Page801 900
Page801 900
χ∝
1 Lenz’s Law
T “The direction of the induced emf is such as to oppose the
change that causes it.”
Curie Temperature
Lenz law is one form of law of conservation of energy. If
Above a certain temperature the substance loses its North pole of a bar magnet approaches towards a coil,
ferromagnetic character and begins to behave as a then the direction of induced current in coil will be
paramagnetic substance. This particular temperature is anti-clockwise, to form North pole, so that it may oppose
called the curie temperature of the substance. the approaching of North pole.
Similarly, if North pole is going away from a coil, then
Magnetic Flux direction of induced current will be clockwise to form
It is defined as the total number of magnetic lines of force South pole, so that it many oppose the receding of North
passing normally through any surface. pole.
If surface of area A is placed perpendicular to uniform
magnetic field B. Then, magnetic flux φ = BA. Induced emf in a Conducting Rod in
Its unit is Wb (weber) or kg-m 2 /s 2 A. Different Situations
If a plane is parallel to the magnetic field, then no flux link (i) If a conductor of length l is moving perpendicularly
will pass through it and magnetic flux link with coil will be in a magnetic field, then induced potential difference
zero. If the coil is rotated through 90° in the magnetic field, across the ends of conductor
then magnetic flux linked with the coil is zero. e = Bvl
(ii) If direction of velocity makes an angle θ with
ELECTROMAGNETIC direction of magnetic field, then
e = Bvl sinθ
INDUCTION (iii) emf induced in rod of length l rotating about an end
“Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit in a uniform magnetic field is
changes an induced emf produced in the circuit, due to this Bωl 2
current is induced in the circuit. This emf lasts only, so e=
2
long as the change in flux lasts.” This phenomena is called
electromagnetic induction. where, ω is the angular speed.
628 NDA/NA Pathfinder
Types of Electromagnetic If all the flux of coil 2 links with coil 1 and vice-versa then,
φB2 = φB1
Induction
Since, M12 = M 21 = M , hence, we have
Electromagnetic induction is of two types
N1 N 2 φB1 φB2
(i) Self-induction When the current flowing through M12 M 21 = M 2 = = L1 L2
a coil changes, then induced current produces in i1 i2
the same coil, it is called self-induction.
∴ M max = L1 L2
(a) Coefficient of self-inductance of a coil is
Nφ This is the maximum possible value of M as the total flux
L=
i associated with one coil links with the other. In general only
e a fraction K 2 (< 1) of φB2 passes through the coil 1. Similarly a
or L= − fraction K1 (< 1) of φB1 passes through coil 2.
∆ i/ ∆ t
(b) Coefficient of self-inductance of a solenoid Hence, φB1 = K 2 φB2
µ N 2A and φB2 = K1 φB1
L= 0
l N1 N 2 K1 K 2 φB1 φB2
where, L is length of the solenoid, A is area, N ∴ M 21 M12 = M 2 = = K1 K 2 L1 L2
i1 i2
is number of turns and i is current flowing
through the coil. Unit of coefficient of or M = K L1 L2 (K ≤ 1)
self-inductance is ‘Henry’ or volt/amp/second.
Symbol is Here, K = K1 K 2 is a number, depending on the geometry of
(ii) Mutual induction When two coils are placed the coils and their relative closeness having value between 0
near each other, then if there is a change in current and 1.
in one coil, then emf is induced in the another Combination of Inductor
coil, this phenomena is called mutual induction.
(a) Coefficient of mutual inductance is given by Combination of Equivalent
S.No Combination diagram
inductor Inductance
N φ −e 2
M= 2 2 or M = L1 L2 L3
i1 ∆ i1 / ∆ t 1. Series Combination
L = L1 + L 2 + L 3
A B
(b) Mutual inductance between two plane coils is
L1
µ 0 N1 N 2 π R22 1 1
= +
1
+
1
M= 2. Parallel Combination L2 L L1 L 2 L 3
2R1
A L3 B
where, R1 and R2 are radius of the coils
(c) In case of a solenoid having primary coil N1
and secondary coil N 2 turns, then Magnetic Resonance Image
µ µ NN A It is produce due to the presence of hydrogen atoms in
M= 0 r 1 2
l tissues. The nucleus of the hydrogen atoms produce magnetic
where, l is length of solenoid and A is area. resonance. It is known as nuclear magnetic resonance. This
resonance is absorbed by special coil and send it to computer.
Coefficient of Coupling of the Two This technique is used to analyse the various activities of
Circuits brain.
Let us now calculate mutual inductance between two
circuits in terms of the self-inductance of each circuit Transformer
alone. It is a static electrical device used to step-up a low voltage to
Let us first consider a case when the total flux a high voltage or to step down a high voltage into a low
associated with one coil links with the other, i.e., a case voltage and is used on AC circuits. Transformer works on the
of maximum flux linkage. Consider two coils placed principle of electromagnetic induction.
adjacent to each other,
Step-up Transformer
N 2 φB2 N1 φB1
M12 = and M 21 = A step-up transformer steps the primary voltage up to a
i1 i2 higher value. If the numbers of turns of secondary coil is
N1 φB1 N 2 φB2 more than the number of turns of primary coil, then it is
Similarly, L1 = and L2 = called step-up transformers.
i1 i2
GENERAL SCIENCE > Physics 629
Alternating Voltage (iii) If a circuit have only inductor or capacitor, then Pav = 0.
The voltage whose magnitude and direction changes Choke Coil
with time and after a fixed period of time, it repeats
Choke coil is a device used to control the AC circuit. In choke
the same magnitude and direction, called alternating
coil power loss is negligible.
voltage. Equation of alternating voltage is
V = V0 sin ωt
630 NDA/NA Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which one of the following (a) clockwise 12. An electric motor is used to convert
statements about electric or (b) anti-clockwise (a) electrical energy into mechanical
magnetic fields is not true? (c) first clockwise and then energy
(a) All electric charges, whether static anti-clockwise (b) mechanical energy into kinetic
or in motion with respect to an (d) first anti-clockwise and then energy
observer, give rise to electric fields clockwise (c) mechanical energy into electrical
(b) All electric charges, whether static 6. A freely suspended magnetic energy
or in motion with respect to an needle at the magnetic North pole (d) higher voltage to lower voltage
observer, give rise to magnetic
of the earth 13. Heating a magnet will
fields
(a) remains vertical (a) weaken it (b) strengthen it
(c) Electric fields exert forces on all
(b) remains horizontal (c) reverse its polarity
charges
(c) makes an angle 23° with vertical (d) have no effect
(d) Magnetic fields exert forces on
charges only when the charges are (d) makes an angle 67 ° with vertical 14. In the process of magnetisation of
in motion with respect to an 7. When a coil of wire is rotated in a a bar
observer uniform magnetic field, a/an (a) only the outer layers of the bar get
(a) alternating emf of varying magnetised
2. The direction of the induced emf
frequency is generated (b) only the surface of the bar gets
during electromagnetic induction magnetised
is determined by (b) direct current of varying emf is
generated (c) only the ends of the bar get
(a) Ampere’s law (b) Lenz’s law magnetised
(c) direct current of constant emf is
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Maxwell’s law generated (d) the entire bulk of the bar gets
3. The electromagnetically induced (d) alternating emf of constant magnetised
current always flows in such a amplitude is generated 15. Two conducting parallel wires
direction that the action of the 8. In combined field of a magnet and carry current in opposite
magnetic field set-up by it tends earth two null points are located directions. They will
to oppose the cause producing it. (a) attract each other
on its axis. The magnet is placed
This is known as (b) repel each other
with its axis
(c) get rotated to be perpendicular to
(a) Lenz’s law (b) Faraday’s law (a) perpendicular to meridian, N-pole
facing North one another
(c) Biot-Savart’s law(d) Ampere’s law
(b) perpendicular to meridian, S-pole (d) experience no force between them
4. An artificial satellite with metal facing North 16. The temperature at and above
surface is moving around the (c) in the magnetic meridian, N-pole which a ferromagnetic material
earth in a circular orbit. An facing North become paramagnetic is called
induced current flows in the (d) in the magnetic meridian, S-pole (a) inversion temperature
satellite. Which of the following facing North (b) curie temperature
statements is correct? 9. The soft iron (used as core (c) debye temperature
(a) The plane of the orbit is inclined to material) has (d) critical temperature
the equatorial plane (a) high malleability (b) low malleability
(b) The plane of the orbit is equatorial 17. In the given figure, the earth’s
(c) high retentivity (d) low retentivity
plane magnetism is imagined to be as
(c) Irrespective of the plane of the 10. The value of intensity of due to a magnet placed at a small
orbit the satellite speed must be horizontal component of certain angle to its axis of rotation, with
more than 8km/s magnetic field is approximately the South pole in the northern
(d) The plane of the orbit coincides (a) 3.4 g hemisphere. A dip-needle will then
with the equatorial plane and the (b) 0.34 g set horizontally
speed of the satellite is more than (c) 0.034 g
M qua
ne r
magnetic pole
5. The North pole of a magnet is 11. A current is flowing in a circular
tic
18. Frequency of the AC main in 26. A step-up transformer is used on 34. A coil is wound on a frame of
India is a 120 V line to provide a potential rectangular cross-section. If the
(a) 50 cps (b) 60 cps difference of 2400 V at 2 A linear dimensions of the frame are
(c) 100 cps (d) 120 cps current. If the primary has increased by a factor of 2 and the
19. The output of a dynamo using a 100 turns, then the number of number of turns per unit length of
split ring commutator is turns in the secondary coil is the coil remain the same, then the
(a) fluctuating DC (a) 1000 (b) 150 self inductance increases by a
(b) AC (c) 600 (d) 2000 factor of
(c) DC 27. A transformer has an efficiency of (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 15 (d) 8
(d) half-wave rectified voltage 80%. It works at 4 kW and 100 V. 35. A coil of area 500 cm2 having
20. A choke coil If the secondary voltage is 240 V, 1000 turns is put perpendicular to
(a) reduces current in DC then the current in the primary a magnetic field of intensity
(b) increases current in DC coils is 4 × 10−5 Wb / m2. It is rotated by
(c) reduces current in AC (a) 5 A (b) 7 A 180° in 0.1 s, the induced emf
(d) increases current in AC (c) 15 A (d) 40 A produced is
21. Two electric bulbs, each designed 28. In a step-down transformer, the (a) 60 mV (b) 40 mV (c) 50 mV (d) 70 mV
to operate with a power of 500 W input voltage is 200 V and the 36. A jet aircraft is flying due to South
in 220 V lines are put in series in output voltage is 5V. The turn at 300 m/s at a place, where the
a 110 V. What will be the power ratio of the transformer is vertical component of the earth’s
generated by each bulb? (a) 40 : 1 (b) 30 : 2 (c) 20 : 1 (d) 1 : 30 magnetic field is 80 µT. The
29. A straight line conductor of length potential difference between wing
Electron motion
0.4 m is moved with a speed of tips, if they are 25 m apart is
7 m/s to a magnetic field of (a) 0.5 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.6 V (d) 0.2 V
Magnetic field intensity 0 . 9 Wb /m2 . The induced 37. A coil of 10 cm × 20 cm having
emf across the conductor is 40 turns is making 18 rev/min in a
(a) 1.25 V (b) 250 V magnetic field of intensity
(a) 25 W (b) 10 W
(c) 2.52 V (d) 5 V 0. 5 Wb /m2 . The peak value of the
(c) 31.25 W (d) 3.125 W
30. An emf of 5 V is produced by a self induced emf is about
22. An L-C circuit has frequency f, inductance when the current (a) 225 V (b) 425 V(c) 113 V (d) 330 V
now if a resistance R < 2 L /C changes at a steady rate from 3 to
38. A magnetic needle lying parallel to
introduced in the circuit, then the 2 A in 1 ms. The value of self
magnetic field requires W units of
frequency will become/remain inductance is
work to turn it through 60°. The
(a) f (b) more than f (a) 500 H (b) 250 H
torque needed to maintain the
(c) less than f (d) zero (c) 5 mH (d) zero
needle in this position will be
23. When power is drawn from the 31. Two pure inductors, each of self 3W
secondary circuit of a inductance L, are connected in (a) W (b) 3 W (c) (d) 2 W
2
transformer, then the dynamic parallel but are well separated
resistance from each other, then the total 39. Points A and B are situated along
(a) decreases inductance is the extended axis of 2 cm long
(b) increases (a) L / 3 (b) L /2 have magnet at a distance x and 2x
(c) remains unchanged (c) 3 L (d) L / 5 cm respectively, from the pole
(d) changes erratically
32. A conductor carrying current nearer to the points. The ratio of
24. The core used in transformers when placed in an external magnetic fields at A and B will be
and other electromagnetic device (a) 4 : 1 approximately
magnetic field, experiences a
(b) 4 : 1 exactly
is laminated to mechanical force. The device (c) 8 : 1 approximately
(a) increases the magnetic field whose working is based on this (d) 8 : 1 exactly
(b) reduce the residual magnetism in principle is
the core (a) electric motor 40. Consider the following statements
(c) increase the level of the magnetic (b) dynamo As one moves from one place to
saturation of the core (c) electric bell another, the magnetic field of the
(d) reduce eddy current losses in the (d) None of the above earth will vary
core
33. A jet aeroplane has total wing I. in magnitude
25. In a step-down transformer, the span of 60 m and moving with a II. in direction
input voltage is 22 kV and the speed of 400 m/s. If the earth’s III. linearly with height
outer voltage is 550V. The ratio of magnetic field is 0.3 gauss, then IV. linearly with the temperature
number of turns in the secondary the potential difference between of the place
to primary is the wing tips of a jet aeroplane is Of the above statements
(a) 1 : 40 (b) 40 : 1 (a) 0.4 V (b) 0.5 V (a) Both I and II (b) Only III
(c) 20 : 1 (d) 1 : 20 (c) 0.7 V (d) 0.72 V (c) I, II, III and IV (d) Both III and IV
632 NDA/NA Pathfinder
41. Which of the following statements (a) a charged glass rod The motion of an electron in
are not correct? (b) a magnetic compass presence of a magnetic field is
(c) an electroscope depicted in the figure given above.
I. Magnetic monopoles do not
(d) another unmarked bar magnet
exist. The force acting on the electron
II. Two iron bars which are 47. The earth’s magnetic field is will be directed
magnetised always attract. approximately e 2012 (II) (a) into the page
III. A wire freely suspended in a (a) 1 T (b) 2 G (c) 10 4 T (d) 1 G (b) out of the page
magnetised field orients itself (c) opposite to the motion of the electron
48. Match the following e 2012(II)
parallel to the field. (d) along the motion of the electron
IV. Copper is diamagnetic and List I List II 53. Imagine a current carrying wire
aluminium is paramagnetic. A. Artificial magnet 1. Long lived with the direction of current
Choose the answer from the B. Permanent magnet 2. Last for infinitely downward or into the page. The
following codes long period direction of magnetic field lines is
(a) I, III and IV (b) Both II and IV C. Temporary magnet 3. Short lived e 2013 (I)
(c) Both II and III (d) II, III and IV (a) clockwise (b) anti-clockwise
D. Earth as a magnet 4. Induced
42. Which of the following statements magnet (c) into the page (d) out of the page
are correct regarding
Codes 54. A positively charged particle
ferromagnetic materials?
A B C D A B C D projected towards West is
I. They contain iron (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 deflected towards North by a
II. They exhibit hysteresis (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 magnetic field. The direction of
III. They are characterised by the megnetic field is
atoms with permanent dipole
49. A positively charged particle
(a) towards South e 2013 (I)
moments projected towards West is
(b) towards East
deflected towards North by a
Choose the answer from the codes (c) in downward direction
magnetic field. The direction of (d) in upward direction
given below the magnetic field is e 2013 (I)
(a) I, II and III (b) Both I and II 55. Which one among the following
(a) towards South
(c) Both II and III (d) Both I and III properties of a proton may
(b) towards East
(c) in downward direction change, while it moves freely in a
Previous Years’ Questions (d) in upward direction magnetic field? e 2013(II)
43. For which among the following 50. A current-carrying wire is known (a) Speed (b) Charge
house appliances, magnet is an to produce magnetic lines of force (c) Mass (d) Velocity
essential part? e 2012 (I) around the conducting straight 56. Van de Graaff generator is used
(a) Calling bell (b) Fan wire. The direction of the lines of for
(c) Washing machine (d) All of these force may be described by (a) accelerating charged particles
44. The torque on a rectangular coil e 2013 (I) (b) generating large currents
placed in a uniform magnetic field (a) left-hand thumb rule for up current (c) generating electric field
is large when the e 2012 (II) and right-hand thumb rule for down (d) generating high frequency voltage
(a) number of turns is large current
57. The phenomenon of
(b) number of turns is less (b) right-hand thumb rule for up
current and left-hand thumb rule for electromagnetic induction implies
(c) plane of the coil is perpendicular
to the magnetic field down current a production of induced e 2014(I)
(d) area of the coil is small (c) right-hand thumb rule for both up (a) resistance in a coil when the
and down currents magnetic field changes with time
45. Consider the following statements (b) current in a coil when an electric
(d) left-hand thumb rule for both up
e 2012 (II) field changes with time
and down currents
I. If a piece of bar magnet is (c) current in a coil when a magnetic
broken into two equally long 51. Gravitational force shares a
field changes with time
pieces, then the pieces will not common feature with
(d) voltage in a coil when an electric
lose the magnetic properties. electromagnetic force. In both field changes with time
II. Magnetic properties of a cases, the force is e 2013 (I)
(a) between massive and neutral objects
58. A force F, acting on an electric
substance lie in the atomic
level. (b) between charged objects charge q, in presence of an
Which of the statement (s) given (c) a short range electromagnetic field, moves the
above is/are correct? (d) a long range charge parallel to the magnetic
(a) Only I (b) Only II 52. e 2013 (I)
field with velocity v. Then, F is
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Electron motion equal to (where, E and B are
electric field and magnetic field,
46. The polarity of an unmarked
horse-shoe magnet can be Magnetic field respectively) e 2014 (I)
(a) q E (b) q ( v × B )
determined by using e 2012 (II)
(c) q ( v × E ) (d) q B
GENERAL SCIENCE > Physics 633
59. Statement I It is not necessary 60. If a charged particle (+ q) is (a) The wires will attract with each
that every bar magnet has one projected with certain velocity other
North pole and one South pole. (b) The wires will repel with each
parallel to the magnetic field,
other
Statement II Magnetic poles then it will e 2015 (I)
(c) There will be no force between
occur in pair. e 2014 (II) (a) trace helical path the wires
Codes (b) trace circular path (d) There will be a force between the
(a) Both the statements are individually (c) continue its motion without any wires only at the moment when
true and Statement II is the correct change the current is switched on or off
explanation of Statement I (d) come to rest instantly
62. Magnetic meridian is an
(b) Both the statements are individually 61. Two long wires each carrying a imaginary e 2015 (II)
true but Statement II is not the DC current in the same direction
correct explanation of Statement I (a) line along North-South
are placed close to each other. (b) point
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II
Which one of the following (c) vertical plane
is false
statements is correct? e 2015(II) (d) horizontal plane
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true
ANSWERS
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 d 6 d 7 c 8 a 9 d 10 c
11 d 12 d 13 d 14 d 15 c 16 d 17 c 18 d 19 d 20 a
21 d 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 d 26 d 27 d 28 a 29 d 30 c
31 b 32 d 33 d 34 d 35 b 36 c 37 d 38 b 39 c 40 c
41 d 42 d 43 d 44 c 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 a 49 d 50 c
51 d 52 b 53 a 54 d 55 d 56 d 57 c 58 a 59 d 60 c
61 a 62 c
Solutions
26. (d) Given, V p = 120V, Vs = 2400V, 31. (b) Two pure inductors are connected in 36. (c) ∴ Given, B = 80 µT = 80 × 10 −6 T,
parallel. v = 300 m/s,
N p = 100 turns, Ns = ? 1 1 1
Vs Ns ∴ Total inductance, = + l = 25 m,
∴ = L′ L L
Vp Np e=?
L
⇒ L′ =
Ns 2400 2 e = Bvl
⇒ = = 20
100 120 = 80 × 10 −6 × 300 × 25
33. (d) Given, l = 60 m, v = 400 m/s, B = 0.3,
⇒ Ns = 2000 = 0 .6 V
emf = ?
27. (d) ∴ Efficiency of transformer, emf = Bvl = 0 .3 × 400 × 60 × 10 −4 38. (b) W = MB (cos θ 1 − cos θ 2 )
Output power Vs is
η= = = 0 . 72 V = MB (cos 0 ° − cos 60 ° )
Input power Vp ip 1 MB
34. (d) We know that, inductance, = MB 1 − =
But P = Vi 2 2
L = µ 0 n2 V
⇒ 4 × 1000 = 100 × i and τ = MB sin θ
i = 40 A L2 V2 ( 2 × K ) 3
Q = = =8 3
The current in the primary coil is 40 A. L1 V1 ( K )3 = MB sin 60 ° = MB
2
28. (a) Given, Vs = 5 V, V p = 200V, N p : Ns = ? ⇒ L2 = 8 L1 τ = 3W
For transformer, 35. (b) Given, A = 500 cm 2, N = 1000 turns
61. (a) When two wires carry current I1 and
Ns V
= s =
5
=
1 B = 4 × 10 −5 Wb/m 2, θ = 180 ° I2 in the same direction and separated by
N p V p 200 40 and t = 0.1 s, e = ? a distance d.
N p : Ns = 40 : 1 − NBA (cos θ 2 − cos θ 1 ) The force of attraction between the wires
∴ e= is
e ∆t
30. (c) ∴ Self inductance, L = µ
∆i / ∆t − 1000 × 4 × 10 −5 × 500 F = 0 I1 I2 L
2 πd
5 (cos 180 ° − cos 0 ° ) × 10 −4
= = 5 × 10 −3 = 5 mH = where, L is the length of the wire.
1
0 .1
1 × 10 −3 = 4 × 10 −2 V = 40 mV
13
634 NDA/NA Pathfinder
In last year 2 questions were asked based on the topics structure of nucleus and nucleus energy. So, study
these topics carefully.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Law of radioactive decay is 9. A neutron, an electron, a proton 18. When M is atomic mass, A is a
associated with and an alpha particle are moving mass number, then(M − A )/ A is
(a) Planck (b) Compton with equal kinetic energy. The called
(c) Madam curie (d) Einstein correct sequence of the increasing (a) fermi energy (b) binding energy
order of the velocities of these (c) packing fraction (d) None of these
2. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence in terms of particles will be 19. The density of nucleus is of the
increasing mass? (a) alpha particle, neutron, proton, order of
electron
(a) Proton, electron, α-particle, (a) 10 24 kg/m3 (b) 1017 kg/m3
(b) alpha particle, proton, neutron, electron
hydrogen atom (c) 1012 kg/m3 (d) 10 3 kg/m3
(b) Electron, proton, hydrogen atom, (c) electron, neutron, proton, alpha
α-particle particle 20. An isobar is produced in
(d) proton, neutron, alpha particle, electron (a) deuteron emission
(c) Hydrogen atom, proton, electron,
(b) proton emission
α-particle 10. When a beta particle is emitted (c) α-emission
(d) α-particle, proton, hydrogen atom, from the nucleus of an atom, then (d) β-emission
electron the effect is to
3. α-particles are (a) decrease the atomic number by one 21. The isotope generally used for the
(a) protons (b) decrease the mass number by one treatment of blood cancer is
(c) increase the mass number by one (a) Ag191 (b) O15 (c) Hg107 (d) I131
(b) ionised helium atoms
(c) negatively charged particles (d) increase the atomic number by one 22. Thermal neutrons have energy
(d) electromagnetic waves 11. The anti-particle of electron is equal to
4. When an α-particle captures an (a) β-particle (b) proton (a) 2.5 eV (b) 0.25 eV
electron it becomes (c) positron (d) α-particle (c) 0.025 eV (d) 0.0025 eV
(a) a helium ion 12. The mass of positron is same as 23. Enormous energy generation in
(b) a β-particle (a) electron (b) neutron the sun and the stars is due to
(c) a helium atom (c) α-particle (d) proton (a) radioactive decay
(d) any hydrogen atom
13. In a nuclear reaction, (b) thermonuclear reaction
5. In the reaction represented by → Z Th A + 2He4
238 (c) thermoionic emission
92 U
equation (d) nuclear fission
the value of A and Z are
A A−4 24. The main source of solar energy is
ZX → Z − 2Y (a) A = 234, Z = 90 (b) A = 234, Z = 94
A−4 A−4 (c) A = 238, Z = 94 (d) None of these (a) nuclear fusion
→ Z − 2Y → Z − 1K
226
(b) nuclear fission
which of the following will give 14. In 88 Ra nucleus, there are (c) gravitational contraction
the correct sequence radiations? (a) 138 protons and 88 neutrons (d) chemical reactions
(a) α, γ , β (b) α, β, γ (b) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
(c) γ , α, β (d) β, α, γ 25. When the mass equal to amu is
(c) 226 protons and 88 electrons
6. If the nuclear forces between two (d) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons converted completely into energy,
protons, two neutrons and then the energy produced will be
15. The mass of a neutron is same as
between proton and neutron is that of (a) 1.5 × 10 −10 J (b) 1.5 × 10 −12 J
denoted F pp , Fnn and F pn (a) a proton (b) a meson (c) 1.5 × 10 −18
J (d) 1.5 × 10 −14 J
respectively, then (c) an electron (d) None of these
26. In nuclear chain reactions
(a) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (b) Fpp = Fpn ≠ Fnn 235
16. In a 92 U atom, there are (a) a U 235 nucleus is bombarded with
(c) Fpp = Fnn ≠ Fpn (d) Fpp ≠ Fpn ≠ Fnn a fast moving α-particle
(a) 143 protons, 92 neutrons and
7. Wilson cloud chamber detects 143 electrons (b) a U 235 nucleus is bombarded with
(a) α-particle only (b) 143 protons, 92 neutrons and a fast moving neutron
(b) γ-particle only 92 electrons (c) a U 235 nucleus is bombarded with
(c) β-particle only (c) 92 protons, 143 neutrons and a slow moving neutron
(d) α and β-particle both 92 electrons (d) a U 235 nucleus is bombarded with
(d) 92 protons, 143 neutrons and a slow moving α-particle
8. The 1994 Nobel Prize in physics 143 electrons
was awarded for the work in the 27. Recent tests conducted in
field of 17. Nuclear forces are stronger than Pokhran were only based on
(a) Top quarks (a) magnetic force (a) nuclear fusion devices
(b) Infrared astronomy (b) gravitational force (b) nuclear fission devices
(c) Neutron physics (c) electrostatic force (c) nuclear fusion as well as nuclear
(d) High Tc superconductivity (d) All of the above fission devices
(d) clear nuclear devices which no
nuclear waste
639
28. Match List I with List II and (a) 3 × 10 6 K (b) 3 × 10 4 K 35. The main source of energy of the
2
select the correct answer using (c) 3 × 10 K (d) 3 × 10 3 K sun is
codes gives below the lists (a) fusion of heavy nuclei
31. The process by which a heavy (b) fusion of light nuclei
List I List II nucleus splits into lighter nucleus (c) fission of light nuclei
A. Solar energy 1. Nuclear energy is known as (d) Both fusion and fission
(a) chain reaction (b) α-decay
B. Light energy 2. Nuclear fusion (c) fusion (d) fission
36. Which one of the following
isotopes is used to predict the age
C. Sound energy 3. Mechanical 32. How much energy will
vibration of archaeological findings?
approximately be released, if all (a) 55Ro 238
D. Energy released 4. Incandescent
by a atom bomb solid the atoms of 1 kg of deuterium
(b) 7N14
could undergo fusion? Assume in
Codes the fusion of deuterium, (c) 16P 30
A B C D 0.1% mass is converted into (d) 6C 14
(a) 1 4 3 2 energy
(b) 2 3 4 1 (a) 8 × 10 23 MeV (b) 6 × 10 27 eV
(c) 2 4 1 3
Previous Years’ Questions
(c) 9 × 1013 J (d) 2 × 10 7 kWh
(d) 1 3 4 2
37. An atom of carbon has 6 protons.
29. If each fission of releases 235 33. Molecular weight of heavy water
92 U Its mass number is 12. How many
used as a moderator in nuclear
200 MeV, how may fissions must neutrons are present in an atom
reactor is
occur per second to produce a of carbon? e 2016 (I)
(a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 22 (d) 16
power of 1 kW? (a) 12 (b) 6
(a) 3.125 × 1016 34. A nuclear reactor is a device to (c) 10 (d) 14
produce nuclear energy with the
(b) 3.125 × 1015 38. Which one of the following is not a
help of
(c) 3.125 × 10 14
(a) nuclear fusion form of stored energy? e 2016 (I)
(d) 3.125 × 1013 (b) uncontrolled chain reaction (a) Nuclear energy
(c) controlled chain reaction (b) Potential energy
30. Fusion reaction takes place at the (d) graphite as fuel (c) Electrical energy
temperature about (d) Chemical energy
ANSWERS
1 c 2 b 3 b 4 b 5 a 6 a 7 d 8 c 9 a 10 d
11 c 12 a 13 a 14 b 15 a 16 c 17 d 18 b 19 b 20 d
21 a 22 b 23 b 24 a 25 a 26 c 27 c 28 c 29 d 30 a
31 d 32 c 33 b 34 c 35 b 36 d 37 b 38 a
Solutions
5. (a) Z X A
α
→ Z− 2Y
A −4
29. (d) Given, = 10 −3 × 9 × 10 16
0 0
Power, P = 1 kW = 10 3 J/s = 9 × 10 13 J
A −4
γ
0
→ Z− 2Y
1β
−→ Z− 1 KA −4
Q Rate of nuclear fission 37. (b) We know that,
So, we can see that α , γ and β will be the 10 3 Mass number (A)
correct sequence. = = 3.125 × 1013
200 × 1.6 × 10 −3 = Number of proton (p)
25. (a) ∴ 1 amu = 931 MeV 0.1 + Number of neutron ( n)
32. (c) Q Mass, m = 1 × = 10 −3 kg
= 931 × 10 6 × 1.6 × 10 −19 100 12 = 6 + n ⇒ n= 6
= 1.4896 × 10 −10 We know that, Mass number determines the atomic
−10 Energy, E = mc 2 = 10 −3 × ( 3 × 10 8 ) 2 mass of atoms.
