 PROGRAM NAME- DIPLOMA IN MECHANICAL

ENGG.
 PROGRAM CODE- ME6I
 COURSE – EMERGING TRENDS IN MECHANICAL
ENGINEERING (ETM)
 COURSE CODE – 22652
 CHAPTER WISE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
 Chapter 1 – Recent Trends in Automobile Industry

1. What are the Issues with e-vehicle?

a) Cost of Electric Vehicle b) Charging station Infrastructure

c) Range Satisfaction d) All of above

2. Air bag is made of……..

a) Silicon b) Nylon Fabric c) Both a & b d) None of this

3. Which type of safety present in Automobile?

a) Air bags b) Automatic Emergency braking

c) Adaptive cruise control d) All of the above

4. Sensor send an ……. to the air bag module?

a) Air b) Electric current c) Nitrogen gas d) None of this

5. Inflation system contains…….

a)Sodium Acid b)Sodium Oxide c) Potassium Nitrate d) Both a and c

6. What are the Categories in Automatic Emergency Braking system?

a) Low speed AEB system b) Higher speed AEB system

c) Pedestrian detection system d) all of the above

7. Automatically adjust the speed of the car using……..

a) AEB system b) ACC system c) ESP system d) none of this

8. Which Sensor measures the distance to other preceding vehicles on the highway?
A) Optical sensor B) Radar sensor c) Both a & b d) None of this

9. Automatic Emergency Braking uses…… to help driver avoid collisions.

a) Radar b) Cameras c) Optical sensor d) all of the above

10. For intercity transport, there is a requirement of fast charging facility at

every…….km.
a) 100km b) 60km c) 50km d) 120km
11. Higher speed AEB system scans up to …… meters ahead using long range radar at
higher speeds.

a) 200meter b) 100meter c) 150meter d) none of above

12. What is density of sodium nickel chloride battery?

a)70Wh/kg b) 80Wh/kg c)50Wh/kg d)100Wh/kg

13. What is the following is not battery type?

a) Fuel cell b) Sodium sulphur battery

c) Li-Ion battery d) Range satisfaction

14. What is mean by EVSE?

a) Electric vehicle supply unit b) Electrode vehicle supply unit

c) Electricvarry system unit d) Electrode vary system unit

15. There’s no gasoline engine in an electric car, so that runs that thing?
a)Battery b) DC Supply c) Vehicle d) AC Supply

16. Which of the following are charging modes?

a)AC Slow charging mode b)AC Fast charging mode

c) DC Fast charging mode d) Home / Private charger

e) All of above

17. The process of oxidation involves a transfer of electrons between the ----and----
a) Fuel and electricity b) Catalyst and hydrogen diffuses

c) Fuel and oxidant d) Electrode and oxidant

18. Which type of battery is combined with an electric motor, seems to very good
competitor to the Internal Combustion Engine?

a) Sodium Nickel Chloride batteries b) Sodium sulphur batteries

c) Fuel cell d) Li-Ion batteries

19. What is the function of EVSE Unit?
a)If is used to heat generated by fuel cell.

b) If it used to heat may be converted directly into electricity.

c) It used to maintain the losses in battery.

d) It used to supply electric energy to recharge electric vehicles

20. What is power charging rate of Tesla car or Nissan Leaf?

a) 7.7 Kw to 22 Kw b) 2.5Kw to 10 Kw

c) 10.5 Kw to 33 Kw d) 4 Kw to 20 Kw

21. In fuel cell electrolyte used is solution of -------------------.

a) Potassium chloride b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Potassium permanganate d) Hydrogen

22. A hybrid vehicle combines IC engine and........

a) Electric motor. b) Electric propulsion system.

c) Generator. d) Both a&c.

23. Pure electric vehicle does not contain......

a) Electric motor. b) Generator. c) Electric Battery. d) IC engine.

24. Function of electric battery is......

a) Store electric energy and supply whenever necessary. b) Produce electricity.

c) Control entire operation. d) Transfer electric energy.

25. Which component of hybrid vehicle controls the entire operation?

a) Electric motor. b) Generator. c) Control module. d) Inverter.

26. Function of Inverter is

a) Convert AC from battery to DC for motor.
b) Convert DC from the battery to AC for the motor.

c) Convert DC from the motor to AC for the battery.

d) Convert AC from the motor to DC for the battery.
27. What are the Reasons of developing and selling HEVs?
a) Reduction of CO2 emission. b) Reduction of exhaust gas.

c) Improvement of power train dynamics. d) All of the above.

28. Which type of hybrid vehicle not based on structure of drive train?
a) Parallel hybrid. b) Series hybrid.

c) Mild hybrid. d) Power split hybrid.

29. In series hybrid

a) Wheels are powered only by electric motor.
b) Wheels are powered by IC engine.

c) Both a&b. d) None of the above.

30. .........Hybrid is more effective in high speed driving.

a) Parallel. b) Series. c) Mild. d) Full.

31. Parallel Hybrid is.....

a) Get power from both IC engine and electric motor.

b) Battery only supports the engine. c) Need smaller capacity battery.

d) All of the above.

32. Hybrid electric vehicle need.... energy source.

a) One. b) Two. c) Three. d) four.

33. Which statement is wrong for series hybrid vehicle?

a) IC engine does not supply power to wheels.

b) More efficient in low speed driving.

c) Wheel gets power from both IC engine and electric motor.

d) Need large capabilities batteries.

34. ………………. hybrid vehicle is either propelled by ICE or Battery.

a. Parallel b. Series c. Split d. Mild

35. A plug-in hybrid is different from a conventional hybrid electric vehicle because it
has ……………..
a. built in battery charger b. Li Ox Battery
c. more batteries d. bigger motor generator

36. Wheels of this hybrid vehicle is propelled only by electric motor

a. parallel hybrid b. series hybrid c. split hybrid d. full hybrid

37. Electric vehicle & hybrid vehicles have following components common
except……………

a. battery b. ECU c. generator d. internal combustion engine

38. Lowest degree of hybridization is observed in……………..

a. full hybrid b. mild hybrid c. split hybrid d. micro hybrid

39. Toyota Camry is ……………………. hybrid.

a. micro b. stop-start c. strong d. mild

40. Mahindra Scorpio is ……………………. hybrid.

a. micro b. stop-start c. strong d. mild

41. Mild hybrid uses ……………… volt battery.

a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 60

42. Engine assist technology used in hybrid cars by Maruti Suzuki is called as ………
a. SVHC b. SHVS c. HVT d. SHVC

43. Hybrid cars normally have ……… km range in only electric mode.
a. 10-20 km b. 30-60 km c. 100-150 km d. No limit

44. Following are the disadvantages of hybrid cars

a. high cost b. expensive battery c. high weight d. all

45. Hybrid cars generate energy while………………….

a. cruising b. acceleration c. deceleration d. all

46. Objective behind using a hybrid cars is

a. reduction in fuel consumption b. reduction in emission

c. increased power & torque d. all

47. While cruising motor ………………
a. starts engine b. generates power c. regenerates energy d. stops engine

48. Benefits of hybrid car are …………….

a. less pollution b. energy recovery c. high torque at low speed d. all

49. A fuel cell produces electricity from ……………….and ……………...

a. Petrol / Oxygen b. Nitrogen / Oxygen c. Hydrogen / Oxygen d. Water / Oxygen

50. This battery is not suitable for Electric vehicle ……………..

a. Li ion battery b. Na Ni Cl Battery c. NaS Battery d. Lead acid Battery

51. Sodium Nickel chloride battery uses ………………. electrolytes

a. One b. three c. two d. none

52. This type of battery needs to be heated before use

a. Alkaline b. Hallide c. Lithium d. Lead Acid

53. What are the by-products (emissions) from a fuel cell?

a. CO b. CO2 c. Water d. All

54. There are ……….. Methods & …………. Modes of charging an electric vehicle.
a. Three, four b. two, three c. four, two d. three, two

55. Latest e vehicle launched by Tata motors is ……………….

a. Tigor EV b. Kona c. Chetak d. Nixon EV

56. Following are the issues with the e vehicles.

a. lack of charging stations b. high price c. range anxiety d. all

57. Following is the type of contactless charging.

a. Fast AC charging b. DC Charging c. Induction Charging d. Slow AC Charging

58. EVSE
a. Electric Vehicle Supply Equipment b. could be AC or DC
c. Used for Charging d. All
59. FAME stands for
a. Faster Addition and Maintenance of Electric Vehicles in India

b. Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles in India

c. Feasibility, Adoption, Manufacturing & Evolve

d. All

60. FAME-I subsidy was applicable to these E vehicle

a. Private Vehicles b. Public Vehicles c. Transport Vehicles d. All

61. Implementing agency of FAME scheme is

a. Finance Ministry b. Automobile Ministry
c. Ministry of Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises d. All

62. In FAME-I Rs.30 crore was released for creating necessary testing facilities for E
vehicles at
a. National Auto Testing Lab, Delhi b. ARAI, Pune
c. Global Auto Research Center, Chennai d. NATRIP, Delhi

63. Condition to avail subsidy for FAME-II is

a. Three years comprehensive warranty b. Vehicle should comply CMV rules
c. No Lead Acid Battery d. All

64. Radar sensor is used in

a. Adaptive Cruise Control b. Automatic Emergency Brake System

c. Anti Collision System d. All

65. Adaptive cruise control helps in

a. Maintain a speed as set by the driver

b. Adapt this speed and maintain a safe distance from the vehicles in front

c. Provide a warning if there is a risk of collision.

d. All

66. Active safety systems includes

a. Anti-lock braking systems (ABS) b. Air Bags c. Headrest d. All
67. Airbag inflation system contains
a. Sodium Azide b. Potassium Nitrate c. Both d. Only b

68. Airbag deployment takes place in __________ stages.

a. One b. two c. four d. three

69. This system integrates ABS,ACC & ESC with airbags & seatbelts

a. Forward Collision System b. Active-Passive Integration

c. Emergency Braking System d. All

70. The fuel efficiency of Mild hybrids vehicle is more as compared to conventional
hybrid systems by______ %?

a) 10- 15% b) 7-15% c) 3-15% d) 1-15%

71. Which voltage is likely to be available from the battery of an electric vehicle also
known as Mild hybrid?
a) 12V b) 24V c) 300V d) 100V

72. The MHEV system consists of which volt?

a) 12V b) 24V c) 48V d) none of the above.

73. World’s first commercially mass-produced and marketed hybrid automobile

was the Toyota Prius. It became available on the Japanese market in
what year?
A 1998 B. 1996 C. 1997 D 1999

74. Hybrid vehicles convert energy that is normally lost through braking into
electrical energy. What is the term that is used for this recycling of energy?
A Perpetual motion B Regenerative breaking
C. Kinetic conversation D. Hybrid archamy

75. First mass produced hybrid vehicle internationally is.....................

1) Tesla model X. 2) Mahindra e2o. 3) Toyota Prius. 4) Ford GT.

76. The first vehicle with hybrid technology was developed by........
1) Ferdinand Porsche. 2) Thomas Edison. 3) Isaac Newton.

4) Alexander Graham Bell.

77. Which of the following is not an advantage of hybrid vehicles?
1) Environmentally friendly. 2) Initial cost is low.

3) Better mileage. 4) Higher energy conservation.

78. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of hybrid vehicles?

1) You will not get as many discounts or incentives as you will get with electric vehicles.

2) They aren't as powerful.

3) Lower mileage and higher emissions.

4) They are not exempted from tax.

79. Which of the following is not the type of hybrid vehicle?

a) Plug in hybrid b) Parallel hybrid c) Natural gas for vehicle d) Series hybrid

80. Regenerative braking involves :

a) Nano fibers that repair the surface of brake pads
b) Reducing the amount of friction

c) Reclaiming heat from the brake and using it for power

d) All of the above

81. What purpose does a generator serve in a hybrid vehicle?

(a) It converts nuclear energy 6more nuclear energy.

(b) It converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

(c) It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

(d) It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

82. ______ Technology helps to stop a combustion engine when the vehicle pulls to a
stop and restart it when driver accelerates.
a. Start stop technology
b. Passive braking technology
c. Regenerative braking technology
d. Internal cooling technology
83. _______ what does MHEV stands for
a. Mild hybrid electric vehicle
b. Micro hybrid electric vehicle
c. Mild horsepower electric vehicle
d. Micro horsepower electric vehicle
84. The electric motor in hybrid car can also act as_____
a. A generator
b. A Fuel pump
c. Cooling fan
d. Compressor
85. The full form of the BAHV's.
A) Battery assisted hybrid vehicle. B) Battery proxy hybrid vehicle.

C) Battery assist hydro vehicle. D) None off the above.

86. The BAS mild hybrid system used………. To start the internal combustion engine.
a. Belt drive b. Chain drive c. Direct drive d. None of the above.

