Mark Scheme (Results)

January 2025

Pearson Edexcel International Advanced

Subsidiary Level In Biology (WBI12)
Paper 01Cells, Development, Biodiversity,
and Conservation
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January 2025
Question paper log number P78443A
Publications Code WBI12_01_2501_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2025
General Marking Guidance

• All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners must

mark the first candidate in exactly the same way as they mark the
last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must be
rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather than
penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not
according to their perception of where the grade boundaries may
lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark scheme
should be used appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded.
Examiners should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if the
answer matches the mark scheme. Examiners should also be
prepared to award zero marks if the candidate’s response is not
worthy of credit according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will provide the
principles by which marks will be awarded and exemplification may
be limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the mark
scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must be
consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has
replaced it with an alternative response.
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
1(a)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following point: Example of diagram
(1)
• flagellum and acrosome correctly drawn and labelled (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
1(a)(ii) An answer that makes reference to one of the following points:
(1)
• aerobic respiration / {produce / provide} ATP for {movement / ACCEPT {provide / release} energy for
motility} (1) {movement / motility}
REJECT produce energy
IGNORE glycolysis / respiration
unqualified
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
1(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to two of the following points:
(2)
• as the midpiece length increases so does the swimming speed ACCEPT converse
of the sperm (cells) (1) ACCEPT positive correlation between
midpiece length and swimming speed
IGNORE positive correlation unqualified
IGNORE no correlation

• males who mate with more than one female have sperm ACCEPT converse
with a faster swimming speed (1)

• greater spread of data for males who mate with more than ACCEPT converse
one female (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
1(b)(ii) Mark first answer
• correlation coefficient / Spearmans rank / Pearsons ACCEPT PMCC (1)
Question Answer Mark
Number
2(a)(i) The only correct answer is C 0.48
(1)
A is not correct because 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48

B is not correct because 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48

D is not correct because 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
2(a)(ii)
• q2 IGNORE q (1)
IGNORE q2
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
2(b) An explanation that makes reference to four of the following points:
(4)
• genetic variation in Lokrum island rabbit population (1) ACCEPT rabbits have different alleles
ACCEPT mutation resulted in {genetic
variation / different allele / advantageous
allele}
• viral disease acts as selection pressure (1)

• some rabbits had advantageous allele(s) that enabled them to IGNORE gene / immune / characteristics
survive (the viral disease) (1) ACCEPT converse

• (these) rabbits reproduced and passed the advantageous IGNORE gene

allele(s) on to their offspring (1)

• increasing the frequency of the {advantageous / beneficial} IGNORE gene

allele(s) (1)

• one gene may have greater effect so there will be a greater

change in allele frequencies for this gene (1)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
3(a) An explanation that makes reference to three of the following points:
(3)
• many hydrogen bonds form between {cellulose molecules /
microfibrils} (1)

• microfibrils arranged in {layers / sheets} at different angles (1) ACCEPT microfibrils arranged in {criss-
cross pattern / a mesh / matrix / different
directions}

• (microfibril arrangement / it) gives added {tensile strength / IGNORE {lignin / secondary thickening}
rigidity / structural support / stability} (to maintain the providing strength
structure of the xylem) (1) ACCEPT {embedded in / held together by}
{calcium pectate / hemicellulose} to
provide strength

• gaps between cellulose microfibrils allow movement of REJECT if in context of

{water / mineral ions / dissolved solutes} (1) {pits/plasmodesmata} and not cell wall
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
3(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to two of the following points: needs to be about effect of treatment
(2)

• {in normal conditions / with no treatment} A and B absorb clear statement required
similar mass of calcium ions (1)

• both chemicals reduce the {mean mass / absorption} of IGNORE no treatment had higher mass of
calcium ions (1) calcium ions
IGNORE both treatments improve the
transport of calcium ions from root to
other parts of plant

• EDTA {reduces mass in type A more / has greater effect on ACCEPT converse
type A / reduces absorption more in type A} (1) IGNORE A has more calcium ions with
EDTA than type B / converse

• citric acid {reduces mass in type B more / has greater effect ACCEPT converse
on type B / reduces absorption more in type B} (1) IGNORE B has more calcium ions with
citric acid than A / converse
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
3(b)(ii) An answer that makes reference to two of the following points:
(2)
• fewer calcium ions (1) REJECT calcium unqualified

resulting in reduced {calcium pectate / middle lamella} (1)

• therefore, EDTA reduces the {strength / stability} of the cell IGNORE calcium pectate strengthens cell
wall in the roots of type A (1) wall

