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SENIOR six
P530/1
Biology
PAPER 1
Exam 7
For consultation Call 0776802709
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 Answer all questions in both sections A and B
 Answers to Section A questions must be written in the boxes provided
 Answers to Section B should be written in spaces provided.
 No additional sheets of paper should be inserted in this booklet.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Marks
A (1 – 40 )

B 41

42

43

44

45

46

Total
1
Page

Exams? digitalteachers.co.ug Consultations? 0776802709

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SECTION A

1. Two types of nucleic acids occur in cells DNA and RNA where do you expect to get
both nucleic acids in a cell
A: Nucleoplasm B: on Ribosomes
C: in the mitochondria D: In cell cytoplasm

2. Epsitasis in general
A: increases the number of phenotypic classes
B: Reduces the number of phenotypic classes
C: has no effect on phenotypic classes
D: occurs in plants only

3. Glands with ducts are called

A: Exocrine glands B: Apocrine glands
C: Merocrine glands D: Endocrine glands

4. Enzyme specificity is defined by

A: its protein nature B: its large molecular size
C: its distinct surface configuration D: the configuration of coenzymes

5. Chromosome mutation involving acquisition of an entire haploid set is called

A: non-disjunction B: polyploidy
C: Aberration D: Aneuploidy

6. Termites are able to eat wood because they

A: produce cellulose enzyme
B: contain cellulose digesting bacteria in the gut
C: possess strong mandibles
D: contain fungi in the gut

7. The cells which secrete hydrochloric acid in the stomach are the
A: oxyntic B: mucosa C: Goblet D: Epithelial

8. The matrix in cartilage is secreted by

A: chondroblast B: osteoblast
C: fibroblast D: Lacunae

9. Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma in

A: having thick cell walls B: being flexible
C: having wide lumen D: being living at maturity

10. Which of the following is true about water potential?

(i) it is zero for pure water
(ii) it is the ability of a system to lose water
(iii) it is given by solute potential plus pressure potential
A: (i) and (ii) B: (i), (ii), (iii) C: (iii) only D: (iii & (iv)
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11. A companion cell has a large nucleus because

A. it supports the sieve tube element which lacks a nucleus
B. it controls a large volume of cytoplasm
C. movement of materials in sieve tubes is an active process.
D. of its high metabolic rate

12. The power of a microscope to distinguish two objects closely placed as being two
distinct entities is called
A: magnifying power B: resolving power
C: Resolving power D: eye piece power

13. The process by which a water molecule as split by light during photosynthesis is
called
A: photophosphorylation B: Hill reaction
C: oxidative phosphorylation D: Antolysis

14. Among the following sets of organs, which one contains homologous structure only?
A. Bat wings, bird wing, human forearm
B. Fish pectoral fins, human forearm, and insect wing
C. Bird wing, Bat wing, insect wing
D. Fish pectoral fin, bat win g, human forearm.

15. The possession of similar structures in organism having different ancestral origin is a
result of
A. convergence evolution
B. divergence evolution
C. adaptive radiation
D. parallel evolution

16. A study focusing on only one population is called:

A: Autecology B: synecology
C: population ecology D: community ecology

17. Which of the following is true about primary succession?

A: takes place on a land that was once inhabited before
B: takes place on bear rocks only
C: can take place on an area that has never been inhabited before by plants
D: the power community is that of mosses and ferns

18. A Hydrosere is
A: A stage of succession
B: A succession beginning on a water body
C: A climax community
D: A succession beginning in a desert

19. The single land man that existed before formation of separate contents on earth is
called
A: pangea B: Iguana island C: Ismuth of panama D: big bung

20. The harvesian system is made up of

A: The Haversian canal only
B: The lamellae and its osteoblasts only
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C: The lamellae, osteoblasts surrounding the harvesian canal

D: compact bone

21. The figure below shows the variation of rate of photosynthesis with light intensity

A Light intensity
B Carbon dioxide concentration
C Water
D Temperature

22. The primary electron acceptor of photosystem II is

A: plastocyanin B: cytochrome
C: plastoquinone D: ferredoxine

23. The following are mechanisms of DNA replication except:

A: semi-conservative hypothesis B: conservative hypothesis
C: dispersive hypothesis D: disruptive replication

24. In the aleolar tissue, which of the following secretes the anticoagulant
A: macrophages B: fat cells
C: fibroblast cells D: mast cells

25. Two population of a given species could only evolve into distinct species if they were
subjected to
A. disruptive selection
B. geographical isolation
C. stabilizing selection
D. genetic isolation

26. “The characteristics of a diploid organism are controlled by alleles occurring in pair
and of a pair only one is carried on a single gamete” This is
A: the law of independent B: Mendel’s second law
C: The law of segregation D: What takes place in Metaphase II

27. Insectivorous plants are most likely to be found growing in

A: soils with high organic matter content
B: soils with low nitrate content
C: soils with low pH
D: Alkaline soils

28. The function of the nucleoli in a cell is to form

A. The nuclear membrane
B. Ribose
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C. The spindle during nuclear division

