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N10-008 Dumps

CompTIA Network+Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Exam Topic 1)
A technician is installing a new fiber connection to a network device in a datacenter. The connection from the device to the switch also traverses a patch panel
connection. The chain of connections is in the following order:
Device
LC/LC patch cable Patch panel
Cross-connect fiber cable Patch panel
LC/LC patch cable Switch
The connection is not working. The technician has changed both patch cables with known working patch cables. The device had been tested and was working
properly before being installed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. TX/RX is reversed
B. An incorrect cable was used
C. The device failed during installation
D. Attenuation is occurring

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Exam Topic 1)
An engineer notices some late collisions on a half-duplex link. The engineer verifies that the devices on both ends of the connection are configured for half duplex.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. The link is improperly terminated

B. One of the devices is misconfigured
C. The cable length is excessive
D. One of the devices has a hardware issue

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Exam Topic 1)
A technician is installing multiple UPS units in a major retail store. The technician is required to keep track of all changes to new and old equipment. Which of the
following will allow the technician to record these changes?

A. Asset tags
B. A smart locker
C. An access control vestibule
D. A camera

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following provides redundancy on a file server to ensure the server is still connected to a LAN even in the event of a port failure on a switch?

A. NIC teaming
B. Load balancer
C. RAID array
D. PDUs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Exam Topic 1)
A network technician is manually configuring the network settings for a new device and is told the network block is 192.168.0.0/20. Which of the following subnets
should the technician use?

A. 255.255.128.0
B. 255.255.192.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Exam Topic 1)
An IT organization needs to optimize speeds for global content distribution and wants to reduce latency in high-density user locations. Which of the following
technologies BEST meets the organization’s requirements?

A. Load balancing
B. Geofencing
C. Public cloud
D. Content delivery network
E. Infrastructure as a service

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following is used to prioritize Internet usage per application and per user on the network?

A. Bandwidth management
B. Load balance routing
C. Border Gateway Protocol
D. Administrative distance

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Exam Topic 1)
Wireless users are reporting intermittent internet connectivity. Connectivity is restored when the users disconnect and reconnect, utilizing the web authentication
process each time. The network administrator can see the devices connected to the APs at all times. Which of the following steps will MOST likely determine the
cause of the issue?

A. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings

B. Check for encryption protocol mismatch on the client’s wireless settings
C. Confirm that a valid passphrase is being used during the web authentication
D. Investigate for a client’s disassociation caused by an evil twin AP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Exam Topic 1)
A technician is deploying a new switch model and would like to add it to the existing network monitoring software. The technician wants to know what metrics can
be gathered from a given switch. Which of the following should the technician utilize for the switch?

A. MIB
B. Trap
C. Syslog
D. Audit log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Exam Topic 1)
A technician is configuring a network switch to be used in a publicly accessible location. Which of the following should the technician configure on the switch to
prevent unintended connections?

A. DHCP snooping
B. Geofencing
C. Port security
D. Secure SNMP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Exam Topic 1)
A user tries to ping 192.168.1.100 from the command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network but gets the following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following
needs to be configured for these networks to reach each other?

A. Network address translation

B. Default gateway
C. Loopback
D. Routing protocol

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15
- (Exam Topic 1)
After the A record of a public website was updated, some visitors were unable to access the website. Which of the following should be adjusted to address the
issue?

A. TTL
B. MX
C. TXT
D. SOA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

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- (Exam Topic 1)
An IT director is setting up new disaster and HA policies for a company. Limited downtime is critical to operations. To meet corporate requirements, the director set
up two different datacenters across the country that will stay current on data and applications. In the event of an outage, the company can immediately switch from
one datacenter to another. Which of the following does this BEST describe?

A. A warm site
B. Data mirroring
C. Multipathing
D. Load balancing
E. A hot site

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Exam Topic 1)
A network technician is reviewing the interface counters on a router interface. The technician is attempting to confirm a cable issue. Given the following
information:

Which of the following metrics confirms there is a cabling issue?

A. Last cleared
B. Number of packets output
C. CRCs
D. Giants
E. Multicasts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following BEST describes a network appliance that warns of unapproved devices that are accessing the network?

A. Firewall
B. AP
C. Proxy server
D. IDS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 28
- (Exam Topic 1)
The management team needs to ensure unnecessary modifications to the corporate network are not permitted and version control is maintained. Which of the
following documents would BEST support this?

A. An incident response plan

B. A business continuity plan
C. A change management policy
D. An acceptable use policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 33
- (Exam Topic 1)
Within the realm of network security, Zero Trust:

A. prevents attackers from moving laterally through a system.

B. allows a server to communicate with outside networks without a firewall.
C. block malicious software that is too new to be found in virus definitions.
D. stops infected files from being downloaded via websites.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 37
- (Exam Topic 1)
The network administrator is informed that a user’s email password is frequently hacked by brute-force programs. Which of the following policies should the

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network administrator implements to BEST mitigate this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Captive portal
B. Two-factor authentication
C. Complex passwords
D. Geofencing
E. Role-based access
F. Explicit deny

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 38
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following would need to be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the same IP address from DHCP?

A. Scope options
B. Reservation
C. Dynamic assignment
D. Exclusion
E. Static assignment

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 39
- (Exam Topic 1)
Which of the following is used to track and document various types of known vulnerabilities?

