Q1: Although noble gas elements are well known to be highly stable and unreactive, some are known to

form compounds with other elements under the right reaction conditions. The first true noble gas
compound, containing actual covalent bonds between a noble gas element and other atoms, was
reported in 1962.

Which of the following statements about the redox chemistry of noble gas compounds are likely to be
true?

I: The heavier the noble gas element, the more easily reduced it will be.

II: KrF2 is likely to be a strong oxidizing agent as Kr is more stable as a monoatomic gas.

III: The oxidation state of xenon in the compound XeO3 is +6.

A. I only

B. I, II and III

C. I and III only

D. II and III only

Q2: The salt (C2H5)4N+Cl- is reacted with hydrogen chloride to form a white solid X which is then dissolved
in water to form an acidic solution. 20 cm 3 of this aqueous solution of X required 24.6 cm 3 of 0.1 M NaOH
for neutralization. Another 20 cm 3 of this same solution of X needed exactly 49.2 cm 3 of 0.1 M aqueous
AgNO3 for complete precipitation of AgCl as a white solid. Which of the following is identity of the anion
in solid X?

A. HCl32-

B. H2Cl3-

C. H2Cl53-

D. HCl2-

Q3: Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Their structure comprises of an amine (-NH 2), a
carboxylic acid group (-COOH) and a distinctive side chain which can contain different functional groups.
When dissolved in water, the amine group can get protonated to become cationic (i.e. -NH 3+) and the
carboxylic acid group can form the anionic carboxylate group (i.e. -COO -) depending on the solution pH.
For every amino acid, there exists an isoelectric point (pl), which is the pH where the amino acid carries
no net charge. It thus follows that at pH > pl, the amino acid will carry a net negative charge, whilst at pH
< pl, the amino acid will be cationic.

Three naturally occurring amino acids are shown below. Based on their chemical structures, arrange
their pl starting from the lowest.
A. Glu < Lys ≈ Gln

B. Glu < Gln < Lys

C. Lys < Glu < Gln

D. Lys < Gln < Glu

Q4: A molecule or ion is chiral when it is non-superimposable, i.e. it cannot be superimposed on its
mirror image, like your left hand and right hand. Chiral molecules therefore do not have a plane of
symmetry or a center of symmetry. Pairs of molecules which are mirror images of one another are called
enantiomers.

Which of the following pairs of molecules are enantiomers of each other?

A. C.

B. D.
Q5: Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy is a routine tool used by chemists to study the
organic chemicals that they have made in the lab. 1H NMR is particularly useful as 1H (hydrogen) atoms
gives NMR signals and they are found in almost all organic compounds. As each compound gives a
unique spectrum, 1H NMR can be used to identify chemicals. Each 1H atom in a different environment
gives rise to one unique NMR signal. For example, the compound 4-heptanone has 3 unique 1H NMR
signals as there are only 3 different 1H environments (a1 = a2, b1 = b2, c1 = c2 as 4-heptanone is
symmetrical about the C=O group).

How many unique signals would you expect to see in the 1H NMR spectrum of the following compound?

A. 15

B. 6

C. 8

D. 5

Q6: When an iodine atom is covalently bonded to an electron-withdrawing group X, the electron density
on the large iodine atom is distorted such that it is now non-uniform across the entire atom. As shown in
the figure below, an area at the tip of the iodine atom immediately opposite the X-I bond becomes very
electron-deficient, while the equatorial region of the iodine atom is electron-rich. The electron-deficient
region of the iodine atom can interact non-covalently with Lewis bases such as anion A -.
Which of the following is the most likely X-I --- A- bond angle for the non-covalent interaction? (---
indicates non-covalent interaction)

A. 90°

B. 180°

C. 109.5°

D. 120°

Q7: In recent years, concerns about the production of hazardous by-products during chemical reactions
has motivated chemists to develop new reactions that minimize the amount of waste produced. Thus,
they have developed a measure, known as “percentage atom economy” to evaluate the environmental-
friendliness of a chemical reaction, which is defined as follows:

Based on this definition, the higher the percentage atom economy, the greater the percentage of the
starting materials that end up in the desired product. Thus, reactions with high atom economy are more
sustainable and produce less waste.

Which of the following reactions has the highest percentage atom economy?

A. Production of a fragrance molecule containing an ester by a condensation reaction:

B. Production of a cyclic alkene by alkene metathesis:

C. Making hydrogen gas from reacting coal with steam:

D. Fermentation of glucose to produce ethanol:

Q8: Transition metals are chemical elements in the d-block of the periodic table located between group
2 and 3.

