INNIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ

QUESTIONS

NOVEMBER 2024

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Table of Contents

1. ECONOMY.................................................................................................................. 2

2. ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT ........................................................................................ 1

3. GEOGRAPHY ............................................................................................................... 8

4. GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND PROGRAMMES................................................................... 10

5. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY ......................................................................................... 15

6. INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS AND ORGANISATIONS ............................................................ 19

7. POLITY .................................................................................................................... 24

8. HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE......................................................................................... 25

9. STATES .................................................................................................................... 27

10. AGRICULTURE ........................................................................................................ 28

11. DEFENCE AND SECURITY ........................................................................................... 29

12. REPORTS AND INDICES ............................................................................................. 32

13. MAPS / PLACES....................................................................................................... 33

14. MISCELLANEOUS .................................................................................................... 34

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS

1. Economy
1) With reference to foreign exchange (forex) 4) Consider the following statements regarding
reserves, consider the following statements: Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
1. India's forex reserves include foreign 1. D-SIBs are subject to additional capital
currencies, gold, Special Drawing Rights requirements to prevent systemic risks.
(SDRs), and the Reserve Tranche 2. Banks classified as D-SIBs must have a size
Position (RTP) with the IMF. greater than 10% of GDP.
2. Forex reserves help in stabilizing the 3. The classification of D-SIBs in India is
Indian rupee and managing exchange based on a framework introduced by the
rates. Reserve Bank of India.
3. A robust forex reserve position enhances Which of the above statements is/are correct?
India's ability to attract foreign a) Only one
investment and trade. b) Only two
How many of the statements given above are c) All three
Incorrect? d) None
a) Only one
b) Only two 5) Consider the following statements about Global
c) All three Systemically Important Banks (G-SIBs):
d) None 1. G-SIBs are identified solely by the Basel
Committee on Banking Supervision.
2) Consider the following statements about the 2. G-SIBs are subject to higher capital and
Digital Euro: regulatory requirements than non-G-SIBs.
1. The Digital Euro is a Central Bank Digital 3. The framework for identifying G-SIBs
Currency (CBDC) launched by the European applies to domestic banks as well.
Central Bank to facilitate digital payments How many of the above statements is/are correct?
without intermediaries. a) Only one
2. The preparation phase for the Digital Euro b) Only two
began in 2020, with plans to fully replace c) All three
physical cash. d) None
3. The Digital Euro aims to reduce Europe’s
reliance on non-EU financial service 6) What is the primary objective of the Central
providers. Value Added Tax (CENVAT)?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) To increase revenue collection for the
a) 1 only central government
b) 1 and 3 only b) To prevent double taxation and reduce
c) 2 and 3 only cascading taxes
d) 1, 2, and 3 c) To incentivize foreign investments in India
d) To replace service tax with a single
3) Consider the following statements regarding the indirect tax
significance of India’s Digital Rupee:
1. It aims to provide a regulated alternative 7) Consider the following statements about Central
to cryptocurrencies. Value Added Tax (CENVAT):
2. It is exchangeable 1:1 with physical 1. It applies only to excise duty and does not
currency in India. cover service tax.
3. It is intended to replace India’s existing 2. CENVAT credit can be claimed on capital
physical currency entirely. goods integral to the manufacturing process.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 3. It replaced the Modified Value Added Tax
a) Only one (MODVAT) system.
b) Only two How many of the above statements are correct?
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2) It is caused by toxins produced by the
8) Consider the following statements regarding bacterium Clostridium botulinum in low-
Permanent Account Numbers (PAN) 2.0: oxygen environments.
1. PAN 2.0 introduces a centralized data 3) Outbreaks are often associated with
vault for cybersecurity. environmental factors like water
2. Grievance redressal will remain temperature and organic matter in
decentralized, as in the current system. wetlands.
3. Existing PAN cards will become invalid How many of the statements given above are
with the launch of PAN 2.0. correct?
How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None
4) With reference to the report titled "On Track or
Off Course? Assessing Progress Toward the
30×30 Target in the Ocean," consider the
2. Ecology and following statements:
1. The 30×30 target aims to protect 30% of
Environment the world’s oceans by 2030, but only
2.8% of oceans currently have effective
1) The Durgesh Aranya Zoological Park in Himachal protection.
Pradesh is set to become India's first zoo to: 2. The term "blue-washing" refers to the
a) House all native big cat species under one practice of designating large Marine
roof. Protected Areas (MPAs) on paper
b) Be certified by the Indian Green Building without effective management or
Council (IGBC) for sustainable infrastructure. enforcement.
c) Operate entirely on renewable energy 3. Latin America and the Caribbean are
sources. global leaders in meeting the 30×30
d) Be managed by a community-based target, with extensive enforcement
conservation group. mechanisms in place.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2) With respect to Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan, incorrect?
consider the following statements: A. 1 and 2 only
1. Sambhar Lake is India's largest B. 3 only
freshwater lake and is a UNESCO World C. 2 and 3 only
Heritage Site. D. 1, 2, and 3
2. It is designated as a Ramsar site and
supports a rich diversity of migratory 5) Which of the following is correct regarding
birds. Sambhar Lake?
3. The lake is a significant site for salt a) It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
production in India. b) It is the most saline lake in India and is
How many of the statements given above are Ramsar-listed.
Incorrect? c) It is the largest artificial lake in India.
a) Only one d) It is the largest lake in Northeast India.
b) Only two
c) All three 6) Consider the following statements regarding
d) None Wular Lake:
1. Wular Lake is located in Rajasthan and is
3) With reference to avian botulism, suspected in the largest freshwater lake in India.
the bird deaths at Sambhar Lake, consider the 2. It is Ramsar-listed due to its ecological
following statements: importance and biodiversity.
1) Avian botulism is a viral disease that 3. Wular Lake is primarily a saline Lake.
spreads rapidly among bird populations. 4. It is situated near the Pir Panjal mountain
range in Jammu and Kashmir.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Which of the above statements are correct? 1. The defoamer solution used has been
a) 1, 2, and 3 only approved by the US FDA for safe application.
b) 4 only 2. The defoaming process permanently
c) 1 and 3 only resolves the foam issue in the river.
d) 2 and 4 only 3. The National Mission for Clean Ganga
(NMCG) monitors the application to ensure
7) Which of the following best describes the environmental safety.
primary significance of Bandhavgarh Tiger How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Reserve? a) Only one
a) It is a grassland reserve in the Satpura b) Only two
range, focusing solely on herbivore c) All three
conservation. d) None
b) It is a tiger reserve with the highest
density of Royal Bengal Tigers in India and 11) Consider the following statements about
globally. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR):
c) It serves primarily as an archaeological 1. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve is located at
site with no significant biodiversity. the meeting point of the Western Ghats and
d) It is exclusively a bamboo forest reserve, Vindhyas.
focused on the conservation of bamboo 2. RTR has a tropical moist evergreen forest
species. dominated by sal trees.
3. The Chambal and Banas rivers flow
8) What was the primary mandate of the Sanjay through parts of the reserve.
Kumar Committee in relation to the Western 4. RTR was historically a hunting ground for
Ghats? the rulers of Udaipur.
a) To expand the Ecologically Sensitive Area How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(ESA) boundaries of all Western Ghats a) Only one
villages b) Only two
b) To designate the entire Western Ghats as c) Only three
ecologically sensitive d) All four
c) To enforce conservation measures
without field visits 12) Which of the following is the primary threat to
d) To review and validate objections from the survival of the Markhor (the world’s largest
states regarding Ecologically Sensitive Area wild goat) in its natural habitat?
(ESA) demarcations a) Predation by large carnivores in
mountainous regions
9) Consider the following statements regarding the b) Lack of access to water sources in arid
factors contributing to foam formation in the regions
Yamuna River: c) Loss of fur due to climate changes in high
1. The winter season enhances oxygen levels altitudes
in the river, reducing foam formation. d) Habitat encroachment and illegal hunting
2. Surfactants from detergents lead to foam for its distinctive horns
formation when the river’s natural dilution
capacity is reduced. 13) Which body was replaced by the Commission for
3. Industrial effluents upstream of the Air Quality Management (CAQM) to oversee air
Yamuna dilute the concentration of quality improvement in NCR?
pollutants, minimizing foam. a) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
How many of the above statements is/are correct? b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
a) Only one c) Environment Pollution (Prevention and
b) Only two Control) Authority (EPCA)
c) All three d) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and
d) None Climate Change (MoEFCC)