= 1.5 × 10 J
[Q c = 3 × 10 8 m/s 2]
14
640 NDA/NA Pathfinder
MODERN PHYSICS
From this chapter 1 to 2 questions have been asked, based on the topics hydrogen spectrum and X-rays.
Modern physics refers to the post-Newtonian conception Motion of Cathode Rays (Electrons) Parallel in
of physics. Modern physics deals with the underlying Electric Field
structure of the smallest particles in nature (quantum An electron have mass ( m) and charge (e ). It moves in
mechanics), as well as a rigorous understanding of the electric field ( E ). Then,
‘‘fundamental interaction’’ of particles, understood as
forces. (i) force on electron, F = eE
(ii) when electron is projected in the direction of electric
field or opposite direction, then its path is linear line.
CATHODE RAYS (iii) electric field intensity,
Cathode rays are the stream of high speed negatively V potential between plates
E= =
charged particles moving from cathode to anode in a d distance between plates
discharge tube. (iv) applied acceleration on electron,
Properties of Cathode Rays F eE
a= =
Some properties of cathode rays are given below m m
(i) Cathode rays travel in straight lines. Motion of Cathode Rays (Electron)
(ii) Cathode rays heat up the material on which they Perpendicular to Electric Field
fall. An electron have mass ( m) and charge (e ). It enters into
(iii) Cathode rays can produce physical and chemical electric field perpendicularly. Then,
change and also can exert mechanical pressure. (i) force on electron, F = eE.
(iv) Cathode rays can ionise the gases and can produce (ii) with velocity v x , the time required to pass length of
X-rays. l
electric field, t = .
(v) Cathode rays can produce fluorescence. vx
(vi) Cathode rays can penetrate through thin metal foils. (iii) Acceleration produced in
perpendicular direction of motion,
(vii) Cathode rays are deflected in electric and magnetic
field. F eE
a= =
m m
(viii) Cathode rays carry negative charge.
GENERAL SCIENCE > Physics 641
d 1012 10–3
sin
in
Yellow
1011 10–2
θ
Microwaves
1010 10–1 600 nm
Consider the diagram in which beam of an X-rays Short radio waves
109 1 Orange
incident at an angle θ get diffracted as shown in figure. 108 Television and FM radio 101 650 nm
107 102
Clearly, path difference between ray 1 and ray 2 is 106
AM radio
103 Red
2d sinθ. 105 104
For maxima of X-rays diffracted from the crystal. 104 Long radio waves 105 700 nm
103 106
2d sinθ = nλ 102 107
where, n = 1,2,3,..., d is interatomic gap of the crystal 10
Electromagnetic Spectrum
Compton Shift
When X-rays are scattered by loosely bound electrons Bohr’s Model of Hydrogen
in a target some of the scattered X-rays have a long Like Atoms
wavelength, then the incident X-rays. This is called
compton shift in wavelength. The phenomenon in which Bohr combined classical and early quantum concepts and gave
the wavelength of the incident X-rays increases and his theory in the form of three postulates as given below
hence the energy decreases due to scattering from an First postulate An electron in an atom could revolve in
atom is known as Compton effect. certain stable orbit without the emission of radiant energy,
contrary to the predictions of electromagnetic theory.
644 NDA/NA Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. The neutron, proton, electron and 2. Cathode rays were discovered by 5. Which one of the following will be
alpha particles are moving with (a) Millikan (b) Rutherford deflected by electric field?
equal kinetic energies. How can (c) W. crookes (d) J.J. Thomson (a) Ultraviolet rays (b) X-rays
the particles be arranged in the 3. Cathode rays are deflected by (c) γ-rays (d) Cathode rays
increasing order of their (a) Neither electric field nor magnetic 6. Cathode rays have velocity
velocities? field (a) either less or greater than velocity
(b) Both electric field and magnetic of light c
(a) Alpha particle-neutron-proton-
field (b) less than velocity of light c
electron
(c) Only electric field (c) equal to velocity of light c
(b) Proton-electron-neutron-alpha (d) Only magnetic field (d) greater than velocity of light c
particle
(c) Electron-proton-neutron-alpha 4. Cathode rays are 7. Positive rays were discovered by
particle (a) electromagnetic wave (a) Bragg’s
(d) Neutron-proton-electron-alpha (b) positively charged (b) Aston
particle (c) negatively charged (c) Goldstein
(d) neutral (d) Thomson
GENERAL SCIENCE > Physics 645
2 .5
(a)
8. The phenomenon of photoelectric 20. The wave nature of matter was 2.5
eV (b) 2
eV
effect was explained by first discovered by 5000 ( 5000 )
(a) Bohr (b) Einstein (a) C.V. Raman (c) 2 .5 × ( 5000)2eV (d) [2.5 × 5000] eV
(c) Maxwell (d) Planck (b) Davison and Germer
9. Photoelectrons are emitted when (c) de-Broglie (d) J. J. Thomson 31. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit of
(a) a zinc plate is irradiated with light 21. The speed of electron in the orbit of electron in hydrogen atom is
(b) a zinc plate is subjected to high hydrogen atom in ground state is (e = 1. 6 × 10−19C , m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg,
pressure (a) c (b) c /2 (c) c /10 (d) c /137 h = 6.6 × 10−34 J- s)
(c) a zinc plate is hammered (a) 0.53 mm (b) 53 Å
(d) a zinc plate is heated 22. Compton effect is associated with (c) 0. 53 Å (d) 5 .3 Å
(a) positive rays (b) β-rays
10. The work function for (c) X-rays (d) visible rays 32. The difference in angular
photoelectric effect momentum associated with the
(a) is different for different metals 23. A cathode ray tube is operated at electron in the two successive
(b) is same for all metals 2500 V. The speed of electron will be orbits of hydrogen atom is
(c) depends upon the frequency of light (a) 3 × 10 7m/s . × 10 7m/s
(b) 15 h 2 nh
(d) None of the above (a) (b)
(c) 3.6 × 10 m/s
6
(d) 6 × 10 7m/s 2π π
11. Einstein was awarded noble prize h h
24. The specific charge on an (c) (d) ( n − 1)
for his 2 2π
(a) explanation of photoelectric effect electron is
(a) 1.759 × 1011C / kg 33. The speed of electron in the
(b) unified field of theory
(b) 1.672 × 10 −27
C / kg ground state of hydrogen atom is
(c) general theory of relativity
(a) 2 × 10 6 m/s (b) 2 × 10 5 m/s
(d) special theory of relativity (c) 1.62 × 10 C / kg
10
(c) speed of sound (d) zero
12. The photoelectric effect is based . × 10 −21C / kg
(d) 911
34. The recoil speed of a hydrogen
on the law of conservation of 25. The value of retarding potential
(a) angular momentum atom after it emits a photon in
needed to stop the photoelectrons going from n = 5 state to
(b) linear momentum
(c) linear mass (d) energy ejected from a metal surface of n = 1 state is (Rydberg’s constant
work function 1.2 eV with light of
13. The momentum of a photon of R = 1 .097 × 107/m )
energy 2 eV is
wavelength λ is given by (a) 3.8 V (b) 1.8 V
(a) 4.18 m/s (b) 5.18 m/s
(c) 6.18 m/s (d) 3.18 m/s
1 λ h (c) 2.8 V (d) 0.8 V
(a) (b) (c) (d) hλ 35. Ratio of energy of orbital electron
hλ h λ 26. Light of wavelength 4000 Å is in 4th orbit and 5th orbit of
14. The rest mass of a photon of incident on a metal plate whose hydrogen atom is
wavelength λ is work function is 2 eV. What is the (a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4
(a) hc / λ (b) h/ λ (c) h /cλ (d) zero maximum KE of emitted (c) 25 : 16 (d) 16 : 25
15. Conversion of light energy into photoelectron? 36. First spectral line of sodium atom
(a) 0.5 eV (b) 1.1 eV
electrical energy is achieved in a is 5890 Å, the first excitation
(c) 1.5 eV (d) 2.0 eV
(a) cloud chamber (b) thermocouple potential is
(c) photocell (d) coolidge tube 27. The threshold frequency of (a) 10.2 eV (b) 4.1 eV
16. Of the following properties, the potassium is 3 × 1014Hz. The work (c) 3.7 eV (d) 2.1 eV
photon does not possess function is 37. The frequency of first line of
(a) frequency (b) momentum (a) 0. 5 × 10 −19 J (b) 4 × 10 −19J Balmer series in hydrogen atoms is
(c) energy (d) rest mass (c) 2 × 10 −19 J . × 10 −19J
(d) 10 v0 jumps, then the frequency v of
17. Electrons in the atom are held the line emitted by doubly ionised
28. The energy of incident photon is lithium atom (Li2+ ) is
due to 12.375 eV while the energy of
(a) van der Walls’ forces (a) ν 0 / 9 (b) 9ν 0 (c) 4ν 0 (d) 2 ν 0
scattered photon is 9.375 eV.
(b) gravitational forces 38. If the distance of 100 W bulb is
(c) nuclear forces Then, KE of recoil photon is increased from a photocell, then
(a) 21.75 eV (b) more than 3 eV
(d) coulomb forces the saturation current in the
(c) less than 3 eV (d) 3 eV
18. According to Bohr’s atomic model, photocell varies with distance d as
29. The energy of photon 1
the electron revolve around the (a) i ∝ (b) i ∝ d 2
corresponding to the visible light d2
nucleus in 1
(a) stationary elliptical orbit of maximum wavelength is nearly (c) i ∝ d (d) i ∝
(a) 7 eV (b) 3.2 eV d
(b) radiating circular orbit
(c) stationary circular orbit
(c) 1.6 eV (d) 1 eV 39. A potential difference of 42000 V
(d) arbitrary circular orbit 30. For light of wavelength 5000 Å, is used in an X-ray tube to
the photon energy is nearly accelerate electrons. The
19. Molecular weight of heavy water maximum frequency of X-rays
2.5 eV. For X-ray of wavelength
used as a moderator in nuclear produced is (e = 1.6 × 10−19 C and
1 Å, the photon energy will be
reactor is h = 6.63 × 10−34J-s)
(a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 22 (d) 16 close to
(a) 10 20 (b) 1016 (c) 1018 (d) 1019
646 NDA/NA Pathfinder
40. The largest distance between the (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 46. Light waves are e 2014 (II)
interatomic planes of a crystal is (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (a) electromechanical waves
10 Å. What is the upper limit for (b) electromagnetic waves
wavelength of X-rays, which can Previous Years’ Questions (c) electrooptical waves
be usefully studied with this (d) magnetooptical waves
43. The penetrating power of X-rays
crystal? can be increased by e 2012 (I) 47. The working of a microwave oven
(a) 20 Å (b) 40 Å (c) 30 Å (d) 10 Å (a) increasing the current in the involves e 2014 (II)
41. If K α radiation of M 0 (Z = 42) has filament (a) absorption of microwaves by matter
(b) decreasing the potential difference (b) reception of microwaves by optical
a wavelength of 0 .71 Å. Calculate between the cathode and the fibre
the wavelength of the anode (c) microwave amplification by
corresponding radiation of Cu (c) decreasing the current in the stimulated emission of radiation
(Z = 29) filament (d) transmission of microwaves through
(a) 1. 52 Å (b) 2. 0 Å (c) 3. 52 Å (d) 2.52 Å (d) increasing the potential difference a metal
between the anode
42. Consider the following statements 48. Which one of the following
1. Gamma rays are not 44. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
constituents of nuclei but they transitions of hydrogen atom e 2015 (II)
are emitted when a nucleus in emits radiation of the shortest (a) The Kelvin scale of temperature is
an excited state returns to its wavelength? e 2012 (I) called the absolute scale
normal state. (a) n = 2 to n=1 (b) n = 3 to n= 2 (b) Visible light rediation has
2. The neutron to proton ratio for (c) n = 4 to n= 3 (d) n = 5 to n= 4 wavelength range of 400-700 nm
stable nuclei is always less (c) The capacity to do work is called
45. Which one among the following power
than one.
transitions is associated with the (d) The wavelength of Gamma rays is
3. Beta rays consists of ordinary
largest change in energy in less than that of X-rays
electrons which are of nuclear
hydrogen atom? e 2012 (II)
origin but do not revolve in 49. X-rays are electromagnetic
orbits. (a) n = 5 to n=3
radiation whose wavelengths are
(b) n = 2 to n= 1
4. Both X-rays and γ-rays are of the order of e 2015(II)
(c) n = 3 to n= 2
electromagnetic radiations. Of
(d) n = 4 to n= 2 (a) 1 m (b) 10 −1m
the above statements (c) 10 −5 m (d) 10 −10 m
ANSWERS
1 a 2 d 3 b 4 c 5 d 6 b 7 c 8 b 9 a 10 a
11 a 12 d 13 c 14 d 15 c 16 d 17 d 18 c 19 b 20 c
21 d 22 c 23 a 24 a 25 d 26 b 27 c 28 d 29 c 30 d
31 c 32 a 33 a 34 a 35 d 36 d 37 c 38 a 39 d 40 a
41 a 42 c 43 d 44 c 45 c 46 c 47 a 48 c 49 d
Solutions
25. (d) Q Retarding potential, = 19.878 × 10 −20 J = 1.98 × 10 −19 J 40. (a) By Bragg’s law, 2d sin θ = nλ
eV0 = hν − hν 0 = 2 − 1.2 = 0 . 8 eV = 2 × 10 −19 J 2d sin θ
⇒ λ=
⇒ V0 = 0 .8 V 28. (d) The KE for recoil photon = KE n
26. (b) Given, wavelength, λ = 4000Å, incident + KE scattered λ max = 2d = 2 × 10 Å = 20 Å
work function, W0 = 2 eV = 12.375 eV − 9.375 eV = 3eV 1 λ 1 ( Z2 − 1) 2
41. (a) ∴ λ ∝ ⇒ =
hc 30. (d) Given, λ 1 = 5000 Å, λ 2 = 1 Å ( Z − 1) 2
λ 2 ( Z1 − 1) 2
∴ K max = − W0
λ 1 E λ 5000
E∝ ⇒ 2= 1= 0.71 ( 29 − 1) 2 ( 28 ) 2
6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 10 8
Q
λ E1 λ 2 1 = =
= − 2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 λ2 ( 42 − 1) 2 ( 41) 2
4000 × 10 −10 E2 = (5000 ) E1 = ( 2 . 5 × 5000 ) eV ⇒ λ 2 = 1.52 Å
−19 39. (d) Given, V = 42000 V
= (4.95 × 10 V − 2 eV) 49. (d) Mostly X-ray have a wavelength
= (3.09 eV − 2 eV) = 1.1 eV ∴ eV = hν max ranging from 0.01 nm to 10 nm.
eV 1.6 × 10 −19 × 42000 1 nm = 10 −9 m
27. (c) ∴ W = h ν 0 = 6.626 × 10 −34 × 3 × 10 14 ν max = = = 10 19 Q
h 6.63 × 10 −34 ∴ 0.1 nm = 10 −10 m
[Q ν 0 = 3 × 10 14 ]
01
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICAL AND
CHEMICAL CHANGES
Generally 1-2 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions from this chapter are mostly based upon the
facts about physical and chemical changes.
There are some changes during which no new substances Some facts about the physical changes are
are formed whereas during some other changes new (i) Physical changes are temporary and reversible.
substances are formed. Therefore on this basis we can
classify all the changes into two groups- physical changes (ii) Composition of the constituent of matter remains
and chemical changes. same during physical change i.e. constituent particles
of matter does not change.
1. Physical Changes (iii) Physical changes are due to the change in physical
properties like density, volume, state temporarily.
A physical change is a change in which the composition of a
substance is not affected, i.e. no new substance is formed. ➨ Note
e.g. Interconversion of states is a physical change because ●
Amount of space that a substance or object occupies is called
these changes occur without a change in composition and volume of that substance.
no change in the chemical nature of the substance. ●
Density is the degree of compactness of a substance. It is
When an ordinary piece of iron is magnetised in the defined as mass per unit volume.
presence of a strong magnetic field. Here the colour, Mass
density, mass and the composition remains the same. i.e. Density =
Volume
Hence, magnetisation is a physical change. The physical
changes are reversible. Magnetisation can be reversed by 2. Chemical Changes
heating the piece of iron. These changes result in the formation of new substances. In
Evaporation, distillation, sublimation, condensation and a chemical change, the composition and molecular structure
crystallisation are examples of physical changes. of the substance undergoing changes are considered.
The blue colour of copper sulphate crystal disappears when e.g. When a piece of iron or nail is left in moist air for a
it is heated strongly because on heating water of long time, it rusts and gives a reddish brown look. During
crystallisation of crystal is lost. It regains its blue colour rusting process iron combines with oxygen to give a new
when moistened with a drop of water. product.
Heat Here rusting, is a chemical change which cannot be
CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H 2O → CuSO 4 + 5H 2O reversed back by any physical process. As we eat food, the
Blue White
digestion of food starts from the mouth and during this
It is an example of a physical change. process many chemical changes take place in the stomach.
648 NDA/NA Pathfinder
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following is a true 7. Which of the following is (a) extrinsic change
statement about the physical change? always accompanied during a (b) intrinsic change
(a) Physical changes are temporary chemical change? (c) physical change
changes and can be reversed (a) Evolution of light (d) chemical change
(b) During physical changes the (b) Evolution or absorption of heat 12. Heating of a substance results in
composition of constituents molecule (c) Evolution of heat only (a) a physical change
changes. (d) Absorption of heat only (b) a chemical change
(c) Energy is absorbed or released (c) a physical or a chemical change
8. Which of the following
during a physical change
substances undergo chemical (d) None of the above
(d) Identity of the substance is lost after
the physical change changes on heating? 13. An endothermic reaction is
(a) Sodium chloride accompanied by
2. Which of the following is not a (b) Silica (a) evolution of light and water
chemical change? (c) Lead nitrate (b) evolution of heat
(a) Combustion of fuel (d) Platinum wire (c) absorption of heat
(b) Electrolysis of acidified water (d) None of the above
(c) Oxidation reaction of cells at anode
9. Which one among the following
(d) Glowing of a platinum wire is a chemical process? 14. Combustion of a candle is a/an
(a) Distillation of sea (salty) water (a) physical change
3. Which of the following is a physical (b) Crystallisation of impure salt (b) reduction reaction
change? (NaCl) (c) endothermic reaction
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction (c) Production of iodine (I 2) from (d) exothermic reaction
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these seaweeds
(d) Sublimation of iodine (I 2) 15. Which of the following represent a
4. Which of the following is a physical physical change?
change? 10. Which among the following is a I. Cutting of carrot into pieces.
(a) Formation of curd chemical change?
II. Separation of iron and sulphur
(b) Burning of candle (a) A wet towel dries in the sun
from their mixture
(c) Rusting of iron rod (b) Lemon juice added to tea
(d) Heating of copper wire by electricity III. Formation of salt from sea-water
causing its colour to change
Codes
5. Which of the following is a chemical (c) Hot air rises over a radiator
(a) I and II (b) II and III
change? (d) Coffee is brewed by passing
(c) I and III (d) All of these
(a) Heating of iron to red hot steam through ground coffee
(b) Magnetisation of iron piece 16. Which of the following represent
11. Any change in matter that
(c) Rusting of iron both physical and chemical change?
results in the disappearance of
(d) All of the above one or more substances and the I. Burning of candle
appearance of one or more II. Burning of methane
6. Which of the following is a chemical
change? substances, each having its III. Decomposition of salt
(a) Evaporation (b) Dissolution own set of intensive properties Codes
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) Sublimation (d) Precipitation is known as
(c) I and III (d) Only I
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 649
ANSWERS
1 a 2 d 3 d 4 d 5 c 6 d 7 b 8 c 9 c 10 d
11 d 12 c 13 c 14 d 15 d 16 d 17 d 18 c 19 d 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 d 24 d 25 a 26 d 27 a 28 c 29 b 30 c
02
ELEMENTS, MIXTURES
AND COMPOUNDS
Usually 2-3 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions are mostly based upon the states of matter and
also on the basic knowledge of element, compound and mixture.
2. Liquids
Characteristics of liquids are as follows:
PURE SUBSTANCES
These substances have fixed composition and
(i) Liquids have no definite shape but have a definite volume.
non-variable properties.
(ii) Intermolecular forces operating between the molecules are
weak due to which they can slide over one another but These can not be separated into simple substances by
cannot escape the boundary in normal conditions. physical methods. Elements and compounds are pure
(iii) Molecules are closely packed and associated with substances.
intermediate energy due to motion.
1. Elements
3. Gases An element is a substance which cannot be split up
Characteristics of gases are as follows: into two or more simpler substances by the usual
(i) Gases have neither definite shape nor volume. chemical methods of applying heat, light or electric
(ii) Intermolecular forces operating between the molecules are energy.
very weak due to which their positions are not fixed and There are 118 elements known at present, out of which
thus, they can move freely. 92 elements occur in nature, while remaining 26
(iii) Molecules are wide apart and are associated with elements have been prepared artificially except one.
maximum energy. Elements may be found in all the three forms as solid,
(iv) Gases exert pressure on the walls of the container due to liquid or gas.
collision of molecules with the walls of the container.
Solid Sodium (Na), carbon (C), aluminium (Al) etc.
➨ Note Compressibility depends upon the intermolecular spaces between
the particles of matter. Compressibility ∝ intermolecular spaces Liquid Mercury (Hg), bromine (Br) etc.
Solid < liquid < gas Gas Oxygen (O 2 ), hydrogen (H 2 ) etc.
Elements are divided in the following forms:
CHANGE IN STATE AND LATENT (i) Metals The elements which have a tendency to
HEAT form positive ions by loss of electrons are called
metals, e.g. silver, tin, zinc etc. Metals are the
The conversion of a substance from one state to another state elements having lustre, ductility, malleability,
at a definite temperature is known as change in state. The state conductivity etc. All metals except mercury exists
of substance can be changed by changing temperature or as solids at room temperature. Oxides of metals
pressure. heat heat are basic or amphoteric in nature. Aluminium is
e.g. Solid state r Liquid state r Gaseous state the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust.
cool cool
(ii) Non-metals The elements which have a tendency
During the change in state the temperature of the substance to form negative ion by gain of electrons are
does not change but internal potential energy of molecules called non-metals. e.g. hydrogen, oxygen, sulphur
change.(kinetic energy of molecules remain same). etc. They are in solid or gaseous form under
The amount of heat energy required by a substance from one normal conditions except bromine which exists as
state to another state at atmospheric pressure is called latent liquid. Oxides of non-metals are neutral (in low
oxidation state) or acidic (in higher oxidation
heat of that substance.
state) in nature.
Terms Related to Change of State (iii) Metalloids They are the elements whose
properties fall between those of metals and
Melting point The temperature at which a solid melts to non-metals. e.g. boron (B), silicon (Si),
become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its germanium (Ge), arsenic (As), antimony (Sb),
melting point. When a solid melts, its temperature remains tellurium (Te) and polonium (Po) etc.
the same. Melting point of those substances which contract
upon melting reduces on increasing pressure. On the other Symbols Derived from Latin Name of the Elements
hand melting point of those substances which expand upon English name of the Latin name of the
melting increases with increasing pressure. Symbol
element element
Freezing point The temperature at which a liquid becomes Copper Cuprum Cu
solid at the atmospheric pressure is called its freezing point.
Gold Aurum Au
Boiling point The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling
Iron Ferrum Fe
at the atmospheric pressure is called its boiling point. Boiling
is a bulk phenomenon. Boiling point of water increases in Lead Plumbum Pb
presence of impurities in the water. Boiling point in creases Mercury Hydrargyrum Hg
on increasing pressure upon liquid that’s why food cooks
Potassium Kalium K
comparatively faster in pressure cooker.