A. CVE
B. Penetration testing
C. Zero-day
D. SIEM
E. Least privilege

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network administrator wants to improve the security of the management console on the company's switches and ensure configuration changes made can be
correlated to the administrator who conformed them Which of the following should the network administrator implement?

A. Port security
B. Local authentication
C. TACACS+
D. Access control list

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 45
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network administrator is reviewing interface errors on a switch. Which of the following indicates that a switchport is receiving packets in excess of the configured
MTU?

A. CRC errors
B. Giants
C. Runts
D. Flooding

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 47
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network technician is observing the behavior of an unmanaged switch when a new device is added to the network and transmits data. Which of the following
BEST describes how the switch processes this information?

A. The data is flooded out of every por

B. including the one on which it came in.
C. The data is flooded out of every port but only in the VLAN where it is located.
D. The data is flooded out of every port, except the one on which it came in
E. The data is flooded out of every port, excluding the VLAN where it is located

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Exam Topic 2)
Which of the following is MOST commonly used to address CVEs on network equipment and/or operating systems?

A. Vulnerability assessment

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B. Factory reset
C. Firmware update
D. Screened subnet

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 54
- (Exam Topic 2)
A rogue AP was found plugged in and providing Internet access to employees in the break room. Which of the following would be BEST to use to stop this from
happening without physically removing the WAP?

A. Password complexity
B. Port security
C. Wireless client isolation
D. Secure SNMP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 59
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network engineer is designing a new secure wireless network. The engineer has been given the following requirements:
* 1 Must not use plaintext passwords
* 2 Must be certificate based
* 3. Must be vendor neutral
Which of the following methods should the engineer select?

A. TWP-RC4
B. CCMP-AES
C. EAP-TLS
D. WPA2

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 61
- (Exam Topic 2)
A user is having difficulty with video conferencing and is looking for assistance. Which of the following would BEST improve performance?

A. Packet shaping
B. Quality of service
C. Port mirroring
D. Load balancing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 65
- (Exam Topic 2)
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to improve the availability of a company's SQL database Which of the following technologies should be utilized to achieve
maximum availability?

A. Clustering
B. Port aggregation
C. NIC teaming
D. Snapshots

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 66
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network administrator is downloading a large patch that will be uploaded to several enterprise switches simultaneously during the day's upgrade cycle. Which of
the following should the administrator do to help ensure the upgrade process will be less likely to cause problems with the switches?

A. Confirm the patch's MD5 hash prior to the upgrade

B. Schedule the switches to reboot after an appropriate amount of time.
C. Download each switch's current configuration before the upgrade
D. Utilize FTP rather than TFTP to upload the patch

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 71
- (Exam Topic 2)
Which of the following attacks encrypts user data and requires a proper backup implementation to recover?

A. DDoS
B. Phishing
C. Ransomware
D. MAC spoofing

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 76
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network administrator has been directed to present the network alerts from the past week to the company's executive staff. Which of the following will provide the
BEST collection and presentation of this data?

A. A port scan printout

B. A consolidated report of various network devices
C. A report from the SIEM tool
D. A report from a vulnerability scan done yesterday

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 77
- (Exam Topic 2)
A network requirement calls for segmenting departments into different networks. The campus network is set up with users of each department in multiple buildings.
Which of the following should be configured to keep the design simple and efficient?

A. MDIX
B. Jumbo frames
C. Port tagging
D. Flow control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 79
- (Exam Topic 2)
A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company's address should now redirect clients to the corporate
organization page. Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?

A. SOA
B. NS
C. CNAME
D. TXT

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/9604/2237/types-of-domain-redirects-301-302

NEW QUESTION 81
- (Exam Topic 2)
A technician is connecting DSL for a new customer. After installing and connecting the on-premises equipment, the technician verifies DSL synchronization. When
connecting to a workstation, however, the link LEDs on the workstation and modem do not light up. Which of the following should the technician perform during
troubleshooting?

A. Identify the switching loops between the modem and the workstation.
B. Check for asymmetrical routing on the modem.
C. Look for a rogue DHCP server on the network.
D. Replace the cable connecting the modem and the workstation.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 83
- (Exam Topic 2)
During the security audit of a financial firm the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) questions why there are three employees who perform very distinct functions on the
server. There is an administrator for creating users another for assigning the users lo groups and a third who is the only administrator to perform file rights
assignment Which of the following mitigation techniques is being applied'

A. Privileged user accounts

B. Role separation
C. Container administration
D. Job rotation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 86
- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following is most likely to have the HIGHEST latency while being the most accessible?

A. Satellite
B. DSL
C. Cable
D. 4G

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 89
- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following compromises internet-connected devices and makes them vulnerable to becoming part of a botnet? (Select TWO)

A. Deauthentication attack
B. Malware infection
C. IP spoofing
D. Firmware corruption
E. Use of default credentials
F. Dictionary attack

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 94
- (Exam Topic 3)
A network technician needs to ensure the company's external mail server can pass reverse lookup checks. Which of the following records would the technician
MOST likely configure? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)

A. PTR
B. AAAA
C. SPF
D. CNAME

Answer: A

Explanation:
A PTR (Pointer) record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, which is necessary for reverse lookup checks. Reverse lookup checks are performed by
external mail servers to verify the identity of the sender of the email. By configuring a PTR record, the network technician can ensure that the company's external
mail server can pass these checks. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, and it is
often used for email authentication."