10) Consider the following statements regarding the 14) Consider the following statements regarding the
defoaming process applied to the Yamuna River: Commission for Air Quality Management
(CAQM):
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. CAQM can issue binding directions to 2. Carbon offsets are primarily aimed at
authorities in Delhi-NCR and achieving national self-sufficiency in energy
surrounding states to improve air rather than emission reduction.
quality. 3. Electric vehicle (EV) adoption can be
2. CAQM has jurisdiction over all states in supported by carbon offset mechanisms to
India. reduce emissions from transportation.
3. The commission has powers to restrict Which of the above statements are correct?
activities that impact air quality a) 1 only
negatively. b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is correct? c) 3 only
a) 1 only d) None
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only 18) Consider the following statements
d) 1, 2, and 3 about Dicliptera polymorpha:
1. Dicliptera polymorpha is found exclusively
15) Consider the following statements regarding the in the forests of the southern Western
CO₂-to-methanol conversion process at NTPC’s Ghats.
Vindhyachal facility: 2. It showcases pyrophytic adaptations,
1. The catalyst used for the reaction requires enabling it to thrive in fire-prone grasslands.
a high concentration of sulfur to operate 3. The species has a single-blooming cycle
efficiently. that occurs only during the post-monsoon
2. CO₂ is captured from ambient air to season.
ensure the plant's carbon neutrality. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
3. Methanol produced in the plant can only a) Only one
be used in fuel blending due to its chemical b) Only two
composition. c) All three
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) None
a) 1 only
b) 2 only 19) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) 1 and 3 only Eurasian Otter:
d) None of the above 1. It is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife
Protection Act in India.
16) Consider the following statements about the 2. The Eurasian Otter prefers tropical forest
Sirpur Wetland: habitats far from waterways.
1. The wetland is primarily fed by 3. Its diet consists mainly of fish and
underground springs due to its natural crustaceans.
hydrological features. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. The restoration of Sirpur Wetland a) 1 and 3 only
transformed it from an urban waste site to b) 1 and 2 only
an ecologically valuable wetland. c) 2 and 3 only
3. It was designated as a Ramsar site due to d) 1, 2, and 3
its ecological importance.
Which of the above statements are correct? 20) Consider the following statements regarding
a) Only one African elephants:
b) Only two 1. Both African Bush and Forest Elephants
c) All three have two-finger-like processes at the trunk's
d) None tip.
2. African Forest Elephants are classified as
17) Consider the following statements regarding the Critically Endangered by the IUCN.
types and impacts of carbon offset projects: 3. Both male and female African Forest
1. Carbon offset projects are limited to Elephants have tusks.
nature-based solutions, such as afforestation Which of the above statements is/are correct?
and reforestation. a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
d) None b) Parasitism, where the zooxanthellae harm
the coral.
21) Under the recent Ministry of Environment, c) Mutualism, where both benefit.
Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) d) Predation, where zooxanthellae feed on
notification, which of the following is correct coral tissues.
regarding industries with Environmental
Clearance (EC)? 25) Consider the following statements about the
a) They still require a separate Consent to Global Energy Efficiency Alliance (GEEA):
Establish (CTE) from State Pollution Control 1. It was launched at COP29 with the aim of
Boards. doubling global renewable energy capacity
b) They only require a Consent to Establish by 2030.
(CTE) for the first year of operation. 2. The UAE leads the alliance by fostering
c) They are exempted from all pollution- knowledge transfer and public-private
related approvals. partnerships.
d) They no longer require a separate 3. The alliance focuses on promoting energy
Consent to Establish (CTE) but must still efficiency technologies and standardization
comply with environmental standards. across member nations.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
22) Consider the following statements about the a) Only one
Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP): b) Only two
1. GRAP was approved by the Supreme c) All three
Court in the Taj Trapezium Zone case. d) None
2. GRAP is implemented across all
metropolitan cities in India. 26) What is pathogen spillover in the context of
3. The revised GRAP includes additional pollinators?
measures to handle AQI deterioration a) The transmission of pathogens from
during winter. managed honey bees to wild pollinators
Which of the above statements is/are correct? b) The transfer of pathogens from wild
a) 1 only pollinators to plants
b) 2 only c) A phenomenon where pathogens are
c) 3 only eradicated from ecosystems
d) 1 and 3 only d) A natural immunization process among
wild pollinators
23) Consider the following statements regarding the
Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate 27) Consider the following statements about the
Change (MoEFCC) notification on dual Mayong Village conservation initiative:
compliance of Environmental Clearance (EC) and 1. It involves the plantation of fruit-bearing
Consent to Establish (CTE). trees to support the hornbill population.
1. Dual approval is mandated under the Air 2. The oriental pied hornbill is considered a
Act, 1981 and Water Act, 1974. sacred species in the local culture.
2. The recent exemption applies to all 3. Mayong Village has imposed strict hunting
categories of industries. bans as part of its conservation efforts.
3. The exemption aims to streamline Which of the above statements is/are correct?
approvals while maintaining environmental a) 1 only
oversight. b) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements is/are correct? c) 2 and 3 only
a) Only one d) 1, 2, and 3
b) Only two
c) All three 28) Consider the following statements about
d) None pathogen spillover and spillback in pollinator
ecosystems:
24) Which of the following correctly describes the 1. Pathogen spillover only occurs when wild
relationship between corals and zooxanthellae? pollinators infect managed honey bees.
a) Commensalism, where one benefits, and
the other is unaffected.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. Pathogen spillback is the process where c) 2 and 4 only
pollinators become resistant to all d) 1 and 3 only
pathogens in a shared habitat.
3. Shared habitats reduce the chances of 33) What is the primary role of the National Tiger
pathogen spillover between managed and Conservation Authority (NTCA) in the
wild pollinators. notification process of a tiger reserve?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Approval of financial resources for the
a) 1 only reserve
b) 2 only b) Direct management of tiger habitats
c) 3 only c) Monitoring poaching activities in the area
d) None of the above d) Assessing ecological and conservation
value of proposed areas
29) Consider the following statements about Guru
Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve: 34) The Green World Environment Award is
1. It is the first tiger reserve to be notified presented for contributions in:
in Chhattisgarh. a) Renewable energy projects
2. It shares landscape connectivity with b) Industrial innovation and energy
Sanjay Dubri, Bandhavgarh, and efficiency
Palamau tiger reserves. c) Environmental sustainability and CSR
3. Its core habitat is larger than its buffer initiatives
zone. d) Climate change mitigation research
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one 35) Consider the following statements about
b) Only two Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS):
c) All three 1. RAS can be set up in regions without
d) None access to natural water sources.
2. It eliminates the need for monitoring
30) Which of the following is the largest tiger water quality and filtration systems.
reserve in India? 3. RAS ensures higher production rates
a) Manas Tiger Reserve compared to traditional aquaculture
b) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve systems.
c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve How many of the above statements is/are correct?
d) Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve a) Only one
b) Only two
31) What adaptation helps African Penguins regulate c) All three
their body temperature in hot conditions? d) None
a) Waterproof feathers
b) Large, webbed feet 36) El Cajas National Park, recently in news, is
c) Specialized respiratory systems located in which of the following regions?
d) Pink glands above their eyes a) Amazon Rainforest, Brazil
b) Andes Highlands, Ecuador
32) Consider the following statements regarding the c) Sierra Madre Mountains, Mexico
habitat and features of African Penguins: d) Patagonia Plateau, Argentina
1. They are exclusively found in freshwater
ecosystems for breeding. 37) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. Their streamlined bodies help in Reducing Methane from Organic Waste
swimming efficiently underwater. Declaration:
3. They use large webbed feet for 1. It was launched at COP28 by the UNEP-
constructing burrows in sandy shores. convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition
4. The black stripe and chest spots on their (CCAC).
bodies are unique to each individual. 2. It commits to preventing organic waste
Which of the above statements is/are correct? generation and promoting separate waste
a) 2, 3, and 4 only collection.
b) 1, 2, and 3 only 3. India is among the signatories to the
declaration.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
4. It focuses on mobilizing funds for solid
waste management projects. 41) Which of the following is a unique feature of the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Marine Fisheries Census 2025?
a) 2 and 4 only a) Exclusive focus on marine fish species
b) 1, 2, and 3 only diversity.
c) 1 and 3 only b) Use of drones for mapping fishing zones.
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 c) Fully digital data collection using mobile
apps and virtual servers.
38) Consider the following statements about the d) Collection of data limited to the economic
Reducing Methane from Organic Waste status of fisherfolk.
Declaration and its priority actions:
1. It aims to improve methane data 42) What makes the Kenyan lesser mealworm
collection from waste sources. significant in environmental research?
2. It promotes banning the use of methane a) It is the first insect species capable of
as an energy source. digesting polystyrene.
3. Its focus includes better landfill and b) It uses enzymes to convert plastics
wastewater facility management. directly into biofuels.
4. It calls for setting sector-specific targets c) It is primarily found in marine ecosystems.
for organic waste emissions reduction. d) It degrades polystyrene with the help of
Which of the above statements is/are correct? gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3, and 4 43) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) 2 and 4 only actions under National Plan of Action
d) 1, 3, and 4 only on Sharks (NPOA-SHARKS):
1. It advocates species cataloging through
39) Consider the following statements regarding genetic coding and indicator development.
Biofloc Technology (BFT): 2. It encourages the unrestricted promotion
1. It relies on heterotrophic bacteria to of shark fishing for export revenue.
convert organic waste into microbial Which of the above statements is/are correct?
biomass. a) 1 only
2. It eliminates the need for aeration in b) 2 only
aquaculture systems. c) Both 1 and 2
3. BFT heavily depends on antibiotics to d) Neither 1 nor 2
maintain water quality.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 44) Consider the following statements about the
a) 1 only National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-
b) 1 and 2 only Sharks):
c) 2 and 3 only 1. It aims to assess shark populations in
d) 1, 2, and 3 India’s marine ecosystem.
2. The plan focuses solely on sustainable
40) Consider the following statements regarding Salt shark fishing practices.
Chimneys on the Dead Sea floor: 3. It is implemented under the Ministry of
1. They are formed by the deposition of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
calcium carbonate due to freshwater mixing Which of the above statements is/are correct?
with Dead Sea water. a) Only one
2. These structures can grow several b) Only two
centimetres per day due to hypersaline brine c) All three
flow. d) None
3. Salt chimneys are completely stable and
do not indicate geological risks. 45) Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements are correct? Ashtamudi Lake:
a) Only one 1. It is the largest lake in Kerala.
b) Only two 2. It connects to the Arabian Sea through the
c) All three Neendakara estuary.
d) None
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. It is designated a Ramsar Wetland of 1. It is predominantly found in tropical
International Importance. rainforests for nesting and breeding.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. The eagle exhibits sexual monomorphism,
a) 1 and 2 only with males and females being identical in
b) 2 and 3 only size and appearance.
c) 1 and 3 only 3. Its range includes breeding in
d) 1, 2, and 3 southeastern Europe and migration to South
and East Asia during winter.
46) Consider the following statements about the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ranthambore Tiger Reserve: a) 1 only
1. It is located at the confluence of the b) 2 only
Satpura and Vindhya ranges. c) 3 only
2. Bengal tigers are the only large carnivores d) None of the above
found in the reserve.
3. Marsh crocodiles are among the aquatic 50) Which of the following is a key ecological
species inhabiting the water bodies of the significance of the Thrissur-Ponnani Kole
reserve. Wetlands?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) It is a major stopover for birds along the
a) Only one Central Asian Flyway.
b) Only two b) It provides 40% of Kerala’s fish
c) All three requirement.
d) None c) It prevents saline intrusion into the
Arabian Sea.
47) Consider the following statements regarding the d) It is located in the Western Ghats
Paris Agreement: Biosphere Reserve.
1. The agreement mandates legally binding
carbon emission targets for all signatories. 51) Consider the following statements about the
2. Countries must submit updated Nationally Global Matchmaking Platform for Industrial
Determined Contributions (NDCs) every five Decarbonization (GMP):
years. 1. It was launched at COP28 to facilitate
3. The agreement's primary goal is to limit decarbonization in developed economies.
global temperature rise to below 2°C. 2. GMP involves the participation of
How many of the above statements is/are correct? international financial institutions like the
a) Only one World Bank.
b) Only two 3. It focuses on high-emission sectors like
c) All three steel and cement production.
d) None Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
48) Consider the following statements about the b) 1 and 2 only
framework of the Paris Agreement: c) 1 and 3 only
1. It operates under the principle of legally d) 1, 2, and 3
binding enforcement for non-compliance.
2. It adopts the principle of "common but 52) What makes peatlands significant for climate
differentiated responsibilities." regulation?
3. Developed countries are required to a) High rates of methane emissions due to
provide financial and technological support decomposition
to developing nations. b) Ability to sequester more carbon than all
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the world’s forests combined
a) 1 only c) Exclusive role as carbon emitters during
b) 2 and 3 only degradation
c) 1 and 3 only d) Capacity to purify water without affecting
d) 1, 2, and 3 carbon cycles

