Sec: XII_STU_NC_NEET Date: 11-11-2024

Time: 3.00 Hrs. RTN – 03 Max.Marks:720

NEET2025 Model
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
2. The test is of 3:00 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (Four options
with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You
have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & all 10 questions from Section-B.
3. Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
5. Use of Calculator is not allowed.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on the
Answer Sheet.

Exam Syllabus

PHYSICS
NLM and Friction, Current Electricity

CHEMISTRY GOC, Alcohol, Phenol and Ether

BOTANY Morphology of Flowering Plants, Principles of Inheritance and variation (till codominance)

ZOOLOGY Structural Organisation in Animals, Evolution

 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
PHYSICS Max.Marks:180
SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
1. A material body A of mass m1 exerts a force distance of 3m. Neglecting friction, the speed
on another material body B of mass m2. If the of the ship at this moment is :
acceleration of B be a2, the magnitude of the 1) 3.0 m/s 2) 1.5 m/s
acceleration of A is :- 3) 0.1 m/s 4) 2 m/s
1) Zero 2) m2a2/m1 6. A balloon of mass M is descending with a
3) m1a2/m2 4) a2 constant acceleration g/3. When a mass m is
2. A man is at rest in the middle of a pond on removed from the balloon it starts rising with
perfectly smooth ice. He can get himself to the the same acceleration g/3. The value of m is
shore by making use of Newton's :- (Assuming that its volume does not change) :-
1) First law 2) Second law M M
1) 2)
3) Third law 4) Law of gravitation 2 4
3. Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are acted 3) 4M 4) 2M

upon by the same force. If the acceleration of 7. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a

lighter body is 2 m/s2, then the acceleration of frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing

the heavier body is :- water at a rate of 1 kg/s with a speed of 5 m/s.

1) 4.2 m/s2 2) 3.6 m/s2 The initial acceleration of the block will be :-

3) 2.4 m/s2 4) 1.6 m/s2 1) 2.5 m/s2 2) 5 m/s2

4. There are 8.4 × 1022 free electrons per cm3 in 3) 10 m/s2 4) 15 m/s2

copper. The current in the wire is 0.21 A (e =

1.6 × 10–19 C). Then the drifts velocity of
electrons in a copper wire of 1 mm2 cross
section, will be :.
1) 2.12 × 10–5 m/s 2) 0.78 × 10–5 m/s
3) 1.56 × 10–5 m/s 4) none of these
5. A ship of mass 3 × 107 kg initially at rest is
pulled by a force of 5 × 104 N through a

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
8. A water jet, whose cross sectional area is 'a'
strikes a wall making an angle '' with the
normal and rebounds elastically. The velocity
of water of density 'd' is v. Force exerted on
wall is :-

1) 0·2 kg-m/s 2) – 0·2 kg-m/s

3) 0·1 kg-m/s 4) – 0·4 kg-m/s
12. A rocket of mass 1000 kg is to be projected
vertically upwards. The gases are exhausted
vertically downwards with velocity 100 m/s
1) 2 av2d cos 2) 2 av2d sin
with respect to the rocket. What is the
3) 2 avd cos 4) avd cos
minimum rate of burning fuel, so as to just lift
9. For a body of 50 kg mass, the velocity-time
the rocket upwards against the gravitational
graph is shown in figure. The force acting on
attraction ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
the body is :
1) 50 kg/s 2) 100 kg/s
3) 200 kg/s 4) 400 kg/s
13. Find the tension T2 for the system shown in
fig.

1) 25 N 2) 50 N
3) 12.5 N 4) 100 N
10. n bullet strike per second elastically on a wall
and rebound. What will be the force exerted on
1) 1g N 2) 2g N
the wall by bullets if mass of each bullet is m :-
3) 5g N 4) 6g N
1) mnv 2) 4mnv
mnv
3) 2mnv 4)
2
11. In the figure given below, the position-time
graph of a particle of mass 0·1 kg is shown.
The impulse at t = 2 sec is .

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
14. A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of
length 2 m from a ceiling. A force of 50 N is
applied in horizontal direction at the mid point
of the rope. What is the angle between the rope
and the vertical in equilibrium :-
1) g 2) g/2
3) g/3 4) g/4
17. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are
connected by massless strings as shown in the
figure on a frictionless table. They are pulled

4 5 with a force of 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg

1) tan 1   2) tan 1  
5 4 and m3 = 4 kg, then tension T2 will be :-
5
3) tan 1   4) None
6
15. A small sphere is suspended by a string from
1) 10 N 2) 20 N
the ceiling of a car. If the car begins to move
3) 32 N 4) 40 N
g
with a constant acceleration , the inclination 18. Three masses M1, M2 and M3 are lying on a
2
of the string with the vertical is :- frictionless table. The masses are connected by
massless threads as shown. The mass M3 is
1
1) tan 1   in the direction of motion
2 pulled by a constant force F as shown. The

1 tension in the thread between masses M2 and

1
2) tan   opposite to the direction of
2 M3 is
motion
3) tan–1(2) in the direction of motion
4) tan–1(2) opposite to the direction of motion
 M1  M 2   M 2  M3 
16. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are 1)  F 2)  F
 M1  M 2  M3   M1  M 2  M3 
connected to a pulley as shown. What will be
 M1  M3   M1  M 2 
their acceleration if the pulley is set free ? (g = 3)  F 4)  F
 M1  M 2  M3   M1  M 2  M3 
acceleration due to gravity)

