Sample Question Paper

Curriculum Scheme: Rev2019

Examination: FE Semester I
Course Name: Engineering Mathematics - I
Time: 2-hour 30 minutes Max. Marks: 80
=====================================================================

Q1.
1. The value of tan ℎ(log 𝑥) is
Option A: 1−𝑥
1+𝑥
Option B: 𝑥+1
𝑥−1
Option C: 𝑥2 − 1
𝑥2 + 1
Option D: 𝑥 2 +1
𝑥 2 −1

2. cosh(𝑖𝑥) = ________

Option A: 𝑖 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
Option B: − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
Option C: 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
Option D: −𝑖 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥

3. If 𝑦 = (𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏)𝑚 , then the 𝑛𝑡ℎ order derivative 𝑦𝑛 = 0, if

Option A: 𝑚<𝑛
Option B: 𝑚≤𝑛
Option C: 𝑚>𝑛
Option D: 𝑚≥𝑛

4. Test the consistency of the following equations and solve them if they are
consistent
2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6, 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 7, −𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4
Option A: Test the consistency of the following equations and solve them if they are
consistent
2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6, 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 7, −𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4
Option B: Test the consistency of the following equations and solve them if they are
consistent
2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6, 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 7, −𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4
Option C: Test the consistency of the following equations and solve them if they are
consistent
2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6, 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 7, −𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4
Option D: Test the consistency of the following equations and solve them if they are
consistent
2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6, 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 7, −𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4

5. The matrix A is a Hermitian matrix, then 𝑖𝐴 is

Option A: Square matrix

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Option B: Hermitian matrix
Option C: Skew-Hermitian matrix
Option D: Unitary matrix

6. 𝑥 3 −𝑦 3 𝑥−𝑦
If 𝑢 = tan−1 ( ) and 𝑣 = sin−1 ( ) then which statement is correct?
𝑥+𝑦 √𝑥 2 +𝑦 2
Option A: 𝑢 is non-homogeneous function and 𝑣 is homogeneous function
Option B: 𝑢 is non-homogeneous function and 𝑣 is non-homogeneous function
Option C: 𝑢 is homogeneous function and 𝑣 is non-homogeneous function
Option D: 𝑢 is homogeneous function and 𝑣 is homogeneous function

7. If 𝑥 6 + 1 = 0 then the value of 𝑥 is

𝜋
Option A:
𝑒 𝑖(2𝑛+1) 6 where 𝑛 = 0,1,2,3,4,5
𝜋
Option B:
𝑒 𝑖(2𝑛−1) 6 where 𝑛 = 0,1,2,3,4,5
𝜋
Option C:
−𝑒 𝑖(2𝑛+1)6 where 𝑛 = 0,1,2,3,4,5
𝜋
Option D:
−𝑒 𝑖(2𝑛−1)6 where 𝑛 = 0,1,2,3,4,5
𝜋
8.
The amplitude of 𝑧 = −2𝑒 −𝑖 3 is
Option A: 𝜋
−
3
Option B: 𝜋
3
Option C: 2𝜋
3
Option D: 2𝜋
−
3

9. (1+𝑖)2
The modulus and argument of 𝑧 = are
1−𝑖
Option A: 3𝜋
√2,
4
Option B: 𝜋
√2,
4
Option C: 3𝜋
2,
4
Option D: 𝜋
2,
4

10. 𝜕𝑓
𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 log(𝑥𝑦), then 𝜕𝑥 at (1,2) is
Option A: −6
Option B: −4
Option C: 6
Option D: 4

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 Q2 Solve any Four out of Six 5 marks each
(20 Marks)
A Divide 120 into 3 parts such that the product is maximum.
B Express sin−1(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑖𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥) into real and imaginary part.
Express (1 + 7𝑖)(2 − 𝑖)−2 in the form 𝑟(cos 𝜃 + 𝑖 sin 𝜃) and prove that
C
its fourth power is real negative number.
If 𝑢 = 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) is homogeneous function of 𝑥, 𝑦 with degree, 𝑛 then
D 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 = 𝑛𝑢
2 + 3𝑖 −2𝑖 4
Express the matrix A= [ 2 0 2 + 5𝑖 ] as the sum of a
E
3𝑖 1 + 2𝑖 −𝑖
Hermitian and a Skew Hermitian matrix.
Test the consistency of the following equations and solve them if they
F are consistent
2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6, 4𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 7, −𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 4