D. Centrioles
29. The functional unit of heredity is
A: A chromosome B: An allele C: A gene D: A protein

30. Which one of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquito?

A. Nematoda
B. trypanosome
C. plasmodium
D. schistosoma
31. The Genetic code for leucine on a DNA molecule is CGA. What will be the anticodon
on the tRNA
A: CGC B: ACC C: GCU D: CGA

32. Where does the reduction of CO2 in C3 plants occur during photosynthesis?
A: lamella B: stroma
C: Mesosome D: Granal membrane

33. What is the most important role of the light reaction in photosynthesis?
A: production of a reducing agent
B: production of a 3 – carbon compound
C: production of a 6 – carbon compound
D: production of an oxidising agent

34. Alleles are…

A: alternative forms of the same gene
B: Loci of related groups of genes
C: sequences of bases along a chromosome
D: groups of genes which remain together during chromosomal division

35. Which of the following is prokaryote?

A: fungi B: Algae C: plasmodium D: bacteria

36. Which of the following is not found in the structure of chloroplasts of flowering plants
A: lipid globules B: starch granules
C: DNA D: A single outer membrane

37. A biosynthetic path involves the stages below

DNA 1 RNA 2 Ribosomes 3 protein

Which stage is represented by number 1?

A: Replication B: Translation
C: Transcription D: Transduction

38. Plant tissues with the ability to divide indefinitely are termed as
A: meristematic B: cytokinetic cells
C: Apical cells D: All the above

39. Which of the following plat tissues contain the largest percentage of starch
A: collenchyma B: sclerenchyma
C: parenchyma D: cortex cells
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40. Enzymes are mainly formed by

A: Globular proteins B: structural proteins
C: carrier proteins D: indicator proteins

Marking guide

1 A 6 B 11 D 16 A 21 A 26 C 31 D 36 D
2 B 7 A 12 B 17 C 22 B 27 B 32 B 37 C
3 A 8 B 13 B 18 B 23 D 28 B 33 A 38 A
4 C 9 D 14 A 19 A 24 D 28 C 34 A 39 C
5 B 10 B 15 A 20 C 25 D 30 C 35 D 40 A

SECTION B:
41. Using examples define each of the following terms:
(a) (i) Lock and key hypothesis

Enzyme are very specific to the substrate they act on because they have particular shape /
configuration into which substrate with complementary shape fit in exactly as the key fit into the
lock, thus the lock (enzyme) and key (substrate) hypothesis.

When an enzyme / substrate complex is formed, the substrate activated into forming the product
of the reaction. Once formed, the product no longer fit into the active site and escape into the
surrounding medium leaving the active site free to receive other substrate molecule.

(ii) Enzyme cofactors

These are non-protein components required by enzymes to function efficiently. Cofactor may vary
from simple inorganic ions to complex organic molecules, and may either remain unchanged to the
end of a reaction or be regenerated by the later processes.

(iii) Enzyme activators

Enzyme activators are molecules that bind to enzymes and increase their activity e.g.
fructose-2,6- bisphosphate which activates phosphofructokinase 1 and increases the rate of
glycolysis in response to the hormone glucagon and CAP

(iv) prosthetic groups

Prosthetic group/cofactor is a non- protein chemical compound or metallic ion that is required
for an enzyme’s activity as a catalyst .

(v) Coenzyme

A coenzyme is an organic non-protein compound that binds with an enzyme to catalyze a reaction
e.g. NAD and NADP
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(b) Explain how denaturing an enzyme may affect its efficiency as a catalyst

Denaturing of enzyme inhibits its action

(c) Study the figure carefully and comment on the shapes of the curves given for the
enzyme reaction at different temperatures

37oC

Quantity 60oC
of product
formed

25oC

Time
o
25 C Enzyme slowly acted on the substrate because of low temperature
37oC enzyme acted quickly because of optimum temperature

60oC Enzyme worked very quickly initially due high temperature and abruptly
stopped because the enzyme was denatured

42. (a) Distinguish between an endocrine and exocrine gland

Exocrine glands are glands whose secretion are released through ducts while endocrine glands
are glands without ducts and pass their secretion into blood streams.

(b) Describe how the following glands release their secretion

(i) Merocrine glands

The secretory products from the cell is released by exocytosis into ducts to the body surface
e.g. sweat gland.

(ii) Apocrine glands

By loss of part of the cytoplasm

(iii) Holocrine glands

Holocrine secretions are produced in the cytoplasm of the cell and released by the rupture
of the plasma membrane, which destroys the cell and results in the secretion of the product
into the lumen.
(c) Using diagrams describe the structure of the areolar tissue pointing out clearly
the function of each part
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Structure
Macrophages
Elastin fibre
Fibroblasts
Matrix
Collagen fiber