Question Answer Mark

Number
4(a)(i) The only correct answer is B formation of microtubules
(1)
A is not correct because the centriole is not involved in lysosome formation

C is not correct because the centriole is not involved in RNA formation

D is not correct because the centriole is not involved in vesicle formation

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
4(a)(ii)
• viewed from a different angle / one was transverse and one is (1)
longitudinal when the cell was {sliced / cut} (1)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
4(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following points: Example of diagram
(3)
• 4 pairs of chromosomes each joined at centromere (1)

• lined up vertically on equator (1)

• spindle fibres and centrioles shown (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
4(b)(ii) A description that makes reference to two of the following points:
(2)

• centromere {splits / divides} (1)

• {spindle fibres / microtubules} contract (1)

• one copy of each chromosome pulled to {poles / sides} of ACCEPT on a diagram

cell (1) ACCEPT the chromosomes {are separated
/ pulled apart / move apart}
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
4(c) • 6 / six (hours) REJECT answers given as fractions
(1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
4(d)
• the number of cells in mitosis divided by the total number of ACCEPT correct equation (1)
cells (× 100) IGNORE cells with visible chromosomes /
dividing cells
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
5(a)
• initial doubling to 4 a.u. (1) (3)

• staying at {4 a.u. / new DNA content}

for a period of time and then {halving /
returning back to 2 a.u.} for a period of
time (1)

• reduction of DNA content to {haploid / 1

a.u.} with no further {increase /
decrease} (1)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
5(b) A calculation in which: Example of calculation:
(2)
• correct measurement and conversion (1) 16 × 1000= 16 000 µm
ACCEPT tolerance of ±0.5 mm

• correct magnification given to two significant figures (1) 16 000 ÷ 24= ×670
max 1 if given incorrect unit
ACCEPT 2 sig fig answers in range 650 to
690
ACCEPT answers in standard form

Correct answer scores full marks

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
5(c) A description that makes reference to five of the following points:
(5)
• tube created due to release of {digestive / hydrolytic}
enzymes (1)

• {nucleus / nuclei / gamete(s)} transported to {ovule / ovary / REJECT pollen transported

micropyle / egg cell / polar nuclei / female gamete} (1)

• generative nucleus divides to form two {male / haploid} IGNORE gametes / sperm / cells
nuclei (1) REJECT forms two × {generative nucleus}
REJECT diploid / meiosis

• double fertilisation occurs (1)

• one (male) nucleus fuses with {egg cell / haploid / female} REJECT generative nucleus {fusing /
nucleus resulting in formation of zygote (1) fertilizing}
ecf for gametes / sperm
IGNORE cells

• one male nucleus fuses with the two polar {nuclei / bodies} REJECT generative nucleus {fusing /
resulting in formation of endosperm (nucleus) (1) fertilizing}
ecf for gametes / sperm
IGNORE cells
Question Answer Mark
Number
5(d)(i) The only correct answer is A 15
(1)
B is not correct because 0.036 × 418 = 15 heterozygotes

C is not correct because 0.036 × 418 = 15 heterozygotes

D is not correct because 0.036 × 418 = 15 heterozygotes

Question Answer Mark

Number
5(d)(ii) The only correct answer is C
(1)
A is not correct because leaf width shows continuous variation

B is not correct because leaf width is determined by multiple alleles for several genes

D is not correct because leaf width shows continuous variation

Question Answer Mark
Number
6(a)(i) The only correct answer is C Y
(1)
A is not correct because the xylem is Y

B is not correct because the xylem is Y

D is not correct because the xylem is Y

Question Answer Mark

Number
6(a)(ii) The only correct answer is B W
(1)
A is not correct because the phloem is W

C is not correct because the phloem is W

D is not correct because the phloem is W

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
6(a)(iii) An answer that makes reference to the following points:
(3)
• millipede gains {water / mineral ions} from xylem (1) IGNORE xylem contains {water / mineral
ions}

• millipede gains {sucrose / organic solutes / organic IGNORE glucose

substances / amino acids} from phloem (1) IGNORE phloem contains {sucrose /
organic solutes}
IGNORE nutrients / sugar / water from
phloem

• appropriate description of use of gained material (1) e.g. {sucrose / glucose} used for
respiration / amino acids to allow growth
/ energy source for growth / water for
hydrolysis reactions / water for solvent /
water to prevent dehydration / calcium
ions for exoskeleton
ACCEPT more efficient than getting from
other sources
IGNORE nitrates
IGNORE increase survival of millipede
IGNORE produce energy
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
6(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following points:
(2)
• (hard exoskeleton) for {defence / protection} from ACCEPT for muscle attachment to allow
{predators / damage} / protection of {tissues / organs} (1) movement
ACCEPT to protect soft insides /
withstand high pressure
ACCEPT it can’t be eaten
ACCEPT to prevent {dehydration / loss of
water}
IGNORE protection unqualified
IGNORE camouflage / survival / help
make holes
IGNORE for movement unqualified

