parts of the body.
Carbon dioxide is transported mainly in dissolved form in the blood stream given out by
tissues during cellular respiration and is carried to the alveoli present in lungs where it
diffuses out to the alveoli from blood stream and is exhaled out through the nostrils.

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Ans. 13. (i) Human heart is four chambered. It
consists of two upper chambers
called auricles or atrium and two
lower chambers called ventricles.
(ii) The right atrium receives
deoxygenated blood from all parts
of the body through two vena
cavas—superior and inferior. The
opening between right atrium
and right ventricle is guarded by
tricuspid valve which prevents
back flow of the blood.
(iii) Pulmonary artery carries
deoxygenated blood from right
ventricle to lungs for oxygenation.
(iv) Left atrium receives oxygenated
blood from lungs through pulmonary veins. The opening of left atrium and left
ventricle is guarded by bicuspid valve.
(a) From left ventricle arises aorta which carries oxygenated blood to whole parts of
the body.
(b) Human heart is enclosed by pericardium membrane.
Ans. 14. Brain is a component of central nervous system. Brain is divided into three regions –
forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain.
(i) Forebrain : It comprises of cerebrum and diencephalon.
(a) Cerebrum is the seat of intelligence, memory, will power, consciousness. It controls
voluntary actions. It is the largest portion of the brain. It is divided into two halves
called cerebral hemispheres which are connected by a sheet of fibres called corpus
callosum.

(b) Diencephalon consists of thalamus and hypothalamus. The centre of hunger, thirst
is located in hypothalamus. Hypothalamus controls body temperature and pituitary
gland. Thalamus relays pain and pressure impulses to the cerebrum.
(ii) Midbrain is a small tubular part which controls reflexes involving eyes and ears.
(iii) Hindbrain comprises of cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata.
(a) Cerebellum controls and coordinates
muscular activity and maintains the
posture and balance of the body.
(b) Pons regulate rate of respiration and
body heat.
(c) Medulla oblongata controls functioning
of internal organs and involuntary
actions like beating of heart, breathing
movement, peristalsis movement etc.
Ans. 15. The steps to be followed are :
(a) Clean the microscope and the lenses.
(b) Place the slide on the stage.
(c) Place the low power objective lens above the slide.
(d) Focus the material with the help of a coarse adjustment.

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 (e) Sharpen the focus with fine adjustment.
(f) Bring high power objective lens over the slide.
Ans. 16. When the leaf cell is turgid, guard cells are also turgid thus the stomatal aperture is open.
And on staining the guard cells and open stomata can easily be observed and identified.
Ans. 17. A person diagnosed with kidney failure can undergo kidney transplantation other than
dialysis. It is the transplant of a kidney into a patient with end-stage renal disease. A
healthy donor can donate his or her kidney to the patient via surgery.
Ans. 18. (a) Pulse rate is the number of heart beats per minute. So, by counting the pulse rate we
can understand the heart beat and in turn understand the working condition of the
heart. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Insulin is a hormone released by the beta cells of the pancreas. It maintains the
blood glucose level in the body, by its proper utilization. So, lack of insulin causes
accumulation of glucose in the blood and hence a disease called diabetes mellitus is
caused. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) The forebrain of the brain contains an area known as the cerebrum. This area is
composed of the cerebral cortex.
(b) The cerebellum is located in the hindbrain. The structure present toward the lower
back of the skull is the hindbrain.
(c) The major part of the brain that is involved in thinking is the forebrain.
(d) The nerves that arise from the spinal cord are called spinal nerves.
Ans. 21. (i) (a)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (b)
(v) (b)
Ans. 22. (i) (b)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (b)
(v) (c)

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 Answers Worksheet - 7
Chapter - 3 [How do Organisms
Reproduce]
Ans. 1. (c)
Ans. 2. (b)
Ans. 3. (d)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. Hibiscus is an example of a flower which contains both stamens and carpels.
Ans. 6. The process is called budding.

Ans. 7. (a) Ovary

(b) Anther
(c) Style
(d) Stigma
Ans. 8. (i) The nucleus in a matured amoeba elongates and
divides into two.
(ii) A constriction appears in the middle of
cytoplasm.
(iii) The constriction deepens and finally it divides.
(iv) Thus two daughter amoeba are formed from a single parent amoeba.

Ans. 9. An organism can be benefitted if it reproduces through spores by following ways :

(a) Spores are covered with thick walls which protect them from adverse environmental
conditions like drought, high temperature etc. So they can survive even in these
conditions.

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 (b) They are very light, small and can be easily dispersed through wind, water, and
animals. On getting favourable conditions they germinate and give rise to new
individuals.
(c) This mode of reproduction is simple and faster.
(d) Large numbers of spores are produced at one time within a sporangium.
Ans. 10. (a) AIDS is a sexually transmitted disease. Its causative agent is HIV.
(b) Awareness and safety measures for a healthy life.
Ans. 11. This process is called regeneration and example is Hydra.
When Planaria is cut into three pieces each piece grow into separate individual.

Ans. 12. (a) Ovary produces eggs and female sex hormones.
(b) Fallopian tube is the site of fertilization and it allows egg to move from ovary to the
uterus.
(c) Uterus receives the zygote and implantation of zygote occurs, it provides
nourishment to the growing embryo.
Ans. 13. (a) The process is known as spore formation in Rhizopus.
(b) Spore is covered by a thick structure to withstand unfavourable conditions like
drought, high temperature etc., so that they can survive for a long time.
(c) Hyphae are long, thread, branched filaments of fungus which release enzymes to
absorb nutrients from food sources.
Ans. 14. The process of transfer of pollen grains from
anthers of stamens to the stigma of carpel within
the same flower or different flower of same plant or
to any other flower of different plant but of same
species is called pollination. Pollination is of two
types : cross and self pollination.
The process of fusion of male and female gametes
to produce the zygote is called fertilization.
Fertilization is of two types—external and internal.
The site of fertilization in flower is inside ovary
of female part of a flower. After fertilisation ovary
becomes fruit and ovules become seeds.
The process of mixing of male and female
gametes to form a zygote is called fertilisation. By
pollination process pollen grains gets deposited on
stigma of carpel. Under suitable conditions they

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 germinate. A long pollen tube containing two male gametes arises and it passes through
style to reach the ovary. The ovary contains ovule which has an embryo sac. Female
gamete is present inside embryo sac. The pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle
and penetrates the embryo sac. One male gamete fuses with female gamete to produce
zygote whereas the second male gamete fuses with polar nuclei to form endosperm. This
process is called double fertilisation.
Ans. 15. The growth of new plants from vegetative parts of the plant like roots, stem, leaves
other than the seeds is called vegetative propagation. Various methods of vegetative
propagation are :
(a) Cutting : Small piece of plant part like roots, stem or leaves is cut and is used for
propagation. Examples : Rose, china-rose, sugarcane, etc.
(b) Layering : It is the process where roots are induced when a stem comes in contact
with the ground. Examples : Grapevine, jasmine, litchi, mango, etc.
(c) Grafting : It is a process of joining a part of a living plant like stem or bud to another
plant and they grow as one plant. Examples : Lime, lemon, etc.
(d) Propagation by plant tissue culture : In this method plant cells are cultured in an
artificial culture media, where a cell divides into undifferentiated mass of cells called
callus which is transferred to different nutrient medium to grow into plantlets.
All the above methods are artificial methods of vegetative propagation.
In natural methods of vegetative propagation underground roots [root tubers of Dahlia] or
underground stems [bulbs of onions, rhizomes of ginger] or adventitious buds on leaves
[Bryophyllum] grow into new plants.
Ans. 16. (a) (i) Seminiferous tubules ® Epididymis ® Sperm duct ® Urethra.
(ii) Seminal vesicles secretion serves as a medium for transportation of sperms and
also they activate and nourish the sperms. The secretion of prostate gland makes
the medium alkaline and neutralises the acidic medium of female vagina.
(b) For an organism to survive it has to perform various life processes like nutrition,
respiration, circulation, excretion etc. Reproduction is not required for survival of an
organism. During reproduction there is replication of DNA and only genetic material
is transferred from one generation to the next generation producing certain
variations. This process helps in maintaining the continuity of a species.
Ans. 17. (a) The part of the brain that controls and regulates the release of hormones is the
hypothalamus. This is because it releases certain molecules called hormone-releasing
factors that stimulate the production of hormones.
(b) The two endocrine glands which are common in both males and females are the
pituitary gland and the thyroid gland.
(c) The endocrine gland, which is present only in the males is testis. It produces a
hormone named testosterone.
(d) The endocrine gland, which is present only in the females is ovary. It produces the
hormones progesterone and estrogen.
Ans. 18. (c) Unisexual flowers are those which can have either stamen or carpels as sex organ. It
is not true that it has only stamen in it. It can have only carpel also, so either of these
will describe a unisexual flower. Thus, assertion is true but reason is false.
Ans. 19. Both the sperm and ovum have 23 chromosomes, so when the zygote is formed after their
fusion there are 46 chromosomes in the zygote, and hence the number of chromosome
is restored in the offspring. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.

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Ans. 20. (a) There are a number of diseases that are caused by sexual intercourse. These diseases
are called STDs “Sexually transmitted disease”.
(b) Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes a disease called syphilis in humans.
(c) The contraceptive device that is commonly used by the males is the condom.
(d) The vas deferens is cut in the process of vasectomy. This prevents the sperms from
reaching the ejaculatory duct.
Ans. 21. (i) (b)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (d)
(v) (c)
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 Answers Worksheet - 8
Chapter - 3 [How do Organisms
Reproduce]
Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (d)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. In human testes sperms are produced by the process of spermatogenesis and interstitial
cells present in testes produce the male hormone testosterone.
Ans. 6. (a) X is Ovule, Y is embryo sac which contain egg cell and two polar nuclei.
(b) Grafting method is used.
Ans. 7. During the process of reproduction DNA is transmitted from parents to offspring. But
DNA is replicated before reproduction i.e., two copies of DNA are produced. During
the time of cell division the two copies of DNA are equally distributed between the two
daughter cells. Each daughter cell receives same type and amount of DNA from parent
cell. Thus, the consistency in type and amount of DNA is maintained in the particular
species of a living organism.
Ans. 8.
Binary fission Multiple fission
A single parent cell divides into two daughter A single parent cell divides and results in
cells. production of many daughter cells.
Nucleus divides once and then each nucleus Nucleus divides repeatedly to form many
gets surrounded by cytoplasm to form two nuclei and each gets surrounded by
individuals. cytoplasm to form many daughter cells.
It occurs under favourable conditions. It occurs under unfavourable conditions.
Example : Binary fission in Amoeba, Example : Plasmodium.
Paramecium.
Ans. 9. The embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body through a disc shaped structure
called placenta. It connects embryo with mother’s blood. It supplies nutrients, oxygen
to the growing embryo and removes carbon dioxide, wastes from embryo. Through
this structure the blood of embryo comes in close contact with mother’s blood and by
diffusion process exchange of nutrients occurs. The placenta is formed by interlocking of
two sets of villi, which provides maximum surface area for absorption of nutrients and
oxygen gas.
Ans. 10. In sexual reproduction male and female gametes from two different individuals unite
leading to variations in offsprings due to mixing up of genetic material whereas in case of
asexual reproduction only single parent is involved and there is no formation of gametes.
The offsprings that are produced sexually have better chances of survival as due to
mixing up of genetic material between two different individuals there is increase in
genetic variations in the offsprings which provides maximum chances for the survival
of species in the changing environment as well as under unfavourable conditions. This
variation in species is also essential for evolution.

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Ans. 11. (a) Figure A is Hydra, B is Rhizopus, C is leaf of Bryophyllum and D is Planaria.
(b) Reproduction process is shown in all these figures. This type of reproduction is called
asexual reproduction where one single parent is involved without any formation of
gametes.
(c) Reproduction is the life process of an organism which helps in its growth of
population by forming new individuals. It helps to replenish the lost individuals.
Ans. 12. (a) The figure represents female reproductive system.
(b) The figure is as shown.
(c) Ovary is the female primary sex organs which
produce ova or eggs.
Oviduct receives the egg released from ovum
and it is the site of fertilisation.
Uterus is a muscular organ where
implantation of zygote occurs and it takes care
of the developing embryo.
Vagina is a muscular tube like structure which
receives the sperms and through which the baby is delivered.
Ans. 13. The methods or devices used to prevent fertilisation and implantation are referred to as
contraceptive methods. Some of the methods are :
(a) Barrier methods : Use of condoms in male and diaphragms in female prevents the
entry of sperms into uterus.
(b) Chemical methods : Use of various hormonal pills prevents the release of egg from
ovary. They cause a change in menstrual cycle thus delaying ovulation.
(c) IUCDs : Use of IUCDs devices like copper-T which is fitted inside uterus that
prevents implantation of embryo into the wall of uterus.
(d) Surgical methods : Tubectomy is done in female where a small portion of oviducts
are removed and ligated to prevent the entry of egg from ovaries. Vasectomy is done
in males where a small portion of vas deferens is cut and ligated preventing passage
of sperms.
Chemical method is not meant for males.
Use of these techniques have direct impact on health and prosperity of family by :
(a) Preventing unwanted pregnancies to control population growth.
(b) Protecting from sexually transmitted diseases like AIDS, Syphilis etc.
(c) Proper health care of mother and child by preventing frequent pregnancies.
(d) Providing sufficient gap between the offsprings for proper care of the children.
Ans. 14. (a) Testes are the primary sex organs in a human male which produce sperms by the
process of spermatogenesis. They also produce male sex hormone testosterone which
helps in the development of secondary male characteristics at the time of puberty.
(b) Vas deferens also called sperm ducts which
carries the sperms from testes to urethra.
(c) Epididymis stores the sperms for some
days where they get mature and become
motile in nature.
(d) Scrotum or scrotal sacs are pouch like
structures located outside the abdomen in
which testes are placed. It provides an
optimum temperature for sperm formation.

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 (e) The secretion of seminal vesicles helps in transportation of sperms and provides
nourishment to the sperms.
Ans. 15.

Cotyledons store food for the growth of embryo.

Radicle becomes root in future plant.
Plumule becomes shoot in future plant.
Ans. 16. (a) Student should observe the Amoeba which will have elongated nucleus along with a
constriction in the middle of cytoplasm.
(b) The daughter cells would be smaller in size than their respective parent cells.
Ans. 17. If the male have 24 chromosomes then the female will also have 24 chromosomes and the
zygote will have 48 chromosomes.
Ans. 18. (c) The assertion is correct but reason is incorrect because ovulation takes place on the
14th day of the menstrual cycle, so if the sperm happens to meet the ovum during
that phase fertilization will take place. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (b) Both the statement are true but the reason that males have 2 testes and because of it
they descend into the scrotum this is not the correct explanation. Thus, both assertion
and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. DNA is the hereditary material. It stores the blueprint in the genes, genes control
synthesis of proteins. These proteins act as enzymes which control biochemical reactions
of the body. Genes are responsible for transmitting characters from parents to offspring.
Before transmitting characters from parents to offspring prior to cell division, DNA makes
its copies by replication. Hence, DNA contains the blueprint of the next generation.
Ans. 21. (i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (a)
(v) (c)

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 Answers Worksheet - 9
Chapter - 3 [How do Organisms
Reproduce]
Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (a)
Ans. 3. (b)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. (a) Placenta (b) Uterus
Ans. 6. Sperm is made up of two regions, the oval head region to which a thin, long tail is
attached. This shape provides motility to sperm so that it can swim and reach towards the
egg.
Ans. 7. (i) After fertilisation ovule develops into seeds and ovary into fruit.
(ii) Mostly angiosperms show double fertilisation.
Ans. 8. Yes, the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular
organism is always constant. Because zygote is diploid and it undergoes mitotic divisions
to form embryonal cells and finally adult and during mitosis the chromosome number
remains constant.
Ans. 9. (a) The testes is the part of the male reproductive system where the formation of
sperms occurs.
(b) The embryo develops a special structure called placenta. This structure helps in
the transportation of components from the mother’s body to the embryo. Placenta also
prevents the mixing of the mother’s blood with the baby’s blood.
(c) The other name of the oviduct is the fallo pian tube.
(d) The process by which the blastocyst gets attached to the lining of the uterus wall is
termed as implantation. It is an important post-fertilisation process. The successful
fusion of male and female gamete results in implantation.
Ans. 10. The advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction are :
(a) Variations are produced due to sexual reproduction which helps in better survival of
offsprings to the changing environment.
(b) More diversity is seen in case of sexual reproduction as compared to asexual
reproduction.
(c) Due to recombination and crossing over in meiosis process during formation of
gametes and as there is mixing of male and female gametes, genetic variations are
seen which is the main cause of evolution.
Ans. 11. In slice 1 no spores will develop as there is lack of moisture. In slice 2 white spongy mass
like structures with black spots will be seen as both moisture and darkness favours the
growth of bread moulds. In slice 3 there will be no formation of spores even though
moisture is present because the low temperature in refrigerator does not favour the
growth of spores.

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Ans. 12. (a) (i) Oviducts/Fallopian tubes
(ii) Uterus
(iii) Vagina
(b) Condoms prevent the transmission of sexually
transmitted diseases like syphilis, AIDS and are
very convenient and economical to use. So many
people prefer to use condoms. They act as a
mechanical barrier to prevent meeting of sperms
and egg. Thus they are an important method to
prevent unwanted pregnancy.
Ans. 13. (a) (i) A hormone is secreted by ovary which causes thickness of inner lining of uterus
and oviduct i.e., it prepares the uterus for proper implantation of embryo. The wall
of uterus gets richly supplied with blood vessels. If implantation occurs, a special
tissue called placenta develop from uterine wall which supplies food, oxygen to
the growing embryo and removes wastes, carbon dioxide from embryo. Placenta
connects uterine wall of mother with embryo.
(ii) If egg is not fertilized the egg disintegrates and the thick lining of uterus starts
shedding off. The egg along with mucus, blood is discharged out through vagina
as menstrual flow.
(b) During copulation sperms get deposited near the cervix of uterus. Sperms swim with
their tail and move forward to uterus. Then they climb up to the oviduct if any egg
would be present one sperm reaches the egg and fuses with it to form zygote. This
process is called fertilisation and its site is oviduct. Egg is released by ovary which is
picked up by oviduct. Though an egg may be surrounded by several sperms, only one
sperm enters the egg. After an egg is fertilised with a sperm the entry of other sperms
is prevented by a chemical barrier.
Egg is released by ovary only once in every month by a process called ovulation which
mainly occurs around the day 14th of menstrual cycle. So, it is said that fertilization
can occur once in a month.
Ans. 14. (a) The different types of asexual reproduction seen in living organisms are :
(i) Fission : It is the process in which a unicellular organism splits into two or more
daughter cells. They are mainly of two types—binary fission seen in Amoeba,
Paramecium and multiple fission seen in Plasmodium.
(ii) Fragmentation : It is seen in Spirogyra.
(iii) Regeneration : It is seen in Hydra, Planaria.
(iv) Budding : It is seen in yeast, Hydra.
(v) Spore formation : Here reproduction occurs through formation of spores. Spores
under favourable conditions give rise to new individuals. It is seen in Rhizopus,
Mucor, etc.
(vi) Vegetative propagation : It is mainly seen in plants.
(b) The figure depicts fragmentation process in Spirogyra. In this case organism after
maturation breaks into smaller fragments and each fragment grows into a new
individual. This process is called fragmentation.
Ans. 15. The precautions while studying different parts of embryo of a dicot seed are :
(a) The slide should first be observed under low power magnification compound
microscope and then under high power magnification compound microscope.
(b) The slides should be focused properly.

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Ans. 16. Yes, binary fission and budding are faster processes of reproduction when compared to
sexual reproduction because in sexual reproduction there is a lot of event like formation
of gametes, fusion of gametes, development of a zygote to a young one etc.
Ans. 17. Sperms formed in the testes ¾® Epididymis ¾® Vas deference ¾® Urethra ¾® Penis.
Ans. 18. (c) Copper-T is a contraceptive method, which is inserted inside the uterus, it prevents
implantation. It does not prevent sexually transmitted disease. Thus assertion is true,
but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (b) Both the statements are correct, placenta performs both the given functions. But they
are not related to each other. Being an endocrine tissue it releases hormones but does
not help in transport of materials to and from the embryo. Thus, both assertion and
reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) The sperms are known to be the male gametes, and they are produced in the testis.
(b) Penis is the part of the “male reproductive system”. Males use penis for sexual
intercourse. The penis contains a number of blood vessels. These vessels are supplied
with blood. The blood circulation in the penis increases during sexual intercourse.
(c) A duct called epididymis is present in the reproductive part of the males. The newly
formed sperms are stored in this duct. They get matured in this duct.
(d) The seminal vesicles are present in the male reproductive part. It is an exocrine gland
that releases a sugary component in semen.
Ans. 21. (i) (a)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (a)
(v) (d)

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 Answers Worksheet - 10
Chapter - 4 [Heredity and Evolution]

Ans. 1. (a)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (b)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. Scientific name of man is Homo sapiens and garden pea is Pisum sativum.
Ans. 6. (a) The dihybrid cross experiment that Mendel performed with the pea plants, shows
that traits are inherited independently. In a cross between two plants with two pairs of
contrasting characters, the expression of traits occurs independently.
(b) In F2, the phenotype ratio is 9:3:3:1. The genotype ratio is a very complex one.
(c) Genotype : It is the complete heritable genetic identity of an organism. It is the actual
set of alleles that are carried by the organism.
(d) When an allele affects the phenotype of an organism, then it is a dominant allele. It is
denoted by a capital letter. For example, ‘T’ to express tallness.
Ans. 7. In some animals temperature in which fertilised egg is incubated plays an important role
in determining sex of the new born. Example – turtles, lizards.
Genetically in human sex is determined by sperm. When an X bearing sperm fertilize egg
it will be a girl and when a Y bearing sperm fertilise an egg it will be a boy.
Ans. 8. Colour of hair, eye colour are inherited characters but weight of the body is an acquired
character.
Inherited traits Acquired traits
These are controlled by genes and are passed These are acquired by organisms in their
from generation to generations. life time.
These are genetic variations caused in These are somatic variations caused in
reproductive tissues. non-reproductive tissues.
Ans. 9. Homologous organs have similar basic structure and similar embryonic origin but they
perform different functions in different species. Examples – Forelimbs of bird, lizard, frog,
human.
Analogous organs are quite different in their basic structure and they do not have similar
embryonic origin but they perform same function in different species. Example – Wings of
insects and wings of birds.
Ans. 10. When Mendel crossed pure tall (TT) pea plants with pure dwarf (tt) pea plants, in
F1 generation he found that all pea plants were tall (Tt). There were no dwarf plants
produced in F1 generation. When he self-pollinated these F1 plants, in F2 generation he
obtained tall and dwarf plants in the ratio 3 : 1. Thus, as three-fourth of the plant in F2
generation are tall and one-fourth is dwarf so tall is a dominant trait whereas dwarf is a
recessive trait [which expressed itself only in homozygous condition]. The dwarf trait was

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 inherited in F1 generation but it does not get expressed, it remains suppressed in presence
of dominant trait (tall).

Ans. 11. Classification refers to arrangement of organisms into groups, sub-groups based on
their similarities and dissimilarities. The more similarities between the two organisms
are placed in one group and dissimilar organisms are put in separate groups. The more
similar characteristics between an organisms found that means they are more closely
related and might have a common ancestor. By identifying various characteristics we can
find out the evolutionary relationships among different organisms. Thus, classification of
organisms reflects their evolutionary relationships.
Ans. 12. Absence of tail in mouse after surgical removal and low weight of a starving beetle
cannot be passed on to the progeny as they are acquired traits and they do not cause
any change in the DNA of germ cells. These changes occur in somatic tissues hence are
not transmitted to their progeny. Whereas a rudimentary eye of Planaria is controlled
by specific genes present in germ cells which can be transmitted from generation to
generation.
Ans. 13. Fossils are the impressions or remains of the dead organisms which are found in our
remote past. They help in determining the evolutionary relationships among organisms.
For example – Archaeopteryx, a fossil bird has some features similar to birds and some
to reptiles which prove that birds might have evolved from reptiles. The fossils which are
found in deeper layers of the surface of the earth are more ancient organisms as compared
to the ones found on the upper layers.
The two ways of determining the age of fossils are :
(a) By dating : Where isotope of carbon (C—14) , uranium, potassium or argon is used to
determine the age of fossils.
(b) Relative method : The fossils which are found closer to earth’s surface are more recent
as compared to fossils which are found in deeper layers.
Ans. 14. The basic features of the mechanism of inheritance are :
(i) Traits are controlled by genes.
(ii) Genes are present on chromosomes.
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 (iii) Each gene controls one character.
(iv) There may be two or more forms of a gene.
(v) One form may be dominant over the other.
(vi) An individual possesses two forms of genes which may be similar or dissimilar.
(vii) The two forms of gene separate at the time of gamete formation.
(viii) The two forms of gene are brought together in a zygote after fertilization.
Ans. 15.

Gametes ®
RY Ry rY ry
¯
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
Round-yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow, wrinkled-green in the ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 are
produced in F2 generations.
New characters round-green and wrinkled-yellow are produced because when pure
round-yellow pea plants are crossed with pure wrinkled-green pea plants the inheritance
of one pair of character is independent of other pair i.e., the inheritance of character of
round seed is not linked with yellow seed or the inheritance of wrinkled seed is not
linked with green seed. The contrasting traits segregate and inherits independently and
results in formation of new combination of characters.
Ans. 16. (a)   The modern name of these factors is genes.
(b)   The findings of Mendel are known as Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Mendel derived three laws from his experiment :
Law of dominance : It states that out of a pair of contrasting characters present together,
only one expresses which is called dominant character and the other which remains
suppressed and unexpressed is called recessive character.
Law of segregation : During formation of gamete the two members of a pair of factors
separate. These factors get separate into different gametes.
Law of independent assortment : When there are two pairs of contrasting characters,
the distribution of the members of one pair into the gametes is independent of the
distribution of the other pair.

