Top 100 MCQs

on Evolution
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Earth was supposed to have been formed about :

(1) 4.5 million years back
(2) 4.0 billion years back
(3) 3.5 billion years back
(4) 4.5 billion years back
2. According to cosmozoic theory origin of life occurs
on earth by :
(1) Abiogenesis
(2) Biogenesis
(3) It came from other planets in the form of spores
(4) Superpower
3. Who finally disaproved theory of spontaneous
generation:
(1) Miller
(2) Urey
(3) Fox
(4) Louis Pasteur
4. Organs which are similar in function and different in
origin are:
(1) Homologous organs
(2) Analogous organs
(3) Vestigeal organs
(4) None
5. Given diagrams are variety of beaks of finches, it is
used for explanation of:

(1) Natural selection

(2) Mutation
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) and (3)
6. Seeded ferns give rise:
(1) Cycad's
(2) Conifers
(3) Ginkgos
(4) All of these
7. The eye of Octopus and eye of Cat shows different
patterns of structure, yet they perform similar
function. This is an example of :
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
convergent evolution
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent
evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent
evolution
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent
evolution
8. Miller and Urey created an atomosphere containing:
(1) H2, NH3, N2 and water vapour
(2) H2, CH4, NH3 and water vapour
(3) H2, O2, NH3 and CH4
(4) H2, CH4, N2 and water
9. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Life originated by chance coming together of
Necessary chemical through a series of chemical reactions is
called abiogenesis.
Reason (R): Abiogenesis has not experimentally proved
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion: Those who are better fit in environment, leave more
progeny than other
Reason: More reproducing organism will servive more and hence
are selected by nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
11. During his journey, Darwin went to :
(1) Galapagos Island
(2) Hawai Island
(3) Santosa Island
(4) Koala Island
12. Who write an essay on population:
(1) T.R. Malthus
(2) Lamarck
(3) De Vries
(4) Charles Darwin
13. Theory of evolution by Mutation was proposed by
(1) Lamarck
(2) Darwin
(3) De Vries
(4) Urey
14. Which ancestor man first start ceremonial burial :
(1) Australopithecus
(2) Homo erectus
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Homo habilis
15. Match the following with respect to evolution of different
group of organism/other:
a) 4000 years old i) Sea weeds existed
b) 2000 million years ago ii) Earth is formed according to
conventional religious literature
c) 500 million year ago iii) First cellular form of life
appeared on earth
d) 350 million year ago iv) Invertebrates formed
e) 320 million years v) Jawless fish evolved
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v, e-i
16. Louis pasteur's view on the origin of life is that:
(1) Life originated within six days
(2) Life originated spontaneously from the living
organisms only
(3) Life originated spontaneously from the substance non-
living
(4) Life came from other planet
17. Formation of which complex molecules was noticed
by Urey and miller when they subjected substances to
electric discharge :
(1) O2
(2) H2SO₄
(3) HCN
(4) Amino acids
18. Arrange the periods of different eras in ascedning
order in a geological time scale:
(1) Jurassic → Cretaceous → Silurian → Devonian →
Carboniferous → Permian
(2) Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian →
Jurassic → Triassic
(3) Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian →
Jurassic → Triassic
(4) Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian →
Triassic → Jurassic
19. Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while Asian wolf is
placental mammal. This shows:
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallelism
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters
20. Branching descent and natural selection are the two
key concepts of _____ :
(1) Lamarckian theory of evolution
(2) Darwin's theory of evolution
(3) Weismann theory
(4) Oparin and Haldane theory
21. Five factors are known to affect Hardy-weinberg
equilibrium. These five factors in given list:
a. Genetic drift b. Natural selection
c. Adaptive evolution d. Mutation
e. Convergent evolution f. Gene migration
g. Genetic recombinantion h. Branching descent
(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) a, b, d, e, f
(3) a, c, d, g, h
(4) a, b, d, f, g
22. Correct order is:
(1) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
(2) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
(3) Palaeozoic → Archeozoic → Coenozoic
(4) Archoeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic
23. Dinosaurs became extinct during:
(1) Jurassic
(2) Triassic
(3) Permian
(4) Cretaceous
24. The scientific name of Java man is :
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Asustralopithecus
(3) Homo erectus erectus
(4) Homo sapiens neanderthalendsis
25. Darwin finches are related to which of the following
evidences:
(1) Fossils
(2) Anatomy
(3) Embryology
(4) Geographical distribution
26. Which of the following is the most primitive
ancestor of man:
(1) Java man
(2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Australophithecines
27. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are:
(1) Homologous
(2) Analogous
(3) Vestigeal
(4) Divergent
28. Which phenomenon is represented by this diagram:

(1) Natural selection

(2) Artificial selection
(3) Inheritance of aquired character
(4) Mutation
29. Match the following with respect to discovery and
experiments associated years.
a) 1938 i) Fossil discovered in Java
b) 1920 ii) S.L Miller created closed flask experiment
c) 1850s iii) A fish cought in South Africa
d) 1953 iv) More dark winged moths in the same area of
England observed
e) 1891 v) Collection of moth before industrilization
(1) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(2) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
30. Origin of universe explained by:
(1) Big Bang theory
(2) Oparin theory
(3) Biogenesis theory
(4) Haldane theory
31. Hugo De Vries worked on:
(1) Evening Primrose
(2) Garden Pea
(3) Chick Pea
(4) Finches
32. Agriculture came into existence around
(1) 75,000 years back
(2) 50,000 years back
(3) 10,000 years back
(4) None
33. Given diagramatic representation shows:

(1) Stabilising natural selection

(2) Directional natural selection
(3) Distruptive natural selection
(4) 2 and 3 both
34. Eye of the octopus and mammals show:
(1) Analogy
(2) Homology
(3) Atavism
(4) Vestigeal organ
35. The biggest land reptile were:
(1) Turtles
(2) Ichthyosaurs
(3) Tyrannosaurus rex
(4) Tortoises
36. Which is correct:
(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in curd making and
production of antibiotics
(2) Mycoplasma has no cell wall
(3) Dinoflagellates are of many coloured
(4) All of these
37. Given below are two statements
Statement 1: Isogamous type reproduction present in
Spirogyra
Statement II: In Bryophyte antheridium biflagellated
antherozoids. produce
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
38. Colonial algae is
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Volvox
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Spirulina
39. Chlorella is a
(a) Multicellular algae
(b) Unicellular algae
(c) fat rich algae
(d) Used as food supplement
(1) Only a and d
(2) Only a and c
(3) Only b and d
(4) Only b, c and d
40. Find the correct option with respect to this
diagram:

(1) Belongs to plant group bryophyte

(2) Provide economic and both. ecological importance
(3) Used a fuel and packaging material
(4) All of these
41. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Cyanobacteria form blooms in polluted water
bodies.
Reason (R): Primary contaminants are nitrates and phosphates
in water, which act as plant nutrients
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
42. Gametophyte of fern is
(1) Photosynthetic
(2) Unicellular
(3) Diocious
(4) All of these
43. Lycopodium and selaginella belongs to which class
of Pteridophytes
(1) Both Pteropsida
(2) Psilopsida, pteropsida
(3) Both Lycopsida
(4) Lycopsida, Sphenopsida
44. Metagenesis occur in :
(1) Adamsia
(2) Obelia
(3) Aurelia
(4) Gorgonia
45. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
regarding to phylum porifera :
(1) The body is supported by a skeleton made up of
spicules or spongin fibres
(2) Fertilisation is internal and development is indirect
(3) Sponges have a water vascular system
(4) Choanocytes or collar cells line the spongocoel and the
canals
46. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The boundaries of the kingdom protista
are not well- defined
Statement II: Most fungi are saprophytic and matter
from dead substance. absorb organic
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
47. Systema Naturae was written by:
(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) Mayr
(4) Lamark
48. Which of the following statements with respect to
bacteria is incorrect?
(1) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
(2) Under unfavourable conditions, they produce spores.
(3) Bacteria reproduce by a sort of sexual reproduction by
adopting a primitive type of DNA transfer
(4) All mycoplasma are pathogenic
49. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Kingdom Protista forms a link with the other
kingdoms.
Reason (R): It is believed that Protista evolved from the kingdom
Monera and is the ancestor of multicellular eukaryotes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given belov
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct explanation of (A) correct but (R) is
not the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
50. Which among the following is correct:
(1) Higher the taxon (taxonomic category) more the
similar characters
(2) Lower the taxon more the diversity
(3) Lower the taxon more the resemblances
(4) Both 1 and 2
51. Among the human ancestors, the brain size was
more than 1000 cc in:
(1) Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Neanderthal man
52. Industrial melanism was highlighted by :
(1) Mimosa pudica
(2) Triticum aestivum
(3) Biston (Moth)
(4) Rock python
53. Australopithecines probably lived in:
(1) East African grasslands
(2) East and central Asia
(3) South African grasslands
(4) West African grasslands
54. The most accepted line of descent in human
evolution is
(1) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens
→ Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
(3) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus →
Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus →
Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
55. Which one of the following is not the mesozoic era:
periods of
(1) Cretaceous
(2) Triassic
(3) Jurassic
(4) Devonian
56. Which one of the following is the example of
evolution by anthropogenic action:
(1) Antibiotics resistance microbes
(2) Marsupial radiation
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) All of these
57. No organic compounds are synthesized in direction
of origin of life now-a-days due to :
(1) High conc. of SO2
(2) High temperature
(3) High conc. of O2
(4) High conc. of N2
58. Which fossils discovered in Java :
(1) Neanderthal man
(2) Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecines
(4) Homo sapiens
59. According to Hardy-Weinberg's law, if the frequency
of non-tasters of PTC paper in a population, is 16%, then
find out the frequency of dominant allele. Also calculate
the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the
population.
(1) Frequency of dominant allele 0.4, % of heterozygous
individuals 16%
(2) Frequency of dominant allele 0.4, % of heterozygous
individuals 60%
(3) Frequency of dominant allele 0.6, % of heterozygous
individuals 60%
(4) Frequency of dominant allele 0.6, % of heterozygous
individuals 48%
60. In 1938 a coelacanth fish which was thought to be
extinct was caught in:
(1) India
(2) Australia
(3) South Africa
(4) America
61. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing at
around:
(1) 15 million years back
(2) 30 million years back
(3) 100 million years back
(4) 1000 million years back
62. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Man can not creat new breed over billions of
year.
Reason (R): Nature can creat new breed over billions of
year.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
63. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Tyranosaurus evolved from Triceratops
Statement-ll : Triceratops evolved from Stegosaurus.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
64. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Lobefins evolved into first amphibian that
lived on both land and water.
Statement-II: Amphibian evoleved into reptiles.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
65. Cranial capacity of Homo erectus was
(1) 900 cc.
(2) 1400 cc.
(3) 1600 cc.
(4) 1100 cc.
66. Neanderthal man had a brain size of :
(1) 900 cc.
(2) 500 cc.
(3) 1400 cc.
(4) 1600 cc.
67. Which one is example of homologous organ:
(1) Wings of butterfly and bird
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(3) Contractile vacuole of amoeba and kidney of rabbit
(4) Chloragogen cell of annelids and liver of rabbit
68. Different types of modified beaks according to their
food habits in Darwin finches of galapagos islands
show phenomena of:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Analogy
69. Marsupials mammals only found in australia
because:
(1) Genetic drift
(2) Continental drift
(3) Gene flows
(4) None of the above
70. Which one is not an examples of evolution by
anthropogenic action:
(1) Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito
(2) Evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria
(3) Evolution of archaeopteryx
(4) Both 1 & 3
71. After industralisation flourishing of melanic form
of Biston betularia show which type of natural
selection:
(1) Disruptive selection
(2) Directional selection
(3) Diversifying selection
(4) Stablising selection
72. In a diploid population the frequency of dominant
allele is 0.2 then what is the % of heterozygous
individual in this population :
(1) 6
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 48
73. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Dryopithecus was more man like while
Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
Statement- II: Evolution by mutation are random and
directionless.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
74. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Homohabilis probably did not eat meat.
Statement-II: Homo erectus probably ate meat.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
75. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Australopithecines probably lived in east
african grasslands.
Statement-II: Australopithecines ate fruits.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
76. Which one of the following is the period of
paleozoic era:
(1) Cretaceous
(2) Triassic
(3) Jurassic
(4) Carboniferous
77. In which of the following animal True placenta is
absent:
(a) Koala
(b) Sugar glider
(c) Numbat
(d) Lemur
(e) Flying squirrel
(1) Only a, b, c
(2) Only a, b
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, c, d
78. Which one of the following is the correct match
(a) H.M.S beagle (I) Simulation experiment
(b) S.L. miller (II) Light years
(c) Stellar distances (III) Darwin
(d) Oparin (IV)Chemical evolution
(1) a-lll, b-l, c-II, d-IV
(2) a-l, b-Ill, c-IV, d-II
(3) a-IV, b-ll, c-l, d-III
(4) a-l, b-ll, c-III, d-IV
79. Match the following concepts of evolution in List- I with List-
ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List-l List-II
a. Mutation i. Changes in population's allele frequencies
due to chance alone.
b. Gene flow ii. Differences in sur vival and reproduction
among variant individuals.
C. Natural selection iii. Immigration, emigra tion change allele
frequencies .
d. Genetic iv. Source of new alleles drift
(1) a : i, b : ii, c : iii, d : iv (2) a : iv, b : ii, c : iii, d : i
(3) a : iii, b : i, c : iv, d : ii (4) a : iv, b : iii, c : ii, d : i
80. Which one of the following is the correct match:
(1) Wombat - True Placenta
(2) Bandicoot - True Placenta
(3) Lemur - True Placenta
(4) Darwin finches - Convergent evolution
81. What was the most significant trend in the
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors:
(1) Shortening of jaws
(2) Binocular vision
(3) Increasing cranial capacity
(4) Upright posture
82. Match the hominids with their correct brain size:
a. Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
b. Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
c. Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
d. Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
83. The classical example of adaptive radiation is/ are:
(1) Darwin's finches
(2) Marsupials of Australia
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
84. Which one of the following is the incorrect match:
(1) Universe- 20 billion years old
(2) Miller experiment - 1958
(3) Earth-4.5 billion years old
(4) Bigbang theory - Origin of universe
85. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a
time scale of months or year and not centuries.
Reason (R): Rate of evolution due to anthropogenic action
is more faster than nature.
choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
86. Recognise the figure and choose correct option
according to figure:

(1) Thorn and tandril are analogous

(2) Thorn and tandril are Homologous
(3) Both represent convergent evolution
(4) 2 and 3 both
87. Match the following columns
Column-A Column-B
(a) Columba i. Vulture
(b) Psittacula ii. Penguin
(c) Aptenodytes iii. Parrot
(d) Neophron iv. Pigeon
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
88. Mammary glands are found in:
(1) Pteropus
(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Ornithorhynchus
(4) All the above
89. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Early stages of embryogeny are similar in
maize and pea
Statement II: Most zygotes divide before endosperm
formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
90. Select correct statement
(a) Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds is
crucial for storage of seed
(b) Striga fruit contains thousands of tiny seeds
(c) Coleoptile is hollow foliar structure
(d) Coleorrhiza is a differentiated sheath
(1) Only a, b
(2) Only a, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) Only a, b, c
91. Find the incorrect statement(s)
(a) Vallisneria and Hydrilla grow in fresh water
(b) Water lily is water pollinated
(c) In vallisneria, type of pollination is anemophily and
entomophily
(d) In most of water pollinated species pollens are
protected from wetting by mucilagenous covering
(1) Only b, c
(2) Only a, b
(3) Only c, d
(4) a, b, c, d
92. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant
growth is recommended by doctor for bringing healthy baby.
Reason (R): Colostrum contain several antibodies absulutely
essential to develop resistance for the new born babies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer
from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
93. Spermatogonia, secondary spermatocyte and sperm
have ploidy:
(1) All n
(2) All 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n
(4) 2n, n, n
94. Which one of the following is correct with reference
to RNA: statement
a. More reactive than DNA
b. Less stable than DNA
c. Mutate at a faster rate than DNA.
d. Mutate at a slower rate than DNA.

(1) a, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) Only a, c
(4) b, d
95. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chromosomal disorder may be occur due
to trisomy or monosomy.
Statement- II : Down's syndrome is an example of
monosomy in which the gain of extra copy of
chromosome number 21
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
96. In the given figure identify A and B and also identify the
process:

(1) A-RNA polymerase, B-Rho factor & process is Initiation

(2) A-RNA polymerase, B-Rho factor & process is Termination
(3) A-RNA polymerase, B-Sigma factor & process is Initiation
(4) A-RNA polymerase, B-Sigma factor & process is
Termination
97. Which one of the following are correct match
a. pistillate flower I. Unisexual
b. Antherozoid II. Type of gamete
c. Homothallic III. Bisexual
d. Meiocytes IV. Gamete mother cell
(1) a-lll, b-l, c-IV, d-II
(2) a-ll, b-l, c-IV, d-III
(3) a-l, b-ll, c-III, d-IV
(4) a-IV, b-l, c-III, d-II
98. Which one of the following is incorrect match:
(1) Condoms - Barriers
(2) Cervical caps - Implants
(3) Lippes loop - IUDS
(4) Coitus interruptus - Contraceptive method
99. In a cross between AABB x aabb, the ratio of
genotype in F₂ generation between AABB, AaBB,
Aabb, aaBb would be :
(1) 9:3:3:1
(2) 4:2:2:2
(3) 1:2:2:2
(4) 4:1:1:2
100. A colourblind man (XCY) has a colourblind sister
(XCXC) and a normal brother (XY). What is genotype
of father and mother:
(1) XCY, XCXC
(2) XCY, XCX
(3) XY, XCXC
(4) XY, XCX