87. The electric motor in a mild hybrid is acting as a

a. Power booster b. Hydro boost c. Buffalo power booster d. Booster plug

88. In vehicle energy is stored in an auxiliary battery and then it is used to quickly
start a vehicle
a) Full hybrid b) Micro hybrid c) Series hybrid d) Mild hybrid

89. In which vehicle system lowest size of a battery is used

a) Micro hybrid b) Mild hybrid c) Series hybrid d) Parallel hybrid

90. In which vehicle system bigger size of a battery is used

a) Micro hybrid b) Mild hybrid c) Series hybrid d) Full hybrid

91. Following is not type of hybrid electric vehicle.

A) Series B) Parallel C) Vertical D) Complex

92. In parallel hybrid vehicle Internal Combustion Engine and electric motor are
coupled by a………..device.
a. Hydraulic b. Pneumatic c. Mechanical d. Electric
93. The combustion engine can operate in ……….. RPM range, even as a car change a
speed.
a. Moderate b. Wide c. Narrow d. None of the above

94. In this configuration, efforts are made to operate the electric motor alone
at....................... and ICE alone at...................
a) Medium speed and lower speed. b) Higher speed and lower speed

c) Higher speed and medium speed d) Lower speed and higher speed

95. Full form of CVT

a) Continuously variation transforms b) Continue various transmissions
c) Continuously various transformations d) continuously variable transmission

96. Full form of ICE

a) Internal continuous engine b) Internal combination engine

c) Internal continue emission d) none of the above

97. Full form of PEM in fuel cell

a) petrol-exchange membrane b) proton-execute membrane
c) proton-exchange membrane d) petrol-execute membrane

98. 28. Which vehicles do not require the same level of battery power and do not
achieve the same levels of fuel economy
a) Mild Hybrid b) Full Hybrid c) Series Hybrid d) Parallel Hybrid

99. What does PHEV stands for

a) Plug-in Hybrid Electronic Vehicles b) Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicles

c) Plug-out Hybrid Electronic Vehicles d) Plug-out Hybrid Electric Vehicles

100. Which of these is the purpose of power-split device

a) To split Electrical Energy into Mechanical Energy.

b) To allow both the engine and Electric motor to propel the vehicle
c) To recharge the battery while braking
d) To recharge the brakes while driving
101. A Hybrid Vehicle equipped with push button start will enter the power ON
mode but will not enter the ready to drive mode .No diagnostic trouble code are
stored this could cause by
a) The high voltage safety plug is removed b) A failed brake on/off switch
c) An empty fuel tank d) A disconnects 12v battery

102. Which of these is the purpose of the power-split device?

a. To split electrical energy into mechanical energy
b. To allow both the engine and electric motor to propel the vehicle
c. To recharge the battery while braking
103. The electric cars available in India are:
A. Hyundai Kona Electric B. Mahindra E20 C. Tata tigor EV 2019

D. All of the above

104. The following companies have launched electric motor cycles in India :
A. revolt B. Hero C. Yamaha D. all of the above

105. India’s first electric bus was launched in ............... in 2014.

A. Chennai B. Mumbai C. Gujarat D. Bangalore

106. The output voltage of a charger is

A] Less than the battery voltage B] Higher than the battery voltage
C] The same as the battery voltage D] None of the above

107. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

A ampere per hour B current C volt D ampere

108. Life of a battery in the electric vehicle is about

A 8 years B 5 years C 10 years D 20 years

109. How much time it takes for a electric car of 60kWh battery to charge
1. 5 hours 2. 8 hours 3. 6-7 hours 4. None of above

110. How many known modes of charging of EVs are available

1. 3 2. 2 3. 4 4. 1
111. The electrolyte used in sodium nickel chloride batteries is
a. Sodium chloride
b. Tetra chloraluminate
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Sodium glutamate
112. Average temperature of electrolyte in sodium nickel chloride batteries
a. 100 to 200 degree Celsius
b. 270 to 350 degree Celsius
c. 380 to 410 degree Celsius
d. None of the above
113. Sodium nickel chloride batteries are also called as
Horse Zebra Cobra Turbo

114. Sodium sulphur battery is a type of molten-salt battery constructed from

_____ sodium and sulphur.
Solid Liquid Plasma Gases

115. The following is the operating temperatures of the sodium –sulphur battery.
a. 400 to 600°C
b. 1000 to 1500°C
c. 300 to 350°C
d. 100 to 200°C
116. To prevent local action in battery, only …………is used in electrolytes
A. Pump water B. Distilled water C. Tap water D. Both A and C

117. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ……….hours

discharge rate
A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24

118. The emf of the dry cell is about

a. 0 V b. 0.5 V c. 1 V d. 1.5 V

119. Which of the following battery is used for aircraft?

A. Lead acid battery B. Nickel-iron battery
C. Dry cell battery D. Silver oxide battery
120. The electrode for a battery must be
A. A semi conductor B. An insulator C. A good conductor of electricity

D. A bad conductor of electricity

121. Which of the following vehicles produces zero emissions?

A. Traditional B. Hybrid C. Electric D. Both A and B

122. What is the life span of electric car batteries?

A. 8 Year B. 10 years. C. 9 years D. 11 years.

123. The electrolytic solution used in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is ____________

a) 75% KOH solution b) 25% KOH solution

c) 75% NaOH solution d) 25% NaOH solution

124. 109. The residual product discharged by the hydrogen-oxygen cell is

____________
a) Hydrogen peroxide b) Alcohol c) Water d) Potassium permanganate

125. By what percentage do seatbelts reduce the risk of death for a person sitting
in front seat?
a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 70%

126. What area of car is designed to deform in a collision?

a) The crumple zone b) The interior c) The doors d) The rear end

127. What’s the primary advantage of a anti- lock braking system

a) They allow you to stop easier b) They prevent locking

c) They allow you to steer while braking

128. By what percentage can airbags reduce the risk of dying in a direct frontal
crash?
a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60%

129. What kind of gas inflates in an airbag

a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Helium d) Nitrogen

130. What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?

A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Sodium azide C. Sodium nitriteD. Sodium peroxide

131. Adaptive cruise control is used to adjust _of vehicle
A speed B direction C magnitude D light

132. Adaptive cruise control system uses _

A all of the below B laser sensor C radar sensor D camera setup

133. First used in pedestrian air bags.

1. Volvo v50 2. Volvo v60 3.volvo v40. 4. Volvo v70

134. In India, Autonomous Emergency Braking system (AEB) could become

mandatory on new cars by________
a) 2020 b) 2024 c) 2022 d) 2026

135. Electronic Stability Program is use to

a) Assist in braking b) Reducing loss of traction

c) Use in ECU d) for proper loading and unloading of weight in vehicle

136. When the Electronic Stability Program system intervenes?

a) When it detect probable loss of steering control b) When tire start to skid

c) When sudden brakes are applied d) All of above

137. Electronic Stability control generally work when

a) Steering is in over steering and under steering condition

b) When collision has to be prevent

c) Fuel is low d) Roads are uneven

138. --------- is a feature that alerts a driver to an imminent crash and helps them
use the maximum braking capacity of the car.
a) AEB b) Air Bag c) Vehicles d) Electronic Stability control

139. What area of car is designed to deform in a collision?

a) Crumple zone b) Interior zone c) Doors d) Rear end
 Chapter 2 – Process Engineering

1. In which following function functions of evaporator.

a. Chilled water loop b.Absorbs heat and cools the refrigerant.
C.None of the above. D.Both a and b
2. Who attracts water moist from the evaporator?
a. Evaporator b.Absorber c.Generator d.Condenser
3. A heat wheel is finding increasing applications in ……..
a. Low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system.
b. High to medium temperature waste heat recovery system.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
4. Heat wheel is rotates between two side-by-side ducts.
a. Cold gas ducts b.Hot gas ducts c. Superheated gas ducts d. Both a and b

5. Diameter of heat wheel is….

a. 21 b. 23 c. 22 d. 33

6. Who can transfer 100 times more thermal energy than copper?
a. Heat wheel b. Heat energy c. Heat pipe d.None of the above

7. Which energy is absorb heat pipe

a. Kinetic energy b Thermal energy c.Both a and b d. Rotational energy
8. Heat pipe require maintenance
a. Maximum b.Minimum c.Medium d.All of the above

9. Heat pipe comprises of three elements.

a. A sealed container b.A capillary wick structure
c. A working fluid d. All of above

10. What is the condition of pressure and temperature at a Sub critical plant?
a) 210 bar & 460*C b) Less than 220 bar &Up to 565*C

c) Above 250 bar & Above 580*C d) none of the above

11. Which boilers have the lowest power generation cost?
a) Sub-critical b) Super-critical
c) Ultra super critical d) none of the above

12. Which boiler has the highest Average Efficiency?

a) Super critical b) Sub critical
c) Ultra super critical d) All of the above

13. Which is the most non-ecofriendly boiler?

a) Super critical b) Sub critical
c) Ultra super critical d) none of the above

14. Factors affecting cooling of water in a cooling tower are:-

a) Temperature of air b) Humidity of air
c) Size and height of tower d) All of the above

15. Capacity of cooling water on minute basis is-

a) 400,000 gallons b) 500,000 gallons
c) 480,000 gallons d) 450,000 gallons

16. In hyperbolic cooling tower water leaves through which side-

a) Bottom b) Right side
c) Top d) Water does not leave the tower

17. Process Boiler has capacity of…………..

A 80KW B. 150KW C. 110KW D. 90KW

18. Process Boilers are not used in……………..

A Dairy B. Sugarcane C. Automobile Assembly D. Beverages

19. Which material is recirculated in the boiler?

A Steam B.Water C. Both A&B D. none of above.

20. What should be a Capacity of the boiler?

A 175kg/h to 55,000kg/h B. 15kg/h to 150kg/h
C. 10kg/h to 1000kg/h D. All of the Above.
21. What makes a boiler eco-friendly for environment?
A. High-Quality equipment B.Intelligent control system
C. Modern burner technology D. All of the Above.

22. Process boilers are made up of……………..

A Aluminium B.Steel C. Copper D. brass

23. A single boiler can produce…….thermal output.

A 380MW B.380W C.38MW D.38W

24. Industrial milk boiler used to generate steam for…………

A Milk power B.Liquid milk pasteurization
C. Cheese D. All of the Above.

25. Process boiler does not have following component.

A Steam Container B.Valves
C. Water flow line D. Generator

26. For treatment on a potatoes in food industries which devices is widely used?
A. IC Engine B.Generator C. Boiler D. Heater

27. Major advantage of waste heat recovery in industry is...

A) Reduction in pollution B) Increase in efficiency
C) Both A & B D) None of the above.

28. The waste heat source with the highest potential to recover quality waste heat is......
A) Cooling water B) Flue gases
C) Product leaving the process D) Convective & radiant heat equipment.

29. Which are the direct benefits of WHR system?

A) Reduction in pollution B) Reduction in process cost
C) Reduction in equipment sizes D) Reduction in auxiliary energy consumption.

30.......... Recover heat and reduce the environmental pollution levels.

A) Carbon monoxide gas B) Sour gas C) Oil sludge D) All of the above.
31. The quantity of waste heat should......... enough to make WHR economical.
A) Large B) Less C) Both A & B D) None of the above.

32. How much marginal efficiency can eliminates the associated power output.
A) 40-50% B) 10-20% C) 80-90% D) 50-60%.

33. If the heat to power ratio in the facility is ......than that for the cogeneration plant,
the excess steam demand is usually met by utility boilers.

A) Lower B) Higher C) Medium D) None of the above.

34. Which are the flue gas equipments?

A) Fan B) Stacks C) Ducts D) All of the above.

35. How much energy used in industry is rejected as waste heat.

A) 20 to 50% B) 30 to 40% C) 80 to 90% D) 50 to 80%.

36. Steam traps are used for

1. Removing condensate 2.Removing non-condensable gases
3. Prevent steam escape 4.All of above
37. UHT in food processing means
1. Unique Heat Treatment 2.Ultra High Treatment
3. Ultra High Temperature 4.Usable Heat Treatment
38. Co-generation in sugar industries means
1. Production of other consumer products 2.Combined generation of steam
3. Electricity generation 4.Fuel generation
39. In paper & pulp industry steam is used for
1. Softening of wood pulp 2.Heating chemicals added in pulp
3. Drying paper stock 4.All of above
40. UHT treatment to milk is intended for
1. Saving energy 2.Removing cream
3. Increasing self life to few days 4.Increasing self life to few months
 41. State the values of pressure & temperature at critical point
1.22.1 MPa& 600 oC 2.22.1 MPa & 600 oC
3.22.1 Bar & 373.15 oC 4.22.1 MPa & 373.15 oC
42. Thermal power plant efficiency is ratio of ……………with ……………
1. Heat with steam, Heat released by burning of fuel
2. Heat rejected at condenser, Heat released by burning of fuel
3. Electricity produced at generator, Heat released by burning of fuel
4. Electricity produced at generator, Heat given out by boiler
43. Supercritical boiler has following advantage(s) over subcritical boiler
1. High latent heat required 2. High coal & ash handling
3. Low Pollution 4. Low overall efficiency
44. Highest carbon emissions are found in
1. Subcritical boilers 2. Supercritical boilers
3. Ultra supercritical boilers 4. Critical boilers
45. Following emissions are lowest in ultra supercritical boilers
1. SO2 2.NOX 3.PM 4.All above
46. Following are disadvantage(s) of supercritical boilers
1. More weight 2. More corrosion
3. More supervision & maintenance 4. All above
47. Hyperbolic cooling towers are used for
1. Very high heat rejection 2.Very low heat rejection
3. Medium heat rejection 4.Infinite heat rejection
48. Buoyancy force means
1. Acting in upward direction 2. Acting in down word direction
3. Acting in both directions 4. Acting in all directions
49. Categorize following under low & high (As desirable for efficient operation of
cooling tower)
1. Humidity of outdoor air –Low/High 2. WBT of outdoor air –Low / High
3. Velocity of incoming air-Low / High 4. Surface area & turbulence –Low / High
 50 Approach in cooling towers is
1. Difference between inlet & outlet water
2. Difference in inlet air & inlet water temperature
3. Difference between outlet water & WBT of air
4. Difference between inlet & outlet of air
51. “Stack effect” in hyperbolic cooling towers is also called as
1. Reheating effect 2. Moisture effect 3. Chimney effect 4. Chilling effect
52. The hyperbolic shape has following advantage(s)
1. Acceleration of air in upward direction 2. Less material required
3. Both above true 4. None above is true
53. Various metal refining processes have waste heat temperature potential is
1.650 to 1650 oC 2.230 to 650 oC 3.55 to 88 oC 4.27 to 55 oC
54. Waste heat recovery in plants results in
1. Low utility consumption 2. Reduced pollution
3. Reduced equipment size 4. All above
55. Following is not a constraint in using waste heat recovery
1. Space required
2. Condensation of harmful elements at low temperatures
3. Environment degradation
4. Selection of materials
56. Flue gas use in WHR system is treated as
1. Low quality heat source 2. High quality heat source
3. Very high quality heat source 4. Depends on temperature
57. Condensate recovery pumps uses ……. To pump the condensate
1. Electricity 2. Water 3. Condensate 4. Steam
58. Following is disadvantage of condensate recovery pump
1. Cavitations 2. High steam consumption 3. More moving parts 4. None of the above
59. Typical heavy duty diesel engines using EGR have heat available for waste heat
recovery at exhaust gases is
1.3% 2.13% 3.19 % 4.42 %
60. Chemical formula for methanol is
1.CHOH 2.CH2OH 3.CH3OH 4.CH4OH
61. Purpose of electric turbo-charging is heat recovery by
1. Driving a turbine & compressor 2. Driving a generator to produce electricity
3. Both above 4. None of the above
61. Thermoelectric generator has efficiency of
1.2 -5 % 2.5 -10 % 3.10 –15 % 4.15 –20 %
62. Which is refrigerant in absorption chiller
1. Water 2.Li-Br 3.Ammonia 4.Air
63. Waste heat boilers are used for mainly
1. Power generation 2. Process heating 3. Melting sulphur 4. All of the above
64. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to