652 NDA/NA Pathfinder
English name of the Latin name of the • A mixture shows the properties of all the constituents
Symbol
element element present in it. Energy is usually neither given out nor
Silver Argentum Ag absorbed during the preparation of a mixture.
Sodium Natrium Na • The composition of a mixture is variable, i.e. the
constituents can be present in any proportion by weight.
Tin Stannum Sn
• A mixture does not have a definite melting point, boiling
Tungsten Wolfram W point etc. (except azeotropic mixture).
(ix) Chromatography It is a modern method (x) Atmolysis It is used for separating the mixture of gases.
proposed by Tswett in 1903. This method is based This method is based on the difference in their rates of
on the difference in the rates at which the diffusion.
components of a mixture are adsorbed on a 235
UF6 and 238 UF6 can be separated by this method.
suitable adsorbent.
This method has been used (xi) Dialysis The process of separating the colloidal particles
from those of crystalloids by diffusion of mixture
(a) to separate o and p-nitrophenol,
through a parchment or animal membrane is known as
(b) to separate blue and red dyes, dialysis e.g. A ferric hydroxide sol can be purified by
(c) to separate plant pigments and other natural this method.
products.
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. The most abundant gas in the 9. Match list I with list II and select 14. A mixture of 235 UF6 and 238
UF6 is
atmosphere is the correct answer from the codes separated by
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen given below the lists. (a) sublimation (b) filtration
(c) helium (d) carbon dioxide (c) atmolysis (d) None of these
List I (Element) List II (Symbol)
2. Which one of the following is 15. The boiling points of two miscible
A. Thallium 1. Tm
most abundant metallic element? liquids X and Y are close to each
B. Thorium 2. Tl
(a) Aluminium (b) Iron other. Their separation is best
(c) Gold (d) Silver C. Thulium 3. Tb
carried out by
D. Terbium 4. Th (a) simple distillation
3. An element which is not found in
nature is (b) vacuum distillation
Codes
(a) Pt (b) K (c) steam distillation
A B C D A B C D (d) None of the above
(c) Zn (d) Pu (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
4. Which one of the following is not (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 1 3 16. Which of the following are correctly
a mixture? matched with the method used for
10. Which of the following is neither separating them?
(a) Air (b) Mercury an element nor a compound? I. Lanthanides—chromatography
(c) Milk (d) Cement (a) Air (b) Water
(c) Mercury (d) Sodium chloride II. H2 O and CCl4 —steam distillation
5. Which one among the following is III. Glycerine and H2 O—vacuum
an element? 11. LPG (Liquefied petroleum gas) is a
distillation
(a) Graphite (b) Glass (a) mixture (b) compound
(c) Brass (d) Steel (c) element (d) None of these IV. Phenol and benzoic
acid—separating funnel
6. Metalloids are 12. A student by chance mixed Codes
(a) alloys of alkali metals with other acetone with alcohol. This (a) Only III (b) I and III
metals mixture of acetone and alcohol (c) Only IV (d) IV and I
(b) colloids of metals can be separated by
(c) element having some properties of (a) filtration
17. A mixture containing SiO2 , NaCl
metals and non-metals (b) separating funnel
and NH4Cl is taken for separating
(d) metals heavier than lead (c) fractional crystallisation the constituents. The suitable steps
(d) fractional distillation required for this are
7. Purest form of iron is (a) sublimation-dissolution filtration
(a) cast iron (b) pig iron 13. Tinstone and wolframite is crystallisation
(c) steel (d) wrought iron separated by (b) dissolution-filtration-crystallisation
8. Magnesium is present in (a) magnetic method distillation
(b) atmolysis (c) sublimation-evaporation-dissolution
(a) haemoglobin (b) chlorophyll
(c) chromatography decomposition
(c) vitamin B12 (d) ascorbic acid
(d) None of the above (d) dissolution-distillation-decomposition-
evaporation
654 NDA/NA Pathfinder
18. Steam distillation is used to 27. Dialysis is used for the 38. Which one of the following is a
separate purification of compound?
(a) lemon oil (a) suspensions (a) Glass (b) Water gas
(b) sandal wood oil (b) true solutions (c) CNG (d) Plaster of Paris
(c) aniline (c) homogeneous mixture 39. Which of the following is a
(d) All of the above (d) colloidal solution compound?
19. A mixture that can be separated 28. Solution of CaCO3 in water forms a (a) Rhombic sulphur
by the sublimation method is (a) homogeneous mixture (b) Marble
(a) MgCl 2 + NaCl (b) HgCl 2 + NaCl (b) heterogeneous mixture (c) Diamond
(c) AgCl + NaCl (d) BaCl 2 + 2NaCl (c) azeotropic mixture (d) Quick silver
20. Iodine is separated from sand by (d) None of the above 40. False statement is
(a) sublimation (a) germanium is a semi-conductor
29. Pure water is obtained from sea
(b) chromatography (b) steel is an alloy
water by
(c) crystallisation (c) graphite is an element
(a) filtration
(d) evaporation (d) the fundamental unit in silicates is
(b) distillation
Si 2 O 3
21. A mixture of methanol and (c) evaporation
acetone is separated by (d) All of the above 41. Match List I with List II and
(a) fractional distillation select the correct answer from the
30. I2 in water is extracted with the
(b) steam distillation codes given below the lists
help of
(c) vacuum distillation (a) chloroform List I List II
(d) None of the above (b) carbon tetrachloride A. Bronze 1. Solution
22. A mixture of red and blue ink can (c) carbon disulphide
B. CO 2 2. Compound
be separated by (d) All of the above
C. Mixture of oil 3. Heterogeneous
(a) distillation 31. Which one of the following is not and water mixture
(b) crystallisation separated by sublimation? D. Mixture of water 4. Solid solution
(c) chromatography (a) Corrosive sublimate and alcohol
(d) sublimation (b) Calomel . Codes
23. Choose the correct statements (c) CuSO 4 A B C D A B C D
using the codes given below. (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
I. Impure glycerine is purified by 32. By decreasing pressure boiling (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 3 1
vacuum distillation. point of a liquid
II. Glycerine dissolves in water.
42. Consider the following statements.
(a) increases (b) decreases
I. Aqueous solution of NaCl is a
III. Water is a homogeneous (c) may increase or decrease
homogeneous mixture.
mixture of hydrogen and depending upon temperature of
oxygen. liquid II. Alloy is solid solution.
Codes (d) remains unchanged III. Milk is a mixture.
(a) I and II (b) II and III Codes
33. Water is a compound because (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) All of these (a) it exists as solid, liquid or gas
(c) I and III (d) All of these
24. Chromatography is used to (b) it contains hydrogen and oxygen
separate (c) it contains two different elements 43. Consider the following statements.
(a) plant pigment joined by chemical bonds I. Brass is a solid solution.
(b) blue and red ink (d) it can be split up into simpler II. Sand and water is a solution.
(c) o and p-nitrophenol substance by chemical means III. Salt and sand is homogeneous
(d) All of the above 34. Which one of the following is the mixture.
25. In column chromatography, the most abundant compound? IV. Air is a solution.
substance obtained in the top (a) H 2 O (b) SiO 2 (c) Al 2 O 3 (d) Air Codes
most region of column is (a) I and II (b) II and III
35. First organic compound which
(a) maximum adsorbed (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
was prepared in laboratory is
(b) minimum adsorbed (a) methane (b) urea 44. Consider the following statements.
(c) have maximum rate of diffusion (c) formaldehyde (d) water I. Pure milk is mixture.
(d) have the highest molecular weight II. Bronze is solution.
36. Who prepared the first organic
26. During fractional distillation, the the compound in laboratory? III. Brine is solution.
substance with (a) Dalton (b) Wohler IV. Graphite is pure substance.
(a) lower boiling point is obtained first (c) Kolbe (d) Berthelot Codes
(b) higher boiling point is obtained first (a) I and II
37. Barium carbonate is a/an (b) II and III
(c) higher molecular weight is obtained
(a) compound (b) mixture (c) III and IV
first
(c) element (d) alloy (d) All of the above
(d) lowest melting point is obtained first
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 655
Directions (Q. No. 45-47) The Previous Years’ Questions 53. The latest discovered state of
following items consist of two matter is e 2014 (I)
48. Which one among the following is
statements, Statement I and (a) solid
not a mixture? e 2012 (II) (b) Bose-Einstein condensate
Statement II. You have to examine
(a) Graphite (b) Glass (c) gas
these two statements carefully and (c) Brass (d) Steel (d) liquid
select the answer to these items using
the codes given below. 49. Air is e 2012 (II) 54. The symbol of the element
(a) always a compound ‘tungsten’ is e 2015(II)
Codes
(a) Both the statements are true and (b) always a mixture (a) Ta (b) W
Statement II is the correct (c) a compound in pollution-free zones (c) TI (d) Tc
explanation of Statement I. (d) a mixture in industrial zones
55. Matter around us can exist in
(b) Both the statements are true but
50. A mixture of sodium chloride and three different states namely,
Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I. naphthalene can be separated by solid, liquid and gas. Correct
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II e 2013 (II) order of their compressibility is
is false. (a) extraction with hot water (a) Liquid < Gas < Solid e 2016 (I)
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement (b) extraction with cold water (b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
II is true. (c) sublimation (c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
45. Statement I The formation of a (d) steam distillation (d) Solid < Gas < Liquid
mixture neither requires nor 51. Metalloids are e 2013 (II) 56. The temperature at which a solid
releases heat, light and electricity. (a) alloys of alkali metals with other melts to become a liquid at the
Statement II A mixture is a metals atmospheric pressure is called its
combination of two or more pure (b) colloids of metals melting point. The melting point
substances that are not chemically (c) elements having some properties of of a solid is an indication of
united. both metals and non-metals e 2016 (I)
(d) metals heavier than lead (a) strength of the intermolecular
46. Statement I In paper
chromatography, both the fixed 52. Statement I Glass is not forces of attraction
phase and mobile phase are considered as a true compound. (b) strength of the intermolecular
liquids. forces of repulsion
Statement II Glass does not
(c) molecular mass
Statement II Distribution of the have a definite melting point.
(d) molecular size
solute between the two liquids Codes e 2013 (II)
makes the separation possible. (a) Both the statements are true and
57. When a solid is heated, it turns
Statement II is the correct directly into a gas. This process is
47. Statement I o and p-nitrophenol
explanation of Statement I. called e 2016 (I)
can be separated by steam
(b) Both the statements are true but (a) Condensation
distillation.
Statement II is not the correct (b) Evaporation
Statement II o-nitrophenol explanation of Statement I. (c) Sublimation
contains intermolecular (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II (d) Diffusion
H-bonding while p-nitrophenol is false.
exists as associated molecules. (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
II is true.
ANSWERS
1 a 2 a 3 d 4 b 5 a 6 c 7 d 8 b 9 b 10 a
11 a 12 d 13 a 14 c 15 d 16 b 17 a 18 d 19 b 20 a
21 a 22 c 23 a 24 b 25 a 26 b 27 d 28 b 29 b 30 d
31 d 32 b 33 c 34 a 35 b 36 b 37 a 38 d 39 b 40 d
41 a 42 d 43 d 44 d 45 a 46 a 47 a 48 a 49 b 50 c
51 c 52 a 53 b 54 b 55 b 56 a 57 c
03
LAWS OF CHEMICAL
COMBINATION AND
GAS LAWS
In last 2-3 years only 1 question has been asked from this chapter, based upon the understanding of laws of
chemical combination.
During the quantitative studies of chemical changes, where, m = the mass of substance, c = velocity of light
the combination of elements to form compounds is (3 × 10 8 m/s) and E = energy.
governed by some basic laws, these are known as But in chemical reactions energy released or absorbed is too
Laws of chemical combination. less, hence, the change in mass (decrease or increase)taking
place becomes negligible. These changes can be clearly seen in
Law of Conservation of Mass nuclear reactions.
This law establish the relationship between the masses
of reactants and products during a chemical reaction. Law of Constant Composition
This law was postulated by A. Lavoisier in 1750. This law was stated by French chemist Joseph Proust. This law
This law states “During any physical or chemical states that
change, the total mass of the products is equal to the “A sample of a pure chemical compound always consists same
total mass of the reactants.” elements combined together in the same definite proportions by
Or mass, whatever be its source”.
“Matter can neither be created nor destroyed during e.g. it is found by the analysis of water (take from various
any physical or chemical change”. places like river, falls and wells) that in each sample of water,
the ratio of hydrogen and oxygen is 2 : 16 or 1 : 8 by mass.
e.g. C + O 2 → CO 2
12 g 32 g 44 g
Law of Multiple Proportions
12 g carbon combines with 32 g oxygen to give 44 g
carbon dioxide. This law may be explained with the This law was proposed by John Dalton. It states that, ‘‘An
help of Landolt’s experiments. element may form more than one compound with another
element. For a given mass of an element, the masses of other
Law of Conservation of Mass in the elements (in two or more compounds) come in the ratio of
Light of Modern Research small integers.’’
It is stated by modern research that mass can be e.g. in NH 3 , 14 g of nitrogen requires 3 g of hydrogen and in
converted into energy. There is some energy formed in hydrazine ( N 2H 4 ) 14 g of nitrogen requires 2 g of hydrogen.
each reaction, by which some mass has been lost. Hence, fixed mass of nitrogen required hydrogen in the ratio
According to Einstein, mass and energy are related as 3 : 2 in two different compounds (3 : 2 is a simple ratio). Thus,
E = mc 2 this is in agreement with ‘‘law of multiple proportions’’.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 657
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following law deals 5. Which of the following statement 7. Which of the following is the best
with mass of reactants and is correct about the reaction example of the law of conservation of
products during a chemical given below? mass?
reaction? 4 Fe( s ) + 3O 2 → 2 Fe 2O 3 ( g ) (a) When 12 g of carbon is heated in
(a) Law of definite proportions vacuum, there is no change in mass.
(a) Total mass of reactants = Total
(b) Law of conservation of energy mass of product therefore it (b) Weight of platinum wire is the same
(c) Law of conservation of mass follows law of conservation of before and after heating.
(d) Law of reciprocal proportions mass. (c) A sample of air increases in volume
(b) Total mass of reactants = total when heated at constant pressure but
2. Law of conservation of mass is
mass of product, therefore, law of mass remains unchanged.
not correct for (d) 12 g of carbon combines with 32 g of
(a) radioactive change multiple proportions is followed
(c) Amount of Fe 2O 3 can be oxygen to give 44 g of carbon dioxide.
(b) oxidation
increased by taking any one of 8. Which one of the following is a
(c) hydrolysis
the reactants (iron or oxygen) in correct relationship between mass
(d) None of the above
excess and energy?
3. Chemical equation is balanced (d) Amount of Fe 2O 3 produced will m
(a) E = hc (b) E =
according to the law of decrease if the amount of any one c2
(a) multiple proportions of the reactants (iron or oxygen is (c) c = E/m (d) m = Ec 2
(b) reciprocal proportion taken in excess
(c) conservation of mass 6. If 2.0 g of the hydrogen reacts 9. The law of constant proportion was
(d) definite proportion with 16.0 g of oxygen to form 18.0 proposed by
4. Radioactive change follows the g of water, which of the following (a) Proust (b) Einstein
(c) Richter (d) Dalton
law of laws is applicable?
(a) conservation of mass (a) Law of conservation of mass 10. The ratio in weight by which carbon
(b) conservation of mass-energy (b) Law of constant compositions and oxygen combine in a molecule of
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Law of multiple proportions carbon monoxide is
(d) None of the above (d) Law of reciprocal proportions (a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 : 1
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 659
11. Calcium carbonate is naturally 18. Which of the following compound one another, their volume bear a
available as limestone and can confirm the law of multiple simple ratio?
also be synthesised from quick proportion? (a) Law of mass action
lime. It is seen that the (a) H 2 O and H 2 O 2 (b) CaO and Na 2 O (b) Law of multiple proportions
composition of the elements in (c) H 3 PO 4 and Ca 3(PO 4 )2 (c) Law of reciprocal proportions
both the natural and synthetic (d) NaCl and AgCl (d) Law of combining volumes
calcium carbonate are same. The 19. The law of multiple proportions is 27. In the reaction,
validity of which one among the not illustrated by which pair of N2 +3H2 → 2NH3 , ratio by
following laws is confirmed by this compounds. volume of N2 , H2 and NH3 is
observation? (a) CO and CO 2 (b) CuO and Cu2O 1 : 3 : 2. This suggested law of
(a) Law of conservation of mass (c) CO 2 and H 2CO 3 (d) SO 2 and SO 3 (a) definite proportions
(b) Law of definite proportions 20. Which of the following compounds (b) multiple proportions
(c) Law of multiple proportions confirm the law of multiple (c) reciprocal proportions
(d) Avogadro’s law (d) combining volume
proportion?
12. Two different oxides of a metal (a) HgCl 2 and Hg 2Cl 2 28. Equal masses of oxygen, hydrogen
contain 20% and 27% oxygen by (b) Na 2O and CaO (c) NaCl and BaCl 2 and methane are kept under
weight. This is an accordance with (d) H 3 PO 4 and Ca 3(PO 4 )2 identical conditions. The ratio of
the law of 21. One part of an element A the volumes of gases will be
(a) conservation of mass combines with two parts of (a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 : 2
(b) constant composition another element B. Six parts of (c) 2 : 16 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 : 1
(c) multiple proportion the element C combines with four
(d) reciprocal proportion 29. Real gas will approach the
parts of the element B. If A and C behaviour of ideal gas at
13. The law of multiple proportions combined together the ratio of (a) low temperature and high pressure
was proposed by their weights will be governed by (b) high temperature and low pressure
(a) Lavoisier (b) Dalton (a) law of definite proportions (c) low temperature and low pressure
(c) Proust (d) Gay-Lussac (b) law of multiple proportions (d) high temperature and high pressure
14. Different proportions of oxygen in (c) law of reciprocal proportions
(d) law of conservation of mass 30. Which of the following reactions is
the various oxides of nitrogen not correct according to the law of
prove the law of 22. Hydrogen, sulphur and oxygen conservation of mass?
(a) equivalent proportion gives H2 S, SO2 and H2O. This is (a) 2Mg + O 2 → 2MgO
(b) multiple proportions according to the law of (b) C 3 H 8 + O 2 → CO 2 + H 2 O
(c) constant proportions (a) constant proportions
(c) P4 + 5O 2 → P 4O10
(d) conservation of matter (b) multiple proportions
(d) CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O
(c) reciprocal proportions
15. Two samples of lead oxide were
(d) conservation of mass 31. Pressure of a gas increases due to
separately reduced to metallic
23. 8 g of oxygen combine with 1 g of increase of its temperature
lead by heating in a current of
hydrogen and 20 g of calcium because at higher temperature
hydrogen. The weight of lead
therefore, when calcium combines (a) gas molecules repel each other
from one oxide was half the
with hydrogen it must combine in (b) potential energy of the gas
weight of lead obtained from the molecules is higher
other oxide. The data illustrate the ratio of 20 : 1. This statement
(c) kinetic energies of the gas
(a) law of reciprocal proportions confirms to the law of
molecules are higher
(b) law of constant proportions (a) multiple proportions
(d) gas molecules attract each other
(c) law of multiple proportions (b) reciprocal proportions
(d) law of equivalent proportions (c) definite proportions 32. A pressure cooker works on the
(d) gaseous volume principle of
16. Two elements A and B combine to
(a) elevation of boiling point of water
form two compounds in which a1 g 24. Equal volumes of all gases under by the application of pressure
of A combines with b1 and b2 g of B same temperature and pressure (b) making the food-grains softer by
respectively. According to the law contain equal number of the application of pressure
of multiple proportions molecules according to (c) making the food-grains softer by
(a) b1 = b 2 (a) Avogadro’s law (b) Charles’ law the application of pressure and
(b) b1 and b 2 bear a simple whole (c) Boyle’s law (d) Graham’s law temperature
number ratio (d) keeping the food grains inside
25. Law of combining volumes was
(c) a1 and b1 bear whole number ratio steam for a longer time
given by
(d) no relation exists between b1 and b 2 (a) Dalton (b) Tswett 33. With regard to the gaseous state
17. Which one of the following pairs of (c) Gay-Lussac (d) Einstein of matter which of the following
compounds illustrate the law of statements are correct?
26. According to which one of the (a) Complete order of molecules.
multiple proportion? following laws it is indicated that
(a) H 2 O, Na 2 O (b) H 2 O, H 2 O 2 (b) Complete disorder of molecules
when two or more gases react with (c) Random motion of molecules
(c) Na 2 O, BaO (d) All of these
(d) Both (b) and (c)
660 NDA/NA Pathfinder
34. Ideal gas equation is the 36. Consider the following laws. 37. Statement I One molecule of
combination of I. Law of conservation of mass ammonia always contains one atom
I. Boyle’s law II. Charles’ law II. Law of definite proportions of nitrogen and three atoms of
III. Avogadro law III. Law of multiple proportions hydrogen.
IV. Dalton’s law of partial pressure Which of these govern(s) the Statement II According to the law
Choose the correct option. quantitative aspects of chemical of conservation of mass matter can
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III changes? neither be created nor destroyed in
(c) II and III (d) I, III and Iv (a) Only I (b) II and III a chemical reaction.
35. Consider the following (c) I and II 38. Statement I On increasing the
(d) All of the above temperature of an ideal gas 10°C at
statements.
I. The ideal gas consists of a Directions (Q. Nos. 37-38) The constant volume, the pressure
large number of small following items consist of two increases by 10%.
particles called molecules. statements, Statement I and Statement II At a constant volume,
II. Under the same conditions of Statement II. You have to examine the pressure of a given mass of a
temperature and pressure these two statements carefully and gas is directly proportional to its
equal volumes of gases select the answer to these items using absolute temperature.
contain the same number of
molecules.
the codes given below. Previous Years’ Question
(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is
III. Volume of a definite quantity 39. Ammonia (NH3 ) obtained from
true, Statement II is a correct
of gas at constant pressure is explanation for Statement I. different sources always has same
directly proportional to proportion of nitrogen and hydrogen.
(b) Statement I is true, Statement II is
absolute temperature. true, Statement II is not a correct It proves the validity the law of
Which of the above statements is explanation for Statement I. e 2015 (II)
Avogadro’s hypothesis? (c) Statement I is true, Statement II is (a) reciprocal proportion
(a) Only I (b) Only II false. (b) constant proportion
(c) I and II (d) Statement I is false, Statement II is (c) multiple proportions
(d) None of the above true. (d) None of the above
ANSWERS
1 c 2 a 3 c 4 b 5 a 6 a 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 a
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 b 15 c 16 b 17 b 18 a 19 c 20 a
21 c 22 c 23 b 24 a 25 c 26 d 27 d 28 b 29 b 30 b
31 c 32 a 33 d 34 b 35 b 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 b
Solutions
5. (a) According to the law of 11. (b) A pure compound contains the Number of moles
conservation of mass. same elements in the fixed ratio of 1 1 1
their weights whatever its methods of = 0.031; = 0 .5 ; = 0 .0625
Total mass of reactants = Total mass 32 2 16
of products preparation may be. Therefore,
CaCO3 always contains 40 : 12 : 48 or Simple ratio 1 6 2
1
6. (a) H 2 + O2 → H 2O 10 : 3 : 12 ratio of calcium, carbon and Equal number of moles of gases occupy
2g 2 18 g oxygen by weight respectively. equal volumes under similar conditions
16 g
According to law of conservation of 27. (d) N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH 3 of temperature and pressure, therefore
mass, mass of reactants = mass of 1 Vol 3 Vol 2 Vol the ratio of the volumes of gases will be
products. According to law of combining 1 : 16 : 2.
volumes; when gases react together, 30. (b) In equation,
8. (c) Einstein equation for the they always do so in volumes which C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H 2 O
relationship between mass and energy bear a simple ratio to one another 44g 32g 44g 18
is E = mc 2 or or c = E / m and to the volume of the products.
10. (a) In a molecule of carbon 28. (b) Oxygen Hydrogen Methane Mass of reactants ≠ mass of products.
monoxide, the ratio of carbon and Hence, law of conservation of mass is
oxygen by weight is 12 : 16 or 3 : 4. (O2) (H 2 ) (CH 4 ) not followed.
04
CONCEPT OF ATOMIC,
MOLECULAR AND
EQUIVALENT MASSES
Generally 2-4 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions from this section are mostly based upon
chemical equations, balancing of chemical equation and equation based problems.
Atomic Mass e.g. Boron occurs in nature in the form of two isotopes
B10 , B11 with atomic mass 10 and 11 in the ratio of 1 : 4
The average relative mass of an atom of an element as
1 respectively.
compared to th the mass of one atom of carbon-12
12 Therefore, average atomic mass of boron
(C − 12). In other words atomic mass is a number which 10 × 1 + 11 × 4 10 + 44 54
= = = = 10 .8
expresses as to how many times an atom of the element is 4+1 5 5
heavier than 1/12th of the mass of carbon atom. Therefore,
Atomic mass =
Mass of an atom of the element Gram Atomic Mass
1 The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams is the
th mass of one carbon atom (C- 12)
12 gram atomic mass or it is also called gram atom, e.g. the
Atomic mass is expressed in atomic mass unit (amu or u). atomic mass of oxygen is 16 u, therefore gram atomic mass
1 of oxygen is 16 g.
Atomic mass unit (u) is defined as th the mass of carbon
12
atom C − 12. Molecular Mass
Average Atomic Mass The sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a
It has been found that majority of the elements found to molecule of the substance is called molecular mass of the
possess several isotopes. Isotopes are the different atoms of substance. It is expressed in atomic mass unit(u).
the same element possessing different atomic masses but e.g. Molecular mass of H 2SO 4 = 2 × atomic mass of
same atomic number. The atomic mass of each isotope is hydrogen + atomic mass of sulphur + 4 × atomic
determined separately and then combined according to the mass of oxygen = 2 × 1 + 32 + 4 × 16 = 98
ratio of their proportion of occurrence. This is known as
average atomic mass. If an element have three isotopes with Gram Molecular Mass
atomic masses m1 , m2 and m3 and these occur in the ratio of
Molecular mass of a substance expressed in grams is called
x, y and z respectively, then its average atomic mass
gram molecular mass. It is also called as gram molecule,
m × x + m2 × y + m3 × z
= 1 e.g. molecular mass of N 2 is 14 and its gram molecular
x+ y+z mass is 14 g.
662 NDA/NA Pathfinder
Equivalent Mass or Equivalent Weight e.g. When KMnO 4 reacts under acidic conditions, change in
oxidation number (from +7 to + 2) is 5, hence;
The number of parts of a substance that combines with or
displaces, directly or indirectly, 1.008 parts by mass of Equivalent weight of KMnO 4 in acidic medium
hydrogen or 35.5 parts by mass of chlorine or 8 parts by 158
= = 31.6
mass of oxygen is called the equivalent mass of the 5
substance.