49) Consider the following statements about the 53) Consider the following statements about the
Eastern Imperial Eagle: Siberian Demoiselle Crane:
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. It breeds primarily in South Asia and
winters in Central Asia.
3. Geography
2. The species is culturally significant in
India, especially in Gujarat and Rajasthan. 1) Concerning the DANA (Depresión Aislada en
3. The Demoiselle Crane is classified as Niveles Altos) phenomenon, consider the
Endangered by the IUCN. following statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. DANA is caused by a high-pressure
a) 2 only system over the Mediterranean Sea
b) 1 and 2 only leading to dry conditions.
c) 3 only 2. The phenomenon involves the
d) None interaction between a pocket of cold air
and warm, moist air over the sea.
54) Consider the following Statements: 3. Climate change has intensified DANA
Statement-I: Peatlands contribute events, making them more severe and
approximately 10% of the total global CO₂ widespread.
emissions annually due to degradation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Statement-II: The Global Peatland Hotspot a) 1 Only
Atlas identifies human activities as the b) 2 and 3 only
primary cause of peatland degradation and c) 1 and 3 only
CO₂ emissions. d) 1, 2 & 3
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? 2) Consider the following statements about Mount
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Annapurna’s geographical and climbing
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation significance:
for Statement-I 1. Mount Annapurna is located in the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are northern region of Bhutan.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 2. It has the highest climbing success rate
explanation for Statement-I among the Himalayan peaks.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 3. The Annapurna range forms a part of
incorrect Gandaki Province in Nepal.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II Which of the above statements is correct?
is correct a) 1 only
b) 2 only
55) Consider the following statements about c) 3 only
microplastics: d) None of the above
1. Primary microplastics are exclusively
formed by the degradation of larger plastics. 3) Consider the following statements about the
2. Secondary microplastics are intentionally Dhauladhar range:
manufactured for industrial and cosmetic 1. Lam Dal Lake, a notable glacial lake, is
uses. located in the Dhauladhar range.
3. Microplastics are used in drug delivery 2. The range's highest peak is Indrahar Pass.
systems due to their chemical absorption 3. The Dhauladhar range is primarily
and release capabilities. composed of limestone and sandstone.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 3 only a) 1 only
b) 1 only b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only c) 2 only
d) None d) None of the above

4) Which of the following accurately describes

Lewotobi Laki-Laki?
a) An extinct volcano located on Bali Island,
Indonesia
b) A twin volcano complex situated in central
Sumatra, Indonesia
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) An active stratovolcano on Flores Island, How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Indonesia, part of a twin volcano system a) Only one
d) A single, isolated dormant volcano in b) Only two
southeastern Indonesia c) All three
d) None
5) Consider the following statements about the
Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC): 9) Which of the following best describes the type
1. The EDFC route stretches from Ludhiana and purpose of Mattupetty Dam?
in Punjab to Jodhpur in Rajasthan. a) Earth-fill dam built for flood control
2. The corridor primarily transports b) Arch dam built for irrigation and water
consumer goods and textiles. supply
3. The EDFC reduces pressure on existing c) Concrete gravity dam built for
passenger railway tracks, improving hydroelectric power and water conservation
punctuality. d) Steel dam primarily for transportation
How many of the above statements is/are correct? support
a) Only one
b) Only two 10) The Barak River originates from which
c) All three geographical feature?
d) None a) Lushai Hills
b) Khasi Hills
6) Consider the following statements about the c) Barail Range
Shanan Hydropower Project: d) Manipur Hills
1. It is the first hydropower project in India
with a capacity exceeding 100 MW. 11) Consider the following statements about the
2. The project is built directly on the Beas Barak River:
River in Himachal Pradesh. 1. It joins the Brahmaputra River directly in
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Assam.
a) 1 only 2. It forms the Meghna River after joining
b) 2 only with the Ganga and Brahmaputra.
c) Both 1 and 2 3. Its major tributaries include the Jiri,
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Dhaleswari, and Longai.
4. It flows through the states of Assam,
7) Consider the following statements regarding Meghalaya, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Namibia’s geography and neighboring borders: How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Namibia shares its northeastern border a) Only one
with Zimbabwe. b) Only two
2. The Kunene and Okavango are major c) Only three
rivers along Namibia’s borders. d) All four
3. The Atlantic Ocean lies along Namibia’s
eastern border. 12) Panchachuli Mountain Range is located in which
How many of the above statements is/are correct? Himalayan region?
a) Only one a) Garhwal Himalayas
b) Only two b) Pir Panjal Range
c) All three c) Kumaon Himalayas
d) None d) Dhauladhar Range

8) Consider the following statements about 13) Consider the following statements about the
lightning in India: Song River:
1. Lightning is a notified disaster in India. 1. It originates in the Shivalik Hills.
2. Bihar faces high lightning vulnerability due 2. It is a perennial tributary of the Ganga
to its population density and frequent River.
thunderstorms. 3. It flows through Uttarakhand and serves
3. Lake Maracaibo in Venezuela is known to as a seasonal feeder to the Ganga River
experience the highest frequency of system.
lightning strikes globally.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3) With reference to the debate on criminalizing
a) 1 and 2 only marital rape in India, consider the following
b) 2 only statements:
c) 3 only 1) Exception 2 to Section 375 of the Indian
d) None Penal Code decriminalizes marital rape if
the wife is above 18 years of age.
14) Consider the following statements about the 2) The Protection of Women from
Periyar River: Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides
1. The Periyar River originates in the Sivagiri criminal remedies for victims of marital
Hills and empties into the Arabian Sea. rape.
2. It powers the Idukki Dam, which is one of 3) The Supreme Court, in the case of
the largest hydroelectric projects in Kerala. Joseph Shine v. Union of India,
3. The Periyar River flows into the Bay of acknowledged the autonomy of married
Bengal after passing through the Vembanad women by striking down the doctrine of
Lake. coverture.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only A. 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

4) With reference to the various initiatives under

the IndiaAI Mission, consider the following
4. Government Schemes statements:
1. The IndiaAI Innovation Centre will focus
and Programmes on developing Large Multimodal Models
(LMMs) and foundational AI models
1) Which of the following best describes the tailored to sectors such as healthcare
primary objective of the Aarambh 6.0 initiative? and agriculture.
a) To provide advanced technological 2. The IndiaAI Datasets Platform is
training to senior civil servants. designed to provide researchers and
b) To enhance governance through public startups with access to anonymized
participation and improved feedback personal data to ensure privacy and
systems. facilitate innovation.
c) To promote agricultural innovations in 3. The Safe & Trusted AI pillar aims to
rural development. promote ethical AI practices through the
d) To streamline financial management in development of indigenous AI tools and
public administration. frameworks for responsible use.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2) In the context of India's efforts to eliminate A. 1 and 3 only
tuberculosis, consider the following statements: B. 2 and 3 only
1. India aims to eliminate TB by 2025, C. 1 only
ahead of the global target set for 2030. D. 1, 2, and 3
2. The percentage of households in India
facing catastrophic health costs due to 5) Consider the following statements about the
TB has decreased significantly. National Green Hydrogen Mission:
3. Multi-drug-resistant TB cases in India 1. The mission aims to establish India as a
have been completely eradicated global leader in green hydrogen
through effective treatment strategies. production, with a target of producing at
Which of the statements given above are correct? least 5 million metric tonnes (MMT) of
a) 1 only green hydrogen per year by 2030.
b) 1 and 2 only 2. The SIGHT (Strategic Interventions for
c) 2 and 3 Only Green Hydrogen Transition) program
d) 1, 2 & 3 focuses exclusively on incentivizing the

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
import of hydrogen production
technology. 9) Consider the following statements regarding the
3. One of the expected outcomes of the responsibilities of publishers under the IT Act:
mission is to avert nearly 50 million 1. Publishers are not liable for the content
metric tonnes (MMT) of annual they create if they meet due diligence
greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Publishers exercise editorial control over
A. 1 and 3 only content on their platforms.
B. 1 and 2 only 3. Unlike intermediaries, publishers cannot
C. 2 and 3 only be penalized for defamatory or inaccurate
D. 1, 2, and 3 content.
Which of the above statements is correct?
6) Which of the following best describes the a) 1 and 2 only
primary objective of the First in the World b) 2 only
Challenge initiative launched by Indian Council c) 1 and 3 only
of Medical Research (ICMR)? d) None of the above
a) To fund large-scale public health
awareness programs in India 10) What is the primary reason for designating the
b) To encourage incremental advancements Andaman and Nicobar Islands as a Tuna Cluster
in existing medical technologies under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada
c) To foster bold, first-of-its-kind health Yojana (PMMSY)?
innovations with global impact potential a) The islands are close to Southeast Asia,
d) To promote traditional medicine and making them ideal for tuna trade.
Ayurveda exclusively b) The region has over-utilized fisheries,
needing regulation.
7) Consider the following statements about the c) It has the largest tuna catch in the world.
administration and funding of the PM E-DRIVE d) The region is a popular tourism
scheme: destination, which supports seafood trade.
1. The scheme is administered by the
Ministry of Heavy Industries. 11) Consider the following statements about the
2. A portion of the budget is allocated for Telecom Technology Development Fund (TTDF):
information, education, and communication 1. TTDF primarily focuses on providing
(IEC) activities related to EV awareness. affordable telecom services in urban and
3. The scheme offers incentives for various suburban regions.
EV types, including e-ambulances and e- 2. The fund is managed by the Department
trucks. of Telecommunications under the Ministry
4. Grants are provided to upgrade EV testing of Communications.
facilities within India 3. TTDF promotes technology co-innovation
How many of the above statements is/are correct? between academia, industry, and startups.
a) Only one 4. TTDF provides grants to Indian entities
b) Only two involved in telecom innovation and
c) Only three indigenous manufacturing.
d) All four How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
8) Which of the following best describes an b) Only two
“intermediary” as per the IT Act? c) Only three
a) An entity that has full editorial control d) All four
over content it hosts
b) An organization that creates and directly 12) What is the primary objective of the PM
publishes its own content Vidyalaxmi Scheme?
c) An entity that receives, stores, or a) To provide job placements for students
transmits information created by third from top HEIs
parties without editorial control b) To offer financial assistance to
d) A government body responsible for meritorious students for quality higher
regulating internet content education
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) To create free hostel accommodations for fabs, and compound semiconductor
economically backward students facilities.
d) To establish a digital database of all 3. ISM supports the creation of indigenous
students availing education loans Intellectual Property (IP) within the
semiconductor sector.
13) Consider the following statements regarding How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana a) Only one
(PMMSY): b) Only two
1. PMMSY includes both the Central Sector c) All three
Scheme (CS) and Centrally Sponsored d) None
Scheme (CSS) as its main components.
2. The scheme focuses on enhancing the 17) Which of the following best represents the
fisheries sector solely through funding for primary objective of India’s seaplane project
ornamental fisheries. under the RCS-UDAN scheme?
3. PMMSY has designated Hazaribagh a) To support water-based freight
District in Jharkhand as a priority area for movement and reduce logistics costs
pearl culture. b) To promote tourism and enhance regional
How many of the above statements is/are correct? connectivity through water-based aviation
a) Only one c) To facilitate emergency medical
b) Only two evacuation from isolated regions
c) All three d) To develop seaplane manufacturing
d) None capabilities domestically

14) Consider the following statements regarding the 18) Consider the following statements regarding the
One Rank One Pension (OROP) scheme: "EV as a Service" program:
1. OROP benefits apply uniformly to all ex- 1. The program is spearheaded by the
service personnel, including those Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to
discharged voluntarily after the support India's target of net-zero emissions
scheme’s implementation. by 2050.
2. The scheme provides for arrears to be 2. It mandates the use of a single
paid in four half-yearly installments for make/model of E-Car for all government
most beneficiaries. departments to maintain uniformity.
3. Family pensioners and Gallantry 3. The program facilitates the deployment of
awardees receive their arrears in a single 1,00,000 E-Buses across India under the
installment. program.
Which of the above statements is correct? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only a) Only one
b) 1, 2, and 3 b) Only two
c) 1 and 3 only c) All three
d) 2 and 3 only d) None

15) Dholera is part of which of the following unique 19) Consider the following statements regarding the
development initiatives in India? key features of the "Animal Health Security
a) Brownfield Industrial Park Strengthening in India for Pandemic
b) Renewable Energy Cluster Preparedness and Response" initiative:
c) Special Agricultural Economic Zone 1. The initiative includes upgrading
d) India’s first Greenfield Smart City laboratory networks and vaccine
manufacturing facilities.
16) Consider the following statements about the 2. Its primary objective is to achieve
India Semiconductor Mission (ISM): complete eradication of zoonotic diseases in
1. ISM was launched with a dedicated India.
budget under the Ministry of Commerce. 3. The project was developed as part of the
2. The mission includes incentives to G20’s 2022 Pandemic Fund initiative.
establish semiconductor fabs, display Which of the above statements are correct?