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 (c) Genetics is the branch of biology that deals with the study of heredity and variations.
Ans. 17. A mice whose tail has been removed by surgery does not produce tailless mice because
tailless character is not present in germ cells of mice so, it is an acquired character which
cannot be passed onto the next generation.
Ans. 18. (a) The pea plant which Mendel choose for conducting experiments, is most ideal for
controlled breeding, since it can easily be subjected to cross pollination. He identified
very clear contrasting characters in the pea plants. Thus, both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (d) Mutation is the natural and permanent change, causing changes in the DNA sequence
in any living organisms. These changes the genetic make-up of an individual which
cannot be accounted for the normal processes. Mutations are confined to a single gene
and are known as gene mutations. Thus, both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 20. (a) The process by which the sex of a newborn organism is detected is called sex
determination.
(b) The males have two sex chromosomes which are X and Y.
(c) The sex chromosomes in the females are X and X.
(d) Yes, the father is solely responsible for the sex of the child because the mother gives
only the X chromosome to the child. It is the father that gives either the X or Y
chromosome to the child. In case, the child receives the X chromosome from the father,
then it has XX chromosome, and it develops into a female child. However, if the father
gives Y chromosome, then the child develops into a male as it gets XY chromosome.
Ans. 21. (i) (c)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (c)
(iv) (d)

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 Answers Worksheet - 11
Chapter - 4 [Heredity and Evolution]

Ans. 1. (a)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (a)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. The factors that could lead to the rise of a new species are genetic variations, genetic drift,
reproductive isolation and natural selection.
Ans. 6. Decrease in weight of a tiger due to starvation will not cause a change in the DNA of germ
cells as this is an example of acquired trait. Hence, the progeny tigers will not have low
weight.
Ans. 7. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes present in human beings. One pair is sex chromosome.
They are XX and XY. So, there are two types of sex chromosomes.
Ans. 8. Analogous organs are quite different in their basic structure and they do not have similar
embryonic origin but they perform same function in different species. Example – wings
of insects and wings of birds. Both are used in flying but they are quite different in their
structure, they have different ancestors too. This indicates that birds and insects are not
closely related and the study of analogous organs reveals differences in their ancestry and
they support theory of organic evolution.
Ans. 9. (a) No, it is not correct for the insurance company to deny medical insurance to Satyam
as denial of insurance will put Satyam and his family under high pressure both
financially and mentally. Genetic test reveals that he is under high risk of getting
heart disease so he can take precautions by taking medicines to prevent this disease.
So insurance company should provide him insurance for this.
(b) No, tests for genetic diseases should not be banned instead it is a great boon for
people to save their lives.
(c) Government should enforce laws to keep genetic tests report confidential without
disclosing them to others. No people should be discriminated based on genetic
diseases in office, schools, institution or any work places. Insurance company should
provide insurance for all genetic diseases.
Ans. 10. (a) Mendel choose garden pea (Pisum sativum) for his hybridization experiment because :
(i) Many varieties of pea plants in pure form were available.
(ii) They are normally self-pollinated.
(iii) It is an annual plant i.e., it has a short life cycle.
(iv) It has easily detectable contrasting features.
(b) The two contrasting visible characters of garden pea are :
(i) Height of plant – Tall or dwarf (ii) Colour of seed – Yellow or green

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Ans. 11. In human beings, there are two types of sex chromosome
X and Y; female have XX chromosome whereas male
have XY chromosome. Females produce eggs which
carry only X chromosomes but males contain half
of the sperms with X chromosomes and other half
with Y chromosomes. During fertilization when X
carrying sperms fuse with an egg which contains X
chromosome the offspring will be a female (XX). But
when Y bearing sperms fuses with an egg (X) the
offspring will be male (XY). Thus, the sex of a child
is determined by the type of sex chromosome X or Y
received by the male gamete.
Ans. 12. Females have only one type of sex chromosomes i.e., X chromosome but a male has two
types of sex chromosomes X and Y chromosomes. So, a woman will produce eggs having
X chromosomes only but a man will produce 50% sperms carrying X chromosomes and
rest 50% sperms carrying Y chromosomes. So, the sex of a child is determined whether
X or Y containing sperm fertilize X containing egg. In this case every time X containing
sperm fertilize an egg so the woman has only four daughters and no son.
Ans. 13. Due to recombination and crossing over in meiosis process during formation of gametes
as well as during sexual reproduction the mixing up of male with female gametes
produce some variations in the offsprings. These variations are necessary for survival of a
particular species to the changing environment. If there would be no variations then there
will be less chance of a particular species to get adapted to the changed environment and
with course of time that particular species may extinct. Variations also lead to evolution of
the species. Thus, it is said that variation is beneficial to the species
Ans. 14. Blood group A can be represented as IAIA or IA IO which is the father’s blood group. Blood
group AB can be represented as IA IB, which is mother’s blood group. So, the possible
blood group of their children can be A, AB or B.
This can be explained from the Punnett square given below :
1. Or 2.

Children can have blood group A, AB. Children can have blood group A, AB or B.

So, children can have A, AB or B blood groups.
Ans. 15. When Mendel crossed pure tall (TT) pea plants with pure dwarf (tt) pea plants, in
F1 generation he found that all pea plants were tall (Tt). There were no dwarf plants
produced in F1 generation. When he self-pollinated these F1 plants, in F2 generation he
obtained tall and dwarf plants in the ratio 3 : 1. Thus, as three-fourth of the plant in F2
generation are tall and one-fourth is dwarf so tall is a dominant trait whereas dwarf is a
recessive trait [ which is expressed itself only in homozygous condition].

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Ans. 16. (a) When Mendel crossed pure tall pea plants with pure dwarf pea plants in F1 generation
only tall plants were produced. When these F1 plants were self-pollinated in F2 generation
both tall and dwarf plants were produced in the ratio of 3 : 1. In F1 generation only tall
plants were found so it showed that tall is a dominant character. In F2 generation dwarf
plants appeared which shows that dwarf is a recessive trait which express only in
recessive condition.

Parental generation plant ® Pure tall plant × Pure dwarf plant
TT tt
Gametes ® T t
F1 generation ® Tt (Tall)

Tt × Tt
Gametes ® T, t T, t
F2 generation ® TT(tall), Tt(tall), Tt (tall), tt (dwarf )

(b) When Mendel crossed pure pea plants with round and yellow seeds with pure plants
with wrinkled and green seeds, in F1 generation all pea plants with round and yellow
seeds were produced. This shows that round and yellow are dominant characters
whereas green and wrinkled are recessive characters. Again when these F1 plants were
crossed, round and yellow pea plants as well as green and wrinkled seeds pea plants
were produced. But in addition to these two new characters were produced i.e., round
and green and wrinkled and yellow seeds pea plants were produced.
This shows that two pair of characters combine in F1 generation but they get separated
and behave independently in F2 generation.

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 Gametes ®
RY Ry rY ry
¯
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
Round-yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow, wrinkled-green – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Ans. 17. A brother and sister are more closely related to each other which means that they have
common ancestors more recently as compared to the case when any one of them (brother
or sister) is related to the cousin. A brother and sister have their "parents" in common
while a brother or sister and cousin have "grandparents" in common.
Ans. 18. (a) Acquired traits are not inherited because they do not cause any change in the DNA
of the organism. Therefore, low weight is not a trait that can be inherited by the
progeny of a starving beetle. Therefore, even if some generations of beetles are low in
weight because of starvation, that is not an example of evolution, since the change is
not inherited over generations. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (d) The plants are self-pollinating, which means that the pollen grains are transferred
from the anther of one flower to the stigma of the same flower or of another flower
of the same plant, so geographical isolation cannot prevent speciation in this case.
Geographical isolation prevents gene flow between populations of a species. Thus,
both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 20. (a) Traits of organisms can pass from the parents to their offspring, and this mechanism is
known as inheritance.
(b) Gregor Johann Mendel was a monk, and he discovered three laws that describe the
inheritance of factors from parents to offsprings.
(c) The paternal DNA is defined as the DNA that is received from the father while the
DNA that is received by the mother is called the maternal DNA.
(d) Gregor Johann Mendel discovered that the dihybrid cross yields a phenotypic ratio of
9:3:3:1.
Ans. 21. (i) (a) 
(ii) (a)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (c)

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 Answers Worksheet - 12
Chapter - 4 [Heredity and Evolution]
Ans. 1. (a)
Ans. 2. (b)
Ans. 3. (a)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. In F1 progeny it will lead to production of pea plants with violet flowers as the trait violet
colour flowers are dominant over white colour flowers in pea plants.
Ans. 6. By selecting very short distances between leaves of wild cabbage, cabbage can be bred.
By selecting sterile flowers, cauliflower can be bred.
Ans. 7. (a) It depicts monohybrid cross.
(b) In F1 generation all pea plants with yellow seeds will be produced whereas in F2
generation pea plants with yellow and green seeds in the ratio 3 : 1 will be produced.
(c)

Ans. 8. Yes, geographical isolation of individuals of a species leads to formation of new species,
because geographical isolation gradually leads to genetic drift. Geographical isolation of
two individuals of a species over several generations leads to reproductive isolation. The
separated individuals will reproduce among themselves and generate new variations.
These differences accumulate over several generations and ultimately lead to formation of
two new species.
Ans. 9. Law of independent assortment governs this expression which states that inheritance
of factors controlling a particular trait in an organism are independent of each other
i.e., during the time of reproduction two pairs of factors of each of the two traits in a
dihybrid cross segregate independently during gamete formation and randomly formed
combinations in F2 generations.
Ans. 10. (i) No, the structure of the eye in each of the organisms is different. They have a separate
evolutionary origin. Planaria have very simple eyes, they are just eye-spots to detect
light. More complex eyes later evolved in different organisms like insects, octopus
and vertebrates. They are created in stages over several generations. These are

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 analogous organs i.e., they perform same function but they are completely different
in structures. Thus, we can say that structure of eyes in each of these organisms is
different suggesting a separate evolutionary origin.
(ii) Archaeopteryx a fossil bird represents a stage midway between the reptiles and
birds. It had many birds like features like presence of feathers, fused bones, beak,
etc. It had also many reptiles like features like teeth in jaws, long tail, claws on free
fingers etc. This example provides a clue that birds have evolved from reptiles. Birds
have feathers which were also seen in ancient reptiles like dinosaurs. Dinosaurs had
feathers but they were not used for flying. But later on in birds feathers were used
for flying. This evidence also proves that birds are very closely related to reptiles and
have evolved from them.
Ans. 11. (a) The trait which gets expressed in F1 generation is called dominant trait. It gets
expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition. The trait which remains
suppressed in F1 generation, which cannot express itself in presence of dominant
trait is called recessive trait and it gets expressed only when present in homozygous
condition.
(b) Genes are a specific sequence on chromosome which encodes a particular protein
which express in form of a particular trait in the body. Each gene has two alternative
forms for a particular character. These alternative forms are called alleles, one
is dominant allele and other is recessive allele. For example – Height of a plant,
which depends on the amount of hormones synthesized. The amount of hormones
synthesized depends upon the efficiency of the process for making it. If the protein
needed for this process is synthesized and works efficiently, plant would be tall. On
the other hand if the gene is altered, the protein synthesized will be less efficient and
hence hormones produced would be less and plant would be dwarf.
Ans. 12. (a) Natural selection : As green beetles would be camouflaged in green bushes and
cannot be seen by crows so they cannot be eaten by crows.
(b) Genetic drift : As red beetles gets trampled by elephants and this is due to an
accident and by chance blue beetles get survived so the population of blue beetles
increases.
(c) Law of Dominance : As tall is dominant over dwarf trait so in F1 generation tall
character will be expressed as recessive trait gets expressed only in homozygous
condition.
(d) Acquired traits cannot be inherited : The changes that occur in somatic cells cannot
be passed from one generation to another only those changes that occur in germ cells
can be passed through generations.
(e) Gene flow leading to variations in species : As a new gene enters a population it
will lead to some variations in new species.
Ans. 13. Speciation is the process of origin of a new species from existing ones due to different
types of variations that gets accumulated in the individual.
Some of the factors which influence speciation are :
(a) Geographical isolation : Geographical isolation of two populations of same species
over several generations leads to reproductive isolation. Reproductive isolation is the
mechanism which checks the populations of two different groups from interbreeding.
Some variations will occur in these two populations and they cannot interbreed with each
other. These variations will get accumulated in them over several generations and will
result in two different species.
(b) Genetic drift : Sometimes due to accidents the frequency of some genes in a population
gets altered. For example—some genes of certain traits gets eliminated when a section

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 of a population of some species dies due to natural calamity or they migrate to another
region. So, the gene frequency of remaining population altered leading to speciation. This
phenomenon is called genetic drift.
(c) Variations : Due to variations among the populations of a species interbreeding may not
occur and it will lead to formation of two new and different species.
(d) Natural selection : It is a phenomenon wherein nature in the wild selects traits favourable
to the species in its environment. During struggle for food, space and mate among
organisms only those organisms with favourable variations survive while the others die.
These variations pass to subsequent generation and lead to speciation.
Ans. 14. In asexual reproduction only single parent is involved so the individuals produced
asexually are very much similar or identical to each other. A little variation may occur
due to small inaccuracies at the time of DNA copying. But in sexual reproduction both
parents are involved so there is more chance of variations as offsprings receive half of the
chromosomes from father and other half from mother leading to genetic recombination.
These variations get accumulated and are passed through several generations. These
variations may lead to evolution of new species. Thus, sexual reproduction gives rise to
more viable variations than asexual reproduction and also affects the evolution.
Ans. 15. Yes, we agree with this statement that only variations that confer an advantage to an
individual organism will survive in a population because those variations which occur
in an individual that favours the organism to get adapt to the environment will be able
to survive otherwise it may not. The chances of survival depend upon the nature of
variations. Different individuals would have different kinds of advantages. For example
– A bacteria which can withstand heat will be able to survive in hot springs otherwise it
will die. Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis for evolutionary
process.
Ans. 16. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes of the living organisms from the earlier
simpler forms of life over millions of years resulting in the formation of new species.
Darwin’s theory of evolution : Charles Darwin is considered as “Father of Evolution”. He
gave his “Theory of Natural selection” in his book “Origin of species”.
The main features of “Theory of Natural selection” are :
(a) Overproduction : Every organism has enormous potential to give rise to its offsprings.
(b) Limited food and space : Food and space becomes limited when compared to high rate of
population growth.
(c) Struggle for existence : Competition among organisms started for food, space and mate.
(d) Variations : Due to struggle for existence those organisms which possess some variations
that help them in adapting to the environment are the fit organisms and they survive.
(e) Survival of the fittest : Variations in the fit organisms favour them to survive while the
others could not.
(f) Formation of new species : Those organisms which survive they continue to live and give
rise to their progeny thus formed a new species.
Ans. 17. Change in non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells,
these are acquired traits. Therefore, the experiences of an individual during its lifetime
cannot be passed on to its progeny and cannot direct evolution.
Ans. 18. (d) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bat cannot be considered as homologous organs
because wings of a bat are skin folds in between the fingers and wings of an insect
are membrane supported by muscles. They are analogous organs which have different
basic structure but have similar appearance and perform similar functions. Thus, both
assertion and reason are false.

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Ans. 19. (a) Analogous organs are one such evidence that is used to determine how close two
species are related. The presence of feathers in dinosaurs and birds indicates that
they are evolutionary related. Dinosaurs had feathers not for flying, but instead these
feathers provided insulation to these warm-blooded animals. However, the feathers in
birds are used for flight. This proves that reptiles and birds are closely related and that
the evolution of wings started in reptiles. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) According to the law of dominance, the parent contains two alleles, out of which one
is the dominant allele while the other is the recessive allele.
(b) The allele that expresses itself and reduces the expression of other alleles is termed as
the dominant allele.
(c) The set of the morphological characteristics of an organism that are resulted from the
interactions of the genes is known as the phenotype of the individual. For example, in
pea plants, tallness is a phenotypic trait.
(d) The set of the alleles in DNA that carries the information for the expression of a trait
in an individual is known as its genotype. For example, genotype ‘TT’ expresses the
tallness in plants.
Ans. 21. (i) (b)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (a)
(v) (c)
(vi) (a)

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 Check Point - 2

Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (a)
Ans. 4. (b)
Ans. 5. (a) Genetics
(b) Heredity
Ans. 6. (a) Parturition
(b) Oviducts/Fallopian tubes
Ans. 7. (a) Anthers (b) Ovary (c) Ovules (d) Pollens
Ans. 8. No, this information is not enough to find out which blood group is dominant. Blood
group A can be represented as IAIA or IA IO which is the father’s blood group. Blood group
O is represented as IOIO which is the mother’s blood group. The blood group of daughter
is also O which might be inherited from her mother or father so it is difficult to assume
which blood group is dominant.
Ans. 9. No, geographical isolation will not be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating
plant species as self-pollination occurs within the same plant hence there is very little
chance of entry of a new gene which may cause variations in the species.
Ans. 10. During DNA replication two identical replicas of DNA are produced from the original
DNA but sometimes during replication there are changes in base sequences due to
mutation or due to minor changes in DNA replication. Thus, at times newly formed DNA
copies may not be identical.
Ans. 11. Complex organisms have highly well developed tissue and organ system to perform a
particular function. There is division of labour in the body of complex organisms. Their
body is highly complicated and the tissue and organ system are highly differentiated and
are made up of different kinds of cells. So, it is very difficult for complex organisms to
give rise to new individuals through regeneration, which is seen in simple organisms like
Hydra, Planaria etc.
Ans. 12. (a) The two bacterial diseases that are caused due to unprotected sex are gonorrhea and
syphilis.
(b) The pill helps in preventing pregnancy as it prevents the release of the ovum, by
changing the hormonal balance.
(c) Vasectomy is the surgical process by which the vas deferens is cut. This prevents the
sperms from reaching the ejaculatory duct.
(d) The common side-effects of using contraceptive pills are irritation, nausea and mood
swings.
Ans. 13. Evolution lead to change in the body designs from simple to complex. Here bacteria
have simple body design and chimpanzee the most complex body design. There is

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 development of more and more complex designs but we cannot rule out the simple
organisms like bacteria which still persist in this environment. Instead we can say though
the bacteria have simple body design but they are found in extreme environmental
conditions like in hot springs, ice of Antarctica, deep oceans etc. We cannot say that
simple body design organisms are inefficient. Thus, we can say among bacteria, spiders,
fish and chimpanzees, all have a specific body design as they have a great capacity to get
adjusted to the environment in which it lives.
Ans. 14. (a) Green colour (b) 25% (c) 1 : 2 : 1

Ans. 15. (a) The figure indicates fertilization process in flowering plant.
(b) A – Pollen grains, B – Stigma, C – Male gametes, D – Style, E – Pollen tube, F – Ovule,
G – Ovary, H – Embryo sac.
(c) Stigma is the part of carpel which receives pollen grains during pollination.
Pollen tube contains the male gamete which passes through the style and finally reaches
the ovary. It carries the male gametes towards female gametes for fertilization.
Ans. 16. (a) Common name is bread mould and scientific name is Rhizopus stolonifer.
(b) Spores of Rhizopus are present in air and when they landed on suitable substratum
like moist slice of bread, under favourable conditions like availability of suitable
temperature, moisture, nutrients the spores germinates to produce new individuals.
(c) Fine thread like projections are called hyphae and bulb like structures are called
sporangia.
(d) It is called reproduction by spore formation and bacteria reproduce by this method.
(e) Sporangia contain spores in them which are responsible for reproduction.
Ans. 17. Blood group AB has two alleles A and B in the people of all communities.
Ans. 18. (d) Mutation is the natural and permanent change, causing changes in the DNA sequence
in any living organisms. These changes the genetic make-up of an individual which
cannot be accounted for by the normal processes. Mutations are confined to a single
gene and are known as gene mutations. Thus, both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 19. (b) Smaller Y chromosome, does not decide the gender of the child. Its presence is
important not the size. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) There are a number of diseases that are caused by sexual intercourses. These diseases
are called STDs “Sexually transmitted disease”.

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 (b) The full form of HIV is the human Immuno Deficiency virus, and the full form of
AIDS is Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
(c) The syphilis is a bacterial infection as it is caused by a bacteria named Treponema
pallidum.
(d) No, trichomoniasis is not a bacterial infection as it is caused by a protozoan named
Trichomoniasis vaginalis.
Ans. 21. (i) (d)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (c)
(v) (b)
Ans. 22. (i) (c)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (a)
(v) (a)

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 Answers Worksheet - 13
Chapter — 5 [Our Environment]
Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (d)
Ans. 3. (b)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. Ozone layer present in stratosphere absorbs harmful UV rays from sun thus prevents its
penetration to the surface of earth.
Ans. 6. Use of airconditioners, refrigerators etc., which contain CFCs, when released into
atmosphere leads to depletion of ozone layer.
Ans. 7. According to 10% law if 100 J of energy is available to lion so,
10% of x = 100 J
So x = 1000 J
So energy available to deer is 1000 J
10% of y = 1000 J
y = 10,000 J

1% of z = 10,000 J
z = 10,00,000 J
Hence, energy available to producers i.e., plants in this food chain is 10,00,000 J.
Ans. 8. We can help in reducing the problem of waste disposal by following two methods :
(a) We should try to reuse materials so that we can minimize the production of wastes and
also its disposal.
(b) We should try to separate biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes and dispose
them separately, as biodegradable wastes can be converted into compost and can be
used as manure in agricultural fields or kitchen gardens. Non-biodegradable wastes
can be recycled in recycling units.
Ans. 9.
Food chain Food web
The sequential interlinking of organisms It is a network of food chains interlinking
where energy in form of food is transferred many organisms at different trophic levels
from the producers through a series of which eat or being eaten and thus formed a
consumers is a food chain. number of feeding connections.
A food chain shows one path how energy A food web shows many paths i.e., it is a
in form of food flows from producers to network of food chains where an organism
consumers. eat several types of organisms or eaten by
many different organisms.
Ans. 10. Ozone layer is present in stratosphere which prevents harmful UV rays of sun from
entering the surface of earth. So, damage to this layer will cause a serious effect on human
body. UV rays can cause skin cancer, genetic mutation, cataract of eyes etc.
Two steps to limit this damage are :
(a) We should restrict the use of CFCs which is the main cause of depletion of ozone layer. It
is used in ACs, refrigerators, aerosol sprays. Instead we should use some other substances

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 like HFC instead of CFCs in these equipments. Alternate technology will be developed to
replace the use of CFCs.
(b) Limited use of supersonic planes and control over large scale nuclear explosions.
Ans. 11.
Biodegradable substances Non-biodegradable substances
These substances are easily degradable in These substances are not degraded in
nature by the action of microbes like bacteria nature by the action of microbes.
and fungi.
These substances remain for a short period They persist for longer period of time in
of time in environment. the environment.
Examples : Peels of vegetables, fruits, paper Examples : Plastic, metals, glass objects etc.
etc.
Ans. 12. (a) The effluents of industries containing non-biodegradable wastes get mixed with water
bodies. These non-biodegradable toxic wastes get accumulated in the body of fishes
and when people consumed these fishes they fall ill.
(b) Effluents should be properly treated before letting them into water bodies.
(c) This phenomenon is called biomagnification.
Ans. 13. (a) (i) If all rats will be removed from the food chain the amount of grass will increase
and the amount of snakes will decrease as they will not get their food and will die
of starvation. Similarly, the population of hawk will also be affected as they will
not get their food i.e., snakes.
(ii) If all snakes are removed then hawks will not get their food and will die of
starvation. The number of rat population will also increase.
(b) (i) Grass will transfer the maximum amount of energy.
(ii) Hawk will receive the minimum amount of energy.
(c)

Ans. 14. The energy from sun flows through

various trophic levels. The food
and energy are transferred from
producers to herbivores and from
herbivores to carnivores, through
the food chain.
First Step : The green plants trap
solar energy with the help of green
pigment called chlorophyll which
converts the sunlight energy into
chemical energy. This gets stored as
carbohydrates in the plants. About
1% of the sun's energy falling on

