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Admas CCC II Final Exam

The document outlines the final examination for Comprehensive Core Competency II at Admas University, detailing the exam structure, rules, and instructions for the 100 multiple choice questions. The exam is scheduled for January 10, 2025, with a total weight of 65%. Students are instructed to adhere to specific guidelines regarding materials and conduct during the examination.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
88 views18 pages

Admas CCC II Final Exam

The document outlines the final examination for Comprehensive Core Competency II at Admas University, detailing the exam structure, rules, and instructions for the 100 multiple choice questions. The exam is scheduled for January 10, 2025, with a total weight of 65%. Students are instructed to adhere to specific guidelines regarding materials and conduct during the examination.

Uploaded by

MIKIYAS ADUGNA
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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ADMAS UNIVERSITY

FACULTY OF INFORMATICS
Department of Computer Science
Comprehensive Core Competency II
Final Examination

Time allowed: 2:00 hr.

Date: Jan 10, 2025

Total Weight: 65%

Name: _________________________________________________

ID. No. : _________________________________

Section: ________________________________

GENERAL DIRECTIONS:

1. Make sure that the exam paper contains 17 pages including the cover page and
the Answer sheet.
2. Read the instructions carefully for each part of the exam and attempt
accordingly.
3. Use of pencils and red pens are not allowed.
4. Mobile phone should be switched off.
5. Any action taken by exam invigilator during exam time will not be
compromised.
6. Put aside any materials not allowed

1
Part I: Multiple Choice Items
Instructions: This item of the exam contains 100 multiple choice questions,
each worth 0.5 point. Choose the best answer from the given alternatives
& write the choice of the correct letter on the answer sheet provided. Make
sure that your answer is clearly marked. Use only capital Letters. (50
Points)

1. An agent type which has condition-action rule and memory to remind the current state of the
world and its evolution is called
a. Simple reflex c. Goal based
b. Model based reflex d. Utility based
2. Assume that you are employed as a machine learning expert at the Ministry of Education
(MoE). Which machine learning technique you would apply for the task of describing the
existing higher education institutions as first generation, second generation and third generation.
a. Reinforcement Learning c. Classification
b. Regression d. Clustering
3. Consider the definition of AI: “The effort to design and implement intelligent software that
solves problems by identifying best action sequence to achieve the desired goal” can be views AI
as
a. A system that acts humanly c. A system that acts rationally
b. A system that thinks humanly d. A system that thinks rationally
4. What is completeness of search algorithms?
a. If there is a difference between the quality of goal states, the agent will find the best one
b. An estimate of how much information the algorithm needs to store for finding a solution
c. An estimate of how many search steps it takes to find a solution
d. Provided that a solution exists, the algorithm will find it
5. Which one of the view of defining AI concerned with thought processing
a. Viewing AI as a system which has complete autonomous
b. Viewing AI as a system that think either humanly or think rationally
c. Viewing AI as a system that act either humanly or think rationally
d. Viewing AI as a system that act omnisciently to its environment

2
6. Which one of the following statement is false
a. Turing test is a mechanism to validate AI system that act humanly
b. Validating AI system that act rationally can be made by its performance
c. Validating AI system that thinks humanly is impossible
d. Validating AI system that think rationally can be made by using its reasoning logic
7. A context free Grammar is called ambiguous if there exists a string that can have?
a. only one parse tree c. Partial parse tree
b. no parse tree d. more than one parse tree
8. A context free grammar with production rules: S->aS / ε is equivalent to the regular
expression
a. a* c. a(a+b)*
b. (a+b)* d. a+
9. A push down automaton employs ________ data structure.
a. Linked List c. Hash Table
b. Stack d. Queue
10. Which of the following Machine is Equivalent for Regular grammar?
a. Push down automata c. Finite state automata
b. Linear bounded automata d. Turing Machine
11. Given a context free grammar G= {V, Σ, P, S} and production P: a->b. Which one of the
following is true?
a. a∈(V+ Σ) c. a∈(V+Σ)*
b. a∈V d. b∈ (V+Σ)*
12. Given a finite automata below, what will be the regular expression that correctly represents
the language accepted by it.
A. (a+b)ab(ab+bb+aa*(a+b)ab)* C. a*(a+b)ab(ab+bb+aa*(a+b)ab)
B. a*ab(ab+bb+aa*(a+b)ab)* D. (aa*(a+b)ab )*
13. Identify the technique used toreplace run-time computations with compile-time
computations?
a. Pee hole optimization c. Invariant computation
b. Constant folding d. Code hoisting