• (poison glands) kill {predators / prey} / for {defence / IGNORE to digest plants
protection / deterrent} from predators (1)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
6(b)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following points:
(2)
• analysis of {genotype / phenotype} of both species of millipede e.g. looking at {DNA/mRNA/amino acid/
(1) gene / allele} {sequences / structure} /
protein structure / named phenotypic
characteristics / proteomics / molecular
phylogeny
IGNORE genetic mapping

• identification of the number of {similarities / differences} ACCEPT the more similarities the more
between the two species (1) closely related / converse
IGNORE compare sequences unqualified
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
6(c) An answer that makes reference to three of the following points:
(3)
Similarities: max 2
• correct similarity (1) e.g. both contain a cell membrane
both contain cell wall
• second correct similarity (1) both contain ribosomes
both contain cytoplasm
both contain glycogen granules
both contain {DNA / genetic material}
REJECT incorrect similarities

Differences: max 2
• correct difference (1) e.g. differences in cell wall / nucleus /
nucleoid / mitochondria / type of
• second correct difference (1) ribosome / pilus / flagellum / DNA format
REJECT incorrect differences
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
7(a) An explanation that makes reference to three of the following points:
(3)
• all introns {cut out / removed} (1) REJECT some introns removed

• some exons {cut out / removed} (1) IGNORE exons removed unqualified

• by {spliceosomes / enzymes} (1) ACCEPT splicing / pre-mRNA spliced

• exons are joined together to form active mRNA (1) ACCEPT exons can be {rearranged /
joined together in different order}
IGNORE coding regions

Question Answer Mark

Number
7(b)(i) The only correct answer is C rough endoplasmic reticulum
(1)
A is not correct because the Golgi apparatus does not have ribosomes on its surface

B is not correct because mitochondria do not have ribosomes on its surface

D is not correct because smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not have ribosomes on its surface
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
7(b)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following point:
(1)
• (site of) {translation / polypeptide synthesis} (1) ACCEPT {produce / make} {polypeptides /
1° structure}
ACCEPT form {chains / sequence} of
amino acids
IGNORE proteins

Question Answer Mark

Number
7(b)(iii) The only correct answer is B polypeptide and RNA strand
(1)
A is not correct because Z is RNA

C is not correct because X is a polypeptide

D is not correct because X is a polypeptide

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
7(c)(i) An answer that makes reference to the following points:
(2)
• binds {methyl group / CH3 molecule} to DNA (1) REJECT (occurring on) histones / amino
acids
IGNORE {removing / bringing} methyl
groups

• to {cytosine / CpG} (in promoter region) (1) REJECT cysteine

Question
Answer
Number
*7(c)(ii) Answers will be credited according to candidate’s deployment of knowledge and understanding of the material in relation to the
qualities and skills outlined in the generic mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all the material indicated as relevant.
Additional content included in the response must be scientific and relevant.

• over the 21 days the tumour volume increased in all four groups
• there was the greatest increase in tumour volume in group A / lowest increase in group D
• group D increased in a similar way to group B and C until day 13 / group D decreases in volume after day 15
• higher concentration of peperomin E extract resulted in a smaller tumour mass
• after 21 days there was the {greatest mean tumour mass in group A / untreated group} / after 21 days there was the {lowest
mean tumour mass in group D / current treatment}
• {current drug / D} most effective / converse
• higher concentration of peperomin E extract is more effective than lower / converse

• tumour {increases / formation} due to {mitosis / uncontrolled cell division}

• higher mitotic index in group A / converse
• {peperomin E extract / current drug} reduces mitotic rate
• {peperomin E extract / drug(s)} {removes methyl groups on gene / is involved in demethylation / inhibits DNMT}
• suggestions of method of action for current drug
• demethylation allows {transcription factors / RNA polymerase} to bind / DNA uncoils / euchromatin / no supercoiling eq
• {RASSF1 / tumour suppressor} gene is {activated / switched on}
• {RASSF1 / tumour suppressor} gene is transcribed / translation occurs / {RASSF1 / tumour suppressor} protein synthesised