Q3 Solve any Four out of Six 5 marks each

(20 Marks)
−1
If 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑚𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥 , Prove that
A
(1 − 𝑥 2 )𝑦𝑛+2 − (2𝑛 + 1)𝑥 𝑦𝑛+1 − (𝑛2 + 𝑚2 )𝑦𝑛 = 0
If 𝛼 = 1 + 𝑖, 𝛽 = 1 − 𝑖 and cot ∅ = 𝑥 + 1 then
B (𝑥+𝛼)𝑛 −(𝑥+𝛽)𝑛
= sin 𝑛∅ . cosec 𝑛 ∅
𝛼−𝛽
1 2 3 2
Find non- singular matrices P and Q such that A= [2 3 5 1] is
C
1 3 4 5
reduced to normal from, also find its rank.
𝑎+𝑖𝑏 𝑏 𝑎+𝑖𝑏
D Prove that log (𝑎−𝑖𝑏) = 2𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (𝑎) and find sin [𝑖 log (𝑎−𝑖𝑏)].
𝜕 𝜕 2 −4
E If 𝑢 = log(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 − 𝑥 2 𝑦 − 𝑥𝑦 2 ) then show that ( + ) 𝑢 = (𝑥+𝑦)2
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
Find the minimum distance from the origin to the plane
F
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 12

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 Q4 Solve any Four out of Six 5 marks each
(20 Marks)
Given that (1 + 2𝑖) is one of the roots of the equation 𝑥 4 − 3𝑥 3 + 8𝑥 2 −
A
7𝑥 + 5 = 0. Find the other roots.
𝜕3𝑢 𝜕3𝑢
B If 𝑢 = 𝑥 𝑝 𝑦 𝑞 then show that 𝜕𝑥𝜕𝑦 2 = 𝜕𝑦𝜕𝑥𝜕𝑦
𝑥3
C If 𝑦 = 𝑥 2+1 find the value of 𝑦𝑛 .

𝑦 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
D If 𝑢 = 𝑓 (𝑥 ) + √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 then prove that 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 = √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 .
1
E Prove that cos ℎ5 𝑥 = 16 (cos ℎ5𝑥 + 5 cos ℎ3𝑥 + 10 cos ℎ𝑥)
Check if the following system of equations consistent?
𝑥+𝑦+𝑧 =6
𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 5
F
3𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 8
2𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 7

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 Mahavir Education Trust's
SHAH & ANCHOR KUTCHHI ENGINEERING COLLEGE
Chembur, Mumbai - 400 088

Sample Question Paper

Subject: Basic Electrical Engineering FESem – I (C’ Scheme)

Time: 2.30 hour Max. Marks: 80

======================================================================
Note: Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
Choose the correct option for following questions. All the Questions are
Q1. compulsory and carry equal marks. 20Marks

1. Find Vo.

Option A: 4V
Option B: 8V
Option C: 12V
Option D: 2.5V

2. The maximum power that can be transferred to the load RL from the voltage source

Option A: 50mw
Option B: 25mw
Option C: 27mw
Option D: 27mw

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3. The voltage V in the following circuit is…….

Option A: 10V
Option B: 5V
Option C: 15V
Option D: 3V

4. Find Norton’s equivalent current for the following circuit.

Option A: 2.33A
Option B: 3A
Option C: 3.33A
Option D: 2A

5. In a series R-L-C circuit, R = 10Ω, L = 0.014 H, C = 100uF. The resonant frequency in rad/sec is
Option A: 845.15 rad/sec
Option B: 190 rad/sec
Option C: 215 rad/sec
Option D: 1000 rad/sec

6. A 10mH inductor carries a sinusoidal current of 1 A rms at a frequency of 50 Hz. The

average power dissipated by the inductor is
Option A: 0W
Option B: 0.25W
Option C: 0.5W
Option D: 1W

7. The voltage phasor of a circuit is V and the current phasor is . The

active and reactive powers in the circuit are
Option A: 10 W and 17.32 VAR
Option B: 5 W and 8.66 VAR
Option C: 20 W and 60 VAR
Option D: 20√2 and 10√2 VAR

8. A Parallel Circuit Consist of a 2.5uF capacitor and a coil whose resistance and

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 inductance are 15Ω and 260mH,respectively. Find the value of resonant frequency
and Q-Factor
Option A: 500Hz ,21.48
Option B: 197.19Hz ,21.48
Option C: 197.19Hz ,50
Option D: 111.12Hz ,11.12