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
a) Only one d) To promote artificial intelligence in
b) Only two healthcare
c) All three
d) None 24) Consider the following statements about
Operation Dronagiri:
20) Consider the following statements about the 1. The initiative focuses exclusively on urban
2019 amendment to CSR regulations in India: infrastructure.
1. Before 2019, companies could carry 2. It operates independently of private
forward unspent CSR funds to the next fiscal sector participation.
year. 3. It is led by the Ministry of Environment,
2. Post-2019, unspent CSR funds must be Forest and Climate Change.
deposited in a government-specified fund if Which of the above statements is/are correct?
not utilized within three years. a) 1 and 2 only
3. The amendment introduced provisions b) 2 and 3 only
that restrict CSR spending to certain c) 1 and 3 only
predefined sectors only. d) None
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only 25) Which feature distinguishes the Know Your
b) 2 only Medicine (KYM) App?
c) 1 and 3 only a) Real-time performance tracking for
d) 1, 2, and 3 athletes
b) Direct interaction with team doctors
21) Which of the following committees through the app
recommended integrating the provisions of c) Integration with wearable fitness devices
AFSPA into the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) d) Customizable search options for
Act (UAPA), 1967? medicines based on sport categories
a) Second Administrative Reforms
Commission (ARC) 26) Consider the following statements regarding
b) Justice Verma Committee Operation Dronagiri:
c) Santosh Hegde Committee 1. The primary objective of Operation
d) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy Committee Dronagiri is to integrate geospatial technologies into
key sectors for improved quality of life.
22) Consider the following statements about Dharti 2. It relies entirely on government funding
Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan: with no private sector collaboration.
1. It focuses exclusively on employment 3. The Geospatial Innovation Cell is an
generation in tribal regions. oversight body for the operation.
2. The program aims to preserve tribal How many of the above statements is/are correct?
traditions alongside socio-economic a) Only one
development. b) Only two
3. It is a state-specific initiative limited to c) All three
the Chotanagpur Plateau. d) None
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only 27) Consider the following statements regarding the
b) 2 only e-Tarang System:
c) 3 only 1. It was developed by the Ministry of
d) None of the above Communications.
2. It focuses on civilian and defence
23) The primary objective of the 'PPP plus PPP' communication systems equally.
model introduced on World Diabetes Day is: 3. It enables interference-free operation of
a) To eliminate diabetes entirely defence equipment during wartime and
b) To enhance international collaborations peacetime.
for combating diabetes Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) To address diabetes through collaborative a) 1 only
domestic and global partnerships b) 3 only

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
c) 1 and 2 only 32) Consider the following statements regarding
d) None Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):
1. It was established under the Ministry of
28) Consider the following statements about the Power.
Know Your Medicine (KYM) App: 2. It is responsible for implementing the
1. It was developed by the World Anti- National Solar Mission (NSM).
Doping Agency (WADA). 3. Its mandate was expanded to include the
2. It uses image and audio search for entire renewable energy sector.
enhanced accessibility. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
3. It allows athletes to verify medicines for a) Only one
prohibited substances. b) Only two
4. It is primarily targeted at athletes, c) All three
coaches, and sports professionals. d) None
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one 33) Consider the following statements regarding the
b) Only two STARS Program (Strengthening Teaching-
c) Only three Learning and Results for States):
d) All four 1. It is funded by the World Bank and
managed by the Ministry of Education.
29) What is the primary aim of the Bhu-Neer Portal? 2. The Program is a part of the Samagra
a) To promote large-scale water extraction Shiksha scheme.
projects 3. The program emphasizes skill-based
b) To provide state-wise groundwater education in schools.
quality data Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) To regulate and manage groundwater a) 1 and 2 only
resources sustainably b) 1 and 3 only
d) To introduce a digital system for surface c) 2 and 3 only
water distribution d) 1, 2, and 3

30) Consider the following statements regarding the 34) Consider the following statements about the
Waves OTT Platform: One Nation One Subscription (ONOS):
1. It supports young content creators and 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme
National Creator Awardees. implemented by the Ministry of Science and
2. It was launched by Prasar Bharati under Technology.
the Ministry of Information and 2. It aims to provide international research
Broadcasting. journal access to all private universities in
3. It is supported by BharatNet for enhancing India.
rural connectivity. 3. It benefits students and researchers,
How many of the above statements is/are correct? especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
a) Only one 4. It is aligned with the National Education
b) Only two Policy (NEP) 2020 and supported
c) All three by Anusandhan National
d) None Research Foundation (ANRF).
Which of the above statements are correct?
31) Which of the following features distinguishes the a) 2, 3 and 4 only
PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme? b) 3, and 4 only
a) Collateral-free education loans with a 50% c) 1, 3, and 4 only
government credit guarantee d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
b) Eligibility for all higher education
institutions in India 35) Consider the following statements about the
c) Interest subvention for families with an Places of Worship Act, 1991:
annual income up to ₹8 lakhs 1. The Act maintains the religious character
d) Exclusively supports foreign education for of places of worship as they existed on
meritorious students January 26, 1950.