(A) Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required

(B) Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are
accumulated at the bottom of the boiler

(C) Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an
unsafe limit

(D) Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
65. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to

(A) Moisture in fuel

(B) Dry flue gases

(C) Steam formation

(D) Unburnt carbon

66. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always

(A) Equal to unity

(B) Less than unity

(C) Greater than unity

(D) None of these

67. A thermal output of up to …….. MW is possible from a single boiler.
a. 34 b.30 c.36 d.38
68. In process boilers steam generation capacity ranges from …………………………..
a. 175 kg/h to 55 000 kg/h b.160kg/h to 40000 kg/h.
c. 165 kg/h to 60000 kg/h d. 170 kg/h to 50000 kg/h
69. In the paper making process, steam is used to
a. evaporate moisture from pulp b. heat rotating dryer drums
c. dry the paper stock d. All of the above
70. Steam traps are used to
a. Regulate the flow b. Balance the pressure c.Remove condensate d.Add moisture
71. In a subcritical plant, steam pressure & Temperature is
a. less than 200 bar & 550 deg.c b. more than 200 bar & 550 deg.c
c. less than 220 bar & 550 deg.c d. more than 200 bar & 550 deg.c
72. Subcritical units have efficiencies in between
a. 33% to 37% b. 25% to 29% c.15% to 19% d.30% to 34%
73. In a supercritical plant, steam pressure & Temperature is
a. 240 bar & 565 deg.c b. more than 200 bar & 550 deg.c
c. less than 220 bar & 550 deg.c d. more than 200 bar & 550 deg.c
74. Supercritical units have efficiencies in between
a. 37% to 40% b. 25% to 29% c.15% to 19% d.30% to 34%
75. Ultra Supercritical units have efficiencies in between
a. 33% to 37% b. 25% to 29% c.15% to 19% d.44% to 46%
76. In a ultra supercritical plant, steam pressure & Temperature is
a. 380 bar & 720 deg.c b. 400 bar & 700 deg.c
c. 450 bar & 750 deg.c d. 350 bar & 750 deg.c
77. Range of the cooling tower is
(a) difference between cold water outlet temperature and wet bulb temperature

(b) difference between hot water inlet temperature and wet bulb temperature

(c) difference between hot water inlet temperature and cold water outlet temperature

(d) difference between atmospheric temperature and wet bulb temperature

78. Purpose of drift eliminator is
(a) to reduce the entrainment of water droplets in air

(b) to prevent the water droplets splashing out of the tower

(c) to provide the required surface area for heat transfer

(d) all of these

79. Natural draft or hyperbolic towers have been used for
a) large capacity of water b) small capacity of water c) high efficiency d) low capital cost

80.
The type of cooling tower used in power plants is
(a) hyperbolic natural draft towers

(b) forced draft counter flow towers

(c) induced draft counter flow towers

(d) dry tower

81. A better performance indicator of the cooling tower is its

(a) dry bulb temperature

(b) approach

(c) range

(d) wet bulb temperature

82. How does the flow of air occur in natural draught cooling towers?
(a) Natural pressure head density between cold outside air and humid inside air

(b) Variation in pressure of both cold outside air and humid inside air

(c) Due to the given air vents and vacuum ports

(d) Because of difference in the volume of both the of airs

83. In practice, the Common efficiency range achieved in the cooling tower is

(a) 98 to 100 %

(b) 90 to 95 %

(c) 95 to 98 %

(d) 70 to 75 %

84. The efficiency of a heavy truck diesel engine is generally less than……..
a.42% b. 38% c.35% d.30%
85. In Hydrogen generation by using exhaust gas waste heat Engine exhaust heat energy
has been used to
a. heat and decompose methanol b. heat and decompose ethanol
c. heat and decompose Oxygen d. heat and decompose Hydrogen
86……. can be used for homogeneous charge compression ignition (HCCI) combustion
a. Oxygen b.Hydrogen c.Nitrogen d. Carbon Dioxide
87…………. is crucial in the application of HCCI combustion in engines.
a. Throttle Control b. Charge Introduction c.Ignition timing control d. Inlet valve
opening
88. Thermoelectric materials are semiconductor materials that enable the conversion
between
a. Heat energy to chemical energy b. Heat energy to electrical energy
c. Electrical energy to heat energy d. Chemical energy to heat energy
89.Traditional Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range
of?
a) 15 to 20% b) 35 to 45% c) 70 to 80% d) 90 to 95%
90. Organic Rankine cycle has maximum efficiency of ………..
a.28% b.32% c.36% d.40%
91. Hybrid pneumatic power systems (HPPS) does not consist …..
a. ICE b.pressure tank c.air compressor d. Generator
92. The main working principle of pneumatic hybridization engines is to recover energy
from ….
a. Combustion phase b. Braking phase c.Acceleration phase d. Both a & b
93. Electric turbo compounding (ETC) systems works on
a. Joule Cycle b.Rankine Cycle c.Brayton Cycle d. Carnot Cycle
94. In case of Electric turbo compounding (ETC) systems energy recovered from exhaust
gas is ….
a.20 % b.15% c.25% d.30%
95. Quality of steam obtained from waste heat boilers are
a. Dry Steam b.Wet Steam c.Saturated steam d.Superheated steam
96. Vapor absorption refrigeration uses
(a) Mechanical energy (b) Electric energy (c) Heat energy (d) None.
97. The temperature of cold mist in absorption chiller is
a. 6 deg. b.5deg c.4.5deg. d.8deg.
98. For caring the heat efficiently the steam must be__________
a) Dry b) wet c) saturated d) none of above
99. What happens when air dissolves in condensate?
a) Non corrosive b) temperature of air increases c) corrosive d) none of above
100. Water tube boilers are those in which
a) Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
b) Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
c) Work is done during adiabatic expansion
d) Change is enthalpy.
101. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
a) Mean diameter and thickness b) Inside diameter and thickness
c) Outside diameter and thickness d) Outside diameter and inside diameter
102. The biggest loss in the boiler is
a) Moisture in fuel b) Dry flue gases c) Steam formation d) Unburnt carbon
103. Condensation starts ________ point.
A] Dew point B] Bubble point C] Triple point D] None of the mentioned
104. When gas changes to liquid through the process of condensation, the temperature
A] Increases. B] Decreases C] Remains constant. D] None of the mentioned
105. What is the steam pressure limit of natural circulation Boiler?
650 bar 180 bar 400 bar 550 bar
106. A device known as a _______ is used to release condensate from the pipe work whilst
Preventing the steam from escaping from the system.
a. Steam traps b. Steam pipes c. Boiler nose d. Release valve
107. Which of the following is not a result of the excess of impurity in boiler-feed?
a) Scale and sludge formation b) Decomposition
c) Corrosion, priming and foaming d) Caustic embrittlement
108. What is the critical point of steam generation in a “once through” boiler?
a) 221.5 bar b) 221.4 bar c) 221.3 bar d) 221.2 bar
109. What type of boiler is a Benson boiler?
a) Super critical boiler b) Fire tube boiler c) Natural circulation boiler
d) Over-through boiler
110. Supercritical boiler generate___ to ___pressure.
a) 22Mpa to 25Mpa b) 28Mpa to 20Mpa c) 23Mpa to 27Mpa d) 25Mpa to 28Mpa
111. A ultra-super critical boiler operates at……
a) Ultra-Supercritical pressure b) Thermal pressure c) Critical pressure
d) Atmospheric pressure
112. Ultra-super critical boiler uses steam with very high temperature up to ……
a) 980° b) 620° c) 550° d) 720°
113. A ultra-super critical boiler generates less emission per……of power output.
a) Kilowatt b) Watt c) Megawatt d) Metric horse power
114. In ultra-super critical boiler technology the units run at about ……. efficiency.
a) 40% b) 50% c) 55% d) 45%
115. What type of cooling system is used in the large power plants?
A] Cooling ponds B] Natural flow system C] Cooling towers D] Single deck system
116. Wet cooling towers (or open circuit cooling towers) operate on the principle
of...............
A] Condensation. B] Evaporative cooling C] Both of the above D] none of the above
117. Following is not the advantage of hyperbolic design
a) Less maintenance cost b) Less initial cost c) Less noise d) All of the above
118. When sizing a cooling tower the highest anticipate__________ should be used?
Dry bulb Wet bulb both dry and wet bulb None of the above
119. How does the flow of air occur in natural draught cooling towers?
a) Natural pressure head density between cold outside air and humid inside air
b) Variation in pressure of both cold outside air and humid inside air
c) Due to the given air vents and vacuum ports
d) Because of difference in the volume of both the of airs
120. Hyperbolic cooling towers are made up of high height reinforced ………structure.
a) Plastic b) metal c) alloy d) concrete
121. Better indicators for cooling tower performance are _____.
Wet bulb temperature Dry bulb temperature Rang Approach
122. Cooling tower effectiveness is the ratio of _____.
a. Range/(range + approach)
b. Approach/(range + approach)
c. Range/ Approach
d. Approach/ Range
123. The cooling tower reduces the water temperature close to _____.
a. Dry bulb temperature
b. Ambient wet bulb temperature
c. Dew point temperature
d. None of the above
124. Which one of the following is true to estimate the range of cooling tower?
a. Range = Cooling water inlet temperature- wet bulb temperature
b. Range = Cooling water outlet temperature- wet bulb temperature
c. Range = heat load in kcal per hour / water circulation in liters per hour
d. None of the above
125. Which type of cooling towers operates through a chimney or stack ___
a. Cross flow b. Counter flow c. Hyperbolic d. All of above
126. Hyperbolic cooling towers are also referred as
a. Natural draft towers b. Cross flow towers c. Hyperboloid towersd. None of the above
127. Natural Draft or Hyperbolic towers have been used for
a. Large Capacity of water
b. Small Capacity of Water
c. High Efficiency
d. Low capital cost
128. Major advantage of waste heat recovery in industry is:
a) Reduction in pollution b) increase in efficiency c) Both a & b d) none of the above
129. Heat recovery equipment will be most effective when the temperature of flue gas is:
a) 250oC b) 200 oC c) 400 oC d) 280 oC
130. The waste gases coming out from gas turbine exhausts are of the order of:
a) 370-540 b) 450 – 700 c) 700-800 d) 250-440
131. Typical waste gases temperature from glass melting furnace
a) 1000-1550 oC b) 800-950 oC c) 650–750 oC d) 760-815 oC
132. In a low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system which of the device is
most suitable
a) Economizer b) Heat wheels c) air preheater d) Recuperator
133. Recovery of heat from dryer exhaust air is a typical application of:
a) Waste heat recovery boiler b) Heat pump c) Heat wheel d) Economizer
134. Capillary wick is a part of
a) heat pump b) heat wheel c) heat pipe d) regenerator
135. In Drum type Boiler Feed water flow control by Three element controller
a. Drum level b. Steam Flow c. Feed water flow d. All of above
136. Low NOx Combustion Technology Regulation in Japan for Coal Firing Boiler has
reduced from 400 ppm to____
a. 100ppm b. 200ppm c. 300ppm d. 400ppm
137. Exhaust gas energy recovery in Electro turbo compounding (ETC) up to
a. 10% Possible b. 20% Possible c. 30% Possible d. 40% Possible
 Chapter 3 – Recent Trends in Manufacturing Industry

1. Smart manufacturing is a conversion of

a. Modern dada b. Science techniques c.Artificial intelligence d.All of above

2. Meaning of IIOT
a. Industrial internet of things b.Internet industrial of things
C Both a and b d. None of the above

3. Smart manufacturing technology advances in,

a. Connected factory automation b.Robotics
c. Mobile d. All of the above

4. IoT can be applicable in-----

a. Predictive and preventative maintenance b. Supply chain management
c. Inventories and logistics d. All of them
5. Cause of translational errors occurred in CMM
a. Twisting error b. Error in scale division
c. Roll error d. Error in straightness
6. Software used for reverse engineering after 3D scanning is
a. Maya b. 3D Max c. CAD d. all of the above
7. Liquid crystal elastomers 4D printing material achieve their activation due to
a. Light b. Heat c. Electrical d. All of the above
8. Which is/are part of the automation pyramid of a smart factory?
(a)Control (b) ERP (c) Manufacturing Execution System (d) All of the above
9. Among the following, which is not within the scope of the fourth industrial
revolution?
(a) Smart Connected Machines (b) Smart Factories
(c) Gene Sequencing (d) None of the above
10. The second level in the traditional automation pyramid is
(a) ERP (b) Manufacturing Execution System (MES)
(c) Process Level Control (d) Production Level
11. The vision of Industry 4.0 is

(a) To decrease the cost of industrial production

(b) More efficient use of natural resources and energy
(c) Enabling a custom mass production without significantly increasing overall
production costs

(d) all of the above

12. Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) is

(a) a business management software used for business planning, order processing,
supply chain management, sales and distribution, accounting, etc.

(b) a computer system collecting & analyzing real-time data and it monitor,
control & optimize industrial plants.
(c) Used for controlling or regulating a machine or system.
(d) A device, which communicates with the machine controls.

13. How many numbers of the element in the open IoT architecture?
a. Four elements
b. Five elements
c. Six elements
d. Seven elements
14. Which of the following is the way in which an IoT device is associated with data?
a. Internet
b. Cloud
c. Automata
d. Network
15. Which of the following IoT networks has a very short range?
a. Short Network
b. LPWAN
c. SigFox
d. Short-range Wireless Network
16. What is the full form of the LPWAN?
a. Low Protocol Wide Area Network
b. Low Power Wide Area Network
c. Long Protocol Wide Area Network
d. Long Power Wide Area Network
17. An IoT network is a collection of ______ devices.
a. Signal
b. Machine to Machine
c. Interconnected
d. Network to Network
18. Which one of the following is not an IoT device?
a. Amazon echo voice controller
b. Google Home
c. Nest Smoke Alarm
d. None of these
19. What is the main purpose of WoT (Web of Things) in the IoT?
a. Improve the usability and interoperability
b. Reduce the security
c. Complex the development
d. Increase the cost
20. Which of the following is not an application of IoT?
a. Wearables
b. Smart Grid
c. Arduino
d. Smart City
21. What is the role of Big Data in IoT's Smart Grid architecture?
a. Filter the data
b. Locked the data
c. Store data
d. None of the these
22. Which of the following is not an advantage of IoT?