9. Power in a Three Phase Circuit = _________.

Option A: P = 3 VPh IPh CosФ
Option B: P = √3 Vph Iph CosФ
Option C: P = 3 VL IL SinФ
Option D: P = √3 Vph Iph SinФ

10. Which from the following is a type of Induction motor?

Option A: Shunt motor
Option B: Series motor
Option C: Compound motor
Option D: Squirrel cage motor

Q2
A Solve any Two 10 mark
i. Derive formula to convert delta circuit into an equivalent star.
ii. What is slip in Induction motor? Give formula also.
iii. Calculate the total power and readings of two wattmeter connected to
measure power in three-phase balanced load, if the reactive power is
15KVAR and load power factor is 0.8 lagging.
B Solve any One 10 marks
i. State superposition theorem. Obtain the current flowing through 1ohm
using superposition theorem.

ii. A series R-L-C circuit consists of R = 1000 W, L = 100 mH and C = 10 mF.

The applied voltage across the circuit is 100 V. (i) Find the resonance
frequency of the circuit. (ii) Find Q of the circuit at resonant frequency. (iii)
Calculate the bandwidth of the circuit.

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 Q3 Solve any Two 20 marks
i. Find the Average & RMS value for the following waveforms

ii.
Find the V1, V2 and V3 by using node analysis.

ii. Derive the relation for total power and power factor in a 33-phase system
with balanced load using two wattmeter method.

Q4. Solve any Two 20 marks

i. A resistor and capacitor are in series with variable inductor. when the circuit is connected to
22V,50Hz supply, the maximum current obtainable
obtainable by varying the inductance is 0.314A. the
voltage across capacitance is then 800V. find the circuit constants.
ii. The loads are placed across 230V,50Hz supply, The loads are (10∟-30 30)Ω(20∟60)Ω,
(40∟0)Ω.
Determine 1) impedance
2) admittance
3) power consumed and power factor of the circuit

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iii. Find current through 5 ohm resistor using Thevenin's Theorem.

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 Sample Question Paper
Curriculum Scheme: R 2019
Examination: First Year Semester I
Course Code: FEC104 and Course Name: Engineering Mechanics
1
Time: 22 hour Max. Marks: 80
=====================================================================

Q 1. Choose the correct option for following questions. All the

Questions are compulsory and carry 2 marks each [10×2=20]
Q1. To move a boat uniformly along the river at a given speed a resultant force R =
520 N is required acting along positive x-axis. Two men pulling with forces P and
Q by means of ropes to do this. The rope makes angle 30° (lies in first quadrant
w.r.to positive x-axis) and 40° (lies in fourth quadrant w.r.to positive x-axis)
respectively. What is the pulling forces P and Q?
Option A: P = 355.7 N, Q = 276.7 N
Option B: P = 482.3 N, Q = 376.7 N
Option C: P = 350.4 N, Q = 150.6 N
Option D: P = 425.7 N, Q = 321.9 N

Q2. If an object is dropped from the top of a building and it reaches the ground at t =
4 s , then the height of the building is (ignoring air resistance) (g = 9.8 m/s2).
Option A: 77.3 m
Option B: 80.5 m
Option C: 79.2 m
Option D: 78.4 m

Q3. During a test, the car moves in a straight line such that for a short time its velocity
is defined by v =(9t2 + 2t) m/s where t is in seconds. Determine its position when
t = 3 sec.
Option A: Position = 70 m
Option B: Position = 80 m
Option C: Position = 90 m
Option D: Position = 100 m

Q4. Forces of magnitudes 100N, 200N and 300 N act along the slides BC, CA, AB of
an equilateral triangle of side 20 mm. what is the moment of the resultant about
A.
Option A: 600√3 N
Option B: 1000√3 N
Option C: 2000√3 N
Option D: 3000√3 N

Q5. What is the C.G of an isosceles triangle of base 20 cm and side 40?
Option A: 12.90 cm
Option B: 13.28 cm
Option C: 19.36 cm
Option D: 38.72 cm

1|Page
 Q6. What is the velocity at the surface in contact when the linear velocity of center of
the wheel is 20 m/s towards right? Radius of the disk is 1 m.
Option A: 0 m/s
Option B: 4 m/s
Option C: 15 m/s
Option D: 11 m/s