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
19. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are
connected to each other with threads and are
placed on a table as shown in figure. What is
the acceleration with which the system is
moving ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1) Zero
2) More than that in case (b)
3) Less than that in case (b)
4) Equal to that in case (b)
22. In the fig. mass M = 10 g. is placed on an
1) Zero 2) 2 m/s2 inclined plane. In order to keep it at rest, the
3) 4 m/s2 4) 3 m/s2 2)
value of mass m will be:
20. The surface is frictionless, the ratio of T1 and
T2 is :-

1) 5 g 2) 10 3 g

1) 3 :1 2) 1: 3 3) 0.10 g 4) 3g
3) 1 : 5 4) 5 : 1 23. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the
21. The pulley arrangements shown in the figure help of a rope which moves with a velocity v
are identical, the mass of the rope being as shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of
negligible. In case (a) mass m is lifted by the block is :
attaching a mass of 2m to the other end of the
rope. In case (b) the mass m is lifted by pulling
the other end of the rope with a constant
downward force F = 2mg, where g is the
acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration of
v
mass m in case (a) is :- 1) v 2)
sin 
v
3) v sin 4)
cos 

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
24. What will be the equivalent resistance between  1   1 
1) 1  2  2)  2 
the points A and D ?  n   1 n 

 1   1 
3) 1  2  4)  2 
 n   1 n 
28. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor.
The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. Force
1) 10  2) 20 
of 2.8 N is applied on the block. The force of
3) 30  4) 40  friction between the block and the floor is
25. The system shown in the figure is in 1) 2.8 N 2) 8.0 N
equilibrium. The maximum value of W, so that 3) 2.0 N 4) zero
the maximum value of static frictional force on 29. A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as
100 kg body is 450 N, will be :- shown in figure. A steady current flows
through it. The drift speed of electrons at
points P and Q is vP and vQ, then :-

1) 100 N 2) 250 N
3) 450 N 4) 1000 N 1) vP = vQ 2) vP < vQ
26. A block has been placed on an inclined plane 3) vP > vQ 4) data is insufficient
with the slope angle , the block slides down
the plane at constant speed. The coefficient of
kinetic friction is equal to :-
1) sin 2) cos
3) g 4) tan
27. A given object takes n times as much time to
slide down a 45° rough incline as it takes to
slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The
coefficient of kinetic friction between the
object and the incline is given by:

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
30. A man of mass 60 kg stands in a weighing 31. A car is moving along a straight horizontal
scale in a moving lift. Now, match the Column road with a speed v0. If the coefficient of
I with Column II. friction between tyres and the road is . The
Choose the correct answer from the options shortest distance in which the car can be
given below. (Take, g = 10 m/s2) stopped is:
Column I Column II v 02 v02
1) 2)
(Situation of the lift) (Reading 2g g
of 2
v  2v 02
3)  0  4)
weighing
 g  g
scale in
32. A block of mass 0.1 kg. is pressed against a
newton)
wall with a horizontal force of 5N as shown in
a. When lift is moving i 240
the figure. If the coefficient of friction between
upward with uniform
the wall and the block is 0.5 then the frictional
speed of 4 m/s
force acting on the block will be (g = 9.8 m/s2)
b. When lift is moving ii 600
downward with
uniform acceleration
of 6 m/s2
c. When lift is moving iii 0
1) 9.8 N 2) 2.5 N
upward with uniform
3) 0.98 N 4) 0.49 N
acceleration of 6 m/s2
33. A block slides with constant velocity on a
d. When lift's iv 960
plane inclined at an angle . The same block is
mechanism fails
pushed up the plane with an initial velocity v0.
codes.
The distance covered by the block before
a b c d
coming to rest is :-
1) ii i iii iv
2) ii i iv iii
v 02 v 02
1) 2)
2g sin  4g sin 
3) i iii iv ii
4) iii i iv ii v 02 sin 2  v 02 sin 2 
3) 4)
2g 4g

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
34. Assertion:- It is always necessary that external 4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
agency of force is in contact with the object 35. Assertion:- Aristotle stated that an external
while applying force on object. force is required to keep a body in motion.
Reason:- A stone released from top of a Reason:- Opposing forces are always present
building accelerates downward due to in the natural world.
gravitational pull of the earth. 1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Assertion. 2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Assertion. 3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
SECTION-B
Attempt all the 10 questions from Section-B.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer

36. The current in a conductor varies with time t as

I = 2t + 3t2 A where I is in ampere and t in
seconds. Electric charge flowing through a
1) 42 N 2) 42 kgf
section of the conductor during t = 2 s to t = 3 s
3) 5.4 kgf 4) 1.2 N
is :
38. The plot represents the flow of current through
1) 10 C 2) 24 C
a wire for different time intervals. The ratio of
3) 33 C 4) 44 C
charges flowing through the wire
37. Two blocks (A) 2 kg and (B) 5 kg rest one
corresponding to these time intervals is (see
over the other on a smooth horizontal plane.
figure) :-
The coefficient of static and dynamic friction
between (A) and (B) is the same and equal to
0.60. The maximum horizontal force F that can
be applied to (B) in order that both (A) and (B)
1) 2 : 1 : 2 2) 1 : 3 : 3
do not have any relative motion is :
3) 1 : 1 : 1 4) 2 : 3 : 4
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
39. Column I gives certain physical terms 41. The resistance across P and Q in the given
associated with flow of current through a figure is
metallic conductor.
Column II gives some mathematical relations
involving electrical quantities. Match Column
I and Column II with appropriate relations.
Column I Column R R
1) 2)
I 3 2
a. Drift velocity i. m 3) 2R 4) 6R
ne 2 42. The total resistance between x and y in ohms
b. Electrical resistivity ii nevd is.
c. Relaxation period iii eE

m
d. Current density iv E/J
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below 1) 1  2) 4 
a b c d
4 2
3)  4) 
1) iii iv i ii 3 3
2) iii iv ii i 43. If i = 0.25 A in figure, then value of R is.
3) iii i iv ii
4) iii ii iv i
40. In the fig., the ends P and Q of an unstrechable
string move downward with uniform speed v.
Mass M moves upwards with speed.
1) 48  2) 12 
3) 120  4) 42 