Which of the following statements about transition metals are true?

I: They are typically less reactive than alkali metals such as sodium.

II: They show trends in group properties like other groups in the periodic table.

III: They form complexes with multiple oxidation states.

A. III only

B. I, II and III

C. II and III only

D. I and III only

Q9: A sodium nitrate NaNO3 solution is prepared by adding 0.10 mol of sodium nitrate, NaNO3, to 2.00 L
of water. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. There are equal moles of sodium ions and nitrate ions in the solution.

B. The concentration of the sodium nitrate solution is 0.05 M.

C. The solution is neutral.

D. The solution is weakly acidic.

Q10: Which of the following has the lowest pH?

A. Baking soda solution

B. Gastric juice

C. Ammonia solution

D. Vinegar

Q11: The potential energy profile of a two-step reaction is as shown below.

Which of the following statements are true?

I: The overall reaction is exothermic.

II: The first step of the reaction has a higher activation energy than the second step.

III: The second step of the reaction is exothermic.

A. I only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Q12: A transdermal patch is a medicated adhesive patch that is placed on the skin to deliver a specific
dose of medication. These “skin patch” drugs include pain relivers, nicotine, hormones, and drugs to
treat angina and motion sickness. The patches are made from “pressure-sensitive adhesives” that stick
onto the skin but are easy to remove. One such adhesive has the following structure.
Which of the following monomer is used to make this polymer?

A. C.

B. D.

Q13: An organic compound Z reacts with both sodium hydroxide and with sodium carbonate. What
could the structure of Z be?

A. C.

B. D.

Q14: An organic acid has the structural formulas shown below. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A. It turns blue litmus red.

B. It decolorizes aqueous bromine.

C. It burns in air to form carbon dioxide and water only.

D. It reacts with zinc to produce hydrogen gas.

Q15: A chemical analysis on a household brand of lemon juice shows the presence of a compound called
octyl ethanoate. What is the most likely use of octyl ethanoate in lemon juice?

A. Antioxidant

B. Flavoring

C. Preservative

D. Sweetener

Q16: Which one of the following compounds can undergo addition polymerisation?

A. CH3CH2Cl

B. CH3CHO

C. CH3CHCH2

D. CH3CH2CH2CH3

Q17: Which one of the following is the correct formula for the ester formed when butanoic acid, CH 3CH2
CH3CH2CH2COOH reacts with methanol, CH3OH?

A. CH3CH2CH2CH2CO2CH3

B. CH3CO2CH2CH2CH3

C. CH3CH2CO2CH3

D. CH3CH2CO2CH2CH3

Q18: Some synthetic products are said to be non-biodegradable. What does this mean?
A. Not harmful to living organisms

B. Not broken down by bacteria

C. Cannot be obtained from plant or animal matter

D. Cannot act as catalysts for biological processes

Q19: Which polymer contains the element chlorine?

A. Polyethene

B. PVC

C. Terylene

D. Nylon

Q20: The diagram shows the structure of expanded polyurethane.

This polymer is going out of use in furniture manufacturing. In which of the following sets are all the
chemicals atmospheric pollutants formed when polyurethane burns?

A. CO2, H2O, NO2

B. C, CO, NO2

C. C, SO2, NO2

D. C, CO2, H2O

Q21: Answer the next 6 questions based on the information below:

Compound A is a colourless gas with a faint petroleum-like odor.

Compound A reacted with water under high temperature and pressure conditions to produce
compound B. Which of the following are possible structures of compound B?
A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and IV only

D. I, II, III and IV

22. Compound B is a colourless, flammable organic compound with a pungent alcoholic odor. It has a
molecular formula C3H8O. Which of the following are isomers of compound B?

A. V and VI only

B. V and VII only

C. V, VI and VII only

D. VI, VII and VIII only

23: 1 mole of compound B will undergo full combustion to produce:

A. 4 moles of CO2 and 4 moles of H2O

B. 3 moles of CO2 and 4 moles of H2O

C. 6 moles of CO2 and 8 moles of H2O

D. 5 moles of CO2 and 6 moles of H2O

24: Compound B was utilised widely during the Covid-19 pandemic as a sterilisation agent. Referring to
the 4 structures in Question 21, what is the likely structure for B?

A. I
B. II

C. III

D. IV

25: Refer to Question 22: Compound VIII was easily oxidized and produced an unknown compound.
What is the likely structure for this compound?