Q7. A 20 kg sphere suspended using a cable is pulled towards the right by a force ‘F’.
The cable can withstand a maximum tension of 300 N. If the force ‘F’ is increased
gradually. What is the magnitude of ‘F’ when the cable breaks.
Option A: 216.69 N
Option B: 206.39 N
Option C: 226.96 N
Option D: 246.64 N

Q8. A beam AB, length of span 6m carries a uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m over
the entire span also it carries a two point load of 15 kN each at a distance of 1m
and 5m from A. What is the equivalent resultant force.
Option A: Equivalent resultant force = 30 kN
Option B: Equivalent resultant force = 60 kN
Option C: Equivalent resultant force = 35 kN
Option D: Equivalent resultant force = 90 kN

Q9. A 300 N block is resting on a rough horizontal surface for which the coefficient
of friction is 0.50. What is the force P required to impend the motion if applied
force P is acting horizontally.
Option A: 100 N
Option B: 200 N
Option C: 150 N
Option D: 220 N

Q10. An aeroplane is flying in horizontal direction with a velocity of 540 km/hr at a

height of 2200 m. When it is vertically above the ground, a body is dropped from
it. What is the time taken and how much horizontal distance covered when the
body hits the ground. Neglect air resistance.
Option A: 25 sec, 3156 m
Option B: 21 sec, 3176 m
Option C: 28 sec, 3166 m
Option D: 30 sec, 3186 m

2|Page
Q 2.
A. Solve any Two [5 Marks each]
1. Determine the centroid of the shaded area. All dimensions are in mm.

2. A force of a100 N act at a point P (-2, 3, 5) m has it line of action passing through Q
(10,3, 4) m. Calculate the moment of force about origin

3. A cylinder of weight 500N is kept on two inclined planes as shown in figure.

Determine the reaction at the point of contact A and B.

B. Solve any One [10 Marks]

1. Two 60° wedges are used to push a block horizontally as shown. Calculate the
minimum force required to push the block of weight 10 KN. Take μ = 0.25 for all
contact surfaces.

2. Find the initial velocity and corresponding angle of projection of a projectile such that
when projected from the ground it just clears a wall 4.5 m high at a horizontal distance
of 6 m and finally lands on the ground at a distance of 35 m beyond the wall.

3|Page
Q 3.
A. Solve any Two [5 Marks each]
1. The guy cable AB and AC are attached to the top of the transmission tower as shown
in figure. The tension in cable AC is 8 KN. Determine the required tension T in cable
AB such that the net effect of the two-cable tension is a downward force at point A.
Determine the magnitude R of this downward force.

2. A horizontal plank PQ having negligible weight is resting on two rollers A and C.

Find the reactions at points A and C. The pulley is frictionless.

3. A block of weight 1000 N is kept on a rough inclined surface. Find out range of P for
which the block will be in equilibrium.

4|Page
B. Solve any One [10 Marks]
1. If the link CD is rotating at 5 rad/sec in anticlockwise direction. Determine the angular
velocity of link AB at the instant shown.

2. A particle is projected with an initial velocity of 2 m/s along a straight line. The
relation between acceleration and time is given in the diagram. Draw v-t and s-t
diagram.

Q 4.
A. Solve any Two [5 Marks each]
1. Find the reactions at support A and E for the beam loaded as shown in
figure.

2. A particle starts at rest from origin and its acceleration is given by a = k(x+4)² m/s2
knowing that v = 4 m/s when x = 8 m, find : (i) Value of k (ii) Position when v = 4.5
m/s.

5|Page
 3. A member ABC is loaded by distributed load and pure moment ad shown in figure.
Find the magnitude and positions along AC resultant.

B. Solve any One [10 Marks]

1. Determine the force 'P' to cause motion to impend. Take masses of blocks A and B as
8 kg and 4 kg respectively and the coefficient of sliding friction as 0.3. The force P
and rope are parallel to the inclined plane. Assume frictionless pulley.

2. A cylinder of weight 300 N is held in equilibrium as shown in figure given below.

Determine the tension in the string AD and reaction at C and B. The length of AE -
750mm.

6|Page
 Sample Question Paper

Curriculum Scheme: Rev2019

Examination: FE Semester I
Course Code: FEC102 Course Name: Engineering Physics - I

Time: 2 hours Max. Marks: 60

Q1. Choose the correct option for following questions. All the Questions are
compulsory and carry equal marks

1. Calculate the maximum order of diffraction if X rays of Wavelength 0.819Aº are

incident on crystal of lattice spacing 0.282nm.