NEW QUESTION 97
- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following types of connections would need to be set up to provide access from the internal network to an external network so multiple satellite offices
can communicate securely using various ports and protocols?

A. Client-to-site VPN
B. Clientless VPN
C. RDP
D. Site-to-site VPN
E. SSH

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 102

- (Exam Topic 3)
An organization set up its offices so that a desktop is connected to the network through a VoIP phone. The VoIP vendor requested that voice traffic be segmented
separately from non-voice traffic. Which of the following would allow the organization to configure multiple devices with network isolation on a single switch port?

A. Subinterfaces
B. Link aggregation
C. Load balancing
D. Tunneling

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 106

- (Exam Topic 3)
When accessing corporate network resources, users are required to authenticate to each application they try to access. Which of the following concepts does this
BEST represent?

A. SSO
B. Zero Trust
C. VPN
D. Role-based access control

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 108

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following is a valid and cost-effective solution to connect a fiber cable into a network switch without available SFP ports?

A. Use a media converter and a UTP cable

B. Install an additional transceiver module and use GBICs
C. Change the type of connector from SC to F-type

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D. Use a loopback adapter to make the connection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following connector types would be used to connect to the demarcation point and provide network access to a cable modem?

A. F-type
B. RJ45
C. LC
D. RJ11

Answer: A

Explanation:
An F-type connector is a type of coaxial connector that is commonly used to connect a cable modem to the demarcation point, which is the point at which the cable
provider's network ends and the customer's network begins. The F-type connector is a threaded connector that is typically used for television, cable modem, and
satellite antenna connections.

NEW QUESTION 115

- (Exam Topic 3)
An administrator would like to allow Windows clients from outside me office to access workstations without using third-party software. Which or the following
access methods would meet this requirement?

A. Remote desktop gateway

B. Spit tunnel
C. Site-to-site VPN
D. VNC

Answer: A

Explanation:
To allow Windows clients from outside the office to access workstations without using third-party software, the administrator can use the Remote Desktop Protocol
(RDP). RDP is a built-in feature of the Windows operating system that allows users to remotely connect to and control other Windows computers over a network
connection.
To use RDP, the administrator will need to enable the Remote Desktop feature on the workstations that need to be accessed, and ensure that the appropriate
firewall rules are in place to allow RDP traffic to pass through. The administrator will also need to provide the remote users with the necessary credentials to
access the workstations.
Once RDP is set up and configured, the remote users can use the Remote Desktop client on their own computers to connect to the workstations and access them
as if they were physically present in the office. This allows the administrator to provide remote access to the workstations without the need for any additional
software or third-party tools.

NEW QUESTION 118

- (Exam Topic 3)
After rebooting an AP a user is no longer able to conned to me enterprise LAN A technician plugs a laptop In to the same network jack and receives the IP 169.254
0 200. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. DHCP scope exhaustion

B. Signal attenuation
C. Channel overlap
D. Improper DNS configuration

Answer: A

Explanation:
DHCP scope exhaustion occurs when the number of available IP addresses to be leased from a DHCP server have been used up. This could be caused by a large
number of clients on the network, or a misconfigured
DHCP scope. When this happens, clients will be assigned an IP address from the APIPA range (169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255). To resolve this issue, the DHCP
scope needs to be expanded or adjusted to accommodate the number of clients on the network.

NEW QUESTION 123

- (Exam Topic 3)
A technician is assisting a user who cannot connect to a website. The technician attempts to ping the default gateway and DNS server of the workstation.
According to troubleshooting methodology, this is an example of:

A. a divide-and-conquer approach.
B. a bottom-up approach.
C. a top-to-bottom approach.
D. implementing a solution.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 128

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following types of attacks can be used to gain credentials by setting up rogue APs with identical corporate SSIDs?

A. VLAN hopping

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B. Evil twin
C. DNS poisoning
D. Social engineering

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 129

- (Exam Topic 3)
An international company is transferring its IT assets including a number of WAPs from the United States to an office in Europe for deployment. Which of the
following considerations should the company research before Implementing the wireless hardware?

A. WPA2 cipher
B. Regulatory Impacts
C. CDMA configuration
D. 802.11 standards

Answer: B

Explanation:
When transferring IT assets, including wireless access points (WAPs), from one country to another, it's important to research the regulatory impacts of the move.
Different countries have different regulations and compliance requirements for wireless devices, such as frequency bands, power levels, and encryption standards.
Failing to comply with these regulations can result in fines or other penalties.

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following needs to be tested to achieve a Cat 6a certification for a company's data cawing?

A. RJ11
B. LC ports
C. Patch panel
D. F-type connector

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 131

- (Exam Topic 3)
Users in a branch can access an ln-house database server, but II is taking too long to fetch records. The analyst does not know whether the Issue is being caused
by network latency. Which of the following will the analyst MOST likely use to retrieve the metrics that are needed to resolve this issue?

A. SNMP
B. Link state
C. Syslog
D. QoS
E. Traffic shaping

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 135

- (Exam Topic 3)
A systems administrator wants to use the least amount of equipment to segment two departments that nave cables terminating in the same room. Which of the
following would allow this to occur?