1) v cos 2) v/cos
3) 2v cos 4) 2/v cos
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
44. A body starting from rest moves along a codes
smooth inclined plane of length l, height h and a b c d
inclination angle . Match the Column I with 1) i ii iii iv
Column II. Choose the correct answer from the 2) ii iv i iii
options given below. 3) ii i iv iii
Column I Column II 4) iii i ii iv
a. Acceleration of body i 2l / g sin  45. Statement I:- When the wire of resistance 4
along the inclined is stretched to twice its original length, then
plane. resistance of the stretched wire will be 16.
b. Velocity of body ii g sin Statement II:- Resistance of stretched wire is
when it reaches at the equal to n2 times the original resistance.
bottom (where n is ratio of final length to initial
c. Time taken by the iii l / g sin  length)
body to reach the 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
bottom incorrect.
d. Time taken to reach iv 2 g lsin  2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
half distance along incorrect.
the inclined plane 3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
CHEMISTRY Max.Marks:180
SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
46. Electrophile is : 50. Correct arrangement of the following acids in
1) H2O 2) NH3 correct Ka order is :-
3) AlCl3 4) C2H5NH2 i) H3N+ – CH2 – COOH
47. Which of the following species has a ii) NC – CH2 – COOH
pyramidal shape- iii) H3C – CH2 – COOH
1) CH 3 2) BF3 
iv) O OC  CH 2  COOH

3) CH 3 4) C H3 1) i > ii > iii > iv 2) ii > i > iii > iv

48. Increasing order (least basic first) of basic 3) i > iii > ii > iv 4) iv > iii > ii > i

strength is shown by the set 51. Which of the following orders of acid strength

1) ClNH2, NH3, CH3NH2 is correct :-

2) ClNH2, CH3NH2, NH3 1) RCOOH  ROH  HOH  HC  CH

3) NH3, ClNH2, CH3NH2 2) RCOOH  HOH  ROH  HC  CH

4) CH3NH2, ClNH2, NH3 3) RCOOH  HOH  HC  CH  ROH

49. In which of the following compounds 4) RCOOH  HC  CH  HOH  ROH

hydroxylic proton is the most acidic - 52. Which of them is false for order of – I effect

1) 1) F  Cl  Br  I
 
2)  N R 3   N H3   NO2

2) 3) OCH3  OH  NH2

4)

3)
53. The order of basicity of halides is :
1) Cl– < Br– < I– < F–
2) F– < I– < Br– < Cl–
4)
3) I– < Br– < Cl– < F–
4) Cl– < F– < I– < Br–

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
54. Which of the following molecule has longest 57. Most stable carbocation is :-
C=C bond length -
1) CH2 = C = CH2
2) CH3 – CH = CH2 1) 2)

3)

4) 3) 4)


55. In the reaction CH3CN 
H3 O
heat
 CH3COOH
58. Most stable carbanion is :-
the hybridization state of the functional carbon
changes from 1) HC  C 2) C6 H5

1) sp3 to sp2 2) sp2 to sp3 3) (CH3 )3 C  CH2 4) (CH3 )2 C  CH 

3) sp to sp2 4) sp2 to sp 59. Consider the following carbocations
56. Statement-I:- Cyclopentadienyl anion is much
more stable than allyl anion. (i)

Statement-II:-Cyclopentadienyl anion is
aromatic in nature. (ii)
1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
Statement-II is a correct explanation for
(iii)
Statement-I
2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation (iv)
for Statement-I
3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False. The relative stabilities of these carbocations

4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True. are such that :-

1) iv < ii < iii < i 2) ii < iv < iii < i
3) iv < ii < i < iii 4) ii < iv < i < iii

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
60. Match the column I with column II. 1) Cl– < F– < CH3COO– < –OH
column I column II 2) Cl– > F– > CH3COO– > –OH
a – N O2 p – m effect 3) CH3COO– < Cl– < F– < –OH
b. – O– q + m effect 4) None of these
c. – O – CH3 r + I effect 64. Formic acid is considered as a hybrid of the
d. C  N s – I effect four structures

1) a p, s; b q, r; c  q, s ; d p, s

2) a q, s; b r, s; c  q, s ; d p, s
3) a q, s; b q, r; c  q, r ; d p, s
4) a p, s; b s, r; c  q, s ; d p, s
61. Among the following, the strongest base is:-
1) C6H5NH2 2) p–NO2–C6H4NH2
3) m–NO2–C6H4NH2 4) C6H5CH2NH2
62. Statement-I:- Me3C+ is more stable than
Which of the following order is correct for the
Me2CH+ and Me2CH+ is more stable than the
stability of the four contributing structures.
MeC+H2.
1) I > II > III > IV 2) I > II > IV > III
Statement-II:- Greater the number of hyper
3) I > III > II > IV 4) I > IV > III > II
conjugative structures, more is the stability of
65. Which of the following carbonium ion is most
carbocation.
stable
1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
1) Ph3C+ 2) (CH3)3 C+
Statement-II is a correct explanation for
3) (CH3)2 CH+ 4) CH2 = CH–CH2+
Statement-I
66. Among the following the aromatic compound
2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
is
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-I
3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False. 1) 2)

4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True.