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 the leaves is used by the plants in the process of photosynthesis and stored as chemical
energy of food. The plants utilize the stored energy for their metabolic activities like
respiration and growth. Some of the energy is not utilised and it is released as unusable
heat into the environment.
Second Step : The plants are eaten up by herbivores and the chemical energy of plants is
transferred to them. The herbivores utilize this energy for various metabolic activities and
release unused energy as heat energy to the environment.
Third Step : The herbivores are eaten up by carnivores. The chemical energy stored in the
flesh of herbivores is transferred to the carnivores and they utilise this energy for their
metabolic activities like respiration and growth and some of the energy which remains
unutilised, is released into the environment. This process of transfer of energy is repeated
with large carnivores and so on.
Ans. 15. (a) Decomposers are the microbes that act upon dead and decaying organisms to convert
them into simpler forms. These simple substances get mixed up in the soil and are
used as nutrients by the producers. From producers it goes to consumers and so on.
Thus, there is recycle of matter which is done by decomposers that maintain balance
in the ecosystem.
Dead plants and animals will get accumulated in the ecosystem as there would be no
decomposers to decompose them. But in absence of decomposers this whole process
would not occur and the dead organisms will get accumulated in the ecosystem
causing pollution. Thus, the existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere.
(b) The flow of energy in an ecosystem is as follows :
Producers ® Primary consumers ® Secondary consumers ® Tertiary consumers
® Quaternary consumers.
The flow of energy is from one trophic level to the next at the rate of 10% according
to Lindeman Ten percent law. So, at each trophic level the energy goes on decreasing.
So, it is impossible to revert back. The energy captured by the producers cannot be
reverted back to the sun. Similarly, the energy obtained by primary consumers cannot
come back to producers and so on. Primary consumers will eat producers but the
reverse cannot be possible. Due to these above reasons the flow of energy in a food
chain is unidirectional.
Ans. 16. (a) (i) Use of disposable items like paper plates, plastic cups in parties.
(ii) Use of various coloured polythenes for gift wrappings.
Instead of polyethene we can use coloured papers for gift wrapping. We can reuse them
to reduce waste.
(b) Grass ® Insect ® Frog ® Snake ® Hawk
Hawk will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals as it is placed
at the top of the food chain. This process is called biomagnification.
(c) The concentration of chemicals goes on increasing at different trophic levels. It is
maximum at higher trophic levels since human beings occupy the top level in a
food chain so there is maximum concentration of toxic substances in our body i.e.,
biomagnification level is maximum and according to 10% law very less amount of
energy is available to humans.
Ans. 17. The fish would need a free space for swimming, water, oxygen and food. Thus, she need a
good aquarium tank, oxygen can be provided through an oxygen pump (aerator) and fish
food is available in the market.
Water parameters for nitrate, nitrite, ammonia and pH levels are to be maintained. To
condition water properly, use a de-chlorinating and biological aquarium supplement. It is
recommended to change 25 percent of the aquarium water at least once a month. This will

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 help maintain a clean and healthy tank, plus it keeps nitrate concentrations at a safe level.
Overcrowding can lead to low oxygen levels in the water. Another crisis of overcrowding
includes excess waste, which clogs the filter and degrades the aquarium water.
Ans. 18. (a) Biomagnification is the increase in concentration of toxins up the food chain.
Chemicals and toxins accumulate more and more as we move up the food chain
because they do not get broken down in the body. Anything that gets into biological
tissue, that is not normally there, has the potential to accumulate and magnify as it
moves up the food chain. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (c) The energy available at each trophic level gets diminished progressively due to loss of
energy at each level. Thus, assertion is true but reason is false.
Ans. 20. (a) Ozone layer is found in stratosphere.
(b) Ozone layer prevents the harmful UV rays of sun from entering earth‘s surface.
(c) Various ozone depleting substances like CFCs cause a great damage to ozone layer.
(d) The harmful UV rays from sun can easily pass through this layer and cause various
genetic disorders, mutations, cancer, eye diseases etc., in humans. UV rays also affect
plants and animals.
Ans. 21. (i) (a)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (a)
(v) (b)

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 Answers Worksheet - 14
Chapter - 5 [Our Environment]
Ans. 1. (c)
Ans. 2. (a)
Ans. 3. (d)
Ans. 4. (d)
Ans. 5. Phytoplanktons ® Zooplanktons ® Small fish ® Large fish
Ans. 6. (a) Global warming (b) Food Chain
Ans. 7. (i) Photo-dissociation of ozone and generation of ozone are the two reactions which are in
equilibrium thereby maintaining steady concentration of ozone in the ozonosphere.
(ii) Ultraviolet radiations from sun are being absorbed by the ozone for the occurrence of
above two reactions.
Ans. 8. Kulhads are made from the top fertile layer of soil. Use of this soil to make kulhads on a
large scale would lead to loss of fertile top soil. This fertile top soil is of great use for the
growth of plants as it contains many useful nutrients. Hence, kulhads have been banned
for serving tea on platforms. Nowadays disposable paper cups are used in trains and
platforms.
Ans. 9. Plastic bags are non-biodegradable wastes. When burnt they release very poisonous gases
which have serious effects on our body. Plastic bags block drainage system leading to
overflow of drainage. When buried in soil, the fertility of soil is reduced. So, the uses of
plastic bags are banned in many places.
Instead of plastic bags we can use cloth bags, paper bags or jute bags for shopping.
Ans. 10. Ozone is damaging as it is a very poisonous gas. Its beneficial effect is that it acts as a
protective layer for the surface of earth by preventing harmful UV rays of the sun to reach
earth’s surface.
CFC is the main agent for depletion of ozone, by preventing the use of CFCs we can
protect the ozone layer from being damaged.
Ans. 11. The characteristics of energy transfer in biosphere are :
(a) The ultimate source of energy is sun and is converted from one form to another.
(b) Energy gets continuously transferred through food chain and energy flow is
unidirectional.
(c) There is loss of some energy during transfer from one trophic level to the next.
(d) Only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. The solar energy
trapped by producers does not revert back to the sun.
(e) At each trophic level, some of the energy is utilized by organisms, rest is lost to
environment and only 10% is available to the next trophic level.
Ans. 12. An energy pyramid is a graphical representation of the flow of energy from the
producers through the various consumers. It shows the amount of energy available and
the loss of useful energy at each step of the food chain in an ecosystem. As the energy

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 gets transferred from lower trophic level to the higher one, there is a loss of large amount
of energy due to metabolism and as heat. As a result very little energy (i.e., 10%) gets
transferred to the next level. So, the trophic level at the base has maximum energy and
that at the top has the least amount of energy. Hence energy pyramid is broader at the
base and narrower at the top.
Ans. 13. Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level will be different for
different trophic levels. For example – If all producers will be removed then all herbivores
will die of starvation. The various categories of carnivores which depend on herbivores
for food will also be affected. Similarly, if we will remove all organisms of higher trophic
level the numbers of organisms in lower trophic level will increases thus creating
imbalance in an ecosystem. So, if organisms of any trophic level would be removed it will
cause damage to the ecosystem.
Ans. 14. (i) (a) The two ways in which biodegradable substances would affect the environment
are :
1. Decomposition of biodegradable substances results in production of foul smell.
2. The area where biodegradable wastes are accumulated serves as a good breeding
place for mosquitoes, flies etc., which are the main carriers of germs for diseases
like cholera, jaundice, typhoid etc.
(b) The two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the
environment are :
(i) Non-biodegradable substances like pesticides [DDT] enter the food chain and
leads to biomagnification.
(ii) 
As non-biodegradable substances cannot be degraded naturally so they
accumulate in the soil causing pollution and also reduces the fertility of the
soil.
(ii) Green plants are the producers which prepare their own food by utilizing solar energy
from inorganic sources and all other living organisms depends on them for food.
Herbivores and carnivores depend upon green plants either directly or indirectly for
food. Hence, the first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant.
Ans. 15. (i) In second case hawks will get more energy as food. If energy available at the
producer level in both the food chains is 100 J then in first case according to 10% law
mice will get 10 J which is 10% of 100 J, snakes will get 1 J and Hawks will get 0.1 J.
In second case mice will get 10 J and hawks will get 1 J according to 10% law. So, in
first case hawks will get 0.1 J and in second case hawks will get 1 J of energy as food.
(ii) Vegeterians obtain food directly from plants. While non-vegetarians get food from
animals which feed upon plants. As a result animals which are herbivores get 10% of
energy from plants suppose 100 J according to 10% rule. When non-vegetarians feed
upon these animals they get only 10 J which is 10% of 100 J. But vegetarians which
feed directly on plants get 100 J hence vegetarians are at an advantageous position
and get more energy than non-vegetarians.
Ans. 16. The wastes which are generated in our house daily are :
(a) Peels of vegetables and fruits
(b) Old and used newspaper
(c) Old plastics apparatus, broken glass apparatus
(d) Plastic and polythene bags

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 (e) Wastes from kitchen like left over foods, broken plates, cups etc.
(f) Old clothes, toys, utensils
Measures that should be taken for their disposal are :
(a) Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances should be separated and disposed
separately.
(b) Kitchen wastes can be used to make compost.
(c) Old clothes, toys, utensils etc., can be reused by giving to poor and needy people.
(d) Plastic, polythene and glass apparatus can be recycled by using proper recycling
techniques.
(e) Old and used newspaper can also be recycled.
(f) Safe disposal of plastic and polythene bags.
Ans. 17. (a) The flow of energy is unidirectional. The energy that is captured by the autotrophs
does not revert back to the solar input and the energy which passes to the herbivores
does not come back to autotrophs. As it moves progressively through the various
trophic levels it is no longer available to the previous level. Moreover, the energy
available at each trophic level gets diminished progressively due to loss of energy
at each level. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Substances which cannot be decomposed by the action of microorganisms are known
as non-biodegradable.
Micro-organisms release enzymes which decompose the materials but these enzymes
are specific in their action that's why enzymes cannot decompose all the materials.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
Ans. 19.
S. No. Nature of Producers Consumers Consumers Consumers
food Chain
1. Forests Trees, shrubs Deer Tiger Man
2. Grasslands Grass Grasshopper/Frog Snake Vulture
3. Pond Decay plants Worms Fish Eagle
Ans. 20. (i) (a)
(ii) (b)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (d)
(v) (d)

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 Answers Worksheet - 15
Chapter – 6 [Sustainable Management of
Natural Resources]
Ans. 1. (a)
Ans. 2. (b)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (c)
Ans. 5. Two sources are burning of fossil fuels and exhausts from automobiles. Both produce
carbon dioxide gas which is a major greenhouse gas.
Ans. 6. The presence of coliform bacteria in water and BOD value can be used to find whether
river water has been contaminated.
Ans. 7. Scientific conservation of soil and water to increase biomass production is called
watershed management.
Advantages of watershed management are :
(i) It enhances the life of downstream dam and reservoirs.
(ii) It minimizes the risk of droughts, landslides and floods.
Ans. 8. Since coal and petroleum are available in our environment which is exploited to meet
human requirements and are formed by natural process from dead remains of plants
and animals so they are called natural resources. Coal and petroleum are formed from
degradation of dead remains of plant and animals and it is a very slow process. It takes
millions of years to be formed. Their reserves are also limited. But with increasing
demand and consumption of these fossil fuels i.e., coal and petroleum it cannot be
replenished so fast and hence will get exhausted. So, we need to use them judiciously and
conserve them.
Ans. 9. There should be equitable distribution of resources because everyone has equal rights
to use natural resources and get benefits from them. Everyone whether rich or poor has
equal rights to get benefits from natural resources. Geographical factors and economic
factors are the forces working against an equitable distribution of our resources. The
rich and powerful people take advantage and get more benefits by using resources as
compared to poor people. Over exploitation and mismanagement of resources also works
against equitable distribution of our resources.
Ans. 10. Forests are rich source of biodiversity. They maintain an ecological balance in nature.
Forests provide us various valuable products like honey, medicines, lac, gums, resins,
wood, prevent soil erosion and flood, brings rainfall, release oxygen to atmosphere which
is a life supporter. Forests are habitat of variety of living organisms. Loss of biodiversity
would lead to ecological imbalance so we need to conserve forests.
Two factors responsible for deforestation are :
(a) Large scale deforestation for demand of wood, timber as raw materials for industries,
domestic purposes etc.
(b) Construction of dams, reservoirs, roads, railways and setting up of factories and
industries.

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Ans. 11. (a) We can segregate biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes and dispose them in
separate dustbins.
(b) We can collect paper, plastics, metals, glass apparatus and recycle them to make new
products. By reusing things instead of throwing away.
(c) By closing the water taps and repairing leaky pipes and taps to save water.
(d) By switching off lights, fans, computer, television etc., when not needed.
(e) By using solar energy for cooking, heating water etc., instead of using fossil fuels.
(f) By planting more trees.
Ans. 12. Holy river Ganga is getting polluted due to :
(a) Effluents from industries and sewage from domestic uses.
(b) Immersion of ashes and throwing un-burnt corpses.
(c) Human activities like washing clothes, utensils, bathing.
(d) Disposal of garbage, sewage etc.
Its ill effects are water gets polluted, killed aquatic animals, become a source of many
water borne diseases, become unfit for human consumption.
Ganga Action Plan was implemented in 1986 to reduce the pollution load of river Ganga.
Water quality test should be done from time to time to check pH, BOD value, TDS value
and coliform count.
Namami Gange Programme is approved by the Union Government in June, 2014 to
accomplish effective abatement of pollution conservation and rejuvenation of River
Ganga. The National Mission for clean Ganga was set up in October, 2016.
Ans. 13. The problems which arise due to construction of big dams are :
(a) Social problems : Vast area of land get submerged under water so many people become
homeless. It also leads to unequal distribution of water. People close to the source will
get enough water for agriculture whereas those far from the source cannot get sufficient
water.
(b) Economic problems : It involves a huge expenditure and low benefits as compared to the
cost.
(c) Environmental problems : Large scale deforestation, loss of flora and fauna of that
particular area, displacement of large number of people living in that area etc.
Ans. 14. Three reasons are :
(a) We should manage our available resources carefully so that our future generations can
take benefits from them.
(b) Everyone of us can take benefits from them without any shortage.
(c) Some resources are non-renewable so we should use them wisely without leading to any
exhaustion of these resources.
Ans. 15. (a) The two advantages are :
(i) Recharging of wells increases the level of ground water.
(ii) The water can be stored in rainy season and we can use it when there are no rains
or when there is water scarcity.
(b) Advantages of conserving forests are:
(i) It supports life and purifies air by releasing oxygen by photosynthesis process.
(ii) It holds the soil and prevents soil erosion.
Advantages of conserving wildlife are :
(i) It balances ecology and biodiversity
(ii) It provides important things to sustain life like life saving drugs, ivory, musk,
leather etc.

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Ans. 16. (a) We can save water :
(i) By closing the water taps while brushing teeth, shaving, cleaning clothes etc., and
repairing leaky pipes and taps.
(ii) Harvesting and conserving water.
(iii) Stop polluting water and create awareness among people.
(iv) We can use waste water for gardening, cleaning vehicles etc.
(b) Underground water can be recharged by rain water harvesting. The technique to
capture and store rain water for future use by making special water harvesting
structures is called rain water harvesting. There are two ways of rainwater harvesting:
Surface run off where rain water that flows away from the surface can be collected
and used. Rooftop rainwater harvesting is the technique where rainwater from roof
tops of the buildings is collected through canals and drains the water to ground
reservoir. This stored water can be used in future.
Ans. 17. Reduce ¾® use less ¾® example ¾® save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights
and fans.
Recycle ¾® recycle materials to make required things ¾® example ¾® recycle the
products like plastic, paper, glass and metal.
Reuse ¾® use things again and again ¾® example ¾® Like the plastic bottles in which
you buy varius food-items like jam or pickle can be used for storing things in the kitchen.
Refuse ¾® Say No to things people offer ¾® example ¾® Say no to plastic carry bags.
Repurpose ¾® Use products for some other purpose ¾® Example ¾® Use cracked
crockery for feeding water to birds.
Ans. 18. (a) Reuse refers to the use of the same material again and again. In reuse of materials no
energy is consumed and the resources are saved. In recycling certain used materials
are converted into other useful materials. In recycling of materials, energy is
consumed and the resources may be wasted. Thus, both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Biodiversity hotspot means a place where large number of species are found. Forests
satisfy this criteria. In forest we can find variety of species of both flora and fauna.
The range of different life forms i.e., bacteria, fungi, ferns, flowering plants, variety of
animals likes insects, birds, reptiles, aves, mammals, etc., are all found in the forest.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
Ans. 20. (a) Column I represents biodegradable substances.
(b) Column II represents non-biodegradable substances.
(c) The main difference between biodgradable and non-biodegradable substances is that
biodegradable substances can be broken down into simpler forms by micro-organisms
but non-biodegradable substances cannot.
(d) Metallic products are also non-biodegradable.

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 Answers Worksheet - 16
Chapter – 6 [Sustainable Management of
Natural Resources]
Ans. 1. (b)
Ans. 2. (b)
Ans. 3. (c)
Ans. 4. (a)
Ans. 5. Amrita Devi Bishnoi is most remembered for the protection of Khejri trees in Rajasthan.
She along with 363 people sacrificed their lives for protection of Khejri trees in Khejrali
village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.
Ans. 6. Rain water harvesting is the most common practice of recharging ground water.
Ans. 7. Management of natural resources requires a long term perspective so that it helps in
sustainable development and it should be available for our future generations too.
Exploiting resources for long term prospective meet the needs of future generation
also. The management of natural resources for future use is a sustainable practice. The
judicious use of natural resources in present generation enables the future generation also
to use them for their benefits.
Ans. 8. Reuse is considered better than recycling as recycling consumes some energy to generate
new things which is not seen in case of reuse. Reuse prevents environment pollution by
not creating any waste. Reuse also saves money as material is used again without any
process.
Ans. 9. Forests are called biodiversity hotspots. They are rich source of biodiversity and each of
them depends upon one another for sustaining their life thus maintaining an ecological
balance.
Ans. 10. The local people who live in or around forest and Forest Department of Government
should have the authority to decide the management of forest produce because local
people know the practices to use these resources in a sustainable manner without causing
any harm or damage to environment. Because as we have seen in our past how local
people protect the Sal forests of Arabari and tribal women of Tehri-Garhwal district of
UP protest against the felling of trees by hugging them. There should also be a governing
body which should take steps and create awareness among people for conserving and
managing forests and wildlife resources.
Ans. 11. Chipko movement was originated from a small village Reni in 1974 where a group of
women under the leadership of Gaura Devi protest against indiscriminate felling of
trees by hugging them. The Chipko movement spread slowly to other parts under the
leadership of Shri Sunderlal Bahuguna of Silyara in Tehri region. Chipko movement is the
movement where people form a circle around the tree and hug them to prevent falling of
trees. The local people of Tehri-Garhwal district of UP realize the importance of forests
and protest against felling of trees as well as giving forest products to other regions.
It helped in saving trees which ultimately result in conserving soil and water sources
which maintain balance in our nature.

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Ans. 12. The five R’s to save the environment are Reduce, Reuse Refuse, Repurpose and Recycle.
Reduce means less use of resources like switching off lights, fans, television, computers,
music players when not in use. Closing the taps while brushing teeth, repairing the faulty
taps from which water leaks. Reuse means using things again and again like we can
write on both sides of a paper, we can give our unused and old things to needy and poor
people, bottles of jams, jellies, pickles when finished can be used to store other things etc.
Recycle means using recycling technology new things can be produced from old ones like
old newspaper, glass bottles, plastics etc. Refuse means to say no to things people offer.
We can say no to plastic carry bags. Repurpose means to use products for some other
purpose. We can use cracked crockery for feeding water to birds.
Ans. 13. (a) Rain water harvesting is a process of collecting and storing rain water by using special
techniques for future use when there is shortage of water or during non-rainy days.
There were various traditional methods used by the rural people for rain water
harvesting. These include Khadins, Nadis, Bandharas, Kulhs, Kattas, Tals etc.
(b) The various advantages of water stored in ground are :
(i) Water is not polluted.
(ii) Water does not get evaporate but it spreads out to recharge wells.
(iii) It does not serve as breeding places for mosquitoes, flies.
(iv) It does not get contaminated due to human activities.
(v) It provides moisture for vegetation.
(vi) Mitigates flood and droughts.
Ans. 14. Dams are large water storage bodies built by government agencies to regulate the flow of
water and utilize it for benefit of human beings. There are many dams constructed across
major rivers in different parts of our country. For example :
(a) Bhakra dam across river Sutlej in Punjab.
(b) Tehri dam on river Ganga in Uttaranchal.
(c) Mettur dam on river Cauvery in Tamil Nadu.
(d) Sardar Sarovar dam on river Narmada in Gujarat.
(e) Hirakud dam on river Mahanadi in Odisha etc.
Some benefits of constructing dams are :
(a) It stores adequate amount of water which can be used for irrigation.
(b) Water can be supplied to villages and towns when there is shortage of water through
pipelines.
(c) It can be used to generate hydroelectricity.
(d) It can be used for flood control.
Ans. 15. (i) Forests and wild life :
(a) Large scale afforestation programmes.
(b) Avoid cutting down of trees.
(c) To educate people about the importance of forests by organizing slogans and
campaigns.
(ii) Water resources :
(a) By closing the water taps and repairing leaky pipes and taps to save water.
(b) Harvesting and conserving water.

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 (c) Stop polluting water and create awareness among people to save water.
(d) We can use waste water for gardening, cleaning vehicles etc.
(iii) Coal and petroleum :
(a) Less use of fossil fuels and using alternative source of energy like solar energy.
(b) We can use public transport instead of our personal vehicles.
(c) We can walk to nearby places instead of using vehicles.
(d) Proper maintenance of vehicles and use of efficient internal combustion engines.
(e) Use of CNG instead of petrol or diesel.
Ans. 16. Yes, water conservation is necessary because :
(a) Fresh water constitutes a very small portion of the world and it is unevenly distributed
throughout the world.
(b) Requirement of water in urban and rural areas is much more than its availability.
(c) Wide fluctuations in rainfall throughout the year so water shortage occurs in most part of
the world.
(d) Demand of water is increasing for domestic use as well as for agricultural purposes.
(e) Ground water level is also decreasing in various parts due to loss of vegetation cover.
(f) Water in rivers, ponds, lakes etc., are getting polluted due to effluents released from
industries as well as dumping of garbage.
Few useful ways of utilizing waste water are :
(a) It can be used for irrigation purposes.
(b) It can be used for recharging ground water.
(c) The waste water obtained from water purifier and other sources can be used for
gardening, cleaning vehicles, moping floor etc.
(d) Sludge separated from sewage can be used as compost or manure.
(e) It can be used as cooling water for power plants and oil refineries.
(f) Industries can treat the waste water and then letting into water bodies to stop pollution.
Ans. 17. Water harvesting system in hilly and mountainous areas is different from plains and
from plateau region. In hilly areas like Himachal Pradesh a local system of irrigation was
developed called kulhs. The water flowing in the streams was diverted into man-made
channels which took this water to numerous villages down the hillside. The management
of the water flowing in these kulhs was by common agreement among all the villages.
Interestingly, during the planting season, water was first used by the village farthest away
from the source of the kulh, then by villages progressively higher up. These kulhs were
managed by two or three people who were paid by the villagers. In addition to irrigation,
water from these kulhs also percolated into the soil and fed springs at various points.
After the kulhs were taken over by the Irrigation Department, most of them became
defunct and there is no amicable sharing of water as before.
Ans. 18. (a) Mining causes pollution because of the large amount of slag which is discarded for
every tonne of metal extracted. Hence, sustainable natural resource management
demands that we plan for the safe disposal of these wastes too. Thus, both assertion
and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Certain non-biodegradable waste like rubber and plastic pose serious disposal
problems. Such substances can be recycled to manufacture usable articles, for example
recycling of used polythene and aluminium foils. Thus, both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

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 Check Point - 3

Ans. 1. (d)
Ans. 2. (b)
Ans. 3. (d)
Ans. 4. (c)
Ans. 5. Incineration i.e., burning of solid wastes at very high temperature is the best way to
reduce the volume of solid wastes.
Ans. 6. Chipko movement where the people of village particularly women hugged the trees and
prevent them from cutting by contractors of industry.
Ans. 7. Some harmful effects of agricultural practices on environment are :
(a) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers will alter the chemistry of soil and even kill useful
microbes present in soil.
(b) Use of pesticides like DDT would lead to biomagnification when they entered a food
chain.
(c) Excessive use of ground water for irrigation would lower the water table.
(d) Multiple cropping would deplete the nutrients present in soil and thus reduces its fertility.
(e) Clearing of forests for agricultural practices would lead to less rain fall and also the wild
life will be affected.
Ans. 8. Sustainable development means the development which can be maintained for a long
time that meets the need of present generation without compromising the ability and
needs for future generations without any damage to the environment.
The two main objectives of sustainable development are :
(a) The main objective is to provide economic well-being to the present as well as future
generations as well as maintain a healthy environment and life support system.
(b) Implement a massive ecological construction project to slow down ecological
degradation.
Ans. 9. If we will kill all the organisms in one trophic level the transfer of food energy to the next
trophic level will stop i.e., the organisms which are placed higher than this trophic level
will die due to lack of food. Similarly, the trophic level lower than this one will increase
their number. Thus, an imbalance would be created in the ecosystem.
Ans. 10. To let it recharge ground water by water harvesting is better option than to collect rain
water in ponds or artificial lakes because there is no loss of water by evaporation, water
does not get contaminated due to human activities, it does not provide a breeding place
for mosquitoes, flies etc.
The causes for the failure of sustained availability of ground water are :
(a) Rising population demand more water which leads to depletion of ground water level.
(b) Growing industries and dumping of effluents and wastes from them causes pollution
of ground water.