A. A load balancer
B. A proxy server
C. A Layer 3 switch
D. A hub
E. A Layer 7 firewall
F. The RSSI was not strong enough on the link

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Exam Topic 3)
An administrator needs to connect two laptops directly to each other using 802.11ac but does not have an AP available. Which of the following describes this
configuration?

A. Basic service set

B. Extended service set
C. Independent basic service set
D. MU-MIMO

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 143

- (Exam Topic 3)
An administrator would like to have two servers at different geographical locations provide fault tolerance and high performance while appearing as one URL to
users. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

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A. Load balancing
B. Multipathing
C. NIC teaming
D. Warm site

Answer: A

Explanation:
Load balancing is a technique that can be used to provide fault tolerance and high performance while appearing as one URL to users. It is achieved by distributing
the workload across multiple servers, which are usually located in different geographical locations. This allows for high performance and fault tolerance, as if one
server fails, the other will take its place. Additionally, the multiple servers appear as one URL to the users, eliminating the need for the users to switch between
servers.

NEW QUESTION 146

- (Exam Topic 3)
After HVAC failures caused network outages, the support team decides to monitor the temperatures of all the devices. The network administrator cannot find a
command that will display this information. Which of the following will retrieve the necessary information?

A. SNMP OID values

B. NetFlow data export
C. Network baseline configurations
D. Security information and event management

Answer: A

Explanation:
The network administrator can use the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to monitor the temperatures of all the devices. SNMP is a widely-used
protocol for managing and monitoring network devices, such as routers, switches, servers, and other networking equipment. SNMP allows network administrators
to gather information about the performance and status of devices on the network, including temperature readings.
To retrieve the temperature information, the administrator will have to configure SNMP on the devices and configure SNMP manager software on their computer.
Once the SNMP manager software is configured, it will be able to send SNMP requests to the devices and retrieve information such as temperature, voltage, fan
speeds, etc. Many network devices have built-in SNMP support, and the administrator may also need to install SNMP agent software on the devices to enable
SNMP monitoring.
The administrator can also use some specific command or tool like IPMI (Intelligent Platform Management Interface) or DCIM (Data Center Infrastructure
Management) tools for monitoring the temperatures of all the devices.

NEW QUESTION 149

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following allows for an devices within a network to share a highly reliable time source?

A. NTP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. DNS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a protocol used to maintain a highly accurate and reliable clock time on all devices within a network. NTP works by synchronizing
the time of all the devices within a network to a single, highly accurate time source. This allows for the time of all the devices to be kept in sync with each other,
ensuring a consistent and reliable time source for all devices within the network.

NEW QUESTION 152

- (Exam Topic 3)
A computer engineer needs to ensure that only a specific workstation can connect to port 1 on a switch. Which of the following features should the engineer
configure on the switch interface?

A. Port tagging
B. Port security
C. Port mirroring
D. Port aggregation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Port security is a feature that can be configured on a switch interface to limit and identify the MAC addresses of workstations that are allowed to connect to that
specific port. This can help ensure that only a specific workstation (or workstations) can connect to the interface. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study
Manual, “Port security can be used to specify which MAC addresses are allowed to connect to a particular switch port. If a port security violation is detected, the
switch can take a number of different actions, such as shutting down the port, sending an SNMP trap, or sending an email alert.”

NEW QUESTION 153

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network technician 13 troubleshooting a specific port on a switch. Which of the following commands should the technician use to see the port configuration?

A. show route
B. show Interface
C. show arp
D. show port

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Answer: B

Explanation:
To see the configuration of a specific port on a switch, the network technician should use the "show interface" command. This command provides detailed
information about the interface, including the current configuration, status, and statistics for the interface.

NEW QUESTION 156

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following options represents the participating computers in a network?

A. Nodes
B. CPUs
C. Servers
D. Clients

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 160

- (Exam Topic 3)
A company needs a redundant link to provide a channel to the management network in an incident response scenario. Which of the following remote access
methods provides the BEST solution?

A. Out-of-band access
B. Split-tunnel connections
C. Virtual network computing
D. Remote desktop gateways

Answer: A

Explanation:
Out-of-band access is a remote access method that provides a separate, independent channel for accessing network devices and systems. Out-of-band access
uses a dedicated network connection or a separate communication channel, such as a dial-up or cellular connection, to provide access to network devices and
systems. This allows an administrator to access the management network even if the primary network connection is unavailable or impaired. Out-of-band access is
a good solution for providing a redundant link to the management network in an incident response scenario because it can be used to access the network even if
the primary connection is unavailable or impaired.

NEW QUESTION 165

- (Exam Topic 3)
A user calls the help desk to report being unable to reach a file server. The technician logs in to the user's computer and verifies that pings fall to respond back
when trying to reach the file server. Which of the following would BEST help the technician verify whether the file server is reachable?

A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. traceroute

Answer: D

Explanation:
Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that allows you to trace the path that network packets take from one device to another. By running traceroute to the file
server, the technician can see the sequence of devices and networks that the packets pass through on their way to the file server. This can help the technician to
determine if there is a problem with the network connection between the user's computer and the file server, or if the issue is with the file server itself.

NEW QUESTION 166

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following uses the link-state routing algorithm and operates within a single autonomous system?