A. IX

B. X

C. XI

D. XII

26: Compound B (from question 22) and the oxidised form of compound VIII can undergo ____________
in the presence of a small amount of acid to produce a/an ___________ which is a sweet-smelling
chemical. Fill in the blanks:

A. Condensation, acid

B. Condensation, ester

C. Hydrogenation, acid

D. Hydrogenation, ester

27: Thin layer chromatography (TLC) is a method to separate different molecules present in a mixture
based on their affinity towards the stationary phase (TLC plate) and the mobile phase (solvent). The less
polar molecules move further up the TLC plate than more polar molecules.
The retention factor (Rf) of each molecule in a particular solvent can be calculated by:

Rf = distance moved by molecule / distance moved by solvent front

In a mixture of 4 molecules, what is the Rf of molecule Y?

A. 0.50

B. 0.25

C. 0.30

D. 0.90

28: For the next 2 questions, please use the following table with the densities and boiling points of
various solvents.

Solvent Molecular Formula Density (g/cm3) Boiling point (°C)

I Chloroform CHCl3 1.49 61
II Ethanol C2H5OH 0.79 78
III Acetone (CH3)2CO 0.78 56
IV Hexane C6H14 0.66 69
V Water H2O 1.00 100

Which molecules can be separated by liquid-liquid extraction?

A. II and IV

B. IV and V

C. III and IV

D. I and II

29: What is the best method to separate molecules II and V?

A. liquid-liquid extraction

B. thin layer chromatography

C. fractional distillation

D. recrystallisation

30: For the next 2 questions, refer to the flowchart below. Mixture T contains two different chemicals. A
series of experiments were used to determine the identity of the chemicals, with their observations
detailed in the flowchart.

Which option best identifies the following chemicals?

A. U V X Y
Lead (II) chloride Magnesium hydroxide Ammonia Silver iodide
B. U V X Y
Lead (II) iodide Sodium hydroxide Oxygen Silver iodide

C. U V X Y
Lead (II) iodide Calcium hydroxide Hydrogen Silver chloride

D. U V X Y
Lead (II) chloride Potassium hydroxide Nitrogen Silver chloride

31: What is in mixture R?

A. silver powder and sodium chloride

B. zinc powder and calcium iodide

C. silver oxide and potassium iodide

D. zinc oxide and magnesium chloride

32: The first electron affinity is the change in energy (in kJ/mol) when an electron is added to a neutral
atom (in the gaseous phase) to form a negative ion. The easier it is for a neutral atom to gain an
electron, the more negative the electron affinity. Please review the following statements:

I: Argon has a more negative electron affinity than chlorine because it has a full valence shell.

II: Chlorine has a more negative electron affinity than bromine because it has a smaller atomic radius.

III: Aluminium has a more negative electron affinity than magnesium because it has more protons.

IV: Silicon has a more negative electron affinity than aluminium because it has more electrons.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. I and IV

B. III and IV

C. II and III

D. I and II

33: Two compounds structurally related to Nirmatrelvir were synthesized and subjected to medical
testing. These two new compounds were labelled B and C. In the structure of compound B, the nitrogen
atoms in Nirmatrelvir are replaced by phosphorus atoms. In the of compound C, the oxygen atoms in
Nirmatrelvir are replaced by sulfur atoms. What is the difference in the molecular weight of compounds
B and C?

A. 37.52

B. 3.60

C. 36.62

D. 20.56

34: Revolutions per minute (abbreviated to RPM or rpm) is a measure of the frequency of a rotation. It
states the number of full rotations completed in one minute around a fixed axis. Cars expose fuel to 1.50
L of atmospheric air every 2 revolutions. Assume atmospheric air contains 21.0% oxygen gas by volume.

If the combustion reaction is standardized to standard ambient temperature and pressure condition and
the amount of pure pentane (C5H12) is excess, calculate the volume of carbon dioxide produced in 30
seconds when the engine idles at 1500 RPM. Use the following balanced chemical reaction:

C5H12 + 8O2 à 5CO₂ + 6H₂O

A. 74.8 L

B. 80.1 L

C. 120 L

D. 54.6 L

35: Diamond is of the most precious stones and it is a solid form of pure carbon with its atoms

arranged in a crystal. Consider the following reaction:

CH4 (g) → C (diamond) + 2H2 (g)

Use the information provided below to calculate the enthalpy of reaction when 1 mole of diamond is
formed from methane.

C (graphite) + 2H2(g) à CH4(g) …∆H = -74.8 kJ

C (graphite) à C (diamond) …∆H = 1.9 kJ

A. 72.9 kJ

B. -72.9 kJ

C. 76.7 kJ

D. -76.7 kJ

Q36: The melting point of CaS is higher than that of KCl. Which of the following are explanations for the
observation?