3
14. In which does the compiler translate the source code?
a. Binary code c. Both a and b
b. Executable code d. Machine code
15. Through which type of grammar can synthesized attributes can be simulated?
a. Ambiguous grammar c. LL grammar
b. LR grammar d. None
16. What is regular expression for an Identifier?
a. Letter(letter+ | digit*)* c. Letter(letter | digit)*
b. Letter(letter | digit)+ d. Letter(letter_digit)*
17. What is the process of finding a parse tree for a string of tokens called?
a. Recognizing c. Tokenizing
b. Parsing d. Analyzing
18. What is the action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes?
a. Interpretation analysis c. Syntax analysis
b. Lexical analysis d. General syntax analysis
19. All are properties of the integrity goal of a computer system, except
a. Integrity can be compromised by Deception
b. Integrity can be compromised by Disclosure
c. Ensures there was an authorized modification
d. Keep resources from active attacks
20. Assume, you went to the Ethiopian airport to catch a flight and told the airport personnel
your name. For sure, they would ask you some questions like your passport number and your
reservation ticket number for some proof of your identity. Then what do we call this process?
a. Authentication c. Access control
b. Authorization d. All
21. Assume, you went to the nearby commercial bank’s automatic teller machine (ATM) to
withdraw money. You inserted your ATM card into the machine, and the machine asked you to
enter your personal identification number (PIN). Then, when you type your password, someone
intercepts your ATM card number, and which of your security goals is compromised?
a. Integrity b. Authorization

4
c. Confidentiality d. Availability
22. Which attack can be used for monitoring children’s activity?
a. Spyware c. Worms
b. Ransomwares d. Adware
23. _______is a type of data link layer attack in TCP/IP protocol stack
a. ARP spoofing c. SYNC-FLOOD attack
b. DNS spoofing d. All except c
24. Which one of the following statements is true about worms and Viruses
a. Worms requires a host to spread while viruses doesn’t require
b. Worms requires a user action for replicate while viruses doesn’t require
c. Virus requires a host to spread while Worms doesn’t require
d. Worms spreading speed is slower than Virus Spreading speed
25. What is the bit pattern for the first octet of a class –B network address?
a. 110XXXXX c. 10XXXXXX
b. 1110XXXXX d. 0XXXXXXX
26. Which OSI model layer is responsible for flow control?
a. Application Layer c. Session Layer
b. Transport Layer d. Presentation Layer
27. Which of the following networking device is used in physical layer?
a. Bridge c. Switch
b. Router d. Hub
28. Assuming that Company VWX has main site and remote site. The main site has three LANs
with LAN 1 has 100 hosts, LAN 2 has 60 hosts, and LAN 3 has 29 hosts. The remote site has
two LANs, each with 100 hosts. The network uses private addresses. The Internet service
provider assigned the company the network 200.100.50.2/26.vThe remote site uses the network
prefix 192.168.10.0/24.
What subnets and masks can you use for the LANs at the remote site and conserve address
space?
A. 192.168.10.0/25 and 192.168.10.128/25
B. 192.168.10.0/30 and 192.168.10.128/30
C. 192.168.10.64/26 and 192.168.10.192/26