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP

Answer: B

Explanation:
OSPF uses a link state routing algorithm and falls into the group of interior routing protocols, operating within a single autonomous system (AS). OSPF is perhaps
the most widely used interior gateway protocol (IGP) in large enterprise networks

NEW QUESTION 168

- (Exam Topic 3)
A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the
following should the management team consult to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?

A. Memorandum of understanding
B. Business continuity plan
C. Disaster recovery plan
D. Service-level agreement

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Answer: D

Explanation:
A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon
availability of the cloud service provider, the expected uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the
best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.

NEW QUESTION 170

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following OSI model layers would allow a user to access and download flies from a remote computer?

A. Session
B. Presentation
C. Network
D. Application

Answer: D

Explanation:
The application layer of the OSI model (Open Systems Interconnection) is responsible for providing services to applications that allow users to access and
download files from a remote computer. These services include file transfer, email, and web access, as well as other related services. In order for a user to access
and download files from a remote computer, the application layer must provide the necessary services that allow the user to interact with the remote computer.

NEW QUESTION 171

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following describes traffic going in and out of a data center from the internet?

A. Demarcation point
B. North-South
C. Fibre Channel
D. Spine and leaf

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 172

- (Exam Topic 3)
A company needs to virtualize a replica of its internal physical network without changing the logical topology and the way that devices behave and are managed.
Which of the following technologies meets this requirement?

A. NFV
B. SDWAN
C. VIP
D. MPLS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Network Function Virtualization (NFV) is a technology that allows for the virtualization of a replica of a network's physical topology and the way it behaves without
changing the logical topology and the way that devices are managed. NFV allows for the virtualization of network functions such as routers, firewalls, and switches,
resulting in increased flexibility and scalability. This makes NFV an ideal technology for companies looking to virtualize a replica of their internal physical network.

NEW QUESTION 173

- (Exam Topic 3)
Users within a corporate network need to connect to the Internet, but corporate network policy does not allow direct connections. Which of the following is MOST
likely to be used?

A. Proxy server
B. VPN client
C. Bridge
D. VLAN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 175

- (Exam Topic 3)
A new student is given credentials to log on to the campus Wi-Fi. The student stores the password in a laptop and is able to connect; however, the student is not
able to connect with a phone when only a short distance from the laptop. Given the following information:

Which of the following is MOST likely causing this connection failure?

A. Transmission speed
B. Incorrect passphrase

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C. Channel overlap
D. Antenna cable attenuation/signal loss

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 179

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network administrator would like to purchase a device that provides access ports to endpoints and has the ability to route between networks. Which of the
following would be BEST for the administrator to purchase?

A. An IPS
B. A Layer 3 switch
C. A router
D. A wireless LAN controller

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Exam Topic 3)
A corporation is looking for a method to secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center in order to provide a zero-touch experience for all staff
members who work there. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

A. Site-to-site VPN
B. VNC
C. Remote desktop gateway
D. Virtual LANs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 186

- (Exam Topic 3)
A company is moving to a new building designed with a guest waiting area that has existing network ports. Which of the following practices would BEST secure the
network?

A. Ensure all guests sign an NDA.

B. Disable unneeded switchports in the area.
C. Lower the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area.
D. Enable MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses.

Answer: B

Explanation:
One of the best practices to secure the network would be to disable unneeded switchports in the guest waiting area. This will prevent unauthorized users from
connecting to the network through these ports. It's important to identify which switchports are not in use and disable them, as this will prevent unauthorized access
to the network.
Other practices such as ensuring all guests sign an NDA, lowering the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area and enabling MAC filtering to
block unknown hardware addresses are not as effective in securing the network as disabling unneeded switchports. Enforcing an NDA with guests may not stop a
malicious user from attempting to access the network, reducing the radio strength only limits the Wi-Fi coverage, and MAC filtering can be easily bypassed by
hackers.

NEW QUESTION 188

- (Exam Topic 3)
A security administrator is trying to prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the network. Which of the following would MOST likely prevent
this and allow the network to continue to operate?

A. Configuring DHCP snooping on the switch

B. Preventing broadcast messages leaving the client network
C. Blocking ports 67/68 on the client network
D. Enabling port security on access ports

Answer: A

Explanation:
To prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the network and allow the network to continue to operate, the security administrator should
consider configuring DHCP (Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol) snooping on the switch. DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from operating on a
network. It works by allowing the switch to monitor and validate DHCP traffic on the network, ensuring that only legitimate DHCP messages are forwarded to
clients. This can help to prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients, as it ensures that only authorized DHCP servers are able to provide IP
addresses to clients on the network.

NEW QUESTION 193

- (Exam Topic 3)
A technician is troubleshooting reports that a networked printer is unavailable. The printer's IP address is configured with a DHCP reservation, but the address
cannot be pinged from the print server in the same subnet. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of me connectivity failure?

A. Incorrect VLAN
B. DNS failure
C. DHCP scope exhaustion

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D. Incorrect gateway

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network administrator wants to check all network connections and see the output in integer form. Which of the following commands should the administrator run
on the command line?

A. netstat
B. netstat -a
C. netstat —e
D. netstat —n

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 198

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of me following security controls indicates unauthorized hardware modifications?