Option A: 9

Option B: 3

Option C: 6

Option D: 8

2. A wedge-shaped air film having an angle of 40 seconds is illuminated by

monochromatic light and fringes are observed vertically through a microscope. The
distance measured between two consecutive bright fringes is 0.12 cm. Calculate the
wavelength of light used.

Option A: 4654 A.U.

Option B: 5464 A.U.

Option C: 6544 A.U.

Option D: 4564 A.U.

3. At T=0K the valence band is___________ while the conduction band is

………………..

Option A: Empty , Full

Option B: Full, Empty

Option C: Partially full, partially empty

Option D: Partially empty, partially full

4. What is the de broglie wavelength of a 75g ball moving with speed of 42m/s
 Option A: 2.1 x 10ˆ-34 m

Option B: 1.2 x 10ˆ-34 m

Option C: 2.1 x 10ˆ-43 m

Option D: 1.2 x 10ˆ-43 m

5. The Coefficient (Rh) of semiconductor is 3. 22 × 10ˆ-4 mˆ3/C. Its resistivity is 9 ×

10ˆ3Ωm. Calculate the mobility of charge carriers.

Option A: 0.3577 mˆ2/Vs

Option B: 0.4577 mˆ2/Vs

Option C: 0.03577 mˆ2/Vs

Option D: 0.003577 mˆ2/Vs

6.
Find the energy of the neutron in units of eV whose de Broglie wavelength is 1A°.

Option A: 0.1213 eV

Option B: 0.0563 eV

Option C: 0.2681 eV

Option D: 0.0813 eV

Q2: Answer 4 questions out of 6 (4 marks each) 16 marks

A. Why are Newton's Rings circular? Newton's Rings prove that diameter of a dark ring
is proportional to square root of ring number.
B. Plot the planes for the given Miller Indices (002), (011), (122), (212).
C. Find Resistance of an intrinsic Ge rod of dimension (1cm long, 1mm wide and 1mm thick) at
300K. For Ge ni = 2. 5 × 1019 /m3 (mobility of electron = 0.39 mˆ2/V- sec and mobility of
hole =0.19 mˆ2/V- sec)
D. Explain the variation of fermi energy level with impurity concentration in extrinsic
semiconductor with energy band diagram.
E. The critical field of Niobium is 105 A/m at 8°K and 2 x 105 A/m at 0 °K. Calculate the critical
temperature.
F. Calculate the lowest three energy states of an electron confined in potential well of width 10A°

Q3: Answer 4 questions out of 6 (4 marks each) 16 marks

A. Derive expression for Hall Voltage.
B. In Newton’s Rings reflected light of wavelength 5 × 10ˆ5cm, the diameter of the 10th dark ring
is 0.5cm. calculate radius of curvature R.
C. Derive the Schrodinger’s time dependent differential equation for matter waves.
 D. White light falls normally on film of soapy water of thickness 5 ∗ 10−5 𝑐𝑚 and refractive index
1.33. Which wavelength in the visible region will be reflected most strongly?
E. Derive Braggs equation for x ray diffraction in crystal calculate the glancing angle on a plane
(100)having lattice constant 2.814 A0 corresponding to first order Bragg’s diffraction maximum
for Xray of wavelength 1.541A0
F. A wedge-shaped air film having an angle of 40” is illuminated by monochromatic light and
fringes are observed vertically through a microscope. the distance measured between
consecutive right fringes is 0.12 cm. calculate the wavelength of light used.?

Q4: Answer 4 questions out of 6 (4 marks each) 16 marks

A. What is Meissner's effect? Show that a superconductor is a perfect diamagnet.

B. Draw the energy level diagram for a zero bias, forward biased and reverse biased PN
junction diode.
C. An electron has a momentum 5.4 x 10-26kg-m/sec with an accuracy of 0.05%. Find the
minimum uncertainty in the location of the electron.
D. State Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle. Show that an electron cannot reside inside the
nucleus.
E. Fermi level in K is 2.1eV. What are the energies for which the probability of occupancy
at 300°K are 0.99 and 0.01?
F. What is antireflection coating? State the conditions for antireflection coating.
 Mahavir Education Trust's
SHAH & ANCHOR KUTCHHI ENGINEERING COLLEGE,
Chembur, Mumbai - 400 088

Examination: 2022

Curriculum Scheme Rev 2019 (c’ scheme)