63. The increasing order of basic strength of
Cl–, CH3COO–, –OH and F– is : 3) 4)

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
67. Which of the following compounds is the
strongest base -
3) 4)

1)
70. Match the column I with column II.
column I column II
2)
a. p Aromatic

3)
b. q Non-aromatic

4)
c. r Anti-aromatic

68. ; On dehydration with conc.

H2SO4 forms predominantly : d. s Aliphatic

1)

1) a p, b q, c  p, d s

2)
2) a s, b p, c  s, d r
3) a q, b p, c  p, d r
4) a r, b s, c  p, d r
3)
71. Statement-I:- CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH have
comparable molecular masses but boiling point
4) of C2H5OH is higher than dimethyl ether.
Statement-II:- C2H5OH forms intermolecular
69. Most stable carbanion is : H-bonding while CH3OCH3 forms

intramolecular H-bonding.
1) CH 3 2) CH2  CH  CH2
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True; 3) Benzene 4) Toluene
Statement-II is a correct explanation for 76. Which one of the following compounds has the
Statement-I most acid nature?
2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation 1)
for Statement-I
3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False.
4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True.
2)
72. In the following molecule,

3)

Hybridisation of a, b and c respectively are:

4)
1) sp3, sp, sp 2) sp3, sp2, sp2
3) sp3, sp, sp2 4) sp3, sp2, sp
77. Among the following sets of reactants which
73. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI
one produces anisole?
produces
1) CH3CHO: RMgX
1) Iodobenzene 2) Phenol
2) C6H5OH; NaOH, CH3I
3) Benzene 4) Ethyl chloride
3) C6H5OH, neutral FeCl3
74. Which of the following gives positive
4) C6H5 — CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3
iodoform test?
78. The IUPAC name of the following compound
1) C6H5CH2CH2OH
is:
2)

3) PhCHOHCH3
4) CH3CH2CH(OH) CH2CH3 1) 3-ethyl-4-methylhex-4-ene
75. Phenol 
Zn,dust
'X' 
CH Cl
Anhy AlCl
3
'Y' 
3
Alkaline
KMnO
'Z'
4
2) 4,4-diethyl-3-methylbut-2-ene

The Product ‘Z’ is 3) 4-methyl-3-ethylhex-4-ene

4) 4-ethyl-3-methylhex-2-ene
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Benzoic acid
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
79. Statement-I:- In the compound, 3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False.
CH3  CH 2  C  N, the most electronegative 4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True.
IV III II I
80. The correct order of increasing basicity of the
carbon is II.
given conjugate bases (R  CH3 ) is.
Statement-II:- Carbon atom II has more s-
character. 1) RCOO  HC  C  R  NH2

1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True; 2) R  HC  C  RCOO  NH2

Statement-II is a correct explanation for 3) RCOO  NH2  HC  C  R
Statement-I
4) RCOO  HC  C  NH2  R
2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-I

SECTION-B
Attempt all the 10 questions from Section-B.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
81. Match the structures of the compounds given iv. d o-Cresol
in Column I with the name of the compounds
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
v e Quinone
i a Hydroquinone

vi f Resorcinol
ii b Phenetole

g Anisole
iii c Catechol 1) i- b, ii- a, iii-f, iv- c, v- g, vi- d
2) i- f, ii- g, iii- a iv- b, v- c, vi- d
3) i- d, ii- c, iii-f, iv- a, v- g, vi- b
4) i- g, ii- f, iii- a, iv- b, v- c, vi- d
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
82. The electrophile involved in Riemer-Tiemann 1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
reaction of phenol with CHCl3 in presence of Statement-II is a correct explanation for
NaOH is Statement-I
 2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True;
1) :CCl2 2) C Cl3
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
 
3) C Cl3 4) C HCl2 for Statement-I
83. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight 3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False.
followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH yields. 4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is True.
1) o-Cresol 87. IUPAC name of the compound
2) m-Cresol is _________.
3) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene
4) Benzyl alcohol
1) 1-methoxy-1-methylethane
84. What is the correct order of reactivity of
2) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane
alcohols in the following reaction?
3) 2-methoxypropane
R  OH  HCl 
ZnCl2
 R  Cl  H2O
4) isopropylmethyl ether
1) 1° > 2° > 3° 2) 1° < 2° > 3°
88. Arrange the following in decreasing order of
3) 3° > 2° > 1° 4) 3° > 1° > 2° 2)
acidic character:
85. CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO
by ______.
1) Catalytic hydrogenation
2) Treatment with LiAlH4
3) Treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate
4) Treatment with KMnO4
86. Statement-I:- Carbon-oxygen bonds are of
equal length in acetate ion. 1) IV > III > I > II 2) II > IV > I > III
Statement-II:- Bond length decreases with the 3) I > II > III > IV 4) III > I > II > IV
multiplicity of bond between two atoms.