A. Improved Customer Engagement B. Security

C. Reduced Waste D. Enhanced Data Collection

23. In Which year, the term "Internet of things" was coined?

A. 1998 B. 1999 C. 2000 D. 2001

24. The term "Internet of things" was coined by?

A. Kevin Ashton B. Guido van Rossum C. IBM D. Ross Ihaka

25. Which category is used for business to consumer process?

a. Personal IoT
b. Group IoT
c. Community IoT
d. Industrial IoT
26. Smart phones can be used in IoT setup with _________ application categories.
a. 2 Applications
b. 3 Applications
c. 4 Applications
d. 5 Applications

27. IIoT can be used in manufacturing industries to understand when machines need
servicing which _____ downtime.
a) Reduces b) increases c) remain the same d) cannot be determined
28. ERP refers to _________
a) Efficient Resource Planning b) Enterprise Resource Planning
c) Engineering Resource Planning d) Effective Resource Planning

29. Which of the following is not a benefit of 3D printing?

a) It is faster b) It is expensive c) It is cost-effective d) It takes a lot of time

30. Which among the following is not a term that can be associated with a smart
factory?
a) Automation b) Artificial intelligence c) Extremely labor intensive d) IIoT

31. Artificial Intelligence is about_____.

a. Playing a game on Computer
b. Making a machine Intelligent
c. Programming on Machine with your Own Intelligence
d. Putting your intelligence in Machine
32. Who is known as the -Father of AI"?
a. Fisher Ada
b. Alan Turing
c. John McCarthy
d. Allen Newell
33. The application/applications of Artificial Intelligence is/are
a. Expert Systems
b. Gaming
c. Vision Systems
d. All of the above
34. Which of the given language is not commonly used for AI?
a. LISP
b. PROLOG
c. Python
d. Perl
35. Ways to achieve AI in real-life are_________.
a. Machine Learning
b. Deep Learning
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
36. Which one of the following options can be considered as the Cloud?
a. Hadoop
b. Intranet
c. Web Applications
d. All of the mentioned
37. Cloud computing is a kind of abstraction which is based on the notion of combining
physical resources and represents them as _______resources to users.
a. Real
b. Cloud
c. Virtual
d. none of the mentioned
38. Which of the following has many features of that is now known as cloud computing?
a. Web Service
b. Softwares
c. All of the mentioned
d. Internet
39. Which of the following is an essential concept related to Cloud?
a. Reliability
b. Abstraction
c. Productivity
d. All of the mentioned
40. Which one of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon?
a. Azure
b. AWS
c. Cloudera
d. All of the mentioned
41. Which of the model involves the special types of services that users can access on a
Cloud computing platform?
a. Service
b. Planning
c. Deployment
d. Application
42. Which one of the following is related to the services provided by Cloud?
a. Sourcing
b. Ownership
c. Reliability
d. PaaS
43. Cloud computing architecture is a combination of?
a. service-oriented architecture and grid computing
b. Utility computing and event-driven architecture.
c. Service-oriented architecture and event-driven architecture.
d. Virtualization and event-driven architecture.
44. Which one of the following refers to the user's part of the Cloud computing system?
a. Back End
b.Management
c. Infrastructure
d.Front End
45. The term ______ refers to a Network or Internet.
A. Cloud Computing B. Cloud C. Computing D. CRM

46. Cloud Computing refers to?

A. accessing the hardware B. configuring the hardware
C. manipulating the hardware D. All of the above
47. Which of the following is true about cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing is platform dependent
B. Cloud Computing makes our business applications mobile and collaborative.
C. Cloud Computing provides us means of accessing the applications as utilities over
computer only.
D. All of the above

48. Which of the following are the working models for cloud computing?
A. Deployment Models B. Configuring Model
C. Collaborative Model D. All of the above

49. The ____________ allows systems and services to be accessible by a group of

organizations.
A. Private cloud B. Public cloud C. Community cloud D. Hybrid cloud

50. The __________ allows systems and services to be accessible within an organization.
A. Private cloud B. Public cloud C. Community cloud D. Hybrid cloud

51. Which of the following is a type of Service Models?

A. Public-as-a-Service B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Community-as-a-Service D. Public-as-a-Service

52. Which device is mostly associated with automation?

a) Flexible manufacturing b) robots c) computer graphics workstation
d) NC machine

53. Choose the basic element for an automated machine tool

a) Logic b) NC tape programming c) software d) workstation

54. Compared to humans, machines:

A. can make more complex decisions based on unexpected circumstances
B. can work in harsher environments
C. makes fewer errors
D. (a) and (c)
55. Robot is derived from Czech word
A Rabota B Robota C Rebota D Ribota

56. A Robot is a __________

A Programmable B Zeroeth pass C Both (A) and (B) D None of the above

57. The main objective(s) of Industrial robot is to

A To minimize the labor requirement B To increase productivity
C To enhance the life of production machines D All of the above

58. ___________ is true for a Robot and NC Machine

A different feedback system are used in both
B Similar power drive technology is used in both
C Programming is same for both
D All of the above

59. Drives are also known as

A Controller B Sensors C Manipulator D Actuators

60. Clockwise of Anti clockwise rotation about the vertical axis to the perpendicular
arm is provided through
A Shoulder swivel B Elbow extension C Arm sweep D Wrist bend

61. Radial movement (in & out) to the manipulator arm is provided by ____________
A Wrist bend B Wrist swivel C Wrist yaw D Elbow extension

62. Industrial Robots are generally designed to carry ________ is coordinate system(s).
A Cartesian coordinate systems B Polar coordinate systems
C Cylindrical coordinate system D All of the above

63. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
A. temperature B. pressure C. feedback D. signal

64. For a robot unit to be considered a functional industrial robot, typically, how many
degrees of freedom would the robot have?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
65. One of the leading American robotics centers is the Robotics Institute located at?
A. CMU B. MIT C. RAND D. SRI

66. Which of the following is not an essential component for construction of robots?
A. Power Supply B. Actuators C. Sensors D. Energy

67. Which of the following terms IS NOT one of the five basic parts of a robot?
A. peripheral tools B. end effectors C. controller D. drive

68. Which of the following is not application of Robotics?

A. Industries B. Military C. Medicine D. Hills

69. Name the component of robot which is used to contract almost 40% when air is
sucked in them.
A. Actuators B. Muscle Wires C. Pneumatic Air Muscles D. Sensors

70. A Robot is a
(A) Programmable (B) Multi functional manipulator (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

71. The main objective(s) of Industrial robot is to

(A) To minimize the labor requirement (B) To increase productivity
(C) To enhance the life of production machines (D) All of the above

72. Industrial Robots are generally designed to carry which of the following coordinate
system(s).
(A) Cartesian coordinate systems (B) Polar coordinate systems
(C) Cylindrical coordinate system (D) All of the above

73. Radial movement (in & out) to the manipulator arm is provided by
(A) Elbow extension (B) Wrist bend (C) Wrist swivel (D) Wrist yaw

74. Which of the following work is done by General purpose robot?

(A) Part picking (B) Welding (C) Spray painting (D) All of the above

75. The following drive is used for lighter class of Robot.

(A) Pneumatic drive (B) Hydraulic drive (C) Electric drive (D) All of the above
76. Which of the following is not a programming language for computer controlled
robot?
(A) AMU (B) VAL (C) RAIL (D) HELP

77. In which of the following operations Continuous Path System is used

(A) Pick and Place (B) Loading and Unloading
(C) Continuous welding (D) All of the above

78. What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
a) Temperature b) pressure c) feedback d) signal

79. Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm?
a) Swivel b) axle c) retrograde d) roll

80. What is the name for space inside which a robot unit operates?
a) Environment b) spatial base c) work envelope d) exclusion zone

81. Which of the following terms IS NOT one of the five basic parts of a robot?
a) Peripheral tools b) end effectors c) controller d) drive

82. The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm, and the end effectors of the
robot determines_________
a) Degrees of freedom b) payload capacity c) operational limits d) flexibility

83. For a robot unit to be considered a functional industrial robot, typically, how many
degrees of freedom would the robot have?
a) Three b) four c) six d) eight

84. Which of the basic parts of a robot unit would include the computer circuitry that
could be programmed to determine what the robot would do?
a) Sensor b) controller c) arm d) end effectors

85. The number of moveable joints in the base, the arm, and the end effectors of the
robot decides which of the following?
(A). operational limits (B). Payload capacity (C). Degrees of freedom (D). flexibility
86. Which of the following statement is correct about the implementation of robotic
systems?
(A). robotics could prevent a business from ending
(B). implementation of robots can create new jobs for a business
(C). implementation of robots can save existing jobs for a business
(D). All of these

87. Which of the following is not the advantage of a robotics implementation program?
(A). Quality of manufactured things can be better
(B). Robots work constantly around the clock
(C). Low costs for hardware and software
(D). Decreased company cost for worker fringe advantages

88. If a robot can change its own trajectory in response to external conditions, we can
say it?
(A). open loop (B). Mobile (C). Intelligent (D). non-servo

89. Which of the following terms refers to the rotational motion of a robot arm?
a) swivel b) axle c) retrograde d) roll

90. Which of the following is not functionality of robotics?

A: Re-programmability B: Multi-functionality C : Efficient performance
D: Responsibility
91. What is AGV
A: Automated guided Vehicle B : Automated grid Vehicle
C : Automated grid Van D : Automatic guided Vehica

92. A device that is used to detect event or changes in the environment is called
A : Sensor B : Middleware C : Actuator D : Transducer

93. SONAR is example of

A : Video sensing B : GPS C : Robot D : Machine
94. Which of the following is not advantage of robotics?
A : Greater flexibility and re-programmability
B : Greater response time to inputs than human
C : Greater unemployment
D : Improved product quality

95. Which of the following is the component of machine that is responsible for
controlling a mechanism system?
A : Sensor B : Middleware C : Actuator D : Transducer

96. A computer software that provide the services to software applications beyond those
available from the operating system is called
A : Sensor B : Middleware C : Actuator D : Transducer

97. Sensor based serving associate with

A : Robot pose B : Robot action C : Robot position D : Robat path

98. Why do the robot need sensor?

A : To collect information from environment
B : To map environment attribute to a quantitative measurement
C : only option 1 is true
D : Both option 1 and 2 are true

99. In an open loop control system

(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
(d) None of the above

100. For open control system which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
101. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the
output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semi closed loop system
(c) Open system
(d) None of the above

102. In open loop system

(a) The control action depends on the size of the system
(b) The control action depends on system variables
(c) The control action depends on the input signal
(d) The control action is independent of the output

103. A car is moving at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the
feedback element for the driver?
(a) Clutch (b) Eyes (c) Needle of the speedometer (d) Steering wheel

104. The initial response when tune output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response (b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response (d) Either of the above

105. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

(a) open (b) closed (c) partially closed (d) any of the above

106. ___ is a closed loop system.

(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft (b) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter (d) Electric switch

107. Zero initial condition for a system means

(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts
(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
108. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used?
(a) Error detector (b) Final control element (c) Sensor (d) Oscillator

109. In a control system the output of the controller is given to

(a) Final control element (b) amplifier (c) comparator (d) sensor

110. A controller, essentially, is a

(a) Sensor (b) clipper (c) comparator (d) amplifier

111. Which of the following is the not the ideal input to a controller?
(a) Servo signal (b) Desired variable value (c) Error signal (d) Sensed signal

112. Job shop and batch processing are differentiated on the basis of:
a) Job requirements b) Degree of standardization
c) Volume of output d) Both (b) and (c)

113. Automation is preferred because it:

a) Offers lesser dependence on workers b) Results in reduction in variable cost
c) Offers easy handling of repetitive work d) all of the given options

114. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning

and learning is known is
a. machine intelligence
b. human intelligence
c. artificial intelligence
d. virtual intelligence

115. Grippers are used to pick up light weight materials such as paper,cloth etc.
(a) Mechanical grippers (b) Adhesive grippers
(c) Vacuum cup grippers (d) Magnetic grippers
116. Sensors which are come in contact with some surface to measured desired
physical variable are known as____.
(a) Non-contact sensors (b) Proximity sensors
(c) Contact sensors (d) None of the above

117. From which of the following is known as contact sensor.

(a) Tactile sensor (b) Proximity sensor (c) Visual sensor (d) Range detector

118. From which of the following is robot programming language.

(a) VAL (b) AML (c) ABD (d) Both (A) & (B)

119. What is the full form of robot programming language VAL.

(a) Versatile Algorithmic Language (b) Versatile Alternative Language
(c) Vertex Algorithmic Language (d) Versatile Algebra Language

120. ___ Sensors are used to indicate presence or absence of hot objects.
(a) Vision sensors (b) Infrared sensors
(c) Photo-metric sensors (d) Range detectors

121. ____ Sensors are used to identify objects for pick and place purpose.
(a) Range detectors (b) Infrared sensors
(c) Vision sensors (d) Photo-metric sensors

122. Up and down motion along an axis known as ____ in robotics.

(a) Pitch (b) Roll (c) Yaw (d) None of the above

123. Circular motion along an axis is known as ____ in robotics.

(a) Pitch (b) Roll (c) Yaw (d) None of the above

124. From which of the following is selection criteria of robots.

(a) Payload (b) Work volume (c) Speed (d) All of the above

125. From which of the following is type of gripper used in robotics.

(a) Mechanical gripper (b) Adhesive gripper
(c) Both (A) & (B) (d) None of the above
126. From which of the following is robot programming method.
(a) Manual method (b) Lead through method
(c) Walk through method (d) All of the above

127. Sensors in which there is no need to contact the surface to measure the
parameter or any variables are known as the ____.
(a) Tactile sensors (b) Touch sensors
(c) Non-contact sensors (d) Force sensors