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Ans. 11. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is as follows :
Producers ® Primary consumers ® Secondary consumers ® Tertiary consumers
® Quaternary consumers.
The flow of energy is from one trophic level to the next at the rate of 10% according to
Lindeman Ten Percent Law. So at each trophic level the energy goes on decreasing. So,
it is impossible to revert back. The energy captured by the producers cannot be reverted
back to the sun. Similarly, the energy obtained by primary consumers cannot come back
to producers and so on. Primary consumers will eat producers but the reverse cannot be
possible. Due to these above reasons the flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Ans. 12. (i) In 1731, Amrita Devi Bishnoi and 363 other people sacrificed their lives for the
protection of Khejri trees in Khejrali village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.
(ii) Chipko movement by Shri Sunderlal Bahuguna originated from village Reni where
villagers protested against felling of trees by forming circles around the trees and
hugging them.
(iii) In West Bengal during the year 1972 forest officer A.K. Banerjee involved local
villagers in protection of Sal forests of Arabari.
Ans. 13. (a) In air-conditioners ozone depleting substances like CFCs are used as coolants and
when they are released to atmosphere they will degrade ozone layer leading to its
depletion which may cause harmful effects on our health. Because ozone layer
protects harmful UV rays of sun from entering earth’s surface. UV rays cause skin
cancers, cataract, mutations etc., in humans.
(b) Yes, because removal of trees in the park will affect ecological balance as trees
provide oxygen, brings rainfall, decreases temperature. The construction of air-
conditioned shopping mall would release harmful CFCs to environment leading to
depletion of ozone layer.
(c) They have care and love for nature, awareness for environment, social responsibility
and responsible citizen.
Ans. 14. Khadins is a traditional way of harvesting rain water and it is mainly followed by people
of Rajasthan. These are very long earthen embankments which are built across the lower
edge of the sloping farmlands which are called bund. Rain water flows down the slopes
and fills the bunds to form a reservoir. Pathways are made from bund to nearby well
which are mainly dug behind the bund where water seeps and fills the wells.

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Ans. 15. An ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of biosphere where there is an
interaction between living and non-living components to maintain balance between them.

The components of ecosystem are :
(a) Biotic components : They are the living organisms like plants, animals, human beings
etc. Based on the mode of obtaining food they are classified as producers, consumers and
decomposers.
(i) Producers are autotrophs which have the capacity to prepare their own food
by trapping solar energy and converting them to chemical energy in form of
carbohydrates by the process of photosynthesis.
(ii) Consumers depend upon producers for food either directly or indirectly. They can be
primary, secondary, tertiary or quaternary consumers.
(iii) Decomposers obtain food from dead and decaying organisms by breaking them
down into simpler forms.
(b) Abiotic components : They are the non-living components i.e. the physical factors like
temperature, light, wind, water, humidity and edaphic factors like soil, minerals etc.

The two types of ecosystem are :
(a) Natural ecosystem : They are made by nature themselves without human interference.
They can be terrestrial like forest, grassland and desert ecosystem and aquatic like
freshwater and marine ecosystem.
(b) Artificial ecosystem : They are made and maintained by human beings. Examples –
Gardens, parks, croplands etc.
Ans. 16. (a) Fossil fuels are obtained by degradation of dead remains of plants and animals which
are buried under the surface of earth over a million years ago. They are called so as
they are produced by degradation of biomass over a million years ago.
(b) They are an important source of fuels. Petroleum products like petrol, diesel etc. are
used as fuels in automobiles. Coal is used in thermal power plants to generate
electricity and also used as a fuel for domestic purposes.
(c) The two fossil fuels are coal and petroleum.
(d) Methods of conserving fossil fuels are:
(i) Use of CNG in place of petrol and diesel as a fuel in automobiles.
(ii) Switching to renewable sources of energy like solar energy, wind energy,
hydroelectric energy instead of using non-renewable energy sources like fossil
fuels.
Ans. 17. People might face social problems because such projects displace large number of
peasants and tribals without adequate compensation or rehabilitation, economic
problems because these projects swallow up huge amounts of public money without the
generation of proportionate benefits, environmental problems because they contribute
enormously to deforestation and the loss of biological diversity.
Ans. 18. (c) Sustainable developments take into consideration both economic growth and
ecological conservation simultaneously. Management of forest resources has to take into
account the interests of various stakeholders. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 19. (a) The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is disposal of unburnt
corpses into water. Coliform is a group of bacteria, found in human intestines, whose

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 presence in water indicates contamination by disease-causing microorganisms. Thus, both
assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 20. (i) (c)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (c) 
(iv) (a)
(v) (b)

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 Check Point - 4

Ans. 1. (d) Ans. 2. (a) Ans. 3. (a) Ans. 4. (c)

Ans. 5. Epiglottis is a flap of tissue which prevents the entry of food into trachea during
swallowing process.
Ans. 6. Silviculture is the major programme started to replenish forests with an aim to control the
growth, health and quality of forests.
Ans. 7. Osmoregulation is the process of regulation of water and salt concentration in the body
fluid to maintain the required osmotic pressure of the body.
Kidneys are osmoregulatory organs in human and contractile vacuoles in Amoeba.
Ans. 8. The food chain here is Grass ® Sheep ® Man. The concentration of harmful chemical
DDT goes on increasing at each and every trophic level. Here man is placed at the top
trophic level and so maximum DDT is found in man because it is non-biodegradable so
they persist in environment for a long time and are not easily degraded or excreted and
when they move up in the food chain their concentration goes on increasing and gets
accumulated in tissues or internal organs.This process is called biomagnification.
Ans. 9. (a) Inner lining of uterus is richly supplied with blood to receive and provides
nourishment to the developing embryo.
(b) Through the pollen tube the male gametes are carried to female gametes where fusion
occurs to produce zygote. This pollen tube arises from pollen grains, passes through
style to reach the embryo sac containing the female gametes.
(c) Long tail of sperm helps them to swim inside female genital tract and reach near egg
to fertilize the egg.
Ans. 10. (a)

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 (b) Mendel carried out experiment with two traits to study the independent assortment of
characters during inheritance.
(c) In F1 generation though both the traits were inherited but only dominant traits [i.e.,
round, yellow characters] are expressed while the recessive traits [wrinkled, green] are
not expressed. But in F2 generation both dominant and recessive traits were expressed
in the ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
Ans. 11. Forelimbs of bird, lizard, frog, human are homologous structures in vertebrates.
Homologous organs have similar basic structure and similar embryonic origin but they
perform different functions in different species so they are named so. Forelimbs of bird,
lizard, frog, human being have a similar basic structure and they have evolved from a
common ancestor who had five digit limbs but their functions are quite different. In lizard
they are used for creeping; in birds for flying; in human for grasping and in frog they
provide stability to the body while landing on the ground after a leap. As these organs
have similar basic structure and similar embryonic origin and they have evolved from a
common ancestor so they help in understanding the evolutionary relationships.
Ans. 12. (a) Pancreas is located just below stomach which have both endocrine and exocrine
function.
(b) Pancreas secretes insulin hormone. Insulin converts excess glucose into glycogen and
stores it in liver, thus maintains our blood sugar level.
(c) Under secretion of insulin hormone causes diabetes. By taking insulin injections this
disease can be treated.
(d) Trypsin is the main enzyme present in pancreatic juice secreted by pancreas. It
converts proteins to peptides.
(e) Enzymes present in pancreatic juice helps in digestion process.
Ans. 13. (a) Cerebrum is the seat of intelligence, memory,
will power, consciousness. It controls voluntary
actions.
(b) Cerebellum controls and coordinates muscular activity
and maintains the posture and balance of the body.
(c) Medulla oblongata controls functioning of internal
organs and involuntary actions like beating of heart,
breathing movement, peristalsis movement etc.
(d) Cranium is also called the brain box which protects
the brain from injury.
(e) Hypothalamus controls body temperature and secretions of pituitary gland.
Ans. 14. (a) The process of transfer of pollen grains from 
anthers of stamens to the stigma of carpel within
the same flower or different flower of same plant
or to any other flower of different plants but of
same species is called pollination. Pollination
helps in bringing the pollen grains containing
male gametes near the female part i.e., carpel
which contain female gametes for fertilization
process to occur.
(b) The process of mixing of male and female
gametes to form a zygote is called fertilization.
By pollination process pollen grains gets
deposited on stigma of carpel. Under suitable
conditions they germinate. A long pollen tube

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 containing two male gametes arises and it passes through style to reach the ovary.
The ovary contains ovule which has an embryo sac. Female gamete is present inside
embryo sac. The pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and penetrates the
embryo sac. One male gamete fuses with female gamete to produce zygote whereas
the second male gamete fuses with polar nuclei to form endosperm. This process is
called double fertilization.
(c) After fertilisation ovule develops into seed and ovary into fruit.
Ans. 15. (a) Adenosine triphosphate is the major and the key product of cellular respiration. It is
generated at the end of the respiration. ATP plays an important role in the vital
processes of life. It acts as a connecting link between anabolism and catabolism.
(b) The full form of ATP is Adenosine triphosphate.
(c) The ATP releases the energy during an exothermic reaction.
(d) The functions performed by ATP are as follows:
(i) It helps in the process of muscle contraction.
(ii) The ATP helps in the synthesis of proteins.
(iii) It is an important factor for the conduction of nerve impulses.
Ans. 16. Shyam obtained irregular patches in the slide because :
(a) The leaf peel may not be peeled properly.
(b) Cover slip may not be kept properly and bubbles may be formed.
(c) The glycerine may be excess.
It can be eliminated by taking the peel from a freshly plucked leaf, taking a clean glass
slide, using requisite amount of stain and glycerine, excess stain and glycerine should be
soaked in blotting paper, keeping the cover slip properly on specimen without any air
bubbles.
Ans. 17.

Peas, gram, beans etc., are few examples of dicot seeds.

Ans. 18. (a) The pea plant which Mendel chose for conducting experiments, is most ideal for
controlled breeding, since it can easily be subjected to cross pollination. He identified
very clear contrasting characters in the pea plants. Thus, both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (d) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bat cannot be considered as homologous organs
because wings of a bat are skin folds in between the fingers and wings of an insect
are membrane supported by muscles. They are analogous organs which have different
basic structure but have similar appearance and perform similar functions. Thus both
assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 20. Right side of the heart :
Inferior + superior vena cava ¾® brings deoxygenated blood from the body ¾® enters
right auricle ¾® through tricuspid valve enters right ventricle ¾® through pulmonary
artery enters lungs for purification of blood.

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 Left side of heart :
Oxygenated blood enters from lungs ¾® left auricle via pulmonary vein ¾® left
ventricle via bicuspid valve ¾® aorta ¾® rest of the body.
[Words marked in Bold are new information which are not mentioned]
Ans. 21. (i) (a) 
(ii) (b)
(iii) (d) 
(iv) (d)
(v) (b)
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 Check Point - 5

Ans. 1. (b) Ans. 2. (b) Ans. 3. (c) Ans. 4. (b)

Ans. 5. The food chain is grass ® insect ® frog ® snake
So frog belongs to third trophic level.
Ans. 6. Presence of feathers in both birds and dinosaurs. In dinosaurs feathers is not used for
flying but in birds they use it for flying.
Ans. 7. By pollination process pollen grains containing male gametes come near the female
part of the flower which contain female gametes. Fertilization is the process of fusion
of both male and female gametes to form a zygote. So, if there would be no pollination,
fertilization cannot occur.
Ans. 8. Importance of wildlife are :
(a) They maintain an ecological balance of nature.
(b) It provides a great biological diversity.
(c) Many valuable products like musk, ivory, leather etc., are obtained from them.
Some measures to conserve wild life are :
(a) Implementation of laws to give severe punishment to those people that kill wild
animals.
(b) Protection of their natural habitats.
(c) Maintenance of wildlife in protected areas like sanctuaries, national parks, biosphere
reserves etc.
(d) Educating people about the importance of wildlife.
Examples of endangered plant species are—Pitcher plant, Snow orchid and examples
of endangered animal species are—Indian salamander, Indian wolf, One-horned
rhinocerous etc.
Ans. 9. (a) The colour of the flowers will be blue in F1 progeny as blue colour is dominant over
white colour.
(b) 25% of plants bearing white flowers in F2 generation will be produced.
(c) BB : Bw = 1 : 2

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Ans. 10. (a) Human belongs to a single species Homo sapiens. They have similar body plan,
structures, physiology and metabolism. They have constant chromosome number
i.e., 23 pairs, 22 pairs autosomes and 1 pair sex chromosomes. They freely interbreed
among themselves to produce offsprings. They have a common genetic blue print.
From all these evidences it is proved that all the human races like Africans, Asians,
Europeans, Americans and others might have evolved from a common ancestor.
(b)
Seminal vesicles and prostate glands are accessory reproductive organs. The
secretion from seminal vesicles provides nourishment and motility to the sperms.
Prostate glands secretion neutralizes the acidic pH of vagina so that sperms can easily
pass through vagina.
Ans. 11. (a) The data indicates monohybrid cross.
(b) Red flowers are dominant over white ones.
(c) Genotype of parents – RR, rr
Genotype of F1 progeny – Rr
Genotype of F2 progeny – RR, Rr, rr
Ans. 12. (a) During sudden physical activity in absence of oxygen our muscles undergo anaerobic
respiration where glucose is converted into pyruvate and then it gets converted to
lactic acid which causes muscle cramps.
(b) In a croton leaf green portions contain starch as they contain chlorophyll pigment
which by absorbing sunlight energy and by using carbon dioxide and water prepare
glucose by the process of photosynthesis. So, when these green portions of leaves are
tested for starch they turn blue-green.
(c) The sources from which plants obtain nitrogen are :
1. Rhizobium bacteria present in root nodules of leguminous plants directly fix
atmospheric nitrogen into nitrites or nitrates. Nitrogen fixing microbes living
freely in soil also fixes atmospheric nitrogen. Similarly, lightning also converts
nitrogen into nitrates.
2. Inorganic nitrates or nitrites present in chemical fertilizers.
Ans. 13. The various plant hormones are auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, ethylene, abscisic acid.
Hormones Physiological effects
Auxins It promotes cell growth, stem and fruit growth, regulate
growth movements i.e., tropism, induce parthenocarpy, delay
fall of leaves.
Gibberellins Promote growth in stems and fruits, induce parthenocarpy,
stimulate flowering, enhances seed germination, delay
senescence.
Ethylene Promotes growth and ripening of fruits, helps in breaking
dormancy of seeds and buds.
Cytokinins Promote cell division, delay senescence of leaves, promote
opening of stomata, overcome dormancy of seeds.
Abscisic acid Promotes dormancy in seeds, inhibits growth, promotes
senescence of leaves, promotes closing of stomata.
Ans. 14. (a) (i) Information is received at the tip of dendrites.
(ii) Impulse is a wave of electrical disturbance that sweeps over the nerve cell.
(iii)Information is travelled in the form of impulse from tip of dendrite to cyton then
from cyton through axon to axon terminals.
(iv)At synapse the impulse get converted into a chemical signal for outward
transmission.

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 (b)

(c) Autonomic nervous system consists of a pair of chains of nerves and ganglia on
either side of the backbone which operates automatically or involuntarily. It controls
and coordinates all involuntary actions of internal organs like breathing, heart beating
etc.
The divisions of autonomic nervous system are sympathetic and parasympathetic
nervous system.
Ans. 15. The student should take the peel from the lower surface of the petunia leaf as numerous
stomata are present on its lower surface, so stomata can be easily observed and identified.
Ans. 16. In set-up A there will be rise in water in the delivery tube but not in set up B. In set up
B cotton plug allows air to pass through the conical flask, so partial vacuum cannot be
created even though carbon dioxide given out by respiring germinating seeds is absorbed
by KOH solution. So, no water rises through delivery tube from beaker. But in set up A
rubber cork is placed in the mouth of conical flask making the apparatus air-tight, so a
partial vacuum will be created inside flask as carbon dioxide given out by respiring
germinating seeds will be absorbed by KOH solution. Thus water will rise through
delivery tube from the beaker.
Ans. 17. In binary fission the two individuals are formed from a single parent and the parental
identity is lost.

By elongation of nucleus i.e., division of nucleus [karyokinesis] binary fission process

starts.
Ans. 18. (a) Gametes are essential for sexual reproduction. Though plants can reproduce through
other parts like stem and roots (vegetative reproduction), but they cannot reproduce
sexually in the absence of flowers. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (a) Analogous organs are one such evidence that is used to determine how close two
species are related. The presence of feathers in dinosaurs and birds indicates that
they are evolutionary related. Dinosaurs had feathers not for flying, but instead these
feathers provided insulation to these warm-blooded animals. However, the feathers in
birds are used for flight. This proves that reptiles and birds are closely related and that
the evolution of wings started in reptiles. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

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Ans. 20. (a) Angiosperms are known as the flowering plants in which the seeds are found inside
the flower. These flowering plants are most diverse and widespread, as they are found
from grasslands to deciduous forests and from garden plots to large-scale agriculture.
(b) The example of the unisexual flower is watermelon, and the example of the bisexual
flower is mustard.
(c) Female gametes are present in the ovary. The ovary contains one or more ovules. The
endosperm part of the ovary develops into fruit after fertilization, and the ovule
develops in seeds.
(d) The part of the seed that develops into the root is radicle.
Ans. 21. (i) (b)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (b)
(iv) (d) 
(v) (d)

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 Check Point - 6

Ans. 1. (c)
Ans. 2. (c)
Ans. 3. (b)
Ans. 4. (d)
Ans. 5. DNA [Deoxyribo nucleic acid] is the information source for making proteins in the cell.
Gene is the part of DNA segment which codes for a protein.
Ans. 6. Zebra, goat, horse, sheep are the first order consumers as they feed upon plants directly
i.e., they are herbivores.
Ans. 7. (a) The normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm of Hg.
(b) Sphygmomanometer is used for measuring blood pressure.
(c) The pressure of blood inside the artery during ventricular systole is called systolic
pressure. The normal systolic pressure is 120 mm of Hg.
(d) The pressure of blood inside the artery during ventricular diastole is called diastolic
pressure. The normal diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
Ans. 8. (a) Cotton, rubber, leather are biodegradable substances as they get easily degraded into
simpler forms by action of microbes.
(b) The four categories are :
(i) Local people : They live in and around the forest and depend on forests for
firewood, timber, bamboo, fruits etc. Their cattle graze in forests.
(ii) Forest Department of Government : The employees converts vast tracts of forests
to culture pine, teak or eucalyptus. They plant trees of their own choice.
(iii)Industrialists : They cut down forests for raw materials as well as to set up their
factories.
(iv) Nature and Wild life enthusiasts : They visit forests for recreation.
Ans. 9. Different types of tropism are :
(a) Hydrotropism : Growth of plant part in response to water is known as hydrotropism.
Here stimulus is water.
(b) Chemotropism : Growth of plant part in response to chemicals is known as
chemotropism. Here stimulus is chemicals.
(c) Phototropism : Growth of plant part in response to light is known as phototropism. Here
stimulus is light.
(d) Geotropism : Growth of plant part in response to earth’s gravity is known as geotropism.
Here stimulus is earth’s gravity.
Ans. 10. (a) Yes, the change in colour of the beetle is a process of evolution. Some variations
occur in colour during sexual reproduction so instead of red beetle, a green beetle is
produced.
(b) The new colour of the beetle will be passed to its offsprings. It is an inherited trait that
occurs in germ cells leading to the passage of trait from one generation to another.

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 Due to errors in DNA copying that leads to change in genetic material which results
in colour variations i.e., instead of red beetle, a green beetle is produced.
(c) The green-coloured beetles could not be recognized by crows as they would be
camouflaged with green bushes. So, the population of green-coloured beetles would
increase as compared to red ones, because red ones are easily identified by the crows.
So, in this situation colour variation gives survival advantage.
Ans. 11. (a) Gene e is recessive and gene E is dominant as dominant alleles are represented by
capital letters and recessive by small ones.
(b) Their eye colours would be brown colour as both Ee, Ee combination of alleles
will produce brown colour since brown colour is dominant and blue colour eyes is
recessive trait which can only be expressed in homozygous recessive condition [ee].
(c) Gene ee combination will produce blue coloured eyes as it is a recessive trait and gets
expressed only in homozygous recessive condition.
Ans. 12. (a)

(b) Nasal passage is lined with mucus and fine hairs or cilia are present. Mucus traps
the dust, bacteria and other foreign particles from the inhaled air and prevents from
entering our respiratory tract. Cilia removes the large foreign particles out from our
respiratory tract. Thus, we inhale clean air.
(c) (i)  Organism B, as there is complete oxidation of glucose producing 38 ATP
molecules due to sufficient supply of oxygen.
(ii) 
Organism A. In this case partial glucose oxidation occurs yielding 2 ATP
molecules due to lack of oxygen.
Ans. 13. (a) (i) Ovary produces eggs and female hormones oestrogen and progesterone.
(ii) Oviduct is the site of fertilization and it transfers egg from ovary to uterus.
(iii) Uterus is the site of implantation of zygote and full term development of foetus
occurs here.
(iv) Vagina is the site of entry of sperms. Through this
baby is delivered after gestation period is over so
it is also called birth canal.
(b) A is pollen tube through which male gametes travel
to reach the female gametes present inside
embryo sac for fertilization.
B is stigma which receives the pollen grains during
pollination process.
C is ovary which contains the ovules in which female gametes are present.

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Ans. 14. (a) 1. Cerebrum 2. Cranium 3. Mid brain
4. Hypothalamus 5. Pituitary gland 6. Pons
7. Medulla oblongata 8. Cerebellum 9. Spinal cord
10. Corpus callosum
(b) (i) Nervous system and endocrine system control and regulate life processes.
(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, sight and memory etc., are located in cerebrum of fore
brain.
(iii) Medulla oblongata of hind brain is in continuity with the spinal cord.
Ans. 15. (a) Proteins (b) Peptides
Ans. 16. (a) The hormones released by ovaries are responsible for secondary sexual characters in
females.
(b) The other name given to the fallopian tube is the oviduct.
(c) The embryo remains embedded in the mother’s uterus by the process of implantation.
(d) The role of the placenta is to supply important components to the embryo.
Ans. 17. In a slide showing binary fission in Amoeba, nucleus will show elongation, a constriction
will appear in the cytoplasm and two daughter cells will be formed from a single parent
cell. But in a slide showing budding in yeast an outgrowth will be formed from the parent
yeast cell which is known as bud and chains of buds might be seen grown from the parent
yeast cell.

Ans. 18. (b) Ureter's function is to carry urine from kidney to the bladder, it does not depend on
what lining it has. Thus, both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 19. (c) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter, not neuro inhibitor. Thus, assertion is true, but
reason is false.
Ans. 20. (a) Cell body or cyton (b) Axon
Ans. 21. (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

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PHYSICS
 Answers Worksheet - 1
Chapter - 1 (Light : Reflection and Refraction)

Ans. 1. (d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Ans. 2. (d) Either plane or convex
Ans. 3. (c) A convex lens of Focal length 5 cm.
Ans. 4. (d) S
Ans. 5. The angle between the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence is called angle
of refraction.
Ans. 6. In medium ‘X’ because of lower value of refractive index.
Ans. 7. A very small head : Convex mirror.
A fat body : Concave mirror.
Legs of normal size : Plane mirror.
Ans. 8. (i) Two parameters change. They are wavelength and velocity.
(ii) Yes, it bends towards normal.
(iii) The ray entering water from air will also bend towards normal.
(iv) No unit.
Ans. 9. M is a concave mirror and the image is virtual, erect and enlarged.
Ans. 10. Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Refractive index of glass, ng = 1.50
c
We have, ng =
v
c
or v=
ng

3 × 108
∴ v=
1.5
v = 2 × 108 m/s
Ans. 11. A convex lens forms a virtual and erect image when the object is placed between the optical
centre (O) and focus (F).

Ans. 12.
S. No. Regular Reflection Irregular or Diffuse Reflection
(i) It occurs when parallel beam of It occurs when parallel beam of in-
incident rays remain parallel after cident light does not remain parallel
reflection. after reflection.

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 (ii) Occurs from smooth surfaces like Occurs from rough surfaces like
mirror etc. wall, table etc.
(iii) The reflected rays are reflected in The reflected rays are not reflected
one direction. in one direction.
Ans. 13. The focal length of a lens is determined by :
(a) Radii of curvature of the surface of the lens.
(b) Nature of material of the lens.
Ans. 14. If a parallel beam of light is incident on a concave mirror, it focuses the beam to a point.
This fact enables us to use it as a doctor's head mirror to concentrate the light beam on a
small area of the body part such as nose, throat, teeth etc.
Ans. 15. (i) Draw a horizontal line PC representing the principal axis and also draw MM'
representing the concave mirror.
(ii) Take a scale say, 5 cm = 1 cm.
Mark focus F at a distance PF = 2 cm (focal length = 10 cm)
The object OA is marked at a distance PO = 1 cm (distance of object = 5 cm). Mark
centre of curvature C at a distance PC = 4 cm (radius of curvature = 20 cm).
(iii) Complete the ray diagram by taking two rays from the point A, the top of the object.
IB is the image obtained.
(iv) Measure the distance PI which is the distance of image from the mirror.
(v) Measure the length of object OA and the length of image IB.
Result :
(i) The distance of image PI from the mirror comes out to be 2 cm (equivalent to 10
cm)
(ii) The length of image IB is twice the length of object OA. Thus, the image is upright,
virtual and magnified.

Ans. 16. (a) When a prism is kept in air, then two angles of incidence will exist for the same
magnitude of deviation. This is due to the principle of reversibility of light. Both
assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 17. (a) When the light travels from one medium to another, it's speed changes so it bends
from its path. Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
Ans. 18. (i) (a) shorter
(ii) (a) shorter
(iii) (c) refraction
(iv) (c) yes
(v) (b) refractive index
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 Answers Worksheet - 2
Chapter - 1 (Light : Reflection and Refraction)

Ans. 1. (d) Clay

Ans. 2. (c) Real and erect.
Ans. 3. (a) both concave
Ans. 4. (d) At twice the focal length
Ans. 5. Real image.
Ans. 6. The expression relating the distance of object 'u', distance of image 'v' and focal length 'f' for
a special mirror, is called the spherical mirror formula. It is represented as :
1 1 1
 
f u v
Ans. 7. (a) A medium through which light can travel is called on optical medium.
(b) (i)While passing from one medium to the other, if the speed of light slows down, then
the second medium is said to be optically denser than the first medium.
(ii) While passing from one medium to the other, if the speed of light increases, then the
second medium is said to optically rarer than the first medium.
Ans. 8. (a) The perpendicular distance between the path of emergent ray and the direction of
incident ray is called lateral shift.
(b) Lateral shift depends on the following factors :
(i) It is directly proportional to the thickness of glass slab.
(ii) It is directly proportional to the angle of incidence.
(iii) It is directly proportional to the refractive index of the glass slab.
(iv) It is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the light used.
Ans. 9.