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
89. Find the product of the given reaction:
3) 4)

90. How many alcohols with molecular formula

C4H10O are chiral in nature?
1) 2) 1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4

BOTANY Max.Marks:180
SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
91. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the 95. Inflorescence in Liliaceae is generally:-
family 1) Racemose 2) Solitary/Cymose
1) Fabaceae 2) Asteraceae 3) Cyathium 4) Hypanthodium
3) Solanaceae 4) Brassicaceae 96. Lady finger and cotton belong to family:-
92. Rhizome of ginger is a modification of stem 1) Malvaceae 2) Cruciferae
because - 3) Compositae 4) Liliaceae
1) It bears Adventitious roots 97. Monoadelphous androecium is found in:-
2) It bears nodes and internodes 1) Compositae 2) Liliaceae
3) It is underground 3) Malvaceae 4) Cruciferae
4) It stores food material 98. Which of the following statements is correct:-
93. Which floral family has (9) + 1 arrangement 1) Flower is a modified root
of anthers in the androecium? 2) Flower is a modified shoot
1) Malvaceae 2) Rutaceae 3) Flower is a modified leaf
3) Fabaceae 4) Caesalpiniaceae 4) Flower is a modified inflorescence
94. Tetradyanamous conditions occur in :.
1) Cruciferae 2) Malvaceae
3) Solanaceae 4) Lilliaceae

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
99. Tetradynamous stamens and cruciform 1) Agave - Bulbils
corolla are characteristic features of . 2) Grass - Runner
1) Solanum tuberosum (Potato) 3) Water hyacinth - Runner
2) Abelmoscus esculentus (Lady finger) 4) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds
3) Ochroma lagopus (Balsa) 105. Match the placental types (column-I) with
4) Brassica campestris (Mustard) their examples (column-II)
100. Which of the following is a correct Column-I Column-II
combination of family and its respective a Basal i Mustard
members? b Axile ii China rose
1) Fabaceae – Tomato, Chilli c Parietal iii Dianthus
2) Solanaceae – Tobacco, Brinjal d Free central iv Sunflower
3) Liliaceae – Petunia, Potato Choose the correct answer from the following
4) None of the above options:
101. Choose the incorrect match about Fabaceae. 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
1) Dye – Indigofera 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
2) Fibres – Sunhemp 3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
3) Medicine – Muliathi 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
4) Edible oil – Sesbania, Trifolium 106. Consider the following statements:
102. Which one of the following statements is i. Generally, monocotyledonous seeds are
correct? endospermic.
1) In tomato, fruit is a capsule ii. In maize the seed coat is membranous and
2) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm generally fused with the fruit wall.
3) Placentation in Primrose is basal iii. In maize the endosperm is bulky and stores
4) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot food.
103. Phyllode is present in :- iv. The seeds of orchids are non-endospermic.
1) Australian Acacia 2) Opuntia Which of the above statements are correct:
3) Asparagus 4) Euphorbia 1) i, ii and iv only 2) i, ii, iii and iv
104. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly 3) i, iii and iv only 4) ii and iv only
matched while the remaining three are
correct.
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
107. Match the following Column I with Column 2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
II: 3) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
Column I Column II 4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(fruit) (edible part) 110. Assertion:-Disc florets are actinomorphic
a Castor i Endospermic monocot while ray florets are zygomorphic.
seed Reason:-In sunflower ray florets are present
b. Orchid ii Non endospermic towards periphery while disc florets are
monocot seed present towards centre.
c. Maize iii Endospermic dicot 1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and
seed reason explains the assertion.
d. Gram iv Non endospermic 2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
dicot seed reason does not explain the assertion.
Choose the correct option: 3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect.
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-iv 4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
2) a-iii, b-iv c-i, d-ii 111. Given below are two statements:
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv Statement I: In flowers of Liliaceae family
4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii stamens are attached to Periath.
108. How many among Tulip, Colchicine, Brinjal, Statement II: Flowers of Liliaceae family
Ashwangandha, Muliathi, Indigofera, have Zygomorphic symmetry.
Petunia, Chilli belongs to Solanaceae family. In the light of the above statements, choose the
1) One 2) Two most appropriate answer from the options
3) Three 4) Four given below:
109. Match the column- I with the column- II. 1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is

Column- I Column- II incorrect.

i. Flower a Petunia 2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is

ii Medicine b Actinomorphic correct.

iii Ornamentals c Tobacco 3) Both Statements I and II are correct.

iv Fumigatory d Belladonna 4) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

1) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
112. Match the List-I with List-II i. The leaflets are modified into pointed hard
List-I List-II thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
a Monadelphous i Pea ii. Axillary buds form slender and spirally
androecium coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin.
b Apocarpous ovary ii China rose. iii. Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and
c Marginal iii Tomato modified to perform the function of leaves.
placentation iv. Rhizophora shows vertically upward
d Syncarpous ovary iv Rose growing roots that help to get oxygen for
Choose the correct answer from the options respiration.
given below: v. Subaerially growing stems in grasses and
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii strawberry help in vegetative propagation
2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i Choose the correct answer from the options
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i given below:
4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 1) i and iv Only 2) ii, iii, iv and v Only
113. Given below are two statements: 3) i, ii, iv, and v Only 4) ii and iii Only
Statement I: In mustard, the ovary is initially 115. Read the following statements.
unilocular but become bilocular due to I. The corolla is the outermost whorl of the
formation of a false septum called as replum. flowers.
Statement II: In mango and coconut, the II. Calyx is composed of sepals.
fruit is known as drupe. III. Corolla may be tubular, bell shaped,
Choose the most appropriate answer from the funnel-shaped or wheel-shaped.
options given below: IV. A sterile stamen is called staminode.
1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is Choose the correct option.
incorrect. 1) Statement I and II are correct
2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is 2) Statements II, III and IV are correct
correct. 3) Statement II and III are incorrect
3) Both Statements I and II are correct. 4) Statements I and IV are incorrect.
4) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
114. Identify the correct set of statements:

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
116. Choose the correct identification for given 4) a-iii, b-i, c-i, d-ii, e-iv
below plants respectively 118. Read the following five statements (A.E)
i. Sheathing leaf base is found in
monocotyledons
ii. In some leguminous plants, the leaf base
may become swollen, which is called
pulvinus.
1) Whorled phyllotaxy, Palmately compound iii. A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of the
leaf compound leaf.
2) Pinnately compound leaf, Whorled iv. Palmately compound leaves are found in
phyllotaxy neem.
3) Palmately compound leaf, Whorled v. Whorled phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia.
phyllotaxy How many of the above statements are
4) Alternate phyllotaxy, Palmately compound correct?
leaf 1) Four 2) One
117. Match Column - I with Column - II and 3) Two 4) Three
select the correct option. 119. Identify the given below diagram and choose
Column - I Column – II correct option :-
a. Thorns i Vegetative
propagation
b. Phylloclades ii Defensive
mechanism
c. Runners iii Mechanical 1) Race Mose
support 2) Cymose
d Stilt roots iv Absorption of 3) Cyathium inflorescence
nutrients 4) Polychasial cyme
e Haustoria v Photosynthesis
1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
2) a-ii, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-iv
3) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii, e-iv
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
120. Which of the following pair is not correct? 124. Identify the placentation shown below as well
Column-I Column-II as related plants of its occurrence and select
i. Stem tendril a Grapes the right option for the two together :-
ii Leaf bladder b Ber
iii Leaf tendril c Pea
iv Phyllode d Australian acacia
1) i 2) ii
3) iii 4) iv
121. Arrangment of flowers in racemose and
Placentation Plants
cymose inflorescence are respectively.
1) Marginal Pea and bean
1) Basipetal, Basipetal
2) Parietal Argemone and mustard
2) Basipetal, Acropetal
3) Axile Tomato and lemon
3) Acropetal, Basipetal
4) Basal Sunflower and marigold
4) Acropetal, Acropetal
125. Select the correct option in which given types
122. In which plants leaves are small, compound,
of aestivation (A to D) are correctly
short lived & petioles expand and become
identified with their suitable examples.
green to synthesise food.
1) Pitcher plants 2) Bladder worts
3) Australian Acacia 4) Venus fly trap
123. The main functions of the root systems are
i. Absorption of water & minerals
ii. Providing a proper anchorage to the plant
1) A-Valvate, Cotton; B-Imbricate, Calotropis;
iii. Maintaining the temperature & pressure of
C-Twisted, Cassia; D-Vexillary, Pea
the plant
2) A-Valvate, Calotropis; B-Twisted, Cotton;
iv. Gaseous exchange
C-Imbricate, Cassia; D-Vexillary, Pea
Options:-
3) A-Vexillary, Pea; B-Twisted, Cotton; C-
1) i & ii 2) iii & iv
Imbricate, Cassia; D-Valvate, Calotropis
3) i & iii 4) ii & iv
4) A-Twisted, Cotton; B-Valvate, Calotropis;
C-Vexillary, Cassia; D-Imbricate, Pea
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 SECTION-B
Attempt all the 10 questions from Section-B.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
126. Choose the incorrect pair amongst the 4) The genes are located on two different
following characters mendel choose for his chromosomes
experiments: 130. Assertion: A gamete may carry either of the
1) Pod shape – Elongated/constricted traits but not both.
2) Seed colour – Yellow/green Reason: This is Mendel’s second law or law
3) Seed shape – Round/wrinkled of independent assortment .
4) Flower position – Axial/terminal 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
127. Mendel’s principle of segregation means that correct explanation of (A).
the germ cells always receive 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
1) One pair to alleles correct explanation of (A).
2) One quarter of the genes 3) Both (A) is true but (R) is false.
3) Either one allele of father or one allele of 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
mother 131. Assertion: Antirrhinum is a good example to
4) Any pair of alleles undersatnd incomplete dominance.
128. What was the most significant conclusion on Reason: Heterozygotes show characteristics of
that Mendel drew from his expriments with both the alleles.
pea plants? 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1) Traits are inherited as discrete unit and are correct explanation of (A).
not the results of blending 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
2) There is considerable genetic variation in correct explanation of (A).
garden pea 3) Both (A) is true but (R) is false.
3) Recessive genes occur more frequently in 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
the F2 generation than do dominant ones. 132. Match column-I with column-II and select
4) Genes are composed of nucleotides the correct answer using the codes given
129. In a test-cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, below.
more parental- type offspring were produced Column-I Column-II
than the recombinant type offspring. This a. ABO blood groups i Dihybrid cross
indicates b. Law of segregation ii Monohybrid
1) chromosomes failed to separate during cross
meiosis c. Law of lndependent iii Base pairs