Fat cell Mast Cells

Functions of parts of connective tissue

- Fat cells store fats
- Collagen and elastic fibers provide mechanical support and flexibility.
- Matrix provide nutrients to the cell
- Fibroblast produce ground substance
- Neutrophil, macrophages, mast cells for defense
(d) How does cartilage differ from bone
Bones Cartilage
Bones are the hard, inelastic and a tough Cartilage is a soft, elastic and flexible
organ that forms part of the vertebral connective tissue that protects the bone
skeleton. from rubbing against each other.
Bones are of two types: compact or Cartilage is of three types: Hyaline
spongy. cartilage, fibrocartilage and elastic
cartilage.
Bone cells are known as osteocytes. Cartilage cells are known as
chondrocytes.
Presence of blood vessels. Absence of blood vessels (nutrients are
obtained through diffusion)
The matrix is both organic and inorganic. The matrix is completely organic.
Has deposits of calcium salts. May or may not have deposition of
calcium salts.
The bones have a rich blood supply. Lacks blood supply (hence repair is
slower)
The growth pattern of the bone is The growth pattern of the cartilage is
bidirectional. unidirectional.
Presence of calcium phosphate in the Has no calcium phosphate in the matrix.
matrix.
Haversian canal system is present. Haversian canal system is absent.
Volkmann canal is present. Volkmann canal is absent.
Protect the body from mechanical Supports the respiratory tract, acts as
damage, provide a framework and shape shock absorbers between weight-bearing
for the body, helps in the movement of bones, maintains the shape and flexibility
the body, store minerals, and produce of fleshy appendages and reduces friction
both RBC – red blood cells and WBC – at joints.
white blood cells.

43. (a) Explain the meaning of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle.

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Provided there are no disruptive influence such as mutations or selection, the frequency of alleles in a population
remains constant, generation after generation.
There is continued movement of gene (gene flow) within the population due to breeding but the overall gene
frequencies remain constant. This stability is referred to as genetic equilibrium.
(b) State four conditions that must be fulfilled in order for the principle to hold true
No mutation occurs
Mating must be random
The population must be large.
No emigration or immigration from or into the population should occur
Generations should not overlap
All genotypes should be equally fertile, so that no selection occurs.
(c) Brown eyes in a human population is caused by a dominant gene (B). If in a
population, 84% of the people have brown eye, using Hardy-Weinberg formula,
determine the percentage of the population who are.

(i) Heterozygous for eye colour. Show your working.

Let the allele for brown eyes be B
The allele for other eye colour be b
Frequency of allele B be p
Frequency of allele b be q
Given BB+ Bb constitute 84%
The hardy-Weinberg equation states

P2 +2pq + q2 = 1
2
given p + 2pq = 0.84
q2
= 1 – 0.84
q2 = 0.16
q = 0.4
Also p + q = 1
P = 1-0.4
P = 0.6
2
(0.6) + 2pq = 0.84
2pq = 0.84-0.36
2pq = 0.48
Hence 0.48% of the population is heterozygous.

(ii) Homozygous dominant for eye colour. Show your working

P = 0.6
=> BB = p2 = (0.6)2
.; BB = 0.36
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% 0f BB = 36%
Hence, the percentage of individual homozygous dominant for eye colour is 36%

44. (a) Define the following terms

(i) continental drift

This is the lateral movement of continents resulting from the motion of

crustal plates

(ii) Organic soup

It is prehistoric aqueous solution of organic compounds that accumulated

in primitive water bodies from which it has been assumed that the first
living systems evolved.

(b) Distinguish between organic evolution and chemical evolution

Chemical evolution is the formation of complex organic molecules from simpler inorganic
molecules through chemical reactions in the oceans during the early history of the Earth;
the first step in the development of life on this planet while Organic evolution is the
development of complex plants and animals due to modifications in successive
generations from pre-existing ones.

Differences between chemical evolution and organic evolution:

Chemical evolution Organic evolution
1. It occurs due to changes in the structure of 1. It occurs due to changes in a species
molecules; from complex molecules to simple which appear generation after
molecules with the passage of time. generation and accumulate to form a
new species.
2. It is a relatively fast process and hence, it is 2. It is a very slow process and hence, it
possible to prove it in a laboratory. is impossible to prove it in a laboratory.
3. It involves the evolution of chemicals such 3. It involves the evolution of enzymes,
as water vapour, methane, ammonia and proteins, RNA and DNA into membrane
hydrogen into organic molecules such as bound proto cells and finally into living
sugars which later combined to form big cells.
molecules such as proteins, RNA and DNA.
4. Chemical evolution came into being before 4. Organic evolution is a consequence
organic evolution. of chemical evolution.

(c) Describe briefly any four theories that explain the origin of life on the earth
(i) Special creation; life was created by a supernatural being at a particular time. Genesis 1; 1- 26
(ii) Spontaneous generation; life arose from non- living matter on numerous occasions.
(iii) Steady- state. Life has no origin
(iv) Cosmozoan; life arrived on this planet from elsewhere.
(v) Biochemical evolution; life arose according to chemical and physical laws.
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(a) What are the criticisms of Darwin’s theory of Natural selection?

- Creationists claim that evolution relies on certain types of evidence that do not give reliable
information about the past e.g. evaluating a material's age based on the radioactive decay rates
of certain isotopes generates inconsistent and thus unreliable results.
- Unreliable evidence

- It is too simple to explain the origin of a complex life by chance

- Lack of transitional species

END