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. It prohibits conversion of religious sites to d) None
different denominations or segments.
3. The Ayodhya dispute is specifically 39) Consider the following statements about the
excluded from the Act’s provisions. Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS):
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 1. The CRS operates directly under the
a) Only one Ministry of Railways.
b) Only two 2. It primarily oversees operational
c) All three efficiency and infrastructure expansion in
d) None the railways.
3. The CRS is headquartered in New Delhi,
36) Consider the following: ensuring better coordination with other
Statement-I: Atal Innovation Mission 2.0 railway bodies.
includes a State Innovation Mission (SIM) to Which of the above statements is/are correct?
integrate state-level innovation ecosystems a) 1 only
with NITI Aayog’s framework. b) 2 only
Statement-II: SIM focuses on bilateral c) 3 only
collaborations with other countries to foster d) None
innovation and entrepreneurship.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 40) Consider the following statements about the Bal
the above statements? Vivah Mukt Bharat Campaign:
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. The campaign targets states with the
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation lowest child marriage rates.
for Statement-I 2. It aims to eliminate child marriage by
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2025.
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 3. The campaign includes a public portal for
explanation for Statement-I reporting and monitoring child marriage
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is cases.
incorrect Which of the above statements is/are correct?
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II a) 1 and 2 only
is correct b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
37) Which of the following statements about the d) None
Indian Chemical Council (ICC) is incorrect?
a) The ICC is the apex body representing
India's chemical industry.
b) The ICC promotes the Responsible Care 5. Science and Technology
(RC) program to ensure sustainability and safety
in the chemical industry. 1) With reference to the European Space Agency’s
c) The ICC exclusively represents the organic Moonlight Lunar Communications and
chemical industry in India. Navigation Services (LCNS), consider the
d) The ICC has launched initiatives like Nicer following statements:
Globe for chemical transportation safety. 1. The Moonlight programme will deploy a
constellation of around five satellites to
38) Consider the following statements about the provide high-speed communication and
features of the Eklavya Platform: navigation support on the Moon.
1. The platform focuses on modern warfare 2. The initial services of Moonlight are
concepts and emerging military trends. expected to begin by the end of 2028,
2. It replaces all physical training courses for with full operational capabilities
the Indian Army. anticipated by 2030.
3. Registration for the platform is restricted 3. The programme focuses primarily on the
to senior-level officers. Moon’s equatorial regions, avoiding
How many of the above statements is/are correct? areas like the South Pole due to extreme
a) Only one conditions.
b) Only two
c) All three
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? to prevent Circulating Vaccine-derived
A. 1 only Poliovirus (cVDPV) transmission.
B. 1 and 2 only 3. India was declared polio-free by the
C. 2 and 3 only World Health Organization (WHO) in 2011.
D. 1, 2, and 3 4. High-quality immunization campaigns
have no impact on Circulating Vaccine-
2) Consider the following statements about the derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) transmission
significance and benefits of ISRO’s analog space rates.
mission: Which of the above statements are correct?
1. The mission will exclusively benefit space a) 2 only
missions to the International Space Station b) 1 and 3 only
(ISS). c) 1 and 4 only
2. It is designed to simulate extraterrestrial d) 2 and 4 only
habitat conditions for future interplanetary
missions. 6) What is the primary purpose of the Visible
3. The mission involves testing life-support Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) on the
systems and behavior in isolated conditions. ADITYA-L1 mission?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) To observe the solar corona and
a) Only one investigate Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
b) Only two b) To study the interior structure of the Sun
c) All three c) To measure the solar magnetic field at the
d) None Sun's core
d) To monitor the Sun's photospheric
3) Which of the following best describes the temperature variations
primary purpose of the Inactivated Polio Vaccine
(IPV) in the Universal Immunization Programme 7) Consider the following statements about the
(UIP)? Proba-3 satellite's mission details:
a) To act as a booster dose, enhancing 1. Proba-3 will primarily focus on exploring
immunity when administered with DPT the deep space regions beyond our solar
(Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus) vaccine system.
b) To serve as a primary vaccine given only 2. The mission involves a single satellite
to infants at birth designed to collect solar data.
c) To provide lifelong immunity from the first 3. The Proba-3 mission marks the first
dose itself collaboration between ISRO and the
d) To replace Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) in European Union.
polio-endemic countries 4. Proba-3 will launch from a European
spaceport.
4) Which of the following best describes vaccine- Which of the above statements is correct?
derived poliovirus (VDPV)? a) 1 only
a) A type of polio virus that only causes mild b) 2 only
symptoms and cannot lead to outbreaks c) 3 and 4 only
b) A mutated form of the weakened virus d) None of the above
from the oral polio vaccine (OPV), which can
cause outbreaks in under-immunized areas 8) Which of the following statements about the
c) A strain that originates from wild Iranian satellite Kowsar is incorrect?
poliovirus in poorly sanitized areas a) Kowsar was launched as part of Iran’s
d) A newly discovered strain of poliovirus national space expansion for military
resistant to all current vaccines applications.
b) Kowsar supports environmental
5) Consider the following statements about polio monitoring and agricultural activities.
virus transmission and eradication efforts: c) Kowsar was developed for Earth
1. The polio virus primarily spreads through observation.
respiratory droplets. d) Kowsar was launched from the Vostochny
2. In India, multiple rounds of oral polio Cosmodrome on a Russian Soyuz rocket.
vaccine (OPV) immunization are conducted
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
9) Consider the following statements regarding the 12) Which of the following principles allows airships
working principles of Gravity Energy Storage: to achieve lift?
1. Gravity Energy Storage primarily stores a) Lighter-than-air principle using gases like
energy by converting electrical energy into helium or hydrogen
thermal energy. b) Thrust-based propulsion like jet engines
2. This technology relies solely on batteries c) Magnetic levitation similar to Maglev
for energy storage and release. trains
3. The technology is ideal for urban areas d) Vacuum-filled compartments to reduce
with limited space as it requires only weight
minimal infrastructure.
4. It is currently in the early stages of 13) Which of the following best represents the
development, facing high initial setup costs significance of Zhurong’s discovery of an ancient
and regulatory challenges. ocean on Mars?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) It conclusively proves that Mars once
a) Only one supported microbial life.
b) Only two b) It indicates that Mars had a stable
c) Only three atmosphere similar to Earth’s.
d) All four c) It strengthens the theory of Mars'
transition from a warm, wet planet to a cold,
10) Consider the following statements regarding dry one.
allulose: d) It suggests that liquid water still exists on
1. Allulose is 100% as sweet as regular sugar, the surface of Mars.
making it a perfect substitute for sugar in
the same quantities. 14) Consider the following statements about
2. Allulose can aid in weight management seaplanes and their characteristics:
due to its nearly zero-calorie content. 1. All Seaplanes are capable of operating on
3. It is classified as a "novel food" in the both water and land, making them highly
European Union, meaning its approval status versatile for regional connectivity.
is still pending. 2. Floatplanes are designed to operate on
4. Allulose is widely approved and both fresh and salt water due to their
recognized as safe for consumption without specialized hull structure.
any reported side effects. 3. Flying boats are primarily used for cargo
How many of the above statements is/are correct? transport in regional water-based
a) Only one operations.
b) Only two How many of the above statements is/are correct?
c) Only three a) Only one
d) All four b) Only two
c) All three
11) Consider the following statements regarding the d) None
applications of Python with Processing-In-
Memory (PIM) technology: 15) Consider the following statements about China’s
1. It is used exclusively for memory- Zhurong rover:
intensive graphical applications. 1. Zhurong is part of the Tianwen-1 mission,
2. Python with PIM can reduce data aimed at conducting geological and
transfer bottlenecks, especially in atmospheric analysis on Mars.
mathematical computations. 2. The primary landing site for Zhurong is
3. This technology offers substantial energy Gale Crater in Mars’ southern hemisphere.
savings for high-performance computing 3. The rover is equipped to analyze potential
needs. signs of life through chemical analysis of
Which of the above statements is correct? Martian soil.
a) 1 only How many of the above statements is/are correct?
b) 1 and 2 only a) Only one
c) 2 and 3 only b) Only two
d) 1, 2, and 3 c) All three
d) None
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to
16) What unique contribution did Satyendra Nath 3-5% U-235 concentration, suitable for
Bose make to quantum mechanics? nuclear reactors.
a) Development of the Schrödinger equation 3. The process of uranium enrichment
b) Discovery of the neutron produces plutonium-239 as a byproduct.
c) Formulation of Bose-Einstein Statistics How many of the above statements is/are correct?
d) Introduction of the uncertainty principle a) Only one
b) Only two
17) Consider the following statements about the c) All three
objectives of "One Day One Genome": d) None
1. The initiative aims to map the human
genome in collaboration with 21) What is the primary cause of High-Altitude
international agencies. Sickness?
2. It is designed to support advancements a) Increased atmospheric pressure at higher
in artificial intelligence and robotics. altitudes
3. The initiative focuses on sequencing viral b) Excessive hydration at high altitudes
genomes to combat emerging infectious c) Reduced oxygen levels in the air at high
diseases. elevations
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) Rapid cooling of body temperature due to
a) 1 and 2 only high winds
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only 22) Space junk can lead to which of the following
d) None impacts on the atmosphere?
a) Promotion of polar vortex intensification
18) Consider the following statements about the AI b) Formation of polar ice caps
Data Bank’s applications: c) Accumulation of sulfur in the troposphere
1. It is exclusively designed for governance d) Alteration of atmospheric chemistry
and public administration.
2. It aims to replace all manual disaster 23) Consider the following statements about gamma
management techniques with AI. rays:
3. It was launched during the NITI Aayog AI 1. Gamma rays can penetrate Earth’s
Leadership Meet 2024. atmosphere and reach the surface without
How many of the above statements is/are correct? being blocked.
a) Only one 2. Gamma rays are visible to the naked eye
b) Only two as faint blue light.
c) All three 3. Gamma rays are produced only during
d) None nuclear reactions within stars.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
19) Which of the following statements about the a) 1 only
centrifugal process for uranium enrichment is b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) It enriches uranium by using high d) None of the above
temperatures to separate isotopes.
b) The process increases the concentration 24) Consider the following statements about the
of the isotope U-238. MACE (Major Atmospheric Cherenkov
c) Highly enriched uranium (HEU) produced Experiment) project:
through this process is exclusively used for 1. It is the highest imaging Cherenkov
nuclear reactors. telescope in the world, located in Hanle,
d) The process involves spinning uranium gas Ladakh.
at high speeds to increase U-235 concentration. 2. The MACE telescope is designed to detect
low-energy gamma rays.
20) Consider the following statements regarding 3. The MACE project is entirely dependent
uranium enrichment: on international collaborations for technical
1. Natural uranium contains a higher support.
percentage of U-235 than U-238. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
a) Only one 1. It is formed by twisting two layers of
b) Only two molybdenum disulfide at a small angle.
c) All three 2. Its superconducting state is achieved at
d) None room temperature.
3. It exhibits superconductivity driven by
25) Which Indian satellite series is used to track weak electron-electron interactions.
stubble burning with varying spatial resolutions? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) INSAT-3DR a) 1 only
b) CARTOSAT b) 2 only
c) RESOURCESAT Series c) 3 only
d) Megha-Tropiques d) None

26) Consider the following statements regarding

space junk and its impact on Earth’s
atmosphere: 6. International Relations
1. It predominantly consists of natural space
materials like asteroids and meteoroids. and Organisations
2. Burning space debris releases nitrogen
oxides, aluminum, and black carbon into the 1) With reference to the Kanda Express, consider
stratosphere. the following statements:
3. Soot particles from space junk absorption 1. The Kanda Express is a special train
disrupt natural climate patterns by warming service dedicated to transporting onions
the atmosphere. from Nashik to Delhi.
4. Pollutants from space debris can alter 2. The recent shipment is part of the
cloud formation and atmospheric chemistry. government's price stabilization strategy
Which of the above statements is/are correct? for onions.
a) 1 and 2 only 3. The initiative aims to promote the
b) 2, 3, and 4 only export of onions to neighbouring
c) 1, 3, and 4 only countries to boost foreign exchange
d) 2 and 4 only earnings.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
27) Which of the following is the primary source of a) 1 and 2 only
antibiotic contamination in milk? b) 2 only
a) Antibiotic residues from treatments like c) 2 and 3 only
mastitis control. d) 1, 2 and 3
b) Improper storage of milk at collection
centers. 2) With reference to BRICS and its membership,
c) Excessive use of preservatives during milk consider the following statements:
processing. 1. BRICS was founded in 2009 as a coalition
d) Contaminated water used for cleaning of emerging economies to enhance their
dairy equipment. global economic and political influence.
2. The headquarters of BRICS is located in
28) Which of the following best describes the Sabal- Shanghai, China.
20 Drone's operational environment? 3. New members can join BRICS only if all
a) It is optimized for urban surveillance in current members agree to their
densely populated areas. inclusion during the annual BRICS
b) It is designed for high-altitude and rugged summit.
terrains. How many of the statements given above are
c) It specializes in maritime applications and correct?
underwater operations. a) Only one
d) It is used exclusively for recreational and b) Only two
civilian photography. c) All three
d) None
29) Consider the following statements about the
New Moiré Superconductor:
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3) Regarding the current geopolitical situation on How many of the above statements is/are correct?
the Korean Peninsula, consider the following a) Only one
statements: b) Only two
1. North Korea has declared South Korea as c) All three
its “primary foe” and has ended any d) None
prospects for reunification in 2024.
2. The Korean War officially ended in 1953 7) Which of the following best describes one of the
with a peace treaty, establishing the main objectives of CARICOM (Caribbean
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) between Community and Common Market)?
North and South Korea. a) Establishing a common currency for
3. North Korea has withdrawn from the Caribbean nations
Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and has b) Coordinating foreign policy among
conducted multiple nuclear weapons member states
tests. c) Facilitating complete immigration among
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? member countries
A. 1 and 3 only d) Maintaining a standing military for
B. 2 and 3 only regional security
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 8) Consider the following statements about
CARICOM’s (Caribbean Community and Common
4) Which of the following best describes the Market) economic initiatives:
primary role of the Dzaleka Refugee Camp? 1. CARICOM promotes trade among member
a) To serve as a temporary shelter states through the CARICOM Single Market
exclusively for Malawian nationals and Economy (CSME).
b) To focus solely on resettlement and 2. CARICOM has achieved complete
relocation efforts for refugees economic integration, including a customs
c) To provide a platform for humanitarian union among all member states.
efforts, cultural exchange, and 3. CARICOM’s economic initiatives do not
empowerment of refugees include any collaboration with non-member
d) To exclusively house refugees from the states.
Middle East How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
5) Consider the following statements about the b) Only two
International Solar Alliance (ISA): c) All three
1. ISA was founded in 2015 and is d) None
headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
2. ISA is focused exclusively on promoting 9) Which of the following best describes the
solar energy in developing countries. primary mandate of the Food and Agriculture
3. ISA collaborates only with public sector Organization (FAO)?
entities to implement solar projects. a) To regulate international agricultural
Which of the above statements are correct? trade and impose tariffs
a) 1 and 2 only b) To monitor and promote global nutrition,
b) 2 and 3 only agricultural productivity, and rural
c) 1 and 3 only development
d) None of the above c) To directly fund agricultural projects in
developing countries
6) Consider the following statements about the d) To create and enforce global agricultural
Asian Buddhist Summit 2024: production quotas
1. The summit will be organized by the
Ministry of Tourism, Government of India. 10) Consider the following statements about the
2. The theme of the summit is “Buddhism for functions and role of the Food and Agriculture
Global Peace.” Organisation (FAO):
3. The Asian Buddhist Summit was first 1. FAO is responsible for setting mandatory
initiated by the United Nations to promote international standards for food production.
interfaith harmony.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
2. FAO publishes significant global reports on 14) Consider the following statements about the
forests, fisheries, and agricultural markets. South China Sea Dispute:
3. FAO is partially funded by voluntary 1. The nine-dash line claimed by China has
contributions from member countries. been validated by international arbitration.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 2. The Paracel Islands are under joint
a) Only one administration by China, Vietnam, and
b) Only two Taiwan.
c) All three 3. The Second Thomas Shoal is exclusively
d) None controlled by the Philippines without
contestation.
11) Consider the following statements about the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO): a) Only one
1. WIPO is a specialized agency of the United b) Only two
Nations based in Geneva, Switzerland. c) All three
2. Its membership makes it nearly universal d) None
in its reach.
3. WIPO primarily functions as a dispute- 15) Consider the following statements about the
resolution body for intellectual property International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
issues between countries. 1. It was established as a specialized
Which of the above statements is/are correct? agency under the United Nations.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. It oversees compliance with the
b) 2 and 3 only Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty
c) 1 and 3 only (CTBT).
d) 1, 2, and 3 3. It promotes nuclear energy applications
for peaceful purposes globally.
12) Which of the following best describes the role of 4. Its headquarters is located in Geneva,
the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)? Switzerland.
a) It primarily focuses on monitoring and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
managing global greenhouse gas emissions. a) 1 and 3 only
b) WMO serves as a specialized UN agency b) 2 and 4 only
for meteorology, climate, hydrology, and c) 3 only
geophysical sciences. d) 1, 2, and 4 only
c) WMO functions independently of the
United Nations. 16) Which of the following countries launched the
d) WMO exclusively provides weather data Student Direct Stream (SDS) visa program in
to developed nations. 2018?
a) United States
13) Consider the following statements about 25th b) United Kingdom
South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ c) Australia
Council (SATRC-25): d) Canada
1. SATRC facilitates knowledge exchange
through seminars, training, and workshops. 17) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. It is governed by the Ministry of World Anti-Doping Code:
Telecommunications of the host country. 1. It is legally binding for all member
3. It promotes regulatory cooperation nations.
among member countries. 2. It applies to athletes, coaches, and
4. SATRC functions under the direct sports administrators.
supervision of the ITU. 3. It includes provisions for sanctions
Which of the above statements is/are correct? against doping violations.
a) Only one Which of the above statements is/are correct?
b) Only two a) 1 and 3 only
c) Only three b) 2 and 3 only
d) None c) 1 and 2 only
d) All three