2) The two genes are linked and present on the assortmen substitution

same chromosome d. Gene mutation iv Multiple

allelism
3) Both of the characters are controlled by
more than one gene
 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
1) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii 3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-iv; b- ii; c - i; d-iii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
4) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i 134. If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry
133. Match the terms in column I with their and have Sufficiently large number of
description in column II and choose the children, these children could be classified as
correct option. 'A' blood group: 'AB' blood group : 'B' blood
Column I Column II group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of
a. Dominance i Many genes protein electrophoresis reveals presence of
govern a single both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood
character group individuals. This in an example of
b. Codominance ii in a heterozygous 1) Partial dominance
organism only one 2) Complete dominance
allele expresses 3) Codominance
itself 4) Incomplete dominance.
c. Pleiotropy iii In a heterozygous 135. ABO blood group system is due to
organism both 1) Multifactor inheritance
alleles express 2) Incomplete dominance
themselves fully 3) Multiple allelism
d Polygenic iv A single gene 4) Epistasis.
inheritance influences many
characters
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
ZOOLOGY Max.Marks:180
SECTION – A
You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
136. The forelimbs and hindlimbs of frogs are 4) Head, neck, trunk and tail
1) Four digits 140. Bone marrow of long bones is the sites of
2) Five digits 1) Production of WBCs
3) Four and five digits, respectively 2) Production of RBCs
4) Five and four digits, respectively 3) Production of blood cells
137. Which of the following statement is 4) Breakdown of RBCs
incorrect? 141. Smooth muscles are
1) neurons are the unit of neural system and 1) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
are non excitable cells 2) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
2) neuroglial cells are protective and 3) Involuntary, Cylindrical, Striated
supportive in nature 4) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
3) Nissl bodies are absent in axon and axon 142. In frogs, cloaca is an opening of
hillock 1) excretory ducts 2) reproductive ducts
4) neuroglial cells make up more than one half 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of these
the volume of neural tissue. 143. Which of the following represents the correct
138. Male frog can be distinguished from female direction of passage of an impulse in a
frog by the presence of multipolar neuron?
1) Vocal sacs and copulatory pad on the first 1) Terminal arborisation – Axon – Soma –
digit of the forelimb Dendrites
2) A neck and tail is absent 2) Dendrites – Soma – Axon – Terminal
3) The hindlimb ends in the five digits arborisation
4) Eyes are bulged and covered by the 3) Dendrites – Axon – Soma – Terminal
nictitating membrane. arborisation
139. Body of a frog is divisible into 4) Soma – Dendrite – Axon – Terminal
1) Head and trunk arborisation
2) Head, Neck and trunk
3) Trunk and tail
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
144. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of 147. The intercellular material of cartilage is
adipose tissue. 1) Solid and non pliable
2) Hard and non pliable
3) Solid and pliable
4) All of these
148. During aestivation and hibernation in frogs,
gaseous exchange takes place through
1) Skin 2) Nose
1) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-Cell wall
3) Lungs 4) Scales
2) A-Fat storage area, B-Mast cell, C-Plasma
149. The epithelium shown in the following figure
membrane
is ______. They are mainly present in the inner
3) A-Cell fluid, B-Collagen fibres, C-
surface of hollow organs like _______.
Plasmalemma
4) A-Fat storage area, B-Nucleus, C-Plasma
membrane.
145. Tendons help in connecting
1) Bones to skeletal Muscles
2) Bone to bone 1) Ciliated cuboidal, neck of nephron
3) Bone to cartilage 2) Ciliated columnar, trachea, loop of Henle
4) Cartilage to muscle 3) Ciliated columnar, bronchioles and fallopian
146. Which of the following is incorrect? tubes
1) Adipose tissue present beneath the 4) Pseudostratified trachea columnar, trachea
skin and a type of and large bronchi
loose connective 150. Excretory system of the frog consists of
tissue 1) Pair of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder,
2) Areolar tissue Loose connective cloaca
tissue 2) Single kidney, urinary bladder and cloaca
3) Fibroblasts cell Synthesis of fibres 3) Kidney and cloaca
4) Specialised Tendons and 4) Urethra and cloaca
connective tissue ligaments

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
151. Identify A, B and C in given figures and 2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
choose the correct combination of options correct explanation of A.
3) If A is true, but R is false.
4) If A is false, but R is true.
154. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II
a. Mast cells i Ciliated epithelium
b. Inner surface ii Areolar connective
of bronchiole tissue
1) A-Unicellular gland, B-Multicellular glands,
c. Blood iii Cuboidal epithelium
C-Pseudocolumnar cells.
d. Tubular parts iv Specialised
2) A-Multicellular gland, B-Unicellular glands,
of nephron connective tissue
C-Squamous epithelium
3) A-Unicellular gland, B-Multicellular glands,
Choose the correct answer from the options
C-Multilayered cells
give below:
4) A-Flattened cell, B-Multilayered cells, C-
a b c d
Transitional epithelium
1) i ii iv iii
152. Which type of cell junctions help to stop
2) ii iii i iv
substances from leaking across a tissue
3) ii i iv iii
1) Tight junctions
4) iii iv ii i
2) Anchoring junctions
155. In the following figure of loose connective
3) Communication junctions
tissue, which the following labelled cells are
4) Desmosomes
mast cells?
153. Assertion(A): Cloumnar epithelium is also
known as glandular epithelium.
Reason(R): Cells of columnar epithelium form
the lining of the stomach.
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. 1) A 2) B
3) C 4) D

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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
156. Which of the following is mismatched? a. Adhering i Establish a barrier
1) Squamous - Single thin layer of junctions that prevents leakage
epithelium flattened cells with of extra- cellular fluid
irregular boundaries across a layer of cells
2) Cuboidal - Found in ducts of b. Tight ii Cementing to keep
epithelium glands junctions neighbouring cells
3) Ciliated - Bear cilia on their free together
epithelium surface c. Gap iii Pass information
4) Columnar - Their nucleus is at junctions through neuro-
epithelium center and present in transmitters from one
the lining of stomach. cell to another
157. The forebrain of frog consists of d. Synaptic iv Facilitate cells to
1) Optic and olfactory lobes junctions communicate with
2) Paired diencephalon each other by
3) olfactory lobes and unpaired diencephalon connecting the
4) Both (1) and (2) cytoplasm of
158. Which of the following types of Neuroglial adjoining cells.
cells are involved in the formation of myelin Choose the correct answer from the options
sheath in CNS? given below:
1) Oligodendrocytes 2) Astrocytes a b c d
3) Neurolemmocytes 4) Schwann cells 1) i ii iii iv
159. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is present 2) iv iii ii i
in 3) i iii ii iv
1) Proximal convoluted tubules 4) ii i iv iii
2) Small intestine 161. The number of vasa efferntia that arises from
3) Lining of stomach testes in frogs’s male reproductive system is
4) Smaller ducts of pancreas 1) 9 – 12 2) 10 – 12
160. Match List-I and List-II: 3) 13 – 16 4) 16 – 19
List-I List-II