• {RASSF1 / tumour suppressor gene} protein slows down {cell division / growth of tumours} / suitable suggestions of function
of tumour suppressor protein e.g. disruption of spindle fibres (ignore gene slows cell division etc)
• no information on starting mass of tumour / do not know if the mass of tumour increased with current drug
• suitable comments on methodology of investigation e.g. only done on lung cancer tumours / short time scale / don’t know
long term effect / no comparison of side effects from different drugs / no SD bars so unsure if significant difference between
groups / small numbers of mice / no information on controlled variables / overlapping of volume lines for the 2 peperomin
concentrations / no current drug concentration information
(6)
 Additional guidance
Level 0 0 No awardable content
Level 1 1-2 An explanation may be attempted but with limited interpretation or analysis of the scientific information and
with a focus on mainly just one piece of scientific information.
The explanation will contain basic information, with some attempt made to link knowledge and understanding to
the given context.
Level 2 3-4 An explanation will be given, with occasional evidence of analysis, interpretation and / or evaluation of both
pieces of scientific information.
The explanation shows some linkages and lines of scientific reasoning, with some structure.
Level 3 5-6 An explanation is made that is supported throughout by sustained application of relevant evidence of analysis,
interpretation and / or evaluation of both pieces of scientific information.
The explanation shows a well-developed and sustained line of scientific reasoning, which is clear and logically
structured.
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
8(a)(i) An explanation that makes reference to two of the following points:
(2)
• {cats / rats} {ate / destroyed / preyed on} the {eggs / chicks / ACCEPT fewer chicks hatch
plovers} (1)

• few(er) chicks to {reproduce / survive to breeding age} / ACCEPT death rate higher than birth
fewer birds to reproduce (next year) (1) rate

• increased competition for food / {rats / cats} carried IGNORE habitat loss
diseases which killed the birds (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
8(a)(ii)
36 REJECT answers given as fractions (1)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
8(b)(i) An answer that makes reference to two of the following points:
(2)
• consideration of analysis of {alleles / gene pool} (1) IGNORE store in seedbanks
ACCEPT {maintenance / increase} of
genetic {variation / diversity} of trees
ACCEPT outbreeding / breed trees with
different alleles
REJECT if context of a different organism

• take pollen from one gumwood tree and use it to pollinate ACCEPT {artificial / manual} {pollination /
another gumwood tree (1) fertilisation}
ACCEPT descriptions of {artificial /
manual} {pollination / fertilisation}
ACCEPT {asexual reproduction / cloning}
of St Helena trees
IGNORE captive breeding / IVF

• planting of {seeds / young saplings / shoots} {where they won’t IGNORE planting unqualified
be grazed by rabbits / in a safe area / protected area / area with IGNORE captivity
no rabbits} (1) IGNORE comments relating to {planting /
protecting} {adult / existing} trees
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
8(b)(ii) An answer that makes reference to the following points:
(2)
• build {fences / barriers} around young trees / spray trees with ACCEPT grow in areas with no rabbits e.g.
chemical to deter rabbits (1) greenhouse
IGNORE give rabbits other sources of
food

• to prevent rabbits from being able to eat {trees / shoots} (1)

Or

• {kill rabbits / reduce rabbit population / introduce predators} (1)

• to reduce risk of young trees being eaten / fewer {trees /

shoots} are eaten (1)
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
8(b)(iii) A description that includes four of the following points:
(4)
• St Helena gumwood seeds would be selected from {different ACCEPT collect seeds with different
trees / different areas / genetically different trees} (1) alleles
REJECT collect seeds from different
species
ACCEPT {germination / growth /
pollination} of plants to collect new
seeds
• seeds would be x-rayed (1)

• seeds would be prepared by being {dried / dehydrated} (1) ACCEPT store in {dry conditions / low
humidity}

• seeds would be treated with an antimicrobial (1) ACCEPT sterilised / disinfected

IGNORE wash seeds / clean seeds
IGNORE sterile container

• seeds would be stored in suitable conditions (1) e.g. seeds are frozen / placed in
{temperatures below 0°C / freezer} /
store in a vacuum
IGNORE low temperatures / cool space
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
Number
8(c)(i) An answer that includes the following points:
(3)
• N(N-1) correctly calculated (1) 818120

• ∑n(n-1) correctly calculated (1) 566906

• D=1.44 (1) ecf for mp3

ACCEPT standard form to 2 d.p.

correct answer on answer line scores 3

marks

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

Number
8(c)(ii) ecf applies
• {agree / yes} because the {D value / diversity index / number} ACCEPT agree because habitat 2 has (1)
for {habitat 1 / 1.44} is smaller / agree because the {D value / more species / converse
diversity index / number} for {habitat 2 / 2.80} is larger IGNORE habitat 2 has higher biodiversity
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