128. From which of the following is the function of sensors.

(a) Inspection of parts to determine its position (b) To hold the parts
(c) To move the parts (d) none of the above

129. Which of the following is least important in design during rapid prototyping?
(a) Machine size (b) Tolerance (c) Material (d) CAD software

130. In 4D printing, which one is the fourth dimension?

(a) Time (b) Material (c) Sound (d) Light

131. In Fused Deposition Modelling, the raw material is used in the form of _____.
a. wax
b. wire
c. powder
d. all the above mentioned

132. Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies, which
one is the most widely used?
a. Ballistic particle manufacturing
b. Selective laser sintering
c. Solid ground curing
d. Stereo lithography
133. A computer model of a part design on a CAD system is called which of the
following?
a. Computer Prototype
b. Geometric Prototype
c. Solid Prototype
d. Virtual Prototype
134. Which one of the following rapid prototyping processes uses a photosensitive
liquid polymer as the starting material?
a. Droplet Deposition Manufacturing
b. Used-Deposition Modeling
c. Laminated-Object Manufacturing

d. Stereo lithography
135. Which of the following is NOT the color binder of a 3D Printer?
a. Cyan b.Black c. Magenta d.Yellow

136. Which CAD software cannot be used to create data for the prototyping
machine?
a. CREO
b. CATIA
c. NX Unigraphics

d. Adobe Illustrator
 Chapter 4 – Energy Management & Audit

1. What is Steps for CUSUM analysis?

a. Plot the energy. b. Draw the best fit straight line.
c. Compute CUSUM. d. All of the above
2. What is toe?
a. tones of oil equivalent b. tones of air equivalent.
c. tones of water equivalent d. None of the above.
3. What is Eact?
a. Actual water consumption b. Actual energy consumption
c. Both a-b d. None of the above.
4. CUSUM technique is.
a. Simple b. remarkable powerful statistical method
c. Both a-b d. None of the above.
5. What CUSUM calculate.
a. saving/losses b. saving/saving
c. losses/losses d. None of the above.
6. Production data were collected for a plant over a period of……… month.
a. 15 b. 20 c. 22 d. 18.
7. Heat recovery system was installed during ……. Month.
a. 7 b. 9 c. 6 d. 10

8. BEE stands for _______

a.Bureau of Energy Effectiveness b.Board of Environmental Efficiency
c.Bureau of Energy Efficiency d.Board of Energy Efficiency

9. _______ are used for describing the energy performance of manufactured products
a.Standards b.Labels c.Standards & Labels d.None of these

10. Appliance 1 = 3 Star Rating and, Appliance 2 = 5 Star Rating. _______ will save
maximum energy
 a. Appliance 1 b.Appliance 2 c.Both d.None of these

11. _______ is included in BEE’s Star Labeling Program

a.LPG Stove b.Computer c.Microwave Oven d.Frost-free Refrigerator

12. Air Conditioner having 5 Star rating in 2015 will have _______Star Rating in 2016.
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4

13. Energy Monitoring & Targeting helps in reducing annual energy costs in various
industrial sectors by _____
a.1 % b. 2 % to 10 % c.4 % to 15 % d.5 % to 20 %
to 2 %

14. _______ aims at identification of energy consumption level which is desirable for
energy conservation.
a. Energy monitoring b.Energy targeting c.Recording d.Controlling
15. ______ is the best method for representing individual consumption of a number of
fuels in percentage.
a. Pie Chart b.Bar Chart c.CUSUM Technique d.None of these
16. SEC stands for _______
a. Sustainable Energy Council b.Specific Energy Consumption
C.Sustainable Energy Consumption d.Specific Energy Council
17. Co-relating energy consumption to a measured output like production quantity is
the function of
a. Recording b.Analyzing c.Comparing d.Monitoring
18. 2 kg of Furnace oil will generate ______ kcal
a.1000 b.10, 200 c.2000 d.20, 400
19. Energy consumed for a period = C + (M * Production for the same period). M
stands for
a. Fixed Energy Consumption
B.Variable Energy Consumption
c.Both, fixed and variable energy consumption
d.No energy consumption
20. In a CUSUM technique chart, if energy consumption is less than the baseline, it
shows that the _______
a.Performance is good b.Performance is bad
c.Performance is very poor d.Performance is zero
21. CUSUM technique: Total savings = 65, percentage savings = 3.7 %. Actual energy
consumption will be _______
a.240.5 b.17.567 c.1756.75 d.2405
22. CUSUM technique is _______ technique
a. Analytical b.Graphical c.Exponential d.None of these
23. In the graph of Energy vs Production, a high degree of scatter with respect to the
trend-line indicates that _______
a.There is a scope for energy savings b.There is no scope for energy savings
c.Energy savings are highest d.The graph is wrongly plotted
24. Equation of trend line is Ecalc = 0.2 P + 150, Eact= 400, Ecalc= 248, P = _______
a.300 b.380 c.490 d.520
25. In an industry, _______ has the best potential for cost savings.
a.Energy b.Labour c.Materials d.All of these
26. The inspection, survey and analysis of energy flows for energy conservation in a
building is called as _______
a. Energy Management b.Energy Efficiency
C.Energy Audit d.Energy Output
27. If specific results for energy efficiency improvement are required, ______ energy
audit will be the best choice.
a. Preliminary b.Detailed c.Targeted d.All of these
28. Detailed Energy Audit generally requires
a.1 to 10 weeks b.1 to 3 days c.1 to 3 weeks d.1 to 10 days
29. If readily available data is used, the energy audit performed is _______
a.PEA b.DEA c.TEA d.All of these
30. A company has 10 machines. During energy audit, only 3 machines are considered.
It is ______ energy audit.
a.Preliminary b.Detailed c.Targeted d.All of these
31. Conserving and optimizing energy use for getting more production output and
saving money is called as _______
a. Energy Conservation b.Energy Efficiency
C.Energy Audit d.Energy Management
32. Energy can be conserved in HVAC systems by _______
a.Using air-cooled condensers b.Maximizing fan speeds
b.Using water-cooled condensers d.Maximizing heat losses
33. Use of a highly efficient machine is _______
a.Using energy more efficiently b.Using energy less efficiently
c.Reducing amount of energy used d.Increasing amount of energy used
34. To reduce pollution, soft coke should be replaced by _________
a.Petrol b.Kerosene & LPG c.Diesel d.LDO
35. Plant Energy Performance (PEP) compares
a. Energy performance of current & reference year
b. Energy Audit of current & reference year
c. Production of current & reference year
d. Production of current & future years
36. If the temperature inside a furnace is to be measured, ______ will be the most
suitable instrument.
a. Contact type Thermometer b.Laser Tachometer
C.Combustion Analyzer d.Infrared Thermometer
37. Energy audit is a kind of scientific management method of ……
a) Energy b) Power c) Force d) Fuel
38. Energy audit is conducted by……..
a) Government b) Company c) Energy utilization unit d) Auditor
39. Energy audit refers to the……..
a) Inspecting b) Examining c) Analyzing d) All of the above
40. The targets of energy audit are….
a) Investigating problem b) Rectifying problem
c) Analyzing problem d) None of the above
41. The ultimate aim of energy audit is to encourage enterprises to…….
a) Save energy b) Reduce production cost
c) Increase economic benefit d) All of the above
42. During an audit and expert examines the facility for….
a) Energy leakage b) Reduction c) Energy conservation d) None of the above
43. Energy audit is an assessment of…….
a) How much energy a facility consumes b) How much money of facility consumes
c) Cost of the facility d) Size of the facility
44. According to……………… ―energy audit‖ means verification, monitoring, analysis
of use of energy including submission of technical report containing
recommendations for improving energy efficiency with cost benefit analysis and an
action plan to reduce energy consumption.
a) Energy conservation act 2001 b) Industrial act 1946
c) Factory act 1947 d) none of act
45. Energy audit can also save you significant amount of money by………..
a) Maximum energy efficiency b) Minimum energy efficiency
c) None of the above d) All of the above
46. The strategy of adjusting and optimising energy using systems and procedures so as
to reduce energy requirements per unit of output while holding constant or reducing
total cost of producing the output from the systems is………….
a) Energy Management b) Energy audit c) Energy utilization d) Energy wastage
47. The fundamental goal of energy management is to ______
a. Produce goods and provide services with least cost and least environmental
effects
b. Produce goods and provide services with more cost and more environmental
effects
c. Produce goods and provide services with No cost and no environmental effects
d. All of the above

48. Definition of energy management given by cape hart , turner and Kennedy is ____
a. The Judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits and enhance
competitive position.
b. The Judicious and effective use of energy to minimize profits and enhance
competitive position.
c. The systematic approach for decision making in area of energy management.
d. All of the above
49. The objective of energy management is ____
a. To achieve and maintain optimum energy procurement and utilization throughout
the organization
b. To minimize the energy cost without affecting production and quality
c. To minimize the environmental effects
d. All of the above
50. The systematic approach for decision making in area of energy management is ___
A. Energy audit C. Energy effect
B. Energy savings D. All of the above
51. The form of implementing the new energy efficiency technologies, new materials
and new manufacturing process is ____________
A. Energy management C. Energy savings
B. Energy audit D. All of the above
52. The major inputs for the economic development of any country is ____
A. Energy C. Energy management
B. Energy audit D. Energy saving
53. To balance the total energy inputs with its use which , serves to identify all the
energy streams in a faculty is __
A. Energy management B. Energy saving C. Energy audit D. Energy
54. In the case of developing country which sector assumes a critical importance in view
of the ever increasing needs
A. Energy sector C. Energy audit sector
B. Energy management sector D. Energy saving sector
55. The ultimate aim to encourage the enterprise to save the energy, reduce the
production cost and increase economic benefits is ____
A. Energy audit C. Energy saving
B. Energy management D. Energy
56. Full form of BEE
a. Bureau of energy efficient b. Basic electrical and electronics
c. Basic thermal engineering d. None of the above.
57. BEE under the provisions of the act _______.
A. 2000 B) 2001 C). 2002 D) 1999
58. The standards and labeling scheme lunched in _______
A) May 2006 B) march 2006 C) Feb 2005 D) June 2006
59. A star rating, ranging from ________ in the ascending order of energy efficiency.
A) 1 to 4. B) 1 to 5 C) 1 to 6. D) 1 to 10
60. The informative labels affixed _______.
A) Product. B) Equipment C) tool. D) Machine.
61. _________ has been formulated by Bureau of energy efficient.
A) Star labeling program. B) Computer program
C) Ranking program. D) None of the above.
62. BEE is under of ministry of _________.
A) Health. B) Defense C) power. D) all of the above.
63. HVAC stands for __________.
A) Heating, ventilation, air conditioning B) height, velocity, area
C) all of the above. D) None of the above.
64. The Prohibit manufacturers sale and import such equipment _______________.
A) Which is confirm to the standard B) which does not conform to the
standard
C) Which is rejected? D) None of the above.
65. S&L stands for __________.
A) Sale and lost. B) Standard and labeling.
C) None of the above. D) All of the above.
66. _________ is a level of quality or attainment.
A) Standards C) monitoring energy B) Labels D) none of the above.
67. __________ mainly give consumers the necessary information to make informed
purchase.
A) Energy management B) label C) Standards D) energy efficiency
68. The ratio of the total amount of heat that equipment can remove from the indoors to
travel and amount of energy consumed by the equipment is known as
A) Energy performance ratio (EPR). C) Energy Efficiency Ratio
(EER).
B) Energy consumption ratio (ECR). D) None of the above
69. ___________ is the minimum EER for 5-star in India in 2019.
A) 4.50 B) 4.00 C) 7.10 D) 4.49

70. Allow consumer to compare the energy consumption of similar products and factor
life time running cost into their purchasing decision is called as
A) Comparative label C) category label
B) Endorsement label D) none of the above

71. Provide a certification to inform prospective purchasers that the product is highly
energy efficient for its category is known as.
A) Comparative label C) category label
B) Endorsement label D) none of the above
72. One time registration fee of rupees 1, 00,000 for large-scale and Rs _________ for
small scale industry.
A. 30,000 B. 15,000 C. 25,000 D. 28,000
73. S.S.I. stands for _________
A. Small scale industry C. Scanner scale industry
B. Scalar scale industry D. None of the above
74. Quality management system certificate has __________
A. ISO 9001. B. ISO 9005 C. ISO 9004. D. ISO 9006
75. Agreement between BEE and user of label should be done on ₹ 100 _________
stamp paper.
A. Judicial stamp paper. C. Court fee stamp paper
B. Non judicial paper D. Normal fee paper
76. For each product under S&L scheme, BEE should upload the information on the
____ web portal
A. Government B. S&L web portal C. Small scale web D. Private portal
77. The registration for BEE is done in _______ stage
A. Three stage. B. Four stage C. Two stage. D. Single stage
78. The models applied to BEE should highlighted in the endorsement __________ sheet
A. Endorsement B. Blank C. General. D. None of above
79. ………… are provided to the major kind of appliances in the form of labels.
A) Graphic data. B) Star rating C) Star labeling. D) all of the above.
80. Star rating is given out of …………..
A) 3. B) 4 C) 5. D) 6.
81. Prime importance of star rating is ……………….. to consumer about how the
energy efficient each product is.
A) Educate. B) Inform C) Indicate. D) Educate and inform.
82. BEE star rating is solely based on appliance's power..................
A) Consumption. B) Delivery. C) Recovery. D) Rejection.
83. Appliances need to have BEE star rating label are……
A) Frost free refrigerator. C) Color TV
B) Distribution Transformer. D) All of the above.
84. Small label can be found in plants which usually don‘t consume ……….. energy.
A) Less. B) More C) Medium. D) None of the above
85. Follow product has big label.
A) Ceiling fan. B) Tube light C) Computer. D) Refrigerator
86. Higher the number stars, EER or efficiency will be.
A. Greater B. Lesser C. Moderate D. None of the above
87. EER in BTU/HR/W = ______ X EER in W/W
A. 3.410 B. 3.411 C. 3.412 D. 3.413
88. Energy Efficiency Ratio is Equal
a. Cooling Capacity (W) + Power consumption (W)
b. Cooling Capacity (W) - Power consumption (W)
c. Cooling Capacity (W) / Power consumption (W)
d. Cooling Capacity (W) X Power consumption (W)
89. Number of stars in Red background indicates _____
a. The rating granted to that shop
b. The rating granted to that company
c. The rating granted to that particular model
d. The rating granted to that group
90. Full form of ISEER is ______
a. Indian seasonal electric efficiency ratio
b. Indian seasonal efficiency energy ratio
c. International seasonal efficiency energy ratio
d. Indian seasonal energy efficiency ratio

