APEEJAY COMMON ANNUAL EXAMINATION

SESSION: 2023-2024

SUBJECT: Social Science (087) CLASS: IX

Time: 3 Hours M.Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. Question paper comprises of six Sections –A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question
paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A- From Question no.1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B- Question no.21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer
to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C- Question no.25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D- Question no.30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E- Question no.34 to 36 are Case Based Questions, which are of 4 marks each.
7. Section F- Question no.37 is Map Based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37A is from Geography (3
marks) and 37B is from History (2 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
10. There are a total of 7 printed pages.

SECTION-A (1x20=20)

Q1. Which of the following slogans was given by Jayaprakash Narayan?

(a) Land to the tiller (b) Save Democracy

(c) Nyaya Yudh (d) Remove Poverty

Q2.What was the aim of Hitler’s foreign policy, which led to the outbreak of World War II?

(a) Expansion of socialism (b) Creation of European Union

(c) Pursuit of world peace (d) Expansion of German Territory

Q3.Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?

(a) To send their children to the school.

(b) To provide good food to their children.
(c) To join their children in corporate schools.
(d) To take care of the health and education of their children.

Q4.The Right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is:

(a) Right against exploitation (b) Right to Freedom

(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Cultural and Educational Rights

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Q5. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

Who among the following is shown sitting on the sack of money?

(a) Capitalist (b) Jew

(c) American (d) Communist

Q6. The Himalayan rivers are joined by many tributaries and headwaters on different locations. Identify
them as per their locations.

Rivers Location
A. The Zaskar, the Nubra, the Shyok, the Hunza 1. In Kashmir region
B. The Bhagirathi, the Alaknanda 2. In Assam
C. The Yamuna 3. At Allahabad
D. The Dibang, the Lohit 4. At Devprayag in Uttarakhand

Choose the correct option:

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Q7. Read the statements given below and choose the correct option.

1. 87 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha.
2. One third of the seats are reserved in rural and urban local bodies for women candidates.
3. Uttar Pradesh has the least number of constituencies.
4. Anyone can form a party or contest elections.

(a) Only 1 is correct (b) 2 & 3 are correct (c) 2 & 4 are correct (d) Only 4 is correct

Q8. The state, which has the highest poverty rate in India is_________.

(a) Bihar (b) Assam (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh

Q9. Name the Indian state, which has reduced its poverty through human resource development.

(a) Bihar (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal

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Q10. The following data represents the health infrastructure over the years.

Based on the above data, choose the correct option with reference to the two statements given below.
Statement 1: The increase in the number of doctors and nurses is adequate for India.
Statement 2: Indian government is focusing upon the development of the health infrastructure.
(a) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
(d) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true.

Q11.Which of these are permitted under the Rule of Law?

(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the constitution.
(b) Police have a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries.
(d) The President can rule for as long as he wants.

Q12. Read the statements given below and choose the correct option.
1. The tropic of cancer does not pass through Rajasthan.
2. Afghanistan does not share a land boundary with India.
3. Lava plateaus bound India’s mainland south of 22° N latitude.
4. India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km.

(a) Only 1 is correct (b) 2 & 3 both are correct

(c) Only 4 is correct (d) 3& 4 both are correct

Q13.Which of the following is a non-market activity?

(a) Working in a factory (b) Writing Books
(c) Cooking food for dinner (d) Teaching

Q14. Select the correct aim of Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).
(a) To create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
(b) Bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organizing them into self-help groups
through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.
(c) Additional central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, rural shelter,
primary education, rural drinking water and rural electrification.
(d) To create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small
towns.

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Q15. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): No person can legally claim any special treatment or privilege just because he or she
happens to be an important person.
Reason (R): Laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Q16. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Democracy improves the quality of decision-making.
Reason (R): Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
Q17. Which of the following is not related to poverty?
(a) Parents are not able to send their children to school
(b) Lack of clean water and sanitation facilities.
(c) Lack of money to buy a new car.
(d) Lack of regular jobs at a minimum decent level.

Q18. Arrange the following incidents of French Revolution in the correct chronological sequence:
(i) The Tennis Court Oath.
(ii) Louis XVI called an assembly of the Estates General.
(iii) Louis XVI accorded recognition to the National Assembly.
(iv) The crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille.

Options:
(a) i—iv —iii—ii (b) iii —iv— i—ii
(c) ii—i—iv —iii (d) iii— iv —ii— i

Q19. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Within a poor family, women, elderly people and female infants suffer more than others.
Reason (R): They are denied equal access to resources available to the family.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Q20. Which of the following is not seen as a standard of human rights by the International Covenant on
Economic, Social and Cultural Rights?
(a) Right to social security and insurance (b) Right to health
(c) Right to accumulate wealth (d) Right to adequate standard
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 SECTION-B (2x4=8)

Q21. How is the Indian Judiciary one of the most powerful in the world?