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
18) Consider the following statements about United c) 2 and 3 only
Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA): d) 1, 2, and 3
1. Its mandate is renewed every five years
by the UN Security Council. 22) Consider the following statements about
2. It provides microfinance support to UNICEF:
Palestinian refugees. 1. It was established post-World War I to
3. UNRWA’s funding is entirely sourced focus on children affected by conflicts.
from the UN’s regular budget. 2. UNICEF operates in over 190 countries
How many of the above statements is/are correct? and territories.
a) Only one 3. It relies exclusively on government
b) Only two contributions for funding.
c) All three How many of the above statements are correct?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two
19) Consider the following statements about the c) All three
Hague Convention, 1954: d) None
1. It applies exclusively during armed
conflicts and not during peacetime. 23) Consider the following statements regarding
2. India is not a signatory to the Hague UNICEF’s initiatives and achievements:
Convention. 1. The Children’s Rights and Business
3. The Blue Shield emblem is used to Principles were developed in collaboration
identify cultural heritage sites for with the World Bank.
protection. 2. The “Data Must Speak” Initiative aims to
How many of the above statements is/are correct? improve access to quality education.
a) Only one 3. UNICEF’s headquarters is located in
b) Only two Geneva, Switzerland.
c) All three How many of the above statements are correct?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two
20) Which of the following is a key outcome of the c) All three
Jeddah Commitments? d) None
a) Elimination of antibiotics in food
production 24) Consider the following:
b) Promotion of regional trade in Statement-I: The United Nations Security
antimicrobials Council (UNSC) can refer cases to the ICC even if the
c) Suspension of the Codex Alimentarius crimes occurred outside the jurisdiction of the ICC.
guidelines Statement-II: The ICC is a judicial body
d) Establishment of the One Health AMR under the United Nations and operates within its
Learning Hub framework.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
21) Consider the following statements regarding the the above statements?
Fourth Global High-Level Ministerial Conference a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation
1. The conference was hosted by the United for Statement-I
Nations General Assembly (UNGA). b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Its outcomes included adherence to Codex correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Alimentarius guidelines for prudent explanation for Statement-I
antimicrobial use. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
3. It proposed the creation of a Regional incorrect
Antimicrobial Access and Logistics Hub for d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
equitable distribution. is correct
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only 25) Consider the following statements about the
b) 1 and 2 only Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty:

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. It was launched during the Brazil G20
Summit in 2024. 29) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. Membership includes countries, Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical
international organizations, financial Weapons (OPCW):
institutions, and NGOs. 1. The OPCW was established as part of the
3. Operational funding is solely provided by United Nations framework.
the Food and Agriculture Organization 2. The OPCW's mission is limited to verifying
(FAO). the destruction of declared chemical
How many of the above statements is/are correct? weapons stockpiles.
a) Only one 3. The Hague Award is presented annually to
b) Only two OPCW member states for achieving chemical
c) All three weapons disarmament.
d) None Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
26) Consider the following statements regarding the b) 1 and 3 only
International Cooperative Alliance (ICA): c) 2 only
1. It organizes global summits to address d) None
cooperative challenges.
2. Its mission includes promoting sustainable 30) What is the primary aim of the International
development. Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN)?
3. Its headquarters is located in Geneva, a) Strengthening diagnostic laboratories in
Switzerland. high-income countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? b) Supporting open-access pathogen
a) 1 only repositories.
b) 1 and 3 only c) Improving public health decision-making
c) 2 and 3 only through pathogen genomic surveillance.
d) 1, 2, and 3 d) Funding clinical trials for new vaccines.