91. Power saving guide label is stickled on_______

A. Internal parts of AC C. On condenser and compressor
B. External cover of AC D. On back cover of AC

92. If we take the number above, we can see that with increase of energy star rating
there is a possibility of saving up to ________.
A.14% B.15-20% C.35% D. 30%
93. In comparison an inverter tech AC being flexible tonnage AC can save more
over_________star AC.
A.BEE3 B. BEE1 C.BEE5 D. BEE4
94. In inverter tech AC some manufactures claim up to saving____________.
A. 50% B. 60% C.20% D.80%
95. 5Star air conditioner will provide the same amount of cooling using ___________
power than 1 star air conditioner of same tonnage.
A. Lesser c) more
B. Equal d) all of the above
96. Star rating is provided to all the major kind of appliance in the form of
_____________.
A. Label c) stamp
B. Punching d) sticker
97. Each and every document submitted to BEE must be ………and ………….
A. verified and authorized C. sign and stamp
B. registered and uploaded D. verified and uploaded
98. ……………… documents are not accepted as per general guideline of company
registration.
A. without proper filling and loosing C. folded or improper
B. Both A and B D. None of above
99. Covering letter include….....................
A. Annexure 1A and 2A C. Annexure 1 and report
B. Annexure 1 and 2 D. None of above
100. If small scale industry applying for registration first time required
……………..certificate
A. BIS B. SSI
B. Both A and B D. None of above
101. Model registration fee for each model is
1000 3000 2000 4000
102. Full form of NABL
o National athletic basketball league
o National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
o National Accreditation Board limited
o National athletic baseball league
103. Energy audit is the first step towards systematic effort for _____________.
A. Relating energy inputs and production. C) Conversation of energy.
B. Reducing the amount of energy input. D) None of the above.

104. The _________ audit is the simplest and quickest thpe of audit.
A. Primary audit. C) Tertiary audit.
B. Secondary audit. D) Preliminary audit.

105. The S & L activity has been identified as a key activity for energy efficiency
improvement which stands for
a. Standards & Listening.
b. Standards & Labeling.
c. Standards & Logistics.
d. Standards & Lateral.

106. The Model Registration fee for each model is _________ & payment can be
made through ____.
 1500rs & only bank DD.
 1000rs & bank DD or through online.
 10,000rs & only through online.
 None of the above.

107. The energy used by any business varies with ______ processes.
a. Input b) Volumes
b. Production. d) All of the above
108. Future energy use is likely to vary if you change____ of your business
a. Labour. b) Funds
b. Aspects d) Efficiency
109. Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of
a. Production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption‖
b. Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate‖
c. You cannot manage what you do not measure‖
d. None of the above.
110. Poor scattering on trend line of production Vs Energy consumption indicates
a. poor level of control
b. good level of control
c. both the above
d. none of above.
111. Energy and production data is useful to calculate……
a. Specific Energy Consumption
b. Specific Fuel consumption
c. Specific Cost
d. None
112. Data required to plot a moving annual total is ____.
a. Production
b. Energy
c. Both a and b
d. None the above
113. The best way of correlating production and energy data in any plant is…..
a. Text format
b. Graphical representation
c. Oral communication
d. None
114. To draw a CUSUM chart following data is required
a. Monthly energy consumption& monthly production
b. Monthly specific energy consumption and turn over
c. Monthly profits and production
d. None
115. One of the following is not the element of energy monitoring & targeting
system
a. Recording the energy consumption
b. Comparing the energy consumption
c. Controlling the energy consumption
d. Reducing the production
116. M&T techniques rely on the ………… main principles.
two three one. six
117. Energy monitoring and targeting is ………….
a. primary management techniques
b. secondary management techniques
c. tertiary management techniques
d. None
118. As per pie chart on energy consumption the supply unit of the electricity
is………..
kWh kV kg. Watts
119. What type of data is useful to find out the fixed energy consumption?
a. SEC Vs production
b. SEC Vs Energy
c. Production Vs energy
d. None
120. __________ is primarily a management technique that uses energy
information as a basis to eliminate waste, reduce and control current level of energy
use and improve the existing operating procedures.
a. Energy monitoring and targeting
b. CUSUM
 c. Specific energy consumption
d. Production

121. _________is essentially aimed at preserving an established pattern.

a. Targeting
b. Analysing
c. Monitoring
d. recording

122. __________is the identification of energy consumption level, which is

desirable as a management objective to work towards energy conservation
a. Recording
b. Targeting
c. Analysing
d. Monitoring
123. Which instrument is used to monitor O2, CO in flue gas?
a. Combustion analyzer c) Pyrometer
b. Power analyzer d) Fyrite
124. Lux meter is used to measure……
a. Illumination level c) Harmonics
b. Sound intensity and illumination level d) Speed

125. The various types of instruments required during audit is not need to be….
a. Easy to carry
b. Inexpensive
c. Easy to operate
d. Unreadable
126. Find out the odd among the following choices for fuel substitution for
industrial sector of India.
a. LDO with LSHS
b. Coal with rice husk
c. Natural gas for fertilizer plant
d. LPG for soft coke
127. ________ are portable devices capable of estimating the combusting
efficiency of furnaces, boilers, or other fossil fuel burning machines.
a. Sound analyzer.
b. Light analyzer.
c. Combustion analyzer.
d. Temperature analyzer.

128. _____________ is the measure of whether a plant is now using more or less
energy to manufacture its product than it did in the past.
a. Total Dissolved Solids (TDS)
b. Plant Energy Performance (PEP)
c. Revolutions Per Minute (RPM)
d. Option (a) and (b)
Chapter 5 – Agriculture Equipments & Post Harvesting Technology

1. The speed of the spikes is........ Plant mass.

a. Greater than b. Lower than c. Equal d.None of these.
2. In thresher thee material layer is struck several times by …….
a. Spikes b.Ribs c.Both a & b d.None of these.
3. The vibration amplitudes decrease where as the speed of the layer……
a.Increases b.Decreases c.Remains same d.None of these.
4. In power Thresher the adjustment necessary to get best performance from the machine
are ….
a. a. Concave clearance b. Sieve clearance c. Sieve Slope d.All of the above.
5. …..type of thresher consists of beaters mounted on a shaft which rotates inside a closed
casing & concave.
a. Dummy Type b.Hammer mill type c.Spike-toothtype d.Raspbar type
6. Which type of thresher provided with aspirator type blower & sieve shaker assembly
for cleaning grains?

a.Wire-loop type b.Axial flow type c.Hammer mill type d.None of these.

7. Spike-tooth type thresher provided with ….

a.Cleaning Sieves b.Shaft c.Aspirator type blower d.Both a & c.

8. …………system is provided with blower fan &straw walker in….. Type of thresher.
a.Cleaning ,Raspbar b.Seperating,Dummy
c. Cooling, Syndicator d.None of these.

9. Factors affecting thresher performance….

a.Crop factors b.Machine factors c.Operational factors d All of the above.

10. Machine factors consist of …

a. Feeding chute angle b.Cylinder type
C.Cylinder diameter d.All of the above.
11. Combine is a machine designed for ….
a.Harvesting b.Threshing c.Separating d.All of the above.

12. Main functions of Combine…

a.Cutting the standing crops b.Feeding the cut crops to threshing unit
c. Threshing the crops d.All of the above.

13. Small combines use ……type headers, while …….combines uses T-type headers with
augur tables.

a.Scoop, Large b.Loop, Small c.Mill, Medium d.None of these.

14. Harvesting is done by…unit.

Separating b.Cleaning c.Cutting d.None of these.

15. The reel in Combine machine is made up of …

a.Wood b.Metal c.Plastic d.Glass

16. The reel gets power through ……..in Combine machine.

a.Gears b.Shafts c.Pulley d.Both a & b.

17. Post harvesting technology is …….

a.Inter-disciplinary b.Science & Technique
c. Both a & b d.None of these.

18. Post harvesting technology produce after harvest for it’s….

a.Protection b.Conservation c.Processing d.All of the above.

19. The production of tractors and power tillers started in …….

a. 1950
b. 1940
c. 1960
d. 2001
20. The following is not a farm machinery
a. Combine harvester
b. Power tiller
c. Fresher
21. Dumper trucks Farm mechanization has helped in……….. of agriculture from
conventional to commercial crops
a. Transformation
b. Diversification
c. Transport
d. None of the above
22. The leading manufacturer of farm equipment or agriculture equipment it in India are
a. Mahindra and Mahindra
b. Sonalika
c. Force
d. All of the above
23. Mechanization in India at various levels can be done in following ways…
a. by introducing the improved agricultural implements on small scale holding to be
operated by bullocks.
b. by using small tractors, tractor drawn machines and power tillers on medium
holdings to supplement source.
c. by using large scale tractor and machines on remaining holding to supplement
animal power source.
d. All of the above
24. The step towards development of an appropriate agricultural technique in india is
working towards the motto of saving.........
a. labour c) cost
b. surplus labour d) all of the above
25. Indian agriculture is undergoing a graduals shift from dependence on human power
and animal power to.........
a. mechanical power c) solar power
b. thermal power d) all of the above
26. The machinery which enables the farmers to raise a second crop or multi crop
attractive and way of life by becoming a commercial subsistence is….
a. efficient machinery c) agriculture machinery
b. affective machinery d) all of the above
27. At present the farm power availability as per hectare is….
a. 1.84KW/ HA c) 1.85KW/HA
b. 2.04KW/ HA d) 2.06KW/ HA
28. Benefits of mechanization of agriculture are…..
a. it increases production c) low cost of work
b. it increases efficiency d) all of the above
29. Need of farm mechanization is to...
a. for timely operations of agriculture activities
b. to increase the production and productivity of food grains.
c. Efficient utilization of inputs, water and other natural resources.
d. all of the above
30. Advantages of mechanisation are.....
a. Substitute for labor. c) amenity reasons
b. attract or retain farm staff d) all of the above
31. Agriculture machinery can be divided into following groups they are....
a. farm machinery c) drain engineering
b. irrigation engineering d) all of the above
32. Agricultural in India is ____________ characteristics.
a. Important. C) unique
b.Base. D) None of the above.
33. The extant of area under the command of draught animals is about ______.
a. 51% C) 50%
b.49% D) 57%
34. The traditional processing equipment used by Farmers includes _________.
a. Supa. C) Chalni
b.Chakiya. D) All of the above.
35. Cocking need of villages is mostly met by the burning of ________.
a. Biomass. C) Hydroelectric
b.Crude oil. D) Neutral gas.
36. Farmers also adopted sprinkler system for ________ purpose.
A. Commercial. C) Domestic
B. Industrial. D) All of the above.
37. A general-purpose or row-crop tractor is _____ machines
A. Single use C. Both A & B
B. Universal D. None of Above
38. The most common use of the term "tractor" is for the vehicles used on _____
A. Farm C. Medicinal Purpose
B. Production Industry D. None of above
39. A ________ is a track-type tractor with a blade attached in the front
A. Car C. Bulldozer
B. Truck D. Buses
40. A compact utility tractor (CUT) is a _______ version of an agricultural tractor
A. Smaller C. Medium
B. Larger D. Extreme
41. The earliest tractors were called "_______" tractors
A. Basic C. Common
B. Standard D. Moderate
42. The most common variation of the classic farm tractor is the _____
A. HOE C. TOE
B. BOE D. None of Above