A. Biometric authentication
B. Media device sanitization
C. Change management policy
D. Tamper-evident seals

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 199

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following documents would be used to define uptime commitments from a provider, along with details on measurement and enforcement?

A. NDA
B. SLA
C. MOU
D. AUP

Answer: B

Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that is used to define uptime commitments from a provider, along with details on measurement and enforcement.
An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service that the provider is committed to providing and the terms under
which that service will be delivered.

NEW QUESTION 202

- (Exam Topic 3)
During an annual review of policy documents, a company decided to adjust its recovery time frames. The company agreed that critical applications can be down
for no more than six hours, and the acceptable amount of data loss is no more than two hours. Which of the following should be documented as the RPO?

A. Two hours
B. Four hours
C. Six hours
D. Eight hours

Answer: A

Explanation:
“ RPO designates the variable amount of data that will be lost or will have to be re-entered during network downtime. RTO designates the amount of “real time”
that can pass before the disruption begins to seriously and unacceptably impede the flow of normal business operations."

NEW QUESTION 205

- (Exam Topic 3)
Several employees have expressed concerns about the company monitoring their internet activity when they are working from home. The company wants to
mitigate this issue and reassure employees that their private internet activity is not being monitored. Which of the following would satisfy company and employee
needs?

A. Split tunnel
B. Full tunnel
C. Site-to-site tunnel
D. Virtual desktop

Answer: A

Explanation:
Split tunnel is a configuration that allows a remote user to access both the local network and the Internet at the same time. In a split tunnel configuration, only
traffic destined for the corporate network is sent through the VPN tunnel, while all other traffic is sent directly to the Internet. This allows the remote user to access
the Internet without the company's VPN server being able to monitor or intercept their traffic. Using a split tunnel configuration can help the company to mitigate
employee concerns about internet activity being monitored and reassure employees that their private internet activity is not being monitored.

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NEW QUESTION 207

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following issues are present with RIPv2? (Select TWO).

A. Route poisoning
B. Time to converge
C. Scalability
D. Unicast
E. Adjacent neighbors
F. Maximum transmission unit

Answer: BC

Explanation:
The disadvantages of RIP (Routing Information Protocol) include the following.
---Outdated, insecure, and slow. This is your parents' protocol. It was a thing before the Web was born.
---The more well-known problem of the 15 hop limitation in which data must travel
---Convergence time is terrible for information propagation in a network
---Metrics. It determines the number of hops from source to destination, and gives no regard to other factors when determining the best path for data to travel
---Overhead. A good example would be routing tables. These are broadcast at half-minute intervals to other routers regardless of whether the data has changed or
not. It's essentially like those old cartoons where the town guard in the walled city cries out, '10 o' the clock and all is well!'.
RIPv2 introduced more security and reduced broadcast traffic, which is relevant for some available answers here.

NEW QUESTION 211

- (Exam Topic 3)
A company's primary ISP is experiencing an outage. However, the network administrator notices traffic continuing to flow through a secondary connection to the
same ISP. Which of the following BEST describes this configuration?

A. Diverse paths
B. Load balancing
C. Multipathing
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 213

- (Exam Topic 3)
A customer wants to log in t o a vendor's server using a web browser on a laptop. Which of the following would require the LEAST configuration to allow encrypted
access to the server?

A. Secure Sockets Layer

B. Site-to-site VPN
C. Remote desktop gateway
D. Client-to-site VPN

Answer: A

Explanation:
SSL is a widely used protocol for establishing secure, encrypted connections between devices over the Internet. It is typically used to secure communication
between web browsers and servers, and can be easily enabled on a server by installing an SSL certificate.

NEW QUESTION 214

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network resource was accessed by an outsider as a result of a successful phishing campaign. Which of the following strategies should be employed to mitigate
the effects of phishing?

A. Multifactor authentication
B. Single sign-on
C. RADIUS
D. VPN

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multifactor authentication is a security measure that requires users to provide multiple pieces of evidence before they can access a network resource. This could
include requiring users to enter a username, password, and a code sent to the user's mobile phone before they are allowed access. This ensures that the user is
who they say they are, reducing the risk of malicious actors gaining access to network resources as a result of a successful phishing campaign.

NEW QUESTION 219

- (Exam Topic 3)
A client utilizes mobile tablets to view high-resolution images and videos via Wi-Fi within a corporate office building. The previous administrator installed multiple
high-density APs with Wi-Fi 5, providing maximum coverage, but the measured performance is still below expected levels. Which of the following would provide the
BEST solution?

A. Channel bonding
B. EiRP power settings
C. Antenna polarization
D. A directional antenna

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 221

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network technician is selecting a replacement for a damaged fiber cable that goes directly to an SFP transceiver on a network switch. Which of the following
cable connectors should be used?

A. RJ45
B. LC
C. MT
D. F-type

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 222

- (Exam Topic 3)
A company with multiple routers would like to implement an HA network gateway with the least amount of downtime possible. This solution should not require
changes on the gateway setting of the network clients. Which of the following should a technician configure?