Q22. Why are parliamentary democracies sometimes seen as a Prime Ministerial form of government?

Q23. What are the main features of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?
OR
‘The current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based broadly on two planks.’ Elucidate.

Q24. The concept of Food Security is multidimensional. Elucidate.

SECTION-C (3x5=15)

Q25. Why is the educated unemployed a peculiar problem of India?

OR
Describe the growth of education in India through governmental measures.

Q26. Monsoon acts as a unifying bond in our country. Give a reason.

Q27. “The communist society was the natural society of the future”. Explain the statement.
OR
Why did Stalin introduce firm emergency measures of collectivization? Explain the way he executed them.

Q28. There was no equality between people in Nazi Germany, but only a racial hierarchy. Do you think it
was connected to the geopolitical concept of lebensraum?

Q29. How does migration play an important role in population growth? Explain the ‘pull’ and ‘push’
factors of migration.
SECTION– D (5x4=20)

Q30. Discuss the important features of the draft of the constitution prepared by the National Assembly of
France in 1791.
OR
How did the Revolutionary government translate the ideas of liberty and equality into everyday practice?

Q31. How did the constituent Assembly work to give sanctity to the constitution?
OR
Why should we accept the constitution made by the assembly more than six decades ago?

Q32. Build the profile of the largest peninsular river by highlighting its differential features.

OR
Differentiate between the Himalayan rivers and the Peninsular rivers.

Q33. What is the reason behind the existence of hunger? What are the two major types of hunger?

OR
“PDS has proved to be the most effective instrument of government yet faced severe criticism”.
Justify the statement.
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 SECTION-E (4x3=12)

Q34. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow:

Our country has practically all major physical features of the earth i.e., mountains, plains, deserts, plateaus
and islands. The land of India displays great physical variation. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau
constitutes one of the ancient land masses on the earth’s surface. It was supposed to be one of the most stable
land blocks. The Himalayas and the Northern Plains are the most recent landforms. From the viewpoint of
geology, Himalayan Mountains form an unstable zone. The whole mountain system of Himalaya represents
a very youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast flowing rivers. The northern plains are
formed of alluvial deposits. The peninsular plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks with
gently rising hills and wide valleys.

A. The Peninsular Plateau is said to be one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s surface. Explain. 2
B. Name the highest peak of Himalayan Mountains located in India. 1
C. Why do Himalayan Mountains form an unstable zone? 1

Q35. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow:

Zimbabwe attained independence from white minority rule in 1980.Since then the country has been ruled
by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle. Its leader, Robert Mugabe, has ruled the country since
independence. Elections were held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF. President Mugabe was popular
but also used unfair practices in elections. The example of Zimbabwe shows that popular approval of the rulers
is necessary in a democracy, but it is not sufficient. Popular governments can be undemocratic. Popular leaders
can be autocratic. If we wish to assess a democracy, it is important to look at the elections. But it is equally
important to look before and after the elections. There should be sufficient room for normal political activity,
including political opposition, in the period before elections. This requires that the state should respect some
basic rights of the citizen. They should be free to think, to have opinions, to express these in public, to form
associations, to protest and take other political actions. Everyone should be equal in the eyes of law.

A. Why did ZANU-PF run the country since independence in Zimbabwe? 1

B. Why did Mugabe change the constitution repeatedly? 1
C. ‘Popular governments can be undemocratic.’ Justify the statement with the help of an example. 2

Q36. Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow:

In 1914, war broke out between two European alliances – Germany, Austria and Turkey against France,
Britain and Russia (later Italy and Romania). Each country had a global empire and the war was fought outside
Europe as well as in Europe. This was the First World War. In Russia, the war was initially popular and people
rallied around Tsar Nicholas II. As the war continued, though, the Tsar refused to consult the main parties in
the Duma. Support wore thin. Anti- German sentiments ran high, as can be seen in the renaming of St
Petersburg – a German name – as Petrograd. The Tsarina Alexandra’s German origins and poor advisers,
especially a monk called Rasputin, made the autocracy unpopular.

A. Name the countries identified as central powers. 1

B. How did the eastern front differ from the western front of Russia during the First World War? 1
C. How did the First World War affect the Russian population and industries? 2

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 SECTION- F (3+2=5)

MAP-SKILL BASED QUESTION

Q37.A. On the given outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
(a) Standard Meridian of India
(b) Coromandel Coast
(c) State having highest density of population

B. Two places A and B have been marked on the given out line map of the world. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.