5
D. 192.168.10.32/28 and 192.168.10.64/28
29. The main site uses the network prefix 192.168.15.0/24. What subnets and masks can you use
to provide sufficient addresses for LANs at the main site and conserve address space?
A. 192.168.15.0/25 for LAN 1, 192.168.15.128/26 for LAN 2, and 192.168.15.192/27 for LAN
B. 192.168.15.0/26 for LAN 1, 192.168.15.128/26 for LAN 2, and 172.15.192.0/29 for LAN 3
C. 192.168.15.0/27 for LAN 1, 192.168.15.128/26 for LAN 2, and 172.15.192.0/25 for LAN 3
D. 192.168.15.0/100 for LAN 1, 192.168.15.128/60 for LAN 2, and 172.15.192.0/29 for LAN 3
30. Which network and mask would you use for the WAN link to save the most address space?
A. 192.168.11.240/27 C. 192.168.11.240/29
B. 192.168.11.240/28 D. 192.168.11.240/30
31. In DNS concept the process of getting IP address by using its hostname is called: _________
a. Forward resolution c. Binding
b. Backward resolution d. Resolving
32. Let’s assume that you know the domain name of Face Book server, but you don’t know its IP
address. So which network troubleshooting tool you use to get its IP address?
a. Nslookup c. Traceroute
b. Ping command d. Netstat
33. Where/when Network administrator should have to use the concept of Network Address
translation? Network admin should use NAT where: -
a. Default gateway of LAN isn’t configured
b. Global IP address is used in the LAN
c. He/she don’t know type of IP address used in the LAN
d. Private IP address is used in the LAN
34. Where/When we can use DHCP Services? It is recommended to use DHCP when: -
a. There are small number of network users
b. Network admin went to use same end devices for specific purpose
c. Number of devices in the network are very complex
d. All are correct
35. Which of the following server type is used to store, process, and respond to the client request
for webpages via http/https protocols
a. Http Server b. Web Server

6
c. FTP server d. DNS Server
36. ____________ is a network security device that monitors incoming and outgoing network
traffic.
a. Proxy c. Gateway
b. Firewall d. Router
37. A process can be terminated due to:
a. killed by another process c. all of the mentioned
b. normal exit d. fatal error
38. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the:
a. library c. assembly instructions
b. system calls d. API
39. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a. Interrupt c. Scheduler
b. Dispatcher d. none of the mentioned
40. Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?
a. mutual exclusion
b. all of the mentioned
c. a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
d. no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
41. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU
first?
a. first-come, first-served scheduling
b. priority scheduling
c. shortest job scheduling
d. none of the mentioned
42. Which one of the following is not true?
a. kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
b. kernel is made of various modules which cannot be loaded in running operating system
c. kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
d. kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session

7
43. A processor performing fetch or decoding of different instruction during the execution of
another instruction is called ______
a. Super-scaling c. Parallel Computation
b. None of the above d. Pipe-lining
44. An instruction that will jump to the next instruction if the condition is met
a. Branch instruction c. Skip instruction
b. Return instruction d. Jump instruction
45. An interrupt that is caused by register overflow, attempt to divide by zero, an invalid
operation code, stack overflow can be?
a. None of the above c. External interrupt
b. Software interrupt d. Internal interrupt
46. Computer address bus is
a. Unidirectional c. Multidirectional
b. None of the above d. Bidirectional
47. The simplest way to organize a computer is to have one processor register and an instruction
code format with two parts. The first part specifies the operation to be performed and the second
specifies.
a. address c. Input
b. output d. operand
48. Which of the following computer memory is fastest?
a. RAM c. None of the above
b. Register d. Hard disk
49. What is an operating system?
a) interface between the hardware and application programs
b) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
c) system service provider to the application programs
d) all of the mentioned
50. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to provide the interface between the API and application program
b) to handle the files in the operating system
c) to get and execute the next user-specified command

8
d) none of the mentioned

50. In Operating Systems, which of the following is/are CPU scheduling algorithms?
a) Priority
b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job First
d) All of the mentioned
51. To access the services of the operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________
a) Library
b) System calls
c) Assembly instructions
d) API
52. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________
a) multiprogramming operating systems
b) larger memory sized systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) none of the mentioned
53. Which one of the following errors will be handle by the operating system?
a) lack of paper in printer
b) connection failure in the network
c) power failure
d) all of the mentioned
54. Which operating system was developed by Microsoft as a successor to MS-DOS?
a) macOS
b) Windows
c) Linux
d) Solaris
55. Which operating system was the first to introduce multitasking, allowing multiple programs
to run simultaneously?
a. MS-DOS
b. macOS