A. Automate a continuous backup and restore process of the system's state of the active gateway.
B. Use a static assignment of the gateway IP address on the network clients.
C. Configure DHCP relay and allow clients to receive a new IP setting.
D. Configure a shared VIP and deploy VRRP on the routers.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The open standard protocol Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is similar to HSRP, the differences mainly being in terminology and packet formats. In
VRRP, the active router is known as the master, and all other routers in the group are known as backup routers. There is no specific standby router; instead, all
backup routers monitor the status of the master, and in the event of a failure, a new master router is selected from the available backup routers based on priority

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Exam Topic 3)
A user from a remote office is reporting slow file transfers. Which of the following tools will an engineer
MOST likely use to get detailed measurement data?

A. Packet capture
B. IPerf
C. SIEM log review
D. Internet speed test

Answer: B

Explanation:
An engineer will most likely use IPerf to get detailed measurement data about the user's slow file transfers. IPerf is a tool used for measuring network performance
and bandwidth, and it can be used to measure the speed and throughput of file transfers from the remote office. It can also provide detailed information about the
latency and jitter of the connection, which can be used to troubleshoot the slow file transfers. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual (Chapter 10, Page
214).

NEW QUESTION 229

- (Exam Topic 3)
An administrator is investigating reports of network slowness in a building. While looking at the uplink interface statistics In the switch's CLI, the administrator
discovers the uplink Is at 100% utilization However, the administrator is unsure how to Identify what traffic is causing the saturation. Which of the following tools
should the administrator utilize to identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic?

A. SNMP
B. Traps
C. Syslog
D. NetFlow

Answer: D

Explanation:
To identify the source and destination addresses of the traffic causing network saturation, the network administrator should use a network protocol analyzer that
supports the NetFlow protocol. NetFlow is a network protocol that collects IP traffic information as it enters or exits an interface and sends it to a NetFlow collector
for analysis. This data includes the source and destination addresses of the traffic, the ports used, and the number of bytes and packets transferred.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D, NetFlow.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd Lammle (Chapter 6: Network Devices)

NEW QUESTION 230

- (Exam Topic 3)
A small office is running WiFi 4 APs, and neighboring offices do not want to increase the throughput to associated devices. Which of the following is the MOST
cost-efficient way for the office to increase network performance?

A. Add another AP.

B. Disable the 2.4GHz radios.
C. Enable channel bonding.
D. Upgrade to WiFi 5.

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Answer: C

Explanation:
Channel bonding is a practice commonly used in IEEE 802.11 implementations in which two adjacent channels within a given frequency band are combined to
increase throughput between two or more wireless devices. Channel bonding is also known as Ethernet bonding, but it is used heavily in Wi-Fi implementations. It
has become a very popular technique in the world of Wi-Fi because its increased throughput provides for more functionality within Wi-Fi deployments. Channel
bonding is also known as NIC bonding. Source- https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2999/channel-bonding

NEW QUESTION 231

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following commands can be used to display the IP address, subnet address, gateway address, and DNS address on a Windows computer?

A. netstat -a
B. ifconfig
C. ip addr
D. ipconfig /all

Answer: D

Explanation:
The ipconfig command is a utility that allows you to view and modify the network configuration of a Windows computer. By running the command "ipconfig /all", you
can view detailed information about the network configuration of your computer, including the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server
addresses.
Option A (netstat -a) is a command that displays active network connections and their status, but it does not display IP address or other network configuration
information. Option B (ifconfig) is a command used on Linux and Unix systems to view and modify network configuration, but it is not available on Windows. Option
C (ip addr) is a command used on Linux and Unix systems to view and modify network configuration, but it is not available on Windows.

NEW QUESTION 232

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following ports are associated with IMAP? (Choose two.)

A. 25
B. 110
C. 143
D. 587
E. 993
F. 995

Answer: CE

Explanation:
Reference:
https://billing.precedence.com.au/billing/knowledgebase/70/Mail-Ports-for-POP3-IMAP-and-SMTP.html

NEW QUESTION 236

- (Exam Topic 3)
A large metropolitan city is looking to standardize the ability tor police department laptops to connect to the city government's VPN The city would like a wireless
solution that provides the largest coverage across the city with a minimal number of transmission towers Latency and overall bandwidth needs are not high
priorities. Which of the following would BEST meet the city's needs?

A. 5G
B. LTE
C. Wi-Fi 4
D. Wi-Fi 5
E. Wi-Fi 6

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 238

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network technician reviews an entry on the syslog server and discovers the following message from a switch:
SPANNING-TREE Port 1/1 BLOCKED
Which of the following describes the issue?

A. A loop was discovered, and the impact was mitigated.

B. An incorrectly pinned cable was disconnected.
C. The link-local address on the port is incorrect.
D. The port was shut down, and it needs to be reactivated.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 242

- (Exam Topic 3)
A network administrator is designing a wireless network. The administrator must ensure a rented office space has a sufficient signal. Reducing exposure to the
wireless network is important, but it is secondary to the primary objective. Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate the correct accessibility to the Wi-Fi
network?

A. Polarization

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B. Channel utilization
C. Channel bonding
D. Antenna type
E. MU-MIMO

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 245

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following devices have the capability to allow communication between two different subnetworks? (Select TWO).

A. IDS
B. Access point
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Layer 3 switch
E. Router
F. Media converter

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 250

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following is a benefit of the spine-and-leaf network topology?

A. Increased network security

B. Stable network latency
C. Simplified network management
D. Eliminated need for inter-VLAN routing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 254

- (Exam Topic 3)
Which of the following would be used when connecting devices that have different physical characteristics?