Ans. 10. Radius of curvature, R = 32 cm

R
Focal length, f =
2
32
f =
2
f = 16 cm
Ans. 11. Focal length of convex lens = 20 cm
Object distance, u = –15 cm
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 1 1 1
Using the lens formula, = −
f v u

1 1 1
= +
20 v 15
1 1 1
= −
v 20 15
v = – 60 cm
Four characteristics of the image formed by the lens are :
(a) Virtual
(b) Erect
(c) At a distance of 60 cm on the same side of the lens as the object.
(d) Enlarged image.
Ans. 12. The rough focal length of a convex lens is obtained by forming sharp image of a very
distant object on a screen. The distance of the screen from the lens gives us the rough focal
length of the lens. This method is not applicable to a concave lens, as image formed by a
concave lens is virtual and it cannot be taken on the screen.
Ans. 13. (a) The light ray will pass straightly.
(b) The cause of refraction of light is that the light travel with different speed in different
medium.
Ans. 14. (a) From S. No. 3, we can say that the radius of curvature is 30 cm because when an object
is placed at the centre of curvature of a convex lens, its image is formed on the other
side of the lens at the same distance from the lens. And, we also know that focal length
is half of the radius of curvature. Thus, focal length of the lens is + 15 cm.
(b) S. No. 6 is not correct as the object distance is between focus and pole and in such
cases, the image formed is always virtual but in this case a real image is formed as the
image distance is positive.
(c) Approximate value of magnification for object distance – 20 cm and image distance +
60 cm is – 3.

Ans. 15. The following rays of light are usually used to locate the image formed by a spherical
mirror :
The incident ray passing through the centre of curvature : In this case, light after reflecting
from the spherical mirror moves back along the same path.

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The ray incident obliquely to the principal axis : In this case, the incident ray will be
reflected back by the reflecting surface of the spherical mirror obliquely, making equal
angles with the principal axis.

When the object is placed between pole and focus of the concave mirror, image is formed
behind the mirror and is virtual, erect and magnified.

Ans. 16. (a) When the object is placed at an infinity position, the image formed by a concave mirror
will be placed at the focus. Then the size of the image will be highly diminished
and point-size. so, the nature of the image formed by the concave mirror is real and
inverted. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
Ans. 17. (b) Convex mirrors are not used for rear view on vehicles. We use only concave mirrors
for rear view. They will always give erect and diminished image of the object. They
provide a wider field for clear view. For this reason, the convex mirrors are fitted on
both sides of the vehicles. Therefore, the given assertion is true, but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 18. (i) (b) converging
(ii) (c) convex
(iii) (c) two
(iv) (a) no
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 Answers Worksheet - 3
Chapter - 1 (Light : Reflection and Refraction)

Ans. 1. (b) towards the screen

Ans. 2. (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
Ans. 3. (a) Lens slightly towards the screen
1 1 1
Ans. 4. (a)  
v u f
Ans. 5. The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to half its radius of curvature.
1
f = R
2
Ans. 6. Convex mirrors give a virtual, erect and diminished image of the objects placed in front of
them. They are preferred as a rear-view mirror in vehicles because they give a wider field
of view, which allows the driver to see most of the traffic behind him.
Ans. 7. A concave mirror converges the ray of light falling on it in a direction parallel to the
principal axis, onto its focus. This is the reason why ENT specialists use it as a head mirror.
The concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror because when an object is held between
the pole and the principal focus of a concave mirror, it forms a virtual, erect and magnified
image of an object.
Ans. 8. (a) The return of light into the same medium after striking a surface is called reflection.
(b) The back silvered surface of a mirror reflects most of the light incident on it.
Ans. 9. (a) The two laws of refraction are :
(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie
in the same plane.
(ii) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence (i) to the sine of angle of refraction
(r) is a constant for the pair of given media. This constant is called the refractive
index of the second medium with respect to the first medium.
(b) The angle of refraction will be 0°
Ans. 10. Radius of curvature, R = 20 cm
R
Focal length, f =
2
20
f =
2
= 10 cm
Ans. 11. Object distance, u = –30 cm
Focal length of concave lens = –15 cm
1 1 1
We know that,  
v u f
1 1 1
 
v 30 15

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 1 1 1
 
v 15 30
1 2  1 3 1
  
v 30 30 10
v = –10 cm.
Characteristics of image :
(a) The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the convex lens on the left side.
(b) Image formed is virtual.
(c) Image formed is erect.
(d) The size of the image formed is diminished.
Ans. 12. The nature of the lens is concave, i.e., it is a diverging lens.

Ans. 13.

Ans. 14. In order to distinguish a plane mirror, a concave mirror and a convex mirror without
touching them, we need to look at the image of our face in these three mirrors :
(a) In a plane mirror, our face look much bigger as the mirror produces a virtual, erect
image of the same size of the face.
(b) In concave mirror, our face looks much bigger as the mirror produces a virtual, erect
and magnified image of our face when held within the focus of mirror.
(c) In convex mirror, our face looks smaller as the mirror produces a virtual, erect and
diminished image of our face.
Ans. 15. (a) From the S. No. 3, we can say that the radius of curvature of the lens is 40 cm as
distance of object and the distance of the image is same.
R 40
∴ Focal length, f
= = = 20cm
2 2
(b) S. No. 6 is not correct as for this observation the object distance is between found and
pole and for such cased, the image formed is always virtual but in this case a real image
is forming as the image distance is positive.

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 (c)

v 30 cm
Magnification m    0.5
, u -60 cm
Ans. 16. (a) We know that the rainbow has seven constituent colours such as Violet, Indigo, Blue,
Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. These colours are represented as VIBGYOR. It occurs
due to the dispersion of white light i.e., when the white light passes through a glass
prism, this phenomenon of splitting white light into VIBGYOR. Thus, both assertion
and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 17. (d) We know that the path of light passing through a colloidal solution becomes visible
because light is scattered by relatively larger particles. But the path of light passing
through a clear solution is not visible because of small particle size do not come its
way. Therefore, both the assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 18. (i) (a) convex
(ii) (c) plane
(iii) (b) concave
(iv) (d) at centre of curvature
(v) (c) Lateral inversion

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 Answers Worksheet - 4
Chapter - 1 (Light : Reflection and Refraction)

Ans. 1. (b) 3m
Ans. 2. (a) u = –1.05 cm and m = 19.05 cm
Ans. 3. (b) Concave in nature
Ans. 4. (d) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal length are 20
cm and 25 cm respectively.
Ans. 5. Magnification of the images formed by plane mirrors is 1 because the size of image is equal
to the size of object.
h2 v
Ans. 6. In the formula   m , the sign of m is determined by the signs of h1 and h2 When m is
h1 u
positive, the image is virtual and erect. When m is negative, the image is real and inverted.
Ans. 7. Focal length of concave lens, f = –2 m
(Since, the focal length of concave lens is negative.)
1 1
P   0.5 D
f 2
Hence, the power of the given concave lens is –0.5 D
Ans. 8. (i) Convex mirror forms an erect and diminished image of an object behind the vehicle.
(ii) The field of view of a convex mirror is large.
(iii) (d) The image is real.
(iv) (a) Large.
Ans. 9. (a) The two laws of reflection of light are :
(i) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, lie in
the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection ( ∠i = ∠r).
(b) The angle of incidence will be 0°.
Ans. 10. (a) A piece of transparent glass bound by two spherical surface is called a lens.
(b) Optical centre of a thin lens is a point on the principal axis of lens such that a ray of
light directed towards it, passes undeviated.
(c) (i) A convex lens has a real focus.
(ii) A concave lens has a virtual focus.
Length of the image (I)
Ans. 11. Magnification (m) =
Length of the object (O)
Image distance (v)
=
Object distance (u)
I v
(m)  
O u

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Ans. 12. Focal length of convex mirror = 15 cm
Object distance = –30 cm
1 1
Using the mirror formula, + =1
v u f
1 1 1
 
v f u
1 1 1
 
v 15 30
1 1 1
 
v 15 30
21 3
 
30 30

v = 10 cm
Four characteristics of the image formed by the given convex mirror are :
(a) Image is always erect.
(b) Image is always small in size.
(c) Image is always virtual.
(d) Image formed is 10 cm behind the mirror between focus and pole.
Ans. 13. Radius of curvature : The distance between the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical
mirror is known as radius of curvature.

Given : Radius of curvature, R = 24 cm
R 24
f =   12 cm
2 2

Since, the focal length is positive, therefore, the mirror is convex mirror.
Ans. 14.

Ans. 15. (a) He should move the screen away from the convex lens to focus the image.
(b) The size of the image increases.
(c) The intensity of the image decreases as the flame moves towards the lens.
(d) The flame should be placed at 20 cm from the convex lens on its left side.

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Ans. 16. (d) When a ray of light travels from air to water, its speed slows down because we know
that the velocity is slower in a denser medium (water) to rarer medium (air). So, the
statement "The speed of light is higher in a denser medium than in a rarer medium" is
false. Thus, both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 17. (a) We can see the sun and its surroundings appear red colour during both sunrise and
sunset. It happens due to the scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth
power of its wavelength. Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 18. (i) (c) telescope
(ii) (d) periscope
(iii) (a) refraction
(iv) (a) Yes

••

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 Answers Worksheet - 5
Chapter - 1 (Light : Reflection and Refraction)

Ans. 1. (b) Black absorbs all the colours

Ans. 2. (b) Q to R
Ans. 3. (c) 1.6244
Ans. 4. (a) The bending of a light ray on passing from different media to one is called refraction.
Ans. 5. The ray is reflected back along the principal axis of mirror because here ∠r = ∠i = 0°
Ans. 6. Focal length is inversely proportional to the power of lens.
1
P(in D) =
f (in meter)

Ans. 7. (a) A spherical mirror is a mirror whose reflecting surface is a part of a hollow sphere of
glass and has a curved surface.
(b) The two type of spherical mirrors are : (i) Concave mirror and (ii) Convex mirror.
Ans. 8. (a) The principal focus or the second focal point of a convex lens is a point on the principal
axis of the lens such that the rays of light incident parallel to the principle axis, after
refraction from the lens passes through it.
(b) The principal focus or the second focal point of a concave lens is a point on the principal
axis of the lens such that lens, appear to be diverging from this point.
Ans. 9. The light ray bends towards the normal. When a ray of light travels from an optically rarer
medium to an optically denser medium, it gets bent towards the normal. Since water is
optically denser than air, a ray of light travelling from air into the water will bend towards
the normal.
Ans. 10. (i) Between C and F.
(ii) Same size.
(iii) (c) Beyond C.
(iv) (d) At infinity.
Ans. 11. (a) He should move the screen away from the convex lens to focus the image of object on
the screen.
(b) Size of the image increases.
(c) The image formed will be erect, enlarged and virtual.
Ans. 12. Magnification = –1 i.e., image is inverted and of same size. Therefore, object is at 2F and
image is also at 2F.
Therefore, distance between u and v = 4f = 60 cm.
60
=
f = 15 cm
4
Object distance, u is 2f = 30 cm.

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 Now, if the object is shifted towards the lens by 20 cm, the new object distance will be at
10 cm from the lens on the left side. This distance is less than the focal length, and so the
image formed in this case would be virtual, erect and on the same side.

Ans. 13. Focal length of a concave mirror, f = –10 cm
Object distance, u = –15 cm
Object height, h1 = 4 cm
1 1 1
Using the mirror formula, + =
v u f
1 1 1
 
v 15 10
1 1 1
 
v 10 15

1 3  2 1
 
v 30 30
v = –30 cm
Thus, to obtain a sharp image of the object, the screen should be placed at a distance of 30
cm in front of the mirror.
h2
m   
u h1
Now,

m    30 
 15 
m = –2
h2
–2  2
4
h2 = –8 cm
Ans. 14. Object distance, u = –25 cm

Object height, h1 = 5 cm

Focal length, f = +10 cm
1 1 1
Using the lens formula, − =
v u f
Substituting the values, we get
1 1 1
− =
v −25 10
1 1 1
+ =
v 25 10

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 1 1 1
 
v 10 25
1 3
=
v 50
50
v =
3
v = 16.67 cm
The positive value v shows that the image is formed at the other side of the lens.
h2 v 16.67
Magnification, m     0.66
h1 u 25

The negative sign shows that the image is real and formed behind the lens.
h
Magnification, m = 2
h1


The negative value of image height indicates that the image formed is inverted. The
position, size and nature of image are shown in the following ray diagram.

Ans. 15. (a) A ray of light that travels obliquely from one transparent medium to another will change
its direction in the second medium. It is nothing but the process called refraction. The
occurs due to change in the speed of light as it enters from one transparent medium to
another.
Ans. 16. (a) We know that the refractive index of Kerosene is 1.44 and the refractive index of water
is 1.33. It shows that kerosene is optically denser than water. But the mass density of
kerosene is lesser than water. so, there is no relation between mass density and optical
density. Therefore, it clearly defines that an optically denser medium may not posses
greater mass density. Thus, the given assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 17. (i) (b) he saw a diminished image
(ii) (a) the mirror might be a convex mirror
(iii) (c) by changing the mirror to concave mirror
(iv) (d) convex
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 6
Chapter - 1 (The Human Eye and Colourful World)

Ans. 1. (b) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.
Ans. 2. (b) Accommodation
Ans. 3. (d) Retina
Ans. 4. (a) y, p, z
Ans. 5. The image of any object formed on the retina persists for about 1/16 of a second. This
continuation of sensation of eye for sometime even after the removal of the object called
persistence of vision.
Ans. 6. (a) Hypermetropia or long-sightedness.
(b) Myopia or short-sightedness.
Ans. 7. The normal eye is not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm because the
focal length of eye lens cannot be decreased beyond a certain minimum length.
Ans. 8. Rainbow formation in the sky is the evidence that white sunlight is made up of seven
different colours.
Ans. 9. The minimum distance at which objects can be seen distinctly without much strain on the
eye. For the normal human eye the least distance of distinct vision is 25cm.
Ans. 10. Rainbow is a natural spectrum formed in the sky after rain shower due to dispersion of
light caused by suspended water droplets in atmosphere.
Ans. 11. ∠A and ∠e are correctly labelled. ∠A is angle of prism whereas ∠e is angle of emergence.
Ans. 12. The completed diagram is as follows in which the ray CD which is emerging out of the
prism Q is parallel to the ray AB which is incident on the prism P.

Ans. 13.
S. No. Myopia Hypermetropia
1. In this defect of human eye, a per- In this defect of human eye, a per-
son can see the objects lying at son can see the objects lying at
short distances clearly but cannot long distances clearly but cannot
see the far objects distinctly. see the nearby objects distinctly.
2. Myopia is also called shortsighted- Hypermetropia is also called long
ness. sightedness.
3. Myopia may arise due to decrease Hypermetropia may arise due to
in focal length of eye lens. increase in focal length of eye lens.

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 4. The size of eye ball become too The size of eye ball become too
long. short.
5. A person suffering from myopia A person suffering from hyperme-
must wear spectacles with concave tropia must wear spectacles with
lens of suitable power. convex lens of suitable power.
Ans. 14. (a) Iris
(b) Retina
(c) Ciliary muscles help in changing the focal length of the eye lens.
(d) Accommodation of the accommodating power.
Ans. 15. When a beam of white light enters a prism, it gets refracted at point and splits into its seven
constituent colours. This splitting of the light occurs because of different angles of bending
of each colour and this different angles of bending occurs because different component of
light faces different refractive indices when passes through the glass prism.
First, Newton made white light to fall on a prism, this cause dispersion of white light
into seven colours. Newton then placed an inverted prism in the path of a colour band of
seven colours. Only a beam of white light comes out from the second prism. So, Newton
concluded that white light comprises of seven component colours.

Ans. 16. (a) We know that human eye is the most valuable sense of organ because it enables us to
see this colourful world. Thus, the given reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 17. (a) Human eye work like a camera because of its lens system. Light enters the eye through
a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface
of the eyeball. The eye lens forms an inverted real image of the object on the retina.
Thus, both assertion and reasons are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Ans. 18. (i) (c) light splitting up into seven colors
(ii) (a) dispersion
(iii) (b) spectrum
(iv) (d) pure
(v) (a) rainbow
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 7
Chapter - 1 (The Human Eye and Colourful World)

Ans. 1. (c) 25 cm
Ans. 2. (c) Ciliary muscles
Ans. 3. (b) Concave lens
Ans. 4. (a) ∠A and ∠e
Ans. 5. The ability of the eye to focus on the distant objects as well as on the nearby objects on the
retina by changing the focal length of its lens is called the power of accommodation of the
eye.
Ans. 6. The scattering of light by colloidal solution is called Tyndall effect.
Ans. 7. The person is suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia.
Ans. 8. (a) Pupil
(b) Retina.
Ans. 9. In this case, the person is unable to see a distant object. Hence, this person is suffering from
myopia. So, a concave lens of appropriate power will help restoring his proper vision.
Ans. 10. No, a person may have normal ability of accommodation and yet he may be myopic
or hypermetropic. In fact, myopia may arise when length of eye ball is elongated and
hypermetropia may arise when length of eye ball gets shortened.
Ans. 11. The planets are much closer to the earth and thus seen as extended sources. If we consider
a planet as a collection of a large number of point-sized sources of light, the total variation
in the amount of light entering our eye from all the individual point sized sources will
average out to zero, thereby nullifying the twinkling effect. Hence, the planets do not
twinkle.
Ans. 12.
S. No. Dispersion of Light Scattering of Light
1. The phenomenon of splitting of The process of absorption and
white light into its constituent co- then re-emission of light energy
lours by a transparent medium in different directions on interac-
such as a glass prism is called dis- tion with the particles present in
persion of light. the medium is called scattering of
light.
2. The dispersion of white light oc- Scattering of light occurs when
curs because different colours the air molecules of size smaller
of white light travel at different than the wavelength of incident
speeds while passing through the light absorb the energy of incident
glass prism. light and then re-emit it in differ-
ent directions without change in
its wavelength.
3. Formation of a rainbow is due to Blue colour of sky is due to scat-
dispersion of light. tering of light.

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Ans. 13. (i) Rainbow.
(ii) Colour B has higher speed than that of colour ‘A’.
(iii) (d) All of the above.
(v) (b) Wavelength.
Ans. 14.

Ans. 15. (a) The defect of eye is hypermetropia or long-sightedeness.

(b) The type of lens needed to rectify the above defect is convex lens of appropriate power.
(c) The diagram showing the rectification of hypermetropia by using a convex lens of
suitable power is given below.

Ans. 16. (a) The curvature of the eye lens is modified to change the focal length. When the muscles
are relaxed, the lens becomes thin. Therefore, there is an increase in the focal length.
This modification in lens is done by ciliary muscles. Thus, both assertion and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 17. (b) The person cannot see the objects distinctly and comfortably because of accommodation.
The vision becomes blurred due to the refractive defects of the eye. Therefore, the
given assertion is true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 18. (i) (a) short sightedness
(ii) (b) myopia
(iii) (d) contraction of ciliary muscles
(iv) (c) concave
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 8
Chapter - 2 (Human Eye and Colourful World)

Ans. 1. (b) Real and inverted

1
Ans. 2. (c) = th of a second
6
Ans. 3. (b) Rods
Ans. 4. (d) ∠r , ∠A and ∠D
Ans. 5. Cataract.
Ans. 6. It provides the fine adjustment of focal length of eye lens system so as to focus images of
objects situated at different distances on the retina.
Ans. 7. The most distant point at which an object can be seen clearly by the eye is called the far
point of the eye.
Ans. 8. He is suffering from presbyopia.
Ans. 9. Boundary of prism should be drawn on the drawing sheet first.
It is done so as to readjust the prism to same position if it gets displaced while doing
experiment.
Ans. 10. In human eyes, the image is always formed at the retina. So, when we increase the distance
of an object from the eye, there is no change in the image distance inside the eye.
Ans. 11. This is because, at the time of sunrise, the sun is near the horizon and so the sunlight has to
travel a large distance through the atmosphere to reach us. During this travel, most of the
shorter wavelength lights present in it are scattered out from our line of sight and only red
light having larger wavelength is able to reach our eye due to less scattering. Hence, the
sun appear reddish early in the morning.
Ans. 12.

S. No. Presbyopia Cataract

1. It is a defect of vision due to which It is the medical condition in
an old person cannot see the near- which the lens of the eye of a per-
by objects clearly due to loss of son becomes progressively cloudy
power of accommodation of eye. resulting in blurred vision.
2. The dispersion of white light oc- It cannot be corrected by any type
curs because different colours of spectacle lenses.
of white light travel at different
speeds while passing through the
glass prism.
3. Surgical operation is not required The vision of a person can be re-
to rectify presbyopia. stored by getting surgery done on
the eye having cataract.

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Ans. 13.

The observe O sees the source S raised to the position I.
Ans. 14. (a) For distant vision,
Power, P = – 5.5 D
1
Using the formula, P=
f
Substituting the value of P, we get
1
f= −
5.5
= – 0.18 m
Hence, the focal length of the required lens for distant vision is – 0.18 m. The minus
sign indicate that it is a concave lens.
(b) For near vision,
Power, P = +1.5 D
1
Using the formula, P=
f
Substituting the value of P, we get
1
f =
1.5
= 0.67 m

Hence, the focal length of the required lens for near vision is + 0.67 m. The plus sign
indicate that it is a convex lens.
Ans. 15. (d) Myopia is known as near-sightedness and hypermetropia is known as far-sightedness.
The image of a distant object is not formed in front of the iris instead it is formed in
front of retina. Thus, the given assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 16. (c) Sometimes, the crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy. This
condition is called cataract. This causes partial or complete loss of vision. The eyeball
is spherical in shape and not elliptical. Thus, the given assertion is true and reason is
false.
Ans. 17. (i) (a) Yes
(ii) (b) far sightedness
(iii) (c) Short sigtedness
(iv) (c) convex lens
(v) (d) bifocal lens made of concave and convex lens
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 9
Chapter - 2 ( The Human Eye and The Colourful World)

Ans. 1. (b) Refraction

Ans. 2. (c) Red
Ans. 3. (b) Violet
Ans. 4. (a) ∠A and ∠i
Ans. 5. Refraction of light.
Ans. 6. Tyndall effect.
Ans. 7. The point at closed distance at which an object can be seen clearly by the eye is called the
near point of the eye.
Ans. 8. (a) Blue, (b) Yellow
Ans. 9. Since the student is unable to see a distant object, he may be suffering from myopia. This
defect can be corrected by using concave lens of suitable power.
Ans. 10. There is the vacuum in the space and hence no particle is available for scattering of light. In
the absence of scattering, none of the colours from the visible spectrum reach the veiwer's
eye and the sky appears dark to the astronaut.
Ans. 11. (a) Always use white paper to place the prism.
(b) Prism table should be labelled properly.
Ans. 12. For a normal eye, image distance in the eye is fixed, being equal to the distance of retina
from the lens. When we increase the distance of an object from the eye, the focal length of
eye lens is changed on account of accommodation power of the eye, so as to keep the image
distance constant.
Ans. 13. In bright sunlight, the iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the eye and in dim
light, the iris expands the pupil to admit more light to see the object clearly. Therefore, it
takes some time to increase the size of pupil in dim light.
Ans. 14. (a) Red, (b) Violet.
Ans. 15. The person is suffering from an eye defect called myopia. In this defect, the image is formed
in front of the retina. Hence, a concave, lens is used to correct this defect of vision.
Here,
The object distance, u = ∞
The image distance, v = – 120 cm = –1.2 m

Using the formula, 1  1  1

v u f
We get
1 111 1
   =
1.2 vu f

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 11 1 1
+0 =
1.2v u f

f = 1.2 m
In order to calculate power,
1
We know P =
f (in metre)

1
or P   0.833 D
1.2

So, a concave lens of power –0.83 D is required to correct this defect.
Ans. 16. (a) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant object
distintly. A person with this defect may see clearly upto a distance of a few metres.
In a myopic eye, the image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina but not at
the retina itself. This defect may arise due to excessive curvature of the eye lens.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Ans. 17. (d) The power of accommodation of the eye usually decreases with ageing and Presbyopia
arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles. Thus, both assertion and
reason are false.
Ans. 18. (i) (a) red light scatters least hence reaches Mars easily
(ii) (b) Blue light scatters most
(iii) (c) scattering is inversely proportional to [wavelength]4
(iv) (d) refrangibility
••

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 Check Point - 1

Ans. 1. (b) 3
Ans. 2. (b) Pupil
Ans. 3. (b) Cornea
Ans. 4. (b) MS
Ans. 5. (a) When the image can be taken on a screen.
(b) When the image cannot be taken on a screen.
(c) (iii) A convex mirror
(d) (iv) Concave lens
Ans. 6. The band of colours obtained on a screen when white light is passed through a prism is
called the spectrum.
Ans. 7. Reciprocal of focal length of a lens, expressed in metre, is called the power of that lens. Its
S.I. unit is 1 dioptre (1 D), where 1 D = 1 m–1
Ans. 8. (1) Retina (2) Ciliary muscles
(3) Pupil (4) Crystalline lens
Ans. 9.
S. No. Real Image Virtual Image
1. A real image is formed due to A virtual image is formed when
actual intersection of the reflected the reflected or refracted rays meet
or refracted rays. if they are produced backwards.
2. A real image can be obtained on a A virtual image cannot be obtained
screen. on a screen.
3. A real image is inverted with A virtual image is erect with
respect to the object. respect to the object.
Ans. 10. Since the focal length of mirror is 15 cm, the range of object distance = 0 cm to 15 cm. A
concave mirror gives an erect image when an object is placed between is pole (P) and the
principal focus (F). so the image formed will be virtual, erect, and magnified, as shown in
the given figure.