Examination: First year Semester-I

Course Code FEC103 Course Name- Engineering Chemistry-I

Time – 2 hour Max Marks-60

Q 1. Choose the correct option for following questions. All the

Questions are compulsory and carry 2 marks each [6×2=12]

1. Select the correct statement from the following

Option A: When no of electron in bonding molecular orbitals is less than no of electrons in
antibonding molecular orbitals then the molecule is stable
Option B: Bond length is directly proportional to bond order.
Option C: When no of electron in bonding molecular orbitals is equal to the no of electrons in
antibonding molecular orbitals then the molecule is stable
Option D: When no of electron in antibonding molecular orbitals is less than no of electrons in
bonding molecular orbitals then the molecule is stable

2. The number of component and degree of freedom for the system PCl5(g) ⇆ PCl3 (g) +
Cl2 (g
Option A: 3 and 2
Option B: 2 and 3
Option C: 1 and 3
Option D: 1 and 2

3. A sample of water found to contain following impurities in mf/lit. Mg(HCO3)2 7.3 and
CaCl2 22.2 mg. Temporary and permanent hardness of this sample are
Option A: 50 and 20 ppm respectively
Option B: 20 and 50 ppm respectively
Option C: 5 and 20 ppm respectively
Option D: 20 and 5 ppm respectively
4. Choose the correct statement
Option A: By compression moulding one can produce high quality articles with intricate shape.
Option B: By extrusion moulding insulated electric cables can be manufactured
Option C: Injection moulding is applicable to thermosetting materials
Option D: Transfer moulding is applicable to both thermoplastic and thermosetting resins.

5. In a sample 20% of molecules have molecular weight of 5000, 30% have molecular
weight 7500, and remaining has molecular weight 6000. Calculate weight average
molecular weight.
Option A: 6000
Option B: 6380
Option C: 5830
Option D: 6830

Q 6. Which of the following pair of chemical structures follow Huckel rule

Option A:

Option B:

Option C:

Option D:

Q 2. Solve any Four Questions out of Six [4×4=16]

A. Draw molecular orbital diagram of CO and explain its bond order and magnetic
behaviour.
B. Explain formation of sigma and pi bonds in Pyrrole
C. Write short note on i) conducting polymer. ii) glass transition temperature
D. 0.5 g of CaCO3 was dissolved in dil. HCl and diluted to 500 ml. 50 ml of this solution
required 45 ml of EDTA solution for titration. 50 ml of hard waters ample required
12 ml of EDTA solution for titration. 50 ml of same water sample on boiling and
 filtering requires 8 ml of EDTA solution. Calculate temporary hardness and total
hardness.

E. With the help of a phase diagram, derive the degrees of freedom for one component
system and explain the concept of triple point.
F. Write short note on i) reverse osmosis and ii) ultra filtration.

Q 3. Solve any Four Questions out of Six [4×4=16]

A. What is meant by fabrication of plastic. Describe one fabrication method which

can be used to get complicated shape.
B. An alloy of Cd and Bi contains 45% of Cd .
Find the mass of eutectic in 2 Kg of alloy , if the eutectic system contains 30% Cd.
C. Explain with diagram the shapes of 3p orbitals.
D. After treating 1000000 literes of hard water in ion-exchange method, the cationic
resin require 250 litres of 0.1 N HCl for regeneration. Determine the hardness of
water.
E. Define Aromaticity. How will you confirm that Benzene is aromatic.
F. Explain the formation of Kevlar. Describe the strength of Kevlar and mention its use.

Q 4. Solve any Four Questions out of Six [4×4=16]

A. Explain formation of bonding and antibonding molecular orbital. Distinguish

between sigma molecular orbital with pi molecular orbital.
B. Write balanced equations to describe the changes that occur when hard water is boiled.
Write short note on Electrodialysis.
C. In a polymer if 50% molecules have double molecular weight than the other part,
calculate polydispersity index.
D. Explain Pb-Ag system with an appropriate phase diagram.
E. 25 ml of waste water is mixed with 25 ml of acidified potassium dichromate solution
and refluxed. The unreacted potassium dichromate required 12.9 ml of 0.1 N ferric
ammonium sulphate (FAS). 25 ml of distilled water when treated same way the
unreacted potassium dichromate required 28.2 ml of FAS. Calculate COD of sample
water.
F. Write short notes on i) reduced phase rule ii) limitation of phase rule