A. A proxy server
B. An industrial control system
C. A load balancer
D. A media converter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 258

- (Exam Topic 3)
An administrator wants to increase the availability of a server that is connected to the office network. Which of the following allows for multiple NICs to share a
single IP address and offers maximum performance while providing fault tolerance in the event of a NIC failure?

A. Multipathing
B. Spanning Tree Protocol
C. First Hop Redundancy Protocol
D. Elasticity

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19455-01/806-6547/6jffv7oma/index.html

NEW QUESTION 261

- (Exam Topic 3)
Several end users viewing a training video report seeing pixelated images while watching. A network administrator reviews the core switch and is unable to find an
immediate cause. Which of the following BEST explains what is occurring?

A. Jitter
B. Bandwidth
C. Latency
D. Giants

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Jitter is the loss of packets due to an overworked WAP. Jitter shows up as choppy conversations over a video call, strange jumps in the middle of an online
game—pretty much anything that feels like the network has missed some data. Latency is when data stops moving for a moment due to a WAP being unable to do
the work. This manifests as a Word document that stops loading, for example, or an online file that stops downloading."

NEW QUESTION 262

- (Exam Topic 3)

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Which of the following is the MOST appropriate use case for the deployment of a clientless VPN?

A. Secure web access to internal corporate resources.

B. Upgrade security via the use of an NFV technology
C. Connect two data centers across the internet.
D. Increase VPN availability by using a SDWAN technology.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 264

- (Exam Topic 3)
A Chief Executive Officer and a network administrator came to an agreement With a vendor to purchase new equipment for the data center A document was
drafted so all parties would be Informed about the scope of the project before It started. Which of the following terms BEST describes the document used?

A. Contract
B. Project charter
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Non-disclosure agreement

Answer: B

Explanation:
The document used to inform all parties about the scope of the project before it starts is likely a project charter. A project charter is a document that outlines the
key aspects of a project, including the project's objectives, scope, stakeholders, and resources. It serves as a formal agreement between the project team and the
stakeholders, and helps to define the project's goals and constraints.
A project charter typically includes information about the project's scope, including the specific deliverables that are expected and any constraints or limitations that
may impact the project. It may also include details about the project team and stakeholders, the project schedule and budget, and the roles and responsibilities of
each party.
By creating a project charter, the Chief Executive Officer and the network administrator can ensure that all parties involved in the project have a clear
understanding of the project's goals and objectives, and can help to prevent misunderstandings or miscommunications during the project.
What is in a project charter?
A project charter is a formal short document that states a project exists and provides project managers with written authority to begin work. A project charter
document describes a project to create a shared understanding of its goals, objectives and resource requirements before the project is scoped out in detail.
What are the 5 elements of the project charter?
What Are the Contents of a Project Charter? A project charter should always include an overview, an outline of scope, an approximate schedule, a budget
estimate, anticipated risks, and key stakeholders

NEW QUESTION 265

- (Exam Topic 3)
A technician is investigating packet loss to a device that has varying data bursts throughout the day. Which of the following will the technician MOST likely
configure to resolve the issue?

A. Flow control
B. Jumbo frames
C. Duplex
D. Port mirroring

Answer: A

Explanation:
Ethernet flow control is a mechanism for temporarily stopping the transmission of data on Ethernet family computer networks. The goal of this mechanism is to
avoid packet loss in the presence of network congestion.
Flow control is a mechanism that allows a device to regulate the amount of data it receives from another device, ensuring that the receiving device is not
overwhelmed with data. If the device experiencing packet loss is receiving large bursts of data at times when it is not able to process it quickly enough, configuring
flow control could help prevent packets from being lost.
"In theory, flow control can help with situations like a host that can’t keep up with the flow of traffic. It enables the host to send an Ethernet PAUSE frame, which
asks the switch to hold up for some amount of time so the host can catch its breath. If the switch can, it’ll buffer transmissions until the pause expires, and then
start sending again. If the host catches up early, it can send another PAUSE frame with a delay of zero to ask the switch to resume. In practice, flow control can
cause latency trouble for modern real-time applications such as VoIP, and the same needs are usually met by QoS"

NEW QUESTION 267

- (Exam Topic 3)
An office area contains two PoE-enabled WAPs. After the area was remodeled, new cable uplinks were installed in the ceiling above the fluorescent lights.
However, after the WAPs were reconnected, users reported slowness and application errors. An intern reviewed the network and discovered a lot of CRC errors. A
network engineer reviewed the intern's work and realized UTP cabling was used. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the CRC errors?

A. Insufficient power at the antennas

B. PoE and UTP incompatibility
C. Electromagnetic interference
D. Wrong cable pinout

Answer: C

Explanation:
"EMI is a problem when cables are installed near electrical devices, such as air conditioners or fluorescent light fixtures. If a network medium is placed close
enough to such a device, the signal within the cable might become corrupt. Network media vary in their resistance to the effects of EMI. Standard unshielded
twisted-pair (UTP) cable is susceptible to EMI, whereas fiber cable, with its light transmissions, is resistant to EMI. When deciding on a particular medium, consider
where it will run and the impact EMI can have on the installation."

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NEW QUESTION 269

......

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