1. Eq. wt. of metal =
Mass of metal
× 1.008
Vapour Density
Mass of hydrogen displaced Vapour density of a gas is the ratio of the mass of a certain
Mass of metal volume of the gas to the mass of equal volume of hydrogen,
or = × 8.0 measured under same conditions of temperature and pressure.
Mass of oxygen combined
Molecular weight = 2 × vapour density
Mass of metal
or = × 35.5 Atomic weight = 2 ×
vapour density
Mass of chlorine combined atomicity
e.g. In H 2O, NH 3 and CH 4 one mole hydrogen combines
1 1 1
with mole oxygen, mole nitrogen and mole carbon
Mole
2 3 4 A mole is the amount of substance that contains as many as
respectively. Hence, particles that are present in 12 g of carbon-12 isotope.
1 There are 6.023 × 10 23 atoms in 12 g carbon-12.
Equivalent weight of oxygen = × 16 = 8.0
2 Weight of substance in grams
Number of mole =
1 Gram molecular weight
Equivalent weight of nitrogen = × 14 = 4.67
3 Number of particles /atoms
=
1 Avogadro’s number
Equivalent weight of carbon = × 12 = 3
4 Volume of gas in litres at NTP
=
Relation between atomic weight, equivalent weight and 22.4 L
valency Example 1 mole of an element contains atoms which are
Atomic weight = equivalent weight × valency equal to Avogadro number. Which of the following has
2. Equivalent weight of acid largest number of atoms?
Molecular weight of acid (a) 4 g He (b) 46 g Na
=
Basicity (number of replaceable H + ) (c) 0.40 g Ca (d) 12 g He
98 Sol. (d) All the given species are monoatomic therefore, first
e.g. Equivalent weight of H 2SO 4 = = 49 we calculate number of moles and then compare the number
2
of atoms. We also known that equal number of moles
3. Equivalent weight of base
contain equal number of atoms.
Molecular weight of base
= No. of moles in 4 g He = 4/4 = 1 mole
Acidity (number of replaceable OH − )
No. of moles in 46 g Na = 46/23 = 2 mole
40
e.g. Equivalent weight of NaOH = = 40 No. of moles in 0.40 g Ca = 0.40/40 = 0.1 mole
1
No. of moles in 12 g He = 12/4 = 3 mole
74
Equivalent weight of Ca(OH )2 = = 37 Hence, 12 g He contains largest number of atoms.
2
Molecular weight of salt
4. Eq. wt. of salt = Gram Molar Volume
Total positive valency of metal atoms
The volume occupied by 1 mole of a substance is called the
58.5 gram molar volume of the substance. The gram molar
e.g. Equivalent weight of NaCl = = 58.5
1 volume of perfect gas is 22.4 L at STP or NTP.
106
e.g. Equivalent weight of Na 2CO 3 = = 53 STP or NTP means 273.15 K (0 °C) temperature and 1 bar
2 (10 5 pascal) pressure.
5. Equivalent weight of a substance that undergoes e.g. volume of 1 mole of H 2 at STP = 22.4 L
Molecular weight
oxidation/reduction = 1 22.4
Change in oxidation number volume of mole of H 2 = = 5.6 L
4 4
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 663
6. What is the equivalent mass of It forms metal sulphate 26. How many moles of electrons
KMnO4 when it change into isomorphous with epsom salt. The weigh one kilogram?
Mn 2(SO4 )3 ? atomic weight of the metal is (a) 6.023 × 10 23 (b)
1
× 10 31
(a) 58.8 (b) 14.7 (c) 29.4 (d) 88.2 9.08
(a) M (b) M/5 (c) M/6 (d) M/4
6.023
16. The mass of an atom of nitrogen is (c) × 10 54 (d)
7. 74 g of a metallic chloride 14 28 9108
.
contains 35.5 g of chlorine. The (a) g (b) g 1
6.022 × 10 23 6.022 × 10 23 × 10 8
equivalent weight of the metal is 1 9108
. × 6.023
(a) 38 .5 (b) 74 .4 (c) 35 .5 (d) 71 (c) g (d) 14 u
6.022 × 10 23 27. Number of electron present in
8. Approximate atomic weight of a 10 g of H2O is
17. How many atoms are present in a
metal is 26.89. If its equivalent 6.022 × 10 – 23 6.02 × 10 25
mole of H2SO4 ? (a) (b)
weight is 8.9 its exact atomic (a) 3 × 6 .02 × 10 23 (b) 5 × 6 .022 × 10 23
6 18
weight will be 6.022 × 10 22
(c) 6 × 6 .02 × 10 23 (d) 7 × 6 .02 × 10 23 (c) (d) None of these
(a) 26.7 (b) 8.9 (c) 26 . 89 (d) 17.8 6
18. 2 g of oxygen contain number of
9. Potassium permanganate gives 28. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of
atoms equal to that contained in
the following reactions in neutral (a) 0.5 g hydrogen (b) 4.0 g sulphur
CO2 at STP is
MnO−4 + 2H2O + 3e− → (c) 7.0 g nitrogen (d) 2.3 g sodium (a) 22.4 L (b) 2.24 L
MnO2 + 4OH− 19. The number of sulphur atoms in its
(c) 0.224 L (d) 0.1 L
The equivalent weight of KMnO4 40 g is 29. Consider the following equation
is (atomic mass of Mn = 55u) (a) 40 × 6.022 × 10 23 (b) 32 × 6 .022 × 10 23 for the formation of ammonia
(a) 158 (b) 79 40 × 6 × 10 23 32 × 6 × 10 23 from nitrogen and hydrogen
(c) (d)
(c) 52.66 (d) 31.6 32 40 N2 +3H2 → 2NH3
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 665
How many hydrogen molecules 34. Statement I Equivalent mass of (a) One can add to a vessel only 2
are required to react with 100 element may vary. moles of CO for each moles of O 2
Statement II Valency of element is added
molecules of nitrogen?
may vary. (b) No matter how much of these two
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400 reagents are added to a vessesl, 1
30. What weight of SO2 can be made 35. Match List I with List II and mole of O 2 is consumed
by burning sulphur in 5.0 moles of select the correct answer from the (c) When they react, CO reacts with
oxygen? codes given below the lists: O 2 in a 2:1 mole ratio
(a) 640 g (b) 160 g (c) 80 g (d) 320 g (d) When 2 moles of CO and 1 mole
List I List II
of O 2 are placed in a vessel, they
31. Which of the following statements A. Molarity 1. Gram formula weight of will react to give 1 mole of CO 2
are true? solute in one litre of
solution. 40. If the reaction of 1.0 mole NH3 (g)
I. The valencies of elements
B. Molality 2. Number of gram
and 1.0 mole O2(g)
forming isomorphous
compounds are same. equivalents of solute 4NH3 (g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) +
dissolved in one litre of 6 H2O(l) is carried to completion,
II. Equivalent mass may vary solution
with change of valency. then e 2014 (II)
C. Normality 3. Number of moles of (a) all the O 2(g) is consumed
III. Some elements show variable solute dissolved in 1kg
valency. of solvent.
(b) 4.0 moles of NO(g) is produced
(c) 1.5 moles of H 2O( I) is produced
Select the correct answer using D. Formality 4. Number of moles of (d) all the NH 3(g) is consumed
the codes given below. solute in one litre of
(a) I and II (b) II and III solution 41. How many grams of MgCO3
(c) I and III (d) All of these contain 24.00 g of oxygen?
Codes
(The molar mass of MgCO3 is
32. Consider the following statements. A B C D A B C D
84.30 g mol −1) e 2014 (II)
I. The number of moles is directly (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
proportional to the number of (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 3 4 1 (a) 42.15 g
molecules of the substance. (b) 84.30 g
Previous Years’ Questions (c) 126.00 g
II. Mole concept is also applicable
(d) 154.00 g
to ionic compounds, which do
not contain molecules.
36. Which one among the following 42. Consider the following reaction,
equations is correctly balanced?
III. ‘Molecular mass’ word is not xAs 2 S3 + yO2 → zAs2O3 + w SO2
e 2012 (II)
suitable word for the ionic What is y (the coefficient for O 2)
compounds. (a) NaOH + Al + H 2O →
2H 2 + NaAlO 2 when this equation is balanced
IV. Formula mass unit is taken for using whole number coefficients?
ionic compounds. (b) 2NaOH + 2Al + 2H 2O →
3H 2 + 2NaAlO 2 e 2014 (II)
Select the correct answer using (c) 2NaOH + 2Al + 3H 2O → (a) 5 (b) 7
the codes given below 4H 2 + 2NaAlO 2 (c) 9 (d) 11
Codes (d) 2NaOH + 2Al + H 2O →
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV 43. A compound X2O3 contains
H 2 + 2NaAlO 2
(c) I, III and IV (d) All of these 31.58% oxygen by weight. The
37. Which one among the following is atomic mass of X is e 2014 (II)
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-34)
the equivalent weight of sulphuric (a) 34.66 g mol −1
Following questions consist of two
acid? (b) 45.01 g mol −1
Statements, I and II. Examine these (c) 52.00 g mol −1
two statements and select the correct (Atomic weight : H = 1, S = 32 and
O = 16) e 2012 (II) (d) 104.00 g mol −1
choice according to the codes given
below. (a) 98 (b) 60 44. What is the number of mole(s) of
(a) Both the statements are true and
(c) 100 (d) 49 H 2(g) required to saturate one
Statement II is the correct 38. The number of aluminium ions mole of benzene? e 2016 (I)
explanation of Statement I. present in 54 g of aluminium (a) 1 (b) 2
(b) Both the statements are true but (atomic weight = 27) is e 2014 (I) (c) 3 (d) 4
Statement II is not the correct (a) 2 (b) 18 45. Which one of the following has
explanation of Statement I.
(c) 1.1 x 10 24 (d) 1.2 x 10 24 different number of molecules?
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II
(All are kept at normal
is false. 39. Consider the following balanced
temperature and pressure)
(d) Statement I is false but Statement chemical equation,
e 2016 (II)
II is true. 2CO + O2 2CO2
r (a) 3 gram of Hydrogen
33. Statement I Average atomic mass Which one of the following
(b) 48 gram of Oxygen
of elements may be in fraction. statements is significant in
(c) 42 gram of Nitrogen
Statement II Due to presence of relation to the above chemical (d) 2 gram of Carbon
isotopes of elements. equation? e 2014 (II)
666 NDA/NA Pathfinder
ANSWERS
1 c 2 a 3 d 4 b 5 d 6 d 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 d
11 d 12 b 13 a 14 c 15 a 16 a 17 d 18 b 19 c 20 d
21 d 22 a 23 d 24 b 25 c 26 d 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 d
31 d 32 d 33 a 34 a 35 a 36 b 37 d 38 d 39 c 40 a
41 a 42 c 43 c 44 c 45 d
Solutions
3. (d) 1 g-atom = N atoms = 6023
. × 10 23 17. (d) 1 mole H 2SO4 = 2 mole of H atoms 4.4
4.4 g O2 = = 0.1375 mole
atoms = g-atomic weight + 1 mole of S atom + 4 mole of O atoms 32
e.g. 1 g atom of oxygen = N atoms of = 7 mole atoms = 0.1375 × 2 × 6023
. × 10 23 atoms
oxygen = 7 × 6023 × 10 23 atoms 16
. 16 g CH 4 = = 1 mole
= 6023
. × 10 atoms of oxygen = 16 g
23 16
18. (b) Equal number of moles contain
35 × 3 + 37 × 1 equal number of atoms = 1 × 5 × 6023
. × 10 23 atoms (maximum)
4. (b) Mav = = 35.5
3+1 2 22. (a) Mass of 1 molecule of H 2O
2g of oxygen = mole = 0.125 mole 18
5. (d) Eq. wt. of an oxidising agent 16 = g
4 2 6.023 × 10 23
Molar mass ( M ) M Similarly 4 g sulphur = = mole
= = = 29885
. ×2
Change in oxidation number 5 32 16
= 0.125 mole = 29885
. × 10 −26 kg≈ 3 × 10 −26 kg
7. (a) The number of parts of a substance
0.5 71
that combines with 35.5 parts by mass 0.5 g hydrogen = = 0.5 mole 23. (d) 71g chlorine = = 1 mole Cl 2
of chlorine is called the equivalent mass 1 71
of the substance. Therefore, equivalent 7 = 2 × 6023
. × 10 23 atoms
7.0 g nitrogen = = 0.5 mole
weight (mass) of the metal is 14 48
48g magnesium = = 2 mole Mg
.
23 24
74g − 355
. g = 385
.g 2.3 g sodium = = 0.1 mole
+7 23 = 2 × 6023
. × 10 atoms
23
• Only those orbits are permitted in which the angular n=3 −2 . 41 × 10 −19
momentum ( mvr ) of the electron is a whole number n=4 −1. 36 × 10 −19
h nh
multiple of (‘h’ is a Planck’s constant i.e. mvr = n=5 −0.87 × 10 −19
2π 2π
where n = 1, 2, 3 … n=∞ 0
25. The rule which states that no two 31. Statement I An atom is Select the correct answer using
electrons can have same value of electrically neutral. the codes given below
all the four quantum numbers is Statement II Atoms contain equal (a) Only 2 (b) Only 1
(a) Pauli’s exclusion principle number of proton and neutron. (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(c) Aufbau principle 32. Statement I Among C12, C13 and 38. The nucleus of a singly ionised
(d) de-Broglie principle C14 only C14 is radioactive. carbon atom contains e 2012 (I)
26. The electronic configuration of Statement II The n/p ratio in C14 (a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
is higher. (b) 5 protons and 6 neutrons
chromium (Z = 24) is (c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6
(a) 1s 22 s 22 p6 3s 2 3 p6 3 d 4 4s 2 33. Statement I Gamma rays are electrons
2 2 6 2 6
(b) 1s 2 s 2 p 3s 3 p 3 d 4s 5 1 more penetrating than X-rays. (d) 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6
Statement II Gamma rays have electrons
(c) 1s 22 s 22 p6 3s 2 3 p6 4s 2 4 p4
(d) 1s 22 s 22 p6 3s 2 3 p6 3 d 6 wavelengths that are smaller than 39. The process of nuclear fusion in
those of X-rays. the sun requires e 2012 (II)
27. From amongst the following (a) very high temperature and very
34. Match the following.
chemical species high pressure
39 40 + List I
I. 18 Ar II. 19 K List II (b) low temperature and high pressure
III. 40 2+
IV. 40 + (Electronic
20 Ca 20 Ca configuration)
(Elements) (c) high temperature and low pressure
The species having identical (d) very high temperature and no
A. 1s 2 1. Chlorine pressure
electronic configuration are
(a) I and II (b) II and III B. 1s 22 s 22 p6 2. Fluoride ion 40. Which one among the following
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and III C. 1s 22 s 22 p6 3 s 2 3. Hydride ion transitions is associated with the
28. A stable nucleus (light with D. 1s 22 s 22 p6 3 s 2 3 p5 4. Magnesium largest change in energy in
A < 10) has hydrogen atom? e 2012 (II)
(a) exactly the same number of Codes (a) n = 5 to n = 3 (b) n = 2 to n = 1
neutrons and protons A B C D A B C D (c) n = 3 to n = 2 (d) n = 4 to n = 2
(b) more neutrons that protons (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 4 1 41. Match the following e 2012 (II)
(c) no neutrons
(d) no protons List I List II
Previous Years’ Questions (Scientist) (Discovery)
29. Protons and neutrons are bound A. Goldstein Atomic theory
1.
in a nucleus by 35. Which one among the following
B. Chadwick 2. Proton
(a) short range ‘weak interaction’ transitions of electron of hydrogen
C. J.J Thomson 3. Neutron
(b) short range ‘strong interaction’ atom emits radiation of the
(c) long range ‘electromagnetic D. John Dalton 4. Electron
shortest wavelength?
interaction’ e 2012 (I) Codes
(d) long range ‘gravitational’
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2 A B C D A B C D
Directions (Q. Nos. 30-33) (c) n = 4 to n = 3 (d) n = 5 to n = 4 (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
Following questions consist of two 36. The penetrating power of X-rays (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
statements labelled as Statement I can be increased by e 2012 (I) 42. Two atoms are said to be isotopes,
and Statement II. Examine both the (a) increasing the current in the if e 2013 (I)
Statements carefully and mark the filament (a) they have same atomic number but
correct choice according to the codes (b) decreasing the potential difference different mass numbers
given below. between the cathode and the anode (b) they have same number of
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II (c) decreasing the current in the neutrons but different mass number
are true and Statement II is the filament (c) the sum of the number of protons
correct explanation of Statement I. (d) increasing the potential difference and neutrons is same but number
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II between the cathode and the anode of protons are different
are true but Statement II is not (d) they have same number of
37. Which of the following statements neutrons but different modes of
the correct explanation of
Statement I. is correct? e 2012 (I) radioactive decay
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement 1. Isotopes atoms with same 43. The phenomenon of radioactivity
II is false. atomic number but different was discovered by e 2013 (I)
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement atomic mass.
(a) Marie Curie (b) Pierre Curie
II is true. 2. Isobars atoms with same
(c) Henry Becquerel (d) J J Thomson
number of neutrons but
30. Statement I Bohr theory is not different atomic number. 44. The most of the mass of an atom
applicable to ionised hydrogen 3. Isotones atoms with same mass can be found in e 2014 (I)
atom. number but different atomic
(a) electrons (b) charges
Statement II H+ is devoid of number.
(c) nucleus (d) electron cloud
electron.
676 NDA/NA Pathfinder
45. The mass number of an atom is 48. A monoatomic species that has 50. Which of the following are the
determined by e 2014 (I) 18 electrons and a net charge of properties of an electron?
(a) adding the number of neutrons and 2−has e 2014(II) e 2015 (II)
number of electrons (a) the same number of electrons as 1. Electron is a constituent of
(b) adding the number of protons and a neutral argon atom cathode ray.
number of electrons (b) more protons than electrons 2. Electron is a negatively charged
(c) the number of protons only (c) 2 unpaired electrons particle.
(d) adding the number of neutrons and (d) 20 protons 3. The mass of the electron is
number of protons equal to the mass of the proton.
49. Which one of the following
46. Which one of the following is the statements is correct? 4. Electron is deflected by the
correct electronic configuration of e 2015 (II) electric field but not by magnetic
chlorine? e 2014(II) field.
(a) Rutherford’s α-particle scattering
(a) 2, 7, 8 (b) 2, 8, 7 experiment led to the discovery Select the correct answer using the
(c) 2, 8, 8 (d) 7, 8, 9 of electron codes given below
(b) J.J. Thomson suggested that the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
47. Which one among the following
nucleus of an atom contains (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
contains the most neutrons?
protons
e 2014(II) 51. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its
(c) The atomic number of an
(a) 59 mass number is 12. How many
26 Fe element is the same as the
61 number of protons in the nucleus neutrons are present in an atom of
(b) 29Cu
61 of its atom carbon? e 2016 (I)
(c) 30 Zn
(d) The mass number of an atom is (a) 12 (b) 6
60 2+
(d) 30 Zn equal to the number of electrons (c) 10 (d) 14
in its shells
ANSWERS
1 b 2 b 3 b 4 d 5 d 6 b 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 d
11 a 12 a 13 b 14 d 15 c 16 c 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 d
21 a 22 d 23 c 24 b 25 a 26 b 27 d 28 a 29 b 30 a
31 c 32 a 33 a 34 a 35 a 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 b
41 a 42 a 43 c 44 c 45 d 46 b 47 a 48 a 49 c 50 a
51 b
Solutions
11. (a) Angular momentum, mvr =
nh 27. (d) 39
18
Ar, 40
19
K+ and 40
20
Ca 2+ are 48. (a) A monoatomic species has the same
2π isoelectronic species, thus, all these number of electrons as a neutral argon
27 have same electronic configuration. atom. The monoatomic species must be
15. (c) Number of neutrons in 13 Al is 14.
S 2 −.
(number of neutrons = mass number − 28. (a) A stable nucleus has exactly the
atomic number) same number of neutrons and Monoatomic Number of
protons. The maximum stability is species electrons
16. (c) 19
M = 1s2 2s2 2 p5
attained when n = 1.
9
Sulphur (S) 16
Its ion is represented by M − . p Sulphur ion (S 2− ) 16 + 2 = 18
2+
19. (c) 90
38 Sr Atomic number = 38 40. (b) The change in energy released or Argon (Ar) 18
= number of protons. absorbed during transition is given
1 1 51. (b) We know that,
Number of electrons = 38 − 2 = 36 . × 10 −18 2 − 2
by ∆E = 218
n1 n2 Mass no. (A) = No of proton ( p) + no. of
Number of neutrons = 90 −38 = 52 neutron ( n)
Hence, statement III and IV are 1
E∝ . Thus, for a transition of 12 = 6 + n ⇒ n = 6
correct. n2 Mass number determines the atomic
26. (b) 24 Cr = 1s2 , 2s2 , 2 p6 , 3s2 , n = 2 to n = 1, largest change in mass of atoms.
3 p 6 3d 5 , 4s1 energy is involved.
06
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION
OF ELEMENTS
Usually 1-2 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions are mostly based upon isoelectronic species and
properties and uses of alkali metals.
d-block Elements (n − 1) d1 −10 ns 1 −2 • They show variable valency. Their ions are coloured and
paramagnetic in nature.
The element in which the last electron enters the
• They form complex compounds.
d-orbitals, i.e. ( n − 1) energy level constitute d-block
element. They constitute group 3 to 12 in the periodic • They are radioactive.
table. • These are highly electropositive metals due to low
The d-block comprises of three series which are ionisation energies.
• They generally form ionic compounds.
(i) First transition series scandium ( Z = 21) to
zinc ( Z = 30 )
(ii) Second transition series yttrium ( Z = 39 ) to cadmium PERIODIC PROPERTIES
( Z = 48 ) In a period as well as in a group there is a regular gradation
(iii) Third transition series lanthanum (gradual increase or decrease in a particular property) in
( Z = 57 ) ; hafnium (Z = 72) to mercury ( Z = 80 ) physical and chemical properties of elements with the
change in atomic number. This regular gradation in
Properties of d-block Elements properties is called periodicity. The reason of periodicity in
• They are metals having high melting and boiling points properties is the repetition of similar configuration at
(strong metallic bond). regular intervals.
• They are good conductor of heat and electricity due to
free and mobile electrons. Silver is the best conductor Atomic Radius
of heat and lead is the poorest. • It is defined as the distance from the centre of the nucleus
• Almost all of them show variable valence and exist in to the outermost shell of electrons.
several oxidation state in their compounds. • In case of covalent bond, the radius is covalent radius; in
• They form complex compounds. ionic bond the radius is ionic radius and in absence of
bond the radius is van der Waal’s radius. In general,
• Transition elements and their compounds act as van der Waal’s radius > covalent radius.
catalysts.
• Atomic radii of elements increases on moving down the
• They form both ionic and covalent compounds. group due to increase in number of shells by a factor of
• Density of d-block elements are very high as compared one, which reduces effective nuclear charge.
to s-block elements. • Atomic radii of elements decreases on moving left to right
• Properties of transition elements on moving across a in a period due to increase in on effective nuclear charge
period from left to right do not change gradually as as the electrons enter in the same shell throughout the
those of s and p-block elements because the last two period.
orbits are incomplete. • Radius of cation is always smaller than its neutral atom
• Most of these ions contains unpaired electrons hence because of increase in effective nuclear charge per
they are paramagnetic and coloured (due to d-d electron. e.g. Sn > Sn 2 + > Sn 4 +
transition). • Radius of an anion is always larger than its neutral atom
• Zinc, cadmium, mercury having d 10 configuration do because of decrease in effective nuclear chatge per
not form coloured salts. electron. e.g. O 2− > O − > O
Isoelectronic species These species have same number of
f-block Elements (n − 2) f 1 −14 (n − 1) d 0 −1 ns 2 •
electrons. In case of isoelectronic species, the ionic radii
• The elements in which the last electron enter the decreases with increase in atomic number.
f -orbitals of their atom are called f -block elements − + 2+
e.g. Ion [O 2 > F > Na > Mg ]
(penultimate orbit). (8 ) (9 ) (11 ) (12 )
• The first series follows lanthanums (lanthanide series)
from Z = 58 to Z = 71 . This is also known as 4 f inner-
Ionisation Potential (IP)
transition series. It is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an
electron from outermost orbit of an isolated gaseous atom.
• The second series follow actinium (actinide series) from
IP measures tendency of cation formation.
Z = 90 to Z = 103 also known as 5 f inner-transition
series. • IP increases from left to right due to increase in effective
nuclear charge while it decreases from top to bottom.
Properties of f-block Elements 1
IP ∝
• All f -block elements are metals and are highly reactive. size of atom
• These have high density, high melting and boiling • IP1 of group 2 elements is greater than the corresponding
points. elements of group 13. e.g. IP1 of Mg > IP of Al.
680 NDA/NA Pathfinder
• It is due to the stable configuration of group 2 elements • Elements of IA group are called alkali metals because
(ns 2 ). Similarly IP1 of group 15 elements is greater than their oxides and hydroxides on dissolving in water gives
the corresponding elements of group 16. alkaline solution.
e.g. IP1 of N > IP1 of O • All alkali metals are soluble in liquid ammonia to give
• Zero group elements on account of the stable blue coloured solution (due to solvated or ammoniated
configuration exhibit exceptionally high value of IP electron) which conducts electricity. This solution acts as
(highest in its period). powerful reducing agent.
• Within the same orbit IP decrease in order • Hydration energy decreases from Li to Cs because extent
s > p>d > f of hydration varies inversely with size.
• Alkali metals and their compounds impart characteristic
Electron Affinity (EA) colour to the flames.
It is the energy released when an extra electron is added • These metals have very low melting and boiling points
to an isolated gaseous atom. It measures the tendency of which decreases on moving down the group. It is due to
anion formation. the presence of weak intermetallic bonds, which also
• EA increases in a period from left to right and decreases become more weaker as the size increases.
in a group from top to bottom. • Li-red, Na-yellow, K-pale violet, Rb-violet and Cs-reddish
• EA of zero group elements is extremely low. violet.
• Fluorine has less EA than chlorine because of its small • Li and Na burns in air to form peroxides (Li 2O and
size F has more electron density and hence greater Na 2O while K, Rb and Cs forms superoxides
electron electron repulsion. (KO 2 , RbO 2 , CsO 2 ).
• Order of EA of halogens Cl > F > Br > I. • Reactivity of alkali metals Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
• Melting point of halides
Electronegativity (a) For same halide
It is the tendency of an atom to attract the shared pair of NaCl > LiCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
an electron towards itself.
↓ ↓
• Decreasing order of electronegativity is max. m.pt. min. m.pt.
F > O > Cl ≈ N > Br > C ≈ I > H (b) For same alkali metal
4 3.5 3 3 2.8 2.5 2.5 2.1 NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI
Trends in Periodic Properties ↓ ↓
max. m.pt. min. m.pt.