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162. Assertion (A) Compound epithelium plays 4) (ii), (iv) and (v)
major role in absorption, secretion and 164. Choose the correct statement for glandular
excretion. epithelium:
Reason (R) Compound epithelium is not found (i) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get
in the stomach lining. specialised for secretion and are called
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct glandular epithelium.
explanation of A. (ii) Goblet cells of the alimentary canal is
2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the isolated glandular cells.
correct explanation of A. (iii) Goblet cells of the alimentary canal is
3) If A is true, but R is false. unicellular gland.
4) If A is false, but R is true. (iv) Salivary gland is a multicellular gland.
163. Which statements are incorrect for epithelium (v) Exocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva,
from given statement? earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes and
(i) The cells are compactly packed with little other cell products.
intercellular matrix. (vi) The products of endocrine glands called
(ii) There are two types of epithelial tissues hormones are secreted directly into the fluid
namely simple epithelium and compound bathing the gland.
epithelium. 1) (iii), (iv) and (v) 2) All except (v)
(iii) Simple epithelium is composed of a single 3) All except (iii) 4) All of these
layer of cells and has protective function as 165. Select true statement from given statement:
it does in our skin. (i) Each muscle is made of many long,
(iv) The compound epithelium consists of two cylindrical fibres arranged in perpendicular
or more cell layers and has a maximum role arrays.
in absorption and secretion. (ii) These fibres are composed of numerous
(v) The squamous epithelium is made of a fine fibrils, called myofibrils.
single thin layer of flattened cells with (iii) Muscles are of three types, skeletal,
irregular boundaries. smooth cardiac.
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (iv) Skeletal muscle is a striated muscle.
2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (v) Biceps is a smooth muscle.
3) (iii) and (iv)
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(vi) smooth muscle fibres are taper at both a b c d
ends and do show striations. 1) ii i iv iii
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 2) iii iv ii i
3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 3) iv iii i ii
4) All of these 4) i ii iii iv
166. Assertion:- Exocrine glands secrete mucus, 168. Assertion:- Communication junctions at some
saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive enzymes fusion points allow the cells to contract as a
and other cell products. unit.
Reason:- Their products are secreted directly Reason:- When one cell receive a signal to
into the fluid bathing the gland. contract, its neighbors are also stimulated to
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the contract.
reason is correct explanation of assertion. 1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is correct explanation of assertion.
reason is not correct explanation of 2) Assertion and reason both are true but
assertion. reason is not correct explanation of
3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. assertion.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. 3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
167. Match List-I with List-II: 169. Select the correct route for the passage of
List-I List-II sperms in male frogs.
a. Skin i. Dense Regular 1) Testes  Bidder’s canal  Kidney  vasa
Connective Tissue efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
b. Goblet Cell ii. Specialized 2) Testes  vasa efferentia  Kidney 
Connective Tissue Seminal versicle  Urinogenital duct 
c. Tendons iii Glandular Tissue Cloaca
d. Bone iv Dense irregular 3) Testes  vasa efferentia  Bidder’s canal
connective tissue  Ureter  Cloaca
Choose the correct answer from the options 4) Testes  vasa efferentia  Kidney 
given Bidder’s canal  Urinogenital duct 
Cloaca
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
170. Assertion:- Tendons and ligaments are another 2) Assertion and reason both are true but
examples of dense irregular tissue. reason is not the correct explanation of
Reason:- The collagen fibres are present in assertion.
rows between many parallel bundles of 3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
fibres in dense regular tissue. 4) Assertion is false and reason is true
1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
SECTION-B
Attempt all the 10 questions from Section-B.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, -1 for Incorrect answer
171. Which of the following statements regarding 4) Large isolated population
the evolution of plants and animals are correct? 173. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
I. Amphibians evolved into reptiles. heterozygous individual is represented by:-
II. Fish with stout and strong fins could move 1) pq 2) q2
on land and go back to water. This was about 3) p2 4) 2pq
350 million years ago. 174. The chronological order of human evolution
III. Giant ferns fell to form coal deposits from early to the recent is :-
slowly. 1) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis 
IV. About 65 million years ago dinosaurs died Australopithecus  Homo erectus
out. 2) Australopithecus  Homo habilis 
V. Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
height.
3) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus 
The correct combination is
Homo habits  Homo erectus
1) I and II
4) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 
2) III and IV
Homo habilis  Homo erectus
3) V and I
4) I, II, III, IV and V
172. Genetic drift operates in :-
1) Non-reproductive population
2) Slow reproductive population
3) Small isolated population
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 XII_STU_NC_NEET_ RTN–03 EX. DT: 11-11-2024
175. Which phenomena confined the pouched 1) Multiple step mutations
mammals to Australia they survived because 2) Saltation
of lack of competition from any other 3) Phenotypic variations
mammals? 4) Minor mutations
1) Continental origination 179. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
2) Continental shifting Hugo de Vries, are
3) Continental drift 1) random and directional
4) Continental evolution. 2) random and directionless
176. The similarity of bone structure in the 3) small and directional
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of 4) small and directionless
1) Homology 2) Analogy 180. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges
3) Convergent evolution from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
4) Adaptive radiation average weight between 3 to 3.3kg survive
177. Among the following sets of examples for whereas 99% of the infants born with weights
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type
1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah of selection process is taking place ?
2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah 1) Directional Selection
3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah 2) Stabilizing Selection
4) Eye of octopus, bat and man 3) Disruptive Selection
178. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of 4) Cyclical Selection
evolution is :-

*****

Subject Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology

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