1. Ca2+ is more positively charged than K+.

II. S2- is more negatively charged than CI-.

III. The K+ ion is smaller than the Ca2+ ion.

A. II only

B. II and III only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

Q37: Helium is very unreactive, with a full outer shell and the highest ionisation energy of any element.
However, a collaboration between 17 researchers across the globe suggested that compound X (a
compound of helium and sodium) had been formed under an extreme pressure of 300 GPa. The unit cell
of a crystal is determined by X-ray crystallography and shows the arrangement of the atoms in the
crystal. Stacking the unit cells together generates the bulk structure. What is the formula of compound
X?
A. NaHe3

B. Na₂He7

C. NaHe

D. Na₂He

Q38: Below is the successive ionization energies of 3rd period elements:

Based on this information, which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. W is an alkaline earth metal

B. Y is sodium

C. Z forms the largest cation

D. X has the smallest radius

Q39: If there are n molecules in 10g of methane, how many molecules are in 55g of carbon dioxide?

A. 4n

B. 2n

C. n

D. 0.5n

Q40 (dumb): When phosphorus is burned in Cl₂, PCl3 and PCl5 are formed. If 0.496 moles of phosphorus
react with 0.028 moles of Cl2, what is the mole ratio between PCl3 and PCl5?

A. 3:2

B. 1:3

C. 2:3

D. 3:1
Q41: Rainfall from unpolluted air should be:

A. Weakly acidic

B. Strongly acidic

C. Neutral

D. Weakly basic

Q42: Amedeo Avogadro discovered that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure
contain the same number of molecules. Two closed containers, A and B, hold gases at the same
temperature and pressure. The mass of gas A is equal to the mass of gas B, but gas A has a higher
density than gas B. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The molar mass of A < the molar mass of B

B. The number of atoms in A < the number of atoms in B

C. The number of molecules in A < the number of molecules in B

D. The volume of A > the volume of B

Q43: Which of the following is an application of electrolysis in everyday life?

A. Refining crude oil to produce gasoline

B. Charging a mobile phone battery

C. Refining copper from copper ore

D. Cooking food using a microwave oven

Q44: In solar-driven water splitting, a photocatalyst absorbs light energy and stores it in the form of
chemical energy. What are the chemical fuels generated during water splitting and is this reaction
endothermic or exothermic?

A. H₂, O₂, exothermic

B. H₂, OH-, endothermic

C. H₂, OH-, exothermic

D. H₂, O2, endothermic

Q45: Copper metal film is one of the main components in lithium-ion battery. What is it used as? Hint:
An electrode operating at a more positive potential means it has stronger oxidizing power, whereas an
electrode operating at a more negative potential means has stronger reducing power.

A. Current collector at the cathode

B. Separator between the anode and cathode

C. Electrolyte

D. Current collector at the anode

Q46: What happens when Ag metal is placed in an aqueous Au³+ solution? Note that a more positive
standard reduction potential (E°) denotes the stronger tendency for a redox pair to undergo reduction
reaction.

Au3+ + 3e → Au (E° = +1.50 V)

Ag+ + e à Ag (E° = +0.80 V)

A. Nothing happens

B. No change to Ag metal, whereas Au metal is formed

C. Ag metal undergoes dissolution, whereas no Au metal is formed

D. Ag metal undergoes dissolution, whereas Au metal is formed

Q47: Polyamide is a polymer, and its molecular structure is shown below. Its polymeric chain can be re-
organized from a random structure (middle image) to a more organized structure (right image) through
the formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonds (i.e., NH...O). What best describes this process?
A. No change in enthalpy

B. Endothermic

C. Exothermic

D. None of the above

Q48: Catalyst accelerates a chemical reaction by?

A. Stabilizing the transition state

B. Raising the energy of the reactants

C. Lowering the energy of the products

D. Raising the energy of the products

Q49: Which pair of gases could be removed from exhaust gas using calcium carbonate?

A. CH4 and NO2

B. CO and SO₂

C. SO2 and O3

D. SO2 and H2S

Q50: An electrochemical cell typically uses liquid/aqueous-based electrolyte. However, these liquid
electrolytes could impose serious health/safety issues. Thus, solid-state electrolyte has been proposed
as an alternative to replace traditional liquid electrolyte. What properties should an ideal solid-state
electrolyte possess?

A. Poor ionic conductivity, poor electrical conductivity

B. Good ionic conductivity, good electrical conductivity

C. Poor ionic conductivity, good electrical conductivity

D. Good ionic conductivity, poor electrical conductivity