Periodic In a period from In a group from
• Basic character and solubility of hydroxides
property left to right top to bottom
Ionisation energy Increase Decrease LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH
Electron affinity Increase Decrease Increasing basic character and solubility
Non-metallic character Increase Decrease Li 2CO 3 < Na 2CO 3 < K2CO 3 < Rb2CO 3 < Cs 2CO 3
Oxidising character Increase Decrease Increasing solubility and stability of carbonates
• N 2 can show maximum four covalency in their compounds, • Strength of hydroacid and reducing character follow the
e.g. NH +4 . Various oxides of nitrogen are order
N 2O : (laughing gas)-neutral, diamagnetic, linear. HF < HBr < HCl < HI.
• Order of stability of halides is HF > HCl > HBr > HI.
NO : neutral, paramagnetic, exists as a dimer in
solid state. • Order of bond dissociation energy of halogens is
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Mendeleev corrected the atomic 12. Element A belongs to group VIIA 22. Which of the following order of
weight of in p-block and element B belongs ionisation energy is correct?
(a) Be (b) In to group IA in s-block of the (a) Be < B < C < N < O
(c) Os (d) All of these periodic table. Out of the (b) B < Be < C < O < N
2. The base of modern periodic table is following assumptions, the (c) Be > B > C > N > O
(a) atomic weight (b) atomic number correct one is (d) B < Be < N < C < O
(c) atomic volume (d) atomic energy (a) A and B are metals 23. In the following, the elements with
(b) A and B are non-metals the highest electro-positivity is
3. Group number and valency has no (c) A is a metal and B is a non-metal (a) copper (b) cesium
relation in (d) A is a non-metal and B is a metal (c) barium (d) chromium
(a) zero group (b) first group
13. All alkaline earth metal ions are 24. In which of the following energy is
(c) IIIrd group (d) VII group
(a) coloured
absorbed?
4. Which period and group in the (b) colourless
(a) F → F – (b) Cl → Cl –
long form of periodic table contain (c) paramagnetic
maximum number of elements? (d) colourless and diamagnetic (c) O → O 2– (d) H → H –
(a) 5th period, IInd group 14. Which of the following belongs to 25. The electron affinity of Be is
(b) 6th period, IIIrd group similar to that of
representative group of elements
(c) 6th period, IInd group (a) Li (b) B (c) Na (d) Ne
(d) Ist period, IInd group
of periodic table?
(a) Lanthanum (b) Argon 26. The solubility of hydroxides of
5. Zero group was introduced by (c) Chromium (d) Aluminium group IIA increases from Mg(OH)2
(a) Lother Meyer (b) Mendeleev to Ba(OH)2 due to
(c) Ramsay (d) Lockyer 15. The common semiconductor
(a) increase in lattice energy
material is
6. The block in which metals, (b) decrease in lattice energy
(a) nitrogen (b) phosphorus
metalloids, non-metals and inert (c) increase in ionisation energy
(c) antimony (d) arsenic
gases are all present (d) increase in thermal stability
(a) s-block (b) p-block 16. Which of the following sets of
(c) d-block (d) f-block
27. Fluorine, the most electronegative
elements belong to the same
element in Paulings scale have the
7. Which of the following has least period?
value
density? (a) He, Ne, Ar (b) Ni, Cu, Zn (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) Na (b) Li (c) Mg (d) K (c) Cl, Br, I (d) Na, Cu, Mg
28. In the context of lanthanoids,
8. Which of the following groups 17. Which of the following is most which of the following statements
may contain a metalloid? abundant transition element? is not correct?
(a) IA (b) IIA (a) Copper (b) Iron (a) There is a gradual decrease in the
(c) VIA (d) None of these (c) Zinc (d) Nickel radii of the members with increasing
18. Which of the following is most atomic number in the series
9. The element with electronic
(b) All the members exhibit + 3
configuration 3d5 4s1 is electronegative?
oxidation state
(a) metalloid (b) non-metal (a) Lead (b) Silicon
(c) Carbon (d) Tin (c) Because of similar properties the
(c) transition metal (d) metal
separation of lanthanoids is not
10. In which of the following the 19. Which has least ionisation easy
tendency towards the formation of potential? (d) Availability of 4f-electrons results in
coloured ion is maximum? (a) N (b) O (c) F (d) Ne the formation of compounds in +4
(a) s-block elements 20. Which of the following has the state for all members of the series
(b) d-block elements largest ionic radius? 29. Identify the incorrect statement
(c) p-block elements (a) Be 2+ (b) Mg 2+ (c) Ca 2+ (d) Sr 2+ among the following.
(d) All of the above
(a) d-block elements show irregular and
21. On descending a group,
11. Which of the following is known erratic chemical properties among
electropositive character of themselves
as wonder element?
(a) Zr (b) Zn elements (b) La and Lu have partially filled
(c) Ti (d) None of these (a) increases (b) decreases d-orbitals and no other partially filled
(c) remains same (d) None of these orbitals
684 NDA/NA Pathfinder
(c) The chemistry of various lanthanoids tin and lead) have common 39. Which one of the following is a
is very similar valency four. However, some of transition metal?
(d) 4f and 5f-orbitals are equally the these elements can also have (a) Aluminium (b) Manganese
shielded valency two which of the (c) Magnesium (d) Calcium
30. Al and Ga have the same covalent following have valency two? 40. Which one of the following
radius because of (a) Silicon, germanium and tin elements exists in liquid state at
(a) greater shielding power of (b) Germanium and tin room temperature?
s-electrons of Ga-atom (c) Germanium, tin and lead (a) Mercury (b) Lead
(b) poor shielding power of s-electrons (c) Sodium (d) Calcium
(d) Tin and lead
of Ga-atom
(c) poor shielding power of d-electrons 36. The best and the poorest Previous Years’ Questions
of Ga-atom conductors of heat are
41. Which among the following is
(d) greater shielding power of respectively
correct regarding
(a) silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)
d-electrons of Ga-atom 20
Ne, 23 Na + , 19F− and 24 Mg 2+ ?
(b) copper (Cu) and aluminium (Al) e 2012(I)
31. The first ionisation potential of Na, (c) silver (Ag) and gold (Au)
Mg, Al, Si are in the order (a) They are isomers of each other
(d) copper (Cu) and gold (Au) (b) They are isotopes of each other
(a) Na > Mg > Al > Si (c) They are isoelectronic with each other
37. Match List I with List II and
(b) Na < Mg < Al < Si (d All of the above
select the correct combination of
(c) Na < Si < Al < Mg
ions and isoelectronic ions using 42. Which of the following pairs
(d) Na < Al < Mg < Si
the codes given below the lists. represents isoelectronic ions?
32. Anomalous behaviour of nitrogen is List I List II e 2014(I)
due to (a) Na + , K + (b) K +, Mg 2 +
A. SO 2 1. CO
(a) small size and high electronegativity (c) Mg 2 +, Ca 2 + (d) Ca 2 +, S 2−
(b) non-availability of d-orbital in valence B. N2 2. Cl −
shell C. H− 3. CO 2−3
43. Match List I with List II and select
(c) ease of multiple bond formation D. K + 4. Li + the correct answer using the codes
(d) All of the above are correct given below the lists. e 2015(II)
Codes
33. Ionic radii of zirconium and hafnium A B C D A B C D List I List II
become almost identical because (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 (Element) (Use)
(a) they are d-block elements (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 2 3 1 A. Li 1. Time keeper in atomic
(b) they belong to the same group clocks
38. Match the properties given in
(c) of increased nuclear charge B. Na 2. Batteries
Column I with the metals given
(d) of lanthanide contraction C. K 3. Transfer of nerve impulses
in Column II and choose the
34. Which of the following statements D. Cs 4. Control of the water
correct option from the codes content in the blood
concerning ionisation energy is not given below.
correct? Codes
Column I Column II
(a) The second ionisation energy is A B C D
(Property) (Metal)
always more than the first (a) 2 3 4 1
(b) With in a group, there is a gradual A. Element with highest 1. Co
second ionisation (b) 1 2 3 4
increase in ionisation energy
enthalpy (c) 2 4 3 1
because nuclear charge increases
B. Element with highest third 2. Cr (d) 1 3 2 4
(c) Ionisation energies of the Be is ionisation enthalpy
more than B 44. The alkali metals have relatively
C. M in M(CO )6 is 3. Cu
(d) Ionisation energies of noble gases low melting point. Which one of
are high D. Element with highest heat 4. Zn
of atomisation the following alkali metals is
35. All the elements in a group expected to have the highest
Codes melting point? e 2015(II)
(family) have a common valency.
A B C D A B C D
e.g. all the elements of the carbon (a) Li (b) Na
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
family (carbon, silicon, germanium, (c) K (d) Rb
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
ANSWERS
1 d 2 b 3 a 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 b 8 c 9 c 10 b
11 c 12 d 13 d 14 d 15 c 16 b 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 d
21 a 22 b 23 b 24 c 25 d 26 b 27 d 28 d 29 d 30 c
31 d 32 d 33 d 34 b 35 c 36 a 37 b 38 b 39 b 40 a
41 c 42 d 43 a 44 a
07
CHEMICAL BONDING
In general 1-2 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions are mainly asked upon the topics of valency
and hydrogen bonding.
1. Electrovalent or Ionic Bond e.g. Ge and Pb belongs to the 14th group of Periodic
Table, but Ge stable in Ge 4+ state and Pb stable in
• These types of bonds are formed by the transference of
Pb2+ state. Thus, Pb2+ salts are stable than Pb4+ salts.
one or more electrons from one atom to another atom.
• e.g.
(ii) Unstable configuration of the core In d-block
xx
Na + x Clxx
xx
(vi) Due to low melting and boiling points, covalent Characteristics of Coordinate
solids are more volatile than ionic solids and
therefore have high vapour pressure. Covalent Compounds
(vii) They are generally rigid and directional hence The main characteristics are as following
show isomerism. (i) These exist as solids, liquids, and gases under normal
(viii) They undergo chemical reactions which are quite conditions.
slow because these reactions involve breaking of (ii) These are sparingly soluble in polar solvent like water
older bonds and formation of new bonds. but readily soluble in non-polar solvents.
(iii) These are bad conductor of heat and electricity.
Dipole Moment (iv) The melting and boiling points are higher than purely
The property which measures the extent of polarity in covalent compounds.
the bond is called dipole moment. (v) Coordinate bond is rigid and directional. Thus, these
Dipole moment = Magnitude of charges (e ) × distance (d ) compounds show isomerism.
• Dipole moments of diatomic molecules is zero (vi) Compounds which have coordinate covalent bond
because they are non-polar, e.g. H 2 , Cl 2 , F2 , O 2 , N 2 possess high values of dielectric constant.
etc. ➨ Note According to octet rule, an atom has a tendency to occupy 8
• Dipole moments of HF, HCl, HBr and HI are very electrons (2 in H like He) in its valence shell, which is stable
large due to their high electronegativity differences. arrangement, but a number of molecules are knwon which violates
octet rule.
• Molecules like CO 2 , CS 2 and BeF2 are linear and
e.g. (i) BeF2 , BF3 (incomplete octet)
possess polar covalent bonds. The bond moments of
two bonds being equal but opposite in direction (ii) NO, NO2 (odd number electrons)
cancel each other so their dipole moment is zero. (iii) PCl5 , SF6 (expanded octet)
• The dipole moment of CH 4 , CCl 4 , BF3 are zero due
to their symmetrical structure. HYDROGEN BOND
The attractive interaction of a hydrogen atom with an
3. Coordinate or Dative Bond electronegative atom such as nitrogen (N), oxygen (O) or
The bond in which both electrons in the shared pair fluorine (F) that comes from another molecule or chemical
come from one atom is called coordinate covalent group, is called hydrogen bond.
bond. It is stronger than van der Waals’ interaction and has energy 5
Such type of bond is formed between atoms one of to 30 kJ/ mol. It occurs in both inorganic molecules such as
which is deficient in atleast two electrons, while the water and organic molecules such as DNA.
other atom has already acquired stable noble gas Hydrogen bonds can be of the following two types
configuration. (i) Intermolecular H-bonding It occurs between different
The atom which donates the electrons is called the molecules of a substance and results in increasing
donor while the other which only accepts the electrons solubility in water and high boiling point
pair is known as acceptor. This bond is usually e.g. HF, H 2O, C2 H 5OH etc.
represented by an arrow (→ ) pointing from donor to
H — F......H — F......H — F
the acceptor atom.
e.g., a hydrogen ion can combine with water molecules (ii) Intramolecular H-bonding It is found within different
by coordinate covalent bond to form hydronium ion parts of a single molecule and results in decreasing
(H 3O + ). solubility in water and low boiling point e.g.
+ o-nitrophenol.
+
H O + H → H O → H O
δ−
N Intramolecular H-bond
O
H H H
O δ+
Hydronium ion
δ−
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. An element has the electronic (c) the process is accompained by 18. Which contain both polar and
configuration 1s2, 2s22 p6 , 3s23 p2. positive heat of solution non-polar bonds?
(d) water decreases the interionic
The number of valence electrons (a) NH 4Cl (b) HCN (c) H 2O 2 (d) CH 4
attraction in the crystal lattice due to
will be solvation 19. Which of the following having
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
10. Which one of the following has high electrovalent, covalent and
2. Outermost shells of two coordinate covalent bond?
melting and boiling points?
elements X and Y have two and (a) CCl 4 (b) AlCl 3 (c) CaCl 2 (d) NCl 3 (a) BF3 (b) CuCl 2
six electrons respectively. If they (c) CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H 2O (d) FeCl 3 ⋅ H 2O
combine the expected formula of 11. Which one of the following has a
giant covalent structure? 20. Type of bonds present in
the compound will be
(a) XY (b) X 2Y (c) X 2Y3 (d) XY3 (a) PbO 2 (b) SiO 2 (c) NaCl (d) AlCl 3 K4[Fe(CN)6 ] molecule is
(a) covalent and electrovalent bonds
3. The formula of a metallic 12. Which one of the following is a (b) covalent and coordinate covalent
chloride is MCl 2 , the formula of covalent molecule? bonds
its bicarbonate is (a) Al 2Cl 6 (b) Al 2O 3 (c) electrovalent, covalent and dative
(a) MCO 3 (b) MHCO 3 (c) AlF3 (d) All of these bonds
(c) M(HCO 3 )2 (d) M(CO 3 )2 13. Which one of the following is (d) electrovalent bond and dative bonds
4. Two elements gallium and correct? 21. Which one of the following has
oxygen combine to form a (a) Water is a non-polar molecule in odd electron bond?
compound Ga 2O3 . Which among normal conditions (a) PCl 3 (b) SF4 (c) NO (d) POCl 3
the following is the valency of (b) Water is a polar molecule in normal
conditions 22. Which of the following is soluble
gallium? in water?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) Water exist in the form of H+OH – in
normal conditions (a) CS 2 (b) C 2 H 5 OH
5. The formation of chemical bond (d) All of the above are correct (c) CCl 4 (d) CHCl 3
is accompanied by 23. Consider the following
(a) increase in energy 14. Carbon suboxide (C3O2 ) has recently
been shown as a component of the statements.
(b) decrease in energy
(c) neither decrease nor increase in atmosphere of Venus. Which of the I. NaCl is ionic solid.
energy following formulation represents II. Benzene is covalent compound.
(d) the repulsive forces overcoming the correct ground state Lewis III. Carbon has tetravalency.
the attractive forces structure for C3O2 ? Codes
(a) :O :C :C ::O : (a) I and II (b) II and III
6. An electrovalent compound does
(b) :O :C ::C :O : (c) I and III (d) All of these
not show isomerism due to (c) && ::C ::C ::C ::O
&& :
:O
(a) high melting point (d) :O ::C :C ::O :
24. Which of the following statements
(b) presence of ions are true?
(c) strong electrostatic force between 15. Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid unlike I. Water is liquid at room
ions other hydrogen halides because temperature due to hydrogen
(d) non-directional nature of (a) HF molecule associate due to bonding.
electrovalent bond hydrogen bonding II. Covalent bond is directional.
(b) F2 is highly reactive
7. Elements whose electrone- III. Co-ordinate or dative bond
(c) HF is the weakest acids of all
gativities are 1.2 and 3.0, bond hydrogen halides
containing compounds have
formed between them would be high values of dielectric
(d) fluorine atoms is the smallest of all
(a) ionic (b) covalent halides constant.
(c) coordinate (d) metallic Codes
16. Which one of the following has (a) I and II (b) II and III
8. Ionic bond formation is highest dipole moment?
(a) exothermic (b) endothermic (c) I and III (d) All of these
(a) CO 2 (b) CHCl 3
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 25. Consider the properties related to
(c) CCl 4 (d) CH 2 Cl 2
9. Many ionic crystals dissolve in co-ordinate or dative linkage
17. Both ionic and covalent bond compounds.
water because
(a) water is an amphiprotic solvent
present in I. They are rigid and directional.
(b) water is high boiling liquid (a) CH 4 (b) NaCl II. They exhibit isomerism.
(c) SO 2 (d) KOH
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 689
III. They contain high dielectric 29. Match List I with List II and select 33. The number of valence electrons
constants. the correct answer from the codes in the O 2− ion is e 2014(I)
IV. They are poor conductors of given below the lists: (a) 4 (b) 6
electricity in solid as well as (c) 8 (d) 10
List I List II
in fused state.
Codes A. Ionic compound 1. NH4Cl 34. Which one of the following is the
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV B. Polar covalent 2. O2 correct electronic configuration of
(c) I, III and IV (d) All of these C. Non-polor covalent 3. HCl chlorine? e 2014(I)
molecule (a) 2, 7, 8 (b) 2, 8, 7
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-28) D. Dative bond 4. KCl (c) 2, 8, 8 (d) 7, 8, 9
Following questions consist of two
statements labelled as Statement I Codes 35. The high heat of vaporisation of
and Statement II. Examine both A B C D water is mainly a result of
(a) 4 3 2 1 (a) van der Waals’ forces e 2014(II)
the statements carefully and match
(b) 1 3 2 4 (b) covalent bonds
the correct choice according to the
(c) 4 1 2 3 (c) interionic attraction
codes given below.
(d) 1 2 4 3 (d) hydrogen bonding
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II
are true and Statement II is the 30. Match List I with List II and select 36. Which of the following element
correct explanation of the Statement I. the correct answer from the codes combinations will form ionic
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II given below the lists. compounds? e 2014(II)
are true but Statement II is not the 1. Ca ( Z = 20) and Ti ( Z = 22)
correct explanation of the Statement I. List I List II
(Elements) (Valency) 2. Si ( Z = 14) and Br ( Z = 35)
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement 3. Mg ( Z = 12) and Cl ( Z = 17)
II is false. A. K 1. two
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement
Select the correct answer using
B. Zn 2. one
II is true. the codes given below.
C. Al 3. four
(a) Only 2
26. Statement I Water (H2O) is more D. C 4. three (b) Only 3
polar than hydrogen sulphide (c) 2 and 3
(H2S). Codes (d) All of the above
Statement II Oxygen is more A B C D A B C D
37. Which one among the following
electronegative than sulphur. (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 3 1 4
does not wet the walls of the glass
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
27. Statement I Purely covalent vessel in which it is kept?
compounds cannot conduct (a) Water e 2015(I)
Previous Years’ Questions (b) Alcohol
electricity in their aqueous
(c) Mercury
solution or in molten state. 31. Three elements Na, S and O
(d) Phenol
Statement II Purely covalent combine to form a compound
compounds have lower melting Na2SO3 . What is the valency of S in 38. Which one of the following
and boiling points. this compound? e 2012 (II) statements is correct? e 2016(II)
(a) +2 (b) +4 (c) +6 (d) +8 (a) Covalent bonds are directional
28. Statement I Fluorine exhibits
(b) Ionic bonds are directional
the same oxidation state in all its 32. The bond which is present between
(c) Both covalent and ionic bonds are
compounds. water molecules is e 2012 (II)
directional
Statement II Fluorine atom has (a) electrovalent bond (d) Both covalent and ionic bonds are
no d-orbital in its valence shell. (b) covalent bond (c) hydrogen bond non-directional
(d) van der Waals’ bond
ANSWERS
1 c 2 a 3 c 4 c 5 b 6 d 7 a 8 a 9 d 10 c
11 b 12 a 13 b 14 c 15 a 16 d 17 d 18 c 19 c 20 c
21 c 22 b 23 d 24 d 25 d 26 a 27 b 28 a 29 a 30 a
31 b 32 c 33 c 34 b 35 d 36 b 37 c 38 a
08
ACIDS, BASES
AND SALTS
In general 2-3 questions have been asked from this chapter every year. Questions from this chapter usually
test your basic knowledge of acids and bases which are used in your daily life. Properties and uses of acids
and bases and pH of the solution are important topics of this chapter.
• Similarly, HCl → Cl −
+ H + Class II On the basis of the presence of oxygen or
Acid Conjugate base Proton hydrogen in the acid, these can be divided into two classes
• A conjugate base is obtained, when an acid give up a (i) Hydracids These do not contain oxygen. Besides
proton (H + ). hydrogen they contain other non-metallic elements like
hydrochloric acid (HCl), hydrofluoric acid (HF) etc.
Acid – H
+
Conjugate base (ii) Oxyacids These contain both oxygen and hydrogen and
also have another non-metallic element, e.g. sulphuric
• The acid and base which differ by a proton are said to
acid (H 2 SO 4 ), nitric acid (HNO 3 ) etc.
form a conjugate acid-base pair. Generally, a strong acid
has a weak conjugate base and a weak acid has a strong Basicity of Acid
conjugate base.
The number of displacing protons present in an acid is
• According to Lewis concept, acids are electron pair known as basicity of the acid.
acceptor i.e. these are generally positively charged or • Monobasic acid has only one hydrogen ion and can
electron deficient species. e.g. BF3 , AlCl3 , Na+ , K + , combine with one hydroxyl (OH) group to give one kind
PF3 , SF4 etc. of salt, e.g., HCl, HNO 3 , CH 3 COOH etc.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 691
• Boric acid is a weak monobasic acid. It is not able to Some Naturally Occurring Acids
release H + ions on its own. It receives OH − ions from
Natural source Acids
water molecule to complete its octet and in turn
release H + ions. Vinegar Acetic acid
• Dibasic acid has two hydrogen ions and hence can Orange/Lemon Citric acid
combine with two hydroxyl groups to give two kinds Tamarind Tartaric acid
of salts, Tomato Oxalic acid
• e.g. H 2SO 4 , H 2SO 3 , (COOH)2 etc. Curd/Milk Lactic acid
• Tribasic acid has three hydrogen ions and can Nettle sting Methanoic acid (formic acid)
combine with three hydroxyl groups to give three Ant sting Methanoic acid (formic acid)
kinds of salts,
Apple Maleic acid
• e.g. H 3PO 4 etc.
Curd Lactic acid
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. According to Arrhenius theory, an the lime water, it turns the lime 16. A student heated some sulphur in
acid is a substance which water into milky. When it passed a spatula and collected the gas
(a) gives a proton in aqueous solution in the excess the milky colour ‘ X ’. Which one among the
(b) accepts a proton in aqueous disappears. By the litmus following is correct about ‘ X ’?
solution solution it is found that the gas X (a) X is SO 2 and it turns moist litmus
(c) gives a hydrogen ion in aqueous is acidic in nature. The gas X is to blue
solution (a) CO (b) CO 2 (c) SO 2 (d) SO 3 (b) X is SO 3 and it turns moist litmus
(d) accepts a lone pair of electron to red
10. Select the strongest acid among
2. Aqueous solution of acetic acid (c) X is SO 2 and it turns moist litmus
the following.
to red
contains (a) HCOOH (b) CH 3COOH (d) X is SO 3 and it turns dry litmus to
(a) CH 3COOH, CH 3 COO – (c) C 2 H 5 COOH (d) C 3 H 7 COOH blue
(b) CH 3 COO – , H + , 11. Reaction,
••. 17. pH values for acids A, B, C, D are
(c) CH 3COOH, CH 3 COO – , H 3 O+
N H3 +BF3 → NH3 → BF3 , NH3 1, 2, 4, and 2.5 respectively. Which
(d) CH 3 COOH, H+ one of the strongest acid?
and BF3 are
3. Acids generally react with alkalies (a) Lewis base and Lewis acid (a) A (b) B
to form salt and water. Which one (b) Lewis base and Lewis base (c) C (d) D
of the following bases, on reaction (c) Lewis acid and Lewis base
(d) Arrhenius acid and base
18. Solutions in test tubes containing
with acid, does not produce water H2O and aqueous NaOH can be
along with salt? 12. A strong acid has a conjugate differentiated with the help of
(a) Ammonia (a) strong base (a) red litmus (b) blue litmus
(b) Sodium bicarbonate (b) weak base (c) Na 2 CO 3 (d) HCl (aqueous)
(c) Sodium hydroxide (c) strong acid
(d) Calcium hydroxide 19. Iodised salt is a
(d) weak acid
(a) mixture of potassium iodide and
4. Human stomach produces acid X 13. Which of the following is common salt
which helps in digestion of food. incorrect? (b) mixture of molecular iodine and
Acid X is (a) HCOOH is stronger acid than common salt
(a) acetic acid (b) methanoic acid CH 3COOH (c) compound formed by combination
(c) hydrochloric acid of potassium iodide and common
(b) HClO is stronger acid than HClO 4
(d) citric acid salt
(c) Water is more acidic than
5. Which one of the following is the (d) compound formed by combination of
methanol molecular iodine and common salt
strongest acid?
(d) All of the above
(a) ClO 3(OH) (b) ClO 2(OH) 20. Acidity of BF3 can be explained on
14. Base turn red litmus blue and the basis of which of the following
(c) ClO(OH) (d) Cl(OH) acids turn blue litmus red. A concepts?
6. Amongst the trihalides of student tested a liquid with a red (a) Arrhenius concept
nitrogen, which one is least basic? litmus paper and it stayed red (b) Bronsted Lowry concept
(a) NF3 (b) NCl 3 (c) NBr3 (d) NI 3 with no change. This shows that (c) Lewis concept
the liquid (d) Bronsted Lowry as well as Lewis
7. The conjugate acid of NH2– is
(a) must be pure water concept
(a) NH 3 (b) NH 2 OH
(c) NH +4 (d) N 3 H (b) must be an acid 21. A soda water bottle has pH
(c) is not a base (a) < 7 (b) > 7
8. Which one of the following is (d) is neither a base nor an acid (c) = 7 (d) unpredictable
amphiprotic in nature? 15. When concentrated H2SO4 spilts
(a) F − (b) HPO 2–
22. The pH of the blood is maintained
4 on the surface, it should be by the carbonic acid and
−
(c) PO 3–
4 (d) Cl immediately cleaned bicarbonate buffer. The pH of the
(a) with a piece of cloth
9. When an organic compound is blood is
heated with cupric oxide, a gas X (b) by adding cold water (a) 8.0 (b) 5.0
and H2O produced as a result. (c) by adding solid Na 2CO 3 (c) 6.0 (d) 7.4
(d) by adding solid BaCl 2
When the gas X is passed through
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 695
23. pH of the solution produced when 32. An aqueous solution of borax is (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
aqueous solution of pH = 5 is (a) alkaline (b) corrosine is false.
mixed with equal volume of an (c) neutral (d) acidic (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
aqueous solution of pH = 3 is II is true.