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Ans. 11. Inverted, magnified.

Ans. 12. Focal length of convex mirror, f = +15 Cm

Object distance, u = – 10 cm

According to the mirror formula,

1 1 1
 
v u f

Substituting the values, we get

1 1 1
+ =
v -10 15

1 1 1
 
v 15 10

1 5
=
v 30

1 1
=
v 6

v = +6 cm

Thus, the image is formed at a distance of 6 cm from the convex mirror. Since the image is
formed behind the convex mirror, so image will be virtual and erect.

Ans. 13. The object distance, u = ∞

The image distance, v = – 4 m
1 1 1
Using the formula,  
f v u
1 1 1
We get,  
f  4 

1 1
  0
f 4
f = –4 m
In order to calculate power,
1
P =
f ( in metres)

P  1  0.25 D
4

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Ans. 14. The boy is suffering from myopia or near sightedness and it can be corrected by using a
concave lens of suitable power. The required ray diagrams are given below :
(a)

(b)

Ans. 15. (a) Image formed is magnified and erect when object is placed between optical centre and
focus of a convex lens.

(b) Image formed is magnified and inverted when the object is placed between F and 2F
of a convex lens.

Object distance, u = –20 cm

Focal length of concave lens, f = –10 cm
1 1 1
Using lens formula,  
f v u

1  11
v f u

1 1 1
 
v 10 20

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 1   2  1   3
= 20 20
v

v   20 cm
3

Ans. 16. Atmospheric refraction : Refraction of light caused by the earth's atmosphere due to change
in the refractive indices of different layers at atmosphere.
(a) Twinkling of stars : Stars are distant, point sized source of light. The path of the
rays of light coming from the stars goes on varying due to atmospheric refraction
slightly.
Thus apparent position of the stars fluctuates and the and the amount of star light
entering the eye flicker giving the twinkling effect.

(a) Advance sunrise: When the sun is slightly below the horizon, light rays coming from
the sun travel from the rarer to denser layer of air. Because of atmospheric refraction
of light, light appears to come from a higher position above the horizon. Thus, sun
appears earlier than actual sunrise.
Delayed sunset : Same reason, as similar refraction occurs at the sunset.

Ans. 17. (a) The point from which parallel rays of light, after refraction from a lens, appear to
diverge is called focus of divergent lens, and the distance between optical centre and
this focus of a divergent lens is called focal length of divergent lens.
(b) Focal length of divergent lens, f = – 30 cm
Image distance, v = – 15 cm
Object height, h1 = 6 cm

1  11
We know that,
u v f

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 1  11
or
u v f
vf
u 
f v
15  30

30  15

450
= −30 cm
−15
h2 v
Now, m= =
h1 u

h2  v  h1  15  6  3 cm
u 30

Ans. 18. (a) We know that the rainbow has seven constituent colour such as Violet, Indigo, Blue,
Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. These colours are represented as VIBGYOR. It occurs
due to the dispersion of white light i.e., when the white light passes through a glass
prism, this phenomenon of splitting white light into VIBGYOR. Thus both assertion
and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 19. (b) The refractive defects can be corrected by contact lenses and eye lens is composed of
fibrous jelly-like material. Thus both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 20. Though all the treatment for recovering from his eye problems did not help him out, I
would suggest him to opt for eye transplantation which would get his eyesight back to
normal. In transplantation of eye, the entire diseased eye cannot be replaced. Only the
diseased cornea can be replaced by the donated cornea.
Ans. 21. (i) (b) Convex lenses
(ii) (b) 1 : 4
(iii) (a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
(iv) (c) 8 cm
(v) (c) Not-so-thick lense would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow
considerable amount of light to pass.
••

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 Check Point - 2

Ans. 1. (c) Total internal reflection

Ans. 2. (d) 10 cm
Ans. 3. (b) 25 cm
Ans. 4. (c) Presbyopia
Ans. 5. Scattering is the process of absorption and then re-emission of light energy.
Ans. 6. Refractive index is a unitless quantity.
Ans. 7. (a) Select a lens of small diameter.
(b) Select a distance object.
Ans. 8. Refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the
speed of light in the medium, i.e.,
Speed of light in vacuum
Refractive index (of a medium) =
Speed of light in medium
Ans. 9. Magnification produced by a mirror,
Height of image
m =
Height of object

Height of image
+1 = Height of object

Height of image = Height of object
Hence, the image formed by the plane mirror is of the same size as that of the object. the
positive sign shows that the image formed is virtual and erect.
Ans. 10. The labelled diagram has been shown in the figure given below, in which

PE – Incident ray ∠i – Angle of incidence
EF – Refracted ray ∠r – Angle of refraction
FS – Emergent ray ∠e – Angle of emergence

∠A – Angle of the prism ∠D – Angle of deviation

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Ans. 11. (a) No, eye lens is not made of glass. It is made of fibrous jelly like material.
(b) P = – 0.2 D
F = 1/p = −1/0.2 m Distance of far point of his eye is 5 m.
(c) (ii) Concave lens.
(d) (iv) retina.
Ans. 12. We know the formula
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
Therefore, 1/v = 1/f – 1/u
Substituting the known values in the above equation we get,
1/v = 1/15 + 1/10
1/v = (2 + 3)/30 (l cm)
Hence v = 6 cm
Nature of the image: The image is formed behind the mirror and it is virtual and erect.
Ans. 13.

S. No. Concave Mirror Convex Mirror

1. A concave mirror is made by A convex mirror is made by
silvering the outer surface of a partsilvering the inner surface of a part
of a hollow sphere and reflection of a hollow sphere and reflection
takes place from the inner surface. takes place from the outer bulging
surface.
2. The light rays incident on a concave The light rays incident on a convex
mirror converge after reflection. mirror diverge after reflection.
3. The image formed by it is real as The image formed by it is always
well as virtual depending on the virtual for all positions of the
position of object form the mirror. object in front of the mirror.

Ans. 14. (a) The lens L is a concave or diverging lens.

(b) The point F1 and F2 are called the first focal point and the second focal point
respectively.

(c)

(d) The three characteristics of the image formed are : (i) Virtual and erect, (ii) diminished
and (iii) formed between optical centre O and focus F2.
Ans. 15. Power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length in meters. Its S.I. unit is
dioptre.
For lens A: fA = +10 cm = 0.1 m
Since the focal length is positive, it is convex lens.

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 1 1
PA    10 D
fA 0.1
Now,
For lens B : fB = –10 cm = – 0.1 m
Since the focal length is negative, it is a concave lens.
1 1
PB    10 D
fB 0.1

In case of
a convex lens, image is virtual and magnified if object is placed between focus
and optical centre.

Ans. 16. Given Object distance, u = – 20 cm

Object height, h = 5 cm
Radius of curvature, R = 30 cm
We have, R=2×f

∴ Focal length, f = 15 cm
According to the mirror formula,
1 1 1
 
v u f
Substituting the value, we get

1 1 1
 =
v 20 15
1 1 1
− =
v 20 15

1  1  1
v 15 20
1 = 4+3
v 60

1 = 7
v 60
v = + 8.57 cm
The positive value of v indicates that the image is formed behind the mirror. Magnification
produced by a mirror,
h2 v
m  
h1 u

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 m 
v

 8.57 
u  20 

m = + 0.428
The positive value of magnification indicates that the image formed is virtual and erect.
Image height
Magnification produced by a mirror =
Object height

h2
m 
h1
So,
h2
0.428  
5
h = 2.14 cm

The positive value of image height indicates that the image formed is erect. Therefore, the
image formed is virtual, erect and diminished.
Ans. 17. (a) Two possible reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen are :
1. increase in curvature of the lens.
2. increase in length of the eyeball.
(i) A myopic eye has its far point nearer than infinity. If forms the image of a distant
object in front of its retina as shown below :

In the given case, student's far point is 5 m. So, image of the object placed beyond
5 m from his eyes is formed in front of the retina and hence appears blurred.
That is why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m
from his eye.
(ii) Since a concave lens has an ability to diverge incoming rays, it is used to correct
this defect of vision. The image is allowed to form at the retina by using a concave
lens of suitable power as shown.

(b) Focal length of concave lens,
f = 5m
1
P =
f (in metres)

1
P    0.2 D
5

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Ans. 18. (b) We known that the refractive index of Kerosene is 1.44 and the refractive index of
water is 1.33. It shows that kerosene is optically denser that water. But the mass
density of kerosene is lesser than water. So, there is no relation between mass density
and optical density. Therefore, it clearly defines that an optically denser medium
may not possess greater mass density. Thus the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 19. (b) The farthest and the nearest point of the eye is based on the distance of the object
is placed. Thus, both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
Ans. 20. (i) (a) Rainbow
(ii) (b) dispersion
(iii) (c) seven
(iv) (b) No
(v) (d) impure
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 10
Chapter - 3 [Electricity]

Ans. 1. (d) 10 V
Ans. 2. (d) 25
Ans. 3. (b) IR2
Ans. 4. (b) 2.4 V
Ans. 5. Silver.
Ans. 6. Current is defined as the rate of flow of charge.
If a charge 'Q' flows through the cross-section of a conductor in time 't', then the current 'I'
through it is given as :
Q
I =
t
Ans. 7. The S.I. unit of current is ampere (A). If one coulomb charge flows through the cross-section
of a conductor in one second then the current through the conductor is 1 ampere.
1C
1A =
1s
Ans. 8. Both the wires will have same specfic resistance, since they are both made of same material
(i.e., Copper) and there is no change in temperature.
Ans. 9. (a) P = VI
(b) P = I2R
V2
(c) P =
R
Ans. 10. (a) An electric cell (b) A fixed resistance
(c) A variable resistance (d) Plug key (open)
(e) Plug key (closed) (f) A battery of combination of cell
(g) Ammeter (h) Voltmeter
Ans. 11.
S. No. Electrical Energy Electric Power
1. Electrical energy consumed by an It is the rate at which electric en-
electrical appliance is given by the ergy is consumed.
product of its power rating and
time for which it is used.
2. It is measured in kWh. It is measured in watt or kilo-watt.
Ans. 12. Here, the potential difference, V = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6V and charge, Q = 1C
We know that,
V
Work done, W =
Q

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 Substituting the values, we get
6
W = = 6J
1
Ans. 13. Resistance of a conductor depends on the following factors:
(a) Length of the conductor : Longer the Length of the conductor, greater is the resistance.
(b) Thickness or area of cross-section of conductor : Thicker the wire, lower is the
resistance.
(c) Temperature : For a metallic conductor, resistance increases with the increase in
temperature.
(d) Nature of material of conductor : Resistance of a conductor depends on the nature of
the material of which it is made.

Ans. 14. We know that, n = It

e
Here I = 1 A, t = 1 s and e = 1.6 × 10-19 C

∴ Number of electrons, n =
It
e
1 1

1.6  10 19
= 6.25 × 1018
Ans. 15. Three resistors are connected in parallel. Let its equivalent resistance be R

1 1 1 1
∴   
R r r r

1 111 3
 
R r r
r
∴ R =
3
By Ohm's law, V = IR
V × 3 3V
Current (I) =
=
r r
These resistances should be connected in parallel with the battery to obtain the maximum
current.
Ans. 16. First bulb : Power rating P1 = 60 W
Voltage rating V1 = 220 V
V12
Resistance, R1 =
P1
220  220

60

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 Second bulb :
Power rating P2 = 60 W
Voltage rating V2 = 110 V
V12
Resistance, R2 =
P1
110 × 110
=
60
220  220
R1 
 60
R2 110  110

60
220  220 60
 
60 110  110
4
=
1
R1 : R2 = 4 : 1
Ans. 17. (b) When a conductor is placed in an electric field, it is said that electric current flows
through the conductor due to the flow of electrons from positive to negative terminals.
This is the reason for flowing electric current. If the circuit gets opened, then the path
of flow of electron gets interrupted and current stops flowing. Thus, both assertion
and reason are true but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 18. (a) Voltage measured in the parallel circuits are always equal. As all the parallel circuits
start from one point and end at another point and always the potential difference
between the two points will always be the same. So, this is the reason why volmeter
is always connected in parallel across the circuit. Thus, both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 19. (i) (b) V = I × R
(ii) (a) Ohm’s law
(iii) (b) X axis: Current, Y axis: Voltage
(iv) (c) Resistance, Conductance
(v) (d) smaller
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 11
Chapter - 3 [Electricity]

Ans. 1. (d) 25 W
Ans. 2. (c) 1 : 4
Ans. 3. (c) Nichrome
Ans. 4. (c) Both the circuits
Ans. 5. The electrical work done per unit time is called electric power.
Ans. 6. 1 : 1, as it depends on the nature of material only.
Ans. 7. The direction of flow of current in a circuit is opposite to the flow of electrons.
Ans. 8. A volmeter has a high resistance and it is connected in parallel to the points across which
the potential difference is to tbe measured.
Ans. 9.

Ans. 10. (a) R = R1 + R2 +R3

1 1 1
(b) 1/R   
R1 R2 R3

Ans. 11. Resistance.

W
Ans. 12. We know that, V =
Q
Therefore, the amount of work done in moving 1.5 C charge across a p.d. of 4 V is,
W = VQ
= 4 × 1.5 J
= 6 J
Ans. 13.
S. No. kilowatt (kW) kilowatt hour (kWh)
1. kilowatt is the unit of electrical kilowatt hour is the unit of electri-
power. cal energy.
2. 3
1 kW = 1000 W = 10 Js –1 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J
Ans. 14. The resistivity of alloys are generally higher than that of its constituent metals and alloys
do not oxidize (burn) readily at high temperatures, hence they are commonly used in
electrical heating devices, like electric heaters, electric irons etc.
Ans. 15. Here, Potential difference, V = 12 V
2.5
Current, I = 2.5 mA = A=0.0025 A
1000

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 Using Ohm's law,
Resistance, R  V  12  4800 
I 0.0025
Ans. 16. If` n` electrons pass through the cross-section of a conductor in time 't', the total charge 'Q'
passing through the conductor is :
Q = ne (e is the charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
The current 'I' in the conductor is :
Q ne
I = =
t t
Ans. 17. The given circuit can be redrawn as shown below :

)(
Result resistance of R1, R2 and R3 :
R` = R1 + R2 + R3
= 10 + 10 + 10 = 3 W
Resultant resistance of the circuit :
1 1 1
 
R R R 4
1 1 1 3 4
  
= 
30 10 30 30
30 15
R    7.5 
4 2
Here, V = 3 Volt, I = ?
By Ohm's law, V = IR
V 3 30
I= = = = 0.4 A
R 7.5 75
Ans. 18. (c) Ohm's law states that the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is directly
proportional to the potential difference across its two ends. The expression is written as :
V = IR
Here R (resistance of the wire) is constant value then only the statement will be valid.
V ∝ I only if VI = constant
Thus, assertion is true, but reason is false.
V
Ans. 19. (d) Both Assertion and reason are wrong. According to Ohm's law I = , when the
R
resistance gets doubled then current gets halved. When Voltage is kept constant, I is
inversely proportional to R.
Ans. 20. (i) (b) it regulates the current
(ii) (c) it changes the resistance
(iii) (a) electrical to mechanical
(iv) (d) greater the speed of fan
(v) (a) rheostat and resistance box
••
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 Answers Worksheet - 12
Chapter - 3 [Electricity]

Ans. 1. (a) Rheostat

1Joule
Ans. 2. (d)
1Coulomb
Ans. 3. (c) More
Ans. 4. (b) 1.5 A
Ans. 5. Ohm's law is obeyed only when the temperature of conductor remains constant.
Ans. 6. (a) Zero (b) Infinite
Ans. 7. The obstruction offered to the flow of current by a conductor is called its resistance.
Ans. 8. Heat produced, H = I2Rt
Ans. 9. A key is used to close or open a circuit. In a closed circuit, current flows through the various
electrical components and in an open circuit, no current flows through it.
Ans. 10. A fuse wire is made from an alloy of lead and tin because it has a low melting point and a
high specific resistance. An excessive current melts it so that it blows off.
Ans. 11. Due to heating effect of current, we must keep the circuit closed for a relatively shorter time
and open for a relatively longer time to ensure minimal changes in the values of resistance.
Ans. 12. Q = 1500 C
t = 2 min 30 sec
= 120 + 30 = 150 sec
Q 1500
I= = = 10 A
t 150
Ans. 13. Charge on one electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
∴ Number of electron in 1 coulomb charge
1

1.6  10 19
1019
=
1.6
= 6.25 × 1018
Ans. 14.
S. No. Ohmic Resistor Non-Ohmic Resistor
1. Ohmic resistors obey Ohm's law. Non-Ohmic resistors do not obey
Ohm's law.
2. The graph for potential difference The graph for potential differ-
(V) versus current (I) is a straight ence (V) versus current (I) is not a
line. straight line.

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 3. The slope of V-graph is constant at The slope of V-I is different at dif-
all value of V or I at a given tem- ferent value of V or I at a given
perature. temperature.
Ans. 15. An electrical circuit is a continuous path comprising conducting wires and other electrical
components between the terminals of a battery along which an electric current is set up. It
is represented by drawing a circuit diagram.
The corrected circuit diagram given in the question is :

Ans. 16. (a) Meter reading on Monday = 53712

(b) Meter reading on Tuesday = 53725
(c) Number of units of electrical energy used = (53725 – 53712)
= 13 unit
(d) Time = 24 hours
(e) Cost of electrical energy consumed = ` 8 × 13
= ` 104
Ans. 17. (a) The two resistors of resistance 4 W each are connected in parallel.
1 1 1
 
∴ R 4 4
11

4
2
=
4
∴ R =2W
Now, Potential difference, V = 2V
Total resistance R, = 2 W
V 2
(b) Using Ohm's law, Current, I = = = 1A
R 2
Ans. 18. (a) Where, r : resistance
l
According to the formula: R = ρ A

r : resistivity
l : length of conductor

A : area of cross section of conductor. Here resistivity of the material never varies, if length
is also kept constant. When area is halved then resistance of the material gets halved as the
resistance depends on 3 factors : length, area and nature of the material.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

A-165
Ans. 19. (c) Here for using the alloys in making toasters, electric iron is based on only one reason
for resistivity. If the resistivity of the material is high, this is being used to make these
items, then heat dissipation will be more. And these items are used for heating only.
So, the reason is wrong.
So, assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Ans. 20. (i) (a) Power = Voltage x Current
(ii) (c) Not necessarily
(iii) (c) by using the relation Power = [ Voltage]2 / resistance
(iv) (b) 220V – 40W
(v) (d) Joules law of heating
••

A-166
 Answers Worksheet - 13
Chapter - 3 [Electricity]

Ans. 1. (a) 2 W
Ans. 2. (c) Potential difference (V) decreases
Ans. 3. (d) The movement of electrons on their outer most orbital is tightly held together.
Ans. 4. (b) 2.0 A
Ans. 5. According to Ohm's law the current flowing in a conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference applied across its ends, provided the temperature and other physical
conditions of the conductor remain constant.
Ans. 6. Series combination.
Ans. 7. The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if 1 joule work is done in
bringing 1 coulomb charge from one point to the other.
1Joule
1 volt =
1 Coulomb
Ans. 8.

Ans. 9. The three important effects produced by electric current are (a) Heating effect, (b) Magnetic
effect, (c) Chemical effect.
Ans. 10. The crocodile clips must be connected between A and F.
Ans. 11. The figure (a) obeys Ohm's law because the V-I graph is a straight line and its slope (or
resistance) is constant.

 Voltage rating of appliance 

2

Ans. 12. (a) Resistance of appliance 

 Power rating of appliance 
V2
R =
P
Power rating of appliance
(b) Safe current =
Voltage rating of appliance

P
I =
V

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Ans. 13.
S. No. Resistance Resistivity (or Specific Resistance)
1. The S.I. unit of resistance is Ohm The S.I. unit of resistivity is ohm-me-
(W). tre (W m).
2. Resistance of a substance depends Resistivity of a substance is indepen-
on its length and thickness. dent of its length and thickness.
Ans. 14. (i) To measure current in the circuit.
(ii) (a) All in series.
(iii) (d) Ammeter A2 and voltmeter V2
(iv) (c) Ammeter A2 and voltmeter V1
Work done
Ans. 15. Potential difference =
Charge moved
W
or V =
1
W
or 6 =
1

∴ W =6×1
= 6 J
The work done on each coulomb is 6 joule, hence, the energy given to each coulomb
of charge is also 6 joule.
Ans. 16. (a) Electrical energy consumed daily
40 × 8 + 10 × 6 + 60 ×14
kWh =
1000
320 + 60 + 840
= kWh
1000
1220
= kWh
1000
= 1.22 units.
(b) Electrical energy consumed in 1 month
= 1.22 × 30 units
= 36.6 units
(c) Monthly bill = ` 5 × 36.6
= ` 183
Ans. 17. (a) R2 and R3 are in parallel.
∴ Equivalent resistance of R2 and R3
R ×R 3
Rp = 2
R2 + R3

12 ×6
=
12 + 6
72
= πW
18
=4W
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 ∴ Total resistance of the circuit, R = R1 + RP
Now, R1 and RP are connected in series
= (2 + 4) W
= 6W
(b) Potential difference, V = 12 V
Total resistance, R = 6 W
Using Ohm's law,
V
Total current flowing in circuit, I =
R
12
= A = 2A
6
(c) Potential difference across R1,
V1 = IR1
=2×2=4V
(d) Potential difference across R2 or R3,
V2 = IRp
=2×4=8V
(e) Let the current flowing though R2 be I`.
∴ V2 = I` R2
V2 8
or I` = R = 12 A
2

= 0.67 A.
Ans. 18. (a) Resultant resistance is the addition of individual present in the series circuit. So,
according to the above statement, Resultant resistance (R) = R1 + R2 + R3. so total resistance
1 1 1 1
will be 3 R. In parallel combination, resultant resistance will be= = + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
Here, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 19. (d) In a series circuit always the current measured will be same, this is the reason why
ammeter is always connected in series with the circuit for which the measurement has to
be done. Thus, both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 20. (i) (b) electrical energy consumed
(ii) (c) energymeter
(iii) (d) All of the above
(iv) (a) Yes
••

A-169
 Answers Worksheet - 14
Chapter - 3 [Electricity]

Ans. 1. (a) 1 ohm

Ans. 2. (b) 55 A
r1 + r1 − 4r1r2
Ans. 3. (d)
r1 − r1 − 4r1r2

Ans. 4. (c) 12.83 V

Ans. 5. The cable carrying 10 A current will be of thicker wire because to carry a heavy current, the
resistance of wire should be low, hence its area of cross-section should be large.
Ans. 6. The S.I. unit of resistance is ohm (W).
The resistance of a conductor is said to be 1 ohm if 1 ampere current flows through it when
a potential difference of 1 volt is applied across the ends of the conductor.
1 Volt
1 Ohm =
1 Ampere

Ans. 7. Properties of Charge :

(a) Electric charge can neither be created nor be destroyed but it can be transfer from one
body to another i.e., total electric charge in an isolated system is conserved.
(b) Total charge on a body is equal to the algebraic sum of all the charges located on that
body.
Ans. 8. Joule's law of heating states that the amount of heat produced in a conductor is directly
proportional to :
(a) Square of current (I2),
(b) Resistance of wire (R), and
(c) Time (t), for which current is passed.

V2
Ans. 9. Power (P) =
R


From the above formula, P is inversely proportional to R (resistance) as voltage remaining
the same. Hence, 40 W lamp has high resistance.
Ans. 10. The potential difference across any two points in a circuit is measured by a voltmeter.
A voltmeter must have a high resistance and it is connected in parallel to the two points
across which the potential difference is to be measured.

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Ans. 11. The two bulbs are connected in parallel and complete circuit diagram is drawn below :

The reason for connecting the two bulbs in parallel is that (i) both the bulbs glow at the
same voltage, and (ii) if one bulb stops glowing, the other bulb remains unaffected.
Ans. 12. (i) Silver.
(ii) Nichrome.
(iii) Resistivity of a conductor is defined as the resistance of the conductor of unit length
and unit area of cross-section.
(iv) Resistivity of a material changes if its temperature changes.
Ans. 13.
S. No. Series Combination Parallel Combination
1. The current has a single path The main current from the source
for its flow, hence, same current divides itself in different arms. The
flows through each resistor. current in each resistors is inversely
proportional to its resistance.
2. The Potential difference across The potential difference across each
the entire circuit is equal to the resistor is same and it is equal to the
sum of the potential difference potential difference across the termi-
across the individual resistor. nals of the battery (or source).
3. The equivalent resistance in se- The equivalent resistance in parallel
ries combination is greater than combination is less than the least re-
the highest resistance in the series sistance in the parallel combination
combination.
Ans. 14. The resistors have to be combined as shown in the diagram.