43. Farm tractor hoe is also called as a ________

A. Hoe remover C. Hoe weight loader
B. Hoe Loader D. Hoe Weight remover
44. The most common type of equipment used in farms include balers, plows, mowers and
______
A. Tractor. C. Car
B. Cycle. D. All of above
45. Power tiller is also known as the hand tractor or ________
A. Standing C. Clearing
B. Walking type D. Running type
46. A tractor is an engineering vehicle specifically designed to deliver a high torque at_____
speeds
A. High C. Slow
B. Extreme High D. Medium
47. The word tractor was taken from _____
A. French B. Sanskrit
B. Latin D. Japanese
48. Tractors can be generally classified by number of _____ or wheels
A. Axles C. Single Wheel
B. Double wheel D. None of above
49. Tillage is normally classified as ……………….tillage.
A. Primary. C) Primary or secondary
B. Secondary. D) Tertiary
50. ……………… purpose of the tillage is to restrict water movement from the surface
layers.
A. Primary. C) Secondary
B. Primary or secondary. D) Tertiary.
51. Primary purpose is to restrict ……………. movement from the surface layers.
A. Air. C) Sunlight.
B. Water. D) Dust.
52. Primary tillage is the ……………. soil tillage after the last harvest.
A. First. C) Second
B. Third. D) Fourth
53. When there is sufficient power available some soil types are ploughed …………
A. Wet. C) Dry
B. Moisture. D) None of the above.
54. In clay soils, the fields often have to be fully saturated …………tillage can be
undertaken.
A. Before. C) After
B. Beginning. D) Middle.
55. In lighter texture soils such as ………………, tillage can be undertaken at moisture
levels below field capacity.
A. Loam. C) Loam or sand
B. Sand. D) Non of the above
56. The disc is usually the preferred system as it takes …………. and can handle obstacles
much easier.
A. Less power. C) More power
B. Moderate power. D) None of the above.
57. . ……. plows are rows of concave steel discs that revolve as they are pulled.
A. Disk. C) Chisel
B. Tined. D) Sub soiling
58. _________ is not a secondary tillage tool
A. Disc plough C. Mould board
B. Disc harrow D. None of the above
59. Power tillers operate most satisfactory with?
A. Rotary tillage C. Plough
B. Transport carts D. Reapers
60. Vertical section of plough influences
A. Pulverization C. Width of cut
B. Depth of cut D. Direction of pull
61. Following is not a hand tool
A. Mould board C. Shovel
B. Spade D. Momaunty
62. ________plough is used to break through and shatter compacted or otherwise
impermeable soil layers.
A. Disc plough C. Chisel plough
B. Sub-soil plough D. None of the above
63. Finner operation performed for seedbed preparation is :-
A. Primary tillage C. Strip tillage
B. Secondary tillage D. Rotary tillage
64. _______ are the primary tillage implements.
A. Chisel plough and sub soiler C. Disc plough and disc harrow
B. Chisel plough and disc harrow D. Leveler and clad crusher
65. Ploughing is done to :-
A. Improve soil aeration C. Increase water holding capacity
B. Destroy weeds D. All are correct
66. Jointer and coulter are the parts of :-
A. Disc plough C. Indigenous plough
B. Harrow plough D. MB plough
67. Standard disc plough diameter size is ______
A. 40 to 60 cm C. 70 to 90 cm
B. 60 to 90 cm D. 50 to 70 cm
68. The power tillage is most suitable for:
A. Stationary operation c) Deep ploughing
B. Rotary operation d) All are correct
69. A Vertical disc plough is also termed as:
a. Wheat plough c) Harrow plough
b. Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
70. In disc harrow, the penetration of disc improves by:
a. Increasing disc angle c) Lowering hitch point
b. Regulating optimum speed d) All are correct
71. The gang angle of disc harrow is adjusted in the range of:
a. 0-30 c) 30-60
b. 60-90 d) Above 90
72. __________ is not a tractor drawn tillage tool:
a. Cultivator c) Augar plough
b. Harrow d) Plank
73. ___________ farming is a replacement of human and animal power by mechanical
power for different farm operation:
a. Mechanized farming c) Mixed farming
b. Both of these b) None of these
74. An implement that pulled and guided by single hitch point of a tractor is:
a. Trailed implement c) Mounted implement
b. Semi mounted implements d) All are correct
75. The plough bottom as combined unit consist of:
a. None of these c) Coulter , jointer and frog
b. Beam , handle and MB d) Share, landside , frog and MB
76. The draft requirement in MB plough compared to disc plough for same depth of
ploughing is:
a. Less c) More
b. Equal d) None of these
77. The hitching of plough is done by placing the plough:
a. Few centimeter below ground level c) Few centimeter above ground level
b. On the ground level d) None of these
78. The seed rate required in broadcasting method in comparison to drilling is:
A. More B. Less
B. Equal D. All are correct
79. The dibbling is mostly used for sowing:
A. Cereal grains B. Vegetables
B. Plantation crop D. All are correct
80. The dropping of seeds in furrow lines in continuous flow is:
A. Drilling B. Planting
B. Dibbling D. Hill dropping
81. Dibbler is a:
A. Seed drill B. Planter
B. Trans planter D. None of these
82. The equipment used for dropping seeds in a continuous stream and the spacing between
plant to plant in a row is not constant is:
A. Seed drill B. Planter
B. Trans planter D. All are correct
83. The method of planting in which row-to-row as well as plant-to-plant distance is
uniform is:
A. Drilling B. Hill dropping
B. Check row planting D. All are correct
84. The precision planter is:
A. Seed drill B. Broadcaster
B. Dibbler D. Dofaan
85. Seed drill is used for sowing:
A. Small seeds B. Bolder seeds
B. Seedlings D. Plants
86. Planters are used for sowing:
A. Small seeds B. Bolder seeds
B. Seedlings D. Plants
87. The dibbling method of sowing reduces seed rate by:
A. 1/2nd B. 1/3rd
B. 1/5th D. 2/3rd
88. Solar energy in India can be used for ____________number of days.
a. 365 b) 200
b. 100 d) 150
89. Production of tractors, motor, engines and process equipment is domain of organized
a. Unorganized sector b) Organized sector
b. Both of the above d) None of above
90. The extent of area under the command of draught animals is about
a. 55% b) 54%
b. 57% d) 60%
91. __________gas is the mixture mainly consisting of carbon monoxide and hydrogen in
specially designed apparatus.
a. CNG b) LPG
b. Biomass d) None of the above
92. Anaerobic fermentation of animal excreta leads to generation of
a. Petrol b) Diesel
b. Natural gas d) Methane
93. cooking needs of the village are mostly met by the burning of
a. Biomass b) Petrol
b. Diesel d) None of the above
94. Mechanization helps in_______
a. Dairying b) Fisheries
b. Animal husbandry d) All of the above
95. The level of farm mechanization in __________is 90%
a. US b) China
b. Brazil d) Japan
96. The level of farm mechanization in _______________is 75%
a. US b) China
b. Brazil d) Japan
97. The level of farm mechanization in ____________is 57%
a. US b) China
b. Brazil d) Japan
98. Use of improved implements has potential to increase productivity up to______
a)10% b) 30% c)20% d) 15%
99. Use of improved implements has potential to reduce the cost of cultivation up to_______
a)10% b) 30% c)20% d) 15%
100. __________seeding and planting operation are mechanized in India
a. 40% c) 60%
b. 37% d)29%
101. ____________ operation are mechanized in India
a. seeding and planting b) soil working
b. irrigation d) plant protection
102. ____________ seed bed preparation are mechanized in India
a. 40% c) 60%
b. 37% d) 29%
103. ____________plant protection operation are mechanized in India
a. 40% c) 34%
b. 37% d) 29%
104. Tractor is an important machine used for .......mechanization.
A. Factory B) Farm
B. Industrial D) Commercial
105. ..........models of tractor are being produce in India in different HP ranges.
A. 39 B) 40
B. 50 D) 45
106. More than___________farmers depend upon animal drawn implements.
A. 50% B) 60%
B. 45% D) 80%
107. Use of improved implements has potential to ______productivity up to 30% and
reduce the cost of cultivation up to 20%
A. Increase B) Decrease
B. Improve D) Up
108. Though agriculture contribute only 17.4 % to the country's gross value added for
the year....
A. 15.4% B) 17.4%
B. 18.4% D) 20.4
109. History indicates that the process of mechanization is ......with no ultimate goal in
sight.
A. Dynamic B) Motion
B. Statics D) None of the above
110. ._____ is a self-propelled power unit having wheels for tracks for operating
agriculture implements and machines including trailers.
A. Car B) Tractor
B. Motorcycle D) Truck
111. Most grain and seed crops are harvested with combined harvest threshers,
commonly known as.....
A. Combines B) Different
B. Crops D) None of above
112. Tractor is a ______ power unit.
A. Self-propelled. C. Propelled
B. Impelled D. None of the above
113. Tractor engine is used as____
A. General purpose C. Special purpose
B. Prime mover. D. None of the above
114. ._______tractor is used for major operation such as ploughing, harrowing, sowing,
harvesting and transporting work.
A. Row crop Tractor C. Special purpose tractor
B. Crawler tractor D. General purpose tractor.
115. A tractor with fewer wheels Base, higher ground clearance may work successful in
which soil
A. Heavier C. Black cotton soil
B. Wet soil D. Lighter soil
116. Tractors with less specific fuel consumption should be preferred because.....
A. High efficiency C. Good output
B. Good for field D. Less cost.
117. _________ is the prime mover in which the direction of travel and its control for
field operation is performed by the operator walking behind it.
A. Power tiller C. Tillage
B. Disc plough D. Rotary tiller
118. The concept of power tillage came in the world in the year _________.
A. 1910 C. 1920
B. 1945 D. 1932
119. ________ is the first country to use power tiller on large scale.
A. India C. China.
B. Japan D. Nepal.
120. Power tiller was first introduced in India in the year _______.
A. 1963 C. 1953
B. 1950 D. 1945
121. Power miller may be called a ______________ walking type tractor.
A. Double axle C. Single axle
B. Triple axle D. None of the above
122. ___________ is pulled and guided from single hitch point but its weight is not
supported by the tractor.
A. Trailed type implement C. Semi mounted type implemented
B. Mounted type implemented D. Automatic implemented
123. For operation of power tiller, the power is obtained from the ________.
A. Batteries C. IC engine
B. SI engine D. All of the above
124. ________ is the mechanical manipulation of soil to provide favorable condition for
crop production.
A. Power tiller C. Rotary tiller
B. Tillage D. Disc plough
125. _______ is used to transmit power from the engine to the main clutch.
A. V-Belt C. open belt drive
B. cross belt D. flat belt
126. ________part is attached to the shoe which helps to penetrate into soil
a. shoe
b. beam
c. saddle
d. hammer
127. _________ connects the main body to the plough to the Yoke
a. beam
b. saddle
c. stool
d. hammer
128. The size of the plough is represented by the ______ of the body
a. width
b. breath
c. length
d. height
129. ____ tillage are proper for seeding and planting operations.
a. Primary
b. Basic
c. Medium
d. None of these
130. _________ tillage utilizes two or more different types of tools to simplify fields
a. combined
b. basic
c. strip
d. rotary
131. _______ is a individual working element such as a disk or shovel
a. tool
b. machine
c. stripped
d. rotary
132. The following operation is not carried out by an plough
a. sowing seeds
b. breaking the clods
 c. crushing the soil
d. hammering the soil
133. ____ operation is used to cut and mix the soil
a. Rotary
b. Mulch
c. Strip
d. None of these
134. __________ is the function of mold board plough.
a. Cutting the furrow slice
b. Lifting the soil
c. Pulverizing the soil
d. All of the above
135. ____ is the component of mold board plough.
a. Land side
b. Soil
c. Both a & b
d. None
136. ______ Component is penetrates into soil and make a horizontal cut below the soil
surface.
a. Frog
b. Land side
c. Share
d. None
137. Share is a______________ components.
a. Sharp
b. Polished
c. Pointed
d. All of above
138. Shares are make of _________
a. Chilled cast iron
b. Steel
 c. Both
d. None
139. ___________ are the types of moldboards.
a. General purpose
b. Stubble
c. Slat
d. All of above
140. ____________ turns the furrow slice used in stubble soils.
a. Stubble type
b. Slat type
c. Share
d. Jointer
141. ______ is used in tough soil of grasses.
a. Soil
b. Sod & Breaker type
c. Slat type
d. Plough
142. There are a few accessories necessary for ploughs are __________.
a. Jointer
b. Coulter
c. Land wheel
d. All of above
143. ______ is the wheel of the plough, which runs on the plough land.
a. Gauge wheel
b. Land wheel
c. Furrow wheel
d. None
144. Disc plough is more useful for_________
a. Shallow ploughing
b. Fast ploughing
c. Deep ploughing
 d. Slow ploughing
145. Standard disc plough contains steel disc of ________ diameter.
a. 10-30cm
b. 30-60cm
c. 60-90cm
d. 90-120cm
146. The components of disc plough are __________.
a. Frame extension
b. Top link connection
c. Furrow wheel
d. All of the above
147. The disc is made from ______ of 5mm-10mm thickness.
a. Heat treated steel
b. Case hardened steel
c. Stainless steel
d. High speed steel
148. The disc angle of a good plough varies between_________.
a. 25°-30°
b. 10°-15°
c. 18°-24°
d. 42°-45°
149. The function of scraper is to______.
a. Remove soil stuck to the disc
b. Provide support to the disc
c. Used for holding plough
d. None of the above
150. Blade that works well in trashy conditions________.
a. Twisted blade
b. Straight blade
c. L type
d. None of the above
151. Ploughs used to break through shatter compacted or imperable soil layers.
a. Disc plough
b. Mold board plough
c. Chisel plough
d. Country plough
152. The hp required to operate subsoil plough ______.
a. 10-20hp
b. 20-30hp
c. 60-100hp
d. 140-200hp
153. Secondary tillage consists of conditioning the ____to meet the different tillage
objectives of the farm
A. Weather. C) Atmosphere
B. Soil. D)All of the above
154. Lighter and final operations performed on the soil after _______ tillage operations.
A. Primary. C) Tertiary
B. Secondary D) None
155. Secondary tillage implements are ______and ______.
A. Hammer and screwdriver. C) Tractor and bullock
B. Lathe and drilling machines. D) All of the above
156. Harrow is secondary tillage implement used to cut soil to shallow depth for ______
and ______
A. Smoothening. C) none of the above
B. Pulverizing. D) both
157. ____ Harrow consist of two gangs placed end to end.
a) Single action disc harrow
b) Double action disc harrow
c) Triple action disc harrow
d) None above
158. Types of double action disc harrow
A. Tandem disc harrow. C ) None
B. Off-set disc harrow. D) Both A and B
159. Each set of disc mounted on common shaft is called as ____
A ) Arbor bolts. C) Gang B) Spool. D) Bearing
160. ____ operates gang mechanisms.
A. Gang. C) Spool
B. Gang bolt D) Gang control lever
161. The lateral movement of disc on shaft is called as _______
A. Spool. C) Gang
B. Bearing D) Gear
162. _____ is essential to counter act the end thrust of gang due to soil thrust..
A. Spool. C ) Gang
B. Bearing. D) Gang bolt
163. ………..it is a harrow with peg shaped teeth of diamond cross section to a
Rectangular frame.
A. Spike tooth harrow C Spring tooth harrow
B. Acme harrow D Triangular harrow.
164. ____________ it is made of wooden plank used for smoothing the soil and crushing
the Weeds .
A. Triangular harrow C Blade harrow
B. Patela D Guntaka
165. _____________ is used for making bunds or ridges by collecting the soil.
A. Ridger C leveler
B. puddler D Bund former