9
c. Windows
d. UNIX
56. Which operating system was developed by Linus Torvalds and is based on the UNIX
operating system?
a. Linux
b. Windows
c. macOS
d. Solaris
57. Which operating system was developed by Sun Microsystems and is known for its scalability
and reliability?
a. Linux c. macOS
b. Windows d. Solaris
58. Which generation of computers witnessed the use of magnetic core memory?
a. First Generation c. Third Generation
b. Second Generation d. Fourth Generation
59. Which generation of computers introduced the use of microprocessors?
a. First Generation c. Third Generation
b. Second Generation d. Fourth Generation
60. What is the primary function of a kernel in an operating system?
a. Provide a user-friendly interface
b. Manage system resources and provide core services
c. Run user applications
d. Facilitate communication with external devices

61. Which component of an operating system is responsible for memory management and
process scheduling?

a. Kernel c. Compiler
d. File system
b. User program

62. Which of the following is typically executed in kernel mode?

10
a. User programs c. Text editors

b. Device drivers d. Web browsers

63. User programs run in which mode of operation?

a. Kernel mode c. User mode

b. Supervisor mode d. Protected mode

64. The kernel is loaded into which part of the computer's memory?

a. RAM c. CPU cache

b. Hard disk d. ROM

65. Which of the following is an example of a user program?

a. Device driver c. Disk partition manager

b. Antivirus software d. Interrupt handler

66. Which mode provides higher privileges and access to system resources in an operating
system?

a. Kernel mode c. Supervisor mode

b. User mode d. Protected mode

67. Which of the following is responsible for handling system calls made by user programs?

a. Kernel c. Compiler

b. User program d. File system


68. Which of the following is NOT a subfield of artificial intelligence?

a. Machine learning b. Robotics

11
c. Data analysis d. Natural language processing

69. Which technique enables computers to learn from experience and improve performance?
a. Artificial neural networks
b. Genetic algorithms
c. Reinforcement learning
d. Expert systems
70. What is Time Complexity of Breadth First search algorithm?

A. b C. b^2
B. b^d D. b^b

71. Depth-First Search is implemented in recursion with _______ data structure.

A. LIFO C. FIFO
B. LILO D. FILO

72. Which of the following search algorithm searches forward from initial state and
backward from goal state till both meet to identify a common state?

A. Uniform Cost Search C. Bidirectional Search


B. Iterative Deepening Depth-First D. None of the Above
Search

73. When is breadth-first search is optimal?

A. When there is less number of nodes C. When all step costs are unequal
B. When all step costs are equal D. All of the above

74. Face Recognition system is based on which type of approach?


a) Weak AI approach
b) Applied AI approach
c) Cognitive AI approach
d) Strong AI approach
75. Which of the following is an advantage of artificial intelligence?
a) Reduces the time taken to solve the problem
b) Helps in providing security

12
c) Have the ability to think hence makes the work easier
d) All of the above
76. Which of the following is/are the composition for AI agents?
a) Program only
b) Architecture only
c) Both Program and Architecture
d) None of the mentioned

77. Which of the following is an example of artificial intelligent agent/agents?


a) Autonomous Spacecraft
b) Human
c) Robot
d) All of the mentioned
78. Which of the following is an expansion of Artificial Intelligence application?

a) Game Playing c) Diagnosis


b) Planning and Scheduling d) All of the mentioned

79. What is an AI ‘agent’?


a) Takes input from the surroundings and uses its intelligence and performs the desired
operations
b) An embedded program controlling line following robot
c) Perceives its environment through sensors and acting upon that environment through
actuators
d) All of the mentioned
80. What is the name of Artificial Intelligence which allows machines to handle vague
information with a deftness that mimics human intuition?

a) Human intelligence c) Functional logic


b) Boolean logic d) Fuzzy logic

81. What is the primary role of security policies in an organiza􀆟on?


a. To increase network speed
b. To restrict access to informa􀆟on

13
c. To define guidelines for system administrators
d. To ensure compliance with legal regula􀆟ons
82. What does defense in depth aim to achieve in computer security?
a. Multiple layers of defense to mi􀆟gate risk
b. Strengthening only the outermost security layer
c. Elimina􀆟ng the need for an􀆟virus so􀅌ware
d. Focusing on a single security control