The equivalent resistance of 1 W and 100 W connected in parallel is,

1 1 1
 
R1 1 100
100  1

100
100
R1 = W = 0.99 W
or 101

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 Now, 10 W and R1 are in series.
Therefore, equivalent resistance R is
R = (10 + 0.99) W
= 10.99 W
The above value of resistance is greater than 10 W but less than 11 W.
Ans. 15. (a) When I = 0.6A
V = 0.75 V

(b) When I = 1.75 V

V = 1.4 A
Ans. 16. The combined resistance R of the three electrical devices R1, R2 and R3 connected in parallel
is :
1 1 1 1
  
R R1 R 2 R 3

Here, R1 = 100 W, R2 = 50 W and R3 = 500 W
1 1 1 1
  
R 100 50 500
5  10  1

500
16
=
500
500
or R = = 31.25 W
16
Now, Potential difference, V = 220 V
Current, I =?
Resistance, R = 31.25 W
V
Using Ohm's law : =R
1
220
or = 31.25
1
220
or I =
31.25
= 7.04 A
Hence, the current passing through the electric iron is 7.04 A.
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Ans. 17. (a) Between S and R : Between the points S and R the above network of resistors can be
represented as :

Equivalent resistance of three 3 W connected in series,

R1 = (3 + 3 + 3) = 9 W
Now, R1 and 3 W are connected in parallel.

∴ Equivalent resistance R can be calculated as

1 1 1
 
R 9 3
1 3

9
4
=
9
9
R =
W = 2.25 W
4
(b) Between P and R : Between the points P and R the network of resistors can be
represented as :

Equivalent resistance of two 3 W resistors connected in series is (3 + 3) = 6 W

Now, two 6 W resistors are connected in parallel.
∴ Equivalent resistance is given by

1 1 1
 
R 6 6
1 11 2 1
  
R 6 6 3
R =3W
Ans. 18. (c) Assertion is true but the reason is false. As heat flow is dependent on three factors :
1. Current flowing through it
2. Time period of flow of current
3. Resistance of the conductor

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 So, the reason is false the that heat flow only depends on square of current. As it is dependent
on several other factors too.
Ans. 19. (a) Most of the part of consumed power of bulb is dissipated as heat but very less part gets
converted into light. So, there is a need for thermal isolation in order to reduce heat losses.
This is the reason why bulbs are filled with inactive nitrogen and argon.
So, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 20. (i) (a) one ammeter in series and voltmeter in parallel
(ii) (b) Two ammeter is series and voltmeter in parallel
(iii) (c) No
(iv) (d) Voltage was same in Krisha’s case
(v) (a) Krisha
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 15
Chapter - 4 [Magnetic Effects of Electric Current]

Ans. 1. (d) is the same at all points

Ans. 2. (c and d) Velocity and Momentum
Ans. 3. (b) Magnetic field
Ans. 4. (a) 36.36 A
Ans. 5. Near the poles of the magnet.
Ans. 6. The space or region around a magnet in which the force of attraction or repulsion due to
the magnet can be detected is called magnetic field.
Ans. 7. A.C. generator has slip rings while D.C. generator has a commutator.
Ans. 8. The steel does not lose all its magnetism when the current is stopped and becomes a
permanent magnet. That's why it is not used for making electromagnets.
Ans. 9. When a compass needle is brought near a bar magnet, the compass needle experiences
a deflection due to the interaction of magnetic fields of the compass needle and the bar
magnet.
Ans. 10. It states that, "Stretch your right hand is such a way that the first finger, the central finger
and the thumb are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the first finger points along
the direction of magnetic field and the thumb points along the direction of motion of the
conductor, then the direction of induced current is given by the direction of the central
finger."

This rule also called dynamo rule.
Ans. 11. Here, P = 3 kW = 3000 W, V = 220 V
Current drawn by motor,
P
I =
V
3000
= A
220
= 13.6 A

Hence, current rating of fuse to be used with this motor is 15 A.

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Ans. 12. (b)

(a) The strength of a magnetic field is inversely proportional to the square of the distance
from the conductor i.e., strength of an electric field decreases with increase in distance.
(b) The strength of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the current passing in the
wire i.e., strength of the magnetic field increases with the increase in current.
Ans. 13. As the electron beam moves from back wall towards the front wall, it implies that the
current is travelling from front to back wall. Deflection towards right side indicate the
direction of the force. Thus by using Fleming's left hand rude, the direction of the magnetic
field would be from the roof of the room towards the floor, i.e., from top to bottom or
downwards.

Ans. 14. (a) Since current at end X is anticlockwise, the polarity at that end is North pole.
(b) Current at end Y is clockwise, hence polarity at that end in South pole.
(c) Clock-face rule is used to determine the polarities of the two faces of a current carrying
circular loop.
Ans. 15. (a) A coil of insulated wire is connected to a galvanometer and if a bar magnet with its
South pole towards one face of the coil is
(i) Moved quickly towards it, the galvanometer is deflected towards the left.
(ii) Moved quickly away from it, the galvanometer is deflected towards the right.
(iii) If the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, then the deflection of the
galvanometer is zero.
It this activity is repeated with North pole of the magnet :
(i) If the magnet is pushed into the coil, the galvanometer is deflected towards the
right.
(ii) If the magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the galvanometer is deflected towards
the left.
(iii) If the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, the deflection of the galvanometer
is zero.

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 (b)
The phenomenon involved in this activity is electromagnetic induction. The
production of electric current by moving a magnet inside a fixed coil of wire is called
electromagnetic induction.
(c) The direction of induced current is determined by 'Fleming's right hand rule'.

Ans. 16. (a) Here while carrying out an experiment if a compass needle is placed near a wire
carrying current then due to the effect of magnetism which produced due to electric
current produced in the wire the needle gets deflected. This shows that the magnetism
and electricity are interlinked.
so, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 17. (c) Magnetic field not a scalar quantity rather it is a vector quantity which has both
magnitude and direction. So, when iron fillings are placed around a magnet, they
get arranged in a fashion similar to that of magnetic lines. So assertion is correct, but
reason is false.
Ans. 18. (i) (b) the spring got magnetized
(ii) (a) the deflection of compass increased
(iii) (c) no change
(iv) (d) magnetic effect of electric current
(v) (a) increase in magnetic strength

••

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 Answers Worksheet - 16
Chapter - 4 [Magnetic Effects of Electric Current]

Ans. 1. (d) upward

Ans. 2. (c ) half revolution
Ans. 3. (c) 28.2 × 10–2 N
Ans. 4. (c) A.C. generator
Ans. 5. The two safety measures are :
(a) Use of electric fuse.
(b) Earthing of metal bodies of electrical appliances.
Ans. 6. It is more dangerous to touch the live wire rather than the neutral wire because live wire
has a high potential of 220 V, whereas neutral wire has zero potential.
Ans. 7. The earth wire transfers any leakage of electric current to the earth. The leaked current can
otherwise reach the metallic body of an appliance and can lead to electric shock. Earth wire
prevents from electric shock by safely transferring the leaked curent to the earth.
Ans. 8. Place a compass needle at the given point. If it stays in the North-South direction, then the
magnetic field is due to earth. If the needle points along any direction other than North-
South direction, then the field is due to some current carrying conductor.
Ans. 9. (a) Overloading is the process of overheating of a wire due to excess current drawn by all
the appliances than the permitted limit for than wire.
(b) Short-circuiting is the process of overheating which may even cause fire when the live
wire and the neutral wire come in contact due to defective or damaged wiring.
Ans. 10. Clock face rule is used to determine the polarity of the two faces of a current carrying
circular loop.
According to this rule, "If the current around the face of circular wire flows in the clockwise
direction, then that face of the circular wire will be South pole (S-Pole) and if the current
around the face of circular wire flows in the anticlockwise direction, then that face of the
circular wire will be North pole (N-Pole)."
Ans. 11. Since, the current is flowing clockwise through a circular loop. The direction of magnetic
field around the conductor can be found by using the right hand thumb rule. As the figure
shows, the magnetic field would be towards the plane of the paper when it is inside the
loop. On the other hand, the magnetic field would be away from the paper when it is
outside the loop.
Ans. 12. The earth pin made long so that the earth connect is made first and this ensures the safety
of the user. If the appliance is defective, then as soon as the live pin gets connected, a strong
current flow through the earth wire and the fuse blows off. The earth pin is thicker than
the other two pins so that even by mistake it cannot be inserted in the hole for the live or
neutral connection.
Ans. 13. Since the direction of the current in the current carrying conductor AB is upwards, the
direction of the magnetic field would be anti-clockwise as deduced by applying right hand

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 thumb rule. Consequently, the magnetic field at point P would be towards the plane and at
point Q, the direction of the magnetic field would be away from the plane.
Since the strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance (r), the field
at P would be weaker as compared to Q [... r1 > r2]

Ans. 14. (a) Total power of appliances used simultaneously
= ( 3 × 100) + (8 × 40)
= 300 + 320
= 620 W
Voltage of mains,
V = 220 V
P 620
Current drawn from mains, =
I = = 2.82 A
V 220
(b) Excess current available = 5A – 2.82 A = 2.18 A
Current drawn by each of 60 W bulb at 220 V,
P 60
= I = = 0.27 A
V 220
Number of additional bulbs of 60 W which can be lighted,
Excess current available
n =
Current drawn by each bulb
2.18
= = 8.07 = 8
0.27
Ans. 15. (c) Assertion is correct but the reason is wrong. As the current changes in the conductor,
magnitude of the magnetic fields produced also varies which is the reason for a change
in the deflection of the iron filings.
Ans. 16. (a) A force is always exerted due to magnetic field in the same way electric current flowing
through any conductor produces magnetic field. And in this case, Fleming's left-hand
rule is used to predict directions of the magnetic field, current and displacement.
Ans. 17. (i) (c) the filings arranged themselves in circular loops
(ii) (a) the deflection followed a specific path of closed circular loops
(iii) (b) No
(iv) (d) Rheostat
(v) (b) No
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 Answers Worksheet - 17
Chapter - 4 [Magnetic Effects of Electric Current]

Ans. 1. (a) 0.39 T

Ans. 2. (b ) 9.8 × 10–3 T
Ans. 3. (a) 45 p × 10–7 T mA–1
Ans. 4. (d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Ans. 5. The direction of magnetic field lines gets reversed on changing the direction of flow of
current in a straight conductor.
Ans. 6. The different ways to induce current in a coil are :
(a) By moving the coil in a magnetic field.
(b) By changing the magnetic field around the coil.
Ans. 7. The wires used as the heating element in an electric heater have very high resistivity and a
very high melting point whereas the wires used in a fuse have resistivity more than that of
copper or aluminium but have a low melting point.
Ans. 8. The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest
when the current-carrying conductor is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.
Ans. 9. The lines drawn in magnetic field along which north magnetic pole moves, are called
magnetic field lines.
The characteristic properties of magnetic field lines are :
(a) The magnetic lines originate from North pole and ends at South pole.
(b) The magnetic lines do not intersect each other
Ans. 10. Electric motor works on the principle that 'when a rectangular coil is placed in a magnetic
field and current is passed through it, a force acts on the coil which rotates it continuously.
Thus, when the coil rotates, the shaft attached to it also rotates converting the electrical
energy supplied to the motor to the mechanical energy of rotation.
Ans. 11. (a) 1 → Earth (E), 2 → Neutral (N) and 3 → Live (L).
(b) Terminal 1 is connected to the metal body of the appliance.
Ans. 12. (a) (I) (D.C.) → Direct Current
(II) (A.C.) → Alternating Current
(b) "The frequency of current in India is 50 Hz" means the direction of current in India
change 100 times in 1 second.
Ans. 13. (a) No current flows and there is no deflection in galvanometer's.
(b) Current is produced in the wire and the galvanometer's needle is deflected in one
direction.
(c) No current flows through the wire and the galvanometer's needle shows no deflection.
(d) The movement (withdrawal) causes flow of current in the wire and deflection of the
galvanometer's needle in the opposite direction.

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Ans. 14. Power of 1 tube light, P = 40 W
Voltage supply, V = 220 V
Therefore, current drawn by each tube light,
P 40
=
I = = 0.18 A
V 220
Therefore, maximum number of tube lights which can be used,
Current rating of fuse
n=
Current drawn by each tube light

5
= = 27.7
0.18
Hence, a maximum number of tube light which can be used = 27
Ans. 15. (a) The student conducted this activity to make an electromagnet.
(b) The electrical current flowing through a coil will create a uniform magnetic field. This
magnetic field causes the needle to turn. Reversing, the connections to the battery,
reverse the direction of the current flow and the needle will point in the opposite
direction.
(c) When an iron rod is placed along the axis of a current carrrying coil, it gets magnetised
under the influence of the magnetic field produced by the coil through induction. But
this magnetism lasts as long as the current supply is not withdrawn.
Ans. 16. (c) An electric motor converts electrical energy to mechanical energy which is used for
pumping liquids through the pumps. It produces a rotating force when electricity is
given to it.
So, Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Ans. 17. (b) Both the statements are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
In testing purpose galvanometer is used to measure polarity. There is a torque acting
on a current carrying coil suspended in a magnetic field which produces deflection.
Deflection is directly proportional to current flowing through the galvanometer coil.
Ans. 18. (i) (a) electric motor
(ii) (b) Yes
(iii) (c) split rings
(iv) (c) concave shaped faces for the electromagnet
(v) (d) by introducing a soft iron armature inside the coil
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 18
Chapter - 4 [Magnetic Effects of Electric Current]

Ans. 1. (a) generator

Ans. 2. (b ) An iron piece into it
Ans. 3. (a) Soft iron
Ans. 4. (c) Same at all points
Ans. 5. If a swimmer swims in the direction of current, facing the magnetic needle, then the North
pole of the magnetic needle deflects towards his left hand i.e., West and the South pole
towards his right hand i.e., East.
Ans. 6. According to the told convention, the live wire is red, neutral wire is black and earth wire is
green in colour. But, according to the new convention, the live wire is brown, neutral wire
is light blue and the earth wire is green or yellow in colour.
Ans. 7. An electromagnet is called a temporary magnet because as we keep on passing electric
current it will work as magnet, if we stop passing electric current, it will no longer work as
magnet.
Ans. 8. When live and neutral wires touch each other, the resistance suddenly decreases and
current increases. This leads to excessive heating of wire which manifests in the form of
sparks. This is called short circuit.
Ans. 9. Applying Fleming's left hand rule, the wire carrying current tends to move upwards (out
of the page).
Ans. 10. Here, Power, P = 2 kW
= 2 × 1000 W
= 2000 W
Supply voltage, V = 220 V
Therefore, current drawn by electric oven,
P 2000
I= = A == 99.09
A A
V 220

The current drawn by the electric oven is 9 A, but the fuse has 5 A current rating. Thus
when a 2 kW power rating electric oven is operated in the circuit having 5 A current rating
fuse, the fuse will blow off and cut-off the power supply.
Ans. 11. In an electric motor, after every half rotation the direction of coil gets reversed due to
change in orientation of the magnetic field. To ensure a continuous rotation; a split ring
is attached to the coil so that the polarity of the coil changes after every half rotation. This
changes the direction of current and thus the armature keeps on rotating continuously.
Ans. 12. When we switch on current in coil A, it becomes an electromagnet and produces a magnetic
field around coil B. So, an induced current flows in coil B for a moment. When the current
in coil A becomes steady, its magnetic field also becomes steady and the current in coil B
stops.

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 When we switch off the current in coil A, then the magnetic field in coil B stops quickly and
in this case an induced current flows in coil B in the opposite direction.
Ans. 13. (a) When magnet is pushed near a bar magnet then it induces current due to electromagnetic
induction.
(b) When the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, there is no deflection in the
galvanometer.
(c) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the deflection in the galvanometer is
in the opposite direction.
Ans. 14. Precautions to avoid overloading of domestic electric circuit :
(a) Avoid using too many appliances in a single socket.
(b) Appliances should always be checked for potential faults and should be repaired in
time.
(c) Fuse of proper rating should be used.
Ans. 15. Factors affecting the strength of an electromagnet. The strength of an electromagnet
depends on :
(a) The number of turns in the coil : If we increase the number of turns in the coil, the
strength of electromagnet increases.
(b) The current flowing in the coil : If the current in the coils increased, the strength of
electromagnet increases.
(c) The length of air gap between its poles : If we reduce the length of air gap between
the pole of an electromagnet, then its strength increases.
Ans. 16. (a) The axle of the generator is mechanically rotated to rotate the coil inside the magnetic
field. The rotating coil is kept between two poles of a permanent magnet. Due to the
electromagnetic induction electricity is produced through the coils. So, both assertion
and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 17. (b) Both the statements are correct individually, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion. As when a fault occurs in the domestic lines there is a
protective device called fuse which breaks the circuit and protects all the equipments
by melting the low melting point wire wrapped to it in order to interrupt supply.
Ans. 18. (i) (c) magnetic force is used to lift the train above the track
(ii) (a) repulsive force
(iii) (b) current drawn by train
(iv) (a) by controlling the current
(v) (b) reducing the friction due to air
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 Check Point - 3

Ans. 1. (d) Becomes 4 times

Ans. 2. (d ) Parallel to the line wire
Ans. 3. (b) No two magnetic lines of force can intersect each other.
Ans. 4. (b) Number of lines crossing a given point.
Ans. 5. A continuous conducting path consisting of wires and other electrical components (like
resistance of electric bulb, switch etc.) between the two terminals of a cell or battery, along
which an electric current flows, is called an electric circuit.
Ans. 6. A current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it. This magnetic field
interacts with the externally applied magnetic field and as a result the conductor experiences
a forces.
Ans. 7. An electric circuit is said to be an open circuit when the switch is in 'off' mode (or key is
unplugged) and no current flows in the circuit.
The circuit is said to be closed circuit when the switch is in 'on' mode (or key is plugged)
and a current flows in the circuit.
Ans. 8. Three methods of producing magnetic fields are as follows :
(a) By permanent magnet.
(b) By electromagnet.
(c) By current carrying conductors.
Ans. 9. (a) Electrical energy gets converted into heat energy in an electric heater.
(b) Electrical energy change into mechanical energy in an electric motor.
(c) Electrical energy gets converted into sound energy in a loudspeaker.
(d) Electrical energy changes into chemical energy during electrolysis.
Ans. 10. As per Fleming's left hand rule, the magnetic field is directed out of the paper.
Ans. 11. Anticlockwise from the side of a magnet.
Ans. 12. The commercial unit of electrical energy is kWh.
1 kWH = 1000 W × 1 hour
J
 1000  60  60 s
s
= 3.6 × 106 J
Ans. 13. Milliammeter has negative zero error and voltmeter has positive zero error.
Zero correction is always, negative of zero error.

∴ Milliammeter reading = 38 – (–4) = 38 + 4 = 42 mA
Voltmeter reading = 3.6 – (+ 0.4)
= 3.6 – 0.4 = 3.2 V.

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Ans. 14. Here, Potential difference, V = 220 V, Current, I = 5A
V

∴ Resistance, R =
I
220
= = 44 W
5
Let the number of 176 W resistors to be connected in parallel to give an equivalent resistance
of 44 W be x.
176
Equivalent resistance of 'x' 176 ohm resistance connected in parallel is = W
x
176
But, = 44
x
176

∴ x = =4
44

Thus, 4 resistors of 176 W each should be connected in parallel.
Ans. 15. (a) Total power of appliances used simultaneously
P = (3 × 100) + (3 × 40)
= 420 W
Voltage of mains, V = 220 V
P 420
Current drawn from the mains, I =
= = 1.91A
V 220
(b) Excess current available which can be safely used
= 5A – 1.91 A
= 3.09 A
∴ Current drawn by each CFL of 40 W at 220 V,
P 40
I = = = 0.18A
V 220
∴ Number of additional CFL's of 40 W each which can be lighted,
Excess current available
n =
Current drawn by each tube light

3.09
= = 17.2
0.18
∴ Seventeen additional CFL's can be lighted.
Ans. 16. (a) The three resistors of resistances 2W, 3W and 6W have to be combined as shown in the
figure to obtain 4W resistance.
Equivalent resistance of 3W and 6W connected in parallel is,

1 1 1
= +
Rp 3 6

2 +1 3
= =
6 6
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 6
Rp =
=2W
3
Now, Rp and 2W are joined in series and the equivalent resistance is,
R = Rp + 2
= ( 2 + 2) W
= 4 W
(b) In order to obtain 1 W resistance, the resistors 2W, 3W and 6W have to be combined as
shown in figure.
2 W, 3 W and 6 W resistances are connected in parallel,
1 1 1 1
= + +
∴ R 2 3 6

3 + 2 +1
=
6
6
=
6
R =1W
Ans. 17. (b) Assertion is true, temperature coefficient in metals is positive and it is negative for
p-type semiconductors. Holes are majority carriers in semiconductors and electrons
are majority carriers in case of metals. The reason is correct, but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. 18. (b) The magnetic field lines never intersect each other as an intersection of the field lines
means the magnetic field at that point has two directions, which is not possible because
the resultant force on a pole (north/south) at any point can only be in one direction.
Thus, both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
Ans. 19. There is only a single path which connects from the electric source to the output devices.
The electrical appliance damage can be prevented by connecting the fuse in series with the
mains as well as the electrical appliance. To maintain the current level efficiently series of
resistors can be used.
Ans. 20. Solenoid is the only thing which is tightly-packed and wound in terms of close loops. If
current is passed inside a solenoid which is of finite length, the closely packed loops inside
it produce a magnetic field which resembles the magnetic field of a bar magnet. Other than
this, the circular or rectangular loop doesn't produce much magnetic field as that of a bar
magnet.
Ans. 21. (a) Since current at end X is anticlockwise, the polarity at that end is North pole.
(b) Current at end Y is clockwise, hence polarity at that end is South pole.
(c) Clock-face rule is used to determine the polarities of the two faces of a current carrying
circular loop.

A-186
 (d) Factor affecting the strength of an electromagnet are :
l Number of turns l Current flowing in the coil
l Length of air gap between its poles

Ans. 22. (i) (c) Electrical to mechanical

(ii) (b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit
(iii) (a) A bar magnet
(iv) (d) Only II
(v) (a) For a current of 0.8 A the magnetic field is 13 mT
••

A-187
 Check Point - 4

Ans. 1. (d)15.9 V
Ans. 2. (a )
1 ohm
Ans. 3. (d)Current flowing through the solenoid is saturated
Ans. 4. (c)producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the
coil.
Ans. 5. Lead-tin alloy is used for fuse wires because it has low melting point.
Ans. 6. No, a magnetic field exerts a force only on a moving charge.
Ans. 7. The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if 1 joule of work is done in
moving 1 coulomb of electric charge from one point to the other.
Ans. 8. The two main precautions are :
(a) The hands must be completely dry.
(b) The plugs should fit in the socket lightly.
Ans. 9. Here, Current (I) = 5 A, Resistance (R) = 20 W, Time (t) = 30 s
∴ Heat produced = I2Rt
= (5)2 × 20 × 30
= 15000 J
Thus, heat developed is 1.5 × 104 J.
Ans. 10. Rubber is an electrical insulator. Hence electrician can work safely while working on an
electric circuit without a risk of getting any electric shock.
Ans. 11. Ammeter and rheostat are connected in series.
Ans. 12. (a) The induced current increases at a high speed.
(b) The induced current is reversed.
(c) The induced current increases.
(d) The induced current is zero.
This is because only one common point between ammeter, cell and rheostat.
Ans. 13. According to this rule, stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left hand
such that they are mutually perpendicular to each other. If the first finger points in the
direction of magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of current, then the thumb
will point in the direction of motion or the force acting on the conductor.