33. The aqueous solution of AlCl3 is
(a) 3.3 (b) 3.5 (c) 4.5 (d) 4.0 acidic due to the hydrolysis of 38. Statement I Aqueous solution of
24. Fear or excitement, generally (a) aluminium ion (b) chloride ion ammonium acetate is neutral.
cause on to breathe rapidly and it (c) Both aluminium and chloride ion Statement II Ammonium
results in the decrease of (d) None of the above acetate is the salt of acetic acid
CO2 concentration in blood. In 34. An aqueous solution of sodium and ammonium hydroxide.
what way will it change the pH of carbonate is alkaline because 39. Statement I Na 2 SO 4 forms a
blood? sodium carbonate is a salt of neutral solution upon hydrolysis.
(a) pH will increase (b) No change (a) weak acid and weak base
(b) strong acid and weak base
Statement II Na 2 SO4 is the salt
(c) pH will decrease
(d) pH will adjust to 7 (c) weak acid and strong base of strong acid and strong base.
ANSWERS
1 c 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 a 6 a 7 a 8 b 9 b 10 a
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 d 16 c 17 a 18 a 19 a 20 c
21 a 22 d 23 a 24 b 25 c 26 c 27 c 28 d 29 d 30 c
31 d 32 a 33 a 34 c 35 b 36 b 37 d 38 b 39 a 40 a
41 d 42 c 43 d 44 a 45 b 46 a 47 c 48 a 49 c 50 c
51 b 52 d 53 a 54 b 55 a 56 b 57 d 58 d 59 a
09
OXIDATION, REDUCTION
AND ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Generally 1-2 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions are mainly based upon the basic knowledge of
oxidation, reduction, oxidising agents, reducing agents and calculation of oxidation number.
Faraday gave following two laws to explain a relation of displaces the less reactive metals from their salt
amount of substance produced with current or its equivalent solutions.
weight. Cu + FeSO 4 → No reaction
First Law of Electrolysis It states that ‘‘the quantity (mass) Fe + CuSO 4 → FeSO 4 + Cu
Blue coloured Colourless
of any substance deposited or liberated at any electrode is solution
directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed
through electrolyte.’’ CORROSION
w ∝ Q ⇒ w = ZQ = Zit
• It is a process of oxidative deterioration of a metal as
Q Charge (Q) = current (i) × time (t) a result of its reaction with air and moisture present
E in the environment.
Z = Electrochemical equivalence =
96500 • Corrosion of iron is called rusting. Rust is hydrated
(where, E = Equivalent weight) iron (III) oxide.
Second Law of Electrolysis It states, ‘‘when same quantity of • Similarly, in presence of moist air, copper acquires a
electricity is passed through solutions of different electrolytes green coating of basic copper carbonate,
connected in series, the weight of substance produced at the [Cu(OH)2 ⋅ CuCO 3 ] silver acquires a black coating of
electrodes is directly proportional to their equivalent weight’’. silver sulphide [Ag 2S] and aluminium acquires a dull
Weight of Cu deposited (w1 ) coating of aluminium oxide (a protective layer).
i.e.
Weight of Ag deposited (w 2 ) • A sliced apple turns brown if left open for sometime
due to the oxidation of iron present in it as a
Equivalent weight of Cu ( E1 )
= nutrient.
Equivalent weight of Ag ( E2 )
• The rusting of iron can be prevented by painting,
oiling, greasing, galvanising (coating of iron with
Electrochemical Series zinc) and chrome plating.
• The arrangement of elements in order of increasing their
• Anodisation (an electrolytic process) is the process of
standard reduction potential values is known as forming a thick oxide layer on the surface of metal.
electrochemical series or activity series. This oxide layer is protective and prevents the metal
K < Ca < Na < Mg < Al < Zn < Cr < from further oxidation.
Fe < Ni < Sn < H 2 < Cu < Hg < Ag < Pd < Pt < Au • Formation of a layer of Al 2 O 3 on aluminium surface
[as reactivity follows the reverse order]. protects the metal from further corrosion.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 701
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. A reducing agent is a substance 12. The process in which oxidation 23. The correct statement is
which can number of element increases is (a) zinc displaces Cu from CuSO 4
(a) accept electrons (a) oxidation (b) reduction (b) Cu cannot displace Fe from FeSO 4
(b) donate electrons (c) autoxidation (d) None of these (c) Zn metal displaces H 2 gas from
(c) accept protons (d) donate protons H 2 SO 4
13. Oxidation state of Ni in Ni(CO)4
2. The reaction which takes place at (d) All of the above
is
the anode is (a) +2 (b) 0 (c) +4 (d) – 8 24. Which of the following statement(s)
(a) oxidation (b) reduction is/are false for electrolytic cell?
14. Oxidation number of oxygen in
(c) dissociation (d) ionisation (a) External source of voltage is applied
ozone to carry the chemical reaction
3. The strongest reducing agent is (a) 0 (b) – 2 (c) +2 (d) – 6
(b) These cells are mainly used in
(a) HNO 3 (b) H 2 S 15. Oxygen has an oxidation state laboratory and chemical industry
(c) H 2 SO 3 (d) SnCl 2 +2 in (c) These cells consist of two copper
4. Which one of the following is not a (a) H 2 O 2 (b) OF2 (c) H 2 O (d) SO 2 strips dipped in an aqueous solution
reducing agent? 16. Oxidation state of oxygen atom of CuSO 4
(a) NaNO 2 (b) NaNO 3 in potassium superoxide is (d) None of the above
1
(c) HI (d) SnCl 2 (a) − (b) –1 (c) –2 (d) 0 25. Mark the correct statement(s) for
2 the corrosion.
5. Which of the following act as an
oxidising agent? 17. In haemoglobin the iron is in (a) It fastly coats the surfaces of
oxidation state of metallic object
(a) HNO 3 (b) K 2 Cr2 O 7
(a) +2 (b) +1 (c) +3 (d) +4 (b) Its examples are— Rusting of iron,
(c) KMnO 4 (d) All of these
tarnishing of silver
18. Oxidation number of sulphur in
6. Which of the following is best (c) It does not cause damage to
reducing agent? perdisulphuric acid is buildings, ship made metals
(a) +8 (b) – 6 (c) +6 (d) +4
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Sr (d) Ba especially that are made up of iron
7. Which is strongest reducing 19. The oxidation number of iron in (d) All of the above
Fe3O 4 is
agent? 26. Consider the following equation,
(a) F − (b) Cl − (c) Br − (d) I − (a) +2 (b) +3
8 2 Cr2O72– (aq) + Br – (aq) + H + (aq)
(c) (d)
8. The process of 56
28 Fe
2+
→ 5628 Fe
3+
3 3 → Br2(l ) + Cr3 + (aq) + H2O(l ).
is appropriate classified as In this reaction which one of
20. Oxidation number of oxygen in the following is a reducing
(a) ionisation (b) oxidation
hydrogen peroxide is agent?
(c) reduction (d) nuclear reaction (a) –1 (b) +1 (a) Br 2 (b) Br – (c) H+ (d) Cr 2 O 2–
7
9. In the reaction, (c) –2 (d) None of these
4 Fe +3 O2 → 4 Fe3+ +6 O 2– 27. A compound contains atom, X, Y, Z.
21. In the reaction of potassium
Which of the following statements The oxidation number of X is +2, Y
permanganate in acidic medium
is incorrect? (mol. wt. = 158.04) with ferrous is +5 and Z is –2, therefore, a
(a) It is redox reaction ammonium sulphate (mol. wt. possible formula of the compound is
(b) Metallic iron is a reducing agent = 392.14), the change in the (a) XY1Z 2 (b) X 2( YZ 3 )2
(c) Fe 3+ is an oxidising agent oxidation state of manganese in (c) X 3( YZ 4 )2 (d) X 3( Y4 Z )2
(d) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe 3+ potassium permanganate is 28. In the reaction,
10. Among Cl– , Br – and I– the correct (a) +5 to +2 (b) +6 to +2
3Br2 +6CO23 – +3H2O → 5Br –
order for being oxidised to (c) +7 to +2 (d) +7 to +3
+BrO3– +6 HCO3–
dihalogen is 22. Which of the following is correct? (a) bromine is oxidised and carbonate is
(a) I − > Cl − > Br − (b) Cl − > Br − > I − (a) Oxidation state of bromine varies reduced
(c) I − > Br − > Cl − (d) Br − > I − > Cl − from –1 to +6 (b) bromine is both reduced and
11. Among the following chemical (b) Among IO –4 , ClO –4 and BrO –4 , the oxidised
compounds, which one of the last one (BrO –4 ) is the strongest (c) bromine is neither reduced nor
following has the highest reducing oxidising agent oxidised
power? (c) HNO 3 is an oxidising agent (d) bromine is reduced and water is
(a) AsH 3 (b) BiH 3 (c) NH 3 (d) PH 3 (d) All of the above oxidised
702 NDA/NA Pathfinder
29. The correct oxidation states of N in 37. Which of the statements is/are true? 41. Match List I and List II and
NH4NO3 molecule are I. The process of oxidation leads select the correct answer by using
(a) –3 and +5 (b) +3 and –5 to gain of electrons. the codes given below the lists.
(c) –3 and +3 (d) –5 and +5 II. The process of oxidation leads
List I
to loss of electrons. List II
30. An oxidising agent is a substance (The atom for which the
III. The process of reduction leads (Oxidation
which oxidation state is to the
state)
(a) increases the oxidation number of to gain to electrons. found)
an element in a given substance IV. The process of reduction leads
A. Oxygen in BaO 2 1. –1
(b) decreases the oxidation number of to loss of electrons.
an element in a given substance Select the correct answer from the B. Sulphur in S 2O 2–
6
2. 0
(c) is oxidised itself in an oxidation codes given below. C. Carbon in C12 H22 O 11 3. +7
reduction reaction (a) I and IV (b) II and III
(d) loses electrons in an oxidation D. Manganese in MnO –4 4. –2
(c) Only I (d) Only IV
reduction reaction 5. 5
38. Which of the following cause the
31. When a copper rod is dipped in rusting of iron?
aqueous silver nitrate solution, the Codes
I. Oxidation II. Reduction A B C D
colour of the solution changes to III. Chemical reaction with oxygen
blue. This is because (a) 1 4 2 3
IV. Chemical reaction with CO2 (b) 1 5 2 3
(a) Cu is more easily reduced than Ag
(b) Ag is more easily reduced than Cu Select the correct answer from the (c) 4 1 2 3
(c) nitrate ion acts as an oxidising agent codes given below. (d) 4 5 3 1
(d) nitrate ion acts as a reducing agent (a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) II and III (d) III and IV Directions (Q. Nos. 42-43) Following
32. Iron nails are dipped into blue questions consist of two statements
copper sulphate solution. After 39. In oxidation
labelled as Statement I and
some time iron nails are I. Hydrogen is displaced from a
substance. Statement II. Examine both the
(a) dissolved and blue colour is
discharged II. An electropositive element is statements carefully and match the
(b) dissolved but blue colour is not added to or proportion of correct choice according to the codes
discharged electropositive element increase given below.
(c) not dissolved and blue colour is not in a substance. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II
discharged Select the correct answer using are true and Statement II is the
(d) not dissolved but blue colour is correct explanation of the Statement I.
the codes given below
discharged (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
(a) Only I
are true but Statement II is not the
33. Which one among the following (b) Only II
correct explanation of the Statement I.
metals is more reactive than (c) Both I and II
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement
hydrogen? (d) Neither I nor II
II is false.
(a) Mercury (b) Copper 40. Match the terms of Column I and (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
(c) Silver (d) Tin Column II and choose the correct II is true.
34. Which one among the following is option from the codes given 42. Statement I Fluorine exhibits
the correct order of reactivity of below. the same oxidation state in all its
the elements? Column I Column II components.
(a) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
A. Leclanche 1. Cell reaction Statement II Fluorine atom has
(b) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
cell 2H2 + O 2 → 2H2O no d-orbital in the valence shell.
(c) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
(d) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu B. Ni-Cd cell 2. Does not involve any 43. Statement I When hydrogen gas
ion in solution and is is passed over heated metallic oxide
35. Aluminium is more reactive than used in hearing aids.
iron but aluminium is less easily it removes the oxygen from it.
C. Fuel cell 3. Rechargeable
corroded than iron, because Statement II Hydrogen is an
D. Mercury cell 4. Reaction at anode,
(a) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer oxidising agent.
Zn → Zn 2 + + 2e −
(b) it is a noble metal 44. The standard electrode potential
5. Converts energy of
(c) iron undergoes reaction easily with combustion into values of the element A, B and C
water electrical energy are 0.68 V, –2.50 V and –0.50 V
(d) iron forms ions respectively. The order of their
36. Silver ware turns black after a Codes reducing power is
A B C D
period of time due to formation of (a) A> B> C
(a) 1 2 3,4 5
(a) nitrate coating on silver (b) A<C> B
(b) sulphide coating on silver (b) 5 2 1,3 4
(c) C > B> A
(c) chloride coating on silver (c) 2 3 1,5 4
(d) B> C > A
(d) oxide coating on silver (d) 4 3 1,5 2
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 703
Previous Years' Questions Select the correct answer using 51. Which one of the following is
the codes given below. e 2012 (I) correct regarding the reaction of
45. The following equation is an (a) I and III (b) II and IV fluorine with water? e 2014 (I)
example of a redox reaction, in (c) II and III (d) I and IV 2F2 ( g) + 2H2O(l) → 4H + (aq)
which Cl2 is the oxidising agent
47. Which one among the following is + 4F − (aq) + O2 ( g)
and FeBr3 is the reducing agent (a) Fluorine is oxidised to F −
e 2012 (I) an electrochemical cell that
cannot be charged? e 2012 (II) (b) Water is oxidised to O 2
2 FeBr3 ( aq) + 3 Cl2( g ) → (c) Water is reduced to H +
(a) Electrolytic cell (b) Storage cell
2FeCl3 ( aq) + 3Br2 (l) (c) Primary cell (d) Fuel cell
(d) Oxidation state of fluorine does not
Which one among the following change
statements is incorrect for this 48. In KMnO 4 molecule, the 52. What is the oxidising agent in the
redox reaction? oxidation states of the elements following equation? e 2014 (II)
(a) Oxidising agents are themselves
potassium (K), manganese (Mn)
reduced and oxygen are respectively HAsO2 (aq) + Sn2 + (aq) + H + (aq) →
(b) Reducing agents gain or appear e 2012 (II) As(s) + Sn4 + (aq) + H2O(l)
to gain electrons (a) +1, +5, −2 (b) +1, + 7, − 2 (a) HAsO 2( aq ) (b) Sn2 + ( aq )
(c) Reducing agents are themselves (c) 0, 0, 0 (d) +1, + 7, 0 (c) H + ( aq ) (d) Sn4 + ( aq )
oxidised 49. Statement I Zinc is used for
(d) Oxidising agents oxidise other 53. In the reaction,
galvanisation to protect iron from ZnO + C → Zn + CO, ‘C’ acts as
substances
rusting. a/an e 2015 (I)
46. Which of the following Statement II Zinc is more (a) acid
statements regarding oxidation reactive towards oxygen than (b) base
and reduction are correct? iron. e 2013 (II) (c) oxidising agent
I. In oxidation loss of electron (a) Both the statements are true and (d) reducing agent
takes place whereas in Statement II is the correct
reduction, gain of electron 54. White phosphorus glows in the
explanation of Statement I.
takes place. dark due to
(b) Both the statements are true, but
II. In oxidation, gain of electron Statement II is not the correct (a) amorphous character e 2015 (II)
takes place whereas in explanation of Statement I. (b) slow oxidation
reduction, loss of electron (c) Statement I is true, but Statement (c) high ignition temperature
takes place. II is false. (d) good conducting property of
III. Oxidising agent decreases the (d) Statement I is false, but Statement electricity
oxidation number but II is true. 55. Which one of the following is a
reducing agent increases the 50. A gas is evolved when a piece of reduction reaction? e 2016 (I)
oxidation number.
zinc metal is placed in dilute (a) 2Mg( s ) + O 2( g ) → 2MgO( s )
IV. Oxidising agent incrases the (b) S( s ) + O 2( g ) → SO 2( g )
sulphuric acid (H2SO 4 ) what is the
oxidation number but Heat
reducing agent reduces the
gas? e 2013 (II) (c) 2HgO( s ) → 2 Hg( l ) + O 2( g )
oxidation number. (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (d) Mg( s ) + S ( s ) → MgS ( s )
(c) Water vapour (d) Sulphur dioxide
ANSWERS
1 b 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 d 6 d 7 d 8 b 9 d 10 c
11 b 12 a 13 b 14 a 15 b 16 a 17 a 18 c 19 c 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 d 24 d 25 b 26 b 27 c 28 b 29 a 30 a
31 b 32 a 33 d 34 d 35 a 36 b 37 b 38 b 39 a 40 d
41 b 42 a 43 c 44 d 45 b 46 d 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 a
51 b 52 a 53 d 54 b 55 c
10
NON-METALS AND
THEIR COMPOUNDS
Generally 2-5 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions are mostly based upon preparation and
properties of hydrogen, hard and soft water, diamond and graphite, oxides of carbon and nitrogen, water
gas and producer gas. A good number of statement based questions have been asked from this chapter.
Non-metals have the properties opposite of metals. Isotopes of Hydrogen and their Mass Number
Non-metals such as sulphur, chlorine etc. are found on the
Name Symbol Atomic Mass Nature
right side of the periodic table. In the modern periodic
number number
table total non-metals are 22(11-gas, 10-solid and 1 liquid). 1
Protium 1H or H 1 1 Non-radioactive
2
HYDROGEN Deuterium 1H
3
or D 1 2 Non-radioactive
Tritium 1H or T 1 3 Radioactive
Hydrogen is the first element in the periodic table and is
the lightest element known. It exists as a diatomic molecule
H 2 (dihydrogen). It was discovered by Henry Cavendish, Method of Preparation of Dihydrogen
but name hydrogen was given by Lavoisier. He prepared (H 2 ) or Hydrogen Gas
the gas by treating iron with dilute. H 2SO 4 . Its atomic Some methods for preparation of hydrogen gas are as
number is 1 and it has the electronic configuration 1 s 1 . It follows :
resembles both alkali metals and halogens. (i) Laboratory preparation of dihydrogen
e.g. it may donate one electron forming H + like alkali metals Zn + H 2SO 4 → ZnSO 4 + H 2 ↑
or may accept one electron forming H − like halogens. But
some properties of hydrogen are different with respect to Hydrogen is collected over water by upward
these properties, therefore it is unique in behaviour so it is displacement as H 2 is lighter than water.
placed separately in the periodic table. It is the most (ii) By the electrolysis of water Dihydrogen of high
abundant element in the universe. Jupiter and Saturn planets purity is prepared by the electrolysis of water in the
consist mainly of hydrogen. It constitutes about 0.9% by presence of a small amount of acid or base.
weight of earth crust. (During electrolysis dihydrogen is collected at cathode).
Electrolysis
Isotopes e.g., 2H 2O ( l ) →
+
2H 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g )
(H )
Hydrogen has three isotopes with mass numbers 1, 2 and 3 (iii) By the action of acids on metal Those metals which
and these are called protium, deuterium and tritium are placed above the hydrogen in the electrochemical
respectively. series or have positive value of standard oxidation
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 705
°
potential [ Eoxid ] liberate hydrogen gas from acids.
e.g.
Physical Properties
Some physical properties of hydrogen are given below:
Zn + H 2SO 4 (dil. ) → ZnSO 4 (aq) + H 2 (g) ↑
Granulated • It is a colourless, tasteless and odourless gas.
zinc
• It is slightly soluble in water because its molecules are
Fe + 2HCl ( aq) → FeCl 2 + H 2 ↑ non-polar. Hydrogen forms diatomic molecules H 2 and
Some amount of SO 2 is also produced in this the two atoms are joined by very strong covalent bond
reaction because H 2 reduced H 2 SO 4 to SO 2 . (enthalpy) 435.9 kJmol −1 .
The reactivity of metals decreases as follows • It is the lightest known substance. Its relative density is
K > Ca > Na > Mg > Al > Mn > Zn > Cr > 0.0695. Its melting point is 13.8 K and boiling point is
Fe > Co > Ni > Pb > H > Cu > Ag > Au 20.4 K. It is highly combustible. It can be liquefied at
(iv) By the action of alkali on metals Metals like Zn, Mg, very low temperature and high pressure.
Sn etc., liberates hydrogen on reaction with alkalies. • Metals like Ni, Pt, Pd, Fe, Au etc. can adsorb or occlude
e.g. 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H 2O → 2NaAlO 2 + 3H 2 ( g ) large volumes of H 2 gas at different temperatures (Pd
can occlude 1000 times of its own volume).
Sn + 2NaOH + H 2O → Na 2SnO 3 + 2H 2
Zn + 2NaOH → Na 2 ZnO 2 + H 2 ( g ) Chemical Properties
(v) By the action of water on metals Very active metals Some chemical properties of hydrogen are given below:
like Na, K and Ca react with water at room (i) Dihydrogen is quite stable due to its high bond
temperature. dissociation energy thus is not very reactive.
2Na + 2H 2O → 2NaOH + H 2 ↑ 2000 K
Cold H 2 → H + H
(so, sodium is kept under kerosene oil) (ii) Dihydrogen is neutral to litmus paper.
Less reactive metal like Zn, Mg, Al etc., can react (iii) Action with metals It combines with metals like
with water only upon heating. Na, K, Ca etc., to give corresponding interstitial
Heat hydrides which are ionic in nature.
Mg + H 2O → MgO + H 2 ↑ ∆
2 Na + H 2 → 2 NaH
2Al + 6H 2O → 2Al(OH)3 + 3H 2 ↑ ∆
Ca + H 2 → CaH 2
(vi) Bosch process (Manufacture method) Dihydrogen is
prepared by passing steam over red hot coke (iv) Reaction with non-metals The reactivity of
at 1270 K. halogens towards dihydrogen decreases as
C + H 2O → CO + H 2 F2 > Cl 2 > Br2 > I2
(Coke at Dark
400- 600 ° C)
Superheated steam Water gas
or syn gas
H 2 + F2 → 2HF
Diffused sunlight
773 K
H2 + CO + H2O CO2 + 2H2 H 2 + Cl 2 → 2 HCl
Fe2O3 + Cr2O3
673 K
Water gas Steam (Catalyst) H 2 + Br2 → 2 HBr
CO 2 is removed either by dissolving in water under 673 K, Pt
pressure of 25-30 atm or by scrubbing the mixture H 2 + I2 → 2HI
with sodium arsenite. 700 K
H2 + S → H 2S
(vii) Lane’s process Hydrogen is prepared by passing the
alternate currents of steam and water gas over red (v) Reaction with metal oxides Dihydrogen acts as a
hot iron. strong reducing agent and thus it reduces metal
oxides to metal.
This method consists of two stages: ∆
(a) Oxidation stage Superheated steam is passed over CuO + H 2 → Cu + H 2O
iron filings heated about 1025–1075 K. ∆
ZnO + H 2 → Zn + H 2O
1025 − 1075 K ∆
3Fe + 4H 2O → PbO + H 2 → Pb + H 2O
Iron filings Steam
Fe 3O 4 + 4H 2 + 161kJ (vi) Reaction with unsaturated hydrocarbons
Magnetic oxide Dihydrogen reacts with unsaturated hydrocarbons
of iron
to give saturated hydrocarbons.
(b) Reduction stage When the whole iron has been Ni or Pt or Pd
oxidised then steam is stopped and water gas is H 2C == CH 2 + H 2 → H 3C CH 3
473 K
Ethylene Ethane
passed to reduce Fe 3O 4 . Ni or Pt or Pd
Fe 3O 4 + 4 CO → 3 Fe + 4 CO 2 HC ≡≡ CH + 2H 2 → H 3C CH 3
473 K
Ethylene Ethane
Fe 3O 4 + 4 H 2 → 3 Fe + 4 H 2O
706 NDA/NA Pathfinder
This reaction is used in the hydrogenation of oils. (ii) Covalent or Molecular Hydrides These are
Ni formed by reaction of p-block elements (except
Vegetable oil + H 2 → Fat noble gases) and by Be and Mg with hydrogen.
(Liquid) 473 K (Solid)
Molecular hydrides are of three types
The vegetable ghee such as Dalda are prepared by this process.
(a) Electron-deficient hydrides These are
formed by group-13 (IIIA) elements e.g.
Uses of Dihydrogen B 2H 6 etc.
Some uses of dihydrogen are given below (b) Electron-precise hydrides These are formed
• It is used in the manufacture of synthetic petrol. by group-14 (IV A) elements e.g. CH 4 etc.
• It is used as a rocket fuel in the form of liquid hydrogen (c) Electron rich hydrides These are formed by
which does not cause any pollution and produces greater group 15, 16 and 17 elements e.g. NH 3 ,
energy per unit mass of fuel. H 2O, HF etc.
• It is used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils. (iii) Metallic or Interstitial (Non-stoichiometric)
• It is used as a reducing agent in the laboratory and industry. Hydrides These are formed by reaction of
• It is used in the preparation of compounds like ammonia
transition metals and inner-transition metals with
hydrogen.
(Haber’s process), water gas, and fertiliser such as urea,
ammonium sulphate etc. These are non-stoichiometric compounds and
show conductivity. d-block elements of group
• It is used in the preparation of many organic compounds such
7, 8 and 9 do not form hydride, therefore this
as methanol. region in the periodic table is called hydride
Cu / ZnO− Cr 2O3
CO( g ) + 2H 2 ( g ) → CH 3OH( l ) gap.
Catalyst (iv) Polymeric Hydrides and Complex Hydrides
These are formed by reaction of elements
Ortho and para Hydrogen having electronegativity in the range 1.4 to 2.0
• A molecule of dihydrogen contains two atoms, the nuclei of
like Al, Si etc with hydrogen.
both the atom in each molecule are spining.
• Molecules of hydrogen in which spins of both the nuclei are
Water
in same directions are called ortho hydrogen. A major part of all living organisms is made up of
water (H 2O ). Human body has 65% (about) and
• Molecules in which both the nuclei spin in the opposite
some plants have as much as 95% water. 97% part of
directions are called para hydrogen. The compound usually
the entire water is assumed to be confined in oceans
consist of discrete covalent molecules. Only weak van der
while rest is present in pure form. Rain water is the
Waals’ forces holding the molecule together.
purest form of water.
• para hydrogen has lower energy and at 0°K the gas contains
100 % para hydrogen. Properties of Water
• At room temperature, the ratio of ortho to para hydrogen is 3 : 1. Some properties of water are given below
• Ortho and para hydrogen, both have similar chemical • Water is the neutral oxide of hydrogen.
properties but their properties like boiling points, heating • It is colourless liquid under ordinary conditions.
conductivity and specific heat etc. are different.
• It is polar compound (dipole moment = 1.85 D)
and possesses a high dielectric constant (approx
Hydrides 81). Which makes it is a universal solvent.