83. How does security relate to privacy in compu􀆟ng systems?


a. Privacy ensures network availability
b. Security protects data from unauthorized access
c. Privacy is not related to computer security
d. Security focuses on data encryp􀆟on
84. Which cryptographic key is used for both encryp􀆟on and decryp􀆟on in symmetric
encryp􀆟on?
a. public key c. Session key
b. Private key d. Master key
85. What is the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext called in cryptography?
a. Decryption c. Hashing
b. Encoding d. Encryption
86. Which key is used for encryption in asymmetric encryption algorithms?
a. public key c. Session key
b. Private key d. Symmetric key
87. What is the primary purpose of cryptographic hashing?
A. Secure data transmission D. Encryption of communication
B. Data compression channels
C. Data integrity verification
88. What is the purpose of a digital signature in cryptography?
A. Encryp􀆟ng messages C. Securing network routers
B. Authen􀆟ca􀆟ng the sender of a D. Preven􀆟ng data corrup􀆟on
message

14
89. What is the term for a method that a􀆩empts all possible combina􀆟ons to decode
encrypted data?
A. Brute-force a􀆩ack C. Key exchange
B. Cryptanalysis D. Decryp􀆟on
90. What is the significance of the Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm?
A. It encrypts network traffic
B. It establishes a secure channel for communica􀆟on
C. It provides a method for securely exchanging cryptographic keys
D. It prevents brute-force a􀆩acks

92. Which layer uses port number to identify applications?

A. Transport layer C. Network layer


B. Physical layer D. Application layer
93. Which one of the following is not correct about packet switching and circuit switching?
A. In packet switching messages are sent in small blocks.
B. In packet switching end to end connection has to be established
C. In circuit switching a channel is dedicatedly used
D. Packet switching is more efficient than circuit switching
94. Which network type is the largest as compared to the rest?
A. Wide Area Network C. The Internet
B. Metropolitan Area Network D. Local Area Network
95. Which one of the following is not correct about POP3 and SMTP?
A. A sender can send email using C. A sender can receive emails using
SMTP POP3
B. Both are application layer protocols D. Both are network layer protocols
96. A university owns a number of private local area and wide area networks, which are
designed for an access by its academic staff, students and administrative workers. Which
term best describes the University’s network?
A. Local Area Network C. Wide Area Network
B. The Internet D. Metropolitan Area Network

15
97. Which one of the following is different from the other based on its role in computer
network?
A. Routers C. Wireless access point

B. Network printer D. Hubs


98. Suppose you are administering a network and would like to know whether a computer
in the upstairs is connected to the network or not. Therefore, which command would you
use?
A) nslookup B) ping C) DHCP discover D) traceroute

99. At which layer of the OSI model devices such as switches and network interface cards
(NIC) are used
A) Physical layer B) Application Layer
C) Network Layer D) Data link layer
100. What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation) in networking?
A. Assigning public IP addresses to devices
B. Translating private IP addresses to public IP addresses
C. Filtering network traffic based on MAC addresses
D. Establishing secure connections between devices

16
ADMAS UNIVERSITY
FACULTY OF INFORMATICS

Department of Computer Science

Comprehensive Core Competency II

Final Examination Answer Sheet

Name: _________________________________________________

ID. No. : _________________________________

Section: ________________________________

1. 21. 41. 61. 81.

2. 22. 42. 62. 82.

3. 23. 43. 63. 83.

4. 24. 44. 64. 84.

5. 25. 45. 65. 85.

17
6. 26. 46. 66. 86.

7. 27. 47. 67. 87.

8. 28. 48. 68. 88.

9. 29. 49. 69. 89.

10. 30. 50. 70. 90.

11. 31. 51. 71. 91.

12. 32. 52. 72. 92.

13. 33. 53. 73. 93.

14. 34. 54. 74. 94.

15. 35. 55. 75. 95.

16. 36. 56. 76. 96.

17. 37. 57. 77. 97.

18. 38. 58. 78. 98.

19. 39. 59. 79. 99.

20. 40. 60. 80. 100.

18

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