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Ans. 14. (a)

S. No. Electromagnet Permanent Magnet

1. It is made up of soft iron. It is made up of steel.
2. The magnetic field strength can The magnetic field strength cannot be
be changed. changed.
3. The magnetic field can be very The magnetic field is not strong.
strong.
4. The polarity of an electromagnet The polarity of a permanent magnet
can be reversed. not be reversed.
5. It can be easily demagnetized by It cannot be easily demagnetized.
switching off the current.
Ans. 15. In series combination, the same current flows in all the resistances but the potential
difference across each of the resistance is different.
According to Ohm's law we have
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
If the total potential difference between A and B is V, then
V = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
= I (R1 + R2 + R3)
Let the equivalent resistance be R, then
V = IR
and hence IR = I (R1 + R2 + R3)
⇒ R = R1 + R2 + R3
Ans. 16. Here, Charge, Q = 96000 C, Time, t = 1 h= 60 × 60 s
Q
∴ Current, I =
t
96000
=
60 × 60 s
= 26.67
V 50
Using Ohm's law, Resistance, R = =
I 26.67

or R = 1.87 W
Time, t = 1 hour
= 60 × 60s = 3600 s
∴ Heat generated, H = I2Rt
= (26.67)2 × 1.87 × 3600 J
= 4788397 J
Ans. 17. (d) It is one of the disadvantages of series circuits that if one of the components fails then
none of the components works in that circuit. While in case of parallel connection
current is divided so, if one component fails, it is possible that the circuit works with
less load. So, parallel connections are used wherever the reliability is needed. Here,
both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 18. (a) The potential difference is induced in secondary coil, whenever there is a change in
current, in primary coil (by on and off of key). This is because, whenever there is a
change in current in primary coil, Magnetic field associated with it also changes. Now,

A-189
 magnetic field lines around the secondary coil will change and induces the electric
current in it (observed by the deflection of needle of Galvanometer in secondary
circuit). This process, by which changing of strength of the current in primary coil,
induces current is to be highest when the direction of motion of coil is at right angles
to the magnetic field. So, both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
Ans. 19. I would explain the concept of resistance in series and parallel to my brother using the
serial bulbs which we would use in home for decoration purpose. If the four light bulbs are
connected is series, the current flows through all of them and the voltage drop would be
3-volts across each bulb which is not sufficient to make them glow. But in case of parallel
connection, the voltage drop would be 12-volts across each bulb which makes them glow.
Ans. 20. Fleming's right-hand rule is generally used for determining the direction of the current,
magnetic field and the motion of the conductor in a generator. Here, one can determine
the directions by placing the thumb, forefinger and the middle finger of the right-hand
perpendicular to each other. The thumb represents the motion of the conductor, the
forefinger and the middle finger represents the direction of the magnetic field and the
induced current respectively.
Ans. 21. (a) It can be seen from the above table that the resistivity of mercury is more than that of
iron. This implies that iron is a better conductor than mercury.
(b) It can be observed from the above table that the resistivity of silver is lowest among
the listed materials. Hence, it is the best conductor.
(c) Copper and aluminium wires are used as connecting wires because they have low
resistivity and are good conductors of electricity.
(d) Standard resistors are made from alloys such as constantan, manganin etc, because
they have high specific resistance and the effect of change in temperature on their
resistance is negligible.
Ans. 22. (i) (d) All of these
(ii) (b) Magnetism
(iii) (c) If magnetic field lines are parellel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength.
(iv) (a) A
(v) (d) Concentric circles
••

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 Answers Worksheet - 19
Chapter - 5 [Sources of Energy]

Ans. 1. (b) A cloudy day

Ans. 2. (c ) Nuclear energy
Ans. 3. (c) Nuclear fusion energy
Ans. 4. (a) Furrow and overhead sprinkler irrigation
Ans. 5. Acid rain happens because of burning of fossil fuels which release oxides of carbon,
nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere.
Ans. 6. Starting material for biogas is mainly cow-dung. So, it is also known as gobar gas.
Ans. 7. The sources of energy which are exhaustible and cannot be quickly replaced once they
have been used are called non-renewable sources of energy.
Ans. 8. A — Mixing tank B — Overflow tank
C — Digester D — Outlet for biogas.
Ans. 9. Hydrogen is a much cleaner energy source than CNG because CNG (compressed natural
gas) is derived from biomass and it contains hydrocarbons hence on burning, it produces
CO2 which causes air pollution; but the burning of hydrogen produces only water which is
completely harmless.
Ans. 10. Fossil fuels are non-renewable energy sources and directly available to human being for
use. Hence, fossil fuels are the direct source of energy. These are limited in amount. Fossil
fuels take millions of years for their formation. Fossil fuels are also very costly.
On the other hand, Sun is a renewable and direct source of energy. Solar energy is available
free of cost to all in unlimited amount for billions of years.
Ans. 11. A good fuel should have the following characteristics :
(a) A good fuel should produce a high amount of energy for each of mass or volume.
(b) A good fuel should be easily available and should be easy to transport.
(c) A good fuel should be economical.
Ans. 12. The glass windows have the ability to pass the radiations which have wavelength near
to the visible light or shorter wavelength. It does not allow infrared radiations of higher
wavelength. However, the sun sends infrared radiations of lower wavelength which pass
through the glass window and gets trapped inside the car as heat. This heat does not pass
out of the car and remains inside the car for longer time.
Ans. 13. Before the beginning of the Industrial revolution, wind and water energy were used for
serving many purpose but the ways of their use were not efficient. Windmills were used to
power flour mills or saw mills. The flow of water was used for transporting wooden logs.
Now a days, both wind energy and water energy are being harnessed to produce electricity
which means a better and more efficient use of these energy.
Ans. 14. Natural resources are those living and non-living sources available in our environment
which are exploited to meet the human requirements. Since coal and petroleum are
actually the fossils of the dead plants and animals respectively, hence considered as natural
resources.

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 Both coal and petroleum are used a important sources of energy since long time. Both these
fossil fuels were formed millions of years age from the degradation of biomass. Since these
fossil fuels are non-renewable in nature and they have limited reserves, therefore, they
must be used judiciously, otherwise they will get exhausted very soon.
Ans. 15.

Two components that helps in maximizing the heat absorption in solar cooker are :
(a) Mirror : It reflects the solar energy onto the food.
(b) Black paint on inner box : It absorbs more heat.
Ans. 16. Advantage of hydroelectric power plant :

(a) The hydroelectric power is the cheapest and versatile source of energy.
(b) The hydroelectric power plants are more reliable
(c) The hydroelectric power plants have very high efficiency.
(d) The generation of hydroelectric power is pollution free.
(e) Hydroelectric power plants are labour intensive in nature.
(f) It enables us to conserve coal resources.
Ans. 17. (a) Advantages of solar cooker :

(i) The use of solar cooker save precious fuels like coal, kerosene and LPG.
(ii) The solar cooker does not produce any smoke due to which it does not pollute air.
(iii) The food cooked in solar cooker, does not lose its nutrients because food prepares at
low temperature.
(iv) We can cook a number of food items at a time in a solar cooker.
(v) The maintenance of the solar cooker is negligible.
(b) Disadvantages of solar cooker :

(i) The use of solar cooker cannot be used to cook food during night time, during cloudy
and rain days.
(ii) The direction of the reflector in the solar cooker has to be changed along the path of the
sun rays.
(iii) The solar cooker can be used for baking and frying the food.
(iv) Generally, cooking takes long time in a solar cooker.
Ans. 18. (a) A photocell words based on solar energy. The street lights are employed with the
help of photocells to reduce the cost of production. The street lights contain photocells
which automatically makes use of the solar energy that they get from the sunlight and
uses it at the dawn. This photocell converts the intensity of the light obtained on the
cell into the current which can be used to power up the street lights. Thus, both the
assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

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Ans. 19. (c) A non-renewable resource is a natural resource which cannot be reproduced, grown,
generated or, used on a scale which can sustain its consumption rate, once depleted
there is no more available for future needs. Fossil fuels (such as coal, petroleum, and
natural gas), nuclear power. While the renewable sources are available at a huge
amount and it will be renewed even though we use it more. The renewable source of
energy is also called the non-conventional sources of energy hence, it is inexhaustible.
Thus, the assertion is true but the reason is false.
Ans. 20. (i) (b) Chain reaction of neutrons and 92U238
(ii) (a) 56Ba139
(iii) Low energy (i.e., slow moving) neutrons with energy of the order of 0.025 eV.
(iv) Uranium — 238

••

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 Answers Worksheet - 20
Chapter - 5 [Sources of Energy]

Ans. 1. (c) Nuclear energy

Ans. 2. (c) Infrared rays
Ans. 3. (a) Pulmonary disease
Ans. 4. (a) Primary pollutant
Ans. 5. Uranium, Thorium, Plutonium.
Ans. 6. Silver, Silicon.
Ans. 7. In a hydropower plant, the turbine converts the kinetic energy of falling water into
mechanical energy and after that generator converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy.
Ans. 8. Geothermal energy is the energy derived from the heat of the earth. This heat comes from
the hot springs which are naturally present inside the earth’s crust. It is available at some
places in the world and can be used to produce electricity.
Ans. 9. LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) can be used for heating and cooking food, because it is
easily available and gives no smoke on burning. Although it is highly inflammable, it is
easy to use, transport, and it produces a huge amount of heat on burning.
Ans. 10. No, Source of energy can be pollution free because every source of energy has some
type of pollution. For example, wastes of nuclear reaction are very dangerous to the
environment.
Ans. 11. (a) Energy.
141 92 1
(b) 56 Ba , 36 Kr , 30 n
(c) Nuclear fission.
Ans. 12. A good source of energy is one :
(a) which would do a large amount of work per unit mass.
(b) which is cheap and easily available.
(c) which is easy to store and transport.
(d) which is safe to handle and use.
(e) which does not cause environmental pollution.
Ans. 13.
S. No. Renewable sources Non-renewable sources
1. These are the sources from which en- These are the sources from which en-
ergy can be obtained continuously over ergy cannot be obtained continuously
a long period of time. over a long period of time.
2. These sources can be regenerated. These sources cannot be regenerated.
3. They are the non-conventional sources They are the conventional sources of
of energy. energy.
Ans. 14. Options given in (a) and (b) are almost same. An energy source which can be quickly
renewed is called renewable or inexhaustible sources of energy. On the other hand, the
energy sources which cannot be renewed in future are called non-renewable or exhaustible
sources of energy.

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Ans. 15. Advantages of Solar Cooker :
(a) They are environment friendly.
(b) Use of a solar cooker does not involve recurring expenses on fuel.
Disadvantages of Solar Cooker :
(a) Solar cooker is very slow.
(b) Solar cooker can work only during summers and is useless during winters and on
cloudy days.
The places where the days are too short or places with cloud covers round the year have
limited utility for solar cooker.
Ans. 16. Environmental consequences of increasing demand for energy are as follows :
(a) Use of fossil fuels is increasing air pollution which is not good for our health.
(b) Air pollution is causing much damage to the ecosystem.
(c) Greenhouse effect has resulted in global warming which is manifesting itself in strange
changes in the weather pattern around the world.
(d) Too much exploitation of fossil fuels is going to create a situation when there would
be no fossil fuel.
Steps to reduce energy consumption :
(a) Use your household appliances efficiently.
(b) Use public transport instead of private modes of transport.
(c) Use bicycle whenever possible.
(d) Walk for short distance to commute.
(e) Avoid unnecessary use of modern gadgets which consume lot of energy.
(f) Get a solar water heater installed for winters.
Ans. 17. (a) The arrangement used for producing biogas from animal dung, human excreta, and
domestic waste is known as biogas plant.
(b) A fixed dome type biogas plants consist of :
(i) Mixing tank : In this, slurry, animal dung and other waste materials are mixed.
(ii) Digester : It is a well like underground tank made up of bricks and cement. It has
outlet and inlet valves. The roof of the digester is dome shaped. The dome acts as
a storage tank of biogas. A gas outlet is fitted at the top of the dome.
(iii) Inlet chamber : It is situated on one side of the digester. It passes the slurry of
cattle dung and other waste from the mixing tank to the digester.
(iv) Outlet chamber : It is on the other side of the digester. It is rectangular in shape
and constructed with bricks and cement. It is connected to the overflow tank.
(v) Overflow tank : It collects the used slurry or spent slurry. This spent slurry can
be used as manure.
(c)

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Ans. 18. (c) Charcoal is the dark grey residue consisting of carbon, and remaining ash, obtained
by removing water and other volatile constituents from animal and vegetation
substances. When wood is heated in the absence of air above 270°C, water and other
materials will be driven from the wood without burning. Charcoal is the substance
that remains. Thus, the assertion is true but the reason is false.
Ans. 19. (a) Silicon is available in large quantities in India. Setting up of solar panels does not
require the laying of transmission lines, so can be set up in remote and inaccessible
hamlets. Storing of electricity has become possible by using inverters. Hence, even
though solar cells produce a little amount of electricity, it is becoming popular
nowadays. Thus, both the assertion and reason are true in this case and the reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
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 Check Point - 5

Ans. 1. (c) Total internal reflection

Ans. 2. (b) Short-sightedness or myopia
Ans. 3. (c) Gets divided across each component
Ans. 4. (a) 12 × 10–18 N
Ans. 5. A ray of light bends from its path on entering into second medium because speed of light
in second medium is different from that in first medium.
Ans. 6. Accommodation or the accommodating power.
Ans. 7. It is connected in series so that whole of electric current, which it has to measure, passes
through it.
Ans. 8. Force on electron is maximum in fig. (a) because here direction of motion of electron is at
right angles to that of magnetic field ‘B’. The force is minimum (or zero) in fig. (c) because
here electron is moving along the direction of magnetic field B. The direction of maximum
force acting on electron is perpendicular to the plane of paper and directed into it.
Ans. 9.
S. No. Convex Lens Concave lens
1. A convex lens is thick in the middle A concave lens is thin in the middle and
and thin at its periphery. thick at its periphery.
2. It converges the incident rays to- It diverges the incident rays away from
wards the principal axis. the principal axis.
3. It has a real focus. It has a virtual focus.
Ans. 10. When the gaps of the split ring commutator are in alignment with the carbon brushes,
then contacts are broken and the current is temporarily cut-off. However, the coil keeps
on rotating in the same direction due to its inertia until the split ring commutator and the
carbon brushes are in contact again.
Ans. 11. The angle between the incident ray produced forward and the emerged ray produced
backward is called angle of deviation.

Ans. 12. The magnetic field of a solenoid is very similar to that of a bar magnet. This is shown in
figure (a) and (b) respectively, which shows the lines of force of the magnetic field of a
current carrying solenoid and a bar magnet.

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Ans. 13. Same current (I) flows through different resistances, when these are joined in series, as
shown in the figure.

Let R be the combined resistance, then

V = IR
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
..
. V = V1 + V2 + V3
\ IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
⇒ IR = I(R1 + R2 + R3)
\ R = R1 + R2 + R3
Now, R1 = 6W, R2 = 9W, R3 = 18W
In parallel combination,
1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R 2 R 3
1 1 1 321

⇒ =   
6 9 18 18
6 1
= =
18 3
1

⇒ =
3
⇒ R =3 W
Ans. 14. For convex mirror, u = – 60 cm, f = + 20 cm

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 Using mirror formula,
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
1 1 1
= −
v f u
1 1
= −
20 (− 60)

31 4
= 
60 60
v = 15 cm
\ PB' = 15 cm
Let the plane mirror be held at M such that images in the two mirrors coincide.
As BM = MB' = MP + PB'
= x + 15
1 1
BM = BB'  (60  15)
2 2
= 37.5
From equations (i) and (ii), we get
x + 15 = 37.5
x = 37.5 – 15 = 22.5 cm
Ans. 15. (a) To get an equivalent resistance of 13.5 W, the resistance should be connected as shown
in the figure given below :

1 1 1
So, = +
RP R1 R 2
1 1
= +
9 9
1+ 1 2
=
9 9
1 2
RP = 9

9
RP = = 4.5
2
Now, RS = R3 + 4.5 W

= 9 W + 4.5 W
= 13.5 W
(b) To get an equivalent resistance of 6 W, the resistance should be connected as shown in the
figure given below :

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 RS = R1 + R2
= 9 + 9 = 18 W
Now both the resistance are in parallel with each other so,
1 1
R+1 = +
18 9
1+ 2 3
=
18 18
1
= Ω
6
So, RP = 6 W
Ans. 16. (a) Focal length of divergent lens, f = – 20 cm
Object height, h1 = 4 cm
Image distance, v = – 10 cm
1 1 1
Using lens formula, = −
f v u
1 1 1
= − −
−20 10 u
1 1 1
=  
u 10 20
1 2  1 1
= 
u 20 20
u = – 20 cm
h v
Now, m = 2 =
h1 u

h2 − 10
=
4 − 20
2 h2 = 4
h2 = 2 cm
(b)

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Ans. 17. (a) We know that the rainbow has seven constituent colours such as Violet, Indigo, Blue,
Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. These colours are represented as VIBGYOR. It occurs
due to the dispersion of white light i.e., when the white light passes through a glass
prism, this phenomenon of splitting white light into VIBGYOR.
Ans. 18. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct reason to explain assertion.
These both are the properties of magnetic field. The other properties are :
l The magnitude of magnetic field increases with an increase in electric current and
decreases with decrease in electric current.
l The magnitude of magnetic field produced by electric current decreases with increase
in distance and vice-versa.
l The size of concentric circles of magnetic field lines increases with distance from the
conductor, which shows that magnetic field decreases with distance.
l Magnetic field lines are always parallel to each other and two field lines never cross
each other.
Ans. 19. Since the current is divided into all parts of the circuits, the circuit preference would be
parallel connection because only in this type of circuit each component can be supplied
with different ampere current by maintaining the same voltage all over the circuit. In both
domestic and industrial uses, parallel connection is preferred.
Ans. 20. (a)

(b) The sun of the angles, made by reflected rays with mirrors AB and CD is
20° + 40° = 60°.
(c) The return of light into the same medium after striking a surface is called reflection.
(d) The angle of incidence will be 0°.
Ans. 21. (i) (a) convex
(ii) (c) plane
(iii) (b) concave
(iv) (d) at centre of curvature
(v) (c) Lateral inversion
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 Check Point - 6

Ans. 1. (c) increases heavily

Ans. 2. (b) Carbon monoxide
Ans. 3. (a) u = – 1.05 cm and m = 19.05 cm
Ans. 4. (d) Ammeter in series and voltmeter in parallel
Ans. 5. The light ray on emerging out of a prism always bends towards the base of the prism.
Ans. 6. A chain reaction is a sequence of reactions where a reactive product or by-​product causes
additional reactions to take place.
Ans. 7. A voltmeter is an instrument which is used to measure electric potential. It is always
connected in parallel with the circuit.
Ans. 8. Electromagnetic induction is the production of an electromotive force across an electrical
conductor in a changing magnetic field
Ans. 9.

Ans. 10. On keeping the lens close to the page of a book, if the letters of the book appear enlarged,
then it is a convex lens and if the letters of the book appear diminished, then it is a concave
lens. This is because a concave lens produces a diminished image for all the positions of
the object and convex lens produces an enlarged image, when the object is kept within the
focus of convex lens.
Ans. 11. Here, Power, P = 3 kW
= 3 × 1000 W = 3000 W
Supply voltage, V = 220 V
P 3000
Current drawn, I = = = 13.6 A
V 220
Ans. 12. The strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid depends on :
(a) The number of turns in the solenoid : Larger the number of turns in the solenoid,
greater will be the magnetism produced.

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 (b) The strength of current in the solenoid : Larger the current passed through solenoid,
stronger will be the magnetism produced.
(c) The nature of core material used in making solenoid : The use of soft iron rod as
core in a solenoid produces the stronger magnetism.
Ans. 13. Two exhaustible energy sources are as follows :
Coal : It is produced from dead remains of plants and animals that remain buried under the
earth’s crust for millions of years. It takes millions of years to produce coal. Industrialization
has increased the demand of coal. However coal cannot replenish within a short period of
time. Hence, it is a non-renewable or exhaustible source of energy.
Wood : It is obtained from forests. Deforestation at a faster rate has caused a reduction in the
number of forests on the earth. It takes hundreds of years to grow a forest. If deforestation
is continued at this rate, then there would be no wood left on the earth.
Hence, wood is an exhaustible source of energy.
Ans. 14. The convex lens will form complete image of an object, even if the one half is covered with
black paper, because light rays can still pass through the optical centre of convex lens. We
can verify this by obtaining image of any distant object on a screen by half covered convex
lens. This can be more clear by the ray diagram given alongside.

Ans. 15.

The total resistance of the circuit is given by

R = 5 + 8 + 12 = 25W
V
We know, R=
I
6
Hence, 25 =
I
6
I= = 0.24 A
25
Since, resistances are connected in series, thus electric current remains the same through all
resistors.
Ans. 16. To observe objects at infinity, the eye uses its least converging power.
Power of the eye lens is given as
P = 40 + 20 = 60 D

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 100
f= cm
P
100
= cm
60
5
= cm
3
To focus an object at near point,
Object distance, u = – 25 cm
Focal length of the eye lens = Distance between the eye lens and the retina = Image distance, v
Using the formula,
1 1 1
= −
f' v u
3 1 16
We get =  
5 25 25
25
f' = cm
16
100 100
Power, P' = = = 64 D
f ' 25 / 16
Power of eye lens, P' = 64 – 40 = 24 D
Hence, the range of accommodation of the eye lens is from 20 D to 24 D.
Ans. 17. (d) Myopia is known as near-sightedness and hypermetropia is known as farsightedness.
The image of a distant object is not formed in front of the iris instead it is formed in
front of retina. Thus, the given assertion and reason are false.
Ans. 18. (b) Both statements are true, but reason is not correct explanation of assertion. In
reason it should be covered on why increase or decrease of current is necessary, it’s
not necessary to explain how variation in current is done. It is true in many cases
variation of current is necessary and also it is correct that variation in current is done
by a variable resistor.
Ans. 19. In addition to the exercise for the strained eyes, my medical suggestion would be the usage
of the anti-glare lens in their spectacles which reduces the impact of blue light emitted from
digital items and artificial lighting. This would reduce the stress and strain caused. But still
the exercise for eyes in repeated time interval should also be regularly followed.
Ans. 20. When a copper ring is suspended by a thread in a vertical plane and the magnet is brought
towards the ring horizontally. We never notice any change in the ring’s position. Hence,
the ring will be at rest as flux (φ = BA cos θ) produced by the copper ring will be zero.
..
( . q = 90° and cos 90º = 0).
Ans. 21. (i) (d) IV
(ii) (b) B
(iii) (d) D
(iv) (d) ‘l’ is the maximum for ∠i = 45º and is less than this value for ∠i = 30º and ∠i = 60º.
(v) (a) Real and erect
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 Check Point - 7

Ans. 1. (a) Convex lens

Ans. 2. (d) All of the above
Ans. 3. (b) H2 < H1
Ans. 4. (b) Atom bomb
Ans. 5. The descending order is glass (1.5) > water (1.33) > air (1.003).
Ans. 6. It makes possible to move the electrons in a particular direction, so closed path is necessary
for the flow of current.
Ans. 7. (a) Red, (b) Violet.
Ans. 8. The conductors which obey Ohm’s law are called ohmic conductors.
Ans. 9. Convex mirror always forms erect and diminished image.
Ans. 10. The magnetic lines of force due to current in the straight conductor XY are shown in figure
given alongside. The arrows on the magnetic lines of force shows the direction of magnetic
field.
The magnitude of magnetic field at a point depends on:
(i) The strength of current in the conductor, and
(ii) The distance of point from the conductor.

Ans. 11. Ahmed who is blind to red and green colour may be deficient in cone shaped cells having
red and green pigment in the retina of his eyes. It is a genetic disorder and not a refractive
defect of vision. So, he may not have normal vision.
Ans. 12. Limitations of tidal energy :
1. Tidal power plant can be installed only in few sites.
2. The rise and fall of sea water is not enough to produce electricity on a large scale.
3. The difference between the water levels of high tide and low tide should be very large.
Ans. 13. (a)

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 3
(b) Given : ang =
2
1 1 2
gna = == ==
a ng
3 3
2
Ans. 14. (a) To obtain the highest resistance, the resistors must be connected in series.
\ Highest resistance, RS = (1 + 10 +100 + 1000) Ω
= 1111 Ω
(b) To obtain the lowest resistance, the resistors must be connected in parallel.
The lowest resistance is given by
1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
RP 1 10 100 1000
1000 + 100 + 10 + 1 1111
=
1000 1000
1111
\ Lowest resistance, RP = W = 1.1 W
1000
Ans. 15. The potential difference (V) = 220 V
The resistance of each coil = 24 W
The current in given three cases, may be calculated as
Case 1 : When used separately, R = 24 W and V = 220 V
V 220
We know that, electric current (I) = = = 9.16 A
R 24
Case 2 : When the two resistors are connected in series.
Total effective resistance = 24 W + 24 W = 48 W
V 220
\ Electric current (I) = = = 4.58 A
R 48
Case 3 : When the two resistors are connected in parallel.
1 1 1 1 1
Total effective resistance, =  
R 24 24 24
2 1
= =
24 12
\ Total effective resistance (R) = 12 W
V 220
Thus, Electric current (I) = = = 18.33 A
R 12
Ans. 16. Object distance, u = – 27 cm
Object heights, h1 = 7 cm
Focal length, f = – 18 cm
According to the mirror formula,
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
Substituting the values, we get
1 1 1
=  
v 18 27

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 1 32
=
v 54
1 1
= −
v 54
v = – 54 cm
So, the screen should be placed at a distance of 54 cm in front of the given mirror.
Magnification produced by a mirror,
h v
m = 2 
h1 u

(− 54)
m = −
(− 27 )
m =–2
The negative value of magnification indicates that the image formed is real.
h2
Also, m = h
1

h2
–2 =
7
h2 = – 2 × 7
h2 = – 14 cm
The negative value of image height indicates that the image formed is inverted.
Ans. 17. (a) Most of the part of consumed power of bulb is dissipated as heat but very less part gets
converted into light. So, there is a need for thermal isolation in order to reduce heat
losses. This is the reason why bulbs are filled with inactive nitrogen and argon. So,
both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. 18. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but it is not the correct reason to explain assertion.
These both are the properties of magnetic field. The other properties are :
The magnitude of magnetic field increases with an increase in electric current and
decreases with decrease in electric current. The magnitude of magnetic field produced
by electric current decreases with increase in distance and vice-versa. The size of
concentric circles of magnetic field lines increases with distance from the conductor,
which shows that magnetic field decreases with distance. Magnetic field lines are
always parallel to each other and two field lines never cross each other.
Ans. 19. In many practical issues, there will be some need to increase and decrease the current in an
electric circuit. A component which is used for regulating the current without changing the
voltage source is called variable resistance. The next component for changing the resistance
in the circuit is called rheostat.
Ans. 20. According to Lorentz’s force,
F = qvB sin θ
θ = 0° or 180°
If, Magnetic force (F) = 0
Hence magnetic forces do not have any component either along or opposite to the direction
of motion of charged particle.The energy of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field
alone does not change because it experiences a force in a direction perpendicular to its
direction of motion. Due to which the speed of charged particle remains unchanged.
Ans. 21. (a) Tidal energy
(b) Ocean thermal energy.

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 (c)  Infra-red (IR) radiations are responsible for drying clothes and ultraviolet (UV)
radiations could be a health hazard.
(d) Fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of energy. There sources of energy are limited
and cannot replenish on their own. They are being consumed at a large rate by the
increased population. If this rate of consumption continues, then the fossil fuel would
be exhausted from the Earth very soon. Therefore, we have to conserve these fossil
fuels for the next generation.
Ans. 22. (i) (a) AC generator
(ii) (b) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(iii) (c) slip rings
(iv) (a) Dynamo
(v) (d) all of the above
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