Compounds of hydrogen in which hydrogen is suppose to be • It has abnormally high melting point and boiling
present as H − are called hydrides. Oxidation state of H in these point due to the association of H 2O molecules
compounds is −1. These are the binary compounds of hydrogen through hydrogen bonding.
with other elements.
• Melting point of ice is lowered with increase in
Types of Hydrides pressure.
Hydrides are the following types • In solid state (ice) water molecules are joined
together in three dimension network. It is
(i) Ionic or Saline Hydrides These are formed by reaction of
alkali metal, alkaline earth metals (except Be and Mg) and responsible for low density of water. As the
some lanthanides with hydrogen. These hydrides are temperature of ice is increased above 0°C, some
crystalline, non-volatile and conducting in fused state. H-bond are broken, this results in decrease in
Their aqueous solution is alkaline in nature. Their reaction volume and increase in density. Density of water is
with water is explosive. maximum at 4°C.
NaH + H 2O → NaOH + H 2 ↑
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 707
• Density of ice is less than water hence it floats on Permanent hardness can be removed by the following methods
water. (i) Treatment with Washing Soda (Na 2CO 3 or Sodium
• pH of water is 7. Carbonates) Washing soda reacts with soluble calcium and
• Covalent molecules which are capable of forming magnesium chlorides and sulphates in hard water to form
hydrogen bonds with water molecules get dissolved insoluble carbonates.
e.g. lower alcohols, lower carboxylic acid, sugars are (ii) Calgon’s Method Sodium hexametaphosphate (Na 6P6O18 ),
soluble in water due to hydrogen bond formation. commercially called ‘calgon’, when added to hard water,
• Covalent molecules which cannot form hydrogen complex anions are formed. The complex anion keeps the
bonds with water are not soluble in it, e.g. CHCl 3 , Mg 2+ and Ca 2+ ions in solution.
CCl 4 , benzene, alkanes etc. (iii) Ion Exchange Method This method is also called
zeolite/permutit process. Hydrated sodium aluminium
Water is a universal solvent silicate is called zeolite. When zeolite is added to hard
The various properties of water which make it a water, exchange reactions take place which results in
universal solvent are softening of water.
(i) The polar nature of water molecule.
Na 2 Al 2Si 2O8 ⋅xH 2O, (also known as zeolites) which have
(ii) The ability of water molecule to make hydrogen
bonds with molecules of many compounds. property of exchanging cations such as Ca 2+ , Mg 2+ with
(iii) High dielectric constant of water molecule. sodium salt ions.
(iv) The ability of water molecule undergo chemical (iv) Synthetic Resins Method Now-a-days hard water is
reaction with many element and compounds. softened by using synthetic cation exchangers. This
method is more efficient than zeolite process.
Hard Water
Presence of calcium and magnesium salts (mainly) and Structure of Water Molecule
iron salt in the form of hydrogen carbonate, chloride • The molecule of water consists of two hydrogen atoms
and sulphate in water makes water hard. Hard water bonded to oxygen atom by covalent bonds.
does not give lather with soap. Hard water forms • The density of ice is less than water.
scum/precipitate with soap. It is, therefore, unsuitable
• In water molecule, the central oxygen atom is sp 3 hybridised
for laundry. It is harmful for boilers as well because
and contain two lone pairs.
of deposition of salts in the form of scale.
• The geometry of water is distorted and H—O—H bond
angle is 104.5°.
Soft Water
Rain water is almost pure. The water free from soluble
O
salts of calcium and magnesium, is called soft water. It
gives lather with soap. H 104·5º H
Structure of H2O
Temporary Hardness
Temporary hardness is due to the presence of
magnesium and calcium hydrogen carbonates in water. Heavy Water
It can be removed by • Chemically heavy water is deuterium oxide (D 2O). It was
(i) Boiling During boiling, the soluble magnesium discovered by Urey in 1932. It is colourless, odourless and
hydrogen carbonate is converted into insoluble tasteless liquid.
magnesium hydroxide and calcium hydrogen • It is used in nuclear reactor as moderator because it slow
carbonate is converted into insoluble calcium down the fast moving neutrons.
carbonate. These insoluble precipitates can be
removed by filtration. Properties of H2 O and D 2 O
(ii) Clark’s Method In this method, calculated Property H2O D2O
amount of lime is added to hard water. It
Freezing point 0°C 3.8°C
precipitates out calcium carbonate and magnesium
hydroxide which can be filtered off. Boiling point 100°C 101.42°C
Temperature of maximum density 4°C 11.6°C
Permanent Hardness Dielectric constant 81 80
It is due to the presence of soluble salts of magnesium Solubility of substances High Low
and calcium in the form of chlorides and sulphates in
water. Density 1.0000 g cm −3 1.1059 g cm −3
708 NDA/NA Pathfinder
CARBON Graphite
It is an important allotrope of carbon which is more
Carbon is the first element of IV A group of periodic table.
widely distributed in nature than diamond. It is also
It occurs in the free state in the form of coal, diamond and
called black lead. It can be prepared by heating anthracite
graphite. In combined state carbon is found as carbonates of
coal with a small amount of iron or silica in an electric
metals like calcium and magnesium and as hydrocarbons and
furnace.
in air as CO 2 (0.03)%.
The phenomenon of existence of an element in more than Properties of Graphite
one form and each form has different physical properties but Some properties of graphite are given below
identical chemical properties are known as allotropy and • It is shining gray, opaque solid.
these different forms are called allotropes. Carbon shows • It is softer than diamond.
allotropism due to the property of catenation and pπ − pπ • It has a density about 2.25 g/cm 3 .
bond. Carbon exists in two different allotropic forms
• Its melting point is very high (3500°C).
(i) Crystalline form Diamond, graphite and fullerene. • It is good conductor of heat and electricity.
(ii) Amorphous form Coal, wood charcoal, animal • It is also pure but less than that of diamond (95–97% C).
charcoal, lamp black, coke etc.
• It burns in air at 973 –1073 K to give CO 2 .
• Two dimensional layer structure having regular
Crystalline Forms of Carbon hexagonal sheets.
Diamond • Only 3 of the 4 valence electrons of C participate in
bonding. Thus, hybridisation is sp 2 having 3 covalent
Diamond is the purest form of carbon. Diamond prepared in
laboratory is called artificial diamond. bonds with 3 other C-atoms in the same plane. This
fourth free electron is responsible for its conductivity.
Properties of Diamond • The carbon-carbon bond distance in graphite (1.42 Å)
Some properties of diamond are given below is shorter than diamond (1.54 Å). It is insoluble in
• It is the hardest substance. Its m.pt. is very high (about ordinary solvents like water, alcohol, ether etc.
3600°C).
• It is colourless, shining and transparent crystalline solid. It
Uses of Graphite
has a density about 3.51 g/cm 3 . Some uses of graphite are given below
• It is bad conductor of heat and electricity. • It is used in making electrodes.
• It burns in air at 900°C to give CO 2 . • It is used as a lubricant for heavy machines.
• It is insoluble in all the solvents. • It is used in the manufacture of crucibles which can
• Due to the lattice vibrations, it has the highest thermal withstand high temperatures.
conductivity among all known materials. • Mixed with clay it is used for making lead pencils.
• Diamond is a covalent solid. In its crystal, each carbon • It is also used as a moderator for fast moving neutrons
atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in atomic reactors.
situated around it tetrahedrally.
• The hybridisation of carbon in diamond is sp 3 . Fullerene
• The carbon-carbon bond distance in diamond is 1.54 Å. • Fullerene or Bucky balls were discovered in 1980. Its
• Diamonds are the transparent to light and have very high general formula is C2n (where n = 30 − 48).
refractive index (2.5). • Buckminster fullerene, C60 has soccer ball like shape
➨ Note X-rays penetrate diamond but these rays do not penetrate with 12 pentagons and 20 hexagon rings of carbon
glass (identification test for glass and diamond). atoms. While C70 has rugby ball shape. In fullerene
each carbon is sp 2 -hybridised.
Uses of Diamond
• These are the only pure form of carbon.
Some uses of diamond are given below
• These are soluble in organic solvents due to their
• It is used for cutting glass, making bores for rock drilling
covalent nature and form coloured solutions.
and for making abrasives.
• These react with metals of group 1 and form solids e.g.
• Diamond is used as a gem stone on account of reflection
K3C60 . These compounds act as superconductors below
and refraction of light. 18 K. Their thermal stability is less than that of
• It is used for grinding and polishing hard materials. diamonds and graphite.
• It is also used for making dies for drawing thin wires ➨ Note Thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon is
from metals. graphite. Therefore ∆fH ° for graphite is zero. Whereas ∆fH °
• Sequence of hardness is boron carbide (B 4C) > silicon for diamond and fullerene is 1.90 and 38.1 kJmol −1
carbide (SiC) > diamond > glass > iron. respectively.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 709
(iv) Acetic acid (CH 3 COOH) In vinegar 6-7% acetic acid Carbon dioxide can also be prepared by the action of
is present. dilute acids on carbonates and bicarbonates.
➨ Note All common activities of a living organism involve reactions Na 2CO 3 + H 2SO 4 → Na 2SO 4 + H 2O + CO 2
of certain organic compounds. Such compounds are called MgCO 3 + 2HCl → MgO + H 2O + CO 2
biomolecules. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins,hormones,
nucleic acids etc. are biomolecules. NaHCO 3 + HCl → NaCl + H 2O + CO 2
By Fermentation of Molasses
IMPORTANT POINTS
Carbon dioxide can also be prepared from fermentation
Hydrocarbons are the compounds of carbon and
of molasses with yeast in the formation of ethanol.
●
PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. The radioactive isotope of 7. Hydrogen acts as a 15. Hydrogen is collected
hydrogen is (a) reducing agent (a) over water (b) over mercury
(a) hydrogen (b) parahydrogen (b) oxidising agent (c) over alcohol (d) None of these
(c) deuterium (d) tritium (c) both reducing and oxidising agent
16. Consider the following statements
(d) neither reducing nor oxidising agent
2. Hydrogen was discovered by about ortho or para forms of
(a) Lavoisier (b) Cavendish 8. Hydrogen will not reduce heated hydrogen
(c) Dalton (d) Newton (a) CuO (b) Fe 2O 3 (c) Al 2O 3 (d) SnO 2
I. Ortho or para hydrogens are
3. Tritium is composed of 9. Which of the following metal isotopes of hydrogen.
(a) one proton, one electron and two adsorb hydrogen? II. Specific heats of the two
neutrons (a) Zn (b) Pd (c) Al (d) K forms are same.
(b) one proton, two electrons and one 10. In Bosch process hydrogen is III. Chemical properties of two
neutron forms are same.
obtained from
(c) two protons and one electron IV. Boiling points of two forms
(a) natural gas (b) water
(d) one proton, one electron and one
are same.
(c) water gas (d) None of these
neutron Which of these is/are correct
11. In Lane process reduction of statements?
4. Select the true statement. steam is carried out by heated (a) I and II (b) Only III
(a) Among protium, deuterium and (a) Ca (b) Fe (c) K (d) Sr (c) III and IV (d) IV and I
tritium, protium has largest atomic
radius 12. Moist hydrogen cannot be dried 17. When hydrogen is passed over Pd,
(b) Absolutely pure ortho hydrogen is over conc. H2SO4 because hydrogen is adsorbed over the
formed at 20 K (a) it can catch fire surface of Pd, this process is called
(c) Atomic weight of deuterium is 3 (b) it is reduced by H 2SO 4 (a) hydrogenation (b) occulusion
and that of hydrogen is 2 (c) it can oxidised by H 2SO 4
(c) evaporation (d) halogenation
(d) Para and ortho hydrogen possess (d) it decomposes by H 2SO 4
same chemical properties 18. Which one of the following
13. Hydrogen is not obtained when
elements is used as catalyst in the
5. The metal which cannot liberate zinc reacts with
hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
hydrogen from acid is (a) cold water (b) dil. H 2SO 4
(a) Pt (b) Na
(a) platinum (b) silver (c) dil. HCl (d) hot 20% NaOH (c) Ru (d) P
(c) gold (d) All of these 14. Zinc react with conc. H2SO4 to 19. Dihydrogen reacts with CO at
6. Hydrogen from HCl can be form 700 K in the presence of a catalyst
prepared from (a) ZnSO 4 + H 2 (b) ZnSO 4 to form methanol, the catalyst is
(a) copper (b) phosphorus (c) ZnSO 4 + SO 2 + H 2O (a) ZnO ⋅ C 2O 3 (b) ZnO ⋅ C 2O 4
(c) magnesium (d) mercury (d) None of the above (c) ZnO ⋅ CrO (d) ZnO ⋅ Cr2O 3
716 NDA/NA Pathfinder
20. Nascent hydrogen consists of Statement II The heat of 39. Graphite is used in nuclear reactor
(a) hydrogen atom with excess of energy dissociation of N2 is extremely (a) as a lubricant (b) as a fuel
(b) hydrogen ions in excited state large (954 kJ). (c) for lining the inside of the reactor
(c) hydrogen molecule with excess of as insulator
27. Statement I Nitrogen is a
energy (d) for reducing the velocity of
poisonous gas. neutrons
(d) solvated proton
Statement II Animals die in its
21. Consider the following types of 40. Graphite is a good conductor
atmosphere for want of oxygen.
hydrides because
I. Covalent hydride 28. Statement I Oxygen is oxidised (a) carbon has sp2-hybridisation
II. Ionic hydride on combination with fluorine. (b) graphite has free electrons
III. Metallic hydride Statement II Fluorine is more (c) graphite is crystalline
Which of these are formed by electronegative element than (d) graphite has free atoms
hydrogen? oxygen. 41. Difference between diamond and
(a) I and II (b) I and III graphite is that
29. Statement I Oxygen is
(c) II and III (d) All of these (a) graphite combines with oxygen to
paramagnetic.
22. Ionic hydrides are formed by Statement II Hydride of oxygen is form carbon dioxide but diamond
(a) highly electropositive element does not
less volatile than that of sulphur.
(b) transitional metals (b) the atoms in each have different
(c) highly electronegative element 30. Which is the most abundant masses
(d) inner-transitional element element in earth’s crust? (c) the crystal structure in diamond is
(a) Ca (b) C different form that in graphite
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-29) Following (c) Si (d) O (d) All of the above
questions consist of two statements
labelled as Statement I and Statement 31. Carbon forms large number of 42. Diamond and graphite both are
II. Examine both the statements compounds because it has made of carbon atoms. Diamond is
(a) hardness extremely hard whereas graphite
carefully and mark the correct choice (b) catenation property
according to the codes given below. is soft. This is because
(c) tetravalent structure (a) the chemical bonds between any
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II
(d) variable valency two carbon atoms in diamond are
are true and Statement II is the
correct explanation of Statement I. 32. The nature of chemical bonds in stronger
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II diamond is (b) diamond is ionic whereas graphite
are true but Statement II is not the (a) ionic (b) covalent is covalent
correct explanation of Statement I. (c) coordinate bond(d) metallic (c) each carbon atom in diamond is
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II chemically bonded to a greater
is false. 33. Carbon atoms in diamond are number of neighbouring carbon
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement bonded with each other in which atoms
II is true. configuration? (d) certain atoms in diamond are
(a) Planar (b) Linear smaller in size
23. Statement I Fused lithium (c) Octahedral (d) Tetrahedral
hydride liberates hydrogen gas at 43. The variety of coal having the
anode on its electrolysis. 34. Use of diamond as a gem depends highest carbon content is
upon its (a) anthracite (b) bituminous
Statement II In lithium hydride,
(a) high cost (c) lignite (d) peat
hydrogen is in negative oxidation (b) refractive index
state. 44. The variety of coal having the lowest
(c) extreme hardness
carbon content is
24. Statement I Hydrogen forms (d) bad conductance
(a) peat (b) lignite
largest number of compounds in 35. The inert form of carbon is (c) bituminous (d) anthracite
chemistry. (a) diamond (b) graphite
Statement II Hydrogen is the 45. What happens when steam is
(c) coal (d) charcoal
most abundant element in the passed over red hot carbon?
universe.
36. Diamond is a (a) CO 2 + H 2 are formed
(a) good conductor and soft (b) H 2 + O 2 + steam are formed
25. Statement I In the reaction (b) non-conductor and soft (c) CO +H 2 are formed
between Na and H 2, hydrogen (c) non-conductor and hard (d) None of the above
behave like an oxidising agent. (d) good conductor and hard
46. Activated charcoal is employed to
Statement II Hydrogen atom 37. Lead pencil contains remove colouring matter from
accepts an electron. (a) lead sulphate (b) lead pure substance it works by
26. Statement I Nitrogen is an inert (c) ferrous sulphate (d) graphite (a) bleaching (b) oxidation
diatomic gas with the structure 38. Distance between two layers of (c) reduction (d) adsorption
•• ••
carbon atoms in graphite is
N≡N 47. Formation of coal from wood is
(a) 335 pm (b) 154 pm (a) adsorption (b) carbonisation
(c) 5.33 pm (d) None of these (c) decarboxylation (d) None of these
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 717
48. The charcoal used to decolourise 62. Carbon dioxide is not used as a 73. Identify the correct statement
brown sugar solution is fire extinguisher in fire caused by (a) Carbogen is an antidote for carbon
(a) wood charcoal (a) metal monoxide poisoning
(b) coconut charcoal (b) non-metal (b) Foamite fire extinguisher contains
(c) animal charcoal (c) acids solutions of aluminium sulphate
(d) sugar charcoal (d) None of the above and baking soda
(c) Dry powder extinguisher contain
49. The most reactive form of carbon is 63. Which one of the following is a
sand and baking soda
(a) diamond (b) graphite linear molecule?
(d) All of the above
(c) coal (d) charcoal (a) H 2O (b) CO 2
(c) N2O 3 (d) NO 2 74. Which is the correct
50. Charcoal is activated by treating
representation of the reaction
with 64. Which of the following is
when steam is passed over red hot
(a) steam in retort decomposed on heating?
(b) super heated water
coke at 1000°C?
(a) Na 2 CO 3
(c) hot air (b) Li 2 CO 3 (a) C + H 2O → CO + H 2
(d) None of the above (c) Both (a) and (b) (b) C + 2H 2O → CO 2 + 2H 2
(d) None of the above (c) 2H 2O → 2H 2 + O 2
51. Coke is obtained from wood by (d) None of the above
(a) cracking 65. Carbogen is a mixture of
(b) destructive distillation (a) oxygen + carbon dioxide 75. Suppose you have to determine
(c) fractional distillation (b) oxygen + chlorine the percentage of carbon dioxide
(d) None of the above (c) oxygen + carbon monoxide in a sample of a gas available in a
52. Coal gas is a mixture of (d) None of the above container. Which of the following
(a) H 2 and CO (b) H 2, CO and CH 4 would be the best absorbing
66. Pick up the false statement.
(c) H 2O and CO (d) CO and CH 4 material for the carbon dioxide?
(a) Solid CO 2 is known as drikold
(a) Cold, solid calcium hydroxide
53. Producer gas is a mixture of (b) Dry ice is used as a refrigerant
(b) Cold, solid calcium chloride
(a) air and water (b) CO, H 2 and N 2 (c) Dry ice sublimes on heating
(c) Heated copper oxide
(c) CO and N 2 (d) CO and H 2 (d) Dry ice is covalent solid
(d) Heated charcoal
54. Which has the highest calorific 67. Which one of the following
76. Consider the following statements
value? statement is not correct?
with regard to diamond and
(a) Coal gas (b) Coal (a) Carbon dioxide is heavier than air
(b) The solubility of carbon dioxide
graphite.
(c) Producer gas (d) CO 2 I. Diamond and graphite are
decreases with increase in pressure
55. Maximum calorific value is of (c) Carbon monoxide reduces metal isotopes of carbon.
(a) peat (b) lignite oxides to metal II. In diamond each carbon atom
(c) bituminous (d) anthracite (d) Carbon monoxide is used in the is sp3 -hybridised whereas in
56. Which one of the following oxide manufacture of methanol graphite each carbon atom is
of carbon is most stable? 68. Conversion of glucose into ethanol sp 2-hybridised.
(a) CO (b) C 3 O 2 (c) CO 2 (d) CO 3 is called III. C—C bond length in diamond
(a) formylation (b) fermentation is greater than that in
57. Drikold is graphite.
(a) carbon dioxide (c) conversion (d) photosynthesis
IV. Graphite is less reactive than
(b) carbon monoxide 69. Compound formed on heating CO diamond.
(c) carbon suboxide with NaOH under pressure is
(d) water (a) sodium carbide (b) sodium formate Which of these statements are
(c) sodium acetate (d) sodium oxalate correct?
58. Soda water contains (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) formic acid (b) sulphuric acid 70. Carbon dioxide can oxidise (c) III and IV (d) II and IV
(c) carbonic acid (d) acetic acid (a) red hot iron (b) red hot carbon
(c) red hot silver (d) red hot lead 77. Which of the following statements
59. An anhydride of carbonic acid is
about diamond are correct?
(a) CO (b) C 3 O 2 71. A gas which reacts with CaO not I. It is used as a gem in
(c) CO 2 (d) None of these with NaHCO3 is jewellery because of its ability
60. Fixation of carbon dioxide by (a) CO2 (b) Cl 2 (c) O 2 (d) N 2 to reflect light.
plants is called 72. Dry ice is used for making II. It is a good conductor of
(a) photosynthesis (b) fermentation cold-baths in laboratories by electricity.
(c) respiration mixing with volatile organic III. It is used for cutting glass,
(d) burning of oxygen marble, stones and other hard
solvents. Identify the form of dry
materials.
61. Dry powder extinguishers contain ice from the following.
IV. It is used for drilling of rocks.
(a) sand (a) Gaseous carbon dioxide
(b) sand + Na 2 CO 3 (b) Liquid carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using
(c) sand + baking soda (c) Solid carbon dioxide the codes given below.
(d) sand and K 2 CO 3 (d) Solid hydrogen oxide (a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III (d) II and IV
718 NDA/NA Pathfinder
78. Consider the following statements (b) Both Statement I and Statement II Codes
regarding diamond. are true but Statement II is not the A B C D A B C D
I. It is an allotrope of silicon. correct explanation of Statement I. (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
II. It is a bad conductor of heat
is false.
and electricity.
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement 91. Match the list I with list II and
III. It is the hardest substance. II is true. select the correct answer using
IV. It burns to produce carbon
82. Statement I Diamond is used as the codes given below the list.
dioxide.
Which of the statements given a precious stone. List I List II
above are correct? Statement II In diamond carbon A. Marble 1. Formation of urea
(a) I, III, and IV (b) II, III and IV atoms are tetrahedrally arranged. B. Hydrated CO 2 2. KOH
(c) I and II (d) All of these 83. Statement I Graphite behaves as C. CO 2 absorbs 3. H2CO 3
79. Crude oil is a direct source of a lubricant. D. Use of CO 2 4. CaCO 3
I. Asphalt II. Paraffin wax Statement II The layers of Codes
III. Fatty acids IV. Gas oil carbon atoms in graphite can slip A B C D A B C D
Which of the above are correct? past one over another. (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1
(a) I and II (b) II and III 84. Statement I Graphite is more (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4
(c) I and IV (d) I, II and IV reactive than diamond. 92. Oxygen was discovered by
80. Following statements are made in Statement II Graphite has a two (a) Priestley (b) Boyle
connection with carbon dioxide dimensional sheet like structure, (c) Scheele (d) Canvendish
(CO2 ) where the adjacent layers are held 93. Gases respectively absorbed by
I. CO2 is a poisonous gas. by weak van der Waals’ forces. the alkaline pyrogallol and oil of
II. CO2 is an acidic oxide. 85. Statement I Diamond, graphite cinnamon are
III. CO2 turns lime water milky. and charcoal when burnt in (a) O 3, CH 4 (b) O 2, O 3
Which of the statements given oxygen change to carbon dioxide. (c) SO 2, CH 4 (d) Na 2O, O 3
above is/are correct? Statement II Chemical 94. O2 molecule is paramagnetic in
(a) I and II (b) II and III properties of the elements in solid (a) solid state (b) liquid state
(c) Only III (d) I and III state depends upon the (c) gaseous state (d) All of these
81. Following statements are made in arrangement of atoms.
95. Oxygen is obtained by heating
Connection with carbon dioxide 86. Statement I Diamond is very (a) ammonium dichromate
(CO2). hard and has high melting point. (b) sodium peroxide
I. Carbon dioxide is prepared by Statement II In diamond, each (c) potassium permangnate
burning carbon or by the carbon is covalently bonded to four (d) green vitriol
reaction of a carbonate and an other carbon atoms to form a 96. The molecule having two unpaired
acid or by decomposition of three-dimensional network. electrons is
lime stone. (a) CO (b) NO (c) CN (d) O 2
87. Statement I Carbon can form
II. In all these methods of
more compounds than any other 97. Which of the following is neutral
preparation of CO2 , the
element. oxide?
elements carbon and oxygen are
Statement II Carbon can exist in (a) H 2 O 2 (b) Na 2 O
available in a fixed ratio 3 : 8.
various allotropes. (c) NO (d) PbO
III. When CO2 is continuously
bubbled through lime water, 88. Statement I CO is neutral but 98. Which one is known as oil of
initially lime water turns CO2 is an anhydride of carbonic vitriol?
milky and then again acid. (a) H 2 S 2 O 3 (b) H 2 SO4
colourless. Statement II CO2 dissolves in H2O (c) H 2 SO 5 (d) H 2 S 2O 8
Which of the statements given forming carbonic acid. 99. Ozone is the name given to
above is/are correct? 89. Statement I Carbon dioxide (a) ozonised oxygen (b) Na 2O 2
(a) I and III (b) II and III turns lime water milky. (c) KO 2 (d) pyrogallol
(c) I and III (d) All of these Statement II Calcium carbonate 100. Oxygen and ozone are
Directions (Q. Nos. 82-89) Following is insoluble in water. (a) allotropes (b) isomers
questions consist of two statements 90. Match the list I with list II and (c) isotopes (d) isobars
labelled as Statement I and Statement select the correct answer using the 101. B2O3 is
II. Examine both the statements codes given below the list. (a) acidic (b) basic
carefully and mark the correct choice List I List II (c) neutral (d) amphoteric
according to the codes given below. 102. Which one of the following is not a
A. CO 2 1. Fermentation
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II basic oxide?
are true and Statement II is the B. Zymase 2. Non-metal
C. Carbon 3. Fire extinguishing
(a) SiO 2 (b) MgO
correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Na 2O (d) CaO
D. CaCO 3 4. Chalk
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 719
103. Which of the following 112. The yellow colour of nitric acid 121. Statement I Water is a high
statements are true regarding can be removed by boiling point liquid.
oxygen? (a) boiling the acid Statement II Hydrogen bonding
I. It reacts with non-metals to (b) bubbling air through the warm acid in water is responsible for high
form oxides, which are basic (c) passing ammonia through acid boiling point of water. e 2012 (I)
in nature. (d) adding a little Mg powder
(a) Statements I and II are true and
II. Ozone is an allotrope of 113. Which of the following is obtained Statement II is the correct
oxygen. when N 2 reacts with calcium explanation for Statement I.