27) Which of the following is the primary vision 31) Consider the following statements about the
behind the Gelephu Mindfulness City in Bhutan? International Pathogen Surveillance Network
a) To promote harmony, sustainability, and (IPSN):
the philosophy of Gross National Happiness. 1. The IPSN is hosted by WHO and funded
b) To establish Bhutan’s largest industrial solely by the UN Foundation.
hub. 2. It focuses on tracking pathogen evolution
c) To create a city exclusively for economic and ensuring equitable access to genomic
activities and trade. tools.
d) To attract international tourism for 3. The network is limited to addressing avian
Bhutan’s cultural heritage. flu-related genomic surveillance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
28) Consider the following statements regarding the a) 1 and 2 only
Riyadh Design Law Treaty (DLT): b) 2 only
1. The treaty was adopted by the World c) 3 only
Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) d) None
member states.
2. It requires all industrial designs to be
registered separately for each jurisdiction.
3. The treaty encourages electronic systems
and the exchange of priority documents.
4. India has signed the treaty to enhance its
global competitiveness in design protection.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
C. 2 and 3 only
7. Polity D. 1, 2, and 3
1) Regarding the "Mummy-Papa, Vote Do" 4) Consider the following statements regarding
campaign, consider the following statements: Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs):
1. It is an initiative by the Election 1. EVMs are designed to handle voting for
Commission to increase voter turnout in local body elections, state legislatures, and
Jharkhand. the Parliament.
2. The campaign involves children writing 2. They are manufactured by private firms
letters to their parents, urging them to under the supervision of the Election
vote. Commission.
3. It focuses exclusively on urban areas 3. EVMs have multilingual options to
with traditionally low voter turnout. facilitate voting accessibility.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 4. Each EVM can record up to 2,000 votes.
a) 1 only Which of the above statements are correct?
b) 1 and 2 only a) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, and 4 only
2) Consider the following statements regarding the
tenure and functions of the Chief Justice of India 5) With respect to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit
(CJI): Trail (VVPAT) feature in EVMs, consider the
1. The Chief Justice of India has the following statements:
discretion to appoint any High Court 1. VVPAT provides a printed slip with the
judge as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme name of the candidate the voter has
Court to handle a backlog of cases. selected.
2. The CJI is responsible for the allocation 2. The printed slip can be retained by the
of cases and the composition of benches voter for future reference.
in the Supreme Court. 3. VVPAT is used as an audit mechanism to
3. Upon retirement, a former CJI cannot be verify the electronic vote.
appointed to any position under the 4. VVPAT was introduced to increase
government of India to avoid conflicts of transparency and reduce doubts about EVM
interest. accuracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? How many of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only a) Only one
B. 2 only b) Only two
C. 2 and 3 only c) Only three
D. 1, 2, and 3 d) All four
3) Consider the following statements about the 6) Regarding the security and functionality of
Citizenship Act, 1955: Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the
1. The Act does not allow for dual following statements:
citizenship, maintaining India’s policy of 1. EVMs use encrypted memory to securely
single citizenship. store vote data.
2. Citizenship can be obtained through 2. They rely on the internet for vote
birth, descent, registration, or counting and transmission.
naturalization, and there is a special 3. Backup power ensures that EVMs function
provision for those married to Indian in areas with no electricity supply.
citizens. 4. EVMs are tamper-proof, and the recorded
3. The Act provides for the revocation of data cannot be altered.
citizenship if a person acquires Which of the above statements are correct?
citizenship of another country. a) 1, 3, and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? b) 2 and 4 only
A. 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
7) What did the Supreme Court recently rule a) Only one
regarding the interpretation of "material b) Only two
resources of the community" under Article 39(b) c) All three
of the Indian Constitution? d) None
a) All private property is automatically
classified as material resources of the
community.
b) Only publicly owned resources can be 8. History, Art and Culture
considered material resources of the
community. 1) Which of the following best describes the
c) Not all private properties can be classified primary purpose of the Tumaini Festival?
as material resources of the community. a) To promote local business and commerce
d) The Directive Principles of State Policy through art and craft sales
mandate that all resources, public or private, b) To provide a competitive platform for
be used for state welfare. regional musicians and artists
c) To organize sports events among African
8) Consider the following statements regarding countries
constitutional provisions for minority institutions d) To foster cultural exchange and highlight
in India: resilience, especially among refugees
1. Article 28 allows religious instruction in all
educational institutions, including those 2) During which period did Emperor Ashoka
funded by the state. actively promote Buddha Dhamma across his
2. Article 30(1) grants minorities the right to empire?
establish and administer educational a) 6th Century BCE
institutions of their choice. b) 3rd Century BCE
3. Minority institutions are exempt from all c) 1st Century BCE
forms of government regulation to preserve d) 11th Century CE
autonomy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3) Consider the following statements about the
a) 1 and 2 only Maha Kumbh Mela:
b) 1 and 3 only 1. The Maha Kumbh Mela is held every 6
c) 2 only years in Prayagraj.
d) 1, 2, and 3 2. The event involves performing sacred
rituals aimed at spiritual liberation.
9) Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an 3. The Maha Kumbh Mela only takes place at
institution to qualify as a minority institution? the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj.
a) It must be established and administered 4. The event’s roots trace back to the Vedic
primarily by a minority community. period.
b) It must have a primary purpose of Which of the above statements are correct?
benefiting the minority community. a) 1 and 3 only
c) It cannot receive any funding or b) 2 only
contributions from the government. c) 2 and 4 only
d) It may have been established before the d) None of the above
Constitution came into effect.
4) Consider the following statements regarding the
10) Consider the following statements about the historical development of the Kumbh Mela:
Indian Constitution Museum: 1. The Kumbh Mela gained prominence
1. It features a 360-degree visual display on solely during the Gupta period as Hinduism
India’s Pre-Independence history. spread.
2. The museum is exclusively maintained by 2. The Chola dynasty in South India
the Ministry of Culture, Government of supported the Kumbh Mela, contributing to
India. its growth.
3. It houses a photolithographic copy of the
Constitution.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. British colonial documentation in the 19th a) India Wins Freedom
century recorded the socio-religious b) Letters from a Father to His Daughter
significance of the Kumbh Mela. c) Glimpses of World History
4. Emperor Akbar banned the participation d) The Discovery of India
of Hindu religious groups in Kumbh Mela
events. 9) Consider the following statements about the
Which of the above statements is correct? Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund (JNMF):
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan served as its
b) 2 and 3 only chairperson.
c) 3 only 2. The JNMF Archive includes many volumes
d) 1, 2, and 4 only of Nehru’s selected works and letters to
Chief Ministers.
5) Which of the following factors primarily 3. It is governed by trustees under the
triggered the rebellion among the sepoys leadership of the Prime Minister of India.
stationed in Shahjahanpur in 1857? Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Rumors of excessive taxation a) Only one
b) Economic grievances due to salary cuts b) Only two
c) Discontent over forced religious c) All three
conversions d) None
d) The issue of greased cartridges and
adulterated flour 10) Consider the following statements regarding
Janjatiya Gaurav Divas:
6) Consider the following statements regarding 1. It was launched to honor the 100th birth
Shahjahanpur’s significance in the 1857 anniversary of Birsa Munda.
Rebellion: 2. The day celebrates the cultural heritage
1. The district was formed by the British and history of tribal communities across
administration before the rebellion. India.
2. Shahjahanpur served as a base for 3. It commemorates tribal movements for
prominent freedom fighters, including independence and social justice.
Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah and Nana Sahib. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
3. The capture of the Roman Catholic Church a) Only one
in Shahjahanpur marked a symbolic end to b) Only two
British influence in the area. c) All three
Which of the above statements are correct? d) None
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only 11) Consider the following statements about the
c) 1 and 3 only Māori haka:
d) All three 1. It is exclusively a war dance performed
only by men.
7) Consider the following statements about 2. Haka is used solely during battles to
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad: intimidate opponents.
1. He was the youngest President of the 3. It involves vigorous movements, rhythmic
Indian National Congress. chanting, and body-slapping.
2. He was arrested during the Quit India Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Movement and detained in Yerwada jail. a) 1 only
3. He served as India’s first Minister of b) 2 only
Education. c) 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) None of the above
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only 12) Which of the following is a characteristic feature
c) 1 and 3 only of Megalithic culture in India?
d) 1, 2, and 3 a) Use of bronze tools for agriculture.
b) Rock shelters exclusively depicting daily
8) Which of the following works is NOT a part of life scenes.
the Nehru Archive collection? c) Absence of iron tools and weapons.
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
d) Construction of large stone burial 1. It provided for the establishment of a
monuments. federal government.
2. It introduced provincial autonomy.
13) Consider the following statements about the 3. It included provisions for an independent
Megalithic period in India: judiciary.
1. It marks the first extensive use of iron for How many of the above statements is/are correct?
tools and weapons. a) Only one
2. Rock art primarily depicted urban b) Only two
settlements and trade routes. c) All three
3. Megalithic cultures practiced agriculture, d) None
hunting, and animal husbandry.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? 18) Consider the following statements about Lothal:
a) Only one 1. Lothal is the northernmost Indus Valley
b) Only two Civilization site.
c) All three 2. It was known for its bead-making and
d) None maritime trade industries.
3. The dockyard at Lothal linked it to ancient
14) Consider the following statements about the trade routes.
Brihadeeswarar Temple: 4. Lothal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
1. The temple was constructed during the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
reign of Rajendra Chola I. a) 1 and 4 only
2. The temple murals are entirely original to b) 2, 3, and 4 only
the Chola period, with no additions by later c) 1, 2, and 4 only
rulers. d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only 19) Consider the following statements regarding
b) 2 only ISKCON:
c) Both 1 and 2 1. ISKCON was founded in New York City.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It follows the Advaita Vedanta philosophy
of Shankara.
15) Consider the following statements regarding 3. The movement is involved in free food
Brihadeeswarar Temple’s architectural features: distribution and eco-village initiatives.
1. The stupika on the vimana is square- Which of the above statements is/are correct?
shaped, reflecting early Chola design a) 1 and 3 only
principles. b) 1 only
2. The temple lacks any gopuras (gateway c) 2 and 3 only
towers) in its complex. d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Its inscriptions primarily document myths
and legends, with no references to historical
events or rituals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
9. States
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only 1) Consider the following statements regarding the
d) None of the above Moran community:
1. The Morans are indigenous to Assam and
16) Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi was associated Arunachal Pradesh and belong to the Kachari
with which of the following movements? family of Tibeto-Burman origin.
a) Quit India Movement 2. They predominantly speak the Moran
b) Civil Disobedience Movement language, which is closely related to
c) Non-Cooperation Movement Assamese.
d) Swadeshi Movement 3. The Morans are seeking Scheduled Tribe
(ST) status for enhanced educational and
17) Consider the following statements about the employment opportunities.
Government of India Act, 1935: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
a) 1 and 2 only 2. It requires significant reductions in crop
b) 2 and 3 only production to make space for solar panels,
c) 1 and 3 only thus lowering agricultural output.
d) 1, 2, and 3 3. Agrivoltaic systems often come with
government incentives or subsidies, further
supporting farmers’ incomes.
Which of the above statements is correct?
10. Agriculture a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
1) Which ministry administers the Namo Drone Didi c) 1 and 2 only
Scheme? d) All of the above
a) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’
Welfare 5) Consider the following statements about the
b) Ministry of Rural Development import and significance of Urad (black gram) in
c) Ministry of Electronics and Information India:
Technology 1. Urad is a staple crop only grown in the
d) Ministry of Women and Child Rabi season in India.
Development 2. India imports a substantial amount of
Urad from Brazil, among other countries,
2) Which of the following best describes the due to complementary cropping
primary reason Varagu (Kodo Millet) is seasons.
considered beneficial? 3. Urad cultivation has recently spread to
a) It is highly water-intensive, making it ideal tropical regions, including the Caribbean
for monsoon-dependent regions. and parts of Africa.
b) It contains gluten, which supports gluten- How many of the above statements is/are correct?
tolerant diets. a) Only one
c) It is rich in fiber and antioxidants, making b) Only two
it a healthy option, especially for c) All three
economically weaker sections. d) None
d) It has low nutritional value but high
market demand due to its unique flavor. 6) Consider the following statements regarding the
National Gopal Ratna Award:
3) Consider the following statements about 1. The award recognizes excellence in both
Agrivoltaic farming: the dairy and poultry sectors.
1. Agrivoltaic farming requires panels to be 2. It includes special categories for the North
installed very close to the ground to Eastern Region (NER).
maximize energy output. 3. It is conferred in three categories,
2. Shading from solar panels reduces water including Best Dairy Farmer Rearing
loss by decreasing evaporation from the soil. Indigenous Cattle.
3. Agrivoltaic farming is only possible in arid Which of the above statements is/are correct?
and semi-arid regions due to the need for a) 1 and 2 only
high sunlight exposure. b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is correct? c) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 only 7) Consider the following statements regarding the
d) 2 and 3 only National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF):
1. It aims to promote chemical-free farming
4) Consider the following statements about the practices.
economic benefits of agrivoltaic farming: 2. The mission involves establishing Bio-
1. Agrivoltaic farming allows farmers to earn input Resource Centres (BRCs) across India.
revenue from both agricultural produce and 3. Real-time geo-tagged monitoring of
solar energy generation. clusters is enabled through an online portal.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only 2) Consider the following statements about
d) 1, 2, and 3 Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR:
1. It is an annual exercise held alternatively
8) Which of the following states contributed the in India and the USA.
highest share to India’s milk production in 2023- 2. The exercise involves participants from all
24? three branches of the Indian and US Armed
a) Rajasthan Forces.
b) Uttar Pradesh 3. Psychological warfare tactics are a training
c) Gujarat component of VAJRA PRAHAR.
d) Madhya Pradesh Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
9) Consider the following statements about India’s b) 3 only
dairy and livestock sector: c) 2 and 3 only
1. India accounts for nearly one-fourth of d) None of the above
the global milk production.
2. India ranks first globally in both milk and 3) Consider the following statements regarding
egg production. Exercise GARUD SHAKTI:
3. Per capita milk availability in India in 1. The exercise is conducted exclusively on
2022-23 was higher than the global average. Indian soil.
How many of the above statements are correct? 2. It involves training on amphibious assault
a) Only one tactics for naval operations.
b) Only two 3. The exercise aims to improve
c) All three interoperability between the Special Forces
d) None of India and Indonesia.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
10) Consider the following statements about Animal a) Only one
Quarantine and Certification Services (AQCS): b) Only two
1. AQCS provides internationally accepted c) All three
export certifications for livestock products. d) None
2. It regulates livestock imports under the
Livestock Importation Act. 4) Consider the following statements about the
3. AQCS primarily functions under the North Korea’s Hwasong-19 missile:
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 1. It is a short-range ballistic missile designed
How many of the above statements is/are correct? for regional defense.
a) Only one 2. The use of solid fuel allows for more rapid
b) Only two deployment and launch readiness.
c) All three 3. Its small size allows it to be transported
d) None discreetly, minimizing detection risk.
Which of the above statements is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
11. Defence and Security c) 3 only
d) None of the above
1) What feature makes Russia’s RS-24 Yars missile
distinct among intercontinental ballistic 5) Consider the following statements regarding the
missiles? MAHASAGAR initiative:
a) It uses liquid fuel for longer operational 1. MAHASAGAR involves annual in-person
life. meetings of maritime agencies from Indian
b) It is a stationary missile without mobility. Ocean Region nations.
c) It has a range limited to 5,000 km. 2. The initiative was started by India to
d) It is equipped with multiple address economic challenges in the Indian
independently targetable re-entry vehicles Ocean Region.
(MIRVs).