166. The ridger generally has _____________ shaped shares fitted to the frog.
A V shaped C U shaped
B Both A and C D None of the these
167. ________________ harrow which consist of one or more blades attached to the beam
Or frame, used for shallow working of the soil.
A Spike tooth harrow C Spring tooth harrow
B Acme harrow D Blade harrow
168. The weight of the puddler is ___________.
A 10-20 kg C 20-30 kg
B 30-40 kg D 45-55 kg
169. Puddling is done in standing water of ___________ depth.
A. 10-15 cm C 20-25 cm
B. 5-10 cm D 15-20 cm
170. ____________ is known as ridging plough and double mould board plough.
A. Bund former. C Puddler
B. Leveller. D Ridger
171. ______________ it‘s consists of former board, beam and handle.
A. Ridger. C Cultivator
B. Puddler. D Bund former
172. ______________ it is a Cultivator with tines or blades mounted on a power driven
Horizontal shaft.
A. Disc cultivator. C Rotary cultivator
B. Tine cultivator. D Trailed type cultivator
173. __________is not a tractor drawn tillage tool
A. Cultivator B. Augar plough
B. Narrow D. Plank
174. __________ is not a secondary tillage.
A. Disc plough B. Plough
B. Mould board D. None of these
175. ___________is not a hand tool.
A. Mould board. B. Shovel
B. Spade D. Mamounty
176. Power tillage operate most satisfactory with________
A. Rotary tillage B. Plough
B. Transport carts D. Reapers
177. Vertical section of plough influence__________
A. Pulverization B. Depth of cut
B. Width of cut. D. Direction of pull
178. Dead furrow is made by________
A. One way MB plough. B. 2 way MB plough
B. Ridger. D. Disc harrow
179. The mowers are designed to cut_________
A. Wheat B. Poddy
B. Mustard. D. Grasses
180. The thresher caused Mon seed damage if______
A. Speed is increases B. Clearance is increase
B. Feed rate is reduced. D. Speed is reduced
181. The two primary tillage equipment‘s are_____
A. MB and disc harrow B. Disc plough and disc harrow
B. Disc harrow and cultivator. D. MB and. Subscriber
182. ____ are used to hold water in the soil.
A. Bunds. C. Harrow
B. Ridger. D. None of the above
183. The _____ is also used for forming field or channels.
A. Bunds. C. Ridger
B. Harrow. D. None of the above.
184. —— is important for churning of the soil with water
A. Levelers. C. Bunds
B. Ridger. D. Puddler
185. Puddling is done in standing water of ——- depth
A. 5-10 cm. C. 1-10 cm
B. 0-5 cm. D. 10-15 cm
186. _____ is useful for uprooting and burying weeds between standing rows of rice
crops in wetlands
a. Sweep
b. Engine operated weeder
c. Cono weeder for paddy
d. Dry land weeder
187. Below is not a function of seed drill
a. To meter the seeds
b. To carry the seeds
c. To remove the seeds
d. To place the seeds in furrow
188. ____________ is a component of seed drill
a. Transport wheel
b. Storage box
c. Cultivator
d. Driller
189. ____ has a long handled tool and a 120 mm diameter star wheel
a. Engine operated weeder
b. Cono weeder for paddy
c. Dry land weeder
d. Sweep
190. In junior hoe the coverage is _____ ha per day
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 1.7
d. 3.0
191. Very common sowing methods used in villages.
a. Broadcasting
b. Dibbling
c. Drilling
d. Seed dropping behind the plough
192. _____ Method used for planting in row to row and plant to plant distance is
uniform.
A. Transplanting
B. Hill dropping
C. Check row planting
D. Drilling
193. In dry land weeder coverage is __ha/day
a. 0.05
b. 0.07
c. 0.1
d. 0.18
194. The Sweep coverage is ___ to ___ ha/day.
a. 1.75 to 2.5
b. 1.95 to 3.5
c. 1.35 to 2.3
195. __________ Methods consists of dropping the seeds in furrow lines in a continuous
flow and covering them with soil.
a. Dibbling
b. Transplanting
c. Drilling
d. Seed dropping behind the plough
196. ________equipment is used for wedding in between rows of standing crops.
a. Engine operated weeder b) Cono weeder for puddy
b. Junior hoe d) Dry land weeder
197. _______ Machine is used for placing the seeds in continuous furrows at uniform
rate.
a. Dry land weeder b) Junior home
b. Seed drill d) Engine operated weeder.
198. Which equipment is used for weeding in Row crops in rain fed.
a. Puddy cono weeder b) Engine operated weeder
b. Dry land weeder d) Seed drill
199. __________ is the type of seed metering mechanism.
a. Fluted feed type b) Cup feed type
b. Brush feed mechanism d) All of above
200. Which component of seed drill is used for transmit power to operate seed dropping
mechanism.
a. Frame c) Transport wheel
b. Seed box d) Covering device
201. ________ is the application of sprayer.
a. To break the liquid droplet of effective size
b. To distribute them uniformly event plants
c. To regulate amount of liquid to avoid excessive application.
d. All above them
202. ___________ the capacity of ultra-low volume spray
a. less than 5 litres/hector
b. more than 5 litres/ hector
c. 5 to 400 litres/hector
d. More than 400 litres/hector
203. Knapsack hand compression sprayer develops pressure between
a. 2 to 3.5 kg/cm
b. 3 to 12 kg/cm
c. 12 to 35 kg/cm
d. None of the above
204. __________ sprayer do not require a separate tank
a. Hand compression sprayer
b. Knapsack hand compression sprayer
c. Rocker sprayer
d. Power sprayer
205. ____________ is the types of nozzle used in sprayers
 a. Hollow cone type of nozzle
b. Solid cone type nozzle
c. Fan type nozzle
d. All of the above
206. _______________ are the application of pedal sprayer
a. Row crops
b. Vegetables
c. Nursery stocks
d. Tall crops
207. Nozzle consists of _______components
a. Washer
b. Vortex plate
c. Strainer
d. All of the above
208. The power developed in prime mover of power operated sprayer is_____
a. 1 to 5 HP
b. 5 to 10 HP
c. 10 to 20 HP
d. None of the above
209. Equipment used primary for weeding is _______
a. Spray Lance
b. Nozzle cap
c. Intercultural
d. Nozzle tip
210. A ______ and ______are fixed to the framework for guiding.
a. Nozeel cap , disc
b. Handle, beam
c. Spray boom, filter
d. Shovel can, framework
211. Basic components of sprayer is
a. Nozzle body
b. Spray boom
c. Nozzle cap
d. All of the above
212. ________ Nozzle which forms narrow elliptical spray pattern.
a. Hollow cone nozzle
b. Hard cone nozzle
c. Solid cone nozzle
d. Fan nozzle

213. _______Sprayer are versatile and simple power operated machines.

a. Foot pedal sprayer
b. Motorized knapsack sprayer
c. Hand optimizer
d. All of the above
214. Motorized knapsack sprayer are powered by____-____ HP petrol engine.
a. 1.2 to 3.2
b. 2.2 to 3.4
c. 0.2 to 3.2
d. 1.2 to 3.0
215. A Power sprayer essentially consists of:-
a. Tank
b. Agitator
c. Pressure Gauge
d. All of the above
216. ________ is a machine to cut herbage crops and leave the them in swath.
a. Wind rower
b. Sickle mower
c. Fail mower
d. Gang mower
217. It consists of spike tooth cylinder, woven- wire mesh concave and upper casing
provided with helical concave.
a. Dummy type c) Spike-tooth type
b. Hummer type d) Axial flow type
218. _______________are mounted on the Periphery of a cylinder that rotates inside a
closed casing and concave.
a. Dummy type c) spike-tooth type
b. Hummer type d) Axial flow type
219. ______ is a common trouble in the operation of Mower.
a. Knives get twisted. c) Knives get melted.
b. Knives get rusted. d) Knives gets break.
220. In vertical conveyor reaper, the crop to be harvested are guided by
a. Star wheel c) Reel
b. Row divider d) Cutter bar
221. In reaper, a flat plate with reo chatting edited is know as:
a. Cutter bar b) Knife section
b. Knife d) All are correct
222. The length of cutter bar of tractor front mounted reaper is
a. 1.8-2.0 m c) 1.9-2.1 m
b. 2-2.5 m d) 2.25-2.5 m
223. The main function of potato digger elevator is
a. Digging of potatoes c) Windrowing of potatoes
b. Both (A) & (B) d) None of these
224. Self-propelled combine harvester is provide with
a. Powering engine b) Petrol engine
b. Diesel engine d) Kerosene engine
225. The dummy type thresher is also termed as
a. Rasp bar type thresher b) Hammer mill type thresher
b. Spike tooth type thresher d) Syndicator tooth type thresher
226. A multi type thresher is equipped with
a. Spike tooth cylinder c) Rasp bar cylinder
b. Hammer mill cylinder d) All of the above
227. The threshing efficiency of thresher depends on
a. Cylinder peripheral speed b) Cylinder concave clearance
b. Feed rate, moisture content and type of crop d) All are correct
228. The spacing between two adjacent discs in Olpad thresher is
a. 5 cm c) 10 cm
b. 15 cm d) 20 cm
229. RTC means ____ in consumer preferences in food processing sector.
Ready to cook Ready to creat Ready to cut none
230. The main purpose of agricultural processing______
Increase production Reduce labour
Increase speed of working None
231. Capacity of vertical conveyor reaper is
a) 0.1-0.9 ha/h
b) 10-20 ha/h
c) 0.4-0.6 ha/h
d) 1-2 ha/h
232. ________ is not well register, there is unbalance load, uneven harvesting and
exclusive clogging of crops on the knife
a) Vertical conveyor reaper
b) Mower
c) Reaper binder
d) Potato digger elevator.
233. Different parts of Thresher are
a) Feeding device
b) Threshing cylinder
c) Concave
d) All of the above.
234. Major type of Thresher commercially available
a) Dummy
b) Raspbar
c) Concave
d) Elevator Canvas
235. To separate grains from the harvested crop and provide clean grain without much
loss and damage which called as_______
a) Potato digger elevator
b) Groundnut digger shaker
c) Reaper binder
d) Threshing
236. In threshers what is mounted on the periphery of the cylinder
a) Spike tooth type
b) Raspbar type
c) Syndicator type
d) Wire loob type.
237. Steel Tank in the power sprayer is used to avoid
a. Moisturisation
b. Corrosion
c. Leakages
d. Stability
238. The reaper in a tractor can be raised or lowered by
a. Mechanically
b. Pneumatic system
c. Hydraulic system
d. Electric system
239. ________ is the range of capacity of Vertical Conveyer reaper
a. 0.1- 0.5 ha/h
b. 0.4-0.6 ha/h
c. 10-15 ha/h
d. None of the above
240. Find the odd mean out
a. Share. c) body
b. Shoe. d) Landside
241. Functions of mold board plough
a. Cutting the furrow slice. c) body to yoke
b. Increase the depth of operation. d) length of the beam
242. … is a method of ploughing in which the soil broken and turn along the contours.
a. Normal ploughing c. Contour ploughing
b. Sub soil plough. d. Disc plough
243. ……….. is a harrow which perform harrow operation by means of set or a number
of sets of rotating slat each set being mounted on common shaft.
a. Spike tooth harrow c. Triangular harrow
b. Acme harrow. d. Disc harrow
244. ______ is the process of random scattering of seed on the surface of sead beds.
a. Broadcasting. c) Dibbling
b. Drilling. d) Transplanting
245. ______ is the process of placing seeds in holes made in seedbed and covering them.
a. Broadcasting. c) Dibbling
b. Drilling. d) Transplanting
246. __consists of dropping the seeds in furrow lines in a continuous flow and covering
them.
a. Broadcasting. c) Dibbling
b. Drilling. d) Transplanting
247. __________ is very common method used in villages.
a. Seed dropping behind the plough
b. Transplanting
c. Hill dropping
d. Check row planting
248. __________ consists of preparing seedlings in nursery and then planting these
seedlings in the prepared field.
a. Seed dropping behind the plough
b. Transplanting
c. Hill dropping
d. Check row planting
249. In ________ method, seeds are dropped at fixed spacing and not in a continuous
stream.
a. Seed dropping behind the plough
b. Transplanting
c. Hill dropping
d. Check row planting
250. In ________ method, row-to-row and plant to plant distance is uniform.
a. Seed dropping behind the plough
b. Transplanting
c. Hill dropping
d. Check row planting
251. _________ is a machine for placing the seeds in a continuous flow.
a. Seed drill
b. Transplanting
c. Hill dropping
d. Check row planting
252. ________ is a device to refill a furrow after seed has been placed in it.
a. Seed box
b. Covering device
c. Transport wheel
d. Seed drill
253. The mechanism of a seed drill or fertilizer distributor, which delivers seeds or
fertilizers from the hopper at selected rates, is called ________.
a. Seed drill
b. Seed box
c. Seed metering mechanism
d. Covering device
254. Bucket type sprayer consist of:
A. Single and double acting pump C. Centrifugal pump
B. Plunger type pumps D. All are correct
255. The pump is mostly made of:
A. Aluminium C. Copper
B. Brass D. Plastic
256. A tank capacity of knapsack sprayer is about:
A. 5-10 litres C. 8-10 litres
B. 9-22.5 litres D. 10-25.5 litres
257. In power-operated sprayer, the pump works at a pressure of:
A. 2-5 Kg/cm2 C. 3-8.5 Kg/cm2
B. 4-12 Kg/cm2. D. 5-15 Kg/cm2

258. Which is correct order of cold chain

1. Farming, production, packing sales, warehousing, shopping mall,
consumer.
2. Farming, packing sales, consumer, shopping mall, production,
warehouses.
3. Farming, warehousing, shopping mall, consumer, production,
packing sales.
4. All of the above.
259. Full form of NCAP is
A. National cooling action performance C. National coal academy
B. National cooling action plan D. None of the above.
260. In India cold chain is applied successfully in ______________
A. Dairy products C. Various meats products
B. Frozen goods D. All of the above
261. ________________ percent of food grain use modern storage facilities in India
A. 55% C. 10%
B. 25% D. 90%
262. VMI stands for
A. Vendor materials inventory C. Variable material inventory
B. Vendors manage inventory D. Valuable material inventory
263. The process of loosening and turning the soil is called
1. Broadcasting
2. Irrigation
3. Ploughing
4. Levelling
264. The organic substance obtained from dead plants and animal wastes is
1. Manure
2. Fertilizer
3. Irrigation
4. Agriculture
265. The process of separating grain from chaff is called
1. Threshing
2. Weeding
3. Sowing
4. Winnowing
266. The conversion of nitrogen into nitrates is known as
1. Nitrogen fixation
2. Ammonification
3. Nitrate Assimilation
4. Nitrogen cycle
267. Raising of fish in inland waters and coastal waters are called
1. Fishery
2. Pisci culture
3. fish culture
4. harvesting
268. The full form of NCAP is:
a) National condensing action plan c) National cooling action plan
b) National capital action plan d) National compression action plan
269. NCCD stands for:
a) National centre for cold chain development
b) National centre for condensing chain development
c) National centre for compressing chain development
d) National centre for capital chain development