III. It is soluble in acidic carbide? (b) Statements I and II are true and
pyrogallol. (a) Calcium cyanate Statement I is not the correct
IV. It is slightly heavier than air. (b) Calcium acetate explanation for Statement I.
Select the correct answer using (c) Calcium cynamide (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
codes given below (d) Calcium carbonate is false.
(a) I and III (b) II and IV (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II
114. The one which does not form is true.
(c) III and IV (d) I and IV
pentachloride is
104. Nitrogen can be obtained from air (a) N (b) P (c) As (d) Sb 122. Deionised water is produced by
by removing (a) Calgon’s process e 2012 (II)
115. Oxidation of NO in air produces
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (a) N 2 O (b) N 2O 3 (c) NO 2 (d) N 2O 5 (b) Ion-exchange resin process
(c) carbon dioxide (d) Both (a) and (b) (c) Clark’s process
116. Ammonia can be dried by
105. The name azota is used for (d) Permutit process
(a) conc. H 2SO 4 (b) P4 O10
(a) nitrogen (c) CaO (d) anhydrous CaCl 2 123. Statement I Hard water does not
(b) oxygen give lather with soap.
(c) hydrogen 117. Which one of the following is not
correct for N2O? Statement II Calcium and
(d) None of the above
(a) It is laughing gas magnesium salts present in hard
106. Which of the following gives (b) It is nitrous oxide water form participate with soap.
nitrogen on heating? (c) It is not a linear molecule e 2012 (II)
(a) NaNO 2 (b) AgNO 2 (d) It is least reactive of all the oxides (a) Statements I and II are true and
(c) Ba(NO 2) 2 (d) NH 4NO 2 of nitrogen Statement II is the correct
107. Which one of the following explanation for Statement I.
118. Nitrogen is used to fill electric (b) Statements I and II are true and
element does not have allotropic bulbs because it Statement I is not the correct
forms? (a) is lighter than air explanation for Statement I.
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (b) makes the bulb give more light (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
(c) Sulphur (d) Phosphorus (c) does not support combustion is false.
108. When ammonia is passed over (d) is non-toxic (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II
hot CuO it is oxidised to is true.
(a) N 2 (b) NO 2 Previous Years’ Questions
124. Which one among the following
(c) N 2O (d) HNO 2
119. Which one of the following does not have an allotrope?
109. Nitrogen has no d-orbital in its elements will replace hydrogen e 2012(II)
valence shell and therefore it from acids to form salts? (a) Oxygen (b) Sulphur
cannot e 2012(I) (c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon
(a) exhibit the oxidation state of +5 (a) Sulphur (S) (b) Silicon (Si) 125. Consider the following statements.
(b) have covalency greater than 4
(c) Zinc (Zn) (d) Phosphorus (P) I. Diamond is hard and graphite
(c) exhibit orbital hybridisation
120. Statement I At high is soft.
(d) form oxides with oxidation states
temperature, hydrogen can II. Diamond is soft and graphite is
greater than +3 hard.
reduce PbO to elemental lead.
110. Man dies when nitrous oxide is III. Diamond is a bad conductor,
inhaled in large quantities Statement II Hydrogen has but graphite is a good conductor.
because great affinity to oxygen. e 2012(I) IV. Diamond is a good conductor,
(a) it is poisonous (a) Both the Statements I and II are but graphite is a bad conductor.
(b) it combines with haemoglobin correct and Statement II is the e 2012(II)
(c) it causes laughing hysteria corrrect explanation of the Which of the statement (s) given
(d) None of the above Statement I. above is/are correct?
(b) Both the Statements I and II are (a) I and III (b) Only I
111. The correct order for the correct but Statement II is not the (c) II and III (d) I and IV
increasing acidic strength of correct explanation of the Statement I.
oxides of nitrogen is (c) Statement I is true, but Statement 126. The pure form of carbon is
(a) N 2 < NO < N 2 O 4 < N 2O 3<N 2 O 5 II is false. e 2013(I)
(b) NO < N 2O < N 2 O 4 < N 2O 5 (d) Statement I is false, but Statement (a) diamond (b) graphite
(c) N 2O< N 2 O 3< N 2O 4 < N 2O 5 < NO II is true. (c) charcoal (d) fullerene
(d) N 2O <NO < N 2 O 3< N 2O 4 < N 2O 5
720 NDA/NA Pathfinder
127. Biogas consists of mainly 132. Oxygen on reactions with Which of the following gases will
e 2013 (I) non-metals forms oxides which are neither itself burn nor cause the
(a) methane (b) ethane e 2013(II) splint to burn? e 2014(II)
(c) butane (d) carbon dioxide (a) basic oxide (b) acidic oxide (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) amphoteric oxide (d) neutral oxide (c) Hydrogen (d) Methane
128. Which of the following statements
in connection with the properties 133. A gas is evolved when a piece of 140. Statement I Colour of nitrogen
of water is/are correct? e 2013 (I) zinc metal is placed in dilute dioxide changes to colourless at
I. Water has higher specific heat sulphuric acid (H 2SO 4). What is low temperature. e 2015(I)
in comparison with other liquids. the gas? e 2013(II) Statement II At low
II. Water has no dipole moment. (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen temperature, nitrogen tetraoxide
(c) Water vapour (d) Sulphur dioxide (N2O4 ) is formed, which is
III. Water has low heat of
colourless.
vaporisation. 134. Two reactants in a flask produce (a) Both the Statements I and II are
Select the correct answer using bubbles of gas and it turns lime correct and Statement II is the
the codes given below. water into milky. The reactants in corrrect explanation of the
(a) Only I (b) II and III the flask are e 2013 (II) Statement I.
(c) I and III (d) Only III (a) zinc and hydrochloric acid (b) Both the Statements I and II are
(b) magnesium carbonate and correct but Statement II is not the
129. Water is a good solvent. This is hydrochloric acid correct explanation of the Statement I.
due to high e 2013 (I) (c) magnesium nitrate and hydrochloric (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
(a) dielectric constant of water acid is false.
(b) surface tension of water (d) magnesium sulphate and (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
hydrochloric acid II is true.
(c) specific heat of water
(d) heat of fusion of water 135. The most stable form of carbon is 141. Why is the graphite used in
e 2014 (I) electrolytic cells? e 2015 (I)
130. Which one of the following
(a) diamond (b) graphite (a) Graphite is soft and can be easily
statements regarding the property moulded into electrodes
of hard water is/are correct? (c) fullerene (d) coal
(b) Graphite is made up of layers of
e 2013 (I) 136. Which one of the following carbon atoms which can be slide
I. Temporary hardness of water statements about hydrogen is/are (c) Graphite is inert to most of the
is due to the presence of correct? e 2014(II) chemicals and remains intact in
soluble magnesium and calcium 1. Hydrogen has three isotopes of electrolytic cells
(d) Graphite is a good conductor of
hydrogen carbonate. which protium is the most
electricity
II. Temporary hardness of water common.
can be removed by boiling. 2. Hydrogen ion (H + ) exists freely 142. Permanent hardness of water is
III. Calgon’s method is applied to in the solution. due to the presence of e 2015 (I)
remove temporary hardness of 3. Dihydrogen (H 2) acts as a (a) sulphates of sodium and potassium
water. reducing agent. (b) sulphates of magnesium and
calcium
IV. Permanent hardness of water Select the correct answer using (c) carbonates of sodium and
is removed by Clark’s method. the codes given below. magnesium
Select the correct answer using (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (d) bicarbonates of magnesium and
the codes given below. (c) Only 3 (d) All of these calcium
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III 137. Which one of the following 143. Which of the following statements
(c) III and IV (d) Only II statements is correct? e 2014 (II) regarding heavy water are
131. Statement I Very little hydrogen (a) Fullerenes have only six-membered correct? e 2015 (II)
is produced when sulphuric acid is carbon rings I. It is extensively used as a
added to calcium. (b) Fullerenes are cage-like molecules
moderator in nuclear reactors.
(c) Diamond is thermodynamically the
Statement II The salt calcium II. It cannot be used in exchange
most stable allotrope of carbon
sulphate, produced is insoluble. (d) Graphite is slippery and hard and reaction to study reaction
e 2013(II) is therefore, used as a dry mechanism.
(a) Both the Statements I and II are lubricant in machines III. Viscosity of heavy water is
correct and Statement II is the relatively smaller than that of
corrrect explanation of the
138. Dihydrogen can be prepared on a ordinary water.
Statement I. commercial scale by the action of IV. The dielectric constant of
(b) Both the Statements I and II are steam on hydrocarbons, when a heavy water is smaller than
correct but Statement II is not the mixture of CO and H 2 gas is that of ordinary water.
correct explanation of the formed. It is known as e 2014(II)
Select the correct answer using the
Statement I. (a) water gas (b) producer gas
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II (c) industrial gas (d) fuel gas
codes given below:
is false. (a) I and II
139. A sample of gas is to be identified (b) II and III
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement
II is true. by means of its behaviour in the (c) III and IV
presence of a glowing splint. (d) I and IV
GENERAL SCIENCE > Chemistry 721
144. Statement I Oxygen gas is easily (c) is tetrahedrally bonded 151. Which of the following carbon
produced at a faster rate by heating (d) is free from van der Waals’ force compounds will not give a sooty
a mixture of potassium chlorate and 147. Consider the following reaction, flame? e 2016 (I)
manganese dioxide than heating
CH4 ( g ) + H2O( g ) 1270
K
→ (a) Benzene
potassium chlorate alone. CO( g ) + 3H2( g ) (b) Hexane
Statement II Manganese dioxide (c) Naphthalene
In the reaction given above, the (d) Anthracene
acts as a negative catalyst. mixtre of CO and H2 is e 2015 (II)
e 2015(II)
(a) natural gas (b) water gas 152. Which of the following is
(a) Both the Statements I and II are watergas? e 2016 (I)
correct and Statement II is the (c) producer gas (d) industrial gas
corrrect explanation of the (a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and
148. Which one of the following hydrogen
Statement I.
elements will not react with dilute (b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and
(b) Both the Statements I and II are
correct but Statement II is not the HCl to produce H2 ? e 2016(I) nitrogen
correct explanation of the Statement I. (a) Hg (b) Al (c) Mg (d) Fe (c) Mixture of carbondioxide and water
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement 149. Which one of the following oxides of vapour
II is false. (d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and
nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement water vapour
II is true.
nitric acid? e 2016(I)
(a) N 2O (b) N 2O 3 (c) NO 2 (d) N 2O 5 153. A glass vessel is filled with water
145. To weld metals together, high up to the brim and a lid is fixed to
temperature is required. Such a 150. Statement I Petroleum is a
it tightly. Then it is kept inside a
high temperature is obtained by mixture of many different
freezer for hours. What is
burning e 2015(II)
hydrocarbons of different densities.
expected to happen? e 2016 (I)
(a) acetylene in oxygen
Statement II The grade of
(a) The water freezes to ice and the
(b) LPG in oxygen petroleum depends mainly on the level of ice comes down
(c) methane in oxygen relative proportion of the different (b) The water in the glass vessel
(d) acetylene in nitrogen hydrocarbons. e 2016 (I) summer freezes to ice
Codes (c) The glass vessel breaks due to
146. Graphite is a much better (a) Both the statements are true and expansion as water freezes to ice
conductor of heat and electricity Statement II is the correct (d) The water does not freeze at all
than diamond. This is due to the explanation of Statement I.
fact that each carbon atom in (b) Both the statements are true, but
154. Density of water is e 2016 (I)
graphite e 2015 (II) Statement II is not the correct (a) maximum at 0°C
explanation of Statement I. (b) minimum at 0°C
(a) undergoes sp2-hybridisation and (c) maximum at 4°C
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
forms three sigma bonds with
is false. (d) minimum at − 4°C
three neighbouring carbon atoms
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement
(b) undergoes sp3-hybridisation
II is true.
ANSWERS
1 d 2 b 3 a 4 d 5 d 6 c 7 c 8 c 9 b 10 c
11 b 12 a 13 a 14 c 15 a 16 b 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 a
21 d 22 a 23 a 24 b 25 a 26 a 27 a 28 a 29 b 30 d
31 b 32 b 33 d 34 b 35 a 36 c 37 d 38 a 39 d 40 b
41 c 42 c 43 a 44 a 45 c 46 d 47 b 48 c 49 d 50 a
51 b 52 b 53 c 54 a 55 d 56 c 57 a 58 c 59 c 60 a
61 c 62 c 63 b 64 c 65 a 66 a 67 b 68 b 69 b 70 b
71 a 72 c 73 d 74 a 75 d 76 b 77 a 78 b 79 d 80 b
81 d 82 b 83 a 84 b 85 c 86 a 87 b 88 b 89 a 90 b
91 a 92 a 93 b 94 d 95 b 96 d 97 c 98 b 99 a 100 a
101 a 102 a 103 b 104 a 105 a 106 d 107 b 108 a 109 b 110 c
111 d 112 b 113 c 114 a 115 c 116 c 117 c 118 c 119 c 120 c
121 a 122 b 123 a 124 c 125 a 126 d 127 a 128 a 129 a 130 a
131 a 132 b 133 a 134 b 135 b 136 b 137 b 138 a 139 b 140 a
141 d 142 b 143 d 144 c 145 a 146 a 147 b 148 a 149 d 150 b
151 b 152 d 153 c 154 c
11
SOME IMPORTANT
CHEMICAL COMPOUNDS
In general 3-7 questions are asked from this chapter. Questions are mainly based upon raw materials and
composition of soaps, glass, cement, gun powder and nitrogeneous fertilizers. A good number of statement
based questions have been asked from this chapter.
There is hardly any work of life where we do not need the chemical compounds. Chemical compounds such as soaps,
detergents, paints, drugs, fertilizers etc. play an important role in our daily life.
CLEANSING AGENTS
In fact, those chemicals which concentrate at the surface of the solution or interfaces, reduce surface tension of the
solution and help in removing dirt and dust by emulsifying grease are known as surfactants. Soaps and detergents belong
to this class.
Soaps
Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acids like, stearic acid, oleic acid, palmitic acid etc. Soaps are obtained
by the alkaline hydrolysis of oils and fats. Only glycerides of fatty acid give soaps on alkaline hydrolysis.
Raw Materials
The important raw material used for the manufacture of soaps are
(i) Oil or Fat Mustard oil, mohwa oil, coconut oil, cotton seed oil, olive oil or animal fat.
(ii) Fillers The substance added to increase the weight and volume of soaps, e.g. sodium silicates, powdered pumice,
starch, sodium carbonate.
(iii) Alkali Caustic soda for hard or washing soaps and caustic potash for soft soap is used for saponification.
(iv) Colouring Material
ZnO : White colour
Methylene blue : Blue colour
Uranium : Yellow
Eosine : Red
(v) Perfumes Perfumes are used to make soap pleasant smelling, e.g. lemon grass oil.
GENERAL SCIENCE Chemistry 723
Types of Soaps • When the dirty cloth is agitated in soap solution, dirt
particles attached to the soap molecules get washed away
There are following types of soaps
in water and the cloth gets cleaned.
(i) Washing Soaps These are made from cheaper fats
like mohwa oil, resin oil etc.
➨ Note The cluster of molecules in which the hydrophobic tails are
in the interior of the cluster and the ionic ends are on the
(ii) Toilet Soaps These are made from best quality surface of the cluster is called a micelle.
animal or vegetable fats or mixture of both. These
soaps do not injure the skin.
(iii) Medicated Soaps Toilet soaps containing some substance GLASS
of medicinal value, e.g. carbolic soap, neem soap etc. Glass is an amorphous hard, brittle, super cooled liquid. It
(iv) Metallic Soaps These soaps contains salt of metals is not a true solid.
other than sodium and potassium. Chemically glass is a mixture of number of silicates and
(v) Transparent Soaps These are prepared by dissolving has no definite formula. But the general composition can
toilet soaps in alcohol and evaporating the filtrate. be represented as xM 2O ⋅ yM ′ O ⋅6 SiO 2 where M is
These contain glycerol. monovalent alkali metal like Na, K, etc., M ′ is a bivalent
(vi) Shaving Soaps These toilet soaps contain gum and metal like Zn, Pb etc., and x, y are whole numbers. Silica is
glycerol. Their mildness increases by adding the major constituent of all glasses.
potassium carbonate. Resin is also added to shaving • Glass is a mixture and not a compound.
soaps as it forms lather well.
• Glass is chemically inert towards a lot of chemicals.
(vii) Liquid Soaps These soaps are obtained by the action • Glass is known as super cooled liquid with no sharp
of coconut oil and caustic potash and contain about
melting and boiling point.
8% of water.
• Glass stoppers should not be used in containers of
(viii) Floating Soaps These soaps are obtained by beating
NaOH or KOH.
large amount of air into soap while it is in creamy stage.
• Glass is soluble in HF due to formation of H2SiF6 .
Therefore, HF solution is used for etching of glass.
Detergents
Detergents are generally ammonium or sulphonate salts of Raw Material
long chain carboxylic acids. Although these do not contain The important raw material used for the manufacture of
soaps like sodium salts of fatty acids. Hence, these are glass are
known as ‘soapless soap’. (i) Silica (SiO 2 ) and cullet (glass pieces)
• These can be used even in acidic solutions and have a (ii) Compounds of alkali metals e.g. Na 2CO 3 , NaNO 3 ,
strongest cleansing action. K2CO 3 ,KNO 3 , Na 2SO 4 and K2SO 4 .
• These are more soluble in water and can be used with (iii) Compounds of alkaline earth metals (e.g. CaCO 3 ,
hard water as these produces no precipitates with BaCO 3 , CaO).
Ca 2 + , Mg 2 + , Fe 3 + ions present in hard water. They are (iv) Oxides of heavy metals e.g. PbO, Pb 3O 4
used in powder form for domestic purpose.
• The liquid form may be used for dish washing, cleaning Coloured Glass
of floors etc. These are obtained by mixing colour supplying substances
• Biological degradation is an important property of good in the molten or fused state of glass. Such substances are
detergent. tabulated below
Colour producing substance and their colour
Cleansing Action of Soap or Detergent
• The principle of cleaning by soap is surface tension. Substance Used Colour of Glass
• A soap (or detergent) molecule is made up of two parts : Cuprous oxide Red
A long hydrocarbon part and a short ionic part Cupric oxide Peacock blue
containing —COO − Na + group. Potassium dichromate Green or greenish yellow
• The long hydrocarbon chain is hydrophobic Ferrous oxide Green
(water—repelling) so it is insoluble in water but soluble Ferric oxide Brown
in oil and grease and the ionic part is hydrophilic
Manganese dioxide Light pink, in excess black
(water—attracting). Thus, soluble in water.
Cobalt oxide Blue
• When soap is applied to dirty clothes soaked in water, the
hydrocarbon part of the soap molecules attach themselves Gold chloride Ruby red
to the greasy and oily dirt particles whereas the ionic part Cadmium sulphide Yellow
of the soap molecule remain attached to water. Carbon Amber colour (brownish black)
724 NDA/NA Pathfinder
Annealing of Glass • Carbonic acid (H 2CO 3 ) and boric acid (H 3BO 3 ) to prevent
the production of fungi in ink, thus used as fungicide
Glass is prepared at a very high temperature if it is • Glycerine is used in manufacturing the stamp pad ink.
cooled suddenly, glass being a bad conductor of heat, its • Resin or glue or gum for shine.
upper layer cools down while interior portion remains
in a state of strain, due to this unequal expansion glass Colours of Ink due to Different Substances
cracks into pieces. To avoid this, glass is cooled slowly.
Colour of ink Colouring substance
This slow cooling is called as annealing of glass.
Black-blue ink Naphthalene black
Types of Glasses, their Properties and uses Blue colour Methylene blue
Types of Glasses Properties Uses Red colour Eosine and congo red
Soda glass or soft Contains sodium Window glass, bottles, Green colour Malachite green
glass carbonate, calcium dishes, tubelights, Black colour Aniline black
carbonate and silica, domestic utensils etc
brittle and cheapest.
Raw Material for Iron Gel Ink
Potash glass or Contains carbonate of K, Hard boiling glass test
hard glass Ca and silica, high tubes, beakers, etc The important raw material used for the manufacture of iron
temperature resistant. gel ink
Photochromatic Turns dark in sun light Eye lenses and • Resin or glue or gum arabic, glycerine.
glass because of the presence goggles
of embedded • Alcohol or spirit or phenol.
microcrystalline silver • Tannic acid and galic acid used in blue-black ink.
compound (silver
chloride) in glass • Ferrous sulphate (FeSO 4 ) and dilute hydrochloric acid
Pyrex glass Contains borax and silica, Laboratory (HCl) are main constituents of this ink.
(borosilicate glass) withstand sudden equipments
alterations in temperature Paper
Flint glass Contains sodium, Optical instruments • Cellulose is used as raw material for the manufacture of
potassium and lead like lens of camera,
silicate, have high prisms, microscopes, paper. Paper is prepared by boiling small pieces of old rags,
refractive index telescope and in grass and pieces of wood with caustic soda. After cooling
electric bulbs the mixture is bleached to a perfect white paste.
Crown glass Contains oxides of Optical instruments • Alum, white clay and resin are added to white paste to
potassium, barium and
silicon, have high form thin sheets. Sheets prepared and dried by steam and
refractive index. cut in proper sizes.
Jena glass (best Soft, strong and more Bottles for keeping
form of glass) resistant to acids and acids and alkalies in Cement
alkalies, contains zinc and laboratory
barium borosilicate. • It is dirty greyish heavy powder containing limestone and
clay. When mixed with water it set to a hard stone like
Crook’s glass Contains cerium oxide Eye lenses used in
(CeO 2) and silica, thus, different eye defects mass similar to Portland rock a famous building stone of
absorbs UV rays. England. So, it is also known as Portland cement.
Lead crystal glass Contains potassium Various ornamental • It was first named by Joseph Aspdin as Portland cement
carbonate, lead oxide and items, costly glass and was discovered in England.
silica, shows optical containers
phenomenon of total Approximate Composition of Portland Cement
internal reflection.
●
Calcium oxide (CaO) — 62%
Quartz glass or Ultraviolet rays emerge In making bulb of
silica glass out through it. ultraviolet lamp,
●
Silica (SiO2 ) — 22%
laboratory equipments ●
Alumina (Al 2O3 ) — 7.5%
●
Magnesia (MgO) — 2.5%
Ink ●
Ferric oxide (Fe 2O3 ) — 2.5%
• When clay and lime are strongly heated together they (v) Fillers or extenders The substances are used to
fuse and react to form ‘cement clinker’. 2-3% of gypsum increase the concentration of pigment or paint. These
(CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H 2O) is added to slow down the setting of are low gravity material e.g. BaSO 4 ⋅ (CuSO 4 ) ⋅ 2H 2O
cement so that it becomes sufficiently hard. etc.
• Excess of silica (SiO 2 ) decrease the setting time of Commonly Used Pigments
cement and alumina (Al 2O 3 ) increase the setting time of
cement. Pigment Colour Formula
• When cement is mixed with water it becomes hard due White lead White 2[Pb(OH)2 ⋅ 2PbCO 3 ]
to the formation of a solid jelly. This process is called Chrome yellow Yellow PbCrO 4
setting of cement. Chrome red Red PbCrO 4 ⋅ PbO
• Setting of cement involves hydrolysis reaction in which
Basic lead sulphate White 2PbSO 4 ⋅ PbO
heat is generated (exothermic process) therefore, cement
structures have to be cooled during setting by sprinkling Red lead or sindhur Red Pb 3O 4
water. Cement containing tetracalcium aluminoferrite Lithopone White BaSO 4 + ZnS
sets at the slowest rate. Malachite Green Cu(OH)2 ⋅ CuCO 3
• White cement does not contain colouring matter such as Azurite Green Cu(OH)2 ⋅ 2CuCO 3
oxides of iron, chromium, magnesium and manganese.
Thenard Blue CoO ⋅ Al 2O 3
• The function of sand in mortar is to prevent excessive Smelt Blue K 2O ⋅ CoO ⋅ 3SiO 2
shrinkage which might result in cracks.
• Mortar is a mixture of cement and sand in the ratio
1 : 3 in water. Safety Matches
• Concrete is a mixture of cement, sand and pieces of Modern safety match was developed only about two
stones in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 4 in water. hundred years ago. A mixture of antimony trisulphide,
• Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC) Cement, sand and potassium chlorate and white phosphorus with some glue
pieces of stone with iron frame-work used in making and starch was applied on the head of a match made of
pillars, roofs, lenters etc. suitable wood. These days the head of the safety match
contains only antimony trisulphide (Sb2S 3 ) and potassium
Paints chlorate (KClO 3 ). The rubbing surface has powdered glass
Paint is a mixture of pigments suspended in a solvent. and a little red phosphorus (which is less dangerous).
Paints are widely used in surface coatings. When the match is struck against the rubbing surface, some
• Plasticisers are added during the manufacturing of paint in red phosphorus get converted into white phosphorus. This
order to provide elasticity to the film and minimise its immediately reacts with potassium chlorate in the
cracking. matchstick head to produce enough heat to ignite
• Aluminium paints are heat resistant but cannot be used antimony trisulphide and start the combustion.
for water pipe. Lithopene [BaSO 4 + ZnS] is a substitute
of white lead. Gun Powder
• Chromium oxide is used as an ingredient in paints to It consists of a fuel (charcoal or sugar) and oxidiser (salt
obtain green colour. peter, nitre or potassium nitrate) and sulphur (allows for a
• Cadmium lithopones (cadmopones) (Cds + BaSO 4 ) is stable reaction and lower ignition temperature).
used as yellow pigment.
• The granules of modern gun powder (black powder) are
• Titanium dioxide (Titanox) is extensively used in the
manufacture of paints and pigments. coated with graphite because graphite reduces the
moisture absorbing capacity of the powder. Graphite
Constituents of Paints also prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge to
prevent accidental ignition.
Main constituents of paints are as follows
(i) Pigments These substances give colour to another • It is first chemical explosive and during explosion N2
substance. These have a definite colour. and CO 2 are evolved in the ratio of 1 : 3.
(ii) Solvents Normally some oil like terpentine oil is ➨ Note
used as a solvent. l
Water is the most common fire extinguisher but it is not
(iii) Driers The compounds which are used to dry the suitable for fires involving oil, petrol and electrical equipment. In
paints. These are cobalt, lead manganese, rosinates these cases CO2 is the best extinguisher.
compounds. e.g. MnO, CoO, etc. l
Dry powder of chemical like sodium bicarbonate or potassium
(iv) Thinners The substances which are used to reduce bicarbonate are used as a fire extinguisher. Sodium bicarbonate
the viscosity of paints. These increase the volume of and sulphuric acid are used in soda acid fire extinguisher and
paint. e.g. alcohol, kerosene oil etc. aluminium sulphate in foam fire extinguisher.
726 NDA/NA Pathfinder