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. The recent edition of MAHASAGAR 1. The DSA was formed based on the
focused on maritime trade and resource recommendations of the Naresh Chandra
sharing among Indian Ocean nations. Task Force (2012).
Which of the above statements is correct? 2. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi.
a) 1 and 2 only 3. The DSA includes personnel from the
b) 2 and 3 only Army, Navy, and Air Force.
c) 1 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
d) None of the above a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
6) Consider the following statements about Project c) 2 and 3 only
Shaurya Gatha: d) 1 and 3 only
1. It is an initiative exclusively by the Indian
Army to promote military tourism. 10) Consider the following statements regarding the
2. The project focuses on creating an archive Long-Range Land Attack Cruise Missile
of India’s battles since the post- (LRLACM):
independence period. 1. The LRLACM has a range of 1,000 km with
3. It includes educational programs aimed precision strike capability.
specifically at military personnel. 2. It has been developed solely by Bharat
4. The project aims to enhance military Dynamics Limited (BDL) as the production
tourism through the documentation of partner.
historic sites and battlefields. 3. The missile can be launched from both
Which of the above statements is/are correct? ground-based mobile launchers and naval
a) 1 and 4 only platforms.
b) 2 and 3 only How many of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 4 only a) Only one
d) None of the above b) Only two
c) All three
7) Which organization was primarily responsible for d) None
the design and development of the Pinaka
Rocket Missile System? 11) Which of the following is NOT a role of the
a) Armament Research and Development Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?
Establishment (ARDE) a) Providing fire protection services to
b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) private entities
c) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) b) Security management for Indian airports
d) Indian Space Research Organisation and Delhi Metro
(ISRO) c) Maritime security at offshore oil rigs
d) All-women battalion for VIP security and
8) Consider the following statements public-facing roles
about Antariksha Abhyas – 2024:
1. Antariksha Abhyas – 2024 is conducted by 12) Which of the following statements correctly
the Defence Space Agency to address space- describes the Nirbhay Cruise Missile?
related threats and opportunities. a) It is a supersonic cruise missile with a
2. The exercise includes participation from maximum range of 500 km.
key military branches and organizations like b) It can operate at very low altitudes and
ISRO and DRDO. has deep penetration capabilities.
3. The exercise is conducted in Bengaluru. c) The missile is exclusively nuclear-capable.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) It is a fully imported missile used by
a) 1 only India’s defense forces.
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3 only 13) Consider the following statements regarding the
d) 1 and 2 only organizational structure of the Central Industrial
Security Force (CISF):
9) Consider the following statements regarding the 1. CISF is headquartered in Mumbai.
Defence Space Agency (DSA): 2. CISF operates independently of other
Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs).
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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
3. CISF is led by a Director-General, who is c) 3 only
typically an IPS officer. d) None of the above
4. CISF’s primary role is to protect only
nuclear and airport facilities. 18) The development of India’s first hypersonic
How many of the above statements is/are correct? missile is based on which project?
a) Only one a) Integrated Guided Missile Development
b) Only two Programme (IGMDP)
c) Only three b) Agni Programme
d) All four c) Hypersonic Technology Demonstrator
Vehicle (HSTDV)
14) What is the primary objective of Operation d) Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air
Kawach initiated by the Delhi Police? Missile (AMRAAM)
a) Improve public relations between police
and citizens 19) What is the primary role of the ATACMS (Army
b) Streamline traffic management in high- Tactical Missile Systems)?
crime areas a) Long-range intercontinental ballistic
c) Combat gang violence, drug trafficking, missile targeting
and organized crime b) Strategic nuclear weapon deployment
d) Enhance cybercrime investigation c) Short-range ballistic missile targeting high-
capabilities value enemy facilities
d) Naval warfare and submarine targeting
15) What is the primary objective of the e-Tarang
System? 20) Consider the following statements about
a) To enhance joint electronic warfare Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs):
operations and spectrum management 1. ICBMs are exclusively designed for nuclear
b) To monitor civilian communications in warhead delivery.
real-time 2. India’s Agni V is a solid-fuelled ICBM with
c) To develop AI-enabled weapons for a range of 7,000–10,000 km.
electronic warfare 3. Agni VI will be India’s first ICBM to feature
d) To focus solely on peacetime MIRV capability (Multiple Independently
electromagnetic spectrum optimization Targetable Re-entry Vehicles).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
16) What is the primary objective of Exercise Poorvi a) Only one
Prahar? b) Only two
a) To strengthen combat effectiveness for c) All three
integrated joint operations d) None
b) To enhance maritime capabilities of the
Indian Navy 21) Consider the following statements regarding the
c) To demonstrate India’s nuclear deterrence significance of SAREX-24:
strategy 1. It involved the largest-ever maritime
d) To train paramilitary forces for counter- simulations to date.
insurgency operations 2. It aimed to strengthen collaborative
engagement with regional and friendly
17) Consider the following statements about India’s nations.
first hypersonic missile: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. It has a maximum range of 500 km, a) 1 only
suitable for short-range missions. b) 2 only
2. It cannot carry nuclear warheads due to c) Both 1 and 2
treaty restrictions. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The missile is primarily designed for
exclusive naval use against enemy warships.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
1. The report aims to track global trends in
12. Reports and Indices intellectual property filings.
2. It primarily highlights countries’ rankings
1) Consider the following statements regarding the in innovation and competitiveness.
Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024 and India's 3. WIPI encourages nations to align their IP
performance: frameworks with international standards to
1. The Global Hunger Index uses indicators foster growth.
such as undernourishment, child Which of the above statements is/are correct?
wasting, child stunting, and child a) 1 only
mortality to assess hunger levels. b) 1, 2, and 3
2. India has the highest rate of child c) 2 and 3 only
stunting in the world, according to GHI d) 1 and 3 only
2024.
3. The Ministry of Women and Child 5) Consider the following statements about the
Development has raised concerns over Grievance Redressal Assessment and Index
GHI data, claiming that the Poshan (GRAI):
Tracker reports a lower child wasting 1. It is aimed at comparing grievance
rate than what GHI states. redressal mechanisms across private and
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? public sectors.
A. 1 only 2. GRAI promotes transparency and citizen
B. 1 and 3 only satisfaction in governance.
C. 2 and 3 only 3. Data for the GRAI is sourced from the
D. 1, 2, and 3 Public Financial Management System
(PFMS).
2) Consider the following statements about the QS How many of the above statements is/are correct?
World University Rankings’ methodology: a) Only one
1. The ranking system is published annually b) Only two
by Quacquarelli Symonds, a firm based in c) All three
London. d) None
2. Research and Employability are key
dimensions evaluated by QS. 6) As per State of the World’s Children Report
3. QS employs a survey of employers to 2024, which region is projected to host the
gauge the perceived employability of highest proportion of the global child population
graduates. by 2050?
How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Asia
a) Only one b) Latin America
b) Only two c) Europe
c) All three d) Africa
d) None
7) Which of the following organizations is not
3) Which of the following statements is true involved in publishing the Climate Change
regarding the "State of the Global Climate Performance Index (CCPI)?
Report"? a) Germanwatch
a) It is published bi-annually by the IPCC to b) NewClimate Institute
track climate goals. c) United Nations Environment Programme
b) It does not include any updates for UN (UNEP)
climate summits. d) Climate Action Network
c) It has been published by the WMO since
2016. 8) Consider the following statements regarding
d) It is an annual report by the WMO India’s climate policies as highlighted in Climate
providing updates on key climate indicators. Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025:
Statement-I: India received a "medium" rating
4) Consider the following statements about the for its climate policies due to delays in
objectives of the World Intellectual Property implementing renewable energy targets.
Indicators (WIPI) report by WIPO: Statement-II: Rapid expansion in solar power
www.insightsonindia.com 32
 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
projects and energy efficiency standards a) Exclusive site for coral reef research
contributed to India’s overall high performance. b) Site of the largest oil reserves in the
Which one of the following is correct in respect of region
the above statements? c) Home to international shipping
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are headquarters
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation d) Known for military bases and rich fishing
for Statement-I zones
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct 3) Consider the following statements regarding the
explanation for Statement-I strategic importance of the Solomon Islands:
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 1. The Solomon Islands were a major
incorrect battleground during World War II.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II 2. The islands are located in the Indian
is correct Ocean, making them critical for trade
between Africa and Southeast Asia.
9) Consider the following statements about the 3. The region has significant biodiversity
Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024: and marine resources.
The NRI evaluates economies across four Which of the above statements is/are correct?
pillars: Technology, AI, Infrastructure, and a) 1 and 3 only
Governance. b) 1 only
India ranked 1st among lower-middle- c) 2 and 3 only
income countries in the 2024 NRI. d) 3 only
The NRI is published annually by the
International Telecommunication Union 4) Consider the following statements about
(ITU). Willingdon Island:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. It is a natural island formed by
a) 1 only sedimentation in the backwaters of Kochi.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. It houses India’s largest naval base and
c) 3 only container terminal.
d) None Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
13. Maps / Places d) Neither 1 nor 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the 5) The Kurram District is named after which of the
ecological significance of Mattupetty Dam: following geographical features?
1. The reservoir supports a diverse array of a) A mountain range in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
wildlife, including elephants and bird b) A river flowing through the district
species. c) A pass connecting Pakistan and
2. The dam is situated within the Kanan Afghanistan
Devan Hills Reserve Forest, which provides d) A valley in Balochistan
habitat to protected species.
3. The Anamudi Shola National Park is 6) What is the unique feature of the New Pamban
located directly adjacent to the Mattupetty Bridge?
Dam. a) It is India’s first vertical-lift railway sea
Which of the above statements is/are correct? bridge.
a) 1 and 2 only b) It is India’s first bridge with a double-
b) 1 and 3 only decker road and rail track.
c) 2 and 3 only c) It uses only manual mechanisms for lifting
d) 1, 2, and 3 spans.
d) It connects Tamil Nadu’s mainland to Sri
2) What is the significance of the Spratly Islands in Lanka.
the South China Sea?

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 INSIGHTS CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ QUESTIONS
7) The Baltic Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean Group Characteristics
through which straits? 2. Finnish descent; seek reparations and
a) Strait of Hormuz B. Kvens
cultural revival
b) Danish Straits
c) Strait of Gibraltar C. Forest 3. Practiced slash-and-burn agriculture
d) Malacca Strait Finns in Norway and Sweden
a) A-2, B-1, C-3
8) Which of the following countries does NOT b) A-1, B-2, C-3
border the Baltic Sea? c) A-3, B-2, C-1
a) Denmark d) A-1, B-3, C-2
b) Poland
c) Norway 4) Consider the following statements about the
d) Lithuania Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and
Development:
1. It is given exclusively to Indian citizens for
their efforts in disarmament and
14. Miscellaneous development.
2. It recognizes efforts that address global
challenges and promote human welfare.
1) With reference to the challenges posed by a
3. Organizations are ineligible for the prize.
declining young population in Southern India,
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
consider the following statements:
a) Only one
1. A shrinking workforce in Southern states
b) Only two
could increase the dependency ratio and
c) All three
lead to higher social security and
d) None
healthcare costs.
2. Slower population growth may lead to a
5) The Siddi tribe in India primarily traces its
reduction in political representation in
ancestry to which group of people?
Parliament for Southern states after
a) Mongols from Central Asia
delimitation.
b) Indigenous tribes of the Indian
3. Declining fertility rates in Southern
subcontinent
states have led to a surplus of young
c) Nomadic tribes of the Arabian Peninsula
workers, reducing the need for internal
d) Bantu peoples from East Africa
migration from Northern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

2) Which of the following unique engineering

features is associated with the Kalka-Shimla
Narrow-Gauge Railway?
a) World’s longest railway tunnel
b) India’s only double-track mountain
railway
c) World’s highest multi-arc gallery bridge
d) Longest railway bridge in Asia

3) Match the indigenous groups with their

characteristics:
Group Characteristics
A. Sami 1. Indigenous to Arctic Europe; known
People for reindeer herding and fishing

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